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True statement about tongue epithelium are all except?: (A) At beginning -Endodermal (whole tongue), (B) Any External opening lined by Surface Ectoderm - Ant.2/3 of tongue, (C) At Sulcus Terminalis- Ectoderm and Endodermal junction, (D) Posterior 1/3rd - Mesodermal | Answer is D. Posterior 1/3 tongue is endodermal in origin . Tongue connective tissue and muscles- mesodermal in origin , connective tissue is derived from pharyngeal arches 1,2 and 3. | |
Which of the following is used for day care surgery?: (A) Ketamine, (B) Thiopentone, (C) Propofol, (D) Etomidate Drugs used in day care surgery | Answer is C. Drugs used in day care surgery Dr Desflurane Manmohan Midazolam Singh Sevoflurane Is Isoflurane A Alfentanyl Prime Propofol- mc drug used in day care surgery Minister Mivacurium Ketamine causes dissociative anesthesia Thiopentone is shoest acting due to redistrubution Etomidate causes adrenal supression | |
Which of the following is the most potent 2nd generation antihistamine?: (A) Astemizole, (B) Desloratadine, (C) Promethozine, (D) Fexofenadine | Answer is B. Desloratidine, metabolite of loratadine is the most potent 2nd generation antihistamine. | |
External manifestation of genome is -: (A) Genotype, (B) Phenotype, (C) Allele, (D) Polymorphism | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Phenotype* To explain these terms, let us have a simple example, which we have learnt in our school.* A sweet pea plant can either grow tall or short. The plant grows tall if the plant has TT or Tt and the plant remains dwarf if the plant has tt. In this example, plant being tall and plan... | |
Which of the following anaesthetic agent does not cause hypotension on injection ?: (A) Ketamine, (B) Propofol, (C) Halothane, (D) Thiopentone | Answer is A. Ketamine causes increase in BP. | |
In Peripaum cardiomyopathy, cardiac failure occurs at:-: (A) Within 7 days after delivery., (B) Within 6 weeks after delivery., (C) Within 24 months after delivery., (D) Within 5 months after delivery. | Answer is D. Diagnostic criteria for Peripaum cardiomyopathy - A) Development of cardiac failure in the last month of pregnancy or within 5 months after delivery. B) Absence of an identifiable cause for the cardiac failure. C) Absence of recognizable hea disease prior to the last month pf pregnancy D) Left ventricular ... | |
Drug used for d-TC reversal is: (A) Atropine, (B) Atracurium, (C) Diazepam, (D) Neostigmine | Answer is D. Reversal of d tubocuraine was done by neostigmine. | |
A young adult presented with diminished vision. On examination he has anterior uveitis, vitritis, focal necrotizing granuloma, macular spot. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Proteus syndrome, (B) White dot syndrome, (C) Multifocal choroiditis, (D) Ocular toxoplasmosis | Answer is D. Focal necrotizing granuloma in this question suggests that it may be a case of ocular toxoplasmosis. | |
Excision of the hyoid bone is done in: (A) Branchial cyst, (B) Branchial fistula, (C) Thyroglossal cyst, (D) Sublingual dermoids | Answer is C. None | |
CSF glucose level is -: (A) Half the plasma glucose, (B) 2/3 of plasma glucose, (C) 1/3 of plasma glucose, (D) Same as plasma glucose | Answer is B. None | |
Rapid cycling is associated with which illness:: (A) Substance abuse, (B) Schizophrenia, (C) Bipolar Disorder, (D) Panic disorder | Answer is C. Ans. C. Bipolar disorderBipolar disorder involves extremes of both high and low moods and a range of other symptoms. In rapid cycling, moods change quickly, with at least 4 distinct mood episodes per year. | |
Daily water requirement in child weighing 30 kgs, height 123 m and BSA of 1 m2 is: (A) 1300 ml, (B) 1700 ml, (C) 2000 ml, (D) 2500 ml | Answer is B. For calculating the minimum amount of fluid per day, a formula based on body weight is recommended: 1500 ml is the minimum water intake with 15ml fluid per kg to be added for the actual weight minus 20kg. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | |
Good diabetic control is said to be present when glycosylated hemoglobin is: (A) 7-9%, (B) >13%, (C) 10-12%, (D) 3-4% | Answer is A. None | |
Not true about Antro choanal polyp: (A) Best examined with Anterior Rhinoscopy, (B) Less recurrence rate, (C) Seen in young individuals, (D) Usually unilateral | Answer is A. Best examined with posterior Rhinoscopy. | |
A testicular tumor marker is -: (A) a-Fetoprotein, (B) Ectopic hormones, (C) CEA, (D) Testosterone | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., a-Fetoproteins | |
