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Epinephrine is most closely related in structure to:
null
2
Niacin
Tyrosine
Methionine
Glycerol
Physiology
null
ad8abc06-3628-4b4b-acd0-45ba1a82edb4
single
True about adrenocoical carcinoma:
ADRENOCOICAL CARCINOMARare tumor>50% are functional.Cushing's syndrome is most commonly seen, followed by virilization.Capsular or vascular invasion is the most reliable sign of cancer.
4
Rare tumor
More than half are functional
Most commonly associated with Cushing syndrome
All of the above
Surgery
Parathyroid and adrenal glands
432adb86-a032-48af-9ecd-8a9df69be63f
multi
Superior pulmonary sulcus carcinomas (Pancoast tumors) are bronchogenic carcinomas that typically produce which of the following clinical features?
Pancoast tumors are peripheral bronchogenic carcinomas that produce symptoms by involvement of extrapulmonary structures adjacent to the cupula. These structures include the nerve roots of C8 and T1, as well as the sympathetic trunk. Interruption of the cervical sympathetic trunk leads to miosis, ptosis, and anhidrosis...
2
Atelectasis of the involved apical segment
Horner syndrome
Pain in the T4 and T5 dermatomes
Nonproductive cough
Surgery
Heart & Pericardium
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multi
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of local anaesthetic?
preventing channel activation and inhibiting the Na influx associated with membrane depolarization. Local anesthetic binding to Na channels does not alter the resting membrane potential. With increasing local anesthetic concentrations, an increasing fraction of the Na channels in the membrane bind a local anesthetic mo...
1
Block Na+ channel
Block K+ channel
Open Na+ channel
Block Ca++ channel
Anaesthesia
null
207a668f-8dbc-4423-8e24-537720048cae
single
What is epoophoron?
Epoophoron also known as organ of rossenmullar is a vestigal remanat of the cranial end of the mesonephros or the wollfian body. It is situated above the ovary. Caudal end of the wollfian body gives rise to paraoophoron situated between the uterus and ovary. It can form paraovarian cyst. Ref: Testbook of gynaecology By...
2
Urogenital sinus
Remnants of the wollfian duct
Unfused poion of wollfian duct
Vestigeal structure of urogenital sinus
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
a3846fcd-cd50-4e38-b68a-632ac3db4df2
single
A 10-year old child with Valvular hea disease on hea failure treatment, has the following ECG tracing. What is the diagnosis?
Hea rate of the patient is 50bpm . ECG tracing shows normal sinus rhythm alternating with premature ventricular contraction. This is diagnostic of ventricular bigeminy which is the most common arrhythmia seen with digoxin toxicity.
2
Tall tented T wave
Ventricular bigeminy
Non paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with irregular AV block
Non paroxysmal atria tachycardia with regular AV block
Medicine
Hea Sounds
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multi
What is deposited in band keratopathy
Answer- B. CaPO4Band keratopathy is characterized by the deposition ofcalcium and phosphorus salts (especially hydroxyapatite) in a bandlike pattern in the anterior layers of the cornea. The keratopathy is usually limited to the interpalpebral area. Symptoms include irritation, injection, and blurring of vision.Chronic...
2
CaSO4
CaPO4
MgSO4
MgPO4
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Common pathological changes seen in kidney in benign hypeension are -
Ans is 'a' i.e., Hyaline AeriosclerosisBenign hypeension o In benign hypeension, the pathological change affecting the kidney is hyaline aeriosclerosis.o Hyaline aeriosclerosis is seen in patients who are hypeensive for an extended period of time (blood pressure, 150/90 mmhg) but whose hypeension has not progressed to ...
1
Fibronoid necrosis
Microaneurysm
Hyaline aeriosclerosis
Thining of walls
Pathology
null
664fed17-fd6a-4e54-a1fe-ed5cedc08c54
multi
GLUT 5 receptors present in
Major Glucose TranspoersTissue LocationFunctionsGLUT 1Brain, kidney, colon, placenta, erythrocytesGlucose uptakeGLUT 2Liver, pancreatic b cell, small intestine, kidneyRapid uptake or release of glucoseGLUT 3Brain, kidney, placentaGlucose uptakeGLUT 4Hea and skeletal muscle, adipose tissueInsulin-stimulated glucose upta...
3
Brain
Placenta
Small Intestine
Skeletal muscle
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
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multi
Which of the following is not an epigenetic change?
Epigenetics Study of heritable gene expression without change in the nucleotide sequences. Major epigenetic mechanisms: DNA methylation Histone modifications Alteration in Chromatin Structure microRNAs Point mutation Changes the nucleotide sequence. Does not come under the definition of epigenetic change.
4
Acetylation of histone
Methylation of DNA
Methylation of histone
Point mutation
Biochemistry
Mendalian Inheritance
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single
Morula cell stage has how many cells?
