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Retinoscopy in 5 year old is best done with:: (A) Atropine, (B) Homatropine, (C) Cyclopentolate, (D) Tropicamide | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is most characteristic of diabetic neuropathy?: (A) it is usually bilateral, (B) pain is not a feature, (C) it most commonly affects the brain, (D) it spares the autonomic system | Answer is A. Diabetic neuropathy usually presents as peripheral polyneuropathy, usually bilateral, including symptoms of numbness, paresthesia, severe hyperesthesia, and pain. Impairment of proprioceptive fibers can lead to gait abnormalities and Charcot's joints. Mononeuropathy is less common and is often spontaneousl... | |
The Loop diuretic acts at: (A) PCT, (B) DCT, (C) Ascending loop, (D) Descending loop | Answer is C. (C) Ascending loop # Loop diuretics: are diuretics that act on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney.> They are primarily used in medicine to treat hypertension and edema often due to congestive heart failure or renal insufficiency.# Mechanism of action:> Loop diuretics act on the Na+-K+-2CI' symporter... | |
Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hyperophy of: (A) Endothelial cells, (B) Collagen fibers, (C) Smooth muscle cells, (D) Elastic fibers | Answer is C. Vascular injury leading to endothelial cell loss or dysfunction stimulates smooth muscle cell growth and associated matrix synthesis. Healing of injured vessels involves the migration of smooth muscle cells or smooth muscle cell precursor cells into the intima. Here these cells proliferate, and synthesize ... | |
Increased plasma concentration of calcium is associated with: March 2009: (A) Rickets, (B) Osteomalacia, (C) Primary hyperparathyroidism, (D) Pseudohypoparathyroidism | Answer is C. Ans. C: Primary hyperparathyroidism The most common cause of high calcium levels (hypercalcemia) is an overproduction of parathyroid hormone, or hyperparathyroidism. Hyperparathyroidism tends to be more common in women, and occurs in 25 out of every 100,000 individuals. Hyperparathyroidism can be the resul... | |
Most sensitive investigation for abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically stable patient is-: (A) CT Scan, (B) Ultrasonography, (C) Diagnostic peritoneal lavage, (D) MRI | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., CT Scan Investigations to rule out abdominal injury in trauma patient* Investigations are driven by the cardiovascular status of the patient.* Blood loss into the abdomen can be subtle and there may be no clinical signs (blood is not an irritant and may not initially cause any abdominal p... | |
True about streptococcus:: (A) Lancefield classification is based on M protein, (B) Group ‘G’ not found in human, (C) Group ‘B’ causes neonatal meningitis, (D) Group ‘C’ can be isolated from vaginal flora | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following is a persistant biochemical marker of rickets -: (A) S.Ca++, (B) S Alkaline phosphatase, (C) S. Acid phosphate, (D) S. phosphate | Answer is B. Serum alkaline phosphatase is a consistent marker and is raised in all types of rickets. | |
All are toxicities seen with Amiodarone therapy except -: (A) Pulmonary fibrosis, (B) Corneal micro-deposits, (C) Cirrhosis of liver, (D) Productive cough | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Productive cough Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic drug and thus blocks potassium channel. It acts by increasing the action potential duration and effective refractory period.In spite of its present classification as class 3 drug, amiodarone also significantly blocks inactivated so... | |
Which of the following statements regarding prezinamide is false: (A) One should discontinue treatment if hyperuricemia occurs, (B) There is minimal cross resistance with INH, (C) Polyahralgia is a common side effect, (D) It can cause hepatotoxicity | Answer is A. Ref-Katzung 10/e p775 Pyrazinamide is a first line antitubercular drug that can cause hyperuricemia and hepatotoxicity. Non gouty ahralgia is very common adverse etfect of this drug.Hyperuricemia per se is not the indication for discontinuation of pyrazinamide. | |
Opioid agonist are ALE aEUR': (A) Morphine, (B) Codeine, (C) Ketamine, (D) Methadone | Answer is C. Ketamine | |
All of the following statements about dislocation of the shoulder are true, except: (A) The injury is produced by a fall with the arm fully abducted, (B) The commonest position for the head of the humerus to move into is the subspinous, (C) The auxiliary (circumflex humeral) nerve is likely to be injured, (D) The easie... | Answer is B. B i.e. The commonest position for the head of the humerus to move into is the subspinous | |