Ramu age 10 years, present with itching in his eye, foreign body sensation and ropy discharge since several months. These symptoms are more prominent in summer. Most probable diagnosis is -: (A) Vernal conjunctivitis, (B) Fungal keratoconjunctivitis, (C) Viral conjunctivitis, (D) Trachoma | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Vernal conjunctivitisRef: Parson's 21/e, p. 178Age 10 years (Male child), with Itching, foreign body sensation, Ropy discharge (characteristic of spring catarrh) and exacerbation during summer (characteristic of spring catarrh) is diagnostic for VKC. | |
In flap method of amputation, which structure is kept shoer than the level of amputation?: (A) Bone, (B) Muscles, (C) Nerves, (D) Vessels | Answer is A. Bone is kept shoer than soft tissue in flap method of amputation to facilitate closure of amputation stump. Also know: In guillotine amputation, limb is transected at one level through skin, muscle and bone. Ref: Campbell's operative Ohopaedics 10/e, page 544. | |
Treatment of parathyroid hyperplasia is:: (A) Phosphate binders, (B) Calcitonin, (C) Removal of 3 1/2 glands, (D) Enlarged glands to be removed | Answer is C. TREATMENT OF PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM Initial correction of hypercalcemia (Rapid IV normal saline followed by Forced diuresis with furosemide) Neck exploration is done and treatment is done accordingly A single parathyroid adenoma (85%) Resection Two adenomas (5%) Resection Hyperplasia of all four gland... | |
Broca's area is situated in: (A) Inferior frontal gyrus, (B) Superior temporal gyrus, (C) Inferior temporal gyrus, (D) Parietal gyrus | Answer is A. (A) Inferior frontal gyrus[?]BROCA'S AREA (Motor Speech Area) is a section of the human brain that is involved in language processing, speech or sign production & comprehensionBroca's area is located in the opercular and triangular sections of the Inferior Frontal Gyrus of the Frontal lobe of the Cortex.Br... | |
Nerve running along with profunda brachii aery, in spiral groove ?: (A) Ulnar, (B) Median, (C) Radial, (D) None | Answer is C. Profunda brachii is a branch of brachial aery. It accompanies radial nerve in spiral groove. | |
A 39-year-old man repos seeing red-colored urine in the morning. The CBC reveals anemia, low serum iron, and an elevated reticulocyte count. Laboratory studies show increased lysis of erythrocytes when incubated with either sucrose or acidified serum. Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis: (A) Anemia of c... | Answer is D. - Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of PNH - Despite its name, the disorder is nocturnal in only a minority of cases. - PNH is a clonal stem cell disorder characterized by episodic intravascular hemolytic anemia; secondary to increased sensitivity of erythrocytes to complement-mediated lysis. ... | |
A 70-year-old male underwent a choledochoduodenostomy for multiple common duct stones. The patient now presents with RUQ abdominal pain. What should be the initial test (least invasive with the best yield) to determine patency of the choledochoduodenostomy?: (A) ERCP, (B) Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram (PTC), ... | Answer is C. A HIDA scan will show excretion of the radiolabeled isotope into the biliary tree, but there will be no flow into the duodenum, indicating that the biliary-enteric anastomosis is occluded. If an upper GI study with barium is performed, visualization of the common bile duct would indicate patency of the cho... | |
40/F presented to AIIMS OPD with the following findings-Hb-9.8gm%, TLC= 15,700/cumm, Platelet counts 3 lac/cumm. Peripheral smear showed increased neutrophils with 14 % blasts, 15% myelocytes and metamyelocytes with some dysplasia. Cytogenetic study revealed t(8;21). What is your diagnosis?: (A) AML, (B) CML, (C) MDS, ... | Answer is A. Ans. (a) AML(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 612; 8th/pg 622)This 40 yr old female is presenting with leukocytosis and increased blast counts in the peripheral smear. The cytogenetic study done here shows t(8;21). This finding is suggestive of Acute myeloid leukemia even if there are <20% blast counts.It cytogenetic a... | |
A patient with Hepatitis C, exhibits hypo-complimentemia with 2 gm/day protein uria and hematuria. The most probable diagnosis is: (A) MPGN, (B) Cryoglobulinemia, (C) Membranous glomerulopathy, (D) Post-infectious glomerulonephritis | Answer is A. Ans. a. MPGN Type I MPGN is c.ommonly associated with persistent hepatitis C infections, autoimmune diseases like lupus or cryoglobulinemia, or neoplastic diseases."- Harrison 18/e p2344 So, in the above mentioned patient with Hepatitis C, exhibits hypo-complimentemia with 2 gm/day proteinuria and hematuri... | |
