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According to the 2010 WHO criteria what are the characteristics of normal semen analysis?
Ans: B. Volume 1.5 mL, count 15 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32% (Ref Dutta 6/e p222)According to 2010 WHO criteria:Characteristics of normal semen analysis:Semen CharacteristicsWHO 1999WHO 2010Volume (ml)Greater or equal to 2 mlGreater or equal to 1.5 mlSperm countGreater or equal to 20 Greater or equal to 15 million/mlTotal sperm countGreater or equal to 40 million per ejaculateGreater or equal to 39 million per ejaculateTotal motilityGreater or equal to 50%Greater or equal to 40%Progressive motilityGreater or equal to 25%Greater or equal to 32%VitalityGreater or equal to 75%Greater or equal to 58%Morphology (Normal form)14%Greater or equal to 4%Leukocyte count (104/m1)<1<1
2
Volume 2.0 mL, count 20 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32%
Volume 1.5 mL, count 15 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32%
Volume 2.0 mL, count 15 million, morphology 40% progressive motility 32%
Volume 1.5 mL. count 20 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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True about head circumference measurement -
Ans. is All Options 'a' o Head circumference is measured from the occipital protuberance to the supraorbital ridge on the forehead. Option `b' o If the head circumference growth exceeds 1 cm in 2 weeks during the first 3 months, hydrocephalus should be suspected. o In microcephally head circumference is two standard detion below the mean for age and sex. Option `c o Head circumference measurements that progressively drop to lower percentiles with increasing age are indicative of a process or condition that has impaired the brain's capacity to grow. o So, serial measurement helps to assess neurological development and pediatric intelligence.
4
Measured in supra-orbital ridge
Measured hydrocephalus/microcephaly
Serial measurement is useful
All
Pediatrics
null
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A patient with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 and pulse rate of 100 following blunt trauma to the chest . Diagnosis of
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1573-1574 Cardiac tamponade should be suspected in any patient who has a rapid down hill course and exhibits the features of rising venous pressure and falling aerial pressure following blunt trauma to the chest.
3
Pneumothorax
Right ventricular failure
Cardiac tamponade
Hemothorax
Medicine
C.V.S
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Which of the following is an example of disability limitation
Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization - Specific protection Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP (post polio residual paralysis) - Rehabilitation Resting affected limbs in neutral position - Disability limitation Providing calipers for walking - Rehabilitation Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive medicine
2
Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
Resting affected limbs in neutral position
Providing calipers for walking
Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP (post polio residual paralysis)
Social & Preventive Medicine
All India exam
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A 54 Old man diabetic hypeensive was brought to NIMHANS OPD with history of loss of sensation on left side of upper body, loss of facial sensation on right side. O/E there was constricted pupil, paial ptosis, anhydrosis , gait ataxia nystagmus was present on right side. which is the common aery involvement can lead to this condition?
MR-Angiography of the neck (carotid and veebral aeries):1,Brachiocephalic trunk (or innominate aery).2,Right subclan aery.3,Right veebral aery.4,Right common carotid aery.5,Right internal carotid aery.6,Left veebral aery.7,Left internal carotid aery.8,Left external carotid aery.9,Left common carotid aery.10,Left subclan aery.11,Aoa. Condition above described is characteristic of WALLENBERG SYNDROME which occur due to involvement of intracranial segment of veebral aery.
2
9
3
11
12
Radiology
Angiography
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True about dermoid cyst
Ans. (d) Rupture is associated with Foreign body type inflammationRef: Short Cases Das Ch. 1* Dermoid cyst is lined by squamous epithelium and contains pultaceous material inside.* Teratomatous type of dermoid cyst contains all layers -- epithelium, endothelium and mesothelium -- hence contain -- hair, muscle, teeth etc* Most common type of dermoid is sequestration dermoid found at the line of fusion of epithelium -- common in external angular, postauricular etc.* It produces bony indentation* Rupture is associated with FB type inflammation.
