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Which of the following opioid analgesic acts primarily through K opioid receptors?: (A) Pentazocine, (B) Methadone, (C) Buprenorphine, (D) Pethidine | Answer is A. (Ref: KDT 6/e p464, 465) Pentazocine can cause dysphoric reactions (hallucinations) by stimulating the K receptors. | |
Kappa statistics is used to measure: (A) Inter examiner validity, (B) Correlation, (C) Regression, (D) Proportion | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is not a component of Glasgow Coma Scale?: (A) Eye opening, (B) Motor response, (C) Pupil size, (D) Verbal response | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. pupil size | |
Form the normal bacterial flora of the conjunctiva: (A) Corynebacterium xerosis, (B) E. Coli, (C) Streptococci, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. Corynebacterium xerosis | |
Hypoceruloplasminimia is associated with which abnormality?: (A) Menkes disease, (B) Alzheimer's disease, (C) Schizophrenia, (D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder | Answer is A. (A) Menkes disease # Deficiency or Lower-than-normal ceruloplasmin levels may indicate the following:> Wilson disease copper storage disease)> Menkes disease (Menkes kinky hair syndrome) (rare - UK incidence 1/100,000)> Overdose of Vitamin C> Copper deficiency> Aceruloplasminemia> Excess or Greater-than-no... | |
According to triage patient having visible bleeding should be treated in:: (A) Emergency., (B) Delayed., (C) Minimal treatment., (D) No treatment. | Answer is A. None | |
Apart from plasmodium, which of the following can infect RBCs in "ring forms"?: (A) Babesia microti, (B) Tyrpanosomas, (C) Schistosomia, (D) Microfilaria | Answer is A. Ans. a (Babesia microti). (Ref. Harrison's, Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed., pg1232)Babesiosis (B. microti)# Babesiosis is a worldwide protozoan disease of animals that is transmitted by ticks; humans are infected incidentally and initially develop a nonspecific febrile illness that can lead to h... | |
Following clostridia are saccharolytic except ?: (A) Welchii, (B) Sporogenes, (C) Septicum, (D) Oedematiens | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sporogenes . Clostridia may break down carbohydrate for energy (sacchrolytic) or break down protein for energy (proteolytic) or both. Different clostridia have different pattern :- . Both proteolytic and saccharolytic - Predominating proteolytic --> CL sporogenes, Cl botulinum A .B.F., Cl... | |
A 32-year-old primi gravida presents with DVT. There is history of 2 episodes of DVT in the past and was diagnosed to have antiphospoholipid antibody. Next step in management is:: (A) Aspirin alone, (B) Aspirin and heparin, (C) LMWH, (D) Warfarin for 6 months | Answer is B. Ans: B (Aspirin and heparin) Ref: Maternal-Fetal Medicine edited by Mary E. D'Alton. pg: 10-14 and DC Dutta's Textbook of Obstetrics. 7th edition, pg: 343 Explanation: "ACOG 2005 guidelines recommends low dos aspirin t5-80 mg orally per day along with unfractionated heparin 5000 unit subcutaneously twice d... | |
Iridocorneal endothelial syndrome is associated with –: (A) Progressive atrophy of iris stroma, (B) Bilateral stromal edema of iris & cornea, (C) Deposition of collagen in Descemet's membrane, (D) Deposition of glycosaminoglycan in Descemet's membrane | Answer is A. Iridocorneal endothelial (ICE) syndrome is characterized by abnormal corneal endothelium which causes :- Iris atrophy, Secondary angle closure glaucoma in association with characteristic peripheral anterior synechiae, Corneal edema.
Option 'c' may cause confusion here. You should keep in mind that in irido... | |
An elderly man complains of ear pain. During evaluation, the physician asks if the patient has tinnitus. What is tinnitus?: (A) A subjective sensation of noise in the head, (B) A complication of chronic metal ingestion, (C) An audible cardiac murmur, (D) Dizziness with sounds | Answer is A. Tinnitus is the perception of abnormal noise in the ear or head. It is usually attributed to a sensory loss; pulsatile tinnitus occurs with conductive hearing loss and is due to carotid pulsations becoming more apparent. | |
A 6 year old child with IQ of 50. Which of the following can the child do?: (A) Identify colours, (B) Read a sentence, (C) Ride a bicycle, (D) Copy a triangle | Answer is A. IQ is defined by as the mental age divided by the chronological age multiplied by 100. In this case, a child of 6 years of age with an IQ of 50%, means that his mental age is that of a 3 year old child. At 3 years of age, a child can identify two colours. Ref: Essential paediatrics by OP Ghai, 6th edition,... | |
In fracture surgical neck of humerus, the following nerve injury is common:: (A) Axillary, (B) Radial, (C) Ulnar, (D) Median | Answer is A. A i.e. Axillary | |
Not an indication for blood transfusion: (A) Moderate anemia at 24-30 weeks, (B) Severe anemia at 36 weeks, (C) Blood loss anemia, (D) Refractory anemia | Answer is A. Indications for Blood Transfusion
To correct anemia due to blood loss and to combat postpartum hemorrhage
Patient with severe anemia seen in later months of pregnancy (beyond 36 weeks)
Refractory anemia: Anemia not responding to either oral or parenteral therapy in spite of correct treatment
Associated i... | |
Trans-placental spread is least associated with?: (A) HSV, (B) Rubella, (C) HBV, (D) HIV | Answer is A. HSV infection may be acquired in utero, during the birth process, or during the neonatal period.