A body is brought for autopsy. On postmoem, there is dark brown postmoem staining and garlic odor in stomach. The poisoning is most likely due to: (A) Aniline dye, (B) Carbon dioxide, (C) Hydrocyanic acid, (D) Phosphorus | Answer is D. PHOSPHORUS(P4) There are two varieties: (1) White or crystalline. (2) Red or amorphous Postmoem Appearances:- In acute poisoning, the body usually shows signs of jaundice. The gastric and intestinal contents may smell of garlic and be luminous. The mucous membranes of the stomach and intestine are yellowis... | |
The sensory supply of the palate is through all of the following except: (A) Facial nerve, (B) Hypoglossal nerve, (C) Glossopharyngeal nerve, (D) Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve | Answer is B. Palate is supplied by trigeminal (maxillary, mandibular), facial & glossopharyngeal nerves | |
Following clostridia are saccharolytic except: (A) Welchii, (B) Sporogenes, (C) Septicum, (D) Oedematiens | Answer is B. When grown in Robeson cooked meat broth, saccharolytic species turn meat pink and proteolytic species produce black and produce foul and pervasive odours. Clostridium welchii, Clostridium septicum and Clostridium oedematiens are predominantly saccharolytic. Clostridium sporogenes is predominantly proteolyt... | |
In the metabolism of alcohol, high doses of aspirin & phenytoin, mechanism is -: (A) First pass kinetics, (B) First order kinetics, (C) Zero order kinetics, (D) Second order kinetics | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Zero order kinetics o The drugs whose kinetics changes from first order to zero order at therapeutic concentration are said to follow pseudo - zero order kinetics or mixed order kinetics or saturation kinetics.o Drugs showing zero/pseudo-zero order kinetics :# Phenytoin# Theophylline# Alc... | |
Which of the following is a negative symptom of Schizophrenia?: (A) Ambivalence, (B) Automatic obedience, (C) Anhedonia, (D) Delusion | Answer is C. Anhedonia- lack of pleasure in a previously pleasurable activity Negative symptoms in Schizophrenia are: Apathy- Lack of concern Avolition- Loss of drive for goal directed activities Asociality- Lack of social interaction Affective flattening or blunting Alogia- Lack of speech output Anhedonia- Lack of ple... | |
Causes of painful arc syndrome is/ are -: (A) Supraspinatus tendinitis, (B) Subacromial bursitis, (C) Fracture of greater tuberosity, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Painful arc syndrome is characterised by pain in the shoulder and upper arm during the mid range of gleno-humeral abduction. Causes are *supraspinatus tendinitis *subacromial bursitis *fracture of greater tuberosity *calcification of supraspinatus tendon *minor tears of the supraspinatus tendon In all thes... | |
A child had pustular lesion on leg. On gram staining gram positive cocci are seen. To establish the diagnosis of Group A beta streptococcal pyoderma, the test used is:: (A) Bile solubility test, (B) Catalase test, (C) Optochin sensitivity, (D) Bacitracin sensitivity | Answer is D. Group A beta streptococcus produces pyogenic infections with a tendency to spread locally, along lymphatics and through the bloodstream. The growth of Str. pyogenes on agar plates in the laboratory is inhibited by the antibiotic bacitracin, an impoant diagnostic criterion. Sensitivity to bacitracin is a co... | |
Not useful for acute Hypercalcemia?: (A) Normal saline, (B) Calcitonin, (C) Furosemide, (D) Bisphosphonates | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Furosemide Treatment for hypercalcemia depends upono The underlying disease.o The severity of hypercalcemia.o The serum inorganic phosphate level ando The renal hepatic and bone marrow function. o Mild hvpercalcemias< 3 mmol/l (12 mg/dl)-Managed by hydration aloneo More severe hvoercalcem... | |
A 20 year old female has an erythematous rash over her face on both cheeks and across the bridge of her nose.This rash is made worse by sunlight exposure when she is outdoors. Along with the rash, she has had muscle and joint pain for several month. However, radiographs of the joints does not show any abnormalities, an... | Answer is D. None | |
All are features of adipocere, except: MAHE 11; PGI 13: (A) It consists of fatty acids, (B) Takes place in bodies buried in dry sandy soil, (C) Takes about 3 weeks to form, (D) Bacterial enzymes are necessary for its formation | Answer is B. Ans. Takes place in bodies buried in dry sandy soil | |
Neutrophilic leucocytosis is seen in all except: (A) Sepsis, (B) Myocardial infarction, (C) Pyogenic osteomyelitis, (D) Hay fever | Answer is D. Acute myocardial infarction ST-elevation (STEMI) is frequently associated with leukocytosis and relative increased in neutrophil count. It is believed that the peripheral leukocyte count have impoant prognostic implication in AMI. In patients with leukocytosis, the possibility of infection always exists, e... | |
