question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The following statement is TRUE for Pityriasis Rosea: | [
"Self limiting",
"Chronic relapsing",
"Life threatening infection",
"Caused by dermatophytes"
] | A | Pityriasis rosea is an acute exanthematous papulosquamous eruption often with a characteristic self limiting course. The etiology is not known (It is not caused by dermatophytes). It is present during the spring and fall. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 16thEdition Page 292; Roxburgh's-Common Skin disease 17th Edition Page 17; Fitzpatrick's Dermatology 5th Edition Page 7369; Illustrated Textbook of Dermatology: Pasricha 3rd Edition Page 7134; Illustrated Synopsis of Dermatology & STDs, Neena Khanna 1st Edition Page 742-44 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Simple method to evaluate the plaque after a thorough brushing can be done by ? | [
"Snyder Test",
"Sand Paper Strips",
"Disclosing Solution",
"Unwaxed Floss"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid because | [
"Binding of one oxygen molecule increases the affinity of binding other O2 molecules",
"Binding of one oxygen molecule decrease the affinity of binding other O2 molecules",
"Oxygen affinity of Hemoglobin decreases when the pH of blood falls",
"Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin reduces the affinity of Hb for CO2... | A | Co-operativity- Hb is a tetramer. If one molecule of O2 binds to the tetramer more easily if another O2 is already bound. Since it is most difficult for the first molecule of O2 to bind to Hb, the shape becomes sigmoid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about first order kinetics of elimination - | [
"Constant amount of drug is eliminated",
"Rate of elimination is not related to plasma concentration",
"Clearance remains constant",
"Half life decreases with decreased concentration"
] | C | Ans. C. Clearance remains constantFirst order kinetics:Rate of elimination is directly propoional to Plasma Concentration.Clearance remains constant -Due to increasing plasma concentration, increases the rate of elimination propoionately.(CL = rate of elimination / Plasma Conc).Half life remains constant -Due to time required to reduce plasma concentration to half is same (rate of eliminationchange propoionately with plasma concentration). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which vaccine is not given in AIDS patients | [
"DPT",
"BCG",
"Rabies",
"Measles"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ring worm fungi live in | [
"Stratum Corneum",
"Dermis",
"Prickle Cell layer",
"Basal Cell layer"
] | A | A i.e. Stratum corneum Dermatophytosis is caused by trichophyton, epidermophyton & microsporumQ; and it infects superficial topmost layer of skin (stratum corneum or keratin layer), hair and nailsQ. Cutaneous mycosis (Tenia or Ring worm or Dermatophytosis) infect stratum corneum, hair & nailsQ and do not penetrate living tissues. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 65 year old female attended th Ohopaedics OPD with a chief complaint of chronic back ache. The radiograph of lumbar spine is obtained. What could be the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Rheumatoid Ahritis",
"Osteoporosis",
"Renal Osteodystrophy",
"Paget's Disease"
] | B | The given history of back pain in a 65 year old female with the above given radiograph points towards the diagnosis of Osteoporosis. Radiograph shows multiple endplate compression fractures throughout the lumbar veebra. The term fishmouth veebra / codfish veebra have been used to describe the biconcave appearance (given in the image in the question) of the veebrae that occur in Osteoporosis and sickle cell anemia patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cellular adaptation is maintained even after liver is partially resected is known as:(6-R) | [
"Hyperplasia",
"Hypertrophy",
"Metaplasia",
"Dysplasia"
] | A | (Hyperplasia): Ref: 6-R (4- Basic pathology 8th)HYPERPLASIA(Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, usually resulting in increased volume of the organ or tissue)|||Physiologic HyperplasiaPathologic Hyperplasia1. Hormonal HyperplasiaEg. (i) Breast at puberty and during pregnancy(ii) Pregnant uterus2. Compensatory hyperplasiaEg. (i) Partial hepatectomy(ii) Partial nephrectomyEg: 1. Endometrial hyperplasia2. Benign prostatic hyperplasiaHypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, resulting in an increase in the size of the organ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Open fracture is treated by | [
"Tourniquet",
"Internal fixation",
"Debridement",
"External fixation"
] | C | C i.e. Debridement | train | med_mcqa | null |
The BODE index, a simple multidimensional grading system, is better than the FEV1 at predicting the risk of death from any cause and from respiratory causes among patients with COPD. Which of the following is not the component of BODE index? | [
"BMI",
"Oxygen requirement",
"Dyspnoea",
"Exercise performance"
] | B | BODE index includesBMIAirflow ObstructionDyspnoeaExercise performance | train | med_mcqa | null |
Salivary glands are: | [
"Merocrine.",
"Apocrine.",
"Holocrine.",
"Endocrine."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to biophysics, in which pa of eye does maximum refraction occur? | [
"Cornea",
"Aqueous humor",
"Centre of the lens",
"Periphery of the lens"
] | A | Cornea The cornea is the first and most powerful refracting surface of the eye. Light passes through the transparent cornea on its way to the retina. It has a greater curvature than the rest of the eyeball and a refractive power of approximately 44 dioptres. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Crumbled egg appearance" in liver seen in | [
"Hepatic adenoma",
"Chronic amoebic liver abscess",
"Hydatid liver disease",
"Haemangioma"
] | C | HYDATID CYST OF LIVER -Word meaning is 'dew drop' (Latin). In Greek, it means watery vesicle'. Camellotte sign: Following intra biliary rupture, gas enters into cyst causing paial collapse of the cyst wall. CT scan abdomen is more accurate in identifying cyst characteristics - cawheel like - multivesicular rosette-like. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed, pg no 534 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The influence of maternal smoking and LBW incidence is studied. Detailed smoking history is taken at first antenatal visit and smoking history and birth weight were studied later. The type of study is | [
"Retrospective cohort study",
"Cross sectional study",
"Clinical trial",
"Prospective cohort study"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with M of 4 yrs duration presents with dizziness and HR 52/min, probable cause isa) Hypoglycaemiab) Inferior wall MIc) Sick-sinus syndromed) Autonomic dysfunction | [
"bcd",
"acd",
"ac",
"bd"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
the most common pathology of acute renal failure ? | [
"DPGN",
"RPGN",
"ATN",
"allergic interstitial nephritis"
] | D | Acute renal failure (ARF) - acute kidney injury AK1 is a sudden and usually reversible loss of renal function which develops over days or weeks and is usually accompanied by a reduction in urine volume. - A rasied creatinine level can be due to acute, acute on chronic of chronic kidney disease. Treatment of Acute Renal Failure # Treat underl in cause # Blood pressure # Infections # Stop inciting medications # Nephrostomy tubes/ureteral stents if obstruction # Treat scleroderma renal crisis with ACE inhibitor # Hydration # Diuresis (Lasix) # Renal Replacement Therapy : Dialysis & Renal Transplant * Dopamine: no benefit E Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) or ANP-analogue (Anaritide): promising ref : harrisons 21st ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mesosomes in bacteria are functional unit for - | [
"Lipid storage",
"Protein synthesis",
"Respiratory enzymes",
"carbohydrate breakdown"
] | C | Mesosomes: These are vesicular convoluted or multilaminated structures formed as invagination of the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm. Mesosomes are of two types--septal and lateral. Mesosomes are analogous to the mitochondria of Eukaryotes and are the principal sites of respiratory enzymes in bacteria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
OCPs cause | [
"Hepatic adenoma",
"Cancer Cervix",
"Hepatic vein thrombosis",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Hepatic adenoma; Cancer cervix; and Hepatic vein thrombosis Lets, see the causes of Hepatic vein thrombosis (Budd-Chiari syndrome). Polycythemia rubra vera, Myeloproliferative syndromes, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria OCP use Other hypercoagulable states Invasion of IVC by tumor, such as Renal cell or Hepatocellular Ca Idiopathic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is diagnosed with carcinoma of the breast. The most important prognostic factor in the treatment of this disease is | [
"Age at diagnosis",
"Size of tumor",
"Axillary metastases",
"Estrogen receptors on the tumor"
] | C | Recognition of the high risk associated with axillary metastases for early death and poor 5-year survival has led to the use of postsurgical adjuvant chemotherapy in these patients. Patients who have estrogen- or progesterone-receptive tumors (i.e., receptor present or receptor-positive) are particular candidates for this adjuvant therapy, as 60% of estrogen-positive tumors will respond to hormonal therapy. Age and size of the tumor are certainly factors of importance, but they are secondary to the presence or absence of axillary metastases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitamin K dependent clotting factors are : | [
