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Female menstrual cycle is diagnosed by
null
1
Sex steroid profile
Basal body temperature
Vaginal cell cytology
Cervical mucus test
Medicine
null
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single
HIV infects which of the following cells?
Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, 8th edition, .4 nanthna ray an and Paniker, Page 572Explanation:Infection is initiated by HIV after contact with a suitable host cell, namely the T-helper cell or CD4 lymphocyte.Receptor for HIV is - CD4 antigen borne primarily on CD4+ (helper/inducer) T lymphocyte, for which the cheinoki...
2
NK cells
T-helper cells
T suppressor cells
Plasma cells
Microbiology
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
1849ad68-5bee-4287-8105-ad56af89fbe7
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If blindness is surveyed using schools as compared to population surveys, then estimation of prevalence of blindness will have ?
Blindness situation in India Estimated prevalence of blindness in India (total) : 11.2 per 1000 population. Estimated prevalence of blindness in India (0-14 years) : 0.1 per 1000 population. Estimated prevalence of blindness in India (15-49 years) : 0.6 per 1000 population. Estimated prevalence of blindness in India (...
2
Overestimation
Underestimation
Remains same
None of them is used for evaluation
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a late neurological complication associated with infection due to:
a. Measles virus(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1542-1547', Ghai 8/e p 213-214)Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a chronic complication of measles with a delayed onset & fatal outcome.
1
Measles virus
Mumps virus
Rubella virus
Parainfluenza virus
Pediatrics
General Considerations - Infectious Diseases
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Ectopic rest of normal tissue is known as?
Ectopic rest of normal tissue is choristoma. Abnormally arranged tissue present at normal site is hamartoma.
2
Hamartoma
Choristoma
Lymphoma
Teratoma
Pathology
null
55037697-46b2-458c-8d6d-8c68e26b3479
single
True about use of NSAIDs in Abnormal uterine bleeding is all except
NSAIDs are taken only during menstruation.
4
Prostaglandins have role in pathogenesis of endometrial dysfunction.
Women lose 90 % of menstrual blood volume in first 3 days, so NSAIDs are used just prior to onset.
Reduce menstrual blood loss by 25%.
Commenced just prior to start of menses and continued upto day of ovulation (day 14).
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
The influenza virus has -
Influenza virus  Belong to orthomyxoviridae → Envelope, RNA virus  Contain single stranded RNA which is segmented → 8 pieces  There are three viral subtypes 1. Type A → Causes all pandemics and most of the epidemics 2 Type B → Can cause epidemics 3. Type C → Causes endemic infection  Three types of influenza viruses...
4
5 segments of SS RNA
8 Segments of ds DNA
8 segments of ssDNA
8 segments of ssRNA
Microbiology
null
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A 26yr old female presented with complaints of coloured halos, matted and sticky eyelids since 3 days. On examination, visual acuity was normal. Most common organism causing this condition is
The Clinical scenario gives the diagnosis of Acute mucoopurulent conjunctivitis which is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
3
Gonococcus
Pneumococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus hemolyticus
Ophthalmology
null
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The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromu-scular blockade produced by pancuronium:
(Ref: KDT 6e p721, 722) Aminoglycosides (like streptomycin and gentamicin) can accentuate the neuromuscular blockade produced by competitive blockers (like pancuronium). Mechanism of neuromuscular blockade produced by aminoglycosides is the inhibition of presynaptic release of ACh.
1
Streptomycin
Erythromycin
Penicillin G
Chloramphenicol
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
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single
Chemical name for estasy is -
Ecstasy is a designer drug used in rave paies Drugs Street names MDMA(3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine) Ecstasy, X, M,rolls GHB (gamma-hydroxybutyrate) G, liquidecstasy, soap Flunitrazepam (Rohypnol) Mexicanvalium, circles Ketamine (Ketalar) K, Special K,jet Ref: Rave drugs, Wikipedia.
1
MDMA
MDHA
EDHA
MDAM
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
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Which is NOT used in treatment of heroin dependence
SYMPTOMATIC DETOXIFICATION Patients withdrawal symptoms is treated with suppoive care Anti-spasmodic for abdominal cramps Anti-diarrheal for diarrheas Anti-emetics for vomiting Sedatives for reduction of anxiety Clonidine 0.1mg four times a day Antispasmodic Sedatives AGONIST ASSOSIATED DETOXIFICATION Methadone====== i...
1
Disulfiram
Buprenorphine
Clonidine
methadone
Anatomy
Substance abuse
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single
Best source of vitamin D -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fish liver* Though vitamin D is synthesised when UV B photons strike 7 dehydrocholesterol of malphigian layer of skin epidermis, vitamin D is still considered as an essential micronutrient because Vitamin D produced from sunlight is not sufficient. Hence we are dependent on vitamin D supplementation i...