4
Lined by columnar epithelium
Dose not contain hair
Median angle of eye is the most common site
Rupture is associated with foreign body type inflammation
Surgery
Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery
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All of the following are true about pancreatic injury except
Answer- B. Commonly isolated injuries occurIn blunt injuries which are usually the result of midline upper abdominal trauma (eg. car seat belt, cycle handle), junction of the neck and body of the pancreas are most commonly injured as they are pressed against the veebral column.Major abdominal vascular injuries are present in more than 75% of cases of penetrating trauma.Pancreas b eing a retroperitoneal structure, peitoneal lavage is not helpful in making the diagnosis of pancreatic injury.CT xan is the best diagnostic procedure, apa from an exploratory laprotomy
2
Penetrating injuries are common
Commonly isolated injuries occur
Serum amylase is raised
Peritoneal lavage is not helpful for diagnosis
Surgery
null
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The functions of which vitamin are carried through coenzyme A
null
1
B5
B9
B12
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
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NOT a good prognostic factor for TB spine
null
2
Young age
Rapid onset
Good immunity
Early onset
Orthopaedics
null
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Reduces blood pressure primarily by directly decreasing hea rate alone -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propranolol o Methyldopa is useful in the treatment of mild to moderately severe hypeension. It lowers blood pressure chiefly by reducing peripheral vascular resistance, with a variable reduction in hea rate and cardiac output. o Prazosin and nitroprusside are vasodilators and produce reflex tachycardia instead of causing bradycardia. o Propranolol is a non selective beta blocker and acts mainly by decreasing hea rate.
1
Propranolol
Prazosin
Alpha methyl dopa
Nitroprusside sodium
Pharmacology
null
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Deltoid ligament is attached to all except -
Medial collateral ligament/Deltoid ligament is attached from medial malleolus to -        Superficial part    Tibionavicular part- Navicular tuberosity and spring ligament    Tibiocalcaneal part- Sustenticulum tali    Posterior tibiotalar part- medial tubercle and medial surface of talus -        Deep part (Anterior tibiotalar part)    Medial surface of talus
4
Medial malleolus
Talus
Calcaneum
Lateral malleolus
Anatomy
null
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All of the following are true about Methicillin resistance in MRSA, except
Penicillin resistance is of three types: Production of beta-lactamase Alteration in the penicillin-binding protein PBP2a and changes in bacterial surface receptors, reducing binding of beta-lactam antibiotics to cells.This resistance also extends to cover beta-lactamase-resistant penicillins such as methicillin and cloxacillins(MRSA). Some of the strains may show resistance to other antibiotics such as erythromycins, tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, and heavy metals and cause outbreaks of hospital infections. Development of tolerance to penicillin Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; Tenth Edition; Page No: 202
3
Resistance is produced as a result of altered PBP's
Resistance may be produced by hyperproduction of beta lactamase
Resistance is primarily mediated/transmitted plasmids
Resistance may be missed at incubation temperature of 37 oC during susceotibility testing
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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Wenckebachk phenomenon is defined as-
null
1
Progressive lengthening of PR interval till a beat is dropped
Slurred QRS complex
Irregular heart rate & permature ventricular beats
Shortened ST intervals
Medicine
null
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A 65-year-old male from bihar with a pneumonia has a sputum culture that is positive for a staphylococcal strain that is b-lactamase- positive. Which is the best choice of penicillin therapy in this patient?
Oxacillin is classified as a penicillinase-resistant penicillin that is relatively acid-stable and, therefore, is useful for oral administration. Major adverse reactions include penicillin hypersensitivity and interstitial nephritis. With the exception of methicillin, which is 35% bound to serum proteins, all penicillinase-resistant penicillins are highly bound to plasma proteins. Oxacillin has a very narrow spectrum and is used primarily as an antistaphylococcal agent.
2
Ampicillin
Oxacillin
Ticarcillin
Penicillin G
Surgery
null
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Which of the following is not true about acute retropharyngeal abscess
CLINICAL FEATURES 1. Dysphagia and difficulty in breathing are prominent symptoms as the abscess obstructs the air and food passages. 2. Stridor and croupy cough may be present. 3. Toicollis. The neck becomes stiff and the head is kept extended. 4. The bulge in the posterior pharyngeal wall. Usually seen on one side of the midline. Radiograph of soft tissue, lateral view of the neck shows widening of preveebral shadow and possibly even the presence of gas (Ref: Diseases of ear, nose and throat, P.L Dhingra, 7th edition, page 300)
4
Dysphagia
Swelling on posterior wall of pharynx
Toicollis
Caries of cervical spine is usually a common cause
ENT
Pharynx
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As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false:
B i.e. Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings
2
94% of cases are sporadic
Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings
Calcification in the tumor can be detected on ultrasound scan
Reese-Ellswoh classifiction is useful in predicting visual prognosis following radiotherapy
Ophthalmology
null
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Inquest of Dowry death is done by: September 2009
Ans. B: Magistrate Sec 304-B IPC (Dowry death): where the death of the woman is accused by any burn/bodily injury or occurs otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of her marriage and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty by her husband/relative in connection with demand of dowry shall be considered as dowry death In dowry deaths inquest should be carried out by a magistrate or police officer not below the rank of deputy superintendent of police.