"Factor IX and X",
"Factor IV",
"Factor XII",
"Factor I"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following tumor has increased activity of C-KIT? | [
"Granulosa cell tumor",
"Embryonal carcinoma",
"Seminoma",
"Chriocarcinoma"
] | C | Overexpression of C-KIT is seen in
a) Seminoma
b) Melanoma
c) AML
d) GIST | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice of stage III CIN in 40 year old female is : | [
"Hysterectomy",
"Laser coagulation",
"Cryocoagulation",
"Cone excision"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Hysterectomy Before discussing the answer to this questions lets first have a look at the treatment modalities available in case of CIN Modalities for management of CIN Ablative procedures Cryotherapy * Loop electro surgical * Hysterectomy Laser Vaporisation Therapy excision (LEEP) * Conisation Ablative Procedures : They are performed in out patient setting (OPD procedures). They must only be performed when the following conditions exist : There is no evidence of micro invasion or invasive cancer (on cytology, colposcopy or ECC). The lesion is located on the ectocervix (as determined by colposcopy and ECC). There is no involvement of the endocervix (as determined by colposcopy and ECC). Cytology and histology correspond with each other Modalities available in Ablative procedure : Cryotherapy It destroys the surface epithelium of the cervix by crystallizing the intra cellular water, resulting in eventual destruction of the cell. Major advantage is its ability to control exactly the depth and width of destruction by It is useful when : It is paicularly useful in : - Small lesions - Larger lesions that cryoprobe cannot cover - CIN Grade I & II - Irregular cervix with a Fish Mouth appearance. - When lesion is located in ectocervix - Extension of the disease to vagina or satellite lesions on Vagina Lesions with extensive glandular involvement Depth of destruction = 4-5 mm * Depth of destruction = 7mm Complications : - Discharge (M/C) * Complications : - Slight discharge Bleeding (Rare) - Pain - Cervical Stenosis (Rare) - Bleeding - Infection (Rare) drawback of Ablative procedures : it destroys the tissue and so no tissue specimen is available for additional histological evaluation.deg Excici'InI Procedures :They can be used LEEP (Loop electrosurgical excision Cold Knife Conization procedure) or LLETZ= (Large loop excision of transformation zone) It is both diagnostic as well as therapeutic. It is an OPD procedure & requires LA. Now it has become the procedure of choice for treating CIN II & CIN III. Complications are less & include : - Slight bleeding - Infection It is both diagnosis and therapeutic (Indications-given earlier) It is performed in 0.T and requires GA It refers to the excision of a cone shaped pa of cervix using a scalpel. Complications are more : - Paindeg - Bleedingdeg - Infectiondeg when Endocervix is involved as well Disadvantages of Excisional procedures : All Excisional procedures produce - Pregnancy complication. Cervical stenosisdeg Incompetent osdeg Aboiondeg Premature labourdeg Dystociadeg Advantage of excision procedures over ablative methods is tissue is available after excision method for fuher histological studies and Transformation zone is visible. Remember : In both ablative and excision methods patient should be followed with Pap smears every 3-4 months and by endocervical curettage (ECC), if endocervix is involved. As far as hysterectomy is concerned : "Hysterectomy is unacceptable as primary therapy for C1N1,2 or 3. However it may be considered when treating recurrent high grade cervical disease if childbearing has been completed or when a repeat cervical exicison is strongly indicated but technically not feasible." But most of the other books say that : Large Loop excision of transformation zone has become the procedure of choice for management of CIN in many developed countries. But in developing countries where women are likely to default from follow up, hysterectomy is still the best option. According to Shaw 14/e, p 365 ? Hysterectomy is desirable in : * Older and parous women When a woman cannot comply with follow-up If uterus is associated with fibroids, DUB or prolapse. If micro invasion exists. If recurrence occurs following conservative therapy. According to Jeffocate 7/e, p 421 ? "If smear remains or becomes positive after conservative surgery, total hysterectomy is indicated, but the ovaries need not be removed if the woman is premenopausal. There is also a place for totarhysterectomy as an elective procedure when micro-invasion is found on biopsy, or when the patient is more than 40 years of age." Indications of Hysterectomy in CIN according to are : Microinvasion. CIN III at limits of conization specimen in selected patients. Poor compliance with follow up. Other gynaecologic problems requiring hysterectomy such as fibroids, prolapse, endometriosis and PID. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anatomic cross bite in contrast to functional cross bite usually demonstrates: | [
"Smooth closure to centric occlusion",
"Deviated closure to centric occlusion",
"Marked wear facets",
"Symmetrical arches"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Absent parathyroid, thymic aplasia with immunodeficiency and heart defects are features of | [
"Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome",
"Pendred syndrome",
"Digeorge syndrome",
"Lesch-Nyhan syndrome"
] | C | Ans. c (Di george syndrome) (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th ed., Ch. 310)22q11 deletion syndromes:# DiGeorge syndrome --thymic, parathyroid, and cardiac defects. Occurs Due to aberrant development of 3rd and 4th branchial pouches. Cleft palate, Abnormal facies, Thymic aplasia T-cell deficiency, Cardiac defects, Hypocalcemia 2deg to parathyroid aplasia, due to microdeletion at chromosome 22q11.# Velocardiofacial syndrome-palate, facial, and cardiac defects.THE DIGEORGE SYNDROME# classic example of isolated T cell deficiency# results from maldevelopment of thymic epithelial elements derived from the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches.# The gene defect is on chromosomal position 22q11 in most patients with the DiGeorge syndrome.# Defective development of organs dependent on cells of embryonic neural crest origin includes:- Congenital cardiac defects, particularly those involving the great vessels;- Hypocalcemic tetany, due to failure of parathyroid development; and- Absence of a normal thymus.# Facial abnormalities may include abnormal ears, shortened philtrum, micrognathia, and hypertelorism.# Serum immunoglobulin concentrations are frequently normal, but antibody responses, particularly of IgG and IgA isotypes, are usually impaired. T cell levels are |, whereas B cell levels are normal.Pendred syndromeAn autosomal-recessive syndrome consisting of a bilateral congenital sensorineural hearing loss and goiter years later in mid-childhood. T4 levels are usually low to absent, and a perchlorate test is diagnostic. The hearing loss is nonreversible.Also Know:Features of Polyglandular Autoimmune (PGA) syndromesPGA IPGA IIAutosomal recessivePolygenic inheritanceMutations in APECED geneHLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4 associatedChildhood onsetAdult onsetEqual male:female ratioFemale predominanceDisease Associations Mucocutaneous candidiasisAdrenal insufficiencyHypoparathyroidismHypogonadismAdrenal insufficiencyGraves' diseaseHypogonadismType 1 diabetesAlopeciaHypothyroidismDental enamel hypoplasiaMyasthenia gravisMalabsorptionVitiligoChronic active hepatitisAlopeciaVitiligoPernicious anemiaPernicious anemiaCeliac disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contribution of employees to ESIS corporation is______ % of wages.(MHPGM CET 2008) | [
"1.50%",
"1.75%",
"1.25%",
"2%"
] | B | Ans. b (1.75%) (Ref. Text book of PSM by Park 22nd/ 760; style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">)ESI Act -1948: Benefit to both employee and employer.# Employer contributes 4.75% of total wage bill.0# While, the employee contributes 1.75% of wages.0# The state share on medical expenditure is l/8th and ESIC bears 7/8th cost of total medical care.0# Employees getting daily wages below Rs. 50 are exempted from payment of contribution.THE EMPLOYEES STATE INSURANCE ACT SCHEME# The Union Minister for Labour is chairman.# Scope- the ESIS Act extends to whole India.- Includes:* small power using factories with 10-19 persons and non-power using factories with >20 workers,* Service establishments like road transport, cinema houses, shops, restaurants, hotels and newspapers printing are now covered.# Which are the sectors excluded?- Excludes mines, plantation, railways and defence# What is the advantage to employer having ESIS scheme to its workers?- Exemption from the applicability of Workmen's Compensation Act 1923- Exemption from Maternity Benefit Act 1961- Exemption from payment of medical allowance to employees and their dependents or arranging for their medical care- Rebate under the Income Tax Act on contribution deposited in the ESI account- Healthy work-force# What are the benefits to workers?- Medical benefits,- Sickness benefits,- Disablement benefits,- Dependants benefits,- Funeral expenses and- Rehabilitation allowance | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Mooren's ulcer: | [