Intrauterine and postpartum infections occur infrequently.
Most cases of neonatal herpes result from maternal infection and transmission, usually during passage through a contaminated infected birth canal of a... | |
Ovum is released due to: (A) FSH, (B) LH, (C) Prolactin, (D) HCG | Answer is B. Ovulation-the discharge of a secondary oocyte from the Graafian follicle; in an adult woman, this normally occurs at intervals of about28 days and alternates between the two ovaries. As a rule, only one secondary oocyte is produced, but occasionally ovulation produces two or more; if more than one subseque... | |
Sholy after the administration of an inhalational anesthetic and succinylcholine for intubation prior to an elective inguinal hernia repair in a 10-year-old boy, he becomes markedly febrile, displays a tachycardia of 160, and his urine changes color to a dark red. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatmen... | Answer is D. The cause of malignant hypehermia is unknown, but it is associated with inhalational anesthetic agents and succinylcholine. It may develop in an otherwise healthy person who has tolerated previous surgery without incident. It should be suspected in the presence of a history of unexplained fever, muscle or ... | |
A gastric biopsy is performed on a patient with suspected graft-versus-host disease following bone marrow transplantation. The biopsy demonstrates many isolated dying epithelial cells in crypts showing fragmented, hyperchromatic nuclei and small discrete blebs containing both cytoplasm and nuclear fragments. The biopsy... | Answer is A. The changes described are those of apoptosis, which is a form of programmed cell death. Apoptosis can be seen in a variety of settings. In this case, it is occurring in the context of graft-versus-host disease, which is mediated by CD8+ and CD4+ cells. Apoptosis also occurs during embryogenesis, during hor... | |
Varenicline is used in: (A) Pulmonary hemosiderosis, (B) Sleep apnea, (C) Anti-trypsin deficiency, (D) Nicotine dependency | Answer is D. Varenicline is a prescription medication used to treat smoking addiction. This medication is the first approved nicotinic receptor paial agonist. Specifically, varenicline is a paial agonist of the alpha4/beta2 subtype of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 578 | |
Cyst seen in vagina are all except:: (A) Nebothian cyst, (B) Gartner's cyst, (C) Bartholin's cyst, (D) Inclusion cyst | Answer is A. Ans: A (Nebothian cyst) Ref: Shows Textbook of Gynecology 15th ed pg 136Explanation:VAGINAL CYSTSVaginal cysts are rare and are located more commonly in anterior vaginal wallGartner's cystArises from remnants of mesonephric ductLies in anterolateral aspect of vaginal wallSmall cyst is asymptomaticLarge cys... | |
Features of achalsia cardia are all of the following except: March 2009: (A) Regurgitant vomiting, (B) Elongated and dilated esophagus, (C) Rat-tail deformity and filling defect on barium study, (D) Increased difficulty in swallowing | Answer is C. Ans. C: Rat-tail deformity and filling defect on barium study Dysphagia is the most common presenting symptom in patients with achalasia. The ingestion of either solids or liquids can result in dysphagia. Emotional stress and the ingestion of cold liquids are well-known exacerbating or precipitating factor... | |
A 6 year old girl presents with Recurrent E.coli infection in urine. Ultrasound of abdomen shows Hydroureter and Hydronephrosis. Micturating cysto – urethrogram shows filling defect in urinary bladder. The likely diagnosis is –: (A) Sacrococcygeal Teratoma, (B) Vesicoureteric Reflux – grade II, (C) Duplication of Urete... | Answer is D. IVP in ureterocele usually shows a round filling defect, sometimes large, in the bladder corresponding to the ureterocele, and characteristic finding of duplication of the collecting system (ureteroceles are nearly always associated with ureteral duplication)
Ureterocele :
Is a cystic dilatation of the te... | |
Orchidopexy is done in cases of undescended testes at the age of: (A) Infancy, (B) 1-2 yrs, (C) 5 yrs, (D) Puberty | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Infancy Campbell's Urology writes - "Definitive treatment of an undescended testis should take place between 6 and 12 months of age. Because spontaneous descent occurs in most boys by 3 months of age and uncommonly thereafter, earlier interventions should be considered in order to theoreti... | |
A 45 year old woman develops abdominal and pelvic discomfo. Physical examination reveals a large mass in the right lower quadrant, which is surgically resected. The mass consists of a large (25 cm) cystic sac containing thick mucinous fluid within a thin wall. On careful inspection, the pathologist finds an area of inc... | Answer is A. Classification of ovarian tumors, like testicular tumors, is based on putative cell of origin. Thus, ovarian tumors can be divided into neoplasms of germ cells,surface epithelium, or stromal origin. Two thirds of all ovarian neoplasms derive from the surface (coelomic) epithelium. These cystic tumors may c... | |
