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A thirty year man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of 5 days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubin of 6.7 mg/dl (conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT/SGPT (AST/ALT) of 1230/ 900 IU/ml. The serological tests showed presence of HBsAg, IgM anti HBc and HBe Ag. The most likely diagnosis -
null
2
Chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
Chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
Microbiology
null
80743579-7b0b-4df2-a10a-04e4f2311aa7
single
In computed tomography (CT), the attenuation values are measured in Hounsfield units (HU). An attenuation value of '0' (zero) HU corresponds to:
Ans. Water
1
Water
Air
Very dense bone structures
Fat
Radiology
null
320ab1f4-4aa3-4da3-b174-c7c89e6d6230
single
SSRI is first line treatment for :
Ans:D.)All Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are US-FDA approved drugs of first choice (line) for major Depression, Obscessive - compulsive disorder (OCD), Premenstrual dysphoric disorder, Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), Panic disorder, Eating disorder (bulimia nervosa), and Social phobia (social anxiety disorder)Q. Mn-SSRI for "DOPES" is 1st choice. SSRIs are also used in generalized anxiety disorder, treatment of premature ejaculation (paroxetiene is most useful), body dysmorphic disorders, compulsive buying, & kleptomania. Psychotherapy (group, suppoive) remains the treatment of choice for adjustment disordersQ. And medications are used only to treat specific symptoms for brief periods. Patients with severe anxiety bordering on panic can benefit from anxiolytics (diazepam); those in withdrawn or inhibited states may benefit from sho course of psychostimulant drugs; those with signs of decompensation or impending psychosis may be helped by antipsychotic drugs; whereas, SSRIs are useful in treating symptoms of traumatic grief. There is recent trend of increased antidepressant use, however, to augment psychotherupy in adjustment disorder rather than serving as the primary modality. All SSRIs (except fluvoxamine) are US-FDA approved for treatment of major depression. Fluvoxemine is only used for treatment of OCD in US (b/o commercial reasons not d/t therapeutic profile as it is used for major depression in other countries). In US, citalopram is used only in major depression; escitalopram in major depression & GAD; paroxetine is only not used in bulimia nervosa; and setraline is not used in bulimia & GAD. Fluoxetine is not used in GAD, PTSD and social anxiety but is approved for treatment of bipolar depression (with olanzapine).
4
OCD
Panic disorder
Social phobia
All
Psychiatry
null
1fb4d597-8906-45b2-89e9-f586da6fae63
multi
Mees lines are characteristic of which poisoning?
Mes line(Aldrich mees line) are very charactristic of Arsenic poisoning.They are white bands of opacity in the nails of fingers and toes.
2
Phosphorus
Arsenic
Lead
Thalliam
Forensic Medicine
null
392f4faa-d522-4586-b288-0a5d691f04b9
multi
Glutamic acid is formed from which of the following amino acid?
Glutamic acid is formed by the transamination of alanine and vice versa. Alanine aminotransferase is the enzyme and pyridoxal phosphate is the coenzyme.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 201, fig.15.8.
3
Threonine
Proline
Alanine
Lysine
Biochemistry
Metabolism of protein and amino acid
a67a0110-ea4a-49a7-b0f2-8deba91f86ab
single
Which disease comes under International Surveillance?
Diseases under WHO surveillance Polio Rabies Relapsing fever Influenza Salmonellosis Malaria Louse born typhus Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition
2
Typhoid fever
Salmonellosis
Chikungunya fever
Hepatitis B
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
d182c30f-06a5-4d0a-9f0b-a1b5e0254767
single
Coenzyme used in Kreb's cycle ?
Niacin is used as coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD') for transfer of hydrogen.
1
NAD
NADP
NADPH
NADH
Biochemistry
null
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single
Apolipoprotein activating L-CAT (LQ) is
A-1 is the integral apoprotein of HDL.LCAT binds to discoidal HDL activated by A1 conves discoidal HDL to HDL 3Harpers Biochemistry; 30th edition
2
B - 48
A - I
A - II
B-100
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
52cd5175-0cc3-4176-8f64-90ef08fefd33
single
B-type tympanogram is seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Serous otitis media Type of curseConditionA curve (Normal peak height and pressure)NormalEustachian tube obstructionAs curve (It is also a variant of normal tympanogram but may be shallow)OtosclerosisTumors of middle earFixed malleus syndromeTy mpanosclerosi sAd curve(Variant of normal with high peak)Ossicular discontinuityPost stapedectomyMonometric ear drumB curve(Flat or dome shaped curve)Indicating lack of complianceFluid in middle earSecretory otitis mediaTympanic membrane perforationGrommet in earC curve (negative peak pressure)Retracted tympanic membraneFaulty function of eustachian tube,' eustachian tube obstruction
1
Serous otitis media
Ossicular discontinuity
Otosclerosis
All of the above
ENT
Ear
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multi
In adults, circulatory collapse occurs after a minimum of what percentage burns of total body surface area: NIMHANS 08; TN 11
Ans. 15%
3
5%
10%
15%
20%
Forensic Medicine
null
42b701a2-2fba-46bf-ba6e-428f68796c70
single
What passes through diaphragm at T12 level ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thoracic duct
3
Esophagus
IVC
Thoracic duct
Phrenic nerve
Anatomy
null
a9ddd372-4af2-4aff-b9c2-50d296a6d368
single
Beri-Beri is caused by -
- beri beri is due to the deficiency of thiamine. - it has 3 main forms. Dry form characterised by nerve involvement. Wet firm characterised by hea involvement and infantile beri beri. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:618 <\p>
1
Thiamine
Folic acid
Riboflavin
Niacin
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
72f55aa7-5242-4823-80dd-078c86964a1e
single
A 58 year old male presents with hematuria. He s diagnosed of having bladder cancer which extends muscle deep. The best treatment is
Answer- B. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radical cystectomy
2
Intravesical Chemotherapy
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radical cystectomy
Radiotherapy
Tranurethral resection
Surgery
null
bdc6cc31-cae1-4f47-9e81-d15797979283
single
The condition in which patient present with normal leucocyte count or less than normal and shows WBC in the peripheral blood:
null
1
Aleukemic Leukemia
Subleukemic leukemia
Acute leukemia
Chronic leukemia
Medicine
null
b769362b-ea8c-4d85-87ff-a24724277a31
single
The most common cause of a pleural effusion is
The most common cause of pleural effusion is left ventricular failure. Pleural effusions occur in hea failure when there are increased hydrostatic forces increasing the pulmonary interstitial fluid and the lymphatic drainage is inadequate to remove the fluid.Right-sided effusions are more common than left-sided effusions in hea failure. Thoracentesis would show a transudative fluid.Pneumonia can be associated with a parapneumonic effusion or empyema. Parapneumonic effusions are the most common cause of exudative pleural effusions and are second only to hea failure as a cause of pleural effusions.Empyema refers to a grossly purulent pleural effusion. Malignancy is the second most common cause of the exudative pleural effusion. Breast and lung cancers and lymphoma cause 75% of all malignant pleural effusions.On thoracentesis, the effusion is exudative. Cirrhosis and pulmonary embolus are far less common causes of pleural effusions.
2
Cirrhosis
Left ventricular failure
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
Microbiology
All India exam
106d53c8-ff8d-4e36-8ddd-b945d34f3de4
single
M/c cause of chronic laryngeal stenosis ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trauma Laryngeal stenosis (LS) is a congenital or acquired narrowing of the larynx causing airway compromise. The acquired causes may be due to endotracheal intubation, trauma, burns, inflammation, neoplasms, autoimmune disorders and collagen vascular disease.
1
Trauma
TB
Wegeners
Tumor
ENT
null
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single
Child knows his/her sex at the age of:
A child knows her full name and gender by the age of 3 years.