"Painless",
"Affects cornea",
"Sudden loss of vision",
"Bilateral in majority of cases"
] | B | Mooren's ulcer Affects cornea Painful condition Slow loss of vision Mostly unilateral Peripheral corneal ulceration Clear cut overhanging edge seems to be melting from periphery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are useful in congestive heart failure as: | [
"First choice drugs unless contraindicated",
"An alternative to diuretics",
"A substitute for digitalis",
"Adjuncts only in resistant cases"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of hyperkalemia includes all except- | [
"Crush syndrome",
"Haemolysis",
"Renal failure",
"Intestinal obstruction"
] | D | CAUSES OF HYPERKALEMIA I Pseudohyperkalemia A. Cellular efflux; thrombocytosis, erythrocytosis, leukocytosis, in vitro hemolysis B. Hereditary defects in red cell membrane transpo II. Intra- to extracellular shift A. Acidosis B. Hyperosmolality; radiocontrast, hypeonic dextrose, mannitol C. b2-Adrenergic antagonists (noncardioselective agents) D. Digoxin and related glycosides (yellow oleander, foxglove, bufadienolide) E. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis F. Lysine, arginine, and e-aminocaproic acid (structurally similar, positively charged) G. Succinylcholine; thermal trauma, neuromuscular injury, disuse atrophy, mucositis, or prolonged immobilization H. Rapid tumor lysis III. Inadequate excretion A. Inhibition of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis; | risk of hyperkalemia when used in combination 1. Angiotensin-conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors 2. Renin inhibitors; aliskiren (in combination with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers ) 3. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) 4. Blockade of the mineralocoicoid receptor: spironolactone, eplerenone, drospirenone 5. Blockade of the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC): amiloride, triamterene, trimethoprim, pentamidine, nafamostat B. Decreased distal delivery 1. Congestive hea failure 2. Volume depletion C. Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism 1. Tubulointerstitial diseases: systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), sickle cell anemia, obstructive uropathy 2. Diabetes, diabetic nephropathy 3. Drugs: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), cyclooxygenase 2 (COX2) inhibitors, b-blockers, cyclosporine, tacrolimus 4. Chronic kidney disease, advanced age 5. Pseudohypoaldosteronism type II: defects in WNK1 or WNK4 kinases, Kelch-like 3 (KLHL3), or Cullin 3 (CUL3) D. Renal resistance to mineralocoicoid 1. Tubulointerstitial diseases: SLE, amyloidosis, sickle cell anemia, obstructive uropathy, post-acute tubular necrosis 2. Hereditary: pseudohypoaldosteronism type I; defects in the mineralocoicoid receptor or the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) E. Advanced renal insufficiency 1. Chronic kidney disease 2. End-stage renal disease 3. Acute oliguric kidney injury F. Primary adrenal insufficiency 1. Autoimmune: Addison's disease, polyglandular endocrinopathy 2. Infectious: HIV, cytomegalovirus, tuberculosis, disseminated fungal infection 3. Infiltrative: amyloidosis, malignancy, metastatic cancer 4. Drug-associated: heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin 5. Hereditary: adrenal hypoplasia congenita, congenital lipoid adrenal hyperplasia, aldosterone synthase deficiency 6. Adrenal hemorrhage or infarction, including in antiphospholipid syndrome (REF: HARRISON,19E Pg 309) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following changes would be most consistent with the diagnosis of choriocarcinoma? | [
"Increased B-HCG",
"Increased alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)",
"Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)",
"Decreased AFP"
] | A | Gestational trophoblastic disease may involve hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma, or placental trophoblastic tumor. Trophoblastic tissue produces B-HCG and thus B-HCG is elevated in all these conditions. AFP is increased in neural tube defect setting when screening at 15-18 weeks gestation. AFP may be decreased in Down syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glasgow coma scale -moderate includes | [
"9-Mar",
"<3",
"12-Sep",
">12"
] | C | Ans. (c) 9-12Ref: Schwartz 10th Edition Page 1718* Severe head injury - 3 to 8* Moderate head injury - 9 to 12* Mild head injury -13 to 15 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Looser's zone occurs in | [
"Pubic rami",
"Femoral neck",
"Ribs",
"All the above"
] | D | Looser's zone or pseudofracture typically occurs in, pubic rami, Femoral neck, medial border of scapulae, ribs, metatarsals and long bones. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 48-years old woman comes with bilateral progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity and mild impairment of respiratory movements. MRI shows an intradural mid-dorsal midline enhancing lesion. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Intradural lipoma",
"Meningioma",
"Neuroenteric cyst",
"Dermoid cyst"
] | B | Ans. (b) MeningiomaCNS tumors can be Intra axial or Extra axial:Intra axial:* Neuronal* Astrocytoma* Lymphoma Extra axial:* Pituitary* Schwannoma* Meningioma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the commonest nerve injury due to the effect of same position for a long time during general anaesthesia? | [
"Common peroneal nerve",
"Brachial plexus injuries",
"Ulnar neuropathies",
"None of the above"
] | C | Nerve injuries may occur as a complication of various positions under anesthesia. Ulnar neuropathies are the most common. Risk factors include male gender, extremes of body weight, and prolonged hospitalization. The common peroneal nerve may be injured by pressure at the fibular head in the lithotomy position (feet in stirrups). Brachial plexus injuries may occur from sternotomy and retraction of the chest wall during coronary bypass surgery. Compament syndrome in the extremities may occur if tissue swelling causes obstruction of venous and lymphatic drainage, with failure of capillary perfusion and cell death. Ref: Doyle A. (2012). Chapter 48. Anesthesia: Choices and Complications. In J. Matloff, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a feature of CBD stone | [
"Pain",
"Jaundice",
"Fever",
"Septic shock"
] | D | Clinical features of CBD stone CBD stone may be silent and are often discovered incidentally. In these patients, biliary colic, jaundice, clay coloured stools and darkening of the urine Fever and chills may be present in patients with choledocholithiasis and cholangitis Serum bilirubin, aminotransferases, and ALP are commonly elevated in patients with biliary obstruction but are neither sensitive nor specific for the presence of common duct stones Among these, serum bilirubin has the highest positive predictive value for the presence of choledocholithiasis Laboratory values may be normal in one third of Patients with choledocholithiasis Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno:1494 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of hormone dependent fungating carcinoma of breast with secondaries in the lung in a female patient aged 30 years is - | [
"Simple mastectomy followed by oophorectomy",
"Radical mastectomy followed by oophorectomy",
"Adrenalectomy",
"Lumpectomy followed by castration"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about Keratoconus, except: | [
"Increased curvature of cornea",
"Astigmatism",
"K.F ring cornea",
"Thick cornea"
] | D | The main pathological changes in Keratoconus are thinning and ectasia of the lens which occur as a result of defective synthesis of mucopolysaccharide and collagen tissue. REF : AK KHURANA 7TH ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about silicosis except? | [
"Bifringent crystals seen",
"Pleural plaque seen",
"Lower lobe is ussualy involved",
"Most common pnemoconiosis"
] | C | Ans. (c) Lower lobe is ussualy involved(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 689; 8th/pg 687)Silicosis involves upper lobe more commonly than lower lobe. Examination of the nodules by polarized microscopy reveals the birefringent silicate particles (silica is weakly birefringent). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Moro&;s Reflex as ahown above, disappears at | [
"3 months",
"5 months",
"6 months",
"7 months"
] | C | Moro&;s reflex disappears by 3 - 6 months in normal infants. Persistence of the reflex after 6 months and absence or diminution of the Moro reflex within 2 to 3 months of age can be regarded as abnormal. Asymmetry of the response is usually a sign of local injury. Reference : page 142 Ghai Essential Pediatrics 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
luorescence is used in assessment of levels of which hormone commonly - | [
"Thyroid",
"Steroid",
"Catecholamines",
"Leutenising releasing hormone"
