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Osteomyelitis can mimic which tumor?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ewing Sarcoma Distinguishing between hematogenous osteomyelitis and a bone sarcoma is difficult when there is notrauma, no systemicdisease, and no sign of infection locally . Radiographic changes of soft tissue swelling, coical tunneling, focal cancellouslysis, focal coical resorption, and a periostea...
2
Osteoclastoma
Ewing sarcoma
Chondroma
None of above
Pediatrics
null
d303a5a9-231b-4cee-9253-3766d252c4e2
multi
You and your friend goes for a picnic to a hilly area. He has 5 to 6 episodes of loose stools. There is no fever, tachycardia or no other signs of dehydration. What should you do next?
ANS. BClassification of diarrhea based on severity in children and management.SignsClassify asIdentify treatment(Urgent pre-referral treatment are in bold print)Two of the following signs:* Lethargic or unconscious* Sunken eyes* Not able to drink or drinking poorly* Skin pinch goes back very slowlySevere dehydration* I...
2
Start a course of oral ofloxacin and onidazole
Give ORS solution with water
Take him to a nearby hospital
Start intravenous (IV) fluids
Medicine
Fluid & Electrolyte
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single
Deficiency of zinc causes all except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neuropathy*Zinc is found in skeletal muscle and in bones, Sources of Zinc are grains, beans, cheese, Shell fish*Zinc is absorbed from duodenum, stored in liver in conjugation with metallothionein**Zinc is necessary for synthesis of Retinol Binding Protein.Hence Zinc deficiency is found to present with...
4
Diarrhea
Acrodermatitis
Vitamin A deficiency
Neuropathy
Biochemistry
null
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multi
Toxic amblyopia can be caused by ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All Toxic amblyopia is chronic retrobulbar neuritis which results from the damage to optic nerve by the exogenous poisons. It is frequently bilateral and has a chronic course with permanent visual deterioration. The toxic agents involve may be : Tobacco, ethyl alcohol, methyl alcohol, ethylene glycol,...
4
Ethanol
Methanol
Ethambutol
All
Ophthalmology
null
f65aa2dc-1082-42f9-84fa-deb2a5724f33
multi
Hemophilia A due to deficiency of
Hemophila A:- Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of factor VIII Hemophilia A is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Factor VIII is an intrinsic pathway component required for activation of factor X. Clinical manifestations are due to defect in coagulation system : - Large post traumatic ecchymoses or hematoma...
1
Factor VIII
Factor IX
Factor X
Factr XI
Pathology
null
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single
Occipital lobe tumours may produce
Ans. Both of the above
3
Crossed homonymous quadrantanopia
Crossed homonymous hemianopia
Both of the above
None of the above
Ophthalmology
null
28430972-16e8-457c-a2e3-9cd97cae5def
multi
Marcus Gunn pupil is a feature of
OPTIC NEURITIS Signs: 1. Visual acuity is usually reduced markedly. 2. Colour vision is often severely impaired. 3. Pupil shows ill-sustained constriction to light. Marcus Gunn pupil which indicates relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is a diagnostic sign. It is detected by the swinging flash light test. Swinging...
3
Ciliary ganglion lesion
Lesion of Edinger-Westphal nucleus
Optic neuritis
Papilloedema
Ophthalmology
Neuro-ophthalmology
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Desmosomes are helpful in connecting -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Keratinocytes Desmosomeso Desmosomes are the major adhesion complex in epidermis, anchoring keratin intermediate filaments (IFs) to the cell membrane and bridging adjacent keratinocytes, and allowing cells to withstand trauma.o The main components of desmosomes consist of the products of three gene su...
1
Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Dermis and epidermis
Langerhanscells
Skin
Anatomy of Skin
87dab8c0-d2a4-4c96-9ab2-6e09a3065017
single
When does a child attain this impoant fine motor milestone?
The given picture shows 'mature pincer grasp' which develops at 12 month. 6 months Unidextrous or palmar grasp 7 months Transfer objects from 1 hand to another 9 months immature/ assisted pincer grasp 12 months mature/unassisted pincer grasp- 'CASTING'
4
3 months
6 months
9 months
12 months
Pediatrics
Impoant Motor Milestones
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single
Colonic Divericulosis and diveiculitis is maximally seen in
Answer- A. Sigmoid colonThe sigmoid colon is the segment of large bowel with the highest incidence of diveicula, and it is by far the most frequent site for involvement with Diveiculitis.
1
Sigmoid colon
Rectum
Transverse colon
Ascending colon
Surgery
null
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multi
All are true regarding tetanus except:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., More common in winters and dry weather(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 261; Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1197 and 17th/e, p. 898; Park, 20th/e, p. 272, 273)* Tetanus is common in areas where soil is cultivated, in rural areas, in warm climates, during summer months, and among males.* Infection is acquired by c...
2
Transmission through contaminated wounds and injuries
More common in winters and dry weather
Reservoir in soil and intestines of humans and animals
No herd immunity of life long immunity
Microbiology
Bacteria
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multi
All are seen in Tuberous sclerosis except
A i.e. Iris nodule
1
Iris Nodule
Renal Coical Cyst
Rhabdomyoma of hea and lung
Adenoma Sebaceum
Skin
null
354483f0-7806-4330-a7d0-1100a64304ee
multi
A patient with homonymous hemianopia is found to have asymmetric optokinetic nystagmus. The location of the lesion is
Optokinetic nystagmus (OKN), elicited with a rotating striped optokinetic drum, useful in localizing cause of an isolated homonymous hemianopia. Physiological OKN involves smooth pursuit of a target, followed momentarily by a saccade in the opposite direction to fixate on the next target. If a homonymous hemianopia is ...