2
1 year
3 years
5 years
7 years
Pediatrics
Social and Language Milestones
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single
Early stage of trauma is characterized by
Injury Phase (Phase of catabolism):-- Begins at the time of injury and lasts for 2-5 days-- Phase of hypermetabolism-- Stress hormones (coisol, catecholamines and glucagon) and volume control hormones (renin-angiotensin, aldosterone and ADH) are increased. This leads to proteolysis, lipolysis, hyperglycemia and wound healing despite of negative nitrogen balance.* Turning Point:-- Transient period marked physiologically by turning off of the neuroendocrine response and clinically by the appearance of getting well. * Early Anabolic Phase:-- Marked by gain in muscular strength or positive nitrogen balance.* Late Anabolic Phase:-- Marked by gain in weight and body fat or positive caloric balance
1
Catabolism
Anabolism
Glycogenesis
Lipolysis
Surgery
Trauma
4ee59051-7c07-46df-ab93-49ca6d608e76
single
Example for Denticulate suture
Types of sutures:Plane: Internasal sutureSerrate: Coronal sutureDenticulate: Lambdoid sutureSquamous: Parieto-Temporal sutureReference: Chourasia; 6th Edition; 4th page
3
Internasal suture
Coronal suture
Lambdoid suture
Parietotemporal suture
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
A 29-year-old female diagnosed with AIDS has been suffering from a progressive blurring of vision in her right eye. On funduscopic examination, a small white opaque lesion is noted on the retina of her right eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
This patient is most likely suffering from cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. The best drug treatment for this infection is ganciclovir. Acyclovir is not effective in CMV infections. It is used more for HSV type 1 and 2 infections. Amantadine is used either therapeutically or prophylactically for the influenza A virus. Flucytosine is an antifungal agent. Ref: Safrin S. (2012). Chapter 49. Antiviral Agents. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e.
4
Acyclovir
Amantadine
Flucytosine
Ganciclovir
Microbiology
null
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multi
Denominator of MMR if MMR is expressed as 167 is:-
Ans. is 'a' i.e. 1000 live births It's a ratio: Denominator is Per 100000 live births. It will be rate : if the denominator is reproductive women. But still some books write it as rate. But in Park it's clearly differentiated. The data we express MMR as 167 is a ratio.
1
Per 100000 live births
Per 1000 total birth
Per 10000 total birth
Total number of women of reproductive age group in the population
Social & Preventive Medicine
Obstetrics
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single
Kamli Rath 75 yrs old woman present with post-myocardial infarction after 6 weeks with mild CHF. There was past H/O neck surgery for parathyroid adenoma 5 years ago, EKG shows slow atrial fibrillation. Serum Ca+2 13.0 mg/L and urinary Ca2+ is 300 mg/ 24 hr. On examination, there is small mass in the Para tracheal position behind the right clavicle. Appropriate management at this time is -
This patient operated previously for parathyroid adenoma, is having recurrent hyperparathyroidism. In the setting of recent myocardial infarction, CHF and atrial fibrillation, any operation carries a high risk. Furthermore, an operation on a previously operated neck is quite difficult. Alcohol ablation of the mass with ultrasound guidance or angiographic embolization is preferred in this setting.
4
Repeat neck surgery
Treatment with technetium - 99
Observation and repeat serum Ca+2 in two months
Ultrasound-guided alcohol injection of the mass
Surgery
null
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multi
Polyariticular rheumatoid ahritis is diagnosed when more than............. Joints are involved
The initial pattern of disturbution of joint involvement may be monoaicular,oligoaicular(less than 4 joints),or Polyariticular (,greater than 5 joints ) usually on a symmetric distribution Ref, :Robbins page no 1209 8th edition
4
One
Two
Four
Five
Anatomy
Musculoskeletal system
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single
A 56-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer that was treated 5 years ago with lumpectomy and radiation but with no chemotherapy returns with bone pain, fatigue, and weakness. A complete blood count reveals severe anemia, as well as decreased white blood cells and platelets. Examination of a peripheral blood smear reveals small numbers of nucleated red cells, as well as an occasional "blast" cell and myelocyte. A likely cause of the hematologic abnormalities is
- Infiltration of tumor cells from cancers, those of breast & prostate - displaces bone marrow elements, thereby causing myelophthisic anemia. OTHER OPTIONS: - Chloramphenicol causes aplastic anemia in some individuals. - Diphyllobothrium latum infestation can result in megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency.
4
chloramphenicol.
Diphyllobothrium latum infestation.
megaloblastic anemia.
myelophthisic anemia.
Pathology
Hematopoeisis: Basic concepts
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multi
Which is the first permanent tooth to erupt ?
First and the last tooth to erupt in permanent dentition is Molars.
2
Canine
Molar
Incisors
Premolar
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
The limit of loudness (expressed as decibels) that workers can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing, during their work hours, is:
A noise of 90 dB (A) SPL, 8 hours a day for 5 days per week is the maximum safe limit as recommended by Ministry of Labour, Govt. of India-Model rules under Factories act Noise induced hearing loss Hearing loss can result from damage to structures or nerve fibers in the inner ear that respond to sound. This type of hearing loss, termed "noise-induced hearing loss," is usually caused by exposure to excessively loud sounds and cannot be medically or surgically corrected. Noise-induced hearing loss can result from a one-time exposure to a very loud sound (at or above 120 decibels), blast, impulse, or by listening to loud sounds (at or above 85 decibels) over an extended period. The louder the sound, the shoer the time period before hearing damage occurs.
4
55
65
75
85
ENT
null
479cc91e-7fda-48cc-a5f0-8607756a620a
single
Among the following the least common cause of acute upper GI bleeding is?
Source of bleeding Propoion of patients, % Ulcers 31-67 Varices 6-39 Mallory Weiss tears 2-8 Gastroduodenal erosions 2-18 Erosive esophagitis 1-13 Neoplasm 2-8 Vascular ectasia 0-6 No source identified 5-15
4
Mallory Weiss tear
Ulcer
Varices
Vascular ectasia
Medicine
Bleeding from the GUT and diseases of esophagus
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multi
HHV-6B causes -
HHV 6B is the cause of mild but common childhood illness exanthem subitum. In older age groups ,it has been associated with infectious mononucleosis syndrome,focal encephalitis and in the immunodeficient,with pneumonia and disseminated disease. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 8TH EDITION PAGE NO:477
4
Carcinoma cervix
Carcinoma endometrium
Clear cell carcinoma
Focal encephalitis
Microbiology
Virology
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single
Anatomical structure injured in excision of ranula -
null
3
Lingual vein
Lingual artery
Submandibular duct
Parotid duct
Surgery
null
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single
Which of the following findings is suggestive that ovulation has taken place?
Endometrial biopsy Early secretory Subnuclear vacuolation (Ist HPE evidence of progesterone secretion) Seen on D16 of cycle Nuclei of glands gone up Stromal edema Late secretory Toous/ coiled glands All secretions in lumen of gland Cork screw glands( on D20 of cycle) Max stromal edema seen around D22of cycle) HPE of Proliferative endometrium Pseudostratification Long tubular glands Spinnbarkeit effect: ovulation mucus has the propey of great elasticity and will withstand stretching up to 10 cm. This phenomenon is called spinnbarkeit or the thread test for oestrogen activity. During the secretory phase, the cervical mucus becomes tenacious and its viscosity increases under the influence of progesterone so that it loses the propey of spinnbarkeit and fractures when put under tension. This propey is called tack. THIS LOSS OF SPINNBARKEIT EFFECT IS USED TO DIAGNOSE OVULATION RETROSPECTIVELY. Ultrasound: shows sudden reduction of follicle size (on serial USGs) and free fluid in Pouch of douglas. Endometrial thickness varies as follows early proliferative: thin bright echogenic stripe late proliferative: trilaminar appearance secretory phase: thick and uniformly echogenic
3
Pseudostratification in endometrium
Presence of Spinnbarkeit Phenomenon in cervical mucous
Sudden reduction in size of follicle and free fluid in Pouch of Douglas on USG
Trilamilar endometrium on USG
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Tests of Ovulation
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single
Sedative with GABA facilitating action but without anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant propeies and no effect on sleep ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Zolpidem Among the given options, three are sedative-hypnotic with GABA facilitatory action - Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) - But it also has anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant propey. it) Phenobarbitone - But it has anticonvulsant propey. Zolpidem Has no anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant propey and have no effect on sleep architecture. Zolpidem Zolpidem is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic. Minimal suppressive effect on REM sleep architecture is not disturbed.