Patient diagnosed to have malaria, smear shows all stages of schizonts 14-20 merozoites, yellowish - brown pigment. The type of malaria is -: (A) Pl. falciparum, (B) Pl. malariae, (C) Pl. vivax, (D) Pl. ovale | Answer is C. None | |
Exhumation can be ordered by: (A) Doctor, (B) Civil surgeon, (C) District magistrate, (D) Police commissioner | Answer is C. Ans. c (District magistrate) (Ref. Parikh FMT 6th ed., p 2.90)EXHUMATION# By exhumation is meant the lawful disinterment or digging out of buried body from the grave.# It is sometimes necessary for -- Identification- Determination of cause of death (foul play suspected)# As the Hindus who form majority cre... | |
Which of the following pa of the colon has maximum basic electrical rhythm (BER)?: (A) Ascending colon, (B) Descending colon, (C) Sigmoid colon, (D) Transverse colon | Answer is C. Basic electrical rhythm (BER) is initiated by the interstitial cells of Cajal, stellate mesenchymal pacemaker cells. The rate of the BER is about 4/min in the stomach. It is about 12/min in the duodenum and falls to about 8/min in the distal ileum. In the colon, the BER rate rises from about 2/min at the c... | |
Major pa of the skin of pinna is supplied by:: (A) Aurculo temporal nerve, (B) Auricular branch of the vagus, (C) Posterior auricular nerve, (D) Great auricular nerve | Answer is D. D i.e. Great auricular | |
Crude birth rate denominator is -: (A) Total no of live births in that year, (B) 1000 live births, (C) Total numbers of births, (D) Mid year population | Answer is D. None | |
As per the World Health Organisation guidelines, iodine deficiency disorders are endemic in a community if the prevalence of goiter in school age children in more than -: (A) 1%, (B) 5%, (C) 10%, (D) 15% | Answer is C. Epidemiological criteria for assessing severity of IDD. Total goitre Rate (TGR) : Grade I + Grade II Median urinary iodine excretion. Thyroid volume (Ultrasound). Salt iodine content Criteria for sustainable elimination of IDD. Median Urinary Iodine Excretion 100 mcg/L Level of iodization: 1) 30ppm at prod... | |
Organophosphate insecticides are all except -: (A) Dieldrin, (B) Fenthion, (C) Diazinon, (D) Propoxur | Answer is A. Organochloride compounds: DDT Lindane Methoxychlor HCH Chlordane Dieldrin Aldrin Toxaphene Kepone Mirex Organophosphorous compounds: Chlohion Diazinon Dioxathion Dimethoate EPN Malathion (OMS-1) Fenthion (OMS-2) Methyl parathion Parathion Ronnel Trichlorfon Dichlorvos Abate (OMS-786) Naled Gardona Chlorpyr... | |
Medium used to isolate M. tuberculosis contains all except ?: (A) Malachite green, (B) Hen's egg, (C) Bromothymol blue, (D) Glycerol | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bromothymol blue Lowenstein-Jensen Medium (LT medium)LJ medium consists of mineral salts, asparagine, glycerol, malachite green and hen's egg.The malachite green prevents the growth of other microorganism on medium.It is used as a primary isolation medium for mycobacteria.Mineral salts ar... | |
Intrauterine exposure of diethylstilboestrol is associated with -: (A) Squamous cell carcinoma of cervix, (B) Adenocarcinoma of endometrium, (C) Clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagina, (D) Sarcoma of uterus | Answer is C. None | |
The biological indicator used in various autoclave machines for quality check is-: (A) Clostridium tetani, (B) Bacillus stereothermophilus, (C) Bacillus pumilus, (D) Bacillus subtilis | Answer is B. METHOD Sterlization control Hot air oven Autoclave Filtration Ionizing radiation (cold sterilization) Ethylene oxide Plasma sterilization Clostridium tetani non toxigenic strain, B.subtilis sub sp. niger B.Stearothermophillus Brivundimonas dimunata B. Pumilus B.Globigi B.Stearothermophillus | |
Disease elimination is helped by-: (A) Herd immunity, (B) Isolation, (C) Quarantine, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Herd immunity o If the herd immunity is sufficiently high, the occurrence of an epidemic is regarded as highly unlikely.o If that high level of immunity is maintained and stepped up, by an on-going immunization programme, to the point where the susceptible persons are reduced to a small p... | |
In retinitis pigmentosa, following are true except –: (A) Pigments present, (B) Pale waxy disc, (C) Narrowing of vessels, (D) ERG – normal | Answer is D. ERG is markedly subnormal in retinitis pigmentosa.