1
Fish liver
Egg yolk
Milk
Papaya
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
21336a15-1cd3-43b5-a965-fd9696a04076
single
Which of the following beta blocker doesn't cause bradycardia?
Ans. A. PindololPindolol is beta blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity. These drugs themselves activate beta 1/2 sub maximally.
1
Pindolol
Labetalol
Bisoprolol
Atenolol
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
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All are true of tinea Versicolor except -
Ans-ATinea VersicolorCausative agent: Pitryrosporuni orbiculare (Malassezia furfur)It is a superficial fungal infection of the skin caused by Malassezia furfur and related fungiThe yeast phase was known as Pityrosporum orbiculare (round); Pityrosporum ovale (oval)Now the genus Pityrosporum is considered invalidM. sympo...
1
Drug of choice is griseofulvin
The causative agent is Malassezia furfur
Wool lamp shows yellow fluorescence
KOH mount shows meatball and spaghetti appearance
Unknown
null
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The antibody iso-type associated with the mucosal immune system
(A) IgA # Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues lining the gut are known as gut-associated lymphoid tissue or GALT. The tonsils and adenoids form a ring, known as Waldeyer's ring, at the back of the mouth at the entrance of the gut and airways.> The mucosal immune system contains a distinctive repertoire of lymphocytes> S...
1
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgM
Microbiology
Misc.
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Associated with objective tinnitus?
Ans. is `d' i.e., Glomus tumor Tinnitus Tinnitus is ringing sound or noise in the ear. The characteristic feature is that the origin of this sound is within the patient. Two types of tinnitus have been described : ? a. Subjective I. Otologic II . Non-otologic Impacted wax Disease of CNS Fluid in the middle ear Anaemia ...
4
Meiners disease
Acoustic neuroma
Ear wax
Glomus tumor
ENT
null
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A baby is born with a flat facial profile, prominent epicanthal folds, and simian crease. She vomits when fed, and upper GI studies demonstrate gas in the stomach and duodenal bulb. Which of the following cardiovascular abnormalities might this child also have?
The disease is Downs syndrome (trisomy 21). In addition to mental retardation and the characteristic physical findings described in the question stem, duodenal atresia is fairly common, as evidenced by the "double bubble" sign (gas in the stomach and duodenal bulb) on x-ray. These children are also likely to have vario...
4
Atrial septal defect
Berry aneurysm
Coarctation of the aoa
Endocardial cushion defect
Pathology
null
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Intestinal hypomotiiity is seen in all of the following except -
null
4
Diabetes
Parkinsonism
Amyloidosis
All of the above
Medicine
null
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multi
Western blot is used for?
null
3
DNA
RNA
PROTEINS
mRNA
Biochemistry
null
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single
Discase imported to a country for first time
null
1
Exotic disease
Epidemic
Endemic
Hyper endemic
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
In colour perimetry the smallest field of vision is with:
Ans. Green object
1
Green object
Blue object
Yellow object
Red object
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Hyperkalemia is not caused by:
Hyperkalemia is caused by angiotensin-conveing enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-II receptor blockers, direct renin inhibitors, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, calcineurin inhibitors, heparin, aldosterone antagonists, potassium-sparing diuretics. salbutamol causes hypokalemia ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SIXTH...
1
salbutamol
ACE Inhibitors
Cyclosporine
GM-CSF
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
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single
A 32-year-old woman is confirmed as being 6 weeks pregnant. She feels well, and has no past medical history. This is her second pregnancy; the first pregnancy was uncomplicated and she delivered at term, but the baby was anemic due to beta-thalassemia. She is now worried that the current pregnancy may also be affected....
Chorionic villus sampling in the first trimester with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-based diagnosis has a high degree of accuracy. Cord blood electrophoresis is suitable for screening high-risk infants at birth.
3
fetal ultrasound at 12 weeks
cord blood electrophoresis
chorionic villus sampling
buccal mucosal cytology of both parents
Medicine
Blood
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multi
Immume complex mediated gloomerular damage is seen in all except -
null
2
Membranoproliferative GN
Good pasture's syndrome
Crescentric GN
Focal segmental GN
Medicine
null
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multi
Which of the following features is shared in common between lymphocyte - rich and lymphocyte predominant types of Hodgkin&;s lymphoma -
Classical RS cells are difficult to find in lymphocyte predominance type but it is frequently present in lymphocyte rich type. About 40% of lymphocyte rich type is associated with EBV.But lymphocyte predominance is not associated with EBV RS cells in lymphocyte predominance is CD20 positive. But RS cells in lymphocyte ...