Ans. B. 8-16MORULA FORMATIONa. After the zygote formation, typical mitotic division of the nucleus occurs producing two blastomeres.b. The two cell stage is reached approximately 30 hours after fertilization. Each contains equal cytoplasmic volume and chromosome numbers.c. The blastomeres continue to divide by binary d...
2
8-Jan
16-Aug
24-32
>64
Anatomy
Embryology
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single
All are absolute contraindications for IUD except
null
4
UPT positive
Pelvic Inflammatory disease
Cancer uterus
Purulent cervical discharge
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
True about Pseudoclaudication is
Psedoclaudication Or Lumbar canal stenosis OPaicular dermatomal pain, associated with motor weakness, OIncreases in standing long duration and relieved by the change in positions like leaning forwards. OAlso, pain is less on walking uphill but increases on walking downhill.
3
Pain increases on walking uphill
Pain decreases on standing still
Leaning forward reduces pain
Pulses may be feeble or absent
Surgery
Vascular surgery
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multi
True statement about great saphenous vein
The great saphenous vein is formed on the dorsum of foot by the union of the medial end of dorsal venous arch of foot and medial marginal vein of the foot. It runs 2.5 cm in front of medial malleolus It drains into femoral vein after piercing femoral sheath. It is accompanied by the saphenous nerve Reference: Textbook ...
2
It begins at lateral end of dorsal venous arch
It runs anterior to medial malleolus
It is accompanied by sural nerve
Terminates into popliteal vein
Anatomy
Head and neck
440f929e-1bd3-4341-86de-7e3245f6e525
multi
Which of the following is NOT a TRUE statement about fibrous dysplasia?
The polyostotic form typically manifests in children < 10 years of age and may progress with age. Good to know: Fibrous dysplasia: It is characterized by the replacement of normal lamellar cancellous bone by an abnormal fibrous tissue that contain small, abnormally arranged trabeculae of immature woven bone. It may aff...
2
Characterised by replacement of normal lamellar bone by an abnormal fibrous tissue
The polyostotic form is common in adults
Thin coices
Ground-glass appearance
Surgery
null
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multi
A neonate weighing 1500 grams is delivered at 33 weeks. Which of the following would be most appropriate method of nutrition for the baby?
Low-bih-weight (LBW) infants, including those with very low bih weight (VLBW), should be fed mother&;s own milk.hence,through orogastric tube or directly baby fed In babies weighing <1 kg at bih, sta nutritional feeds at 15-20 mL/kg/day and increase by 15-20 mL/kg/day. If the feedsare tolerated for around 2-3 days, con...
2
IV fluids and oral feeding
Orogastric feeding/alternate oral feeding
Total parenteral nutrician
IV fluids and assessment / follow - up
Pediatrics
New born infants
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Commonest symptom of carcinoma bronchus is -
null
3
Hemoptysis
Dyspnoea
Cough
Wheezing
Surgery
null
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NOT seen in heat stroke: Kerala 06
Ans. Hypovolemic shock
1
Hypovolemic shock
Rhabdomyolysis
Pancreatitis
Cerebral edema
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Stocker's line is seen in
Ans is 'b' i.e. Pterygium Stocker's line is line of iron deposition in the corneal epithelium seen adjacent to the head of the pterygium.Pterygium and Pinguecula are degenerative conditions of the cornea.PingueculaAre areas of bulbar conjunctival thickening, near the limbus in the palpebral fissure area.These are trian...
2
Pinguencula
Pterygium
Congenital Ocular Melanosis
Conjunctival epithelial melanosis
Ophthalmology
Degenerative Conditions
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Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with -
Williams-Beuren syndrome is associated with supravalvar aoic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary aery stenosis in the majority of affected individuals. Among patients in whom surgery for supravalvar aoic stenosis is contemplated, stenosis of the branch pulmonary aeries is common Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 450
3
Subaoic stenosis
Takayasu's aeritis
William syndrome
Coarctation of syndrome
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
A female developed brown macule on the cheek, forehead and nose after exposure to light following delivery of a baby, the diagnosis is -
null
2
SLE
Chloasma
Photodermatitis
Acne rosacea
Medicine
null
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A 36-year female complaints of abdominal pain & constipation since 5 years. She has on & off rectal bleed when she tries to defecate forcefully. The most probable diagnosis is:
The findings are consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn's disease would typically have perianal fistulae while ulcerative colitis has periods of acute disease and quiescent periods: the acute periods are severe and may lead to significant impairement.
4
Ulcerative colitis
Crohn's disease
Tuberculous intestine
Irritable bowel syndrome
Surgery
null
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single
Vitamin B12 absorption occurs in
Vitamin B12 is absorbed bound to intrinsic factor, a small glycoprotein secreted by the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa. Gastric acid and pepsin release the vitamin from protein binding in food and make it available to bind to cobalophilin, a binding protein secreted in the saliva. In the duodenum, cobalophilin is...