There is perivascular pigment deposition, pale- waxy disc and marked attenuation (narrowing) of retinal vessels | |
Aminoglycoside class of drugs causes hearing loss by damaging?: (A) Inner hair cells of basal turn, (B) Outer hair cells of basal turn, (C) Inner hair cells of apical turn, (D) Outer hair cells of apical turn | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Outer hair cells of basal turn o Aminoglycosides affect exclusively outer hair cells, paicularly of basal coil of cochlea. | |
A six month old infant fed totally on cow's milk has been brought with bleeding spots, anaemia, fever and generalised tenderness. On examination, there were swelling in both the lower extremities and the blood count was normal. The most likely diagnosis is?: (A) Ahritis, (B) Poliomyelities, (C) Osteomyelities, (D) Scur... | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., ScurvyExclusive feeding on Cow's milk in a 6 months infant with anemia, bleeding, fever and generalized tenderness suggest the diagnosis of scurvy.Cow's milk does not contain sufficient amount of Vitamin C. On the other hand breast milk contains sufficient Vitamin C.Clinical manifestation... | |
Which of the following is not true in obstructive lung disease?: (A) FEV|, (B) TLC|, (C) FVC|, (D) Reduced timed vital capacity | Answer is B. Ans. (b) TLC |Ref: Harrison 19th ed. / 306e-2fParameterObstructiveRestrictiveFEV1REDUCEDREDUCEDTLCNORMAL/ INCREASEDREDUCEDFVCREDUCEDREDUCEDFEV1/FVC RATIOREDUCEDNORMAL/INCREASEDRESIDUAL VOLUMEINCREASEDDECREASED | |
Which of the following Antiepileptic acts by opening Potassium channel?: (A) Ezogabine, (B) Felbamate, (C) Lacosamide, (D) Gabapentin | Answer is A. None | |
Normal CD4:CD8 ratio is: (A) 3:01, (B) 2:01, (C) 1:02, (D) 1:03 | Answer is B. Ans. b (2:1) (Ref. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 16th ed., 2019)CD4/CD8 Ratio# The ratio of 2:1 found in normal tissues.# In HIV infection the CD4 count is often decreased and the CD8 count increased so the ratio might 'invert', that is become less than 1.AIDS Diagnosis:* < 200 CD4 count,* HIV... | |
Which group of streptococcus grow at > 60degC -: (A) A, (B) B, (C) C, (D) D | Answer is D. Option 1, 2, 3 Heat tolerance test (60oC) is negative for Group A, B, C Streptococci. Option 4 Enterococcus is heat resistant. Enterococcus grows in presence of 6.5% NaCl, pH 9.6 and temperature >55oC which differentiate it from Group D streptococci. | |
Which of following are associated with external oblique muscle -a) Pouparts ligamentb) Lacunar ligamentc) Superficial inguinal ringd) Conjoint tendone) Cremaster muscle: (A) ab, (B) abc, (C) acd, (D) bcd | Answer is B. Internal oblique forms cremasteric muscle. Internal oblique and transversus abdominis form the conjoint tendon. Poupart's ligament, lacunar ligament, pectineal ligament, superficial inguinal ring, and external spermatic fascia are all formed by external oblique muscle. | |
IgE is secreted by -: (A) Mast cell, (B) Basophils, (C) Eosinophils, (D) Plasma cells | Answer is D. IgE is synthesised by plasma cells. Monomers of IgE consist of two heavy chains (e chain) and two light chains, with the e chain containing 4 Ig-like constant domains Reff: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:136 | |
A 25 year old married male presents with infeility. He had undergone retroperitoneal lymphnode disection at age of 15 years for embryonal carcinoma of right testis. Semen analysis shows-quantity-0.5 ml, no. sperm, no fructose. Biopsy of testis shows normal spermato genesis. Best treatment here would be ?: (A) Aificial ... | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Microtesticular Aspiration and intra-cytoplasmic injection Absence of sperms in presence of normal spermatogenesis along with absence of fructose is suggestive of an obstruction in the ejaculatory duct (as described in previous chapter - Prostate & seminal vesicles) "Sperm aspiration tech... | |
The lamina propria, a layer of dense connective tissue is:: (A) Thicker in anterior than posterior part of the palate., (B) Thicker in posterior than anterior part of the palate., (C) Not found in the posterior part of the palate., (D) Not found in the anterior part of the palate. | Answer is A. The lamina propria may attach to the periosteum of the alveolar bone , or it may overlay the submucosa. | |
Drug which is used in lie detection (truth serum): (A) Glycopyrrolate, (B) Solifenacin, (C) Hyoscine, (D) Acetylcholine | Answer is C. Hyoscine or scopolamine and thiopentone sodium are the drugs used in lie detection .they are considered as truth serum .under CNS depression it is implied that the patient usually tells the truth Ref: Goodman Gillman 11th ed pg 231-232 | |
Test for allergic rhinitis -: (A) CT Scan, (B) X-ray, (C) Nasal Smear, (D) MRI | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Nasal Smear o A nasal smear can sometimes be helpful for establishing the diagnosis of allergic rhinitis.o The presence of eosinophils is consistent with allergic rhinitis. | |