4
Paucity of diagnostic RS cells
EBV is associated
RS cells are CD 20 positive
Good prognosis
Pathology
Haematology
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This patient was a former smoker and was being treated for essential hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and hyperuricemia. Oral examination during the three follow up visits are being shown What is the most likely diagnosis of the tongue involvement?
Ans. A. Geographic tongue* Geographic tongue, also known as benign migratory glossitis and migratory stomatitis, is the correct answer.* The changing lesions are suggestive of a geographic map (hence geographic tongue) with pink continents surrounded by whiter oceans.* It is a recurrent, benign, usually asymptomatic, i...
1
Geographic tongue
Oral candidiasis
Lichen planus
Oral hairy leukoplakia
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
True about Herpangina ; Except
null
3
Occurs in epidemics
Site specific (Occurs on pharynx)
Severe form than HSV
Gingivitis is absent
Pathology
null
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multi
Death sentence can be awarded by
The sessions cou is usually located at district headquaers. It can only try cases which have been committed by a Magistrate S.193, Cr.P.C. It can pass any sentence authorised by law, but a Death sentence passed by it must be confirmed by the High cou.S.28.(2) and S.366, Cr.P.C. District Cou deals with civil cases REF: ...
4
First class magistrate
Cheif judicial magistrate
Second class magistrate
Sessions cou
Forensic Medicine
Medico legal procedures
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single
35 year old mother of two children is suffering from amenorrhea from last 12 month. She has a history of failure lactation following second delivery but remained asymptomatic thereafter. Skull X-ray shows empty sella diagnosis is :
Ans. is c i.e. Sheehan's Syndrome Friends, here before arriving to any diagnosis lets first see the causes of : Empty Sella : Congenital incompleteness of the sellar diaphragm. Presentation : Women present with : * Galactorrheadeg Features of hypogonadism : Men present with : * Impotence Loss of libido Infeility. In bo...
3
Menopause
Pituitary tumor
Sheehan's syndrome
Intraductal papilloma of breast
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Post Traumatic stress syndrome is due to
D i.e. Major life threatening events
4
Head Injury
CVD
Minor Stress
Major Life threatening events
Psychiatry
null
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single
Not a feature of de Quervain's disease :
null
1
Autoimmune in etiology
↑ESR
Tends to regress spontaneously
Painful & associated with enlargements of thyroid
Surgery
null
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single
March fracture is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neck of 2nd metatarsal Metatarsal stress fractures are common in distance runners and ballet dancers. The second metatarsal neck is the most likely site for stress fracture, but all metatarsals are susceptible. March fracture, also known as fatigue fracture or stress fracture of metatarsal bone, is th...
1
Neck of 2nd metatarsal
Neck of 3' metatarsal
Shaft of 4th metatarsal
Head of 5th metatarsal
Surgery
null
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single
Streptolysin 'O' acts through-
null
2
N- muraminidase
Teichoic acid
Muramic acid
Cytochrome oxidase
Medicine
null
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single
Raynolds-Braude phenomenon is shown by:
Ans. a (Candida albicans). (Ref. Ananthanarayan, Microbiology/ 6th/pg.576)RAYNOLDS-BRAUDE PHENOMENON (Germ tube formation) is a rapid method of identifying Candida albicans based on ability to form germ tubes within 2 hours on incubation in human serum at 37degC.CANDIDA ALBICANS# Yeast like fungus# Pseudomycelia# Diabe...
1
Candida albicans
Mucor
Cryptococcus
Aspergillus
Microbiology
Mycology
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single
Which type of abnormality in sexual development has best prognosis?
Ans. a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (Ref: Navak's 15/e p1029. 14/e p1023-1026)Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a type of abnormality in sexual development, which has best prognosis.'Congenital adrenal hyperplasia can be managed by supplying enough glucocorticoids to suppress excess androgen production. The deformit...
1
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
True hermaphroditism
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Sex Intersexuality
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multi
Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
The mangled extremity severity score (MESS) is a scoring system that can be applied to mangled extremities and help to determine which mangled limbs will eventually go for amputation and which can be salvaged. This system grades the injury on the basis of 4 categories: skeletal or soft tissue injury, limb ischemia, sho...
3
Shock
Ischemia
Neurogenic injury
Skeletal injury
Surgery
null
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multi
hich of the following is not true about Neisseria gonorrhoea -
Ans. is. 'd'i.e., All the strains are highly sensitive to penicillin . Penicillin is ineffective in treatment of gonorrhoea as most of the strains are resistant to penicillin because penicillnase producing N. gonorrhoeae (PPNG) have spread widely. . Ceftriaxone is the drug of choice for gonococcal infections. . All oth...