2
Police
Magistrate
Coroner
Medical examiner
Forensic Medicine
null
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Which of the following structures of the mind work on an unconscious level?
In Freud's structural theory, the mind is divided into the Id, Ego, and Superego The id operates completely on an unconscious level, and is the most primitive pa .It works on pleasure principle While the ego and superego operate paly on an unconscious and paly on preconscious and conscious levels. Ego is based on reality principle and super ego is based on moral principle.
3
The id only
The id and the ego only
The id, ego, and superego
The ego and superego only
Psychiatry
Psychoanalysis
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All of the following are virulence factors of peussis, except:
Ans. is. 'c' i. e., Capsule
3
Tracheal cytotoxin
Peussis toxin
Capsule
Peactin
Microbiology
null
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Articulator based on Theory of an equilateral triangle is:
Bonwill's theory articulators  • This articulator was designed by WGA Bonwill. • According to the Bonwill's theory of occlusion, the teeth move in relation to each other as guided by the condylar and the incisal guidances. • Bonwill's theory is also known as the Theory of equilateral triangle, according to which, the distance between the condyles is equal to the distance between the condyle and the midpoint of the mandibular incisors (incisal point).
1
Bonwill's theory articulator.
Conical theory articulator.
Spherical theory articulator.
null
Dental
null
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Which of the following is a premalignant lesion of squamous cell carcinoma?
Actinic Keratosis & Bowen's disease are premalignant lesions of squamous cell carcinoma.
3
Dermatofibroma
Granuloma annulare
Actinic keratosis
Behcet's disease
Dental
null
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Complications of tuberular meningitis include all except
harrison's textbook of internal medicine 17th edition . *paresis of cranial nerves(ocular nerve in paicular ) is a frequent finding ,and involvement of cerebral aeries may produce focal ischemia . *The ultimate evolution is towards coma ,with hydrocephalus and intracranial tension.
2
Hydrocephalus
Coical venous thrombosis
Cerebral Aery Thrombosis
Cranial Nerve Palsy
Medicine
C.N.S
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Laser used in cutting out cataract capsule is
A i.e. Nd:YAG Laser
1
Nd : YAG laser
Argon laser
DYE laser
Diode
Ophthalmology
null
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All of the following result in endogenous pigmentation of teeth except:
Discoloration of either deciduous or permanent teeth may occur as result of tetracycline deposition during prophylactic or therapeutic or therapeutic regimens instituted either in the pregnant female or postpartum in the infant. Tetracycline and its homologues have a selective affinity for deposition in bone and tooth substance, possibly through the formation of a complex with calcium ions in the surface of the microcrystals of hydroxyapatite.
4
Tetracycline
Fetal jaundice
Erythroblastosis fetalis.
Vitamin B deficiency
Pathology
null
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Painful syndrome with increased reaction to a stimulus and an increased threshold; faulty identification and localization of stimulus, is called as:
null
2
Causalgia.
Hyperpathia.
Hyperasthesia.
Phantom pain.
Pathology
null
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Michaelis-Gutmann bodiesare found in:
Michaelis-Gutmann bodies (M-G bodies) M-G bodies are concentrically layered basophilic inclusions found in the urinary tract. They are 2 to 10 mm in diameter, and are thought to represent remnants of phagosomes mineralized by iron and calcium deposits. M-G bodies are a pathognomonic feature of malakoplakia, a distinctive chronic inflammatory reaction that affects the genitourinary tract.
1
Malakoplakia
Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Nail patella syndrome
APKD
Pathology
Miscellaneous
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All passes through lesser sciatic foramen, except?
