question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
What diagnosis is suggested by the finding on the sole of this patient's foot? | [
"Chemical burn",
"Pemphigus",
"Thrombotic vasculopathy",
"Radiation dermatitis"
] | C | Answer C. Thrombotic vasculopathyThe purpuric skin eruption has a netlike arrangement referred to as retiform. Retiform purpura is an indication of an acute thrombotic vasculopathy. If it is acute and rapidly progressive in a febrile patient, it suggests purpura fulminans. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Length of the external auditory canal is | [
"20 mm",
"22 mm",
"24 mm",
"15 mm"
] | C | EXTERNAL AUDITORY CANAL
It starts at the external auditory meatus and ends at the tympanic membrane, where a bony structure (bony outer attic wall at tympanic membrane, where ECA ends) projects, called scutum.
It is almost S-shaped curved canal of about 24 mm length.
It has - outer cartilaginous part (2/3rd) and - inner bony part (l/3rd).
It is directed upwards, backward and medially in the outer part and downwards, forwards and medially in the inner part.
The periosteum is very firmly adherent in EAC and hence even a minor infection like a furuncle is extremely painful. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a 6 membered family, there are two parents and four children all aged between 2-6 years. On eof the children is completely immunized for his age, whereas other 3 siblings are totally unimmunized. One of the unimmunized child developed measles. 6 days later 2 other children developed measles. SAR is? | [
"zero",
"33%",
"66%",
"100%"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 100% o In this family of 6 members: Parents are not susceptilble because adults are usually not susceptible to measles. 1 child is immunized --> Not susceptile for measles Remaining 3 children are non-immunized --> susceptible for measles. All 3 susceptible children developed measles within one incubation period (Incubation period of measles is 23 weeks) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of CTEV ? | [
"Ahrogryposis multiplex congenita",
"Spina bifida",
"Idiopathic",
"Neural tube defect"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Idiopathic Causes of CTEV CTEV may be either primary or secondary 1. Primary or Idiopathic It is the most common type of CTEV Foot deformity (CTEV) is the only manifestation, otherwise musculoskeletal system is normal. 2. Secondary CTEV is a local manifestation of a systemic syndrome. Causes are :- Neurological disorders & neural tube defects eg myelomeningocele, & spinal dysraphism Paralytic disorder (due to muscular imbalance) as polio, spina bifida, myelodysplasia, & Fredreich's ataxia Ahrogiyposis multiplexa Larsen syndrome Freeman- Sheldon syndrome Diastrophic dwarfism Sacral agenesis, tibial deficiency, constriction rings & amniotic bands | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is false about Garre’s osteomyelitis? | [
"Affects children and young adults",
"Generally involves the mandible",
"It occurs in pulpally exposed mandibular first molar",
"None of the above"
] | D | → Affects children and young adults.
→ Generally involves the mandible.
→ It occur in pulpally exposed mandibular first molar.
→ Spreads only slightly into the interior of the bone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10-month-child weighing 5 kg and with 65 cm length, presents with cough and cold. He was found to have a respiratory rate of 48 per minute with no retractions, grunting, cyanosis. There is no history of convulsions. Which is true? | [
"No pneumonia, only cough and cold",
"Child has pneumonia",
"Severe pneumonia",
"Very severe disease"
] | A | a. No pneumonia, only cough and cold(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2088-2093, Ghai 8/e p 379-381)Cut-off for fast breathing:Age<2 months2-12 months12-60 monthsRespiratory Rate>=60/min>=50/min>=40/minSo this baby does not have fast breathing; So this child has No pneumonia, only cough and cold, even though the child is malnourished (wt=5kg at 10 months against expected of 9kg). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4 year old girl presents with severe vomiting after viral fever of 6 days. She develops cerebral edema later on. What would be the liver biopsy finding? | [
"Centrizonal haemorrhagic necrosis",
"Marked microvesicular steatosis",
"Ring granuloma",
"NASH"
] | B | Micrograph demonstrating marked (macrovesicular) steatosis in non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Masson&;s trichrome stain, When the vesicles are large enough to disto the nucleus, the condition is known as macrovesicular steatosis; otherwise, the condition is known as microvesicular steatosis. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common name for Trichuris trichura | [
"Round worm",
"Whip worm",
"Tape worm",
"Seat worm"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Management of a case of iliac aery embolism requires | [
"Embolectomy",
"Injection of vasodilators",
"Hypotensive therapy",
"Sympathectomy"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Embolectomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renal vein thrombosis is associated with which underlying disease of the kidney? | [
"Chronic glomerulonephritis",
"Pyelonephritis",
"SLE",
"Nephrotic syndrome"
] | D | Renal vein thrombosis (RVT) - occurs most commonly in patients with nephrotic syndrome The syndrome is responsible for a hypercoagulable state. Kidneys are enlarged Hematuria is present The excessive urinary protein loss is associated with decreased antithrombin III, a relative excess of fibrinogen, and changes in other clotting factors; all lead to a propensity to clot. Magnetic resonance venography -Most sensitive and specific noninvasive form of imaging to make the diagnosis of renal vein thrombosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensory block for lower segment caesarian section is given at the level of? | [
"T4",
"T6",
"T8",
"T10"
] | A | Ans. a. T4 (Ref: www.ajol.info/index.php/sajaa/article/viewFile/62297/50293)'Caesarean sections require sensory blockade up to the T4 dermatome level, as this not only blocks the somatic sensations of the Caesarean sections but also eliminates the visceral pain from peritoneal manipulation. - www.ajol.info/index.php/ sajaa/article/viewFile/62297/50293Spinal Anesthesia for Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS)Spinal anesthesia, which blocks the nerve roots as they course through the subarachnoid space, has become the preferred technique for LSCSs.This is because general anaesthesia is associated with a higher incidence of pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents and failed endotracheal intubations compared to other types of surgery, causing higher rates of morbidity and mortality'.Furthermore, spinal anesthesia offers less neonatal exposure to potentially depressant drugs and allows early bonding between mothers and their babies, as mothers are awake throughout the procedure.Cesarean sections require sensory blockade up to the T4 dermatome level, as this not only blocks the somatic sensations of the Caesarean sections but also eliminates the visceral pain from peritoneal manipulation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following alpha blocker is useful in BPH? | [
"Phentolamine",
"Prazosin",
"Tolazoline",
"Phenoxybenzamine"
] | B | BPH is treated with the alpha-blocker terazosin, prazosin, or doxazosin to relax the prostate, and finasteride or dutasteride to decrease the mass of the prostate. Must know: Prazosin is a peripheral acting alpha-adrenergic blocker used primarily to treat hypeension. Phentolamine is an a-adrenergic blocker used for controlled hypotension, treatment of perioperative hypeensive crisis that may accompany pheochromocytoma removal, prevention or treatment of dermal necrosis or sloughing after intravenous administration or extravasation of barbiturate or sympathomimetic. Tolazoline is a competitive a1 and a2 adrenergic blocking agent. It also relaxes vascular smooth muscles, producing a peripheral vasodilatation. Phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible, non-competitive a1 and a2 adrenergic receptor antagonist which decreases vascular resistance and lowers both the supine and the standing blood pressure. Ref: Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Occupations By Ruth Woodrow, Bruce J. Colbe, David M. Smith, 2010, Page 474; Advanced Therapy of Prostate Disease By Main I. Resnick, Ian Murchie Thompson, 2000, Page 533; Goodman and Gillman's, 11th edition, Page 172,173,183. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient needs antibiotic treatment for Aificial valve, culture positive infective entercoccal endocarditis. His medical history include several anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. The best approach would be treatment with | [