1
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
Temporal lobe
Lateral geniculate body
Ophthalmology
Neuro Ophthalmology
f4d65b94-2bef-4c72-9c3a-eded41ba71aa
single
Which of the following is an autosomal dominant metabolic disorder
Most of the metabolic disorder have autosomal recessive inheritance expect Her-Her's disease Left-Lesch My hand syndrome Eye-ouclar albinism Has-hunter syndrome Five -fabrys disease Pimples -porphyria Refer robins 7th/152,9/e p141
4
Cystic fibrosis
Phenylketonuria
Alpha 1antitrypsin deficiency
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Ideal time for doing Quadruple test?
Ref. The Short Textbook of Pediatrics. Pg 600   Triple and Quadruple test The triple screening measures the amounts of three substances in a pregnant woman's blood: alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and estriol (uE3) The quad screen test is a maternal blood screening test that looks for four...
1
15-18 weeks
12-14 weeks
10-12 weeks
8-10 weeks
Unknown
null
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Weight of an infant doubles by what age?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 6 months *Weight of an infant doubles by 5 months and quadruples by 2 years of age.AgeWeightBirth3kg5 months6kg (2 x birth weight)1 years9kg (3 x birth weight)2 years12kg (4 x birth weight)3 years15kg (5 x birth weight)5 years18kg (6 x birth weight)7 years21kg (7 x birth weight)10 years30kg (10 x birt...
1
6 months
1 year
2 years
3 years
Pediatrics
Growth, Development, and Behavior
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LCAT activates?
Ans. (a) Apo A1Ref Harper's Biochemistry 28/e, chapter 25
1
ApoA1
ApoB100
Apo C-2
Apo C-3
Biochemistry
Cholesterol and Lipoproteins
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Urine is stored in:
D i.e. Thymol Toluene is the best preservative of urine for chemical analysis & Thymol for general purposeQ.
4
Urine is stored in:
Normal saline
Hydrochloric acid
Thymol
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Dosage of benzyl penicillin in treatment of primary syphilis is :
null
3
1.2 MU single i.m.
1.2 MU single i.v.
2.4 MU single i.m.
4.8 MU single i.m.
Pharmacology
null
bea3bdd1-ba15-4c97-bbc7-2a2cabcd4312
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All are causes of acute hyponatremia except
Causes of Acute Hyponatremia Iatrogenic Postoperative: premenopausal women Hypotonic fluids with cause of | vasopressin Glycine irrigation: TURP, uterine surgery Colonoscopy preparation Recent institution of thiazides Polydipsia MDMA ("ecstasy," "Molly") ingestion Exercise-induced Multifactorial, e.g., thiazide and pol...
4
TURP surgery
Exercise
Recent institution of thiazides
SIADH
Medicine
Fluid and electrolytes
6d699dfc-2100-4765-a8da-70d57809b397
multi
Postural reflex with integrating center in spine
The crossed extensor reflex or crossed extensor response or crossed extension reflex is a reflex in which the contralateral limb compensates for loss of suppo when the ipsilateral limb withdraws from painful stimulus in a withdrawal reflex Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 775,...
4
Righting reflex
Tonic labyrinthine reflex
Righting reflex
Crossed extensor reflex
Physiology
Nervous system
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Enzyme deficiency in Cori disease is
Type Name Enzyme Deficiency Clinical Features IIIa Limit dextrinosis, Forbe or Cori disease Liver and muscle debranching enzyme Fasting hypoglycemia Hepatomegaly in infancy Accumulation of characteristic branched polysaccharide (limit dextrin) Muscle weakness Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Table: 18-2; Page no: 179
3
Liver phosphorylase
Branching enzyme
Liver and muscle debranching enzyme
Muscle phosphorylase
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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The dreaded complication of Rituximab is:
The dreaded complication of Rituximab is progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy Ref: Harrison's principles of internal medicine, 18th edition ; Page 882.
1
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
AIDP
Bone marrow suppresion
Cardiac toxicity
Medicine
null
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single
Stimulation of ovary in the early follicular phase is by:
Stimulation of ovary in early follicular phase is by FSH, as the growth and differentiation of primordial follicles are under the control of FSH. Presence of FSH prevents follicles from undergoing Atresia. Stimuation of ovary in later follicular phase is predominantly by FSH but also LH is required in later follicular ...
3
Oestrogen
Progesterone
FSH
LH
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception
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A 55-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after slipping on wet pavement and falling. Physical examination reveals that the patient has a hematoma that formed in the danger zone of the scalp, spreading to the area of the eyelids. Which of the following layers is regarded as the "danger zone"?
The loose areolar connective tissue layer is known as the "danger zone" because hematoma can spread easily from this layer into the skull by means of emissary veins that pass into and through the bones of the skull. None of the other scalp layers listed is referred to as the "danger zone."