A man is brought to casualty who met with A. He sustained multiple rib fractures with paradoxical movement of chest. Management is: (A) Tracheostomy, (B) Consult cardiothoracic surgeon, (C) Strapping, (D) Intermittent positive pressure ventilation | Answer is D. Ventilator suppo with IPPV(intermittent positive pressure ventilation) is the treatment of choice.Assisted ventilation is required for several days until the chest wall stabilises.If ventilator suppo is required for more than 10 days,then tracheostomy is done to prevent laryngeal stenosis which can occur d... | |
The hookworm thrives on ?: (A) Whole blood, (B) Plasma, (C) Serum, (D) RBC | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Plasma Hook worms Ancylostoma duodenale - Old world hookworm Nector americanus - New world hook worm Habitat - Small intestine (Jejunum > duodenum > Ileum) Infective form - Filariform larva Mode of infection - Penetration of skin Plasma forms the main source of nourishment for hookworm, t... | |
Which of the following penicillins has the best gram negative spectrum?: (A) Methicillin, (B) Ampicillin, (C) Penicillin V, (D) Cefixime | Answer is B. None | |
Eminectomy is done for treatment of:: (A) TMJ ankylosis, (B) TMJ dislocation, (C) Coronoid fracture, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following is a RNA virus?: (A) Measles virus, (B) Herpes virus, (C) Papaya virus, (D) Adeno virus | Answer is A. None | |
Following drugs are the first choice in treating patients with candidiasis except-: (A) Fluconazole, (B) Nystatin, (C) Amphotericin B, (D) Caspofungin | Answer is D. Ans. is "d' i.e., Caspofungin Choice of drugs for systemic mycosesDiseaseDrugs1st Choice2nd Choice1) Candidiasisoral/vaginal / cutameous deep / invasive AMB/VORIAMB/VORIHRFLU/CAS/POSA2. CryptococcosisAMB/+-5-FCFLU3. HistoplasmosisITR/AMBFLU4. CoccidioidomycosisAMB/FLUITR.'KTZ5. BlastomycosisITR/AMBKTZ/FLU6... | |
All of the following are anti HIV agents except ?: (A) Ritonavir, (B) Acyclovir, (C) Didanosine, (D) Zidovudine | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Acyclovir | |
Which one of the following drugs of abuse is most typically associated with the illustrated complication??: (A) Ketamine, (B) Heroin, (C) Cocaine, (D) Phencyclidine | Answer is C. Answer C. CocainePerforation of the nasal septum and palate are well recognized complications of intranasal cocaine use. | |
Most common symptom associated with adult OCD?: (A) Pathological doubt, (B) Need for symmetry, (C) Sexual, (D) Aggressive | Answer is A. (a) Pathological doubt, Ref: Complete review of psychiatry by Dr. Prashant Agrawal, ed.,, 2018, ch- 7, pg. 164 Explanation: Variable % Obsessions (N=200) Contamination 45 Pathological doubt 42 Somatic 36 Need for symmetry 31 Aggressive 28 Sexual 26 Other 13 Multiple obsessions 60 Compulsions (N=200) Checki... | |
Pralidoxime acts by -: (A) Reactivating cholinesterase enzyme, (B) Promoting synthesis of cholinesterase, (C) Promoting synthesis of acetylcholine, (D) Direct action on cholinergic receptors | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reactivating cholinesterase enzyme o Pralidoxime is most commonly used cholinesterase reactivater.OXIMESo Oximes 1 Pralidoxime 2-PAM, obidoxime and diacetyl-monoxime (DAM)J are used in organophosphatepoisoning.o Oximes acts by reactivating cholinesterase enzyme.o Mechanism of actionIn org... | |
Malignant cells in urine cytology are most commonly seen in: (A) Renal cell carcinoma, (B) Prostate carcinoma, (C) Urothelial carcinoma, (D) Bladder carcinoma | Answer is C. Ans. c (Urothelial carcinoma). (Ref. Harrison's Medicine 17th ed. 555)# Urothelial malignancy classically shows polychronotropism & multicentricity.# In urothelial or transitional carcinoma of renal pelvis or ureter, the examination of urine for malignant cells is positive and even may indicate whether tum... | |
Drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is :: (A) Atropine., (B) Solefenacin., (C) Oxybutynin., (D) Tolterodine. | Answer is A. None | |
Surya kant is prescribed with first generation antihistaminic. He should be advised to avoid:: (A) Driving motor cycle, (B) Consuming cheese, (C) Physical exercise, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. A. Driving motor cycleFirst generation antihistaminic like promethazine, diphenhydramine crosses the blood brain barrier and have higher incidence of sedation. Another property of these drugs is that they show anticholinergic side effects. Due to this patient is asked not to drive any vehicle. | |
Pivot shift test is positive with: (A) Anterior cruciate ligament tear, (B) Posterior cruciate ligament tear, (C) Medial meniscus injury, (D) Lateral meniscus injury | Answer is A. Ans. a (Anterior cruciate ligament tear) (Ref. Adam's orthopedics 11th/pg, 315-325)Knee Joint Injuries1Normal range of motion# Flexion: 135 degrees# Extension: 0 to 10 degrees above horizontal plane2Patellar apprehension test# Evaluates for patella subluxation3Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) stability tes... | |
Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal eneuresis is -: (A) Imipramine, (B) Fluoxetine, (C) Trazdone, (D) Sertaline | Answer is A. Drugs used in nocturnal enuresis are imipramine and desmopressine. | |
A pregnant lady at 32 weeks of gestation presents with a BP of 160/110 mmHg, proteinuria with retinal haemorrhage. What is the definitive treatment of choice in this patient?: (A) Ritodrine, (B) Nifedipine, (C) Magnesium sulphates, (D) Termination of pregnancy | Answer is D. This patient is showing features of severe hypeension which is an indication for delivery. Induction of labour is the definitive treatment of choice which is most preferable. In order to prevent the onset of seizures magnesium sulfate prophylaxis should be given. Features of severe pre eclampsia are: BP > ... | |
Which is not a component of APGAR Score –: (A) Colour of the body, (B) Muscle tone, (C) Heart rate/minutes, (D) Respiratory rate per minute | Answer is D. None | |
Chromosome in which centromere is close to one end which result in short arm being very short is which type of chromosome?: (A) Metacentric, (B) Submetacentric, (C) Telocentric, (D) Acrocentic | Answer is D. Ans. d (Acrocentric). (Ref. Cell & Molecular Biology by DeRobertis, 7th /pg. 348)CHROMOSOMES# The entire genetic information contained in the genes is packaged in the chromosomes. All the somatic cells of an individual organism contain the same number of chromosomes.# Genes are arranged linearly on the chr... | |
Which among the following is a mechanism of action of colchicine?: (A) Suppression of immunity, (B) Increase in uric acid excretion, (C) Decrease in uric acid synthesis, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Colchicine is known to suppress many immune functions in the setting of crystal induced ahritis by 1. decreasing neutrophil chemotaxis 2. decreasing neutrophil adhesion 3. decreasing release of multiple inflammatory mediators 4. decreasing phagocytosis of urate crystals by neutrophils. Mechanism: Colchicin... | |
Bollinger bodies are seen in -: (A) Chickenpox, (B) Cowpox, (C) Fowlpox, (D) Smallpox | Answer is C. None | |
About Kawasaki disease all are true, EXCEPT:: (A) Mucocutaneous lesions, (B) Coronary aery is involved, (C) Seen in children, (D) Suppurative lymphadenopathy | Answer is D. Suppurative lymphadenopathy | |
Which of the following is a L-type calcium channel blocker:: (A) Nifedipines, (B) Amlodipines, (C) Diltiazem, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. (d) All of the aboveRef. KDT 6th ed. / 528Types of Calcium Channel Blocker L-Type (long lasting current)T-type (transient current)N-Type (neuronal)Locations and function* Excitation -contraction coupling in cardiac and smooth muscle* SA, A-V node: conductivity* Endocrine cell: Hormone release* Neurons... | |
Male to male transmission is seen in -: (A) Autosomal dominant diseases, (B) Autosomal recessive, (C) X-linked dominant, (D) Mitochondrial disease | Answer is A. Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 218,Heading=Transmission patterns of single-gene disorders Disorders of autosomal dominant inheritance are manifested in the heterozygous state, so atleast one parent in an index case usually is affected, both males and females are affected, both males and female... | |
Sputum from one patient is disinfected immediately following expectoration, this is known as:: (A) Concurrent, (B) Pre current, (C) Recurrent, (D) Terminal | Answer is A. Ans: a (Concurrent) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 108Sterilization is the process of destroying all life including spores.Disinfection- is the killing of infectious agents outside the body by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents.Types of disinfection:a) Concurrent disinfection- It is the application of ... | |
'Sequestration' is best defined as:: (A) A piece of dead bone, (B) A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue, (C) A piece of bone with poor vascularity, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Ans. B. A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue (Ref. Maheshwari ortho 3rd/pg.l60)Maheshwari orthopaedics 3rd/pg. 160...."Sequestrum is a piece of dead bone, surrounded by infected granulation tissue trying to 'eat' the Sequestrum away"CHRONIC OSTEOMYELITISPresents in 3 forms:A. Chronic osteomye... | |
Dose of Rabies immunoglobulin is?: (A) 10 IU/Kg body weight, (B) 15 IU/kg body weight, (C) 20 IU/kg body weight, (D) 25 IU/kg body weight | Answer is C. Anti rabies serum is given in class III bites (Single or multiple transdermal bites or scratches, licks on broken skin, Contamination of mucous membranes with aalvia, exposure to bats)
It is found to prolong the incubation period.