"Amoxicillin clavulanic acid",
"Aztreonam",
"Cefazolin plus gentamicin",
"Vancomycin"
] | D | Ref-KDT 6/e 732 * Severe allergy to penicillins rule out the use of amoxicillin and cefazolin. * Vancomycin is highly effective against MRSA and enterococcal intections. * Drugs for VRSA and VRE (Vancomvcin Resistant enterococcus faecalis) include linezolid and daptomycin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10 year old male patient complains of spacing between his upper front teeth. On clinical examination, a midline diastema is seen. It is noted that the patient is in the mixed dentition period. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment protocol for this patient? | [
"Frenectomy followed by orthodontic space closure",
"No intervention, spontaneous resolution",
"Fixed orthodontic therapy",
"Removable appliance to close the midline diastema"
] | B | Around the age of 8 years, a midline diastema is commonly seen in the upper arch, which is usually misinterpreted by the parents as a malocclusion. Crowns of canines in young jaws impinge on developing lateral incisor roots, thus driving the roots medially and causing the crowns to flare laterally. The roots of the central incisors are also forced together thus causing a maxillary midline diastema. The period from the eruption of lateral incisor to canine is termed as the Ugly Duckling stage. It is an unaesthetic metamorphosis, which eventually leads to an aesthetic result. With eruption of canines, the impingement from the roots shifts incisally thus driving the incisor crowns medially, resulting in closure of the diastema.
Textbook of Orthodontics, Gurkeerat Singh, 2nd ed Page 40-41 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of HIV infection in infant is – | [
"Perinatal transmission",
"Breast milk",
"Transplacental",
"Umbilical cord sepsis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Obstruction of IVC leads to | [
"Dilatation of thoracoepigastric veins",
"Caput medusae",
"Hemorrhoids",
"Esophageal varices"
] | A | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the primary gland responsible for thermoregulatory sweating in humans? | [
"Apocrine gland",
"Eccrine gland",
"Sebaceous gland",
"Holocrine gland"
] | B | Human sweat glands are generally divided into two types: apocrine and eccrine. The eccrine gland is the primary gland responsible for thermoregulatory sweating in humans. Eccrine sweat glands are distributed over nearly the entire body surface. Apocrine glands are located only in genital, axillary and mammary areas. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition, Pg 3.12 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Esotrotropia is most commonly associated with | [
"Hyperopia",
"Myopia",
"presbyopia",
"Astigmatism"
] | A | Near vision impaired they try to compensate by increasing their accomodation Infants are hyperopic by 2.5 D they are esotropic at bih ref : ak khurana 7th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neutral amino acid is - | [
"Aspartate",
"Arginine",
"Glycine",
"Histidine"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glycine Neutral amino acidsAcidic amino acidsBasic amino acidsAlanineAspartic acid (aspartate)ArginineAspargingGlutamic acid (glutamate)HistidineCysteineGlycineGlutaminelsoleucineLeucineMethionineProlinePhenylalanineSerineThreonineTyrosineTryptophanValine Lysine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Small round cell tumors - | [
"Wilm's tumor",
"Retinoblastoma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"All"
] | D | Characterized by small round.. Undifferentiated cells. Patternless sheets of cells with high cellullarity. And high N: C ratio. Include ewings sarcoma, peripheral neuroectodermal tumour, thabdomyosarcoma, synol sarcoma, non-hodgkins lymphoma, retinoblastoma etc | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Gastrocolic reflex' is related with? | [
"GERD",
"Mass peristalsis",
"Duodenual reflex",
"Rectoanal refelx"
] | B | Mass peristalsis Gastrocolic reflex: Facilitates appearance of mass movements after a meal. Ex., For gastrocolic reflex - Seen in early infancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Child with agammaglobinemia with respiratory tract infection and diarrhoea is most likely having infection- | [
"Cocksackie virus",
"Rota Virus",
"Shigella",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acrodermatitis entropathica is seen with deficiency of? | [
"Zinc",
"Iron",
"Copper",
"Vit A"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e., Zinc Acrodermatitis enteropathica Zinc absorption in young patients with acrodermatitis enteropathica is low. Typically stas after weaning or earlier if the infant is not given breast milk. The child turns peevish, withdrawn and photophobic, and develops a vesicobullous dermatitis on hands, feet and periorificial areas. The scalp hair is lost. Diarrhoea is often present. Growth is stunted and there is a decreased resistance to infections. Wound healing is poor and skin lesions do not heal. Oral zinc in a dose of about 2 mg/kg/day. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Protector or inhibitor of Apoptosis | [
"BCL-2",
"BRCA",
"RB",
"TGF –β"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Markers of plasma membrane are | [
"Glactosyl transferase",
"5-Nucleotidase",
"Adenyl cyclase",
"ATP synthase"
] | B | Markers of plasma membrane areMarker enzyme for mitochondria is ATP SynthaseMarker enzyme for golgi complex is GalactosyltransferaseAdenylyl cyclase appears to be a good marker enzyme for plasma membranes5'-Nucleotidase (5NT) is an intrinsic membrane glycoprotein that is present as an enzyme in a wide variety of mammalian cells. It facilitates the hydrolysis of the phosphate group from 5'-nucleotides, resulting in corresponding nucleosides. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Silver sulphadiazine cream is used in burn wounds because | [
"It has soothing effect",
"Covers pseudomonas",
"Covers MRSA",
"Covers both Pseudomonas and MRSA"
] | D | Silver sulphadiazine cream (1 percent) gives broadspectrum prophylaxis against bacterial colonisation and is paicularly effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa and also methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Options for burns dressing include1% silver sulphadiazine cream0.5% silver nitrate solutionMafenide acetate creamSerum nitrate, silver sulphadiazine and cerium nitrateBailey and Love 26e pg: 393 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 22yrs old male suffer from decreased sleep, increased sexual activity, excitement and spending excessive money for 8 days. The diagnosis is | [
"Confusion",
"Mania",
"Hyperactivity",
"Loss of memory"
] | B | Symptomatic profile of the patient suggests the diagnosis, Characteristic Feature of Mania: Elation of Mood Delusion of Grandeur Increased psychomotor activity (usually goal oriented) Speech and thought: More talkative Pressure of speech, use playful language Flight of ideas Reduced sleep Over activity and poor judgment - this person is involved in high risk activities like buying sprees, reckless driving, foolish business investments, distributing money or aicles of unknown persons. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary bile acids are synthesised by: | [
"Liver",
"Intestine",
"Both liver and intestine",
"Pancreas"
] | B | Bile acids are synthesized in the liver. Bile acids are divided into primary or secondary: Primary bile acids are synthesized in the liver and secondary bile acids are synthesized from primary bile acids in the intestine by colonic bacteria. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2461. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The independence of renal blood flow from mean systemic aerial pressure is termed: | [
"Glomerulo-tubular balance",
"Distal tubule-glomerular feedback",
"Flow dependence of renal oxygen consumption",
"Autoregulation"
] | D | This is the definition of autoregulation. Such regulation is independent of influences from outside the organ. It involves adjustments in the resistance at the afferent glomerular aeriole. Two processes are apparently involved in this regulation: myogenic control of the afferent aeriole and distal tubule-glomerular feedback. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 8 month old child is suffering from diarrhea.