4
It is an exclusive human pathogen
Some strains may cause disseminated disease
Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation in males
All strains are highly sensitive to penicillin
Microbiology
null
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multi
Toxigenicity of C. diphtheria is determined by-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Elek's gel ppt test
1
Elek's gel ppt test
Aselole's reaction
Nagler's reaction
All
Microbiology
null
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multi
WHO regime for paucibacillary leprosy:
A i.e. 100 mg Dapsone daily + Rifampcin 600 mg monthly
1
100 mg Dapsone daily + Rifampcin monthly (600 mg)
Dapsone daily + Rifampcin daily
Dapsone + Rifampcin + Clofazemine daily
Rifampcin + Clofazamine daily
Skin
null
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For cardiopulmonary resuscitation in neonates ratio of chest compression to ventilation is
Ans: b (3:1) Ref: Nelson, 18th ed,p. 389; 17th ed,p. 280Chest compression-ventilation relationship Neonate1-8 years> 8 yearsCompression rate120At least 100100Compression to ventilation ratio3:15:115:2Pulse checkUmbilical arteryBrachialcarotidQuestion is a direct pick from the above Table in Nelson.
2
2:01
3:01
4:01
5:02
Pediatrics
New Born Infants
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single
In a programme, results analyzed in comparison to cost is known is -
- cost effective analysis express the benefits in terms of results achieved rather than monetary terms. - more promising tool for application in the health field. Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:871 <\p>
3
Cost benefit analysis
Management by objectives
Cost-effective analysis
Cost utility study
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health education & planning
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single
Medullary chemoreceptors are sensitive to ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., H+ in CSFThe primary direct stimulus for central chemoreceptors is increased H+ concentration in the CSF and brain interstitial fluid.Central chemoreceptors These receptors are located in a chemosensitive area on the ventral surface of the medulla near the exit of the ninth and tenth cranial nerves. T...
1
H+ in CSF
CO2 in CSF
H+ in blood
CO2 in blood
Physiology
null
2844913a-8d04-47fd-b326-3a904562da34
single
↑Ca2+ in Ca lung is seen in Ca –
null
2
Adeno
Squamous
Small cell
Large cell
Medicine
null
5691e211-0c3b-4827-94d0-d71dc2267a31
multi
ELISA is performed on a population with low prevalence. What would be the result of performing double screening ELISA tests -
The specificity of ELISA can be increased by carrying out ELISA in a row (series) using different HIV markers. When screening test is used in a series mode : - ↑ Specificity ↑ PPV ↓ Sensitivity
3
Increased sensitivity and positive predictiv value
Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
Increased specificity and positive predictive value
Increased specificity and negative predictive value
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
e7605d32-5332-4bf7-8d5d-ae7579379496
single
A most common complication of lateral condyle humerus fracture -
Amongst the given options, nonunion is the most common complication.
2
Malunion
Nonunion
VIC
Median nerve injury
Orthopaedics
null
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single
CT scan of the head should be performed before lumbar puncture in all of the following conditions except?
Neuroimaging should be done prior to LP in the following patients: 1. Altered level of consciousness 2. Focal neurological deficit 3. New onset seizure 4. Papilledema 5. Immunocompromised state These patients are at increased risk of potentially fatal cerebellar or tentorial herniation following lumbar puncture.
1
Hypeension
Immunocompromised state
Kernohan Woltman sign
Low GCS score
Radiology
CT SCAN
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Which of the following is a vector for Dengue fever?
Aedes aegypti:Principle vector of Dengue virusesAlso an efficient vector of the Yellow fever and Chikungunya virusesBreeds near human habitation, using relatively fresh waterUsually inhabits dwellings and bites during the dayRef: Harrison's 17/e p1230
1
Aedes aegypti
Culex
Anophelous
Mansonia
Medicine
All India exam
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Post-transplant cytomegalovirus infection may cause
Overall, 30% of all infections contracted in the posttransplant period are viral. The most common viral infections are DNA viruses of the herpesvirus family and include cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex virus, and varicella zoster virus. CMV infections may occur as either primary or reactive inf...
2
Pyelonephritis
GI ulceration and hemorrhage
Cholecystitis
Intraabdominal abscess
Surgery
Transplantation
76e78c3c-2d2b-47af-bddb-e4e72efb2c56
single
SIte of bleeding after cataract surgery is
After cataract surgery, posterior ciliary vessels are the common sites of bleeding. Ref AK khurana 6/e p 215
4
Anterior choroidal vessels
Posterior choroidal vessels
Anterior ciliary vessels
Posterior ciliary vessels
Ophthalmology
Lens
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single
Rain drop pigmentation is caused by ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., ArsenicHomosexual
4
Clofazimine
Dapsone
Minocycline
ArsenicHomosexual
Skin
null
3747847c-acfb-4d0b-9429-648a5f9cdb22
single
Most common genetic play in Neisseria infection is
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Complement deficiency Complement deficiency and neisserial infections The complement system is an essential component of the innate immune defence against infection by Neisseria (N. Meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae). People who lack or have a deficiency in complement mediated bactericidal activity are ...