2
Diazepam
Zolpidem
Phenobarbitone
Buspirone
Pharmacology
null
b47511f8-1071-4c03-bb03-ad8f1ddbe67a
single
First branch of Facial nerve is:
Ans. C. Greater petrosal nerveFacial nerve is the 7th cranial nerve. It is a mixed (i.e., motor and sensory) nerve, but predominantly it is motor. It is named facial nerve because it supplies the muscles of facial expression.Branchesa. Greater petrosal nerve--arises from the geniculate ganglion. It is the first branch of facial nerveb. Nerve to stapedius--arises from the vertical part of the facial nerve opposite the pyramidal eminence, runs forward through a short canal within it to reach the stapedius muscle to supply it.c. Chorda tympani nerve--arises from the vertical part of the facial nerve about 6 mm above the stylomastoid foramen.d. Posterior auricular nerve--supplies the occipital belly of occipitofrontal is.e. Nerve to the posterior belly of digastric--supplies the concerned muscle.f. Nerve to stylohyoid--supplies the concerned muscle.g. Five terminal branches (temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal, mandibular, and cervical)--supply the muscles of facial expression.
3
Nerve to stapedius
Chorda tympani nerve
Greater petrosal nerve
Lesser petrosal nerve
Anatomy
Head & Neck
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single
The demographic goal of Net Reproduction Rate is equal to one (NPR=1) can be achieved only if the Couple Protection Rate exceeds
(C) 60%[?]Couple protection rate (CPR)oCouple protection rate (CPR) is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community.oIt is defined as the per cent of eligible couples effectively protected against childbirth by one or the other approved methods of family planning, viz. sterilization, IUD, condom or oral pills.oSterilization accounts for over 60 per cent of effectively protected couples.oCouple protection rate is based on the observation that 50 to 60 per cent of births in a year are of birth order 3 or more.oThus attaining a 60 per cent CPR will be equivalent to cutting off almost all third or higher order births, leaving 2 or less surviving children per couple.oTherefore, the previous National Population Policy was to attain a CPR of 42 per cent by 1990 (end of Seventh Five Year Plan), and 60 per cent by the year 2000.oHowever about 60 per cent eligible couples are still unprotected against conception.oA state-wise break-up of the figures reported indicates that while some states notably Punjab, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Haryana and Tamil Nadu etc. are forging ahead to cover more than half of their fertility level population by contraception.oDifferent Family Planning methods used for Acceptors of Couple Protection Rate include:-Sterilization-Vasectomy-Tubectomy-IUD insertion-Condom users-Oral Contraceptive Pill UsersoNRR = 1 can be achieved only if the CPR >60%[?]Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)oNet Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates.oNRR is a demographic indicator. NRR of 1 is equivalent to attaining approximately the 2-child norm.oIt is 'the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates'.oIt is a demographic indicator.oNRR of 1 is equivalent to attaining approximately the 2-child norm. If the NRR is less than 1, then the reproductive performance of the population is said to be below replacement level.oThe average number of Daughters a women would bear in her life if she experiences the age-specific fertility (fro daughters) prevailing at the study period, & if her daughters experienced the prevailing rates of mortality.oIf the age schedules of both fertility & mortality remain constant, the Net Reproduction Rate would be a measure of generational Replacement.oE.g.-NRR =1.1 - Next generation will be 10% larger than the present generation (growth)-NRR =1.0 - Next generation will be the same as the present generation (replacement level)-NPR =0.9 - next generation will be 10% smaller than the present generation (depopulation)[?]Net Reproduction Rate, Pros & Cons.oPros-Taking into account both fertility & survival in getting one indicator of reproductivity of a PopulationoCons-Requires detailed data on fertility & survival of women, up to age 50 years-Does not take into account that women born in different years may have different fertility & survival.
3
40%
50%
60%
70%
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and Family Planning
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single
Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC are all of the following, except:
RCC is associated with wide range of paraneoplastic syndromes, ? Erythrocytosis (polycythemia ? Hypercalcemia ? Hypeension ? Non metastatic hepatic dysfunction Cushing syndrome is rarely seen in RCC. Ref: Emil A. Tanagho, Jack W. McAninch, (2004), Chapter 21, "Renal paranchymal neoplasm", In the book, "Smith's General Urology", LANGE SERIES, USA, Page 351; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 592; Robbin's Basic Pathology , 7th Edition, Page 1018; Smith's Urology, 16th Edition, Page 351
4
Polycythemia
Hypercalcemia
Hypeension
Cushing syndrome
Pathology
null
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multi
Red flag sign in child development if not attained by __________
Red Flags in Developmental Screening and SurveillanceThese indicators suggest that development is seriously disordered and that the child should be promptly referred to a developmental or community pediatrician. Note: Most children do not have "red flags" and thus require quality screening to detect any problems. POSITIVE INDICATORS (THE PRESENCE OF ANY OF THE FOLLOWING) Loss of developmental skills at any ageParental or professional concerns about vision, fixing, or following an object or a confirmed visual impairment at any age (simultaneous referral to pediatric ophthalmology)Hearing loss at any age (simultaneous referral for expe audiologic or ear, nose, and throat assessment)Persistently low muscle tone or floppinessNo speech by 18 mo, especially if the child does not try to communicate by other means such as gestures (simultaneous referral for urgent hearing test)Asymmetry of movements or other features suggestive of cerebral palsy, such as increased muscle tonePersistent toe walkingComplex disabilitiesHead circumference above the 99.6th centile or below 0.4th centile. Also, if circumference has crossed 2 centiles (up or down) on the appropriate cha or is dispropoionate to parental head circumferenceAn assessing clinician who is unceain about any aspect of assessment but thinks that development may be disordered NEGATIVE INDICATORS(ACTIVITIES THAT THE CHILD CANNOT DO) Sit unsuppoed by 12 months Walk by 18 mo (boys) or 2 yr (girls) (check creatine kinase urgently)Walk other than on tiptoes Run by 2.5 yr .Hold object placed in hand by 5 months (corrected for gestation)Reach for objects by 6 mo (corrected for gestation)Point at objects to share interest with others by 2 yr Ref.nelson 20th edition pg100
4
No single word at 18 month
Not able sit with unsuppoed by 12 months
Not walking alone by 18 month in boys
All of the above
Pediatrics
Growth and development
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multi
Michaelis Menten Hypothesis states that
Michaelis-Menten Theory (Enzyme-Substrate Complex Theory) Enzyme combines with a substrate to form a transient Enzyme-Substrate Complex which immediately break into Enzyme and products.
4
Rate of enzymatic reaction is independent of substrate concentration
Rate of non enzymatic reaction is proportional to substrate concentration
Km is the enzyme substrate complex association constant
Enzyme substrate complex formation is essential in enzymatic reaction.