1
Loose, areolar layer
Skin
Galea aponeurotica
Pericranium
Anatomy
Head & Neck
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A lady presented with carcinoma endometrium involving >50% of myometrium extending to vagina and positive peritoneal cytology but no involvement of para aoic and preaoic nodes. What is the stage of disease ?
Endometrial cancer stage III: Stage IIIA: Involvement of uterine serosa and/ or adnexa Stage IIIB: Involvement of vagina and/or parametrium Stage IIIC: IIIC1: Positive Pelvic nodes IIIC2: Positive Paraaoic nodes with or without positive pelvic nodes Positive peritoneal cytology doesn&;t alter the stage Ref: FIGO SURGIC...
2
Ill A
Ill B
Ill C1
Ill C2
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
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Sunray/ spoke wheel vasculature is a feature of
On DSA- The classic angiographic appearance of a meningioma is a radial "sunburst" of vessels extending from the base of the tumor toward its periphery. Dural vessels supply the core or center of the lesion, radiating outward from the vascular pedicle of the tumor. DSA image showing characteristic SUNBURST PATTERN of m...
4
Craniopharyngioma
Glioblastoma multiforme
Oligodendroglioma
Meningioma
Radiology
Neuroradiology
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BRAF mutation is seen in 60% of cancers of
Point mutation of BRAF seen in 60% of malignant melanoma and 80% of benign nevi.Category of oncogenes:1)Growth factors *Overexpression of HGF - Thyroid cancer2)Growth factor receptors *EGFR -Squamous cell carcinoma of lung and glioblastoma*Her2/neu- Breast cancer *FLT3 - Breast cancer, ovarian cancers, and myeloid leuk...
1
Malignant melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Teratoma
Pathology
General pathology
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Anaplastic cells often display the following morphologic features except --------.
Anaplastic cells often display the following morphologic features: Pleomorphism (i.e., variation in size and shape). Nuclear abnormalities, consisting of extreme hyperchromatism  (dark-staining), variation in nuclear size and shape, or unusually prominent single or multiple nucleoli. Enlargement of nuclei may  result ...
2
Nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio 1:1
Retention of polarity
Formation of tumor giant cells
Quadripolar mitotic figures
Pathology
null
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Cause of central cyanosis include all the following except
CHF is a cause for peripheral cyanosis and not central cyanosis. Cyanosis when present in asthma,pulmonic stenosis and alveolar hypoventilation is of central type. Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 249
3
Chronic asthma
Congestive pulmonary stenosis
Congestive hea failure
Alveolar hypotension
Anatomy
Respiratory system
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Posterior cord supplies
The axillary nerve from the posterior cord supplies teres minor and deltoid muscle. Coracobrachialis is supplied by a musculocutaneous nerve from the lateral cord. Pectoralis minor is supplied by medial pectoral nerve arising from the medial cord and lateral pectoral nerves arising from lateral cord. The long head of b...
1
Teres minor
Pectoralis minor
Coracobrachialis
Long head of biceps
Anatomy
Upper limb
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In patient of head injuries with rapidly increasing intracranial tension without hematoma, the drug of choice for initial management would be
Mannitol Mannitol is widely used to reduce ICP Commonly used preparation : 20% solution, 0.25-1 gm/kg is given IV as bolus Serum osmolality should not be allowed to go >320 mOsm/L, to avoid systemic acidosis and renal failure. Uses of mannitol To reduce increased ICT or intra ocular tension To maintain GFR and urine fl...
3
Lasix
Steroids
20% Mannitol
Glycine
Surgery
Trauma
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True about Hemochromatosis is?
ANSWER: (A) Iron deposits in the viscera and its destructionREF: Robbins 8th edn Page 1642-43, Wintrobes 12th ed page 860, 862Option (A); Gray or bronze pigmentation is the most common physical examination abnormality in hemochromatosis homozygotes, occurring in approximately 35 to 84%. Other common physical examinatio...
1
Iron deposits in the viscera and its destruction
Is genetically homogenous
Completely penetrant
Females are more commonly affected than male
Pathology
Blood
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A patient presented with right lower quadrant pain. He was already treated for right renal stone disease. Which of the following opioid is partial agonist at MU and full agonist at Kappa?
ANS. APentazocine: Partial agonist and antagonist at mu receptor, and agonist at kappaBuprenorphine: Partial agonist at mu and antagonist at kappaTramadol: Affinity for mu is low, while that for kappa and delta is very low. (Tramadol also has an additional mechanism of inhibiting reuptake of NA and 5-HT, and thus activ...
1
Pentazocin
Buprenorphine
Tramadol
Fentanyl
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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Hypokalemia is defined as a plasma potassium concentration of
Hypokalemia, defined as a plasma K+ concentration of <3.5 mM, Hyperkalemia is defined as a plasma potassium level of 5.5 mM Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 305
1
< 3.5 mmol/L
< 3.6 mmol/L
< 3.7 mmol/L
< 3.8 mmol/L
Medicine
Fluid and electrolytes
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single
Which of the following drugs can cause hypotension by the release of histamine from mast cells?
Basic drugs like morphine, d-TC and amphotericin B etc act as histamine liberators and can cause acute reaction leading to itching and hypotension.