Inferior gluteal vessels
1
Inferior gluteal vessels
Internal pudendal vessels
Pudendal nerve
Nerve to obturator internus
Anatomy
null
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Most successful application of tumor markers
Answer: b) Effect of treatment and early detection( style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">)Tumor markers* Just an adjunct to diagnosis, and establishing a diagnosis on the basis of tumor markers alone (especially a single result) is associated with pitfalls because of the problem of non-specificity.* Clinical uses can be broadly classified into 4 groups: screening and early detection, diagnostic confirmation, prognosis and prediction of therapeutic response and monitoring disease and recurrence.* Serum levels, in certain situations, can be used in staging, prognostication or prediction of response to therapy.* Monitoring disease is, perhaps, the most common clinical use of serum tumor markers.* Rising trend in serum levels may detect recurrence of disease well before any clinical or radiological evidence of disease is apparent ("biochemical recurrence").
2
Screening in asymptomatic periodicity
Effect of treatment and early detection
Differentiating benign from malignant
Staging the extent of disease
Pathology
Neoplasia
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Which of the following statements i strue about bacteriophage
Bacteriophage is a type of virus that soecifically infects bacteria and fungi.
2
it is bacterium
Uit imparts toxigenicity to bacteria
It helps in transformation
It transfer only chromosomal gene
Microbiology
null
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In which of the following Mentalisation based therapy is used?
Ans. D. Borderline personality disorderMentalization-based treatment: psychotherapy for borderline personality disorder is called mentalization-based therapy (MBT). Mentalization is a social construct that allows a person to be attentive to the mental states of oneself and of others; it comes from a person's awareness of mental processes and subjective states that arise in interpersonal interactions. MBT is based on a theory that borderline personality symptoms, such as difficulty regulating emotions and managing impulsivity, are a result of patients' reduced capacities to mentalize. Thus, it is believed that recovery of mentalization helps patients build relationship skills as they learn to better regulate their thoughts and feelings. MBT was found to be effective for borderline personality disorder in several randomized, controlled research trials.
4
Antisocial personality disorder
Obsessive compulsive personality disorder
Avoidant personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder
Psychiatry
Personality Disorders
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Auditory hallucinations are seen in except:
Ans: D (Panic disorder) Ref: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry. 10th editionExplanation:Hallucination is a perceptual pathology where perception occurs without real, external stimuli/ objects. (The other is Illusion- where objects are present but perceived otherwise. E.g.. rope perceived as snake).The presence of hallucination is suggestive of psychosis.Psychotic Symptoms are:HallucinationsDelusionsExtreme excitementExtreme retardationPsychotic symptoms occurs in:DeliriumSchizophrenia, Acute and transient psychotic disorder. Psychosis (NOS)Mania, Severe depressionHallucinations occurs in several modalities:Visual (suggestive of organicity)Auditory (non-specific)Olfactory (suggestive of organicity)Gustatory (suggestive of epilepsy)Somatic (suggestive of schizophrenia)Pseudo-hallucinations- Which occurs in mind, not from outer space.Functional hallucinations- Hallucinations present only with real stimulus (but both are perceived differently at the same time e.g., tap water sound and voices).Causes of Auditory HallucinationsSchizophreniaPsychotic DisordersDelirium tremensMood DisordersIntense stressSleep deprivationHigh caffeine consumption
4
Schizophrenia
Acute and transient psychotic disorder
Delirium tremens
Panic disorder
Psychiatry
Schizophreniform Disorder
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Secondary deposits from prostatic carcinoma is commonest in
null
1
Bone
Kidney
Liver
Brain
Surgery
null
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All of the following are autosomal dominant disorder except?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is x linked recesive disorder.