Biochemistry
null
79a81298-e728-4081-b2b5-be965d210d7d
single
Function of Ig A is -
Question repeated
1
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Circulating antibody
Kills virus infected cells
Activates macrophages
Microbiology
Immunology
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single
Glycolytic enzymes(s) inhibited by Fluoride:
Inhibitors of Glycolysis: Inhibitors of Glycolysis Enzyme Inhibited Iodoacetate Glyceraldehyde - 3 - P Dehydrogenase Arsenate Glyceraldehye - 3 - P Dehydrogenase Sodium fluoride Enolase Oxamate Lactate Dehydrogenase
3
Hexokinase
Aldolase
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
Biochemistry
Glycolysis
77db5401-a696-42c9-bbf6-136649ebe489
single
A patient is to undergo angiography for unstable angina. His routine evaluation revealed his serum creatinine to be elevated. All of the following can be used to prevent contrast nephropathy, EXCEPT:
Strategies for the Prevention of Contrast-Induced Nephropathy: Strategies that do not work: Mannitol Furosemide Dopamine Atrial natriuretic factor Fenoldopam Hemodialysis Strategies that may work: Calcium channel blockers Theophylline N-Acetylcysteine Hemofiltration Sodium bicarbonate Ascorbic acid Iso-osmolar contrast media Current recommended strategies: Employ non iodinated contrast studies Avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents Space between contrast administrations Minimize contrast volume Hydration Low osmolar contrast media Ref: Brunelli S., Rudnick M.R. (2009). Chapter 12. Contrast-Induced Nephropathy. In E.V. Lerma, J.S. Berns, A.R. Nissenson (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Nephrology & Hypeension.
2
Haemofiltration
Fenoldopam
N-acetylcysteine
1/2 N saline
Radiology
null
a2a4182e-7356-4270-88e8-40626e40a414
multi
A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All the following things are suitable for performing LASIK surgery except –
Patient selection criteria for LASIK Patients above 20 years of age Stable refraction for at least 12 months Motivated patients Myopia up to -12D The absence of corneal pathology Corneal thickness > 500 m ​Contraindications of LASIK Monocular patient Infections eg: conjunctivitis Glaucoma Autoimmune disease Thin cornea (< 450 microns) Keratoconus Poor endothelial cell count in the cornea (< 1500) Dry eye Diabetic retinopathy
2
Myopia of 4 Diopters
Age of 15 years
Stable refraction for 1 year
Corneal thickness of 600 microns
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Cardiac index is the ratio of?
Cardiac index is the cardiac output corrected for the individual's size. For example, the cardiac output of a 50-kg woman will be significantly lower than that of a 90-kg man. It has been found, however, that cardiac output correlates better with body surface area than with body weight. Therefore, it is common to express the cardiac output per square meter of surface area. Under resting conditions, the cardiac index is normally approximately 3 L/min per m2. Ref: Mohrman D.E., Heller L.J. (2010). Chapter 4. Measurements of Cardiac Function. In D.E. Mohrman, L.J. Heller (Eds), Cardiovascular Physiology, 7e
2
Cardiac output and body weight
Cardiac output and surface area
Cardiac output and work of hea
Surface volume and surface area
Physiology
null
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single
Carcinoma cervix involving upper 2/3rd of vagina. The stage would be: September 2009
Ans. A: Stage II a
1
Stage II a
Stage II b
Stage III a
Stage III b
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
An 18-year-old pregnant woman receives no prenatal care, eats a diet containing mostly carbohydrates and fats, and does not take prenatal vitamins with iron. She feels increasingly tired and weak during the third trimester. The infant is born at 35 weeks' gestation and is listless during the first week of life. Laboratory studies show markedly decreased serum ferritin levels in the infant and the mother. Which of the following findings from a nutritional deficiency is most likely to be present in both the infant and the mother?
Iron deficiency, which gives rise to microcytic anemia, is common in women of reproductive age because of menstrual blood loss and in children with a poor diet. During pregnancy, women have greatly increased iron needs. Low serum ferritin is indicative of iron deficiency. Dermatitis can be seen in pellagra (niacin deficiency). A goiter results from iodine deficiency, but this is a rare occurrence today because of newborn testing and widely available foods with iodine. Peripheral neuropathy is more characteristic of beriberi (thiamine deficiency) and deficiencies in riboflavin (vitamin B2 ) and pyridoxine (vitamin B6 ). Bowing of the long bones and epiphyseal widening can be seen in rickets (vitamin D deficiency). Soft tissue hemorrhages can be seen in scurvy (vitamin C deficiency).
3
Dermatitis
Diffuse goiter
Microcytic anemia
Peripheral neuropathy
Pathology
Environment & Nutritional Pathology
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multi
Not a cause of Roth spots?
Roth spots Round retinal hemorrhages with white centers Seen in : Infective endocarditis SLE Serum sickness Polyaeritis nodosa Severe anemia Leukemia Prolonged anesthesia
4
Leukemia
Severe anemia
SLE
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Medicine
Rheumatic Hea disease & infective endocarditis
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single
Which of the following is not true about the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., It has GABA mimetic action Mechanism of action of benzodiazepines (BZDs)* Muscle relaxation is produced by action on medulla.* Ataxia is due to action on cerebellum.* BZDs acts on GABAA receptors.* GABAa receptor has 5 subunits a / b, b, a / g.* GABA binding site is on b. subunit, while BZDs binding site is on a / g subunit.* BZDs receptor increase the conductance of Cl channel.* BZDs do not themselves increase Cl conductance, i.e. they have only GABA facilitatory but no GABA mimetic action. (Barbiturates have both GABA facilitatory and GABA mimetic actions).Effect on CNS* In contrast to barbiturates, BZDs are not general depressant, but exert relatively selective anxiolytic, hypnotic, muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant effects.* The antianxiety action of BZDs is not dependent on their sedative property - with chronic administration relief of anxiety is maintained, but drowsiness wanes off due to development of tolerance.* Stage 2 sleep is increased, while REM, Stage 3 & 4 sleep are decreased.* Nitrazepam is the only benzodiazepine, which increases REM sleep.* Clonazepan and diazepam have more marked muscle relaxant property.* Clonazepam, diazepam, nitrazepam and flurazepam have more prominent anticonvulsant activity than other BZDs.* Diazepam (but not other BZDs) has analgesic action.* Diazepam produces short lasting coronary dilatation on i.v. injection.* Diazepam decreases nocturnal gastric secretion and prevents stress ulcers.
4
Acts on mid brain, ascending reticular formation and limbic system
It exerts effects through the GABA A receptors
It increases conductance of Cl- channels
It has GABA mimetic action
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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multi
Following are the findings in sickle cell Anemia, except -
Splenomegaly is found in the early stage of sickle cell anemia. By continued infarction and hypoxia leads to progressive scarring and shrinkage of the spleen, so that by adolescent or the adulthood, only a small nubbin of fibrous tissue may be left; this is called autosplenectomy. Bone changes in sickle cell anemia are : -  Crew haircut appearance of skull bone. Fish mouth vertebrae. Cardiomegaly particularly increases in left ventricular dimension and mass results from the increase in cardiac output caused by chronic anemia and has its onset in early childhood. The WBC count is consistently elevated owing to an increase in the number of mature granulocytes. This increase is explained to a large extent by a shift of granulocytes from the marginated to the circulating compartments.
3
Fish vertebra
Enlarged heart
Splenomegaly usually seen
Leukocytosis
Pathology
null
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multi
Which of the following conditions does not have a National Screening/Control Programme?
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Dental caries o No National programme for oral health is under implementation. About other options o There is Pilot Programme for prevention & control of DM. CVD and deafness. o The National Programme for control of blindness includes screening for refractive errors. o Cervical cancer screening programme is working in India.
2
Diabetes Mellitus
Dental caries
Refractive errors
Carcinoma cervix
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following contains sulphur?