Passive immunization in rabies may be given by :
Horse Anti-rabies serum : 4... | |
Progressive cognitive impairment is Alzheimer's disease is characterized by: (A) Nominal aphasia, (B) Recent memory loss, (C) No behavioral abnormalities, (D) All | Answer is B. Memory impairment is typically an early and prominent feature in dementia, especially in dementias involving the coex, such as dementia of the Alzheimer's type. Early in the course of dementia, memory impairment is mild and usually most marked for recent events. As the course of dementia progresses, memory... | |
Mesothelioma is most commonly caused by?: (A) Asbestosis, (B) Silicosis, (C) Anthracosis, (D) Coal workers pneumoconiosis | Answer is A. Ans. (a) AsbestosisRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1689* Working with asbestos is the most common risk factor for mesothelioma.* Indeed, the relationship between asbestos and mesothelioma is so strong that many consider mesothelioma a "signal" or "sentinel" tumor.* In rare cases, mesothelioma has also been associa... | |
The following rosette cataract is seen with: (A) Steroid induced cataract, (B) Traumatic cataract, (C) Syndermatotic cataract, (D) Rose thorn injury to lens | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following is true about typhoid?: (A) Fecal carriers are less common, (B) Vi antibodies are present in about 80% of chronic carriers, (C) Gall bladder usually not involved in carrier state, (D) Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers | Answer is B. Convalescent carriers excrete the bacilli for 6-8 weeks.Persons who excrete the bacilli for more than a year after a clinical attack are called chronic carriers.In chronic carriers, the organism persists in the gallbladder. Vi antibodies are present in about 80% 0f chronic carriersFecal carriers are more f... | |
A 5 yr. old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with rounded end of pen, he developed urticarial wheal, confined to border of lesion, most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Fixed drug eruption, (B) Lichen planus, (C) Urticaria pigmentosa, (D) Urticarial vasculitis | Answer is C. Ans. C. Urticaria pigmentosa* It is urticaria pigmentosa.* It is cutaneous mastocytosis presenting with pigmented lesions.* On rubbing the lesions mast cells degranulate releasing histamine.* This produces the wheal and flare of the lesion. It is known as Darier's sign.Epidermal acantholysis in mid epiderm... | |
Long term control of diabetes is assessed by: (A) Random blood sugar, (B) Microalbuminuria/ creatinine ratio, (C) HbA2, (D) HbA1c | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. HbA1c | |
Primary open-angle glaucoma is associated with all of the following except:: (A) Diabetes mellitus, (B) Myopia, (C) Hypehyroidism, (D) Pars planitis | Answer is D. Ans. Pars planitis | |
Direction of water jet while doing syringing of ear should be:: (A) Anteroinferior, (B) Posterosuperior, (C) Anterosuperior, (D) Posteroinferior | Answer is B. In syringing (done to remove impacted wax) pinna is pulled upwards and backwards and a stream of water from the ear syringe is directed along the posterosuperior wall of the meatus. | |
Biological value is maximum of:: (A) Egg, (B) Milk, (C) Soyabean, (D) Pulses | Answer is A. Egg | |
Among the given hormones which are stored the longest in a cell: (A) Insulin, (B) T3, (C) PTH, (D) Testosterone | Answer is B. Hormone Supply Stored in CellSteroids and 1,25(OH)2-D3NoneCatecholamines and PTHHoursInsulin DaysT3 and T4WeeksRef: Harper; 30th edition; Pg:515 | |
The most common effect of colchicine which is dose limiting is :: (A) Diarrhea, (B) Dyspepsia, (C) Retinal damage, (D) Loss of taste sensation | Answer is A. None | |
Not a feature of Treacher-Collins syndrome:: (A) Deafness, (B) Colobomas of lower eyelid, (C) Hypoplasia of zygomatic bone, (D) Mongoloid slant of palpable fissure | Answer is D. Ans. D. Mongoloid slant of palpable fissureMandibulofacial dysostosis is also known as Franceschetti-Klein syndrome or Treacher-Collins syndrome.Important features are as under:MicrognathiaColobomas of lower eyelidSunken cheek bonesBlind fistulas between the angles of mouth and earsDeformed pinnasAtypical ... | |
Most potent stimulator of NaiveT-cells -: (A) Mature dentritic cells, (B) Follicular dentritic cells, (C) Macrophages, (D) B-cell | Answer is A. Question repeated | |
Layers of the scalp include all of the following except-: (A) Galea aponeurotica, (B) Adventitious layer, (C) Skin, (D) Pericranium | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Adventitious layer Layers of scalp have been explained in NEET Dec.-16 | |