1
Ileum
Jejunum
Duodenum
Colon
Biochemistry
vitamins
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single
Infectivity period of chickenpox is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash Period of communicability: Chicken pox: 1 - 2 days before to 4 - 5 days after appearance of rash Measles: 4 days before to 5 days after appearance of rash Rubella: 7 days before symptoms to 7 days after appearance of rash Mumps: 4 - 6 days before sympto...
1
1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash
4 days before and 5 day after appearance of rash
Only when scab falls
Entire incubation period
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
The muscle that aids in displacement of maxillary fractures are
null
4
Masseter
Temporalis
Orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris
None of the above
Surgery
null
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multi
Which of the following x-ray should be advised for age determination between 1-13 years of age?
Ans. B. Wrist. (Ref. Essential Paediatrics by Ghai 7th/pg. 4;Parikhys 6/e, pg 2.10; Reddy 28/e, pg 72)To determine the skeletal age:A Radiograph of SHOULDER is most helpful= in infants between 3-9 months.A A single film of HAND & WRIST = adequate in childern between 1-13 years.A Film of ELBOW & HIP = in children betwee...
2
Shoulder
Wrist
Elbow
Iliac bones
Pediatrics
Growth, Development, and Behavior
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single
A pt presented with pulsating varicose veins of the lower limb. Most probable diagnosis is -
Klippel- Trenaunay Syndrome: is characterized by Congenital AV fistulas Cutaneous hemangiomas Varicose veins Hyperophy of involved extremity The absence of deep venous system (so pathological superficial veins should not be removed without evidence of an intact deep system)
3
RHF
Tricuspid regurgitation
Klippel trenaunay syndrome
DVT
Surgery
Vascular surgery
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single
Dryness of mouth dilated pupil & delirium are symptoms of :
D i.e. Dhatura
4
Chronic lead poisoning
Opium addiction
Chronic arsenic poisoning
Dhatura poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
89275842-45a1-4b50-9805-506476417a97
single
A 12-year-old boy, after a camping trip near a wooded area in Northern California, is taken to the emergency room after complaining of a headache. He has an erythema migrans rash around what appears to be a tick bite. Which of the following is the antibiotic of choice for treating this patient?
Campylobacter difficile causes toxin-mediated pseudomembranous enterocolitis as well as antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis is normally seen during or after administration of antibiotics. One of the few agents effective against C. difficile is vancomycin. Alternatively, bacitracin can be used...
2
Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Microbiology
Bacteria
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single
Lacunar Reed Sternberg cell is found in which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Ref: Harsh Mohan, 7th ed. pg. 350Type of Hodgkin's lymphomaNodular sclerosisMost common type of Hodgkin lymphomaLacunar Reed-Sternberg cell variants in a mixed inflammatory background; broad sclerotic bands of collagen usually also presentCD15+, CD30+ Reed- Sternberg cellsMost common in young adults, often arises in th...
3
Mixed cellularity
Lymphocyte rich
Nodular sclerosis
Lymphocyte depleted
Pathology
Hemodynamics
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single
Support of uterus -
Ans. is 'd', i.e., all of the above ,The uterus is primarily supported by the pelvic diaphragm, perineal body and the urogenital diaphragm. Secondarily, it is supported by ligaments and the peritoneal ligament the broad ligament of uterus o All are Supports of uterus. A Primary Supports: o Muscular or active support of...
4
Urogenital diaphragm
Pubocervical ligament
Perineal body
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Aetiology
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multi
Floating tooth sign is seen in:
Floating tooth sign is seen with Histiocytosis x, because of erosion of bonyalveoli around the teeth.
4
Dentigerous cyst
Periapical cyst
Aphthous ulcers
Histiocytosis x
Surgery
null
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single
In radiobiology, the "latent period" represent the period of time between:
null
4
Cell rest and cell mitosis
The first and last dose in radiation therapy
Film exposure and image development
Radiation exposure and onset of symptoms
Radiology
null
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single
Wavelength of ND: Yag laser:
Ans. 1040 nm
1
1040 nm
1040 mm
1040 cm
1040 m
Ophthalmology
null
6d36ad93-f7e9-45ea-b94d-c93ba3e83e4e
single
What is the approximate size of miRNA molecules produced by Dicer nuclease?
MicroRNAs : Small (22 nucleotides long) Endogenous, Non-coding RNAs Involved in regulation of gene expression by post-transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS)/RNA interference. Dicer is an endonuclease that trims small double-stranded RNA and generates sho, double stranded (ds) miRNA molecules that can block translation. ...
2
11 bp
22 bp
56 bp
75 bp
Biochemistry
Techniques in molecular biology
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single
Haemodialysis is most effective in treating poisoning due to:
Haemodialysis is used for the treatment of following poisoning: Salicylates, Boric Acid, Glutathimide,Methanol, Barbitutates, Thiocyanates.