] | A | (A) (Thyroid) (Internet)Fluoroscopy is used in assessment of all the hormones.Fluorescence spectroscopy aka fluorometry or spectrofluorometry, is a type of electromagnetic spectroscopy which analyzes fluoescence from a sample. It involves using a beam of light, usually ultraviolet light that excites the electrons in molecules of certain compounds and causes them to emit light; typically, but not necessarily, visible light. A complementary technique isabsorption spectroscopy.Although the RIA technique is extremely sensitive and extremely specific, requiring specialized equipment, it remains among the least expensive methods to perform such measurements. It requires special precaution and licensing, since radioactive substances are used. The unique ability of RIA to measure small molecules can nowadays be achieved in many cases by non-radioactive methods such as ELISA, where the antigen-antibody reaction is measured using colorimetric, such as absorbance, fluorescence intensity or polarization. This, combined with the usual sandwich configuration of ELISA requiring two domains of an analyte to be present to generate a signal, has led to many assays being developed for ELISA instead of RIA or for RIA assays to be replaced by ELISA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cadaveric spasm | [
"Instant in onset",
"Confined to a small group of muscle",
"Occurs only in voluntary muscles",
"All of the above"
] | D | (D) All of the above # Cadaveric Spasm or Instantaneous Rigor: Cadaveric spasm (cataleptic rigidity) is a rare condition.> In this, the muscles that were contracted during life become stiff and rigid immediately after death without passing into the stage of primary relaxation.> Usually limited to a limited group of voluntary muscles & tha to frequently involves hands.> Whole body can be involved in soldiers (involved in a war). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Botulinum toxin act by: | [
"Synthesis of Ach.",
"inhibits Ach release.",
"Secretion of Ach.",
"None of the above."
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of intracranial haemorrhage is: | [
"Sub arachnoid haemorrhage",
"Intracerebral hemorrhage",
"Subdural haemorrhage",
"Extradural haemorrhage"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' Intracerebral Haemorrhage Intracerebral hemorrhage is the most common type of intracranial hemorrhage.Most common cause of intraparenchymal hemorrhage is hypertension* Most common artery involved in intraparenchymal hemorrhage -Lenticulostriate arteries*Most common site of intracerebral hemorrhage due to hypertension - Basal ganglia* (Putamen, thalamus and adjacent deep white matter). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient can be diagnosed for improper oral hygiene maintenance by | [
"Proper dietary history",
"Disclosing agents",
"Lactobacillus count",
"Swab test"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A method of strangulation where neck is constricted using bamboo sticks is called | [
"Mugging",
"Garroting",
"Bansdola",
"Throttling"
] | C | Refer the byte "Hanging and Strangulation". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hampton hump is seen in: | [
"Pulmonary TB",
"Bronchogenic carcinoma",
"Pulmonary embolism",
"Pulmonary hemorrhage"
] | C | Ans. (c) Pulmonary embolismRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1633HAMPTON HUMP is a radiologic sign which consists of a shallow wedge-shaped opacity in the periphery of the lung with its base against the pleural surface. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A newborn vomits after each feeding of milk-based formula, and does not gain weight. Biochemical testing reveals a severe deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, consistent with homozygosity. If this condition goes untreated, what is the likely outcome for this patient? | [
"Benign disease except for cataract formation",
"Chronic emphysema appearing in early adulthood",
"Chronic renal failure appearing in adolescence",
"Death in infancy"
] | D | Galactosemia occurs in two very different clinical forms. Deficiency of galactokinase produces very mild disease with the only significant complication being cataract formation. In contrast, homozygous deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase produces severe disease culminating in death in infancy. In addition to galactosemia and galactosuria, these patients have impaired renal tubular resorption leading to aminoaciduria, gastrointestinal symptoms, hepatosplenomegaly, cataracts, bleeding diathesis, hypoglycemia, and mental retardation. Pathologically, the CNS showed neuronal loss and gliosis and the liver shows fatty change progressing to cirrhosis. Benign disease with cataract formation is characteristic of galactokinase deficiency. Chronic emphysema is not associated with homozygous galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase deficiency, but rather with alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency. Impaired tubular reabsorption (producing aminoaciduria) is seen within a few days or weeks of feeding milk to an infant with severe galactosemia, as opposed to chronic renal failure appearing in adolescence. Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 21. The Pentose Phosphate Pathway & Other Pathways of Hexose Metabolism. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of aspirin action is | [
"Conves inactive plasminogen into active plasmin",
"Inhibits COX and thus thromboxane synthesis",
"Enhances the interaction between antitrombin III and both thrombin and the factors involved in the intrinsic clotting cascade",
"Inhibits the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex"
] | B | Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane A2 by irreversible acetylation of the enzyme cyclooxygenase.Other salicylates and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs also inhibit cyclooxygenase but have a shoer duration of inhibitory action because they cannot acetylate cyclooxygenase; that is, their action is reversible.Katzung 13e pg: 595 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paraneoplastic symdrome is not associated with any kind of antibody mediated- | [
"Stiff Pearson syndrome",
"Necrotizing myelopathy",
"Limbic encephalopathy",
"Eaton Lambe syndrome"
] | B | Answer is option 2 In paraneoplastic syndrome, there is Myelopathy, occurring as the main neurological syndrome, is less common. As with LE and BE, it may be pa of a more widespread encephalomyelitis. Rarely, it can progress with astonishing rapidity in the context of a necrotising myelopathy. Pathologically there is extensive necrosis of both white and grey matter, most notably in the thoracic segments.necrotising myelopathy. Myelopathy, occurring as the main neurological syndrome, is less common. As with LE and BE, it may be pa of a more widespread encephalomyelitis. Rarely, it can progress with astonishing rapidity in the context of a necrotising myelopathy. Pathologically there is extensive necrosis of both white and grey matter, most notably in the thoracic segments. jnnp. mnj. com>journals | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma? | [
"Columnar cell",
"Insular",
"Huhle cell carcinoma",
"Medullary"
] | A | Variants of papillary carcinoma thyroid : Pure papillary Follicular variant Diffuse sclerosing variant Tall cell, Columnar cell variant Insular and huhle cell carcinoma are variant of follicular carcinoma of thyroid. Medullary cell carcinoma is carcinoma arising from C cell. Ref: Harrison 17/e, Page 2242. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neurovascular bundle of anterior compament of leg passes between the tendons of | [
"Extensor hallucis longus and Extensor digitorum longus",
"Extensor digitorum longus and peroneus teius",
"Tibialis anterior and Extensor hallucis longus",
"Tibialis anterior and Extensor digitorum longus"
] | A | ANTERIOR COMPAMENT( leg):- Muscles:-1. Tibialis anterior 2. Extensor hallucis longus3. Extensor digitorum longus 4. Peroneus teius. Aery:anterior tibial aery.The blood supply of anterior compament is reinforced by the perforating branch of peroneal aery. Nerve:-Deep peroneal nerve. Arrangement:-From medial to lateral-Tibialis anterior EHLAnterior tibial aery and deep peroneal nerve EDLPeroneus teius. {Reference: BDC 6E pg no.93 diagram 8.4} | train | med_mcqa | null |
In cholesterol transpo which is not needed | [
"Liver",
"Kidney",
"Intestine",
"Fat"
] | B | Cholesterol in the diet is absorbed from the intestine, and in company with other lipids, are incorporated int "chylomicrons" and also to some extent 'VLDL'. Of the cholesterol absorbed, 80 to 90 percent in the lymph is esterified with long-chain FA. Esterification may occur in the intestinal mucosa. In man, the total plasmacholesterol varies from 150 to 250 mg% (average 200 mg%), rising with age, although there are wide variations between individuals. The greater pa is found in the'esterified' form and is transpoed as "lipoproteins" in plasma. Highest propoion of circulating cholesterol is found in LDL (b-lipoproteins) which carry cholesterol totissues and also in HDL, which takes cholesterol to liver from tissues for degradation (scavenging action). However, under conditions, where the VLDL arequantitatively predominant, an increased propoion of plasma cholesterol will reside in this fraction. Dietary cholesterol takes several days to equilibrate withcholesterol in plasma, and several weeks to equilibrate with cholesterol in tissues. Free cholesterol in plasma and liver equilibrates in matter of hours. In general, freecholesterol exchanges readily between tissues and lipoproteins, whereas cholesterol esters do not exchange freely. Some plasma cholesterol ester may be formed inHDL as a result of transesterification reaction in plasma between cholesterol and FA in position-2 of lecithin which is catalysed by the enzyme lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT).Cholesterol balance in tissues: Many factors will determine the cholesterol balance at the cellular level.(a) Increase of cholesterol in cells:Increased synthesis of cholesterol.Hydrolysis of cholesterol ester by the enzyme "cholesterol ester hydro-lyase".Uptake and delivery of cholesterol in cells by circulating LDL (uptake by specific receptors).Uptake of cholesterol containing lipoproteins by 'non-receptor' mediated pathway.Uptake of free cholesterol by cell membranes.(b) Decrease of cholesterol in cells:Efflux of cholesterol from cells to HDL (scavenging action).Esterification of cholesterol by the enzyme Acyl- CoA-cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT).Utilisation of cholesterol for synthesis of steroid hormones, viz. glucocoicoids, mineralocoicoids, Gonadal hormones.In liver cells: formation of cholic acid.Formation of Vit D3.Ref: M.N. Chatterjea - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 434,435 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is not true about postburn neck contracture | [