Ans: b (Insulin) Ref: Harper, 25th ed, p. 347,115Insulin is a polypeptide consisting of two chains linked by two inter chain di sulphide bridges.Amino acids required for special products:> Creatine - glycine + arginine+ methionine> Glutathione - glycine + cysteine + glutamate> Purine - glycine + aspartate + glutamine + serine> Pyramidine - aspartate + glutamine (glycine not present)> Keratin - formed by histidine, arginine, lysine. Also note - keratin is rich in cysteine.> Histone - rich in arginine and histidine.> Camosine - P alanine, histidine.> Choline - glycine, serine, methionine (Vit B6 - lipotrophic factor)
2
Creatine
Insulin
Inulin
Creatinine
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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single
Which one of the following is the management of pancreatic abscess -
null
3
Needle aspiration
Gastro-cytostomy
External drainage
Jejuno-cystostomy
Surgery
null
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single
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is done in all except
null
4
ca breast
ca penis
malignant melanoma
ca colon
Surgery
null
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During pregnancy the maternal blood volume increases by nearly :
Ans. is c i.e. 50% Friends, we have dealt with hemodynamic changes during pregnancy in detail earlier but here lets quickly revise a few changes asked quite often. Most impoant physiological changes during pregnancy (for 11th hour revision) Net weight gain in pregnancy is 11 kg (24 lb).deg Blood volume T's by 40-50%.deg Blood volume reaches maximum at 30-32 weeks.deg Plasma volume T's by 50%.deg RBC volume T's by 20-30%.deg TLC is increased, specifically Neutrophilic leucocytosis occurs.deg Total plasma proteins increase.deg Plasma protein concentration decreases.deg Albumin level decreases, globulin levels (specially IgA) slightly increase.deg Fibrinogen levels increase by 50%.deg ESR is increased.deg All clotting factors except XI and XIII increase.deg Platelet count decreases (Gestational Thrombocytopenia).deg Cardiac output (stroke volume) increases to 40-50% by 30-34 weeks.deg Peripheral vascular resistance decrease.deg Diastolic BP decreases.deg Uterine blood flow increases near term.deg Plasma insulin levels increase.deg S. Prolactin levels increase.deg Vital capacity and respiratory rate remain constant.deg Renal plasma flow and GFR increase.deg All LFT'S remain unchanged, with exception of alkaline phosphatase which increases (specially heat stable alkaline phosphatase produced by placenta).deg
3
5 - 10%
15 -- 20%
50%
70%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Side effect of MgSo4 used in the treatment of eclampsia is
Complications : Pulmonary edema Anuria Hea failure Hyperpyrexia Psychosis Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 222.
4
Hypotension
Polyuria
Coma
Pulmonary edema
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
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True about Ischiorectal fossa Boundaries
Ans. (a) Anterior border is formed by inferior fascia of urogenital diaphragm.Ref: IB singh Anatomy 2nd ed. / fig. 25.12ANTERIOR* Fascia of Colles covering the Transversus perinea superficialis* Inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragmPOSTERIOR* Gluteus maximus* Sacrotuberous ligamentLATERAL MEDIAL* Levator ani* Sphincter ani externus muscle* Anal fascia* Tuberosity of the ischium* Obturator internus muscle* Obturator fasciaSUPERIOR* Levator ani INFERIOR* Skin
1
Anterior border is formed by inferior fascia of urogenital diaphragm.
Superior border is formed by Gluteus Maximus
Lateral border is formed by Levator Ani
Posterior border is formed by obturator internus muscle.
Surgery
Rectum
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multi
Hypehyroidism will present as all, except :
Hypehyroid symptoms include heat intolerance, increased sweating and thirst, and weight loss despite adequate caloric intake. Symptoms of increased adrenergic stimulation include palpitations, nervousness, fatigue, emotional lability, hyperkinesis, and tremors. The most common GI symptoms include increased frequency of bowel movements and diarrhea. Female patients often develop amenorrhea, decreased feility, and an increased incidence of miscarriages. Children experience rapid growth with early bone maturation, whereas older patients may present with cardiovascular complications such as atrial fibrillation and congestive hea failure. Common cardiovascular manifestations of hypehyroidism include palpitations, systolic hypeension, and fatigue. Sinus tachycardia is present in 40% of hypehyroid patients, and atrial fibrillation in 15%. On physical examination, weight loss and facial flushing may be evident. The skin is warm and moist and African American patients often note darkening of their skin. Tachycardia or atrial fibrillation is present with cutaneous vasodilation leading to a widening of the pulse pressure and a rapid falloff in the transmitted pulse wave (collapsing pulse). A fine tremor, muscle wasting, and proximal muscle group weakness with hyperactive tendon reflexes often are present. Ref : Lal G. (2010). Chapter 38. Thyroid, Parathyroid, and Adrenal. In T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e.
1
Hypotension
Atrial fibrillation
Tremor
Panic attacks
Surgery
null
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multi
A patient presents in the causality with history of abdominal pain. On examination the person is in shock, with severe abdominal tenderness and guarding. There was also one episode of bloody diarrhoea. He gives a history of recurrent abdominal pain soon after taking food which persists for about 3 hours after food. He also has a history of MI about 5 years back. What is your diagnosis?
The person has had recurrent episodes of abdominal angina as shown by the pain after food intake. He also has a history of MI which also suggests that he has atherosclerosis. The bloody diarrhoea is again suggestive of mesenteric vascular occlusion in this patient. Ref: Manipal Millennium Edition, Page 429; S.Das, Edition 5, Page 354
1
Acute thrombotic mesenteric vascular occlusion
Acute pancreatitis
Acute duodenal ulcer perforation
Acute appendicitis
Surgery
null
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single
Fick principle of calculation of cardiac output doesn't depend on-
Based on Fick principle
3
Whole body oxygen consumption
Oxygen content of arterial blood
Stroke volume
Oxygen content of venous blood
Physiology
null
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single
Example of type 4 hypersensitivity is:
Ans. b. Granulomatous reaction
2
Serum sickness
Granulomatous reaction
Schwazman reaction
Ahus reaction
Microbiology
null
55848125-05f7-43c4-8dba-74307c7c7964
single
A boy presented with prolonged jaundice, constipation and umbilical hernia. what is the probable diagnosis?
Prolonged jaundice, constipation, Umbilical hernia are all seen in congenital hypothyroidism.
3
Growth hormone deficiency
Kernicterus
Congenital hypothyroidism
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Pediatrics
null
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Osteosarcoma can arise from:
Ans. c (Metaphysis). (Ref. to Radiology Review Manual, 5th/138; Essential orthopedics by Maheshwari 2nd/218)OSTEOSARCOMA* It is 2nd most common 1deg malignant tumor of bone (after multiple myeloma). Peak incidence in menl0-20 years of age. * It has bimodal age distribution: 10-25 years and > 60 years with M:F = 3:2 to 2:1. * Commonly found in the metaphysis of longbones, often around distal femur, proximal tibial region (knee). * Predisposing factors include Paget's disease of bone, bone infarcts, radiation, and familial retinoblastoma. Codman's triangle or sunburst pattern (from elevation of periosteum) on x-ray. * MRI is preferred modality. Clearly defines marrow extent (best on T1W1), vascular involvement and soft tissue component (best on T2W1). Radionuclide bone scan (NUC) shows intensity increased activity on blood flow, blood pool, delayed images (hypervascularity, new bone formation). Doughnut sign (peripherally increased uptake with central photopenia on bone scan) is a classical feature. Poor prognosis. * Standard management: Preoperative chemotherapy followed by limb-sparing surgery followed by postoperative chemotherapy (Sandwich Therapy). * Rx:Osteosarcoma is radio- resistant; radiation therapy has no role in the routine management.Ewing's sarcomaAnaplastic small blue cell malignant tumor. Most common in boys < 15. Extremely aggressive with early mets, but responsive to chemotherapy. Characteristic "onion-skin" appearance in bone ("going out for Ewings and onion rings"). Commonly appears in diaphysis of long bones, pelvis, scapula, and ribs. 11;22 translocation.ChondrosarcomaMalignant cartilaginous tumor. Most common in men aged 30-60. Usually located in pelvis, spine, scapula, humerus, tibia, or femur. May be of 1deg origin or from osteochondroma. Expansile glistening mass within the medullary cavity
3
Diaphysis
Epiphysis
Metaphysis
All of the above
Orthopaedics
Bone Tumour
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Episodic hypeension is a feature of
Classic triad: Headache + Diaphoresis+ Palpitation
3
Carcinoid tumor
Insulinoma
Pheochromocytoma
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Physiology
All India exam
5a2a4115-f381-4d10-a3ab-9ca6da93e27f
single
Acantholysis is:
Ans. (b) Separation of keratinocytesRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 370* Keratinocytes are connected to one another by intracellular desmosomal bridges.* If there is loss of these desmosomal bridges, it will lead to separation of keratinocytes and the condition is known as acantholysis.* If separation continues, there will be intracellular edema, and the condition is known as Ballooning.Also Know* Degeneration of stratum basale is seen in: Lichen planus* Acanthosis: thickening of stratum spinosum* Hypergranulosis: Thickening of stratum granulosum* Hyperkeratosis: Thickening of stratum corneum* Parakeratosis: persistence of nucleus in stratum corneum layer
2
Lysis of basale cell layer
Separation of keratinocytes
Thickening of granular layer
Thickening of corneum layer
Skin
General
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single
High risk of malignancy is seen in?