3
Von hippel lindau disease
Achondroplasia
Duchenner muscular dystrophy
Multiple endocrine neoplasia
Pathology
null
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Which of the following is not a complication of helicobacter pylori
null
1
GERD
Peptic ulcer disease
Maltoma
Chronic gastritis
Surgery
null
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A 35-year old lady G4 P3 presents to the emergency dept. with amenorrhea of 12 weeks with excessive vomiting and bleeding per vaginum. On examination her pulse is 90/min., BP is 150/110 mm Hg, on PA examination uterus is of 20 wks size. Your most possible diagnosis is:-
The above given history is suggestive of molar pregnancy as: women have uterine growth that is more rapid than expected.(uterine size>POG) excessive nausea and vomiting are significant. on USG, snowstorm /honeycomb appearance is seen in molar pregnancy Gestational hypeension is characterized by hypeension after 20 weeks of pregnancy. Poly Hydramnios does not present at 12 weeks APH is Bleeding in the genital tract after 28 weeks
2
Gestational hypeension
Molar pregnancy
Poly-Hydramnios
Antepaum hemorrhage
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Obstetrics
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5-year old male child presented to AIIMS pediatrics OPD with severe transfusion requiring anemia and Jaundice. On examination Liver and spleen were palpable 5 cm below the costal margin. Peripheral smear analysis showed the following? What is your diagnosis?
Ans. (d) ThalassemiaSevere transfusion requiring anemia and Jaundice with smear showing Anisopoikilocytosis and targets on smear suggests Thalassemia.
4
Nutritional anemia
Aplastic anemia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Thalassemia
Pathology
Misc. (R.B.C)
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Alveoli are kept dry because of
Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted into the alveolar space by epithelial type II cells. The main function of surfactant is to lower the surface tension at the air/liquid interface within the alveoli of the lung. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 317,318,319
1
Surfactants
Glycorprotiens
Buffers Bohr's
Effect
Physiology
Respiratory system
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Gluten free diet is beneficial in -
<p>DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS Chronic intensely pruritic vesiculobullous disorder. Site- extremities and trunk Clinical features:- Intense episodic pruritus. Skin lesions- erythematous papules which rapidly turn into tiny firm grouped vesicles Vesicle rupture and crusted excoriated lesions seen. Disease worsens on dietary intake of gluten namely wheat barley and rye. Gluten sensitive enteropathy occurs in almost DH Cases. Usually it is asymptomatic, some show symptoms of malabsorption. So Gluten free diet is essential for DH Patients. {Reference: IADVL textbook of dermatology, vishalakshi Vishwanath pg no.285}</p>
3
Psoriasis
Exfoliative dermatitis
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Pemphigoid
Dental
Vestibulobullous disorders
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Positive zone of enamel caries is the:
The dark zone This lies adjacent and superficial to the translucent zone. It has been referred to as the ‘positive zone’ because it is usually present. This zone is formed as a result of demineralization and appears dark brown in ground sections examined by transmitted light after imbibition with quinolone.
2
Translucent zone
Dark zone
Body of the lesion
Surface zone
Pathology
null
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All are transmitted by blood except-
Epstein-Barr virus is acquired saliva,either by droplet infection or environmental contamination in childhood or by kissing among among adolescents & adults.Infections transmitted by blood include hepatitis (HBV,HCV), CMV infection,syphilis,malaria,toxoplasmosis,HIV infection.Reference :Davidson's principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 320.
3
Parvovirus B-19
Hepatitis B
Epstein Bar virus
Cytomegalovirus
Medicine
Haematology
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Referred otalgia from base of tongue or oropharynx is carried by nerve?
The Jacobson nerve, tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) directly innervates the ear but also has pharyngeal, lingual, and tonsillar branches to supply the posterior one-third poion of the tongue, tonsillar fossa, pharynx, eustachian tube, and parapharyngeal and retropharyngeal spaces. So any pathology involving those areas can lead to referred otalgia. Must know: Referred Otalgia: the source of the pain does not reside within the ear but, rather it originates from a source distant from the ear hence it is called as "referred otalgia". Any pathology residing within the sensory net of cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X and upper cervical nerves C2 and C3 can potentially cause referred otalgia.
3
Cranial nerve V
Cranial nerve VII
Cranial nerve IX
Cranial nerve X
Anatomy
null
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Palatoglossus is supplied by:
All intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve except palatoglossus which is supplied by cranial accessory nerve.