TRUE about normal curve is all, EXCEPT:: (A) Bell shaped, (B) Symmetrical about the mean, (C) Mean, mode and median coincides, (D) Value of mean is 1 | Answer is D. Normal or Gaussian distribution has the following features: Bell shaped Symmetrical about the mean Mean, mode and median coincides Ref: Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 126 | |
The Ducts of Bellini are typically seen in: (A) Pancreas, (B) Liver, (C) Kidney, (D) Submandibular salivary gland | Answer is C. Inderbir Singh's Human Histology Sixth edition Pg 304 The space between renal columns constitute ducts of bellini | |
In apoptosis which is/are involved: (A) Apaf-1, (B) Bcl2, (C) Caspases, (D) Programeed cell death | Answer is A. Cytochrome c is a component of the electron transpo chain in mitochondria. ... Cytochrome c is also involved in initiation of apoptosis. Upon release ofcytochrome c to the cytoplasm, the protein bindsapoptotic protease activating factor-1 (Apaf-1).which is very impoant for cellular apoptosis Ref guyton and... | |
Maximum pressure in left ventricle is seen in which phase of cardiac cycle ?: (A) Isovolumetric contraction, (B) Ventricular ejection, (C) Protodiastole, (D) Rapid ventricular filling | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ventricular ejection During ventricular ejection phase, when the steeply rising left ventricular pressure exceeds the aoic pressure (120 mm Hg), it is able to push open the aoic valve and eject the blad into the aoa, making the onset of ventricular ejection. PHASE OF CARDIAC CYCLE A cardi... | |
A 4-year-old female brought to the casualty department with multiple fractured ribs, and inconspicuous history from parents. On examination show multiple bruises and healed fractures. The probable diagnosis is -: (A) Polytrauma for evaluation, (B) Flail chest, (C) Munchausen syndrome, (D) Battered baby syndrome | Answer is D. child abuse have certain characteristic features :
Inflicted fractures of the shaft are more likely to be spiral rather than transverse.
A classic finding is a chip fracture in which a corner of the metaphysis of a long bone is torn off with damage to epiphysis and periosteum.
Bruises, Petechiae and Ec... | |
Which of the following statements is TRUEregarding spermicides found in vaginal foams, creams, and suppositories?: (A) The active agent in these spermicides is nonoxynol-9, (B) The active agent in these spermicides is levonorgestrel, (C) Effectiveness is higher in younger users, (D) Effectiveness is higher than that of... | Answer is A. All spermicides contain an ingredient, usually nonoxynol-9, that immobilizes or kills sperm on contact. Spermicides provide a mechanical barrier and need to be placed into the vagina before each coital act. Their effectiveness increases with increasing age of the women who use them, probably due to increas... | |
Sickness benefit under ESI is available for a period-: (A) 30 days, (B) 46 days, (C) 57 days, (D) 91 days | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 91 days Sickness benefit under ESI* The sickness benefit is payable for a maximum period of 91 days in any continuous period of 365 days.* The daily rate is 50% of the average daily wage.* Extended sickness benefit - In this, persons suffering from certain long term diseases are entitled ... | |
Negative BMR is observed with:: (A) Pituitary disturbance, (B) Thyroid disturbance, (C) Parathyroid, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. None | |
Black piedra is caused by ?: (A) Piedraia hoae, (B) Trichosporon asahi, (C) Trichosporon ovoides, (D) Trichosporon inkin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Piedraia hoae Piedra is an asymptomatic superficial fungal infection of the hair shaft also known as trichomycosis nodu- laris. Black piedra is caused by Piedraia hoae, whereas white piedra is caused by pathogenic species of the Trichosporon genus, namely Trichosporon asahii, Trichosporon... | |
Asepsis means -: (A) Absence of pathogenic microbes, (B) Disinfection of the surface, (C) Prevention of infection, (D) Destroying all forms of micro organism | Answer is A. None | |
Notching of ribs occurs in all, EXCEPT:: (A) Coarctation of aoa, (B) Neurofibromatosis, (C) Hypothyroidism, (D) Osteogenesis imperfecta | Answer is C. Hypothyroidism is not associated with rib notching. Inferior rib notching is much commoner than superior notching. Causes of inferior rib notching are coarctation of aoa, tetralogy of Fallot, superior venacava obstruction, Blalock-Taussig shunt, neurofibromatosis. Causes of superior rib notching include, h... | |
Sense organ which is having efferent supply: (A) Golgi tendon organ, (B) Organ of coi, (C) Retina, (D) Taste bud | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b i.e., Organ of coiAfferent (sensory) neurons carry information form sense organs to CNS (brain & spinal cord).Hair cells (in organ of coi) are the sensory recepors which are also innervated by efferent neurons. | |
Local anaesthetic with prolonged action -: (A) Procaine, (B) Cocaine, (C) Lidocaine, (D) Dibucaine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Dibucaineo Dibucaine is the longest acting local anaesthetico Chlorprocaine is the shortest acting local anaesthetico Decreasing order of duration : - Dibucaine > Bupivacine = Tetracaine = Ropivacaine =Etidocaine > Prilocaine = Lignocaine = Mepivacaine = Cocaine > Procaine > Chlorprocaine... | |