3
Aspirin
Procaine
Morphine
Sulfadiazine
Pharmacology
null
52e9c7b0-7e8f-48e6-a149-c5d918d52c66
single
A 5year-old child complains of pain and swelling of the right tibia. On laboratory evaluation he has elevated ESR and leucocytosis X-ray shows a tibial lesion. Which of the following is the best investigation which can help us clinch the diagnosis:
Diagnostic is always Tissue Diagnosis -Tumors and infection can mimic each other (clinically and radiologically), e.g. Osteosarcoma and Ewings sarcoma are two tumors that mimic osteomyelitis. (Both have accompanying fever and increased local temperature). -Tumors and bone infections are usually metaphyseal and both nee...
4
Blood C/S
Pus C/S
MRI
Biopsy
Orthopaedics
Imaging and basics in Ohopedics
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A hymenal tag in a newborn is best treated by –
Hymenal tags around margins of hymen is normal finding.
3
Steroids
Surgery
Leaving it alone
None of the above
Pediatrics
null
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Crohn&;s disease is associated with
.10% of first degree relatives; 50% of monozygotic twins develop Crohn's disease. Genes NOD2 / CARD15 in chromosome 16q12 has got strong association with Crohn's disease. CARD15 is expressed in Paneth cells of the ileum. * Smoking is related to Crohn's disease as aetiology, as for relapse and for exacerbations. There i...
1
NOD2\/CARD15 gene
P53 supressor gene
Philadelpha chromosomes
BRACI gene
Surgery
G.I.T
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Dorsal root ganglia have
Pseudounipolar neuron a unipolar neuron, almost always a primary sensory neuron, that was originally bipolar but whose two processes fused during development to form a single process that bifurcates at a distance from the cell body. One branch is structurally an axon with a myelin sheath but functions as a dendrite, wi...
4
Unipolar
Multipolar
Bipolar
Psudounipolar
Physiology
General physiology
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Dopamine is preferred in treatment of shock because of:
Ans. (A) Renal vasodilatory effect(Ref: Katzung 11/e p137)Dopamine acts on D1 , b1 and a1 receptors. Stimulation of D1 receptors cause renal vasodilation, which is useful clinically to improve renal perfusion in shock with oligouria.
1
Renal vasodilatory effect
Increased cardiac output
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Prolonged action
Pharmacology
Adrenergic System
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Sensitivity to local anaesthetics is greater in
null
2
Type B fibres
Type C fibres
Type A delta fibres
Fibres supplying the muscle spindles
Surgery
null
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Jaegers cha is used to measure
Jaeger's cha is used for measuring Near Vision The Jaeger cha is an eye cha used in testing near vision acuity. It is a card on which paragraphs of text are printed, with the text sizes increasing from 0.37mm to 2.5mm. This card is to be held by a patient at a fixed distance from the eye dependent on the J size being r...
2
Distant vision
Near vision
Color vision
Contrast sensitivity
Ophthalmology
Optics and Errors of Refraction
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A 19-year-old male has a history of athlete's foot but is otherwise healthy when he develops the sudden onset of fever and pain in the right foot and leg. On physical exam, the foot and leg are fiery red with a well-defined indurated margin that appears to be rapidly advancing. There is tender inguinal lymphadenopathy....
(Braunwald, 15/e, pp 823, 893.) Erysipelas, the cellulitis described, is typical of infection caused by S.Pyogenes - Group A b- hemolytic Streptococci (GAS). There is often a preceding event such as a cut in the skin, dermatitis, or superficial fungal infection that precedes this rapidly spreading cellulitis. Anaerobic...
3
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Tinea pedis
Streptococcus pyogenes
Mixed anaerobic infection
Surgery
null
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True about endemic typhus
null
2
Man is the only reservoir of infection
Flea is a vector of disease
A rash developing into an eschar is characteristics of the disease
Culture is diagnostic
Microbiology
null
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35 years old woman with H/O recurrent PID presents in emergency with sudden onset of abdominal pain with fever. She had her regular period 5 days back. Physical examination reveals abdominal tenderness with guarding and rigidity. Per speculum finding shows diy vaginal discharge. Per vaginal examination shows adnexal te...
The history of a recurrent PID and a sudden deterioration points towards a ruptured T/O mass . Alone PID, will have pain and fever with Increased TLC, but not present with the above mentioned acute onset. Acute onset goes in the our of a ruptured abscess. Appendicitis and diveiculitis may have similar onset but the sys...
2
Ruptured ectopic
Ruptured tubo ovarian mass
Diveiculitis
Appendicitis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Genital Tract Infections (Too hot to handle!)
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Treatment of malignant ovarian tumours is :
Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo -oophorectomy
4
Total hysterectomy
Total salpingo - oophorectomy
Total hysterectomy with unilateral salpingo - oophrectomy
Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo -oophorectomy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Insensible daily water loss is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 800-1000 ml
2
500-600 ml
800-1000 ml
1000-1500 ml
2000 ml
Surgery
null
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The ratio of anaerobe to aerobes in stool is ? 9. The ratio of anaerobe to aerobes in stool is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1000:1
3
10:01
100:01:00
1000:01:00
10000:1
Microbiology
null
6a6c78bd-c77b-45ae-89f5-5a4fe670f2f3
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Which of the following produces bile stained eggs ?
null
2
Ankylostoma duodenale
Taenia solium
Enterobius vermicularis
Necator americanus
Microbiology
null
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Philthrum is derived from-
Ans. C. Medial nasal processFrontonasal process is divided into:-i) Lateral nasal processes:From alae of nose.ii) Medial nasal processes:These merge with each other to form intermaxillary segment which gives rise to : philtrum (middle pa of upper lip),premaxillary plate.