"Occur because of conservative management of deep burn",
"Treated by flaps",
"Oblliteration of cervicomental angle",
"Never develop in deep dermal burn"
] | A | Post burn neck contracture Cervical contractures are major problems in burns involving the chest, neck & face Severe neck flexion contracture in the acute phase often require early reconstruction to aid in airway management Neck contractures should usually be dealt with prior to facial burn reconstruction as the extrinsic contractile forces from the neck can cause facial deformities and can cause facial deformities and can adversely affect the maturation of scars on the face When the split-thickness skin grafting is unsuccessful because of recurrent contracture or does not provide a satisfactory aesthetic result, local flap reconstruction of anterior neck is an excellent technique Perioral Deformities : Microstomia, Microstomia, irreversible damage to dentition & loss of jawline definition Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :714-715 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of Fournier's Gangrene except | [
"Testicles are involved",
"Obliterative aeritis seen",
"Hemolytic streptococci, isolated",
"Necrotizing fascitis"
] | A | Idiopathic scrotal gangrene also called Fournier's gangrene is a vascular gangrene of infective origin, caused by hemolytic streptococci, microaerophilic streptococci, staphylococci, E.coli, Cl.welchii, Bacteroides fragilis. It is common in diabetics, old age, malnourished and immunosuppressed. It can follow minor injuries or procedures in the perineal area such as bruise, scratch, urethral dilatation etc. There is fulminant inflammation of scrotal skin and subcutaneous tissues resulting in obliterative aeritis of the aerioles of scrotal skin leading into cutaneous gangrene. Testicles are not involved, are normal and ble Reference : page1068 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thoracic duct terminates into the left brachiocephalic vein at the junction of ? | [
"External jugular vein and subclan vein",
"Internal jugular vein and subclan vein",
"External jugular vein and brachiocephalic vein",
"Internal jugular vein and brachiocephalic vein"
] | B | Thoracic duct stas as an upward continuation of cistern chyle which is situated in front of bodies of L1 and L2 veebrae. It ends in the left brachiocephalic vein, at the junction of left internal jugular vein and left subclan vein. Thoracic duct is the largest and elongated common lymphatic channel which conveys lymph from whole pa of the body into the bloodstream, except:Right side of head and neckRight side of faceRight superior extremityRight side of chest wallRight lung and pleuraRight half of hea and pericardiumRight dome of diaphragmRight surface of liver | train | med_mcqa | null |
The burrows in scabies are present in NOT RELATED - DERMATOLOGY | [
"Stratum basale",
"Stratum granulosum",
"Stratum corneum",
"Dermis"
] | C | a. The female mite excavates a small burrow in which copulation takes place.b. After copulation, the feilized female enlarges the burrow and begins laying eggs. The burrow is mainly confined to stratum corneum, but it is also inclined downwards into the epidermis.c. About 4050 eggs are laid by each female during a life span of 46 weeks, during which she does not leave the burrow. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Digitalic toxicity produce the following changes in ECG except - | [
"Inveed T wave",
"Prolonged QT interval",
"ST depression",
"Prolonged PR interval"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Prolongation of QT interval ECG changes produced by digitalis o First see the relation of ECG and cardiac cycle. P wave represents atrial depolarization. QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. PR interval represents conduction through AV node. QT interval corrosponds with ventricular depolarization +- ventricular repolarization. ST interval and T wave represent ventricular repolarization. o Digitalis causes PR interval --> due to delayed conduction in AV node. QT interval --> Due to increased contractility and better emptying of ventricle --> L systole. Decrease amplitute or inversion of T wave and ST depression --> Due to interference with repolarization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renin is synthesized as a large preprohormone: Renin is secreted by which among the following? | [
"PCT",
"DCT",
"Collecting duct",
"Juxtaglomerular apparatus"
] | D | Ans. D. Juxtaglomerular apparatusActive renin:In the juxtaglomerular apparatus and is formed in the secretory granules of the granular cells. Only known function of its is to cleave the decapeptide angiotensin I from the amino terminal end of angiotensinogen i.e. renin substrate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of excessive mineralocorticoid action ? | [
"Na+ and water retention",
"Acidosis",
"Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis",
"Rise in blood pressure"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
2-3 DPG is decreased in ? | [
"Anemia",
"Acidosis",
"High altitude",
"Exercise"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., AcidosisFactors which decrease 2,3 DPG and cause left shift of O2 dissociation curve are :-i) Acidosisii) Stored bloodiii) Fetal hemoglobin | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are associated with Caroli's disease, EXCEPT: | [
"Biliary atresia",
"Cholangiocarcinoma",
"Biliary lithiasis",
"Biliary abscess"
] | A | Caroli's disease is a syndrome of congenital ductal plate malformations of the intrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by segmental cystic dilatation of the intrahepatic biliary radicals. Caroli's disease also is associated with an increased incidence of biliary lithiasis, cholangitis, and biliary abscess formation. Rarely, patients can present later in life with complications secondary to poal hypeension. Approximately 33% of affected patients develop biliary lithiasis and 7% develop cholangiocarcinoma. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 31. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bouquet of Flowers appearance is seen in? | [
"ADPKD",
"ARPKD",
"Horse Shoe Kidney",
"Medullary sponge kidney"
] | D | Medullary sponge kidney: Shows Bouquet of Flowers appearance in IVP Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease Swiss cheese appearance on nephrogram Spider leg appearance on pyelogram Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease Shows striated nephrogram | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmia due to myocardial infarction is | [
"Quinidine",
"Amiodarone",
"Xylocaine",
"Diphenylhydantoin"
] | C | Refer kDT 6/e p 519 Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias with myocardial infarction is lignocaine Drug of choice for supraventricular arrhythmia after myocardial infection is beta blockers cardiac function is adequate | train | med_mcqa | null |
The conversion of an optically pure isomer (enantiomer) into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextrose and levo forms is called as | [
"Polymerization",
"Stereoisomerization",
"Racemization",
"Fractionation"
] | C | When an equal amount of d & l isomers are present, the resulting mixture has no optical activity since the activities of each isomer cancel each other. Such a mixture is said to be `Racemic' or (DL) mixture
"The transformation of half of the molecules of an optically active enantiomer (pure isomer) into molecules which possess exactly the opposite (mirror image configuration) with the resultant complete loss of rotatory power because of statistical balance between equal numbers of dextrose & levo-rotatory molecules is called Racemization'
- Dorland's Medical Dictionary | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are pharmacological effects of benzodiazepine except- | [
"Anxiolysis",
"Sedation",
"Retrograde amnesia",
"Anticonvulsant action"
] | C | Benzodiazepines are drugs that exe in slightly varying degrees, five principles pharmacologic effects: 1. Anxiolysis 2. Sedation 3. Anticonvulsant actions 4. Skeletal muscle relaxation 5. Anterograde amnesia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Severe destruction of DNA can be tested by: | [
"ELISA",
"PCR",
"STR",
"Western blot"
] | B | PCR is an in vitro method for amplifying a selected DNA sequence that does not rely on the biologic (in vivo) cloning method.