In . sided hemithorax on chest X-ray PA view what can be excluded:: (A) CCF, (B) TB, (C) Pulmonary infarct, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. A i.e. CCF Congestive cardiac failure is a condition which presents with B/L changes in chest X RayQ - so it can be excluded by seeing U/L hemithorax on chest X Ray, if it is normal.; | |
The response to shock includes which of the following metabolic effects?: (A) Increase in sodium and water excretion, (B) Increase in renal perfusion, (C) Decrease in cortisol levels, (D) Hyperkalemia | Answer is D. The biochemical changes associated with shock result from tissue hypoperfusion, endocrine response to stress, and specific organ system failure. During shock, the sympathetic nervous system and adrenal medulla are stimulated to release catecholamines. Renin, angiotensin, antidiuretic hormone, adrenocortico... | |
Leukemoid reaction is seen in:: (A) Acute infection, (B) Erythroleukemia, (C) Myelomatosis, (D) Hemorrhage | Answer is A. Acute infection Persistent neutrophilia of 30,000-50,000 cells/ul, or greater is known as leukemoid reaction. It is a term used to distinguish this degree of neutrophilia from leukemia. In a leukemoid reaction, the circulating neutrophils are mature and not cion ally derived. leukemoid reaction is seen in ... | |
Intracellular calcification begins in which of the following organelles?: (A) Mitochondria, (B) Golgi body, (C) Lysosomes, (D) Nucleus | Answer is A. Calcium may be deposited at sites of cell death, resulting in pathologic calcification. Initiation of intracellular calcification occurs in the mitochondria of dead or dying cells that accumulate calcium. | |
Popkorn cells are found in: (A) Hodgkins Lymphoma, (B) Non Hodgekins lymphoma, (C) Multiple myeloma, (D) Iron deficiency anaemia | Answer is A. None | |
Vasodilators in Meniers disease are useful because they:: (A) Dilate tympanic vessels, (B) Decrease endolymph secretion, (C) Increase endo lymph reabsorption, (D) Area of no use | Answer is C. Ans: c (Increase endolymph reabsorption)Ref: Dhingra E.N.T. 3rd/e p. 129 & 2nd/e p. 103One of the etiological factors for menier's disease is poor vascularity & poor absorption. Vasodilators improve vascularity and therby absorption. | |
Froments test is used in: (A) Ulnar nerve injury, (B) Median nerve injury, (C) Radial nerve injury, (D) Axillary nerve injury | Answer is A. Froment's sign: the patient is asked to grip a card firmly between thumbs and index fingers; normally this is done using the thumb adductors while the interphalangeal joint is held extended. In patients with ulnar nerve injury or palsy, because the adductor pollicis is weak, the patient grips the card only... | |
Which of the following is a primary skin lesion?: (A) Crust, (B) Atrophy, (C) Purpura, (D) Induration | Answer is C. Ans. C. Purpura* Purpura is a primary skin lesion.* Purpura is a condition of red-or purple-discolored spots on the skin that do not blanch on applying pressure. The spots are caused by bleeding underneath the skin usually secondary to vasculitis or dietary deficiency of vitamin C.Other Options:Option a: C... | |
Germ cells appear in yolk sac at :: (A) 3 weeks, (B) 6 weeks, (C) 9 weeks, (D) 5 weeks | Answer is A. As early as the third week of gestation, primordial germ cells appear in the endoderm of yolk sac, and these migrate along the dorsal mesentry to the urogenital ridge by the eighth week Reference: Shaw's textbook of Gynaecology 15th edition page 27 | |
Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic agent can cause hepatitis on repeated use?: (A) Halothane, (B) Isoflurane, (C) Sevoflurane, (D) Ether | Answer is A. Halothane causes hepatitis .It can also cause arrhythmia by making adrenaline more adrenogenic, i.e , Adrenaline Shows more adrenogenic action when halothane is used. Hence it should not be used in conditions where adrenaline is high ,i.e, pheochromocytoma | |
Which of the following organism is biggest -: (A) Balantidium coli, (B) Entamoeba coli, (C) Escherichia coli, (D) Entamoeba histolytica | Answer is A. largest protozoal parasite of human Lives in large intestine Two stages- trophozoite and cyst (refer pgno:82 baveja 3 rd edition ) | |
All of the following are seen in the Horner’s syndrome, except :: (A) Drooping of upper eyelid, (B) Enophthalmos, (C) Dilated pupil, (D) Loss of sweating of same sides of face | Answer is C. None | |
NOT of use in bipolar disorder: September 2012: (A) Carbamazepine, (B) Phenytoin, (C) Sodium valproate, (D) Lamotrigine | Answer is B. B i.e. Phenytoin Phenytoin It acts to suppress the abnormal brain activity seen in seizure by reducing electrical conductance among brain cells by stabilizing the inactive state of voltage-gated sodium channels. Aside from seizures, it is an option in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia in the event that... | |
An unstable and emotional temporary social group with a leader is known as –: (A) A band, (B) A crowd, (C) A herd, (D) A mob | Answer is D. Crowd and mob are related terms.