What is the dose of zinc to be given | [
"20 mg / day for 7 days",
"10 mg / day for 14 days",
"10 mg / day for 7 days",
"20 mg / day for 14 days"
] | D | Age group
Dose of zinc
2 - 6 months
10 mg / day for 10 - 14 days
> 6 months
20 mg / day for 10 - 14 days | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year old pregnant lady presents with thrombocyto-penia (Platelet count < 50,000) and fragmented ' RBC's in peripheral smear. Which of the following is the least likely differentail diagnosis? | [
"Thrombotic Thrombocytopentic Purpura (TTP)",
"Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)",
"HELLP syndrome",
"Evan's syndrome"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Call Exner Bodies are seen in : | [
"Dyserminomas",
"Hilus cell tumours",
"Brenner's",
"Granulosa cell tumours"
] | D | Granulosa cell tumours | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old manic patient was prescribed Haloperidol one week back. For the last two days he has become restless and kept pacing in the room for a day. On examinarion he was found to have tremors of hand. He is most likely suffering from | [
"Anhedonia",
"Dystonia",
"Restless leg syndrome",
"Akathesia"
] | D | D i.e. Akathisia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for a slow developing mass in tail of parotid gland in a 40 year old male is ? | [
"Radical parotidectomy",
"Superficial Parotidectomy",
"Superficial Parotidectomy with neck dissection",
"Enucleation"
] | B | Treatment of choice for pleomorphic Adenoma In parotid gland : Superficial parotidectomy In other salivary glands : Excision of the affected gland Treatment of Salivary gland Tumors Surgery Principle treatment of cancer of salivary glands is surgical excision, used either as a single modality or in most cases, in conjunction with adjuvant therapy Parotid Malignancies Superficial parotidectomy with preservation of facial nerve Total parotidectomy with nerve preservation if deep lobe is involved Other salivary glands En-bloc excision of tumor (Involved gland) Neck dissection for lymph nodes : In clinically palpable nodes and high grade malignancies Radiotherapy Indications of radiotherapy in Salivary Gland Tumors High grade tumors Large primary lesions Perineural invasion Bone invasion Cervical LN metastasis Positive surgical margins No role of chemotherapy in salivary gland Tumors due to incomplete and sho lived response without any survival advantage Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :789 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 9 yr old girl has a bleeding diathesis, with prolonged APTT but normal PT, and normal platelet count. The diagnosis is - | [
"Factor V deficiency",
"Haemophilia A",
"Haemophila B",
"VonWillebrand's disease"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The average diameter of coronal dentinal tubules near the pulp is: | [
"0.2-0.5 microns",
"2-3 microns",
"0.2-0.3 microns",
"7 microns"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chlorine exerts a disinfectant action in all except | [
"Cetrimide",
"Bleaching Powder",
"Halozone tablets",
"Sodium hypochlorite"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pyramids are formed by | [
"Arcuate nucleus",
"Vestibular nuclei",
"Interstitial cells of cajal",
"Lateral coicospinal tract"
] | D | The pyramidal tracts include both the coicospinal and coicobulbar tracts. These are aggregations of upper motor neuron nerve fibres that travel from the cerebral coex and terminate either in the brainstem (coicobulbar) or spinal cord (coicospinal) and are involved in control of motor functions of the body.The coicospinal tract conducts impulses from the brain to the spinal cord. It is made up of a lateral and anterior tract. The coicospinal tract is involved in voluntary movement. The majority of fibres of the coicospinal tract cross over in the medulla, resulting in muscles being controlled by the opposite side of the brain. The coicospinal tract also contains Betz cells (the largest pyramidal cells), which are not found in any other region of the body.The nerves within the coicospinal tract are involved in movement of muscles of the body. Because of the crossing-over of fibres, muscles are supplied by the side of the brain opposite to that of the muscle. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:765,766,767 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Central obesity is seen in; | [
"Cushing's disease",
"Chron's disease",
"Conns disease",
"Celiac disease"
] | A | Among given options Central obesity is seen in Cushing's disease. CUSHING'S DISEASE: Form of Cushing's syndrome in which pituitary gland releases too much of ACTH Features of Cushing's syndrome: Moon facies Centripetal Obesity Proximal myopathy Violet/ purple Striae, Thin skin, Purpura Buffalo hump Weight gain / Lemon on sticks description | Peripheral resistance - HTN Insulin resistance - sugar FBS > 126 mg%; 2hr > 200 mg% Coisol | - Activates ENaC - causes salt & water retention; Hypokalemic alkalosis Coisol | - Activates Sex steroid receptors Female - Hirsutism, weight gain, oligomenorrhea, infeility Hyperpigmentation: (+-) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ultra low volume fogging is done for: | [
"DDT",
"Malathion",
"Pyrethroid",
"Abate"
] | B | Ref: Park 'Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine', 22nd' edition, Pg: 728 -9 A- NVBDCP website available from style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">.in/Doc dengue_ I20 Director_Desk:20 DGHS: 20 meeting; 20 OCT :2006.pdfExplanation:Under the public health programme, ULV spray (fogging) is undertaken by using 95% or pure technical malathion.As a low volume spray (ULV), Malathion has been widely used for killing adult mosquitoes to prevent or interrupt dengue-hemorrhagic fever and mosquito borne encephalitis epidemicsDDT is used as indoor residual spraying for control of malariaPyrethroids is used as space sprayAbate is used to control vector breading in domestic drinking water containers such as well | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diabetes mellitis diagnosed when - | [
"Fasting blood glucose is 100 and post prandial 140",
"Fasting blood sugar 125 and 2 hour postprandial blood sugar is 199",
"Insulin level......",
"HbA1c > 6.5%"
] | D | Criteria for the diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus : * Symptoms of diabetes plus random blood glucose concentration >=11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL)a or * Fasting plasma glucose >=7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL)b or * Hemoglobin A1c >= 6.5%c or * 2-h plasma glucose >= 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) during an oral glucose tolerance test Reference : page 2401 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following TPN, one expects weight gain after - | [
"2 days",
"7 days",
"4 weeks",
"6 weeks"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is known to cause metabolic bone disease? | [
"Vit A, Vit B",
"Vit A, Vit E",
"Vit D, Vit A",
"Vit C, Vit E"
] | C | Vit D excess increase intestinal calcium absorption and if severe, also increase bone resorption. Vit A intoxication cause hypercalcemia and presumed to increase bone resorption. Metabolic Bone Disease: The common metabolic disease is associated in varying degree with depletion of bone tissue or bone mineral and (in some cases) with systemic features of altered mineral metabolism The most common condition fall into three group: Osteoporosis: In which the quantity of bone mass is abnormally low Osteomalacia: In which the osseous connective tissue (osteoid) is present but insufficiently mineralized) Osteitis fibrosa: In which PTH overproduction leads to bone resorption and replacement by fibrous tissue. Ref: Apley's Ohopedics 8/e, Page 112-115 ; Maheshwari 3/e, Page 261 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thoracic duct doesn't drain : | [