2
Amphetamine
Cocaine
Barbiturates
Opium
Surgery
null
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single
Lifespan of Cu-T 380A is: September 2011, March 2013
Ans. B: 10 years Copper-T 380A known as paraguard has a life span of 10 years Lifespan Progestase: 1 year Cu-T 200B: 4 years Nova T and LNG IUCD: 5 years Cu-T 380A: 10 years
2
5 years
10 years
15 years
20 years
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
eace862e-cca1-4ff0-829c-f583869ad90d
single
Myentric plexus is present in
Between the circular and longitudinal muscle layer lies the Auerbach plexus/ Myenteric plexus.
1
Muscularis externa
Submucosa
Mucosa
Serosa
Physiology
null
b647bcfd-0a82-4b4e-b87a-2d29fbce576a
single
Latency period in distraction osteosynthesis is defined as
null
1
Time period between surgical osteotomy and starting of distraction
Time period between starting of distraction to the completion of distraction
Time period for completion of distraction process
Time period between distraction and functional Loading of the area
Surgery
null
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single
Least likely to be Pre-leukemic condition is -
null
2
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
Aplastic anemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Pathology
null
1fb2b4bb-df4e-4d82-9dc6-a4e77758caad
single
Which of the following cardiac condition has highest maternal moality in pregnancy ?
Maternal moality associated with Eissenmenger's syndrome is 50%, and is also associated with high perinatal loss. In such cases, termination of pregnancy is indicated. Patients with Eisenmenger's syndrome have pulmonary hypeension with right to left shunt through an open ductus, ASD or VSD. Reference: Textbook of Obste...
4
MS
MR
MVP
Eisenmenger syndrome
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Protein efficiency ratio is
A. i.e. (Gain in weight / Protein consumed) (702- Rana Shinde 7th) (512 - U. satyanarayan 3rd)1. PROTEIN EFFICIENCY RATIO (PER) - consists of feeding weaning (21 days old) albino rats with a 10% test protein diet and recording the gain in body weight for a period of 4 weeks.Gain in weight of young animals per unit weig...
1
Gain in weight / protein consumed
Product of digestibility coefficient and biological value divided by 100
Percentage of nitrogen retained out of nitrogen absorbed
Percentage of protein absorbed after digestion
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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Kerley B lines' in the chest X-ray of a patient is a radiological feature of -
null
2
Respiratory failure
Heart failure
Renal failure
Liver failure
Medicine
null
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single
Virchow's triad for thrombosis include all except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Platelet thrombus Thrombosis o Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot (thrombus) inside a blood vessel or hea, obstructing the flow of blood through the circulatory system. Then what is the difference between formation of normal hemostatic plug and thrombosis ? o When a blood vessel is injured, t...
4
Stasis
Endothelial injury
Hypercoagulability
platelet thrombis
Pathology
null
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multi
Azygos vein
(Ascends through the aortic opening in the diaphragm) (213-BDC-l) (128-Snell 7th)AZYGOS VEIN - The origin of the azygos vein is variable. It is often formed by the union of the right ascending lumbar vein and the right subcostal vein. It ascends through the aortic opening in the diaphragm on the right side of the aorta...
4
Formed by arch of aorta
Opens into inferior vena cava
Arches the groove of the left lung
Ascends through the aortic opening in the diaphragm
Anatomy
Thorax
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The cold water treatment of burns has thedisadvantage that it increase the chances of ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Infection "The use of immersion hydrotherapy for wound management has substantatially decreased. A number of studies have shown that the infection rate is actually increased when patients are immersed in a tub because of the generalized inoculation of burn wounds with bacterial from what was previousl...
3
Pain
Exudation
Infection
None of the above
Surgery
null
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multi
Inferior turbinate is a:
The superior and middle turbinates are pas of ethmoid bone whereas inferior turbinate is an independent separate bone.
3
Pa of maxilla
Pa of sphenoid
Separate bone
Pa of ethmoid
ENT
Anatomy of Nasal Cavity
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single
Broncholithiasis is a feature of?
Cystic Fibrosis cause infections, recurrent pneumonia and bronchiectasis Parathyroid adenoma will cause calcification but not in the airway It causes nephrocalcinosis. Pulmonary lymphangio leiomyomatosis Hyperplasia of smooth muscle. Commonly seen in females Depends on estrogen Present with Pneumothorax, Pleural effusi...