3
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Cranial accessory nerve
Mandibular nerve
Anatomy
null
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Soiling index is used to monitor:
Ans. (b) Air pollutionRef: Park 23rded. 1736Indicators of Air Pollution* Smoke or Soiling index: A known volume of air is filtered through a white filter paper under specified conditions and the stain is measured by photoelectric meter. Smoke concentration is estimated and expressed as micrograms/cubic metre of air as an average level over a period of time.* Sulphur dioxide This gas is a major contaminant in many urban and industrial areas. Its concentration is estimated in all air pollution surveys. So, it is the best indicator of air pollution* Grit and dust measurement: Deposit gauges collect grit, dust and other solids. There are analysed monthly.* Coefficient of haze: A factor used, particularly in the USA in assessing the amount of smoke or other aerosol in air.* Air pollution index: It is an arbitrary index which takes into account one or more pollutants as a measure of the severity of pollution
2
Water pollution
Air pollution
Soil pollution
All of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
Air
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An individual has been determined to have hypertriglyceridemia, with a triglyceride level of 350 mg/dL (normal is <150 mg/dL). The patient decides to reduce this level by keeping his caloric intake the same, but switching to a low-fat, low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. Three months later, after sticking faithfully to his diet, his triglyceride level was 375 mg/dL. This increase in lipid content is being caused by which component of his new diet?
Dietary glucose is the major source of carbon for synthesizing fatty acids in humans. In a high-carbohydrate diet, excess carbohydrates are converted to fat (fatty acids and glycerol) in the liver, packaged as VLDL, and sent into the circulation for storage in the fat cells. The new diet has reduced dietary lipids, which lower chylomicron levels, but the excess carbohydrate in the diet is leading to increased VLDL synthesis and elevated triglyceride levels. Dietary amino acids are usually incorporated into proteins, particularly in a low-protein diet.
4
Phospholipids
Triglycerides
Amino acids
Carbohydrates
Biochemistry
Lipids
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The following method of recording centric jaw relation has the advantage reproducilibility and cross verification
null
2
Tactile method
Nick and notch method
Needle house
Gothic arch tracing
Dental
null
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FALSE with respect to Progestase is
Progesterone IUD (Progestase) The veical shaft is fitted with a capsule containing 38 mg of progesterone dispensed in silicone oil. It delivers progesterone to the uterus at the rate of 65 micrograms/day. Though a few sources claim the effectiveness to be of 2 years, the US Food and Drug Administration (USFDA)-approved effective life is only 1 year. The contraceptive effectiveness of the progestase is similar to that of Cu IUDs; it reduces menstrual loss but has to be replaced every year and possibly increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy (as it decreases tubal motility).
3
It releases 65 mcg of progesterone per day
Effective life is 1 year
It is a subdermal implant
It reduces menstrual blood loss
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
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multi
A female patient presented with left iliac fossa pain for the past 6 months. On investigation, a 3 cm left renal pelvic stone was found with no hydroureteronephrosis, normal functioning kidneys on both sides and no distal obstruction. The ideal management would be
Ans. a. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
1
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)
Extra-corporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)
Laparoscopic nephrolithotomy
Medical dissolution therapy with oral potassium citrate
Surgery
null
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multi
Fatal close of potassium cyanide is?
200 mg REF: Textbook Of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology: Principles and Practice by Vij page 695 Fatal dose of cyanide: HCN gas - 100-200 ppm in air HCN liquid- 50-60 mg KCN, NaCN- 150-300 mg (200 mg as per Parikh)
4
5 mg
10 mg
20 mg
200 mg
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Most common uterine malformation associated with renal anomalies
Unicornuate uterus is seen in 1% cases; Due to failure of development of one mullerian duct or failure of migration to proper location Most commonly associated with abnormality of urinary tract anomaly usually of kidney It is diagnosed by absence of round ligament and fallopian tube on the opposite side Associated with Endometriosis, Early spontaneous aboions, Ectopic pregnancy, Preterm labour and Fetal growth resriction SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,PG NO:99,15th edition
2
Bicornuate
Unicornuate
Septate
Didelphys
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Congenital malformations
79e75dc7-5762-4840-8820-ec4efad4ac45
single
Following is transmitted as autosomal dominant disorder-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hereditary spherocytosis Hereditary spherocytosis is an autosomal dominant disorder. o Other three disorders (given in question) are autosomal recessive.