"Right upper pa",
"Left upper pa",
"Left lower pa",
"Right lower pa"
] | A | Right upper pa drains lymphatics into the right lymphatic duct whereas the rest of the body drains into the thoracic duct. The thoracic duct is a continuation of cistern chyle as it pass through aoic hiatus at the level of T12. At T5, it crosses to left side and drains at left jugulosubclan venous angle at C5. Ref: Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 979. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The best alternative storage medium for avulsed teeth in
case culture media are not available is | [
"Milk",
"Water",
"Saline",
"Blood"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding sarcoma botryoides except:a) Seen in vaginab) Grape like clusters are seenc) Seen in elderly womend) It is an adenocarcinomae) Familial incidence is common | [
"abd",
"acd",
"cde",
"ade"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 year old patient on USG shows 3 x 4 cm clear ovarian cyst on right side. Next line of management is: | [
"Laparoscopy",
"OC pills",
"Wait and watch",
"Ca-125 estimation"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are advantages of Zinc therapy for Wilson disease except: | [
"It is nontoxic",
"Produces positive copper balance",
"Blocks intestinal absorption of copper",
"Induces hepatic metallothionein synthesis"
] | B | Zinc treatment in wilson disease: It is efficient in Wilson's disease Nontoxic Produces a negative copper balance by blocking intestinal absorption of copper It induces hepatic metallothionein synthesis, which sequesters additional toxic copper Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-3190. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In trauma, which of the following is increased - | [
"Epinephrine",
"ACTH",
"Glucagon",
"All"
] | D | Answer is 'a' i.e. Epinephrine; 'b' i.e. ACTH ; 'c' i.e. Glucagon As already mentioned in one of the previous questions, the neuroendocrine response to injury is an impoant pa of the stress response. The release of various hormones, creates an altered metabolic state which helps the individual to survive through the injury or the adverse circumstances. The neuroendocrine response begins with activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis hypothalmic activation leads to - ADH (or vasopressin) release from the neurohypophysis epinephrine secretion from the adrenal medulla norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerve endings - CRH travels to adenohypophysis, stimualting ACTH production. ACTH acts on adrenal coex, producing coisol release (ACTH also stimulates release of aldosterone from the adrenal coex) About other hormones Insulin - hormones and inflammatory mediators associated with stress response inhibit insulin release. This is required to achieve the hyperglycemic state after injury. Glucagon - increased Aldosterone - increased Thyroid hormones : Thyroxine-no change; T3 - decreased 3 - increased Sex hormones - decreased | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following principles of the cavity preparation is not considered much in modern methods of restorative Dentistry? | [
"Extension for prevention",
"Convenient form",
"removal of the undermined enamel",
"Removal of the carious dentine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rat hole is associated with which injury? | [
"Bomb injury",
"Bum injury",
"Postmortem artifact",
"Bullet injury"
] | D | Ans. d. Bullet injury (Ref: Reddy 33/e p219: Parikh 6/4.43)Rat hole is associated with Bullet injury."Intermediate range shotgun wounds: At a distance of 60--90 cm, single irregular circular aperture 4 to 5 cm with irregular and lacerated edges is produced. The shots are scattered after entering the wound and cause much damage to the internal tissues. At a distance of 1.5 meters, the shot mass enters the body in one mass, producing a round defect. The margins are abraded. At a distance of 2 meters, the shot mass begins to spread. The wound of entry is irregular, with ragged margins (rat hole) about 5 cm in a diameter with a few satellite perforations at the margins of the main defect."FeatureContact ShotClose ShotNear ShotDistant ShotDefinition, Range and Discharge reaching victimIn firm (hard or actual) contact, the muzzle end is pushed hard against the skin and the all discharge from muzzle are blown into the track taken by bulletQ, producing severe disruption of deeper tissuesWhen the victim is within die range of flame. Point blank is used when the range is very close to or in near contact with skin and is with in the range of all discharge from muzzle.When the victim is within the range of gun powder but outside the range of flameWhen the victim is outside the range of all discharges of muzzle except bulletRifled firearm (Revolver, Pistol) range Shot gun range (~)In touch with skin5-8 cm (2.5-7.5 cm) Short range (1-2 meter)Up to 50 cm (60 cm)Intermediate range (2-4 metres)>50 cm (or 60 cm)Long (distant) range (>4 metres)DischargeBullet, gun powder, soot, (smoke, carbon particles), gases, flame (fire, burn, heat) with imprinted barrel marks & tearing in actual contactQBullet, gun powder, soot, gasesand bumBullet, gun powder, and+- sootOnly bullet (+- coarse particles of gun powder)Blast effectMuzzle end imprint, eversion of edges, back spatter, soiling of internal structures & pocket formation, burst (comminution) fracture of skull and crazy paving fracture of base of skullQ are all seenAbsentAbsentAbsentHeat Effect onsurface & clothsAbsentScorching of skin, singeing of hair & burning melting - ironing of cloths presentAbsentAbsentBlackening (smudging)Absent outside present inside the trackQPresent outsideQ the woundAbsent (+-)AbsentTattooingAbsent outside present insidePresent outsidePresent outsideAbsent (+-)Abrasion / Grease collarAbsent outside present insidePresentPresentPresent (skin adjacent to hole shows two zones inner grease & outer abrasion collar)Lead snow stormAbsentAbsentAbsentPresent (on X-ray) in shotgun injuryCarboxy Hb, Cherry red discolorationPresent in wound trackPresent in surrounding tissue+-+-Surrounding skin around entrance wound showsNo burning, blackening (soot), tattooing, abrasion/ grease collarBurning, blackening (soot), tattooing, abrasion / grease collar presentTattooing & abrasion / grease collar presentAbrasion (grease / dirt) collar & lead storm presentEntrance Wound SizeLargestBullet sizeSmallerSmallest due to initial stretching of skinShapeStellate (star shapedQ), triangular, cruciform (cruciateQ) or raged (irregular with crenated & scalloped edges)Circular (or rat holeQ)Circular (central big wound with smaller wounds around)Circular (wide spreadQ)NumberSingleSingleMultipleMultipleEdges (Margin)Scorched, contused, undermined or everted margins from which tears (lacerations) over skin radiating outwards from entrance hole because of expansion of gases (between scalp & skull)Inverted & well definedInvertedInverted | train | med_mcqa | null |
The main Side effect of Imatinib mesylate | [
"Leg ulcers",
"Fluid retention",
"Flagellate hyperpigmentation",
"Irreversible myelosuppression"
] | B | The main side effects are fluid retention, nausea, muscle cramps, diarrhea, and skin rashes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about blue sclera | [
"Seen in osteogenesis impeca",
"Does not seen in Ehlers-danlos syndrome",
"Blue colour is produced by underlying uveal pigment",
"Seen in marfan's syndrome"