3
Maxillary process
Mandibular process
Medial nasal process
Lateral nasal process
ENT
null
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The venous plexus of uterus is related to which of the following border/ surface of uterus ?
Venous Drainage - The veins form a plexus along the lateral border of the uterus. The plexus drains through the uterine, ovarian and vaginal veins into the internal iliac veins. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition ,volume 2 , pg. no., 422.
3
anterior surface of uterus
posterior surface of uterus
lateral border of uterus
anterior surface of cervix
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
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Nerve supply of the tympanic membrane is by the
A i.e. Aurico-temporal nerve
1
Auriculotemporal
Lesser occipital
Greater occipital
Parasympathetic ganglion
Anatomy
null
cedc1ca3-8e0e-447b-9191-8f70137f6174
single
Cerebral blood flow in an asphyxiated child is best measured by –
null
1
NIRS
PET
Radionuclide imaging
MRI angiography
Radiology
null
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Prostaglandin used in the treatment of peptic ulcer is
Ans) b (Misoprosotol) Kef: KDT 6th ed p. 629Misoprostol is the prostaglandin analogue used in the treatment of peptic ulcer.DRUGS USED IN PEPTIC ULCER1) H2 antagonists-ranitidine, cimetidine, famotidine roxatidine and nizatidine.Nizatidine has little first-pass metabolism and a bioavailability of al-most 100%. Famotidi...
2
Carboprost
Misoprostol
Dinoprost
Latanoprost
Pharmacology
Prostaglandins
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Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine in:
Comparison of ergot derivatives and Oxytocin
1
Induction of labour
Prevention of PPH
Both
null
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Moro's reflex stas during intrauterine life. Persistence of Moro's reflex is abnormal beyond the age of:
The Moro reflex is present in normal infants. A sudden stimulus (eg, a loud noise) causes abduction and extension of all extremities, with extension and fanning of digits except for flexion of the index finger and thumb. This is followed by flexion and adduction of the extremities. Moro's reflex disappear at three mont...
1
3rd month
4th month
5th month
6th month
Pediatrics
null
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single
Undeaker's fracture is -
Undeaker's fracture is basically a postmoem fracture, and occurs due to careless handling of the dead body by undeakers; in fact this fracture can be produced by anyone who has to do anything with the dead body. * Pathologists are known to extend the head to make the removal of the neck structures easier. To do this, t...
4
C23
C34
C56
C67
Orthopaedics
Management in Orthopedics
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single
A former from the sub-Himalayan region presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely causative agent is
Sporotrichosis is a chronic infection involving cutaneous, subcutaneous and lymphatic tissue. It is caused by Sporothrix schenckii. Pathogenesis: 1. Lesions on the exposed pas of the skin follow minor trauma. Nodules are first formed, followed by ulceration and necrosis of nodules. 2. From the lesions in skin and subcu...
3
Trichophyton rubrum
Cladosporium species
Sporothrix Schenckii
Aspergillus
Microbiology
mycology
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single
Which of the following stapler is used for MIPH?
Ans. (b) Circular stapler cuttingRef: Sabiston's Textbook of surgery, 20th edition, Pages 1402-03* Longo procedure is the stapled hemorrhoidopexy procedure.* The other name is minimally invasive procedure for hemorrhoids (MIPH).* Circular stapler is used in this procedure
2
Linear cutting stapler
Circular cutting stapler
Linear stapler
Circular stapler
Surgery
Rectum
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single
Parasites transmitted by ingestion are the following EXCEPT
Ans. b (Ankylostoma duodenale) (Ref. Parasitology by Chatteijee 12th ed., 164)HOOKWORM# Ankylostoma duodenale# Portal of entry is skin# Adult worm lives in small intestine of man (the only definitive host)# Eggs float in saturated solution of common salt# Habitual Blood sucker# It causes -- Bronchitis and bronchopneumo...
2
Trichuris trichura
Ankylostoma duodenale
Trichinella spiralis
Dracunculus medinensis
Microbiology
Parasitology
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multi
Which of the following statements is true regarding Arbo-viruses?
Discussing options one by one: Option-1 - False - Yellow fever is not present in India. Option-2 - True - Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted by ticks. In india: hard tick. Outside India: soft ticks. Option-3 - Flase - Aedes aegypti mosquito is the vector of dengue fever; Culex is vector of JE. Option- 4 - False - D...
2
Yellow fever is endemic in India
Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted by ticks
Mosquito of culex visnoi complex is the vector of dengue fever
Dengue virus has only one serotype
Social & Preventive Medicine
VBDs, Arboviral & Viral Infections, Surface Infections
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multi
Wright's clinical classification of children's cooperative behaviour has categories
null
1
3
4
5
2
Dental
null
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single
Macrophages are conveed to epitheloid cells by which cytokine ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., IFN-y A granuloma is a focus of chronic inflammation consisting of a microscopic aggregation of macrophages that are transformed into epithelium like cells (epithelioid cells) surrounded by a Collor of mononuclear leukocytes, principally lymphocytes and occasionally plasma cells. Frequently, these epi...