Answer is option3, complex hyperplasia with atypia Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia is the least common type of hyperplasia, but is the type most likely to progress to type 1 endometrial carcinoma (1-3) which accounts for 97% of uterine cancers, whereas simple hyperplasia rarely progresses to carcinoma. >
3
Simple hyperplasia with atypia
Simple hyperplasia without atypia
Complex hyperplasia with atypia
Complex hyperplasia without atypia
Pathology
General pathology
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single
The Millennium Development Goals (MUG) is to be achieved by the year -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2015
2
2010
2015
2020
2030
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Systemic causes of epistaxis are all except:
Hemophilia is secondary cause of epistaxis in children. Ref.Scott Brown 7/e,vol 2,p 1605
4
Hypeension
Anticoagulant treatment
Hereditary telangietasia
Hemophilia
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
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multi
Which of the following situations will lead to increased viscosity of blood:
C i.e. Multiple myeloma
3
Fasting state
Hypoglycemia
Multiple myeloma
Amyloidogenesis
Medicine
null
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single
A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hyperiglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is
Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor and can cause hyperiglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. All protease inhibitors are metabolized by liver and all can cause metabolic abnormalities including hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance and altered fat istribution (lipodystrophy). Atazanavir is devoid of this adverse effect. Tesamorelin is a synthetic analogue of growth hormone releasing factor indicated to reduce excess abdominal fat in HIV-infected patients with lipodystrophy.
1
Ritonavir
Raltegravir
Tenofovir
Eirenz
Pharmacology
Anti-HIV Drugs
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Ropinirole is most useful for the treatment of:
Ans. (A) Parkinson's disease(Ref: KDT 8/e p457)Ropinirole is a non-ergot dopamine agonist useful for Parkinsonism. It is also used these days for restless leg syndrome.
1
Parkinson's disease
Wilson's disease
Hoffmann syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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single
Which of the following helminths primarily produces gastrointestinal symptoms, without lung involvement, during the course of its infection?
Trichuris humans acquire the infection by eating foods contaminated with infective eggs. Once eggs are swallowed, the larvae hatch in the small intestine, where they mature and migrate to the colon. Trichuris infections with a low worm burden are usually asymptomatic, but infections of moderate to heavy worm loads present with lower abdominal pain, distention, and diarrhea. Severe infection may lead to profuse bloody diarrhea, cramps, tenesmus, urgency, and rectal prolapse. Occasionally worms migrate to the appendix, causing appendicitis. Jawetz microbiology 27e 724.
3
Dirofilaria immitis
Strongyloides stercoralis
Trichuris trichiura
Ascaris lumbricoides
Microbiology
All India exam
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single
In solitary thyroid nodule true is/are :
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Common in female A solitary thyroid nodule is a palpably discrete swelling within an otherwise apparently normal thyroid gland. Ceain imp. points about solitary thyroid nodules : STN are more common in women than in men The incidence of STN increases with age Solitary nodules, in general, are more likely to be neoplastic than are multiple nodules. Nodules in younger patients are more likely to be neoplastic than are those in older patients. Nodules in males are more likely to be neoplastic than are those in females. A history of radiation treatment to the head & neck region is associated with an increased incidence of thyroid malignancy. Functional nodules that take up radioactive iodine in imaging studies (hot nodules) are significantly more likely to be benign than malignant.
4
THR-Ab
Lined by columnar epithelium
Diffuse hyperplasia of thyroid
Common in female
Surgery
null
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Indications of celiotomy in blunt trauma:
Ans is C (Peritoneal air on imaging) Most spleen and liver injuries are managed non-operatively, if the patient is hemodynamically stable.
3
Grade I spleen damage
Grade II liver damage
Peritoneal air on imaging
All
Surgery
null
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multi
Two most impoant tests to be done in a comatose patient with blood glucose of 750 mg/dl will be -
Comatose patients with blood glucose level of 750 mg/dl suggests the possibility of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state . Lab abnormality in this is marked hyperglycemia, hyperosmolarity, prerenal azotemia. Comatose patients with hyperglycemia is also seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Thus blood ph ( to detect acidosis) and serum creatinine for azotemia are most impoant investigations.
1
Sr. creatinine
Sr. sodium
CSF examination
Blood pH
Medicine
Endocrinology
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A different sequence of amino acids having a similar structure of proteins is an example of
Divergence and convergence are two evolutionary processes by which organisms become adapted to their environments. Convergence has been defined as the acquisition of morphologically similar traits between distinctly unrelated organisms. Convergence occurs at every level of biological organization. Functional Convergence This refers to molecules that serve the same function but have no sequence or structural similarity and carry out their function by entirely different mechanisms. Mechanistic convergence Mechanistic convergence occurs when the sequence and structure of molecules are very different but the mechanisms by which they act are similar. Structural Convergence This refers to molecules with very different amino acid sequences that can assume similar structural motifs, which may carry out similar functions. Sequence Convergence In sequence convergence, one or more critical amino acids or an amino acid sequence of two proteins come to resemble each other due to natural selection. (In protein evolution, sequence divergence, rather than sequence convergence is the rule.)
2
Divergence
Convergence
Opportunistic
Incidental
Biochemistry
null
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single
Shelf life of Platelets is
Shelf life of Platelets is < 5 days Cryoprecipitate is 2 years.
1
< 5 days
< 3 weeks
< 5 weeks
< 2 years
Medicine
null
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single
Phenomenon called anticipation is seen in?
Instablity of triplet repeats can lead to gradual expansion from generation to generation,a phenomenon called anticipation,Genetic anticipation is characterized  by the reduction in the age of disease onset  by successive genarations.
3
Mitochondrial inheritance
x - linked dominant disorders
Trinucleotide repeat expansion
Genomic imprinting
Pathology
null
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multi
Lung is characteristically involved in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Churg-Strauss syndromeChurg- strauss syndrome o Also known as allergic granulomatosis and angitis.o It is a medium and small size vasculitis, invoves mainly the blood vessels of lungs, GIT, peripheral nerves, hea, skin, kidney.o As it is allergic, vasculitis it is associated with eosinophilia and asthma.o It is granulomatous necrotizing vasculitis.o It is associated with p-ANCA.StagesThis disease has three distinct stages ?o Stage l --> Involves the sinuses and the onset of allergies ---> nasal polyp, allergic rhinitis.o Stage 2 --> Acute asthma occurs.o Stage 3 --> The third and final stage involves the various organ systems -1. Peripheral nervous system --> Mononeuritis multiplex with severe neural pain.2. Skin -3 Palpable purpura, papules, ulcer, vesiculobillous lesion.3. Hea --> CHF4. Kidney Pauciimmune glomerulonephritis.5. Joints --> Migratory ahritis.6. Ear Conductive deafness.7. There is eosinophilia and raised IgE as occur with allergic conditions.8. Lung --> Nonfixed migratory pulmonary infiltrates.