PCR permits the synthesis of millions of copies of a specific nucleotide sequence in a few hours.
It can amplify the sequence, even when the targeted sequence makes up less than one part in a million of the total initial sample.
The method can be used to amplify DNA sequences from any source, including viral, bacterial, plant, or animal.
Key concept:
Polymerase chain reaction can even find cases with severe destruction of DNA.
Ref : Lippincott’s illustrated reviews for biochemistry , 7th edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Quick Reduction of blood pressure is done in | [
"Cerebral infarct",
"Hypertensive encephalopathy",
"Myocardial infarction",
"Any patient with hypertension"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common complication of scaphoid fracture- | [
"Malunion",
"Avascular necrosis of proximal part",
"Wriststiffners",
"Arthritis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Avascular necrosis Complication of scaphoid fracture o Fractures of the scaphoid bone, even when undisplaced, are potentially troublesome and the incidence of complications is high, o The most important complications are :- Delayed union Non-union Avascular necrosis Osteoarthritis of wrist "AVN is the most common complication of a scaphoid fracture, occuring in 15% to 30% of cases". o Risk of AVN depends on the location of the fracture :- Fracture of the proximal segment (proximal 1/3) has the highest risk Fracture of middle segment (waist) has moderate risk Fracture of distal segment rarely causes AVN o The proximal part is more susceptible for AVN because of retrograde vascular supply. Most of the blood supply to the scaphoid enters distally, and proximal part has precarious supply after fracture through waist or proximal part of the bone. o Therefore, AVN occurs in proximal part. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the best indicator of longterm nutritional status? | [
"Mid arm circumference",
"Height for age",
"Weight for age",
"Weight for height"
] | B | Height-for-age (or length-for-age for children <2 yr) is a measure of linear growth, and a deficit represents the cumulative impact of adverse events, usually in the first 1,000 days from conception, that result in stunting, or chronic malnutrition. A low height-for-age typically reflects socioeconomic disadvantage. A low weight-for-height, or wasting, usually indicates acute malnutrition. Conversely, a high weight-for-height indicates overweight. Weight-for-age is the most commonly used index of nutritional status, although a low value has limited clinical significance as it does not differentiate between wasting and stunting. Weight-for-age has the advantage of being somewhat easier to measure than indices that require height measurements. In humanitarian emergencies and some field settings, mid-upper arm circumference is used for screening wasted children . Ref.nelson 20th edition page no 298 nutrition chapter | train | med_mcqa | null |
A medical student, whose baseline alveolar PCO2 level was 40 mm Hg, begins to voluntarily hyperventilate for an experiment during his respiratory physiology laboratory. If his alveolar ventilation quadruples and his CO2 production remains constant, approximately what will be his alveolar PCO2? | [
"4 mm Hg",
"10 mm Hg",
"20 mm Hg",
"80 mm Hg"
] | B | When you hyperventilate, CO2 is blown off. The amount of CO2 blown off is inversely propoional to alveolar ventilation. This is shown by the alveolar ventilation equation: VA = VCO2/PACO2, where VA = alveolar ventilation VCO2 = CO2 production PACO2 = alveolar PCO2 So, if VCO2 remains the same, and VA quadruples, PACO2 must decrease by 4 fold; 40 mm Hg decreases to 10 mm Hg. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Macromolecules in Dental Resin is attached by: | [
"Covalent bonds",
"Sonic bonds",
"Vander Wall's Forces",
"Hydrogen Bonds"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inflammatory mediator of generalised systemic inflammation is | [
"IL1",
"IL2",
"Interferon alpha",
"TNF"
] | A | ref Robbins 8/e p57 ; 61 ,7/e p71 ,9/e p86 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A children presents with running nose, breathlessness, family history positive, Most likely diagnosis is ? | [
"Bronchiolitis",
"Viral pneumonia",
"Bronchial asthma",
"None"
] | C | The given features are suggestive of bronchial asthma. Clinical presentation Wheezing, dyspnea and cough. Variable -- both spontaneously and with therapy. Tenaceous mucus production. Symptoms worse at night. Nonproductive cough Limitation of activity Signs Inc. respiratory rate,with use of accessory muscles Hyper-resonant percussion note Expiratory rhonchi,expiration>inspiration. During very severe attacks,airflow may be insufficient to produce rhonchi - SILENT CHEST No findings when asthma is under control or blw attacks Ref : Essential pediatrics,O.P.Ghai , 7th edition,pg no:358 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following segments of liver drains into right hepatic duct EXCEPT: | [
"I",
"III",
"V",
"VIII"
] | B | Segment III belongs to left liver and drains bile into left (not right) hepatic duct. Right liver has segment V, VI, VII and VIII which drain into right hepatic duct. Caudate lobe (segment I) drains into both right and left hepatic duct. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best way to control houseflies - | [
"Eliminate breeding places",
"Insectiside spray",
"Net use",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' Le., Eliminate breeding places o The best way to control houseflies is to eliminate their breeding places and to bring about an overall improvement in the environmental sanitation on a community-wide basis,o 'Houseflies should be regarded as a sign of insanitation r and their number as index of that sanitation.o Important species : Musca domes tica, M. vicinia, M. nebula, M. sorbenso Life span : 15-25 daysEggs : 8-24 hoursLarvae (maggots): 2-7 daysPupae : 3-6 daysAdults : 5-20 dayso Important breeding places (In order of importance).Fresh horse manureHuman excretaManure of other animalsGarbageDecaying fruits and vegetablesRubbish dumps containing organic matterGrounds where liquid wastes are spilledo Feeding habits :Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods; it vomits on ssolid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state.o Modus of disease transmission:Mechanical transmission: Houseflies are known as 'Porters of infection 'Vomit-dropDefecationo Houseflies in disease causation:.45 vector of diseases: Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis, helminthic manifestations. Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma, conjunctivitis..45 causative agent of disease : Myiasis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which nerve is affected in Saturday Night Palsy? | [
"Radial nerve",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Anterior Interosseus nerve",