] | B | Answer- B. Does not seen in Ehlers-danlos syndromeBlue Sclera is characterized by marked, generalized blue discolouration of sclera due to thinning, The uveal pigment shines through the thin sclera and produces the blue colour.Causes of blue Sclera:Pseudoxanthoma elasticumOsteogenesis imperfectaEhlers-Danlos syndromeMarfan's syndromeAlkaptonuriaHypophosphatasiaJuvenile paget's diseaseNormal in newbornsVan der Hoeve's syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best indicator for coronary aery disease | [
"HDL",
"LDL",
"VLDL",
"Chlomicron"
] | B | Hyperlipidemia is a major risk factor for development of atheroscerosis The main cholesterol component associated with increased risk is LDL (bad cholesterol) Robbins 9th edition page no. 336 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Methods of contraceptions during lactations are all except - | [
"Breast feeding",
"IUD",
"OCPs",
"Minipills"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., OCPs Contraception during lactation Preferred methods of contraception during breast feeding are those that do not interfere with lactation. Methods are : 1. Lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) The probability of pregnancy is very small for first 6-8 months after pregnancy, if the mother is fully breast-feeding her infant, is still amenorrhoeic and the child does not receive additional food. Under these conditions there is only 2% chance of pregnancy. So breast - feeding is a very impoant and efficient contraceptive method during early puerperium - Reffered to as lactation amenorrhea method. 2. Alternative methods Barrier methods, IUD and progesteron only hormonal methods (minipills, implants, injectables) are the primary contraceptive alternatives during breast feeding. They have no adverse effects on lactation, the condition of the infant or maternal ovarian function. Sterilization is only a good alternative only if the family wants a permanent method of contraception. Combined oral contraceptives (estrogen + progesteron) diminish milk production and therefore are not recommended during lactation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Population covered by PHC in a tribal area: March 2011 | [
"20,000",
"30,000",
"40,000",
"50,000"
] | A | Ans. A: 20,000 Population covered by PHC in hilly/tribal areas is 20,000. Primary Health Centers They are the cornerstone of rural health services- a first po of call to a qualified doctor of the public sector in rural areas for the sick and those who directly repo or referred from Sub-centers for curative, preventive and promotive health care. A typical Primary Health Center covers a population of 20,000 in hilly, tribal, or difficult areas and 30,000 populations in plain areas with 4-6 indoor/observation beds. It acts as a referral unit for 6 sub-centers and refer out cases to CHC (30 bedded hospital) and higher order public hospitals located at sub-district and district level. Objectives of Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS) for Primary Health Centers: The overall objective of IPHS is to provide health care that is quality oriented and sensitive to the needs of the community. The objectives of IPHS for PHCs are: - To provide comprehensive primary health care to the community through the Primary Health Centers. - To achieve and maintain an acceptable standard of quality of care. - To make the services more responsive and sensitive to the needs of the community. Minimum Requirements (Assured Services) at the Primary Health Center for meeting the IPHS: Assured services cover all the essential elements of preventive, promotive, curative and rehabilitative primary health care. This implies a wide range of services that include: Medical care: Maternal and Child Health Care including family planning Medical Termination of Pregnancies using Manual Vacuum Aspiration (MVA) technique. (wherever trained personnel and facility exists) Management of Reproductive Tract Infections/Sexually Transmitted Infections Nutrition Services (coordinated with ICDS) School Health Adolescent Health Care Promotion of Safe Drinking Water and Basic Sanitation Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases like malaria, Kalaazar, Japanese Encephalitis, etc. Disease Surveillance and Control of Epidemics: Collection and repoing of vital events Education about health/Behaviour Change Communication (BCC) National Health Programmes including Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH), HIV/AIDS control programme, Non communicable disease control programme - as relevant: Referral Services: Training Basic Laboratory Services Monitoring and Supervision: AYUSH services as per local people's preference (Mainstreaming of AYUSH) Rehabilitation Selected Surgical Procedures R.-cord of Vital Events and Repoing. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Change in structure and functions of a tissue is called: | [
"Dysplasia",
"Metaplasia",
"Anaplasia",
"Aplasia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding Hepatitis E true is: | [
"Occurs with Hepatitis B",
"Single stranded DNA virus",
"Occurs along with HIV",
"Mortality increased in pregnancy"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mortality increased in pregnancy (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 550 and 8th/e, p. 546)* A unique feature of hepatitis E is high case fatality rate of 20 - 40% in pregnant women, especially in the last trimester of pregnancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most potent statin - | [
"Simvastatin",
"Pravastatin",
"Rosuvastatin",
"Simvastatin"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rosuvastatin o Two most potent statins are Pitavastatin (most potent) and rosuvastatin most potent). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for Choriocarcinoma is- | [
"Nitrosourea",
"Gemcitabine",
"Methotrexate",
"Melphalan"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Methotrexate o Drug of choice for brain tumors - Nitrosoureas o Drug of choice for pancreatic Ca. - Gemcitabine o Drug of choice for choriocarcinoma - Methotrexate o Drug of choice for multiple myeloma - Melphalan | train | med_mcqa | null |
Absence-seizures are seen in - | [
"Ground mal epilepsy",
"Myoclonic epilepsy",
"Petitmal epilepsy",
"Hyperkinetic child"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Petitmal epilepsy Absence seizures are also called petitmal or minor epilepsy. o Generalized tonic clonic seizures (GTCS) are also called grand mal or major epilepsy. o Complex paial seizures are also called temporal lobe epilepsy or Psychomotor epilepsy. o Simple paial seizures are also called coical focal epilepsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
High plasma drug concentration of phenytoin can cause which of the following adverse effects ? | [
"Ataxia",
"Hirsutism",
"Gum hyperplasia",
"All of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of these is diagnostic of menopause? | [
"Serum FSH >40",
"Serum LH >20",
"Serum FSH <40",
"Serum estradiol <30"
] | A | Ans, is a, i.e. Serum FSH > 40Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynecology 15th/ed, p62Diagnostic Criteria for Menopause* Estrogen (E2) low at 10-20pg/mL* Estrone (E1) - 30-70pg/mL* E2/E1 < 1* Urine FSH >40IU/L | train | med_mcqa | null |
Evidence of decreased risk of cardiovascular disease is associated with all of the following except- | [
"Vitamin E Supplementation",
"Low to moderate daily alcohol consumption",
"Regular physical activity",
"Potassium"