2
Cystic fibrosis
Tuberculosis
Pulmonary lymphangioleiomyomatosis
Parathyroid adenoma
Medicine
Tuberculosis
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single
Cholangiocarcinoma histologically resembles ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Schirrhous type
2
Sq. cell type
Schirrhous type
Columnar cell type
All
Surgery
null
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multi
The most common malignancy found in Marjolin&;s ulcer is
Marjolin's Ulcer Low grade SCC, which develops on a chronic benign ulcer or a long standing scar tissue Arises from the edge of the ulcer. Marjolin's ulcer may develop in Post burn scar Long standing venous ulcer Chronic ulcer due to trauma. Chronically discharging osteomyelitis sinus Post - radiation ulcer Ref: schwaz...
2
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
Neutrophic malignant melanoma
Surgery
General surgery
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single
Best treatment for relieving pain during intrapartum period is:
Ans: B (Epidural anesthesia) Ref: Ajay Yadav Short Textbook of Anesthesia,1st edition, pg 123Explanation:Epidural (Extradural) anesthesiaThe epidural space is a potential space.It contains connective tissue, venous plexuses, and adipose tissue.It is found between the connective tissue covering the vertebrae and the lig...
2
Neuraxial block
Epidural anesthesisa
IV ketamine
General Anesthesia
Anaesthesia
Anaesthesia For Special Situations
269855f3-f41b-4001-9240-afae12ad2121
single
Water brash is a classic symptom of
Water brash is excessive salivation resulting from a vagal reflex triggered by acidification of the esophageal mucosa. This is not a common symptom. Afflicted individuals will describe the unpleasant sensation of the mouth rapidly filling with salty thin fluid, often in the setting of concomitant heaburn.When classic s...
3
Dyspepsia
Indigestion
GERD
Duodenal ulcer
Medicine
C.V.S
72c4cb55-180a-4935-8f37-e7a26e362695
single
Nutrient which is lost maximum in polished rice?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thiamine Effect of milling on rice The milling process deprives the rice grain of its valuable nutritive elements
2
Proteins
Thiamine
Ascorbic acid
Calcitriol
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
69b8e45d-98a6-4af5-bc7c-632d2dfc1d20
single
Which area is out of the blood brain barrier
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Area Postrema There are four areas which lie outside the blood brain barrier : these areArea postremaOrganum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT)Subfornical organ (SFO)The posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) and the adjacent ventral part of the median eminence of the hypothalamus.These areas ar...
4
Thalmus
Cerebral cortex
IV ventricle
Area postrema
Anatomy
Meninges & Blood Vessels of the Brain
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single
Which among the following is the Glucocoicoid receptor blocker?
Mifepristone is anti-progesterone as well as mild glucocoicoid blocker.Ketoconazole, Mitotane, and Trilostane inhibits the synthesis of glucocoicoidsRef: Goodman Gillman 12th ed.Pg: 1184
1
Mifepristone
Ketoconozole
Mitotane
Trilostane
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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single
Clinical criteria of brain death is all except
C i.e. Absent spinal cord reflex Brain Death It is defined as irreversible cessation of all brain function. Spinal cord function below C1 may still be presentQ. Brain death criteria can be applied only in absence of hypothermia, hypotension, drug depressing brain function, neuromuscular blocking agent, endocrinal & met...
3
Coma
Absent brain stem reflex
Absent spinal cord reflex
Absent motor activity
Anaesthesia
null
463e1dbf-256d-4d44-aa80-dfd3eb7e9f96
multi
Which of these drugs DOES NOT decrease angiotensin II activity:
Drugs that can decrease Angiotensin 2 activity- ACE inhibitors e.g. Enalapril Angiotensin receptor blocker e.g. Valsaan Combination of ACE inhibitor and NEP inhibitors e.g.Omapatrilat. Nesiritide- Recombinant BNP
3
Enalapril
Valsaan
Nesiritide
Omapatrilat
Pharmacology
CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction
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single
In a FAP patient which is an important CA risk
Ref: Robbins Pathology, 9th ed. pg. 809* Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant disorder in which patients develop numerous colorectal adenomas as teenagers.* Robbins states: "Colorectal adenocarcinoma develops in 100% of untreated FAP patients, often before age 30 and nearly always by age 50"* A...
3
Retinoblastoma
Brain tumor
Colorectal CA
Prostate CA
Pathology
Neoplasia
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Outer cell mass gives rise to
It consists of an inner cell mass that is completely surrounded by an outer layer of cells.the second.the cells of the outer layer will later give rise to a structure called trophoblast HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:50
2
Embryo proper
Trophoblast
Syncytiotrophoblast
null
Anatomy
General anatomy
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A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 35 weeks' gestation has a past medical history significant for hypertension. She was well-controlled on hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril as an outpatient, but these drugs were discontinued when she found out that she was pregnant. Her blood pressure has been relatively well controlled in t...
In the question patient has past history of hypertension which was controlled on diuretics and ACE inhibitors prior to pregnancy.Till date her B/P was normal, she was not using any antihypertensive and now all of a sudden her BP is 142/84 mm of hg and proteinuria is 0.35 g all this suggests a possibility of superimpose...