"Median nerve"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Radial nerve Saturday night palsy (weekend palsy)* In this condition, there is compression of the radial nerve between spiral groove and the lateral intermuscular septum.* It is known after an event which typically happens on a Saturday night weekend when in an inebriated condition, a person slump with his mid-arm compressed between the arm of the chair and his body. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In low dose aspirin acts on : | [
"Cyclooxygenase",
"Thromboxane A, synthase",
"PGI2 synthase",
"Lipoxygenase"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most severe form of Diptheria | [
"Nasal",
"Cutaneous",
"Nasopharynx",
"Laryngopharynx"
] | D | Ref: Harrisons, 19th ed. pg. 978* Diptheria is a nasopharyngeal and skin infection caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Toxigenic strains of C. diphtheria produce a protein toxin that causes systemic toxicity, myocarditis, and polyneuropathy.* The toxigenic strains cause pharyngeal diphtheria, while the non-toxigenic strains commonly cause cutaneous disease.* Harrisons states: "Respiratory/pharyngeal form of diphtheria is from notiable diseases, while cutaneous diphtheria is NOT"* Most severe form of diphtheria: Laryngeal | train | med_mcqa | null |
46 years old male Ashwath, comes to your OPD and while giving history suddenly becomes blank and blames that your stole his thoughts. Diagnosis | [
"Thought block",
"Thought withdrawal",
"Neologism",
"Perseverration"
] | B | It is a disorder of thought possession. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Healthy human volunteers are the Unit of study in ___ Phase of Clinical trial:- | [
"Phase I",
"Phase II",
"Phase III",
"Phase IV"
] | A | Phase Unit of study Purpose Phase 0 Healthy human volunteers Micro-dosing Phase 1 Healthy human volunteers Safety and non-toxicity profile Phase II Patients Effectiveness Phase III Patients Comparison with existing drugs Phase IV Patients Long term side effects / post marketing | train | med_mcqa | null |
In sarcoidosis the following is true - | [
"Epitheloid cells showing caseation",
"Epitheloid cell- with no caseation",
"Histocytic cells-with caseation",
"Well differenciated histiocytic cells"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epitheloid cell-with no caseation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sodium nitroprusside infusion may result in: | [
"Hypeension",
"Pulmonary oedema",
"Cyanide toxicity",
"Hea block"
] | C | C i.e. Cyanide toxicity Sodium nitropruside has five cyanide groups within its structure and cyanide toxicityQ is a problem if it is used is high doses. Its formula is Na2[Fe(CN)5NOJX2H2O | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT a content of medial wall of middle ear: | [
"Oval window",
"Round window",
"Processus cochleariformis",
"Aditus ad antrum"
] | D | Ans. (d) Aditus ad antrumReft Dhingra's ENT 6th edj 5-6* Aditus ad antrum is located on posterior wall. It is a doorway to antrum of mastoid.* Antrum is largest mastoid air cell. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of 10kg weight loss despite an increased appetite. She also complains of anxiety, diarrhea and amenorrhea. Examination reveals a fine tremor, brisk reflexes and a systolic murmur heard throughout the precordium. A urine pregnancy screen was negative. What is the most likely finding on examining the pulse? | [
"Pulsus paradoxus",
"Collapsing pulse",
"Irregularly irregular pulse",
"Pulsus alternans"
] | C | Female, weight loss in spite of appetite, amenorrhea, tremors, brisk reflexes are features of Thyrotoxicosis Option A- Pulses Paradoxus is feature of C. Tamponade it is ruled out Option B- Collapsing pulse- Rapidly rising pulse, which collapses suddenly as aerial pressure falls rapidly, during late systole and diastole (Corrigan's pulse). -Feature of aoic regurgitation & AR have Diastolic murmur. Option C- Thyrotoxicosis can be Associated with A. fibrillation. So, irregularly irregular pulse can be presentation of Thyrotoxicosis. Option D- Pulsus Alternans is feature of LVF. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A neurosurgeon performs a surgical resection of a rare meningeal tumor in the sacral region. He tries to avoid an injury of the nerve that arises from the lumbosacral plexus and remains within the abdominal or pelvic cavity. To which of the following nerves should he pay paicular attention | [
"Ilioinguinal nerve",
"Genitofemoral nerve",
"Lumbosacral trunk",
"Femoral nerve"
] | C | The Lumbosacral trunk is formed by pa of the ventral ramus of the fouh lumbar nerve and the ventral ramus of the fifth lumbar nerve. This trunk contributes to the formation of the sacral plexus by joining the ventral ramus of the first sacral nerve in the pelvic cavity and does not leave the pelvic cavity. All other nerves leave the abdominal and pelvic cavities. other options are branches of only lumbar plexus no sacral involvement | train | med_mcqa | null |
Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given - | [
"After meals",
"Sholy before meals",
"Along with H2 blockers",
"During prolonged fasting periods"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sholy before meals o Bioavailibility of all PPIs is reduced by food; they should be taken in empty stomach, followed 1 hour later by a meal to activate 1-1+ ATPase and make it more susceptible to the PPI. o PPIs should be administered approximately 1 hour before a meal (usually breakfast) so that the peak serum concentration coincides with the maximal activity of proton pump secretion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The thickness of matrix band is | [
"0.015- 0.02 inch",
"0.0015 — 0.002 inch",
"0.0015 — 0.002 mm",
"0.015 — 0.02 mm"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is/are true about rat bite -a) Vaccinate with antirabies vaccineb) Give tetanus toxoidc) Rarely need rabies immunoglobulind) Wash with soape) Use antiseptic cream | [
"abd",
"acd",
"cde",
"ade"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Attachment to the first rib is all Except | [
"Scalenius-anterior",
"Scalenius-posterior",
"Scalenius-medius",
"Suprapleural membrane"
] | B | B. i.e. Scalenius posterior | train | med_mcqa | null |
An old lady had history of fall in bathroom once and could not move afterwards, she had led in externally rotated position, there was tenderness in scarpas triangle, no hip fracture was seen on x - ray, next step is | [
"CT",
"MRI",
"USCT",
"PET scan"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
APGAR stands for | [
"Appearance, Pulse rate, Growth, Activity, Respiratory rate",
"Appearance, Pulse rate, Grimace, Activity, Respiratory rate",
"Appearance, Pulse rate, Grimace, Activity, Respiratory effort.",
"Activity, Pulse rate, Grimace, Activity, Respiratory effort."