Crowd means a large number of persons gathered together. A crowd can be a crowd of random people doing different things or it may be people with one intent or purpose.
Mob is highly emotional crowd whose members have with one intent or purpose and are engaged in or are read... | |
Horse shoe kidney lies below the level of:: (A) Coeliac trunk, (B) Superior mesenteric aery, (C) Inferior mesenteric aery, (D) Median sacral aery | Answer is C. Inferior mesenteric aery | |
Berkesonian bias is a selection bias which occurs in?: (A) Community-based studies, (B) Hospital-based studies, (C) Laboratory-based studies, (D) Natural exposure studies | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hospital-based studies | |
A case-control study is conducted to assess the relationship between poor diet and coronary artery disease. They enroll cases from cardiac floors in hospitals and controls from primary care physician offices in a single metropolitan area, Diet for the past 10 years was recorded using an in-person interview. On average,... | Answer is C. None | |
How to avoid lipodystrophy in diabetics?: (A) Avoid insulin injection, (B) Change injection sites, (C) Give injection on same site, (D) Give injection on alternate days | Answer is B. By changing the injection site every day, the incidence of lipodystrophy can be reduced significantly. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | |
Which one of the following is a distinguishing feature of Edward's syndrome-: (A) Hypotonia, (B) Hypotelorism, (C) Holoprosencephaly, (D) Rocker bottom feet | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rocker bottom feet | |
Which is not an antiviral drug:: (A) Vidarbine, (B) Acyclovir, (C) Zidovudine, (D) Mitomycin | Answer is D. dRef: KDT, 5th ed, p. 725, 783, 770 & 4th ed, p. 781 | |
True about varicella vaccine is ?: (A) Poorly immunogenic, (B) Duration 4-6 months, (C) Avoid salicylates for 4-6 weeks, (D) Given to child< 12 months when they do not have chicken pox | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Avoid salicylates for 4-6 weeks A live attenuated varicella virus vaccine is safe and currently recommended between 12-18 months of age who have not had chicken pox.The vaccine is very immunogenic, sero-conversion occurs in 95% of children after a single dose.A duration of immunity is not... | |
For every case of poliomyelitis the subclinical cases of poliomyelitis to be estimated: (A) 500 children and 50 adults, (B) 750 children and 75 adults, (C) 1000 children and 75 adults, (D) 1000 children and 50 adult | Answer is C. None | |
A young lady presents to your office with complain of copious vaginal discharge, but there is no cervical discharge on per speculum examination. Which of the following should be given for the management: (A) Metronidazole and fluconazole, (B) Metronidazole and azithromycin, (C) Metronidazole and doxycycline, (D) Flucon... | Answer is A. Ans.'a'Metronidazole and fluconazole | |
Development of hepatic central lobular necrosis secondary to acetaminophen overdose can be prevented effectively by which of the following if given within a few hours after ingestion :: (A) N–acetylcysteine, (B) Dimercaprol, (C) Sodium nitrite, (D) Amyl nitrite | Answer is A. None | |
A 50 year old male patient complains of reduced mouth opening. Patient gives h/o RTA 1 week back. Submentovertex view x-ray was taken which revealed zygomatic arch fracture. Which of the following is true regarding the central beam in this x-ray-: (A) It is parallel to the image receptor, (B) It is directed from skull ... | Answer is C. Submentovertex view-
The central beam is perpendicular to the image receptor, directed from below the mandible toward the vertex of the skull (hence the name submentovertex), and centered about 2 cm anterior to a line
connecting the right and left condyles.