] | A | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:182 Risk Factors Category I (For which interventions have been proved to lower CVD risks) 1. Raised LDL cholesterol 2. Reduced HDL cholesterol 3. Atherogenic diet 4. Cigarette smoking 5. Hypeension 6. LVH 7. Thrombogenic factors Category II (For which interventions are likely to lower CVD risks) 1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Physical inactivity 3. Increased triglycerides 4. Small dense LDL 5. Obesity Category III (Associated with increased CVD risk that, if modified, might lower risk) 1. Psychosocial factors 2. Increased Lipoprotein a (normal level--0-3 mg/dl) 3. Hyperhomocysteinemias 4. No alcohol consumption 5. Oxidative stress 6. Post-menopausal status Category IV (Associated with increased CVD risk which cannot be modified) 1. Age 2. Male gender 3. Low socio-economic status 4. Family history of early onset CVD | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cremesteric muscle is supplied by - | [
"Genital branch of pudendal nerve",
"Genital branch of obturator nerve",
"Genital branch of femoral nerve",
"Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Genital branch of genitofemoral nerveScrotumo The scrotum is a cutaneous bag containing the right and left testes, the epididymis and the lower parts of spermatic cords. The left half of the scrotum hungs a little lower than the right.o The layers of scrotum from outside to inside are :-i) Skinii) Dartos muscle (smooth muscle layer) continous with Colie's fascia of perineum posteriorly and Scarpa's fascia and Camper's fascia anteriorly .iii) The external spermatic fascia, extension from external oblique.iv) The cremastric muscle, continuous with fascia from internal oblique.v) The internal spermatic fascia, continuous with fascia from fascia transversalis.o Anterior one-third of scrotum is supplied by ilionguinal nerve (L1) and genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve (L1). Posterior two-third of scrotum is spplied by posterior scrotal nerves (S3) and perineal branch of posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh (S3). The dartos muscle and cremasteric muscles are supplied by the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tobey-Ayer test is done for: | [
"Acantholysis",
"Hemoglobinuria",
"Ketosis",
"Lateral sinus thrombosis"
] | D | Tobey - Ayer test This is to record CSF pressure by manometer and to see the effect of manual compression of one or both jugular vein. Compression of vein on the thrombosed side produces no effect while compression of vein on normal side produces rapid rise in CSF pressure which will be equal to bilateral compression of jugular veins It is done for lateral sinus thrombosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pelvic abscess presents as | [
"Pain in perineum",
"Mucoid diarrhea",
"Distension",
"Vomiting"
] | B | Pelvic abscess is the most common intraperitoneal abscess(50-60%). It is the collection of pus in rectovesical or rectouterine pouch(pouch of Douglas). Causes include: appendicitis, pelvic infections, sequelae of diffuse peritonitis, post operative and other causes(Bacteria : Bacteroides fragilis, E.coli, anaerobic streptococci ). It presents as diarrhoea and passage of mucus in stools, high temperature with chills and rigors, lower abdominal pain and distension, frequency and burning micturition. Reference : page 574 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Life-saver shaped enlargements of the marginal gingival
are called | [
"Gingival crater",
"McCall festoons",
"Stillman's cleft",
"Window peaks"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lower level of scapula is at the level of? | [
"T4",
"T5",
"T6",
"T7"
] | D | The inferior angle lies over the 7th rib or the 7th intercoastal space. Reference:page no:17 - vishram singh - upper limb & thorax, 2nd edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Majority of bladder cancers are: | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Adenosquamous carcinoma",
"Squamous carcinoma",
"Transitional cell carcinoma"
] | D | Ans: D (Transitional cell carcinoma) Ref: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery,25th Edition 1334Explanation:Types of Bladder CancerTransitional Carcinoma - 90%Squomous cell carcinoma -5 (Associated with hilharzias)Adenocarcinoma -1-2% ( Arises either from the urachal remnant or from areas of glandular metaplasia)NoteMost common type of Prostrate cancer - AdenocarcinomaMost common type of Renal cell Carcinoma - Adenocarcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Occupational disease of lung caused by inhalation of sugar cane dust is called as: | [
"Byssionosis",
"Bagassosis",
"Anthracosis",
"Silicosis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cartilage differs from bone in that, the cartilage can increase in size by | [
"Apposition",
"Interstitial growth",
"Selective resorption",
"Endosteal remodeling"
] | B | The interstitial growth or expansion capability of cartilage, even under pressure leading to its avascularity, precluding ischemia, (cartilage nutrition is provided by perfusing tissue fluids that are not easily obstructed by load pressures), allows for directed prototype cartilage growth. The cartilage template is then replaced by endochondral bone, accounting for indirect bone growth.
Intramembranous bone growth, by contrast, is by direct apposition of osseous tissue in osteogenic (periosteal) membranes creating accretional growth, often with great speed, especially over rapidly growing areas, such as the frontal lobes of the brain, or at fracture sites.
Ref: Textbook of orthodontics 2nd ed Gurkeerat Singh page no 13 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Injection DMPA is given once in ? | [
"3 days",
"3 week",
"3 months",
"3 years"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3 months Depot formulations (Injectable hormones) They are given i.m. as oily solution 1. Long acting progestin alone Depot medroxy progesterone acetate (DMPA) 150 mg at 3 month intervals. or Norethindrone (norethisterone) enanthate (NEE) 200 mg at 2 months intervals. The most impoant undesirable propey is complete disruption of mestural bleeding pattern and total amenorrhoea (more common with DMPA). 2. Long acting progestin + long acting estrogen - once a month. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A known alcoholic presents to to the emergency room with hematemesis. On examination he has ascites with splenomegaly and
gynaecomastia Diagnosis is - | [
"Portal hypertension secondary to viral hepatitis",
"Budd Chiari Syndrome",
"Portal hypertension due to Alcoholic cirrhosis",
"Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis"
] | C | The patient clearly has portal hypertension due to alcoholic cirrhosis (Gynaecomastia indicates cirrhosis as a cause of portal hypertension). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gastric lavage is NOT done in: September 2012 | [
"Arsenic poisoning",
"Dhatura poisoning",
"Corrosive acid poisoning",
"Organophosphorous poisoning"
] | C | Ans. C i.e. Corrosive acid poisoning Gastriclavage/ Stomach pumping/ Gastric irrigation It is the process of cleaning out the contents of the stomach. Gastric Lavage is contraindicated when patients have a compromised, unprotected airway and in patients at risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage or perforation. Relative contraindications include when the poisoning is due to a corrosive substance, hydrocarbons, or for poisons that have an effective antidote. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Uterine fibromyoma is associated with: | [
"Endometriosis",
"Pelvic inflammatory disease",
"Ovarian Ca",
"Amenorrhea"
] | A | Diseases commonly associated with leiomyomas are:
Follicular cysts of ovary
Endometrial hyperplasia
Endometrial cancer
Endometriosis
It is sometimes said salpingitis (i.e. pelvic inflammatory disease) is a common finding in patients of fibroid, but it is not true, the only possible link between the two is infertility (so option "b" is ruled out)
Leiomyomas are associated with follicular cysts of ovaries (Not ovarian cancer-ruling out option "c").