All are true of Henoch Scholein' s purpura, except: (A) Thrombocytopenia, (B) Abdominal pain, (C) Ahritis, (D) GI bleed | Answer is A. Answer is A (Thrombocytopenia) : Purpura in 'Henoch Shonlein purpura' is due to vasculitis and not thrombocytopenia. | |
Mechanism of action of oral contraceptives containing ethinyl oestradiol and a progesterone is :: (A) Inhibiting ovulation, (B) Inhibiting the implantation, (C) Thickening of cervical mucus, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Inhibiting ovulation | |
Hyoid bone fracture does not occur in: NEET 14: (A) Hanging, (B) Strangulation, (C) Throttling, (D) Choking | Answer is D. Ans. Choking | |
Larger DNA segments can be cloned in: (A) Plasmids, (B) Bacteriophage, (C) Cosmids, (D) Bacterial Aificial Chromosomes | Answer is D. Hybrid DNA molecules can be constructed in cloning vectors typically using bacterial plasmids, phages, or cosmids. A clone is a large population of identical molecules, bacteria, or cells that arise from a common ancestor. Molecular cloning allows for the production of a large number of identical DNA molec... | |
According to Pugh's classification moderate to severe hepatic insufficiency is managed by:: (A) Sclerotherapy, (B) Conservative, (C) Orthotopic liver transplantation, (D) Shunt surgery | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Orthotopic liver transplantation* Child A and B can be managed with Conservative methods/Shunt surgeries etc.* Child C is an indication for Liver Transplant* Other Major surgeries can be done only for Child A* Minor surgeries only can be done in Child B* No other surgery other than Transplant is a... | |
Microcytic hypochromic anaemia is seen in all except-: (A) Beta thalassemia, (B) Iron deficiency, (C) Malaria, (D) Lead poisoning | Answer is C. None | |
Surface Immunoglobulin is found in which cell ?: (A) T-cell, (B) B-cell, (C) NK cell, (D) Plasma cells | Answer is B. Ans is b' i.e. B-cell B cells recognize antigen the B-cell antigen receptor complex.Ig M and Ig D, present on the surface of all naive B cells, constitute the antigen binding component of B-cell receptor complex.After antigenic stimulation, B cells form plasma cells that secret immunoglobulin. | |
Night blood survey is done in ?: (A) Filaria, (B) Typhoid, (C) Malaria, (D) Kala-azar | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Filaria The microfilariae of W. bancrofti and B. malayi occuring in India display a nocturnal periodicity, i.e., they appear in large number at night and retreat from the blood stream during the day. This is a biological adaptation to the nocturnal biting habits of vector mosquitoes. The ... | |
Essential pentosuria is due to deficiency of: (A) Gulonolactone oxidase, (B) Phosphoglucomutase, (C) Xylulose reductase, (D) Fructokinase | Answer is C. Repeated question | |
Simple squamous epithelium is seen in: (A) Blood vessels, (B) Thyroid follicle, (C) Esophagus, (D) Hard palate | Answer is A. Squamous epithelium lines theinside of the hea ,where it is called endothelium INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXT BOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY-REFERENCE page no:41 | |
Tomcat urine odor is seen in:: (A) Multiple carboxylase deficiency, (B) Phenylketonuria, (C) Hawkinuria, (D) Maple syrup disease | Answer is A. MULTIPLE CARBOXLASE DEFICIENCY - BIOTIN is coenzyme in carboxylase reaction. Defects in the ability to add or remove biotin from carboxylases result in multiple carboxylase deficiency. It is autosomal recessive Developmental delay Treatment is biotin supplement Tomcat Urine odour | |
Macula is: (A) Optic nerve, (B) Optic tract, (C) Periodic bluring of vision, (D) Constant blinking | Answer is D. Ans. Constant blinking | |
During resuscitation, fractured ribs most commonly involve:: (A) 2nd -4th ribs, (B) 3rd -5th ribs, (C) 4th -6th ribs, (D) 5th -7th ribs | Answer is C. Ans. c. 4th -- 6th ribs Reasonable conclusions to be drawn from the literature in relation to rib fractures in adults Rib fractures following CPR in adults are quite common - 30 to 60% of prospective post-moem studies. Post-CPR rib fractures are often bilateral. The site of rib fracture is dependent on: th... | |
In a pregnant female which drug is strictly contraindicated?: (A) Streptomycin, (B) Isoniazid, (C) Cephalosporins, (D) Penicillin | Answer is A. Ref: Goodman & Gillman 13th ed. P 1045; Harrison 20th edition, Page 1112* Streptomycin is highly ototoxic (vestibulotoxic >> Cochleotoxic) and nephrotoxic drug.* It is strictly contraindicated throughout the pregnancy.Drugs during pregnancy Drugs safe in pregnancyDrugs contraindicated in pregnancy (Safety ... | |