2
IL-2
IFN-y
TNF-a
TGF-(3
Pathology
null
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single
Anterior spinal artery throbosis is characterized by-a) Loss of pain & touchb) Loss of vibration sensec) Loss of power in lower limbd) Sphincter dysfuction
null
1
acd
ad
bc
bde
Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following is vitamin B-complex disease
(Pellegra): (535 - Harper 29th edition & Tryptophan)* Pellegra - caused by Niacin deficiency* Com is low in both niacin and tryptophan, com based diets can cause pellegra(i) Symptoms 3Ds - dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia(ii) Pellegra is frequently observed in Hartnup's disease(iii) Megadoses of niacin are useful in the ...
2
Scurvy
Pellegra
Night blindness
Rickets
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
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single
Women with vitamin B12 deficiency presents with dysphagia and anemia. What is the syndrome mentioned in the presentation?
(a) Plummer-Vinson syndrome(Ref. Sleisenger Gastrointestinal & Liver Disease, 8th ed.,; 851)Triad of postcricoid dysphagia, oesophageal webs, and iron deficiency anemia constitutes Plummer Vinson syndrome. Due to iron deficiency there occurs atrophy of the gastric mucosa leading to achlorhydria.Intrinsic factor (IF) is...
1
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Eagle syndrome
Job's syndrome
Treacher Collin syndrome
ENT
Miscellaneous (E.N.T.)
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single
CAGE test is used for diagnosis of
CAGE Questionnaire The CAGE questionnaire basically consists of four questions: i. Have you ever had to Cut down on alcohol (amount)? ii. Have you ever been Annoyed by people's criticism of alcoholism? iii. Have you ever felt Guilty about drinking? iv. Have you ever needed an Eye-opener drink (early morning drink)? A s...
3
Opioid abuse
Schizophrenia
Alcoholism
Paranoid Psychosis
Psychiatry
Substance abuse
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single
Which of the following statement regarding cochlear implant is true:
Ans. A Cochlear malformation is not a CI to its useRef. Current Otolaryngology 3rd/ed p 8S6; Dhingra 5th/ed p 739-740ExplanationAs discussed earlier Cochlear implants are useful in B/l severe to profound hearing loss and not in mild-moderate hearing loss :. Option C is incorrect (Dhingra Sth/ed p 139), 6th/ed p 125)Coc...
1
Cochlear malformation is not a CI to its use
Contraindicated in children < 5 yrs of age
Indicated in mild-moderate hearing loss
Approached through oval window
ENT
null
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multi
After intracoronal bleaching immediate facial composite veneer is required, what should be done
Catalse neutralizes residual H2O2 that interfers with composite bonding and polymerization.
2
Rinse with 3 % hydrogen peroxide and ultrasonics
Treat with catalase for 3 mins
Cannot be done at least for 7 days
Rinse with triple distilled water
Dental
null
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single
Which of the following mosquitoes is involved in the spread of Japanese encephalitis ?
null
3
Aedes
Anopheles
Culex
Mansonoides
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Severe infection will increase if absolute neutrophil count will become?
Ans. (a) <500(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 582)Neutropenia is denoted as ANC (absolute neutrophil count)ANC=100(%neutrophils+%bands)x(WBC) Mild neutropenia (1000>=ANC<1500): minimal risk of infectionModerate neutropenia (500>=ANC<1000): moderate risk of infectionSevere neutropenia (ANC<500): severe risk of infection.Agranulocyt...
1
<500
Less than 800
Less than 1000
Less than 2000
Pathology
Inflammation & Repair
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single
Raised iron content is NOT found in which organ in Hemochromatosis -
In hemochromatosis, hypogonadism is caused by impairment of hypothalamic pituitary function and not due to deposition of Iron in the Testis. Hemochromatosis Hemochromatosis is characterized by the excessive accumulation of body iron, most of which is deposited in parenchymal organs such as liver and pancreas. The tota...
3
Heart
Skin
Testis
Pituitary
Pathology
null
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single
Sitting without suppo is appear at which month
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 6 month
2
5 month
6 month
7 month
8 month
Pediatrics
null
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single
In pregnancy which of the following antihypertensive drug is contraindicated?
Ans. is 'c* i.e., Ace inhibitorsSafe antihypertensive in pregnancyAntibypertensive avoided in pregnancyo Hydralazineo Methyldopao Labetalolo Dihvdropyridine calcium channel blockerso Cardioselective b-blockero Prazosino Clonidineo Diureticso ACE inhibitorso Nonselective b-blockerso Sodium nitroprussideo Reserpine
3
Hydralazine
Labetotlol
Ace inhibitors
Alpha methyldopa
Pharmacology
Pregnancy
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single
Manifestations of epidemic Dropsy are all except –
null
1
Gastrointestinal bleed
Cutaneous hemangiomas
Breathlessness
CHF
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Best latrine for rural community is
(B) Dug well # Advantages of Dug well type of latrine are:> It is easy to construct and no special equipment such as an auger is needed to dig the pit> The pit has a longer life than the bore hole because of greater cubic capacity. A pit 75 cm (30 in.) diameter and 3 to 3.5 m (10-12 ft.) deep will last for about 5 year...