3
Male gender
HLA b27
Complement deficiency
IgA deficiency
Microbiology
null
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Disease usually not seen in a country but brought from abroad is:
Exotic: Disease usually not seen in a country but brought from abroad. OTHER OPTIONS Zoonotic: A disease which is transmitted to man from animals e.g. Rabies, plague. Epidemic: when disease has exceeded it's normal expectancy. Endemic: Constant or continuous presence of a disease in a population.
4
Endemic
Epidemic
Zoonotic
Exotic
Social & Preventive Medicine
FMGE 2018
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multi
Kinky hair desease is disorder where an affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain degeneration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died form kinky hair disease. Her mother's brother also died of the same conditi...
Ans. is 'a' i.e., X-linked Recessive o The clues in this question are ? Only males are manifesting disease. Females are acting as carriers -3 sisters sons had suffered from the disease. o Both these are features of X-linked recessive disorders. X-linked disorders o Except for a few conditions, all X-linked disorders ar...
1
X-linked recessive
X-linked dominant
Autosomal recessive
Autosomal dominant
Pathology
null
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single
Quarantine is related to>
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Maximum incubation period Quarantine - has been defined as The limitation of freedom of movement of such well person or domestic animals exposed to communicable disease for a period of time no longer than the longest usual incubation period of the disease in such a manner to prevent effective contact w...
2
Minimum incubation period
Maximum incubation period
Serial interval
Generation time
Social & Preventive Medicine
Infectious Disease Epidemiology
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single
Insulin resistance in liver disease is due to
Refer Robbins page no Insulin resistance is defined as the failure of target tissues to respond normally to insulin. It leads to decreased uptake of glucose ik muscle reduced glycolysis and fatty acid oxidation I'm the liver and inability to suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis
2
Decreased insulin resistance
Steatosis
Hepatocyte dysfunction
Decreased C peptide level
Anatomy
General anatomy
de0a1c9c-c45b-40fe-a29d-d1daee690e75
single
Gastrospleenic ligament is due to peritoneal reflection of which aery ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sho gastric aery
2
Splenic aery
Sho gastric aery
Pancreatic aery
Common hepatic aery
Anatomy
null
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single
Which of the following antifungal is used in cancer chemotherapy?
Flucytosine is used as a pyrimidine antagonist which is a prodrug and is conveed to 5 FU.Ref: KD Tripathi 7th ed; Pg: 791
1
Flucytosine
Amphotericin B
Voriconazole
Ketoconazole
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
Herbe's pit is seen in: September 2006 March 2013 (c)
Ans. D: Chlamydial conjunctivitis Later structural changes of trachoma are referred to as "cicatricial trachoma". These include scarring in the eye lid (tarsal conjunctiva) that leads to distoion of the eye lid with buckling of the lid (tarsus) so the lashes rub on the eye (trichiasis). These lashes will lead to cornea...
4
Vernal conjunctivitis
Atopic conjunctivitis
Gonococcal conjunctivitis
Chlamydial conjunctivitis
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Blow out fracture of orbit involves
Ans. (c) Inferior wallRef; Kanski 7/e, p. 873Blow out fracture is typically of the orbital floor, it may also involve the medial wall but always as a secondary involvement.
3
Medial wall
Superior wall
Inferior wall
All the walls
Ophthalmology
Ocular Trauma
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multi
Spring catarrh may be associated with:
Ans. Keratoconus
2
Anterior subcapsular cataract
Keratoconus
Interstitial keratitis
All of the above
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Drug used in Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy is?
ANSWER: (B) a, antagonistsREF: KDT 7th ed p-135, Goodman and Gillman's 11th ed page 172,173,183
2
a1agonist
a1. antagonist
a2, agonist
a2 antagonist
Pharmacology
Anti Adrenergic System
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single
Which drug should not be given in pregnancy ?
null
2
Labetalol
ACE inhibitors
Hydralazine
Methyl dopa
Pharmacology
null
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single
Ratio of O2 : N2O in Entonox is –
Entonox contain equal amount (50/50) of N2O and O2.