Most common symptom of fibroid is menorrhagia and not amenorrhea (so obviously amenorrhea is not correct).
Now coming to the last option - Tamoxifen.
Tamoxifen causes Endometrial hyperplasia and Endometrial cancer, not Fibromyoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 12-year-old girl was hit in the face by an errant softball pitch while batting and has had her mandibular incisors knocked out. Which of the following represents the best plan of action? | [
"The teeth should be rinsed in hot water then carefully dried.",
"Foreign matter adhering to the teeth should be immediately scrubbed off.",
"The avulsed teeth may be preserved in tea, juice, or cola.",
"The avulsed teeth may be transported in the mouth of a cooperative patient."
] | D | The earlier the permanent teeth are reimplanted, the greater the rate of success, decreasing from 90% in the first 30 minutes to 5% after 2 hours. The rate of success is a function of the integrity of the periodontal ligament. The teeth can be rinsed in cold water, but not brushed (to avoid damaging the root and periodontal ligament). Milk and saline are good transport media if the child is uncooperative or for some other reason the teeth cannot be reinserted at the scene. Teeth may also be transported in the mouth of the older, cooperative patient or the parent. The immediate application of acrylic splints is needed to keep the teeth in place, so urgent dental attention is required. The need for full tetanus immunization should be evaluated. Unless the tooth is available, patients who are suspected of having a total avulsion should be evaluated for partial avulsion or total intrusion with a radiograph. A completely avulsed primary tooth is generally not replaced, to avoid damage to the underlying permanent tooth. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prevention of emergence of risk factor is - | [
"Primordial prevention",
"Primary prevention",
"Secondary prevention",
"Tertiary prevention"
] | A | It is the prevention of the emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If the pocket depth is 5 mm and gingival recession
is 3 mm then the total loss of attachment is: | [
"8 mm",
"3 mm",
"5 mm",
"2 mm"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Registration of bih & death with a 6 monthly survey is done in - | [
"National sample survey",
"Vital statistical system",
"Census",
"Sample registration system"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Sample registration system | train | med_mcqa | null |
Genetic analysis shows N-myc gene in a child. She may have the following malignancy: | [
"Neuroblastoma",
"Retinoblastoma",
"William's tumor",
"Nephroblastoma"
] | A | Neuroblastoma is associated with N-myc amplification. It is associated with a poor prognosis regardless of patient age. Regression of neuroblastoma generally occurs only in tumors with a near triploid number of chromosomes that also lack N-myc amplification and loss of chromosome arm 1p. Ref: Hackam D.J., Grikscheit T.C., Wang K.S., Newman K.D., Ford H.R. (2010). Chapter 39. Pediatric Surgery. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) is required by which of the following steps in protein synthesis? | [
"Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase activation of amino acids",
"Attachment of ribosomes to endoplasmic reticulum",
"Translocation of tRNA-nascent protein complex from A to P sites",
"Attachment of mRNA to ribosomes"
] | C | . Translocation of tRNA-nascent protein complex from A to P sites. Two molecules of GTP are used in the formation of each peptide bond on the ribosome. In the elongation cycle, binding of aminoacyl-tRNA delivered by EF-Tu to the A site requires hydrolysis of one GTE Peptide bond formation then occurs. Translocation of the nascent peptide chain on tRNA to the P site requires hydrolysis of a second GTE The activation of amino acids with aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase requires hydrolysis of ATP to AMP plus PPi. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young runner with history of seasonal running nose, complains of sudden onset dyspnea early morning that improved after 2-3 hours. He has history of similar episodes in the past.on examination, patient is tachypneic, diffuse polyphonic expiatory wheeze heard on auscultation of chest, His x-ray is normal. All except one is true regarding the clinical scenario. | [
"Diffusion Lung capacity for carbon monoxide is Normal",
"FEV1% is decreased",
"Necrosis of airways",
"Microvascular leakage resulting in airway edema.and plasma exudation into airway lumen"
] | C | Clinical features are suggestive of Bronchial Asthma. There is no necrosis of airway in Bronchial Asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice in acute mania is: | [
"Lithium",
"Chlorpromazine",
"Valproic acid",
"Risperidone"
] | D | DOC of acute mania- antipsychotic However if in exam, you have an option of mood stabilizer plus antipsychotic, that would become the preferred answer. E.g. If in this question , there was an option of lithium plus risperidone, that would have been the best answer In absence of combination, we would chose antipsychotics. Atypical antipsychotics like risperidone are preferred over typical antipsychotics like chlorpromazine, because of better side effect profile | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors, EXCEPT: | [
"Nelfinavir",
"Saquinavir",
"Abacavir",
"Ritonavir"
] | C | Abacavir is nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and not a protease inhibitor. Nelfinovir, Titonavir and Saquinavir are all protease inhibitor. Ref: Antiretroviral Therapy By Erik De Clercq, 2001, Page 147 ; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, Pages 1124, 1126. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coronary blood flow is maximum during? | [
"Isovolumetric contraction",
"Rapid ejection",
"Slow ejection",
"Isovolumetric relaxation"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) I so volumetric relaxationREF: Ganongs 22nd ed page 621CORONARY BLOOD FLOW:Coronary blood flow, like blood flow in other vessels, is dependent on a pressure gradient, principally driven by mean arterial pressure. However, because aortic pressure can vary widely and because the heart beats continuously, the pressure gradient and, hence coronary blood flow fluctuate depending on the state of contraction. During systole, especially on the left side of the heart, the pressure within the coronary artery secondary to extravascular compression from the squeezing effect of the contracting myocardium virtually eliminates antegrade coronary blood flow. The coronary blood flow" goes to zero just prior to ventricular ejection, corresponding to isovolumic contraction and increased extravascular compression. Conversely, coronary blood flow through the left side is maximal during blood flow through the right side, however, is maximal during peak systole, because developed pressure and consequently extravascular compression within the RV are considerably less than in the LV, thus allowing for antegrade flow during both systole and diastole | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are done for management of clubfoot at birth except - | [
"Manupilation",
"Serial Casting",
"Recording the deformity to see improvements serially",