1
Churg-Strauss syndrome
HSP
PAN
ITP
Pathology
null
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multi
Which of the following drugs is used for narcoanalysis -
Scopolamine is used as truth serum. Drugs commonly used in narcoanalysis are 1. Thiopentone sodium (Sodium pentothal) 2. Scopolamine hydrobromide 3. Sodium secnol 4. Benzodiazepines REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION
3
Atropine
Phenobarbitone
Scopolamine
Pethidine
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
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single
Commonest organism giving rise to urinary tract infection -
• Most UTIs are caused by a single bacterial species. • At least 80% of the uncomplicated cystitis and pyelonephritis are due to E. coli, with most of pathogenic strains belonging to the O serogroups. • Other less common uropathogens include Klebsiella, Proteus, and Enterobacter spp. and enterococci. • In hospital acquired UTIs, a wider variety of causative organisms is found, including Pseudomonas and Staphylococcus spp. • UTIs caused by S. aureus often result from hematogenous dissemination. • Group B beta-hemolytic streptococci can cause UTIs in pregnant women. • In children, Klebsiella and Enterobacter spp. are common causes of UTI. • Anaerobic bacteria, lactobacilli, corynebacteria, streptococci (not including enterococci) and S. epidermidis are found in normal periurethral flora. They do not commonly cause UTIs in healthy individuals and are considered common urinary contaminants.
1
E. coli
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Surgery
null
ebd2773c-d81f-488e-b1d6-b8d4e5ba2ad3
single
Carbamide solution used for bleaching degrades into
null
3
0.3% sodium perborate
30% hydrogen peroxide
3% hydrogen peroxide
30% sodium perborate
Dental
null
38a3e1b8-705c-47cb-961b-8908e9d88503
single
Mechanism of action of sildenafil is
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Inhibits PDE 5 * Sildenafil (Viagra) acts to increase cGMP by inhibiting its breakdown by phosphodiesterase isoform 5 (PDE-5).
3
Inhibits PDE 2
Inhibits PDE 4
Inhibits PDE 5
Inhibits PDE 3
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
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single
Intercourse can be cumbersome, annoying & also 'Noisy' with the use of which of the following :
Disadvantages of female condoms: 1. Intercourse is noisy, and slippage occurs in about one in 5-10 uses; however, female condom rarely breaks. 2. Occasionally the penis is introduced, by mistake, outside the female condom, which may lead to pregnancy and STDs including HIV. 3. It is an expensive method.
2
Male condom
Female condom
IUCD
Vaginal ring
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
f4b84482-f856-4ea3-b60f-8a121ff1a49d
single
Which virus given below is not a teratogenic virus ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Measles Many viruses can be transmitted to the fetus and cause infection and tissure damage. Five viruses are known to be teratogenic in humans: cytomegalovirus, rubella, herpes simplex, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, and varicella viruses.
4
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex
Measles
Microbiology
null
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single
Vector for T.cruzi is -
T.cruzi passes its life cycle I two host Definitive host- humans Intermediate host-triatomine bugs Humans become infectious when reduviid bug bites and the infected faecal matter is discharged near bite wound (refer pgno:49 baveja 3 rd edition)
1
Reduvid bug
Tsetse fly
Sand fly
Hard tick
Microbiology
parasitology
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single
Which of the following is most commonly involved in Hypersensitivity vasculitis:
Answer is C (Post-capillary venules): Post-capillary venules are most commonly involved in Hypersensitivity vasculitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis refers to small vessel vasculitis that is restricted to the skin and not associated with any other form of primary or secondary vasculitis. Implicit in the definition is that this condition is not associated with medium or large vessel disease at other sites, nor with small vessel disease in other organs (only skin) Microscopic polyangitis affects the skin and also internal organs and hence is not considered pa of hypersensitivity vasculitis The typical histopathological feature of cutaneous vasculitis is the presence of leukocytoclastic vasculitis of small vessels. Vasculitis is charachterized by Leukocytoclasis -- Harrison's Synonyms for Hypersensitivity vasculitis include: cutaneous small vessels vasculitis, leucocytoclastic vasculitis, cutaneous leucocytoclastic angitis etc. 'Post-capillary venules are the most commonly involved vessels. Capillaries and aerioles may be involved less frequently' -- Harrison American College of Rheumatology 1990 Criteria for the Classification of Hypersensitivity Vasculitis Laboratory and Radiographic Work-up of Patients with Possible Hypersensitivity Vasculitis Age at disease onset > 16 years Medication at disease onset Palpable purpura Maculopapular rash Biopsy including aeriole and venule, showing granulocytes in a perivascular or extravascular location For purposes of classification, hypersensitivity vasculitis may be diagnosed if the patient meets at least three of these five criteria.
3
Capillaries
Aerioles
Post-capillary venules
Medium sized aeries
Medicine
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Hallmarks of the hemophilia is
(Hemarthroses): Ref: 326-G, 1657-Nelson 17th (321-Ghai 7th)Hemophilia - X-1 inked recessive, The females carries the hemophilia trait but only male offspring suffers from the disease.Clinical features - Bleeding following tooth extraction, severe trauma or following surgery muscle hematoma, and bleeding in joints.* Prolonged bleeding following circumcision may be the first symptoms* Excessive bleeding episodes from umbilical cord may be the presenting features in newborns* As the child learns to walk, there are repeated episodes of hemarthrosis* Bleeding may occur in the any area of the body, the hallmark of hemophilia is the hemarthrosis. The earliest joint hemorrhages appears most commonly in the ankle, because of the lack of stability of this joint as the toddler assumed an upright posture (1657-Nelson 17th)
2
Epistaxis
Hemarthrosis
Abdominal pain
Anaemia
Pediatrics
Blood
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For central venous pressure monitoring all are true except
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in 4-12 mmHg normally.
3
Internal jugular vein is preferred site
Indicated to administer hyperosmolar drugs
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure normally is 10-20 mmHg
Swan- ganz catheter entering pulmonary artery shows as dicrotic notch.