1
50:50:00
60:40:00
40 : 60
25 : 75
Anaesthesia
null
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single
Treatment of Asherman's syndrome is :
D + C with IUCD inseion
2
D C
D + C with IUCD inseion
Hysterectomy
Hysterotomy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
188bc66d-ebc3-4c36-b92d-6f35ccbdfdee
single
All of the following statements regarding disposal of biomedical waste are true, except
Blue bag contents are disposed by autoclaving/microwaving/chemical treatment and destruction shedding. Yellow bag contains category No. 1, 2, 3, & 6 wastes. Category No 1 contains human anatomical waste (option a is correct) Red bags are used for disposal of microbiology waste from laboratory cultures, stocks of microo...
4
Human Anatomical Waste is disposed in a Yellow bag
Contents from a Red bag may be a source of contamination
Black bags are used for disposal of ash from incineration
Blue bags contents are disposed in secured landfill
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Peusis toxin acts by all of the following mechanisms except ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased calcium release from saroplasmic reticulum Peusis toxin . Peussis toxin is an exotoxin that has A and B subunits. . B subunit binds to the target cells whereas A subunit acts on the target. . First, the peussis toxin itself gets activated by glutathione and ATP. . Once the toxin gets activat...
3
ADP ribosylation of proteins associated with receptors
Increase cyclic AMP
Increased calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum
Acts through G alpha subunit
Microbiology
null
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multi
Drug producing dissociative anesthesia:
Ans: (c) KetamineRef: katzung 9th ed. 1604; KDT 6th ed./376* Ketamine is the only intravenous anesthetic that possesses analgesic properties and produces cardiovascular stimulation.* It causes "dissociative anesthesia" which is characterized by profound analgesia, immobility, amnesia and feeling of dissociation from on...
3
Propofol
Enflurane
Ketamine
Sevoflurane
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
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single
All is true about pseudocyesis except:
Patient is not pregnant is pseudocyesis. Though she falsely believes that and there are also associated changes suggestive of pregnancy. Pseudocyesis False pregnancy There is development of classical symptoms of pregnancy like: Abdominal enlargement Amenorrhea Subjective sense of fetal movements Breast engorgement Labo...
2
Abdominal enlargement
Patient is pregnant
Labor pains at expected date of delivery
Amenorrhea
Psychiatry
Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders
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multi
. A girl presents with; primary amenorrhea; grade V thelarche, grade II pubarche; no axillary hair; likely diagnosis is:
null
1
Testicular feminisation syndrome
Mullerian agenesis
Turners syndrome
Gonadal dysgenesis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Injury that comes under sec 320 IPC
B i.e. Nasal bone fracture
2
Abrasion over face
'Nasal bone fracture
Epistaxis
Lacerated wound over scalp
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Best results are obtained in oral submucous fibrosis is by:
null
1
Intralesional cortisone therapy, with hyaluronic acid
Oral cortisone with intralesional therapy (cortisone)
Vitamin E and oral cortisone
Intralesional placental extract
Pathology
null
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single
Massive bleeding per rectum in a 70 yr old patient is due to :
Answer is A (Diveiculosis) Although anorectal disease is the most commonm cause of bleeding per rectum in the elderly, these lesions usually cause small amount of 'bright red' blood on the surface of stool and toilet tissue (small bleeds). Diveiculosis may give rise to massive colonic bleed. The usual presentation of d...
1
Diveiculosis
Carcinoma colon
Colitis
Polyps
Medicine
null
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single
Main recommendation of Jungalwalla committe?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Integration of health services Health Planning in India The guide lines for national health planning were provided by a number of committees. These committees were appointed by the Government of India from time to time to review the existing health situation and recommend measures for fuher action.
4
Creation of multipurpose worker
Health survey and planning
1 PHC for 50000 population
Integration of health services
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Which of the following drugs is not used for the therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Ans. C. AntibioticsPatients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia require lifelong treatment. Patients with salt wasting and virilizing forms should be treated with hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. After completion of growth, synthetic glucocorticoid preparations (dexamethasone, prednisolone) can be used.
3
Hydrocortisone
Prednisolone
Antibiotics
Dexamethasone
Pediatrics
Endocrinology
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single
The treatment of congenital glaucoma is-
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Trabeculectomy with trabeculectomy Treatment of congenital glaucoma:Treatment of congenital glaucoma is primarily surgical. However I.O.P. must be lowered by the following agents till surgery is doneHyper osmotic agentsAcetazolamideb Blockers Surgical procedures: -GoniotomyTrabeculectomyCombined trabec...
3
Essentially topical medications
Trabeculoplasty
Trabeculotomy with trabeculectomy
Cyclocryotherapy.