4
Start iv furosemide
Induce labor after doing Bischop score
Put her on hydralazine
Initial inpatient evaluation followed by restricted activity and outpatient management.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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The combination of rest pain, colour changes, oedema and hyperaesthesia
null
2
Gangrene
Pregangrene
Necrosis
Vasculitis
Pathology
null
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Rosette shaped cataract in
Ans. C: Traumatic cataract Rosette Cataract: This opacity may occur as a result of concussion injury, under the anterior or posterior coex or both and may be complete or sectored with a flower peddle or feather shape. A very close estimation as to when the injury occurred by viewing the lens with an optic section and d...
3
Senile cataract
Diabetic cataract
Traumatic cataract
After cataract
Ophthalmology
null
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Point source epidemic is:
Ans. (b) Sharp rise and sharp fall in number of casesRef: K. Park 23rd ed. / 64, 93Types of Epidemics* Point source or single exposure epidemics# Sharp rise and sharp fall in number of cases# Clustering of cases in narrow spectrum of time# All cases develop within one incubation period of disease.# Ex: Food poisoning, ...
2
Gradual rise and gradual fall in number of cases
Sharp rise and sharp fall in number of cases
Sharp rise and fall is interrupted by secondary waves
Gradual rise and fall is interrupted by secondary waves
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiological Study
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Epithelium of ureter develops from
Epithelium of ureter developed from Mesonephric duct as the ureteric bud. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289
1
Mesonephros
Metanephros
Pronephros
Paramesonephric duct
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Howell-jolly bodies are seen in: September 2005
Ans. C: Both of the above Howell-Jolly bodies are histopathological findings of basophilic nuclear remnants (clusters of DNA) in circulating erythrocytes. During maturation in the bone marrow erythrocytes normally expel their nuclei, but in some cases a small poion of DNA remains Howell-Jolly bodies are present in some...
3
Sickle cell anemia
Splenectomy
Both of the above
None of the above
Pathology
null
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The advantage of this type of pancreatic drainage in pancreas transplant is:
Ans. (d) Physiological drainage* The image shows Enteric drainage of pancreas.* This is more physiological and there are less urinary complications.* Disadvantage is difficulty in measuring amylase level which is easy in bladder drainage.
4
Easy measure of amylase
Fast diagnosis of rejection
Less amount of leak
Physiological drainage
Surgery
Transplantation
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Not used for intravascular volume maintainence is
Answer- C. ErythropoetinErytheropoetin InjectionsErythropoietins available for use as therapeutic agents are produced by recombinant DNA technology in cell culture, They are used in treating anemia resulting from chronic kidney disease, chemotherapy induced anemia in patients with cancer, inflammatory bowel disease (Cr...
3
Hydroxy ethyl starch
Dextran
Erythropoetin
Gelatin
Surgery
null
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reinforcrmrnt theory in management of behavioral issues was given by
Behavioral therapy is learning given by BF Skinner , according to him all behaviors are learned phenomenon and thus can be unlearned Positive reinforcement a type of reinforcement when a behavior is rewarded there is more chance that the behavior is repeated Negative reinforcement is that when a behavior is done and an...
2
lorenz
skinner
seligman
mary ainswoh
Psychiatry
Treatment in psychiatry
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Which of the following agents is used for day care surgery?
Propofol produces quick induction(30 sec) and rapid recovery(4 min)from a single dose. Because of rapid recovery it is preferred for day cases. Thiopentone duration of action is 4-7min. And ketamine10-15min but amnesia lasts for 1-2 hours. From padmaja 4th edition Page no 194, 195, 196
1
Propofol
Thiopentone
Diazepam
Ketamine
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
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Shorest acting beta blocker ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Esmolol Nodalol is longest acting b-blocker. Esmolol is shoest acting b-blocker. Acebutolol possesses all activities i.e., cardioselectivity, paial agonist activity, membrane stablizing activity and lipid insolubility.
1
Esmolol
Nodalol
Acebutolol
Sotalol
Pharmacology
null
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All of the following are STD except:
Leprosy is not sexually transmitted.
4
Herpes
Scabies
Candida
Leprosy
Pathology
null
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multi
Functions of basal ganglia
B i.e. Skilled movement
2
Gross motor
Skilled movements
Emotions
Maintenance of equilibrium
Physiology
null
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Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycosis?
(a) Aspergillus species(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 732)The most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycosis is Aspergillus fumigatus.
1
Aspergillus species
Histoplasma
Conidiobolus coronatus
Candida albicans
ENT
Paranasal Sinuses
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An 18-year-old woman presents for follow-up of an abnormal Pap smear that revealed an abnormality suggestive of HPV infection. Which of the following was the likely cytopathologic finding?