Anaesthesia
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Cranial end of Wolffian duct forms:
Ans: A (Epoophoron) Ref: Grays Anatomy 40th EdExplanation:Embryology of Reproductive SystemGonadMALES (Testis)FEMALES (Ovary)Gubernacular cord Mesonephros (Wolffian body)Gubernaculum testisOvarian and round ligamentsAppendix of epididymis (?)Appendices vesiculosae (?)Efferent ductulesEooophoronLobules of epididymis ParadidymisParoophoronAberrant ductules Mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct)Duct of epididymisDuct of epoopboron (Gartner's duct)Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Part of the bladder and prcstatic urethraPart erf bladder and urethraParamesonephricDuct (Mullerian)Appendix of testsUterine tube UterusProstatic ulricteVaginaAllantoic ductUrachusUrachusCloaca: Dorsal partRectum and upper part of anal canalRectum and upper part of anal canalVentral partMost of bladderMost of bladder and urethra Part of the prostatic urethra Urogenital sinusProstatic urethra distal to the utricle Bulbo-urethral glandsGreater vestibular glandsRest of urethra to qlansVestibuleGenital foldsVentral penisLabia minoraGenital tuberclePenisClitorisUrethra in clans Genital ridgeTestisOvaryGenital swellingScrotumLabia majora
1
Epoophoron
Paraepoophoron
Gartner cyst
Bartholin cyst
Unknown
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A 60-year old male presents with progressive difficulty in swallowing, vomiting and occasional regurgitation for the past 3 months. Barium studied showed marked dilatation of the upper esophagus with narrowing of the lower segment. Manometry showed absent esophageal peristalsis. This patient needs to have -
The most common cause of narrowing of the esophagus, or stricture, is scarring of the esophagus from reflux of stomach acid occurring in patients with heaburn. Patients with a narrowed poion of the esophagus often have trouble swallowing; food feels like it is "stuck" in the chest region, causing discomfo or pain. Less common causes of esophageal narrowing are webs or rings (which are thin layers of excess tissue), cancer of the esophagus, scarring after radiation treatment or a disorder of the way the esophagus moves . Esophageal Dilation. During esophageal dilation (also called pneumatic dilation), an endoscopic tube is inseed through the mouth and into the esophagus. A balloon is expanded inside the esophagus to stretch muscle fibers inside the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 729
1
Ballon dilatation
Endoscopic banding
Sclerotherapy
Proton pump inhibitor
Medicine
G.I.T
a41e53bd-4ce6-4877-85ef-5ab8c27af288
multi
Regarding ranula, all are true except -
A ranula is a mucous retention cyst which arises from sublingual salivary gland and presents as fluctuant swelling with a bluish translucent colour. Types of Ranula Ranula may be of two types : - 1)Simple : - Situated in the floor of mouth without any cervical prolongation. 2)Deep/plunging : - Ranula with a cervical prolongation in submandibular region.
2
Retention cyst
Arises from submandibular gland
Translucent
Plunging may be a feature
ENT
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multi
Thinnest labial plate is found in the region of:
null
2
Upper central incisors
Lower central incisors
Upper canines
Lower canines
Dental
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If thiopentone is injected accidently into an aery the first symptom is
D i.e. Pain
4
Analgesia
Paralysis
Skin ulceration
Pain
Anaesthesia
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single
40 years old male patient came with complaint of dry cough and dyspnoea. On lung function tests, restrictive pattern of decreases lung function is seen. Chest x-ray showed few reticular opacities in bilateral lung. HRCT of lung was performed which shows GGO in bilateral lung fields sparing sub-pleural region. Most probable diagnosis is
Interstitial Lung Disease UIP (Usual interstitial pneumonia) NSIP (Non - specific interstitial pneumonia) Reticular opacities Traction bronchiectasis Subpleural honeycombing Subpleural sparing
2
UIP
NSIP
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Respiratory bronchiolitis
Radiology
Radiology Q Bank
68c63050-83c0-4669-8c29-9637d4061726
single
Malignant gastric ulcers are characterized by all except
In malignant ulcers mucosal rugae stop far of the ulcers whereas in benign ulcers mucosal rugae projects outwards front the margins of the ulcer
1
ulcer extends beyond the gastric wall.
Mucosal rugae stop far of ulcers
Eccentric crater
Margins are raised
Pathology
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multi
The measure of strength of association between risk factor and outcome is:
It is a measure of the strength of association between risk factor and outcome. The derivation of the Odds ratio is based on three assumptions:  a) The disease being investigated must be relatively rare. In fact, the majority of chronic diseases have a low incidence in the general population. b) The cases must be representative of those with the disease.  c) The controls must be representative of those without the disease. For example, the odds ratio is estimated at 8.1. This implies that the risk of oral cancer was 8.1 times greater in individuals who chewed tobacco than in those who did not chew tobacco. Soben Peter  Essentials of preventive and community dentistry  4th edition
1
Odds ratio
Attributable risk
Relative risk
Poisson's ratio
Dental
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single
The following affect enzyme activity except
Regulation of Enzymes Can be classified as: Regulation of Enzyme Quality (Intrinsic Catalytic Efficiency) • Allosteric Regulation • Covalent modification. Covalent modification • Phosphorylation/dephosphorylation • Methylation • Adenylation • ADP ribosylation • Acetylation. Regulation of enzyme quantity Control of Enzyme Synthesis By Induction and Repression Control of Enzyme Degradation Enzymes are degraded by Ubiquitin—Proteasome pathway.
3
Methylation
Acetylation
Induction
Phosphorylation
Biochemistry
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378ae4f9-5261-4def-9ae3-afe4caa39adf
multi
Aggrecan is:
Aggrecan is a proteoglycan, also known as cailage-specific proteoglycan core protein (CSPCP) or chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 1. It is encoded by the ACAN gene. Aggrecan is an integral pa of the extracellular matrix (ECM) in cailagenous tissue and it withstands compression in cailage.
4
A receptor over platelets
A molecule present in osteoid tissue
Granules in leukocytes
Impoant component of cailage
Physiology
Concepts in physiology
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single
Feature of diabetes mellitus in pregnancy:a) Postdatismb) Hydramniosc) Neonatal hyperglycemiad) ↑congenital defecte) PPH
As explained in the previous question maternal hyperglycaemia leads to fetal hyperglycaemia, which in turn causes polyuria and thus causes polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios leads to preterm delivery and not post datism. Excessive uterine enlargement because of polyhydramnios and macrosomia causes increased incidence of atonic PPH. Diabetes leads to increased incidence of congenital defects in fetus. Maternal hyperglycemia → to fetal hyperglycemia → hyperinsulinemia → to neonatal hypoglycemia at birth.
1
bde
ade
ace
bce
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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3a17848e-5035-41d7-b828-bd717f08c03d
single
Treatment of Mycobacteria avium complex include all except :
null
4
Ciprofloxacin
Clarithromycin
Rifabutin
Pyrazinamide
Pharmacology
null
dcc29e89-1737-4b7d-b358-2ebcbec9307f
multi
Specific antibody associated with primary biliary cirrhosis is:
Ans. C: Anti-mitochondrial Primary biliary cirrhosis is strongly associated with the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA), which are diagnostic PBC: Associated with CREST syndrome, sicca syndrome, auto-immune thyroiditis, type I DM and IgA deficiency IgG AMA is detected in more than 90% of patients with PBC 90% of women are between 35 - 60 years Earliest symptom is pruritis Eventually hepatocellular failure and poal hypeension develops Lab findings: - Increased serum alkaline phosphatase - Increased serum 5-nucleotidase activity - Increased gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase - Serum bilirubin is usually normal - Aminotransferase levels minimally increased - Treatment: Ursodiol
3
Anti-myosin
Anti-nuclear
Anti-mitochondrial
Anti-endomysial
Medicine
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1ed4e42b-0cd6-4aa0-8429-59a2fe0c5edf
single
Long acting insulin is?
ANSWER: (A) Insulin glargineREF: Pharmacology ReCap 2.0 for Bachelor of Dentistry Students by Dr. J. G. Buch page 304, Harrison s 18m ed chapter 344INSULINS:Highly purifiedmono-componentinsulinPorcine Actrapid- RegularShort actingPorcine Monotard- LenteIntermediate actingPorcine Insulatard- NPH Porcine Mixtard30% regular, 70% IsophaneHuman insulinHuman Actrapid- RegularShort actingHuman Monotard- LenteIntermediate actingHuman Insulatard- NPH Human Mixtard30% regular, 70% IsophaneInsulin analoguesInsulin Lispro Insulin aspart Insulin glulisineUltra short actingInsulin glargineLong acting
1
Insulin glargine
Insulin Lispro
Insulin aspart
Insulin glulisine
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
69c8235c-e810-46f2-8a9f-23d5430f8940
single
Which of the following is not an alkylating agent?
5- Fluorouracil' Repeat from AI1MS 09
3
Cyclophosphamide
Busulfan
5-Fluorouracil
Melphalan
Pharmacology
null
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single