2
Bore hole
Dug well
Water seal
septic tank
Social & Preventive Medicine
Miscellaneous
463f6db8-cdc5-48bd-8653-5b52562c2561
single
A 18-year-old man notices occasional lightheadedness when standing up quickly. He also has difficulty playing sports because of easy fatigue and SOB. Examination shows normal heart sounds, but a loud systolic ejection murmur at the right sternal border. The murmur decreases with elevating the legs and increases in the ...
The bisferiens pulse, two systolic peaks, occurs in HOCM and aortic regurgitation. In aortic regurgitation, the bisferiens pulse can occur both in the presence or absence of aortic stenosis.
4
pulsus tardus
pulsus paradoxus
hyperkinetic pulse
bisferiens pulse
Medicine
C.V.S.
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multi
Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this CT scan of the abdomen at the level of the upper lumbar vertebra. Which structure runs behind the IVC?
(c) The right renal artery arises from the aorta, is longer than the left renal artery, and runs behind the IVC and the right renal vein.
3
A
B
C
D
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
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single
Right side of mediastinum shadow is not formed by –
null
4
Superior venacava
Right innominates
Right atrium
Right ventricle
Radiology
null
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single
This 6-day-old infant's mother had developed intensely pruritic lesions at 33 weeks of gestation. What is the diagnosis?
Answer D. Herpes gestationisThe presence of multiple yellow plaques on erythematous bases sparing the orbital regions is consistent with a diagnosis of herpes gestationis, a rare autoimmune disorder of pregnancy that affects newborns in only 5 to 10 percent of cases. The more common dermatitis of pregnancy -- pruritic ...
4
Congenital syphilis
Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
Neonatal gonorrhea
Herpes gestationis
Medicine
Infection
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single
Patient with hepatic insufficiency is being planned for surgery. Which vitamin deficiency has to be treated first?
ANSWER: (C) Vitamin KREF: Harrison's 18th ed chapter 302Vitamin K deficiency in adults may be seen in patients with chronic small-intestinal disease (e.g., celiac disease, Crohn's disease), in those with obstructed biliary tracts, or after small-bowTel resection.Patients with liver disease may have an elevated prothrom...
3
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Vitamin E
Surgery
Gall Bladder & Bile Ducts
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single
True about iron absorption are all, except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pancreatic secretions improves the absorption Iron absorption Iron is absorbed from upper small intestine mainly duodenum. In diet iron occurs in two forms, haeme iron and inorganic (non-haeme) iron. Haem iron is better absorbed than inorganic iron, but the major fraction of diet is inorganic iron. In...
4
Major site of absorption is duodenum
Stored as Ferritin
Absorbed in ferrous form
Pancreatic secretions improves the absorption
Physiology
null
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multi
A 31 - year - old male, with mood disorder, on 30 mg of haloperidol and 100 mg of lithium, is brought to the hospital emergency room with history of acute onset of fever, excessive sweating, confusion, rigidity of limbs and decreased communication for a day. Examination reveals tachycardia and labile blood pressure and...
Antipsychotic drugs have Extrapyramidal symptoms- dur to D2 blockade in limbic system Extrapyramidal symptoms Clinical features Special DOC Malignant neuroleptic syndrome Fluctuating level of consciousness Hypehermia Muscles rigidity Increase level of CPK Increase level of liver enzyme Confusion Diaphoresis Most common...
3
Lithium toxicity
Tardive dyskinesia
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Hypeensive encephalopathy
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
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single
A man presents with mass at duoenojejunal flexor invading renal papilae. Histopathology reports it as lymphoma: true statement is -
null
3
II E stage
III E stage
IV E stage
Staging cannot be done until bone marrow examinatiion is performed
Medicine
null
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multi
Not seen in osteopetrosis -
Osteopetrosis also known as marble bone disease/Alber&;s-Schonberg disease which is transmitted as autosomal dominant or in severe case as autosomal recessive, is characterised by dense and brittle bones, anemia, jaw osteomyelitis and cranial nerve palsies. Disease is due to functional deficiency of osteoclast leading ...
4
Compression of cranial nerve
Osteomyelitis mandible
Pancytopenia
null
Orthopaedics
Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection
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multi
Henle's and Huxley's layer are histologically seen in
A i.e. Bulb of hair follicleBulb of hair follicle has following layers- Fibrous connective tissueExternal root sheathInternal root sheath composed of epithelium stratum (Henle's layer)Q and granular stratum (Huxley's layer)QCuticle, coex & medulla of hair
1
Bulb of hair follicle
Tongue
Salivary gland
Sweat gland
Anatomy
null
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multi
Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by -
Nontreponemal test (VDRL) detects mainly IgG, So cannot differentiate from passive maternal transfer Method to diagnose congenital syphilis is: A reactive IgM test specific for syphilis 19s IgM FTA-ABS, Captia syphilis M test (IgM ELISA) and Western blot
1
IgM FTA- ABS
IgG FTA-ABS
VDRL
TPI
Microbiology
null
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single
Earliest and often the only presentation of TB kidney is:
Clinical Features Earliest symptom is urinary frequency. Tuberculosis of genital tract should be considered in the presence of following situations Chronic cystitis that refuses to respond to adequate treatment Sterile pyuria, gross or microscopic hematuria. Non- tender enlarged epididymis with beaded or thickened vas....