White and Pharoah, Oral radiology, ed 7th, pg-16... | |
A 3 week old boy is brought to pediatrics emergency depament with projectile vomiting which is non bilious. On physical examination, firm, olive like mass is noted in the epigastric region post breastfeed and USG revealed thickened pyloric muscle. What is the most likely pathological finding if the pylorus muscle is bi... | Answer is A. The clinical symptoms, examination with USG findings of thickened pyloric muscle (>3mm) and elongated pyloric canal (>15mm) reveal the diagnosis as CHPS- congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis which has hyperophy of circular muscle as depicted in option A Hyperophy-Small spindle-shaped (uterine smooth musc... | |
Which of the following is NOT a constituent of Virchow's triad?: (A) Damage to endothelium due to injury or inflammation, (B) Diminished rate of blood flow, (C) Increased coagulability of blood, (D) Increased venous blood pressure | Answer is D. None | |
When assessing tooth mobility the best indicator is: (A) Condition of gingival periodontal fibers, (B) Horizontal crown displacement, (C) Root displacement within the remaining periodontal ligament, (D) Amount of calculus and plaque present | Answer is C. None | |
Recall bias is most commonly associated with which study design-: (A) Case control study, (B) Coho study, (C) Coho case control study, (D) Cross sectional study | Answer is A. .<p>1`when cases and controls are asked questions about their past history,it may be more likely for the cases to recall the existence of ceain events or factors,than the controls who are healthy individuals.cases may have a different recall of past events than controls.</p><p>ref;park&;s textbook of preve... | |
In aluminum phosphide poisoning, which is NOT true: AIIMS 10; Punjab 11: (A) Accumulation of acetylcholine at NM junction, (B) Cytochrome oxidase inhibition, (C) Phosphene formation, (D) Metabolic acidosis | Answer is A. Ans. Accumulation of acetylcholine at NM junction | |
To prevent synechiae formation after nasal surgery, which one of the following packings is the most useful -: (A) Mitomycin, (B) Ribbon gauze, (C) Ribbon gauze with liquid paraffin, (D) Ribbon gauze steroids | Answer is A. Now, Mitomycin is being increasingly used for this purpose and is proving more useful.
Mitomycin is an anticancer agent that has shown to decrease scar formation after E.N.T. surgery.
It is an anti fibroblastic agent and thus prevents the wound healing and subsequent synechiae formation.
It is useful in pr... | |
A 75-year-old male patient is a known case of a pulmonary disease and is being treated with inhalational coicosteroids and daily theophylline.The patient was admitted to a hospital for urinary retention few days back and catheterization was done. However, the condition got complicated with urinary tract infection and t... | Answer is D. Theophylline is metabolized mainly by CYP1A2 hepatic microsomal enzyme. Inhibitors of CYP1A2: Cimetidine Ciprofloxacin Erythromycin Others are: - Aemisinin Atazanavir Enoxacin Ethinyl estradiol Fluvoxamine Furafylline Galangin Mexiletene Tacrine Thiabendazole Zileuton All these drugs inhibit the metabolism... | |
Safety muscle of tongue is: (A) Hyoglossus, (B) Genioglossus, (C) Palatoglossus, (D) Styloglossus | Answer is B. None | |
Most common cause of death in measles ?: (A) Encephalitis, (B) Meningitis, (C) Dehydration, (D) Pneumonia | Answer is D. Answer- D. PneumoniaMost commot cause of death in measles is pneumonia | |
Earliest symptom of Congenital Glaucoma: (A) Lacrimation, (B) Blepharospasm, (C) photophobia, (D) Diminision of vision | Answer is C. Earliest but nonspecific symptom of Congenital Glaucoma is photophobia | |
Pathognomic features of acute rheumatic fever is -: (A) Pericarditis, (B) Myocarditis, (C) Mitral stenosis, (D) Aschoffs nodules | Answer is D. None | |
Etomidate causes all except ?: (A) Coronary insufficiency, (B) Decreased steroid, (C) Decreases Intracranial tension, (D) Nausea and vomiting | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Coronary insufficiency Etomidate produces little cardiovascular and respiratory depression --> Agent of choice for cardiovascular surgeries (bypass, aneurysms, valve surgery). Etomidate is the most cardiostable inducing agent. Etomidate has the highest incidence of nausea and vomiting amo... | |
Ranolazine is a?: (A) Vasodilator, (B) Antianginal, (C) Antihypertensive, (D) Antiarrhythmia | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) AntianginalREF: KDT 6th edition page 522, 536, Katzung 12th edition page 205CLASSIFICATION OF ANTIANGINAL DRUGSNitrates:Short acting: Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN, Nitroglycerine)Long acting: Isosorbide dinitrate (short acting by sublingual route), Isosorbide mononitrate, Erythrityl tetranitrate, P... | |
Which of the following hypothesis was initially given for etiology of schizophrenia?: (A) Serotonin Hypothesis, (B) Dopamine hypothesis, (C) Learned helplessness, (D) Cognitive theory | Answer is B. Ans. B. Dopamine hypothesisThe dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia or the dopamine hypothesis of psychosis is a model attributing symptoms of schizophrenia (like psychoses) to a disturbed and hyperactive dopaminergic signal transduction. The model draws evidence from the observation that a large number of... | |