Which of the following ultra-violet radiation cause most skin disorder-: (A) UV-A, (B) UV-B, (C) UV-C, (D) None | Answer is B. Cutaneous responses to uv radiation UVA -315-400nm immediate erythema Immediate pigment darkening- merowsky phenomenon drug induced photosensitivity photoageing UVB- 280-315nm 1000x more erythmogenic, associated with sunburn delayed melanogenogenesis major role in carcinogenesis role in photoageing role in... | |
Which of the following is not a feature of primary tuberculosis: September 2010: (A) Apical lung cavity, (B) Ghon's focus, (C) Paratracheal lymphadenopathy, (D) Heal spontaneously by fibrosis | Answer is A. Ans. A: Apical lung cavityThe primary complex generally exists singly and only occasionally in multiple units.In overwhelming majority of cases primary complex occurs in the lungs and only in about 5% cases they are distributed among the intestines, Oropharynx, the skin and other rarer sites. The primary f... | |
Vossius ring occurs in: (A) Lens dislocation, (B) Concussion injury, (C) Penetrating injury, (D) Extra capsular extraction | Answer is B. B i.e. Concussion injury | |
Repeated involuntary regurgitation of food is associated with which of the following disorders?: (A) Binge eating disorder, (B) Rumination disorder, (C) Bulimia nervosa, (D) Anorexia nervosa | Answer is B. Rumination disorder: Effoless and painless regurgitation of paially digested food into the mouth soon after a meal, which iseither swallowed or spit out According to DSM-5, the disordermust be present for at least 1 month after a period of normal functioning, and not better accounted for by gastrointestina... | |
A young female patient reports to the dental office with complaint of small gaps between her teeth
If a proper placement technique is not followed, it would result in: (A) Tooth sensitivity, (B) Wear of opposing teeth, (C) Debonded restoration, (D) Healthy gingiva | Answer is C. None | |
Paneth cells secrete which of the following ?: (A) Antibacterial substance, (B) Lipase, (C) Maltase, (D) Secretin | Answer is A. None | |
Sphenoidal sinus opens into:: (A) Superior meatus, (B) Inferior meatus, (C) Middle meatus, (D) Spheno-ethmoidal recess | Answer is D. (d) Spheno-ethmoidal recess(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 659)The Sphenoid sinus opens into the spheno-ethmoidal recess just above the superior turbinate. | |
When evaluating an ABG from a client with a subdural hematoma, the nurse notes the PaCO2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following responses best describes this result?: (A) Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP)., (B) Emergent; the client is poorly oxygenated., (C) Normal, (D) Signifi... | Answer is A. A normal PaCO2 value is 35 to 45 mm Hg. CO2 has vasodilating properties; therefore, lowering PaCO2 through hyperventilation will lower ICP caused by dilated cerebral vessels.
Option B: Oxygenation is evaluated through PaO2 and oxygen saturation.
Option D: Alveolar hypoventilation would be reflected in an ... | |
Acute uraemic syndrome causes disturbance in: (A) Affect, (B) Consciousness, (C) Thought, (D) Memory | Answer is B. (B) Consciousness # Clinical Abnormalities in Uremiaa> Neuromuscular disturbances Fatigue Sleep disorders Headache Impaired mentation Lethargy Asterixis Muscular irritability Peripheral neuropathy Restless legs syndrome Paralysis Myoclonus Seizures Coma Muscle cramps Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome Myopat... | |
Potato nodes are feature of?: (A) Sarcoidosis, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Carcinoid, (D) Lymphoma | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) SarcoidosisREF: Chest radiology: the essentials By Jannette Collins, Eric J. Stern, page 165, http://medical- dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/potato+node* Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease characterized by non-caseating granulomas in multiple organs.* In 90% of cases, Symmetrical massive bilat... | |
In venturi mask maximum O2 concentration attained is: (A) 90%, (B) 100%, (C) 60%, (D) 80% | Answer is C. Maximum concentration delivered by ventimask (venturimask) is 60%. | |
Dihydroergotamine differs from ergotamine in the following respect :: (A) It is a more potent oxytocic, (B) It has antiemetic property, (C) It has high oral bioavailability, (D) It is more potent α-adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor | Answer is D. Hydrogenation of ergot alkaloids decrease their vasoconstrictor action and increase the α-blocking activity. | |