1
Increased frequency
Pain
Hematuria
Renal calculi
Surgery
Kidney and ureter
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single
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria results from acquired mutations in
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a disease that results from acquired mutations in the phosphatidylinositol glycan complementation group A gene (PIGA), an enzyme that is essential for the synthesis of ceain membrane-associated complement regulatory proteins.PNH blood cells are deficient in three GPI-linked ...
4
PML-RARA
BCL-2
NOTCH1
PIGA
Pathology
General pathology
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single
Fear of being in places or situations from which escape might be difficulty embarrassing or which help may be unavailable in the event of having panic attack. This condition is called
(D) Agoraphobia # Social anxiety disorder is a chronic mental health condition that causes an irrational anxiety or fear of activities or situations in which you believe that others are watching you or judging you. You also fear that you'll embarrass or humiliate yourself. Zoophobia or animal phobia may have one of two...
4
Social Phobia
Zoophobia
Acrophobia
Agoraphobia
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
1f2b521f-4c86-492f-b5f5-a78289e18cce
multi
Bad trips are characteristically associated with the addiction of
Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) & Psilocybin (magic mushroom) are among the MOST COMMONLY used hallucinogens. Perceptual changes occur within 40 minutes of oral ingestion. Vision is affected most often; the subject experiences heightened visual awareness of objects, especially colours. Images may be distoed in shape o...
4
Cannabis
Cocaine
Morphine
LSD
Psychiatry
Substance Related and Addictive Disorders
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multi
ASOM to drain middle ear, incision is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Posteroinferior Myringotomyo Myringotomy is also known as myringocentesis, tympanostomy or tympanotomy. Myringotomy is a surgical procedure in which a small incision is made in the eardrum (tympanic membrane). Myringotomy is done to drain suppurative or nonsuppurative fluid (effusion) of middile ear o...
2
Anteroinferior
Posteroinferior
Anterosuperior
Posterosuperior
ENT
Ear
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single
RPGN caused by -a) FSGSb) Wegener's granulomatosisc) Good pasteur's syndromed) PANe) Microscopic polyangitis
null
4
bce
abd
abcd
bcde
Pathology
null
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single
One of the following drug causes least gain in weight
(B) Ziprasidone # Risperidone, a benzisoxazole derivative, is more potent at 5HT2 than D2 receptor sites, like clozapine, but it also exerts significant a2 antagonism, a property that may contribute to its perceived ability to improve mood and increase motor activity.> Risperidone is not as effective as clozapine in tr...
2
Quetiapine
Ziprasidone
Olanzapine
Risperidone
Medicine
Miscellaneous
d811341d-3a9c-42e4-91a0-b40a89a3b3d2
single
Most common cause of acute otitis media in children is:
3 pathogens predominate in Acute Otitis Media: Strepto pneumoniae, H. influenzae & Moraxella catarrhalis.
1
Strep pneumoniae
Strep pyogenes
Staph aureus
Pseudomonas
Pediatrics
Impoant Bacterial Diseases in Children
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single
A set of statements for monitoring progress towards goal completion is referred to as?
ANSWER: (C) ProgrammeREF: Park 20th edition page 771, 772Goals, Objective and Targets: (end results of planning) DefinitionAttainabilityConstraintsExampleGoalThe ultimate desired stateNotnecessarilyattainableNot constrained by time or resourcesControl, eliminate, or eradicate targeted Vaccine preventable diseases disab...
3
Targets
Objective
Programme
Procedure
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health Planning and Management
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multi
Tricyclic anti-depressants produce side-effects like dry mouth, urinary retention due to action on:
Ans. a. Muscarinic receptors (Ref: KDT 7/e p459, 6/e p442)Tricyclic anti-depressants produce side-effects like dry mouth, urinary retention due to action on Muscarinic receptors.'Tricyclic antidepressants have anticholinergic side-effects, acts on muscarininc receptors, manifested as dry mouth, bad taste, constipation,...
1
Muscarinic receptors
Nicotinic receptors
Adrenergic receptors
Serotonergic receptors
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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single
A 50 year old man with advanced tuberculosis has developed signs/of severe acute adrenal insufficiency. The patient should be treated immediately with a combination of:
(Ref: KDT 6/e p282) Patient should be given both mineralocoicoids as will as glucocoicoid. Max.mineralocoimid activity - Aldosterone Max. glucocoicoid activity - Dexamethasone
3
Aldosterone and fludrocoisone
Triamcinolone and dexamethasone
Coisol and fludrocoisone
Dexamethasone and metyrapone
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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single
A new born baby has been referred to the casualty as a case of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. The first clinical intervention is to -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Inse a nasogastric tube Management of congenital diaphragmatic hernia o Earlier congenital diaphragmatic hernia was considered to be a surgical emergency. It was believed that the mass effect of herniated viscera is the major factor in cardiorespiratory compromise. o Now it is recognized that major ca...
3
Inse a central venous pressure line.
Bag and mask ventilation
Inse a nasogastric tube
Ventilate with high frequency ventilator
Pediatrics
null
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single