Koilocytes are indicative of HPV-infected epithelial cells. Viral infection causes intracytoplasmic vacuolation that is apparent in cytopathologic and histopathologic preparations. Donovan bodies represent macrophages stuffed with numerous C.(Donovania) granulomatis organisms. Clear cells are characteristic of clear ce...
2
Donovan bodies
Koilocytes
Clear cells
Fibroids
Pathology
Female genital Tract
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All are a mechanism of defence except -
Defence mechanism Narcissistic (Psychotic) :- Denial, disortion, projection. Immature:- Blocking, introjection, passive-aggressive behavior, acting out, hypochondriasis, regression, schizoid fantasy, somatization. Neurotic :- Controlling, Displacement, inhibition, externalization, intellectualization, isolation, rati...
2
Repression
Transference
Projection
Anticipation
Psychiatry
null
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Advantage of case control over coho study
Case-control study yields only estimate of relative risk Coho study yields incidence rates, relative risks as well as attributable risk (refer pgno:79 park 23 rd edition)
2
Attributable risk can be calculated
Odds ratio can be calculated
For rare disease
Bias is minimum
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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Puerperal sepsis/infection occurs up to?
Ans- B 2 week PUERPERAL SEPSIS DEFINITION Puerperal sepsis is any bacterial infection of the genital tract which occurs after the birth of a baby. It is usually more than 24 hours after delivery before the symptoms and signs appear. Some of the most common bacteria are: streptococci staphylococci escherichia coli (E.co...
2
1 week
2 week
3 week
4 week
Unknown
null
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A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of the lower limb with difficulty in micturition. CT scan shows an intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The likely diagnosis is:
Meningiomas are most common primary intracranial tumors which arise from the duramater and more precisely from the arachnoid cells. They are dural based tumors most commonly found adjacent to the venous sinuses and dural infoldings. They are characteristically slightly hyperdense and enhance on contrast administration....
1
Meningioma
Intradermal Lipoma
Neuroepithelial Cyst
Dermoid Cyst
Radiology
null
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True about prions:
null
1
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective.
Microbiology
null
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Primary Health Care includes all, except?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Treatment by doctor Primary heath care o "Primary health care is essential health care made universally accessible to individuals and acceptable to them, through their full paicipation and at a cost the community and country can afford." o There are 4 main principles of primary health care : 1. Equita...
1
Treatment is done by a doctor
Equitable distribution
Intersectoral coordination
appropriate technology
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Treatment of middle ear malignancy includes - a) Excision of petrous part of temporal bone b) Subcortical excision c) Modified radical mastoidectomy d) None
Most common malignant tumor of middle ear and mastoid is squamous cell carcinoma. Clinical Features It affects age group 40–60 years Slightly more common in females Most important predisposing cause is long standing CSOM Patient may present with chronic foul smelling blood stained discharge Pain is severe and comes at...
3
abc
bc
ac
bcd
ENT
null
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multi
Most sensitive investigation of pancreatic carcinoma is –
Investigation of choice for pancreatic carcinoma → CT scan (CECT) Most sensitive test for pancreatic carcinoma      → Endoscopic ultrasound.
3
Angiography
ERCP
Ultrasound
CT scan
Radiology
null
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Microscopy of corneal ulcer showed branching septate hyphae. The probable diagnosis -
Filamentous fungi eg.Aspergillus,fusarium,Alternaria,Cephalosporium,Curvularia and Pencillium are septate multicellular fungi.Mucor and rhizopus are non-septate fungi.Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,6th edition,page no.106
3
Candida
Mucor mycosis
Aspergillus
Histoplasma
Ophthalmology
Cornea and sclera
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Quaternary structure of protein is:
Ans. D. The inter relation and arrangement of a polypeptides in the protein with more than 2 polypeptides chains)a. Protein that contain two or more polypeptide chains associated by non-covalent forces are said tob. exhibit quaternary structure.c. The arrangement sequence of amino-acids in the polypeptide chain -- is p...
4
The arrangement sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain
Inter relation between amino acids in a single polypeptide chain
Inter relation of amino acid in 2 polypeptide chains
The inter relation and arrangement of polypeptides in a protein with more than 2 polypeptides chains
Biochemistry
Secondary, Tertiary and Quaternary Structure of Proteins
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Which is false about Wuchereria bancrofti ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Man and anopheles are host . Man is the definitive host and culex quinquefosciatus (C. fatigons) is the intermediate host (not Anopheles). . W. bancrofti has long and slender body. . Its microfilaria has tail tip free from nuclei (terminal nuclei absent). . It causes lymphatic filariasis.
4
Causes filariasis
Body is long and slender
Terminal nuclei absent
Man and anopheles are host
Microbiology
null
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multi
Which of the following is preferred for cutting ductile materials such as dentin?
Burs are generally preferred for cutting ductile materials such as dentin, whereas Diamonds are most efficient when used to cut brittle materials and are superior to burs for the removal of dental enamel. Dental stones, especially diamonds, have the highest efficiency in removing enamel (brittle material), whereas carb...