A woman consumes several tabs of Amitryptilline (case of amitryptiline poisoning). All of the following can be done exceptaEUR': (A) Sodium bicarbonate infusion, (B) Gastric lavage, (C) Diazepam for seizure control, (D) Atropine as antidote | Answer is D. Atropine as antidote Tricyclic s include Amitriptvline Clornipramine Imipramine Tricyclics act primarily by inhibiting serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake. It result in elevation of extracellular concentration of these drugs. The toxic effects of tricyclics are caused by four main phannacological propeie... | |
A 3 hour old preterm baby develop respiratory grunt and X-ray shows reticulonodular pattern. Diagnosis is: (A) Hyaline membrane disease, (B) Transient tachypnea of newborn, (C) Meconium aspiration syndrome, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Hyaline membrane disease Respiratory distress occurs in the first 6 hours of life Tachypnoea,retractions,cyanosis,grunting,decreased air entry are seen X ray:reticulogranular pattern,ground glass opacity,low lung volume,air bronchogram Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI, PG NO:143, 7th edition | |
Following group of drugs is not the first line in the management of chronic: (A) Opioids, (B) Antiepileptics, (C) Dopamine antagonist, (D) Serotonergic drugs | Answer is C. None | |
The principal site of acidification of urine is:: (A) Distal convoluted tubule, (B) Proximal convoluted tubule, (C) Loop of Henle, (D) Collecting duct | Answer is D. Acidification occurs in collecting duct and DCT, but collecting duct is more important. Hence, answer is D>A. | |
Keratin in the nail is exceptionally stronger than others because of: (A) Disulphide, (B) Van der Wall's forces, (C) Ionic bonds, (D) Calcification | Answer is A. Mammals contin alpha keratin. It is classified into soft and hard keratin depending on the suphur content. The cysteine residues are resposible for disulphide bridge formation which confers characteristic texture for each type of protein. Soft keratin having low sulphur content is present in skin.Hard kera... | |
Organisms that have not been cultured successfully so far is?: (A) Leptospira, (B) Treponema pallidum, (C) Bordetella, (D) Staphylococcus | Answer is B. Pathogenic Treponemes do not grow in aificial culture media. They require a living organism like a virus for their growth REF: Textbook of microbiology Ananthanarayan, and Paniker. Page no.: 371 | |
All of the following drugs are used as immuno-suppressants except.: (A) Glucocorticoids, (B) Cyclosporine, (C) Cephalosporin, (D) Azathioprine | Answer is C. Ans. (C) Cephalosporin(Ref: Principles of Pharmacology, 1/e p912; KDT 8/e p937)Cephalosporins are b-lactam antibiotics whereas other drugs are immunosuppressants. | |
3 years old child can do ?: (A) Make bridge of 3 cubes, (B) Copy square, (C) Identify left and right, (D) Use pronounce like I, you & me | Answer is A. by 3 years the child can know it&;s full name and gender,copies circle,build bridge with blocks. The child can pronounce I,u and me by 2 yrs Ref : OP GHAI - ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS - 8 TH edition page no..52 and 53</p > | |
A 17-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after a road traffic accident. Per abdomen examination is normal. After adequate resuscitation, his pulse rate is 80/min and BP is 110/70 mm Hg. Abdominal CT reveals 1 cm deep laceration in the left lobe of the liver extending from the done more than half way through the pa... | Answer is A. Classification of liver injury (Moore) Grade Types Operative or CT Scan findings I Hematoma Laceration Subcapsular, <10% of surface area Capsular tear, < 1 cm in parenchymal death II Hematoma laceration Subcapsular, 10-50% of surface area Intraparenchymal, <10 cm in diameter 1-3 cm in parenchymal depth, <1... | |
As per the Central Bih and Death Registration act, a bih should be registered within:: (A) 7 days, (B) 10 days, (C) 14 days, (D) 21 days | Answer is D. been changed as per "THE REGISTRATION OF BIHS AND DEATHS(AMENDMENT) BILL, 2012 A BILL fuher to amend the Registration of Bihs and Deaths Act, 1969" Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 779 | |
Atonic post paum hemorrhage occurs in all except :: (A) Multiple pregnancy, (B) Hydramnios, (C) Erythroblastosis fetalis, (D) Prolonged labour | Answer is C. Erythroblastosis fetalis | |
Widening of C loop of duodenum is a feature of:: (A) Pancreatic head growth, (B) Carcinoma stomach, (C) Splenic involvement, (D) Involvement of upper renal pole | Answer is A. A i.e. Pancreatic Head Growth On barium meal, the loop of duodenum is widenedQ also k/a Pad Sign in cases of carcinoma head of pancreas. | |
The action of the anconeus muscle is -: (A) Screwing movements, (B) Elbow flexion, (C) Forearm supination, (D) Adduction | Answer is A. Action of Anconeus
- Helps triceps in extension of elbow joint.
- Resists abduction of ulna on pronation of forearm.