"Posteromedial soft tissue release"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Posteromedial soft tissue release o Posteromedial soft tissue release is a surgical procedure that is carried out after 9 months of age once a thorough trial of casting is given.Treatment of CTEV in a newborn (Treatment of a fresh case)o The most widely accepted practice is to rely upon conservative treatment by correction and splintage during the first year of life, often using the so-called Ponseti techniqueo Beyond that, if casting and splintage fail to correct the position then operative correction is carried out.Primary conservative treatmento Ideally treatment should be begun immediately after birth, certainly not more than 1 week latero The principles of treatment are :-1) Correction of deformity by manipulation2) Maintenance of this correction by immobilizing the foot in over-corrected position in between the manipulations. Three methods are available for maintenance :-i) A plaster of paris cast (most commonly used)ii) Metal splints (Denis brown splint)iii) Adhesive strappingo Among these, retention in a plaster is much to be preferred, because it holds the foot in the over-corrected position more efficiently and for a longer period than do metal splints or strapping. The plaster must extend to the upper thigh, with the knee flexed 90deg. The plaster must be changed every week for the first 6 weeks and then every 2 weeks until the correction is achieved.Operative treatmento If treatment by manipulation and retention fails, operation should usually be undertaken before 9 months of age, mostly at 4-6 months. The idea behind early operation is to set the tarsal bones in normal relationship to one another and to remove deforming forces, thus allowing the bones to develop in their normal shape from an early age. The procedure used is soft tissue release, i.e. postero-medial release (PMR). The taut structures on the postero-medial side are released.Maintenance of correction after full correction has been achievedo After correction by serial manipulation and casting or by surgery, the foot is maintained in Dennis-Drown splint (DB splint). DB splint is applied for full time (23 hours a day) till the child starts walking, e.g. upto 1-1 1/2 years. After that, DB splint is given at night and in day time CTEV shoes (straight inner border, raised outer border, no heel) is given till skeletal maturity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Axial reduction in a posterior three quarter crown imparts: | [
"Retention and Resistance",
"Structural durability",
"Periodontal preservation",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
1 Sv is | [
"100 rads",
"100 rem",
"Both",
"None"
] | B | 1 Gy = 100 rads
1 Sv = 100 rem | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs can prolong bleeding except | [
"Cephalosporins",
"Multiple vitamin K tablets",
"Methylxanthines",
"Anti depressants"
] | B | Vitamin K activates clotting factors 2,7, 9 & 10 and decreases chances of bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient with stab injury to the lower chest presented with low pulses and BP improved after giving IV fluids. Chest X-ray showed clear lung fields. Next step in the management: | [
"Chest tube inseion",
"CECT abdomen",
"CECT chest",
"E- fast"
] | D | STAB INJURY- we will go for E-FAST (extended focused assessment with sonography for trauma), non invasive,can easily assess thorax, can easily differentiate whether there is contusion or presence of blood FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma)- It is an Emergency ultra sound i.e. performed very fast - Assess Potential sites of thoracoabdominal injuries(4P's) - Pericardial sac- Perihepatic region- Peri-splenic region- Pelvis- 4 traditional views in FAST e-FAST (extended FAST)- Has two additional views (so, has a total of 6 views)- Right thoracic view- Left thoracic view- Pneumothorax on e-FAST shows bar code sign / stratosphere sign | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disease rate is | [
"Risk of susceptibility",
"Prevalence rate",
"Time period in a calendar year",
"Disease occurrence in a specified time period"
] | D | Attack rate (case rate or diesease rate):it is an incidence rateusually expressed in percentused only when population is exposed to risk for a limited period of time such as during an epidemicattack rate = (no. of new cases of a specified disease during a specified time interval / total population at risk during the same interval) x 100ref: Park&;s 23rd edition pg 61 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The "Target sign" ultrasonographically means: | [
"Ovarian carcinoma",
"Ectopic kidney",
"Intussusception",
"Liver metastasis"
] | C | Ans. Intussusception | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true about osteoid osteoma - | [
"Most common true benign tumor of bone",
"Occurs between 10-30 years of age",
"Lesion appears ill defined on x-ray with permeative margins",
"Bone scan shows increased uptake in the lesion"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lesion appears ill defined on x-ray with permeative margins Osteoid osteoma* Osteoid osteoma is the most common true benign tumor of the bone. This is a benign circumscribed lesion that may arise in the cortex of long bones or occasionally in the cancellous bone of spine. The characteristic feature is the formation of a small nidus of osteoid tissue, surrounded by a reactive zone of dense sclerosis (Sclerotic new bone formation).Clinical features of osteoid osteoma* The tumor occurs between 10-30 years of age and is more common in males.* The diaphysis of long bones is involved, most common bone involved is the tibia followed by femur. Posterior elements of the vertebrae may also be involved.* The presenting complaint is a nagging pain, worst at night, and is relieved by salicylates or other NSAIDs, a diagnostic feature.* On X-ray, there is a small radiolucent area (nidus) surrounded by dense sclerosis.* X-ray, in some cases, show local sclerotic thickening of the shaft that may obscure the small central nidus within the area of rarefaction.* Bone scan shows increased uptake in the nidus.* The only treatment is wide en block excision along with internal fixation with or without bone grafting. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which factor will most likely cause a person to develop a fever? | [
"a leg muscle relaxing after exercise",
"a bacterial population in the bloodstream",
"several viral particles on the skin",
"carbohydrates being digested in the stomach"
] | B | null | train | ai2_arc_ARC-Easy | null |
Lichens are symbiotic organisms made of green algae and fungi. What do the green algae supply to the fungi in this symbiotic relationship? | [
"carbon dioxide",
"food",
"protection",
"water"
] | B | null | train | ai2_arc_ARC-Easy | null |
When a switch is used in an electrical circuit, the switch can | [
"cause the charge to build.",
"increase and decrease the voltage.",
"cause the current to change direction.",
"stop and start the flow of current."
] | D | null | train | ai2_arc_ARC-Easy | null |
Which of the following is an example of an assistive device? | [
"contact lens",
"motorcycle",
"raincoat",
"coffee pot"
] | A | null | train | ai2_arc_ARC-Easy | null |
Rocks are classified as igneous, metamorphic, or sedimentary according to | [
"their color",
"their shape",
"how they formed",
"the minerals they contain"
] | C | null | train | ai2_arc_ARC-Easy | null |
A chewable calcium carbonate tablet is a common treatment for stomach discomfort. Calcium carbonate is most likely used as this type of medicine because calcium carbonate | [
"has a pleasant flavor.",
"is inexpensive to produce.",
"neutralizes digestive acid.",
"occurs naturally in the body."
] | C | null | train | ai2_arc_ARC-Easy | null |
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