2
Diamond burs
Carbide burs
Hand instruments
All of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Multifactorial inheritance is known in ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cardiac septal defects
3
Neurofibroma
Haemophilia
Cardiac septal defects
Hypophosphataemic rickets
Pathology
null
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single
C-3 nephritic factor is associated with which of the following conditions?
Dense-Deposit Disease (type II MPGN) Resulting in excessive activation of the alternative complement pathway. Normally, this C3 convease is labile, but more than 70% of patients with dense-deposit disease have a circulating autoantibody termed C3 nephritic factor (C3NeF) that binds the alternative pathway C3 convease a...
2
MPGN Type 1
MPGN Type 2
Membranous nephropathy
Minimal change disease
Pathology
Membranous Glomerulopathy and Membranoproliferative Glomerulopathy
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Autosomal recessive diseases are except
Hereditary spherocytosis is an autosomal dominant disorder Refer Robbin's 7th/151,8th/151-2,9/e p141
1
Hereditary spherocytosis
Thalasemia
Sickle cell anemia
Cystic fibrosis
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
What is Ranne complex?
The central part of the TB lesion contains caseous, soft, and cheesy necrotic material (caseous necrosis). This necrotic material may undergo calcification at a later stage called Ranne complex, in the lung parenchyma and hilar lymph nodes in few cases. Key concept: Necrotic material undergoing calcification which is se...
1
Necrotic material undergoing calcification
The stage is seen in the formation of granuloma
Central necrosis surrounded by lymphocytes
All of the above
Pathology
null
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Consider the following :1. Cholesterosis 2. Adenomyomatosis 3.Polyposis 4.Cholelithiasis. To which of the above does cholecystoses refer to:
null
1
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4
1 and 3 only
Surgery
null
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Principle of Radiotherapy is:
Ans: C (DNA damage) Ref: General Principles of Radiation Therapy by Gary J Schreiber, Medscape and Perez and Brady's Principles and Practice of Radiation Oncology, Edited by Edward C. Halperin, 5 Ed, pg 10Explanation:" The exact mechanism of cell death due to radiation is still an area of active investigation. A large ...
3
Necrosis of cells
Coagulation of proteins
DNA damage
Ionization of tissues
Radiology
Physics of Radiotherapy
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The rate of bone mineralization is identical to the rate of osteoid production. The rate of newly synthesized osteoid is best estimated by:
Pulse labeling with tetracycline allows detection of rate of formation of osteoid.Two discrete tetracycline lines in tissue section separated in space can reflect the formation of bone that occurred between two oral administrations of tetracycline.The distance between the two labels can be measured and constitute the q...
2
Plain X-ray
Tetracycline labeling
Alizarin red stain
Von kossa for calcium
Pathology
null
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single
The following is not true of syphilis -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., VDRL is negative in secondary syphilis
3
TPI is most specific
VDRL is not specific
VDRL is negative in secondary syphilis
IgM test is specific for congenital syphilis
Microbiology
null
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multi
A 5 year old male patient presents with a complaint of multiple decayed teeth. His previous dental treatment was deferred because of uncooperative behavior. Which of the following drugs cannot be used for the pharmacological management of the patient’s behavior?
Chloral Hydrate is an aldehyde compound that is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase in the liver to its active metabolite, trichloro ethanol. In vitro studies have suggested that trichloroethanol acts upon GABA receptors in a manner similar to barbiturates and benzodiazepines. It is a chemical irritant to the skin and...
2
Midazolam
Chloral hydrate
Fentanyl
Naloxone
Dental
null
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Most important mediator of chemotaxis is:
Role of different mediators in Inflammation
2
C3b
C5a
C5-7
C2
Pathology
null
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single
Absolute C/I of MRI is – a) Pacemakerb) Pregnancy at 1st trimesterc) Aneurysmal clipd) Phobia
Cardiac pacemakers and ferromagnetic hemostatic clips in CNS (aneurysmal clip) are absolute contraindications for MRI.
2
a
ac
ad
b
Radiology
null
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The first human protein produced by rDNA technology:
The first human protein produced by rDNA technology is Insulin. Production of recombinant Insulin: NOTE: Gene coding for insulin is localized on 11p15 site of chromosome.
1
Insulin
Growth hormone
Albumin
Casein
Biochemistry
Techniques in molecular biology
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single
Of the following which is the best projection to study the fracture of zygomatic arch:
null
3
Lateral oblique view
PA Caldwell view
Submentovertex view
Lateral cephalometric view
Radiology
null
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single
Delta waves on EEG is seen in: March 2013 (e)
Ans. B i.e. Fully relaxed deep sleep
2
Awake state with eyes open
Fully relaxed deep sleep
Awake state with eyes closed
Transition from awakefulness to sleep
Psychiatry
null
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