- Screwing movement
- Elbow joint capsule tensor. | |
Most common method of radiation dose delivery is:: (A) Teletherapy, (B) Electron beam, (C) Brachytherapy, (D) Radio immunotherapy | Answer is A. Teletherapy REF: therapy, "External radiation therapy (also known as Teletherapy) is the most common kind of radiation therapy" | |
True statement about the external nose is: (A) Upper 2/3 is bony, (B) Lower 1/3 is cailaginous, (C) Single lateral cailage, (D) Two nasal bones | Answer is D. External nose has an osteocailaginous framework of which upper one-third is bony and lower two-thirds is cailaginous. Bony pa- Consists of two nasal bones Cailaginous pa: - Consists of two upper lateral cailages, two lower lateral cailages, two or more lesser alar (or sesmoid) cailages anda septal cailage.... | |
Which of the following is not a tributary of azygos vein?: (A) Right posterior intercostal, (B) Right superior intercostal, (C) Left superior intercostal, (D) Accessory hemiazygos | Answer is C. Tributaries of Azygos vein
Right superior intercostal vein
Right posterior intercostal veins (5 to 11)
Hemiazygos vein
Accessory hemiazygos vein
Right bronchial vein
Esophageal, mediastinal and pericardial veins. | |
In a severe untreated case of tuberculous meningitis CSF shows: (A) Increased sugar, (B) Increased lymphocytes, (C) Increased polymorphs, (D) Increased RBCs | Answer is B. (B) Increased lymphocytes | |
Which of the following statements best characterizes natural killer cells?: (A) They are a subset of T cells, (B) They are involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions, (C) They require prior sensitization in order to kill virally infected cells or tumor cells, (D) They paicipate in antibody-dependent cellular cytot... | Answer is D. Natural killer (NK) cells account for 5% to 10% of lymphocytes. They paicipate in antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity reactions (type II hypersensitivity reactions). NK cells are not T cells and are sometimes referred to as null cells. They can lyse virally infected cells and tumor cells without prior... | |
Mackler's triad includes all except: (A) Vomiting, (B) Subcutaneous emphysema, (C) Lower thoracic pain, (D) Peripheral cyanosis | Answer is D. Mackler's triad is seen in Boerhaave's syndrome. It consists of Vomiting, Chest pain and Subcutaneous emphysema. Reference : page 802 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | |
Most Common site for carcinoma stomch ?: (A) Antrum, (B) Fundus, (C) Lesser curvature, (D) Greater curvature | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antrumo The location of gastric carcinomas within the stomach is as fallows ;Pylorus and antrum 50 - 60%Cardia --> 25%Body and fundus --> Remaindero The lesser curvature is involved in about 40%and the greater curvature in 12%. o Thus, a ored location is the lesser curvature of the antrop... | |
36 week a pregnant female, a case of pre-eclampsia, presented with blurred vision and headache. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg. Next step in management is:: (A) Admit & give antihypeensives, MgSO4 and terminate, (B) Admit & give antihypeensives, MgSO4 and observation, (C) Only admit & watch the patient, (D) Give an... | Answer is A. Termination of pregnancy is the only cure for pre-eclampsia. Headache, visual disturbances, or epigastric pain is indicative that convulsions may be imminent, and oliguria is another ominous sign. Severe preeclampsia demands anticonvulsant and usually antihypeensive therapy followed by delivery. Ref: Cunni... | |
Nux vomica seeds contain 2 alkaloids, strychine and-: (A) Hyoscine, (B) Hyoscyamine, (C) Brucine, (D) Atropine | Answer is C. Nux vomica seeds contain strychine, brucine and loganin. | |
Defect in xeroderma pigmentosum (Repeat): (A) Mismatch repair, (B) Base excision repair, (C) Nucleotide excision repair, (D) Double strand break repair | Answer is C. Ans: C (Nucleotide excision repair) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition, Pg: 275 & Frosiius G Commentary: DNA base excision repair defects in human pathologies Free Radic Res. 2004 Oct:38(10): 1037-54.Explanation:Types of defects in DNA-repair systems and conditions associatedDNA Repair M... | |
Most common intracranial tumor in adults is -: (A) Astrocytoma, (B) Metastases, (C) Meningioma, (D) Oligodendroglioma | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Metastases * Brain metastases are the most common intracranial tumors in adults and account for more than one half of the brain tumors.* The most common mechanism is by hematogenous route.* The most common site is at the junction of grey and white matter. | |
Which of the following is false about glutathione: (A) It decrease free radicals, reduces oxidative stress, (B) Helps in conjugation reactions, (C) Cofactor of enzymes, (D) Converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin | Answer is D. Glutatione suppress the formation of methemoglobin.
Rest others are functions of glutathione.