Which of the following adverse effects characteristically associated with methysergide ?: (A) Pulmonary hypertension, (B) Retroperitoneal fibrosis, (C) Hepatotoxicity, (D) Ischemic heart disease | Answer is B. None | |
Binge eating disorder is characterized by ?: (A) Normal weight, (B) Weight loss, (C) Obesity, (D) Self induced vomiting | Answer is C. Ans. C. ObesityBinge eating disorder (BED) is characterized by insatiable cravings that can occur any time day or night, usually secretive, and filled with shame.There are no comPensatory mechanisms associated with the binge to get rid of calories, so individulas with BED are more likely to be overweight o... | |
Anemia of chronic disease is characterised by: (A) Increased sideroblast, (B) Increased TIBC, (C) Increased bone marrow iron, (D) Increased protoporphyrin | Answer is C. (Ref: Robbins 8/e p662)
Anemia of chronic disease- Impaired red cell production associated with any chronic diseases that would be infectious/inflammatory/neoplastic.
Chronic diseases produce a cytokine “IL-6” that increases the production of hepcidin from liver. Hepcidin inhibits ferroportin function in... | |
Choose the true statement about mit DNA:: (A) Few mutation compared to nuclear DNA, (B) It has 3x109 base pairs, (C) It receives 23 chromosomes from each parent, (D) It codes for less than 20% of the proteins involved in respiratory chain | Answer is D. Ans. D. It codes for less than 20% of the proteins involved in respiratory chainIn ETC there are around 67 subunits, out it 13 proteins are coded by Mit DNA, which comes around 19%.Mitochondrial DNA has high mutation rate almost 5 to 10 times that of nuclear DNA.It has 16,569 bpMitochondrial DNA has matern... | |
Cataract in newborn is:: (A) Zonular, (B) Coronary, (C) Snowflake, (D) Coical | Answer is A. Ans. Zonular | |
Drug of choice for treatment of type 2 Brittle Asthma is -: (A) b-adrenergic agonist, (B) Inhaled corticosteroids, (C) Antileukotrines DM, (D) Subcutaneous epinephrine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Subcutaneous epinephrine o Brittle asthma is a type of asthma distinguishable from other forms by recurrent, severe attacks.o There are two subtypes divided by symptoms: Type 1 and Type 2, depending on the stability of the patient's maximum speed of expiration, or peak expiratory flow rat... | |
A 22-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of right-hand anaesthesia, that developed after an argument with her brother. She is in good spirits and seems unconcerned about her problem. There is no history of physical trauma. The neurologic examination is negative EXCEPT for reduced sensitivity to pain in a... | Answer is D. (D) Conversion disorder # Conversion disorder is characterized by symptoms or deficits of die voluntary motor or sensory functions dial cannot be explained by neurological or other medical conditions.> These symptoms are precipitated by psychological conflicts.> Term 'Hysteria' was used in die nineteenth c... | |
A person following a road-traffic accident presented in emergency with laceration of inguinal region. On examination there was swelling of inguinal region and distal pulsation was felt; internal iliac artery was normal, common iliac and external femoral artery was normal but common femoral vein is transected. Treatment... | Answer is A. None | |
A patient with ASD has the murmur similar to mitral regurgitation and left axis detion of 40 degrees. He is likely having:: (A) TGA, (B) Ostium secondum, (C) Ostium primum, (D) Floppy mitral valve | Answer is D. Presence of pansystolic murmur of mitral regurgitation in a patient with ASD suggests the presence of ostium primum defect with cleft mitral leaflet or a floppy mitral valve with mitral valve prolapse. ECG shows right axis detion in ASD, and extreme left axis detion in ostium primum ASD. Clinical presentat... | |
GLUT 4 is present in -: (A) Endothelium, (B) Liver, (C) Cardiac muscle, (D) Lens | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cardiac muscle* GLUT4 transporters mediate insulin dependent glucose uptake in skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle and adipose tissue | |
Which is the best test to detect pulmonary embolism: (A) D dimer assay, (B) MRI, (C) Ventilation Perfusion scan, (D) CT with IV contrast | Answer is D. CTPA is the first-line diagnostic test. It has the advantage of visualising the distribution and extent of the emboli or highlighting an alternative diagnosis, such as consolidation, pneumothorax or aoic dissection. The sensitivity of CT scanning may be increased by simultaneous visualisation of the femora... | |