Unknown
null
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multi
The commonest site for extragonadal germ cell tumor
Reference Robbins page no 475 Extragonadal germ cell tumors form from developing sperm or egg cells that travel from the gonads to other pas of the body. ... These are more common than malignantextragonadal germ cell tumors and often are very large. Malignant extragonadal germ cell tumors are divided into two types, no...
2
Pineal gland
Mediastinum
Retroperitoneum
Sacrococcyygeal region
Pathology
Urinary tract
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single
Drug which is useful for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is?
The two types of weakness require opposite treatments. They can be differentiated by edrophonium test.
3
Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Edrophonium
Atropine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Surface area of tympanic membrance -
null
4
55 mm2
70 mm2
80 mm2
90 mm2
ENT
null
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single
The transition from G2 to M phase is controlled by
The cell cycle is regulated by activators and inhibitors. Cell cycle progression is driven by proteins called cyclins. cyclin D-CDK4, cyclin D-CDK6, and cyclin E-CDK2 regulate the G1-to-S transition by phosphorylating the Rb protein (pRb). Cyclin A-CDK2 and cyclin A-CDK1 are active in the S phase. Cyclin B-CDK1 is esse...
4
Rb gene product
P53 protein
Cyclin E
Cyclin B
Pathology
General pathology
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single
Which feature is MOST helpful in distinguishing dementia from severe depression?
Somatic complaints such as anorexia, weight loss and headache are features of both conditions, though more prominent in patients with depression. The behavioural and cognitive functions are affected in both conditions. Poor concentration, poor attention span, poor memory and social withdrawal are encountered in both. G...
2
Weight loss
Grasp reflex
Persistent headache
Poor attention spans
Pathology
All India exam
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single
Middle ear effusion with intact eardrum gives rise to which type of tympanogram?
Type B tympanogram is flat in appearance, indicating lack of compliance. The volume measurement that is simultaneously performed with tympanometry helps to differentiate between a flat tympanogram suggesting an intact eardrum with middle ear effusion and a perforated eardrum or patent ventilating tube.
2
Type A
Type B
Type C
Type D
ENT
null
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single
Modified Kastenbaum surgery is done for
Modified Kastenbaum Surgery *Recession resection of all four horizontal recti is done according to the type and amount of nystagmus
2
Esotropia
Nystagmus
Superior oblique palsy
Third nerve palsy
Ophthalmology
Squint
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single
Direct standardization is used to compare the moality rates between two countries. This is done because of the differences in:
Age distributions !Ref. Park 20/e, p 55,56 (19/e, p 54, I8/e, p 53)] Repeat from May 06 & Nov 06 Because of the differences in age distribution of two populations, their moality experience could not be compared by using 'crude death rate', as it lead to wrong impression. A population (say population A) with more young ...
3
Causes of death
Numerators
Age distributions
Denominators
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
A 2-day-old newborn male develops mild cyanosis. An ultrasound examination reveals a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following infections will most likely lead to this congenital anomaly?
Congenital heart defects are common problems that can be caused by teratogens, such as the rubella virus, or single-gene factors or chromosomal abnormalities.
2
Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Varicella virus
Anatomy
Thorax
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single
Separation of first polar body occurs at the time of: September 2007, March 2012
Ans. B: Ovulation Asymmetrical cell division (cytokinesis) leads to the production of polar bodies during oogenesis. To conserve nutrients, the majority of cytoplasm is segregated into either the secondary oocyte and, or ovum, during meiosis I or meiosis II, respectively. The remaining daughter cells generated from the...
2
Feilization
Ovulation
Implantation
Menstruation
Physiology
null
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single
According to ADA specification #1 for amalgam, what is the acceptable dimensional change?
According to ADA specification #1 for amalgam, the acceptable dimensional change is -20 to +20 micron/cm. Reference: Marzouk Operative dentistry, pg-108
1
-20 to +20 micron/cm
-10 to +10 micron/cm
-20 to +10 micron/cm
-10 to +20 micron/cm
Dental
null
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single
Most common complication of intertrochanteric fracture femur is:(NEET 2013; WB 1999; AI 1998, 1988; DELHI 1997)
(a) Malunion- Most common complications of intracapsular fracture -AVN followed by non-union.- Most common complication of extracapsular fracture - Malunion.
1
Malunion
Non-union
Osteoarthritis
Nerve injury
Orthopaedics
Pelvis & Injuries
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single
The parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to parotid traverse through all of the following, EXCEPT:
The parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to parotid arises from the glossopharyngeal nerve. The nerve reaches the gland tympanic branch, the lesser petrosal nerve, the otic ganglion and the auriculotemporal nerve. Course of the nerve: Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers originate from inferior salivary nucleus in the m...