It is a important intracellular reducing substance. | |
Which is the most common site for ectopic testis: (A) Iliac fossa, (B) Inguinal canal, (C) Abdomen, (D) Lumbar | Answer is B. Most common site for undescended testis is inguinal canal | |
Amyloid is detected by staining with all except: (A) Methyl violet, (B) Alcain Blue, (C) Congo Red, (D) Thioflavin | Answer is B. (B) Alcain Blue # Amyloid fibrils are idenfied in biopsy or necropsy tissue sections> The systemic amyloidosis offer a choice of bipsy sites; abdominal fat aspirates or renal or rectal biopsies are often perform ed.> Microscopically, amyloid depsotis stain pink with the hematoxylin-eosin stain and show met... | |
The recommended hemoglobin level in male patients with polycythemia rubravera to avoid thrombotic episodes is:: (A) 14 g/dl, (B) 12 g/dl, (C) 10g/dl, (D) 8g/dl | Answer is A. Polycythemia rubra vera It is an indolent disorder and thrombosis is the most significant complication. Maintenance of the hemoglobin level at 140 g/L (14 g/dL; hematocrit Phlebotomy : serves to help this aim. Phlebotomy reduce hyperviscosity by bringing the red cell mass into the normal range. Periodic ph... | |
In a patient with the burn wound extending into the superficial epidermis without involving the dermis would present with all of the following except: (A) Healing of the wound spontaneously without scar formation, (B) Anaesthesia at the site of burns, (C) Blister formation, (D) Painful | Answer is B. .a. Paial thickness burns: It is either first or second degree burn which is red and painful, often with blisters b. Full thickness burns: It is third degree burns which is charred, insensitive, deep involving all layers of the skin.Effects of Burn Injury 1. Shock due to hypovolaemia. 2. Renal failure. 3. ... | |
All of the following statements about Kawasaki disease are true, Except:: (A) Immunoglobulin are the treatment of choice, (B) Prognosis is good, (C) Thrombocytopenia, (D) Elevated ESR | Answer is C. Answer is C (Thrombocytopenia) : Kawasaki disease is associated with thrombocytosis and not thrombocytopenia. | |
Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator. Where is it produced from?: (A) Endothelium, (B) RBC, (C) Platelets, (D) Lymphocytes | Answer is A. Nitric oxide, known as the 'endothelium-derived relaxing factor', or 'EDRF'. Endothelial cells contain the constitutive form of nitric oxide synthase, which produces moderate amounts of nitric oxide by metabolizing L-arginine. The endothelium of blood vessels uses nitric oxide to signal the surrounding smo... | |
Primary level of prevention means: March 2013 (g): (A) Effos are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles, (B) Action taken prior to the onset of disease, which removes the possibility that a disease will ever occur, (C) Action which halts the progress of a disease at its incipient stage ... | Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Action taken prior to the onset of disease, which removes the possibility that a disease will ever occur | |
Demyelination is seen in -a) Multiple sclerosisb) AIDSc) Human leukoencephalopathy d) Leukodystrophy: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) acd, (D) abc | Answer is D. None | |
Four A's of schizophrenia was described by: MP 09: (A) Ku Schneider, (B) Eugene Bleuler, (C) Karl Jaspers, (D) Emil Krapellin | Answer is B. Ans. Eugene Bleuler | |
All of the following results in central nervous system manifestation in chronic renal failure, EXCEPT:: (A) Acidosis, (B) Hyperosmolarity, (C) Hypocalcemia, (D) Hyponatremia | Answer is C. Hypocalcemia can occur in chronic renal failure patients. But CNS manifestation of hypocalcemia in uremic patients are relatively rare because parathyroid hormone levels are elevated and the calcium concentration in the brain is high. Rarely signs of peripheral nerve hyperexcitability occur in these patien... | |
Which of the following statement about DDT is false-: (A) It is contact poison, (B) Residual effect lasts for 18 months, (C) Immediately kills the prey, (D) Permethrin has synergistic action | Answer is A. Ans. is `a' i.e., Immediately kills the prey DDT (Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroetheine) o DDT is an amorphous white powder. o Para-para isomer is the most active fraction --> contains 70-80% ofpara-para isomers. o It is primarily a contact poison. o It acts on CNS of insects and causes paralysis of legs and ... | |
All are true regarding METHANOL poisoning except: (A) Hemodialysis should be done when serum methanol concentration is above 50 mg/dl, (B) Fomepizole acts by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase, (C) High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in severe cases, (D) Visual disturbances are commonly seen | Answer is B. Fomepizole is a alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor not a aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor . visual disturbances due to formic acid. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | |
An 18-year-old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is also a history of blurring of vision for the same duration. On examination, the patient has quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are non-reactive. The most probable diagnosis is -: (A) Poliomyelitis, (B) Botulism, ... | Answer is B. Botulism is caused by neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum, which are extremely potent & cause disease after ingestion of even picogram amounts. Its classical form is an acute onset of bilateral cranial neuropathies associated with symmetric descending weakness.The toxin causes predominantly bulbar & ocula... | |
The following set of findings is seen in Disseminated Intravasular Coagulation (DIC):: (A) Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombinIII, increased thrombin-antithrombin III complexes, (B) Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III, (C) Increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complex... | Answer is D. Common findings in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) include Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT) and/or Prolonged Paial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), thrombocytopenia, presence of schistocytes and increased levels of fibrin degradation products (FDP). Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17... |
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