A 54-year-old clerk complains of having had dysphagia for 15 years. The clinical diagnosis of achalasia is confirmed by a barium study. What is TRUE in this condition?: (A) The most common symptom is dysphagia., (B) In the early stages, dysphagia is more pronounced for solids than liquids, (C) The incidence of sarcoma ... | Answer is A. Dysphagia in esophageal achalasia is described as paradoxical in that it is more pronounced for liquids than solids. There are numerous reports of an increased incidence of carcinoma in achalasia, ranging from 3% to 10%. In 1975, Belsey reported a 10%. incidence in 81 patients in whom symptoms tended to oc... | |
Uveitis is caused by all except:: (A) T.B., (B) Staphylococcus, (C) Streptococcus, (D) Klebsiella | Answer is D. Ans. Klebsiella | |
Which of the following is false regarding plasmid: (A) Circular genetic material, (B) Double stranded DNA, (C) Extra chromosomal, (D) Synchronised with chromosomal multiplication | Answer is D. Plasmids contain their own signals for replication and can replicate independently. | |
Commonest cause of right ventricular failure is ?: (A) Corpulmonale, (B) Pulmonary involvement, (C) Endomyocardial fibrosis, (D) Left ventricular failure | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Left ventricular failureRight sided hea failureo Most common cause of right sided hea failure is left sided hea failure, i.e. right hea failure occurs as a consequence of left hea failure because left hea failure increases pressure in pulmonary circulation that produces an increased burde... | |
Which of the following anti-histaminie has very less cholinergic side effects?: (A) Promethazine, (B) Chlorpheniramine, (C) Hydroxyzine, (D) Loratidine | Answer is D. Loratidine is a second generation anti-histamine which has lesser sedation and cholinergic side effects. | |
following are decomposition changes except: (A) Discoloration, (B) Discharge, (C) Degloving, (D) Dilatation | Answer is D. Decomposition changes Discoloration: greenish discoloration of right iliac fossa due to sulphmethemoglobin, marbling, discoloration under surface of liver, staining of aoa, blackish discoloration of skin is due to formation of ferric sulphide. Distension: abdomen, breasts, penis, scrotum, face bloated, eye... | |
A 31 year old female patient complaints of bilateral impairment of hearing for the past 5 years. On examination, tympanic membrane is normal and audiogram shows a bilateral conductive deafness. Impedance audiometry shows normal curve and acoustic reflexes are absent. All of the following constitute pa of its treatment,... | Answer is A. The patient is showing features of otosclerosis. It is a condition due to new spongy bone formation. About 50% of the cases may have a positive family history and deafness stas between the age of 20-30 years. Non surgical treatment of otosclerosis includes use of hearing aid and sodium fluoride. Use of hig... | |
A 43-yrs-old female patients, who has sustained a head injury in a fall, has significant problems wit memory. Her brain injury is most likely to the: (A) Temporal lobe, (B) Frontal lobe, (C) Parietal lobe, (D) Occipital lobe | Answer is A. The area of the brain most closely associated with memory is the temporal lobe, paicularly the hippocampus. PE presents with a syncopal episode up to 15 percent of the time. Altered mental status and generalized seizures may also be the presenting complaint, especially in the elderly. The most common prese... | |
Antidote for ethylene glycol poisoning is/are: a) Methyl violet b) Fluconazole c) Fomepizole d) Ethyl alcohol: (A) ac, (B) cd, (C) ad, (D) bc | Answer is B. None | |
Which among the following is not a beta lactamase resistant Penicillin?: (A) Methicillin, (B) Carbenicillin, (C) Nafcillin, (D) Oxacillin | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carbenicillin | |
Class IV Kennedy Classification is:: (A) Bilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth., (B) Unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth., (C) Unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining both anterior to the remaining natural teeth and posterior t... | Answer is D. The following is the Kennedy classification:
Class I: Bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the natural teeth.
Class II: A unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth.