4
Otic ganglion
Tympanic plexus
Auriculo temporal nerve
Greater Petrosal nerve
Anatomy
null
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multi
On thyroid function test, TSH value is raised and t4 value is decreased. Referred diagnosis is
IF TSH raised ans T4 is decreased then its primary. IF both are decreased then its secondary.
2
Hyperthyroidism
Primary hypothyroidism
Secondary hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism
Surgery
null
2d2639c9-34f5-40bf-8447-6574dfcb8919
single
Which of the following interventions is NOT included in active management of IIIrd stage of labor: March 2013
Ans. B i.e. Immediate clamping, cutting and ligation of the cord
2
Administration of a uterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
Immediate clamping, cutting and ligation of the cord
Massage of uterus
Controlled cord traction
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
The period of infancy usually refers to:
null
2
First 2 years after birth
First 1 year after birth
First 6 months after birth
First 3 years after birth
Dental
null
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multi
The following are important in the maintenance of normal fecal continence except -
Normal fecal continence requires adequate rectal wall compliance to accommodate the fecal bolus. appropriate neurogenic control of the pelvic floor and sphincter mechanism, and functional internal and external sphincter muscles At rest the puborectalis muscle creates a 'sling' around the distal rectum, forming a rela...
4
Anorectal angulation
Rectal innervation
Internal sphincter
Haustral valve
Surgery
null
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multi
Commonest benign tumour of the esophagus
Benign tumours of the oesophagus are unusual and constitute less than 1% of all oesophagal neoplasms. Approximately 60% of benign oesophagal lesions are leiomyomas, 20% are cysts, 5% are polyps, and the remaining 5% are other neoplasms.Ref: Sabiston 2oth edition pg:1047
1
Leiomyoma
Papilloma
Adenoma
Hemangioma
Surgery
G.I.T
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single
Main vascular supply of Little's area is all,except -
null
4
Septal branch of superior labial artery
Nasal branch of sphenopalatine artery
Anterior ethmoidal artery
Palatal branch of sphenopalatine
ENT
null
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multi
Following surgery, a patient develops oliguria.. You believe the patient is hypovolemic, but you seek corroborative data before increasing intravenous fluids. The best data is?
When oliguria occurs postoperatively, it is impoant to differentiate between low output caused by the physiologic response to intravascular hypovolemia and that caus ed by acute tubular necrosis. The fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) is an especially useful test to aid in this differentiation. Values of FE < 1% in ...
3
Urine sodium of 28 meq/L
Urine chloride of 15 meq/L
Fractional excretion of sodium less than 1
Urinel Serum creatinine ratio of 20
Surgery
null
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single
Most common cause of umbilicus does not separate at age of 2 years -
null
2
Raspbery tumour
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
Patent urachus
Umblical granuloma
Surgery
null
f94a6ccf-d28f-4154-9dff-cacbb80d9328
single
A 50 year old female goes into shock and her blood pressure was 50 mmHg. Which of the following concerning her GFR is most likely?
Once blood pressure drops below about 60 mmHg, GFR will basically cease, although a very small amount of filtrate may continue to be produced. This is another reason why maintaining blood pressure is so impoant.
4
Myogenic autoregulation will keep GFR constant
Angiotensin II release will maintain normal GFR
The macula densa will cause constriction of the afferent aeriole to maintain GFR
GFR will viually cease
Physiology
null
9aeba4d4-7ca9-43af-ac68-951f16db0dc8
multi
Umbilicus is supplied by which spinal segment?
Ans. d (T10). (Ref. BD Chaurasia, Anatomy -2nd vol., 3rd/165; Bailey & love Surgery, 25th/982) # Skin around umbilicus is supplied by T10 segment of cord. # With reference to lymphatics and venous drainage it is water shed area. Educational point: # Dermatomes over: - The xiphoid process-T7 - The umbilicus-T10 - The pu...
4
T4
T6
T8
T10
Anatomy
Abdominal Wall
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single
Iron requirement in pregnancy -
<p> iron The adult human body contains between 3-4 g of iron , of which about 60-70 % is present in blood as circulating iron and the rest as storage iron. Each gram of haemoglobin contain 3.34mg of iron. Functions: 1. Formation of haemoglobin 2. Brain development 3. Regulation of body temperature. 4. Catecholamine met...
2
100 mg
35 mg
500 mg
800 mg
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
75340e0e-0fdb-41a3-9706-7ed067fde323
single
Fixed-splitting of S2 is seen in
A fixed split S2 indicates an atrial septal defect (ASD). Spitting at both expiratory and inspiratory phases but does NOT lengthen with inspiration Compared to Wide splitting where there is splitting during expiration and even wider during inspiration, which is seen in conditions with delayed conduction down the right ...
1
ASD
MS
PDA
PR
Medicine
C.V.S
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single