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hematuria may occur in snake bite of - | [
"Viper",
"Cobra",
"Sea snake",
"Krait"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Karyotyping under light microscopy is done by: | [
"R banding",
"Q banding",
"G banding",
"C banding"
] | C | G banding Ref: Robbins 7/e p170; Also see q no. 29 of May 2007 "The study of chromosomes--kwyotyping--is the basic tool of the cytogeneticist. The usual procedure of producing a chromosome spread is to arrest mitosis in dividing cells in metaphase by the use of mitotic spindle inhibitors (e.g.. colcemid) and then to stain the chromosomes. In a metaphase spread, the individual chromosomes take the form of two chromatids connected at the centromere. A karyotype is a standard arrangement of a photographed or imaged stained metaphase spread in which chromosome pairs are arranged in order of decreasing length. A variety of staining methods that allow identification of each individual chromosome on the basis of a distinctive and reliable pattern of alternating light and dark bands along the length of the chromosome have been developed. The one most commonly employed uses a Giemsa stain and is hence called G banding." - Robbins Pathology 7/e pl70 A karyotype is the number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus of a eukaryote cell. The term is also used for the complete set of chromosomes in a species, or an individual organism. Karyotypes describe the number of chromosomes, and what they look like under a light microscope. Attention is paid to their length, the position of the centromeres, any differences between the sex chromosomes, and any other physical characteristics. The preparation and study of karyotypes is pa of cytogenetics. The study of karyotypes is made possible by staining. Usually, a suitable dye, such as Giemsa is applied after cells have been arrested during cell division by a solution of colchicine. The dye stains regions of chromosomes that are rich in the base pairs Adenine (A) and Thymine (T) producing a dark band. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alkalinity of urine is done in - | [
"Barbiturate poisoning",
"Lithium toxicity",
"Alprazolam overdose",
"Diazepam toxicity"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Barbiturate poisoning Alkanization of urine o Acidic drugs are more ionized (lipid insoluble / polar / water soluble) at alkaline pH. So, they cannot be absorbed from tubular lumen, i.e. their excretion by kidney is enhanced by alkanization of urine. Such acidic drugs are Barbiturates and Salicylate. o Alkanization of urine is done by i.v. infusion of sodium bicarbonate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Branches of which of the following aery provides main blood supply to the medial pa of the breast? | [
"Lateral thoracic aery",
"Acromio Thoracic aery",
"Internal mammary aery",
"Posterior intercostal aeries"
] | C | Twigs from the perforating cutaneous branches of internal mammary aery in the second, third and fouh intercostal spaces supply the medial pa of the breast.Branches of the lateral thoracic aery supplies the lateral pa of the gland.Pectoral branches of acromiothoracic aery and superior thoracic aeries provide additional supply to the upper pa of the breast.The posterior intercostal aeries in the second, third and fouh spaces supply the breast tissue from its base. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about AJCC staging of oral cavity carcinoma -a) Involvement of pterygoid plate in stage T3 b) Involvement of pterygoid plate in stage T4 c) Involvement of lateral pterygoid muscle in stage T4 d) Involvement of medial pterygoid muscle in stage T3 | [
"a",
"c",
"ac",
"bc"
] | D | The 'T' classification is specific to different sites of origin.
I am going to mention 'T' classification of the oral cavity and oropharynx, as anterior two third of the tongue lies in oral cavity and the base of the tongue in the oropharynx.
Oral cavity consists of the lip, floor of the mouth, oral tongue (anterior 2/3 of tongue), buccal mucosa, upper and lower gingiva, hard palate and retromolar trigone.
Oropharynx includes the base of the tongue, the tonsillar region (tonsillar fossa and tonsillar pillars), the so palate, and the pharyngeal wall between the pharyngoepiglottic fold and the nasopharynx. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gottron papules are seen in- | [
"Dermatomyositis",
"Inclusion body myositis",
"Polymyositis",
"DLE"
] | A | Ans. is `a' i.e., Dermatomyositis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Linkage disequilibrium refers to? | [
"Never co-inherited gene",
"Inherited but not with disease causing gene",
"Genetic mutations",
"Co-inherited with the disease causing gene"
] | D | Ans. (d) Co-inherited with the disease causing gene(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 3)Even if any SNP has no effect on gene function (Neutral SNP) Q, it may be co-inherited with the "actual disease causing gene," if located close to that gene. This is called "Linkage disequilibrium" Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 74 yr old male patient was brought to the OPD by his daughter complaining of urinary incontinence and ataxia, also he has difficulty in calculating simple arithemetics and memory loss. What is the probable diagnosis | [
"Normal pressure hydrocephalus",
"Vascular dementia",
"VIT B12 dofficiency",
"Tabes dorsalis"
] | A | CLINICAL FEATURES IN NORMAL PRESSURE HYDROCEPHALUS Difficulty walking. This problem can be mild or severe. ... Dementia. This often involves confusion, sho-term memory loss/forgetfulness, trouble paying attention, changes in mood, and a lack of interest in daily activities. Problems with bladder control. REF : HARRISONS 21ST ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Meckel&;s diverticulum is situated at a maximum distance of about____ cm from the ileocecal valve - | [
"25",
"60",
"75",
"100"
] | D | Meckel diverticulum, caused by persistence of the vitelline duct and, on the antimesenteric ileal border, 60 to 100 cm from the ileocecal valve in adults. It is the most common and the most clinically significant congenital anomaly of the small intestine. Two thirds of patients are younger than 2 years. The omphalomesenteric duct (omphaloenteric duct, vitelline duct or yolk stalk) normally connects the embryonic midgut to the yolk sac ventrally, providing nutrients to the midgut during embryonic development. The vitelline duct narrows progressively and disappears between the 5th and 8th weeks gestation. In Meckel's diverticulum, the proximal part of vitelline duct fails to regress and involute, which remains as a remnant of variable length and location. The solitary diverticulum lies on the antimesenteric border of the ileum (opposite to the mesenteric attachment) and extends into the umbilical cord of the embryo. The left and right vitelline arteries originate from the primitive dorsal aorta, and travel with the vitelline duct. The right becomes the superior mesenteric artery that supplies a terminal branch to the diverticulum, while the left involutes. Having its own blood supply, Meckel's diverticulum is susceptible to obstruction or infection. Meckel's diverticulum is located in the distal ileum, usually within 2-3 feet (60-100 cm) of the ileocecal valve. This blind segment or small pouch is about 3-6 cm long and may have a greater lumen diameter than that of the ileum. It runs antimesenterically and has its own blood supply. It is a remnant of the connection from the yolk sac to the small intestine present during embryonic development. It is a true diverticulum, consisting of all 3 layers of the bowel wall which are mucosa, submucosa and muscularis propria. As the vitelline duct is made up of pluripotent cell lining, Meckel's diverticulum may harbor abnormal tissues, containing embryonic remnants of other tissue types. Jejunal, duodenal mucosa or Brunner's tissue were each found in 2% of ectopic cases. Heterotopic rests of gastric mucosa and pancreatic tissue are seen in 60% and 6% of cases respectively. Heterotopic means the displacement of an organ from its normal anatomic location. Inflammation of this Meckel's diverticulum may mimic appendicitis. Therefore, during appendectomy, ileum should be checked for the presence of Meckel's diverticulum, if it is found to be present it should be removed along with appendix. A memory aid is the rule of 2s: 2% (of the population) 2 feet (proximal to the ileocecal valve) 2 inches (in length) 2 types of common ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic) 2 years is the most common age at clinical presentation 2:1 male:female ratio However, the exact values for the above criteria range from 0.2-5 (for example, prevalence is probably 0.2-4%). It can also be present as an indirect hernia, typically on the right side, where it is known as a "Hernia of Littre". A case report of strangulated umbilical hernia with Meckel's diverticulum has also been published in the literature. Furthermore, it can be attached to the umbilical region by the vitelline ligament, with the possibility of vitelline cysts, or even a patent vitelline canal forming a vitelline fistula when the umbilical cord is cut. Torsions of intestine around the intestinal stalk may also occur, leading to obstruction, ischemia, and necrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anesthetic agent contraindicated in raised ICT is? | [
"Ketamine",
"Sevoflurane",
"Thiopentone",
"Etomidate"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ketamine * Ketamine increases cerebral metabolic rate, cerebral blood flow and intracranial tension.Neurophysiology and anaesthesiaA. Intravenous inducing anaesthetics# All intravenous inducing agents except for ketamine (i.e., etomidate, thiopentone, methohexitone and propofol) decrease cerebral metabolic rate, cerebral blood flow and intracranial tension. Maximum decrease in cerebral blood flow and cerebral protection is caused by thiopentone - IV agent of choice for neurosurgery.B. Inhalational agents# All inhalational agents: -i) Increase intracranial tension and cerebral blood flow.ii) Decrease cerebral metabolic rate - There by provide cerebroprotection.iii) Amongst inhalational agents, isoflurane provides maximum cerebroprotection, therefore it is the inhalational agent of choice for neurosurgery.C. Lidocaine# Lidocaine decreases ICT, Cerebral blood flow and metabolic rate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.