Following a motor vehicle accident, a truck driver complains of severe abdominal pain. Serum amylase level is markedly increased to 800 U. Grey Turner's sign is seen in the flanks. Pancreatic trauma is suspected. Which statement is true of pancreatic trauma?: (A) It is mainly caused by blunt injuries., (B) It is usuall... | Answer is D. Because of its protected retroperitoneal location, pancreatic injury occurs with deep penetrating wounds or with significant blunt trauma to upper abdomen. Blunt trauma accounts for less than 20-30% of all pancreatic injuries. The most common site of injury is at the neck of the pancreas where the pancreat... | |
Incisura is absent in ?: (A) Aoic valve replacement, (B) Aoic stenosis, (C) Cardiac tamponade, (D) Hypovolumic shock | Answer is B. The occurrence and magnitude of the incisura of the central aoic pressure were shown in 66 patients to depend on the functional state of the aoic valve. In normal subjects and children with congenital aoic stenosis (with thin flexible leaflets), the incisura ranged between 6 and 14 mm Hg. With aoic regurgi... | |
Concerning the gastrointestinal (GI) tract during pregnancy, which of the following is true?: (A) Gastric emptying time is increased in each trimester, (B) Epulis is a systemic highly vascular swelling of mucosal membranes, (C) Gastric emptying time is shoened during labor, (D) Pyrosis is caused by reflux of acidic sec... | Answer is D. Heaburn (pyrosis) is the feeling of substernal burning, often radiating to the neck. It is caused by the reflux of acidic (or, rarely, alkaline) material into the esophagus, it is highly specific for gastroesophageal reflux disease. Epulis: A pyogenic granuloma is a common, benign proliferation of connecti... | |
Which of the following is positive in Follicular lymphoma?: (A) Bcl 2, (B) Bcl 6, (C) Bcl 1, (D) Bcl 10 | Answer is A. Follicular lymphoma likely arises from germinal center B cells and is strongly associated with chromosomal translocations involving BCL2. Its hallmark is a (14;18) translocation that juxtaposes the IGH locus on chromosome 14 and the BCL2 locus on chromosome 18. The t(14;18) is seen in up to 90% of follicul... | |
Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is seen with -: (A) Adenovirus, (B) Staphylococcal, (C) Pneumococcus, (D) Hemophilus | Answer is A. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by picornaviruses (Enterovirus-70, coxsackievirus A24) and sometimes Adenovirus type11. Ref: Duker 2nd/e p.229 | |
Risk of scar rupture in previous LSCS with lower segment scar is -: (A) 1%, (B) 5%, (C) 10%, (D) 50% | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a'i.e., 1% o The risk of lower segment scar - rupture is low (0[?]2-1[?]5%) and even if it does occur, maternal death is much less and the perinatal mortality is about 1 in 8.o Previous history of classical caesarean section or hysterotomy makes the woman vulnerable to unpredictable rupture of the... | |
A surgeon excises a portion of liver of the left of the attachment of the falciform ligament. The segments that have been resected are -: (A) Segment la and 4, (B) Segment 1 and 4b, (C) Segment 2 and 3, (D) Segment 1 and 3 | Answer is C. The portion of liver on the left side of falciform ligament is left (anatomical) lobe of liver. And in Couinaud's functional segmentation of liver, the segment number 2, 3, 4a and 4b form the left liver lobe. | |
Urea is synthesized in all except: (A) Liver, (B) Kidney, (C) Brain, (D) Spleen | Answer is C. The ammonia from all over the body thus reaches liver.It is then detoxified to urea by liver cells, and then excreted thougth kidneys. Urea is the end product of protein metabolism. Since mammals including humanbeings excrete amino nitrogen mainly as urea , they are referred to as ureotolic.Although , ammo... | |
Epsilon aminocaproic acid (EACA) can be used in the treatment of adverse effects caused by :: (A) Streptokinase, (B) Heparin, (C) Warfarin, (D) Any of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is not a parameter for the WHO classification of malnutrition:: (A) Symmetrical edema, (B) Weight for height, (C) Weight for age, (D) Height for age | Answer is C. Weight-for-age is not a parameter for the WHO classification of malnutrition. It has limited clinical significance as it does not differentiate between wasting and stunting. WHO Classification Parameter Moderate malnutrition Severe malnutrition Symmetrical edema no yes Weight/height (wasting) <-2SD to >-3S... | |
Popliteal aneurysm-All are true except-: (A) Presents as a swelling behind the knee, (B) Presents with symptoms due to complication, (C) Surgery is indicated in case of complication, (D) Uncommon among peripheral aneurysm | Answer is D. • Occur in conjunction with aortic aneurysm in 40% cases
• Most isolated iliac aneurysm involve common iliac artery (70%) and internal iliac artery (20%)
• Multiple iliac aneurysms occur in most patients and are bilateral in 33% cases
Etiology
• Occur in association with atherosclerosis
• Can also occur in... | |
Metabolic Syndrome has following features except: (A) High triglycerides, (B) High blood pressure, (C) High blood sugar, (D) High HDL levels | Answer is D. The metabolic syndrome (syndrome X, insulin resistance syndrome) consists of a constellation of metabolic abnormalities that confer increased risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD) and diabetes mellitusThe major features of the metabolic syndrome include central obesity, hyperiglyceridemia, low levels of hig... |
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