Class III: A unilateral edentulous are with natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior t... | |
Earliest fetal anomaly to be detected by USG :: (A) Hydrocephalous, (B) Anencephaly, (C) Achondroplasia, (D) Spina bifida | Answer is B. Anencephaly | |
A 54-year-old male nonsmoker is seen with complaints of a flulike illness. Initial symptomatic treatment is provided. Two days later, he returns, as he is still not feeling well. His primary physician prescribes a macrolide along with the symptomatic treatment. After 5 days of this treatment, the patient says he is run... | Answer is D. This x-ray shows a nonhomogeneous airspace density in the left middle and lower zones with areas of incomplete consolidation and evolving pneumatocele formation. The left diaphragm is raised and the trachea appears shifted to the left, suggesting loss of volume of the left lung. There is minimal blunting o... | |
Subclan steal syndrome is due to: (A) Blockage of first pa of subclan aery, (B) Blockage of second pa of subclan aery, (C) Blockage of third pa of subclan aery, (D) Thrombosis of subclan vein | Answer is B. Subclan steal syndrome refers to steno-occlusive disease of the proximal subclan aery with retrograde flow in the ipsilateral veebral aery and associated cerebral ischaemic symptoms.CausesClinical presentationIpsilateral upper limbNeurological, radiationCongenital Weak or absent pulseDecreased blood pressu... | |
GABA is produced from:: (A) Alanine, (B) Glycine, (C) Glutamate, (D) Glutamine | Answer is C. Glutamate | |
Palpatory thud, an audible snap is seen in: (A) Tracheal foreign body, (B) Bronchial foreign body, (C) Laryngeal foreign body, (D) Foreign body in ear | Answer is A. A foreign body in trachea may move up and down the trachea between the carnia and the undersurface of vocal cords causing "audible slap" and "palpatory thud&;.Symptoms and signs of foreign bodies at different levelsSite of foreign bodiesSymptoms and signsLarynxChoking, Cyanosis, Complete obstruction leadin... | |
A drug used in LUMINATE programme for non-infectious uveitis is –: (A) Cyclosporine, (B) Voclosporin, (C) Methotrexate, (D) Infliximab | Answer is B. Voclosporin is an immunomodulatory drug which inhibits the enzyme calcineurin. The chemical structure of voclosporin is similar to cyclosporine with a difference in one amino acid, leading to superior calcineurin inhibition and less variability in plasma concentration.
The LUMINATE (Lux Uveitis Multicenter... | |
Average of length of maxillary cuspid is:: (A) 26 mm, (B) 33 mm, (C) 21 mm, (D) 18 mm | Answer is A. None | |
The nerve root blocked in pudendal block is: (A) L 1,2,3, (B) L 2,3, (C) S 2,3,4, (D) S 4 | Answer is C. Pudendal nerve block : Pudendal nerve arises from S2,3,4. Doesn't relieve the pain of labor Cause perineal analgesia and relaxation Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 480. | |
A 45 year old male , known case of diabetes mellitus from last 15 years ,presents with Diabetic ketoacidosis . What shall be the initial line of management?: (A) 3 % saline, (B) 5% dextrose, (C) 0.9 % saline, (D) Colloids | Answer is C. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a problem that affects people with diabetes . It occurs when the body stas breaking down fat at a rate that is much too fast. The liver processes the fat into a fuel called ketones, which causes the blood to become acidic. Initial management is - 0.9% saline Treatment of choi... | |
All of the following are true regarding pilonidal sinus except: September 2009: (A) Seen predominantly in women, (B) Occurs only in sacrococcygeal region, (C) tendency for recurrence, (D) Obesity is a risk factor | Answer is A. Ans. A: Seen predominantly in women Pilonidal disease is described back as far as 1833, when Mayo described a hair-containing cyst located just below the coccyx. Hodge coined the term "pilonidal" from its Latin origins in 1880. Pilonidal disease describes a spectrum of clinical presentations, ranging from ... | |
Fever & hemorrhagic rash are seen in ail except:: (A) Dengu fever, (B) Lassa fever, (C) Rift Valley fever, (D) Sand fly fever | Answer is D. Ans: D (Sand,.) [Ref: Ananthanarayan 8th/514.518-19; Harrison 18th/l50,1629; Medical microbiology by Greenwood 16 th /4961The viral HF syndrome is a constellation of findings based on vascular instability and decreased vascular integrity. An assault, direct or indirect, on the microvasculature leads to inc... | |
Argentaffin cells in the GIT produce: (A) Gastrin, (B) Pepsin, (C) HCl, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. Their granules contain a chemical called serotonin, which stimulates smooth muscle contractions. | |
A 46-year-old man has a swelling in the scrotum. It shows clear transillumination anterior to the testis when a light is applied to the scrotum in a dark room. This physical exam is most consistent with?: (A) Cyst of the epididymis, (B) Torsion of testis, (C) Hydrocele, (D) Direct inguinal hernia | Answer is C. In adults, this is diagnostic, but in children, transillumination is also seen in an indirect inguinal hernia. As epididymal cyst may transilluminate but is posterior to the testis. | |
A 35-year patient recalls episodes where he smells a pungent odor, becomes sweaty and loses consciousness. His family member says while unconscious he was having facial twitching with lip-smacking movements. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Focal seizures, (B) Hysteria, (C) Atonic seizures, (D) Myoclonic seizu... | Answer is A. The patient is exhibiting focal seizures which are accompanied by transient impairment of patient's ability to maintain normal contact with environment. Chewing, lip smacking, swallowing or picking movements of hands are called Automatism. Full recovery after the episode range from seconds to an hour. Due ... |
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