3
Albinism
Sickle cell anemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Glycogen storage disease
Pathology
null
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single
Hyperophy is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increase in cell size Hyperophy o Hyperophy refers to an increase in the size of cells without increase in the number, resulting in an increase in the size of tissue. o Hyperophy involves cell enlargement without cell division. o So, hyperophied organ has just larger cells, but no new cells (by contrast, in hyperplasia there is increase in number of new cells without increase in size). o Nuclei in hyperophied cells have a higher DNA content than in normal cells because the cells arrest in the cell cycle without undergoing mitosis. o Myocardium (hea muscle) and skeletal muscle undergo hyperophy. o The most common stimulus for hyperophy is increased workload. Mechanism of hyperophy o The increase in cell size is due to synthesis of more structural proteins. o The genes that are induced during hyperophy include those encoding transcription factors (C-fos, C-jun), growth factors (TGF-(3, TGF- 1, FGF); and vasoactive agents (a-agonists, endothelin-1, angiotensin II). o There may also be a switch of contractile proteins from adult to fetal or neonatal forms, e.g., during myocardial hyperophy, the a-myosin heavy chain is replaced by 13-form of the myosin heavy chain, which leads to decrease myosine ATPase activity and a slower, more energetically economical contraction. o In addition, some genes that are expressed only in embryonic life are re-expressed in hyperophied myocardium, e.g., in the embryonic hea, the gene for Atrial natriuratic peptide (ANP) is expressed in both atrium and ventricle. After bih, ventricular regulation of the gene is down regulated. Myocardial hyperophy is associated with reinduction of ANF gene expression. ANP induces salt excretion by kidney L blood volume & pressure, decrease work load. Why do these changes occur ? o As already explained, the most common stimulus for myocardial hyperophy is increased workload. o All the above morphological changes that occur in hyperophy either increase muscle activity (to handle the increased workload) or decrease the workload to hea.
3
Increase in cell number
Increase in cell size
Decrease in cell number
Decrease in cell size
Pathology
null
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single
All of the following are sources of vitamin A except:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sunflower seeds
3
Egg
Milk
Sunflower seeds
Tomato
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
U-serrated pattern in direct immunofluorescence is seen in:
Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita: Direct immunofluorescence shows, linear IgG, Ig A, Ig M at the basement-membrane zone with diagnostic U-serrated pattern. Patients' skin split through the lamina lucida with 1 mol/L salt demonstrates the IgG antibodies to be bound to the dermal aspect of the blister. N serrated pattern is seen in bullous pemphigoid. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition, Pg 40.53.
1
Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
Bullous pemphigoid
Linear IgA disease
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Skin
null
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single
Which of the following does not cause sideroblastic anemia?
Maturation Disorders: The presence of anemia with an inappropriately low reticulocyte production index, macro- or microcytosis on smear, and abnormal red cell indices suggests a maturation disorder. Maturation disorders are divided into two categories: nuclear maturation defects, associated with macrocytosis, and cytoplasmic maturation defects, associated with microcytosis and hypochromia usually from defects in hemoglobin synthesis.Nuclear maturation defects result from vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, drug damage, or myelodysplasia. Cytoplasmic maturation defects result from a severe iron deficiency or abnormalities in globin or heme synthesis.Acquired abnormalities are usually associated with myelodysplasia, may lead to either a macro- or microcytic anemia, and are frequently associated with mitochondrial iron loading. In these cases, iron is taken up by the mitochondria of the developing erythroid cell but not incorporated into heme. The iron-encrusted mitochondria surround the nucleus of the erythroid cell, forming a ring. Based on the distinctive finding of so-called ringed sideroblasts on the marrow iron stain, patients are diagnosed as having a sideroblastic anemia--almost always reflecting myelodysplasia.Ceain medications, such as isoniazid, L-dopa, penicillamine, and cycloserine, interact with PLP due to a reaction with carbonyl groups. Pyridoxine should be given concurrently with isoniazid to avoid neuropathy. Vitamin B6 dependency syndromes that require pharmacologic doses of vitamin B6 arerare; they include cystathionine b-synthase deficiency, pyridoxine-responsive (primarily sideroblastic) anemias, and gyrate atrophy with chorioretinal degeneration due to decreased activity of the mitochondrial enzyme ornithine aminotransferase. In these situations, 100-200 mg/d of oral vitamin B6 is required for treatment.Ref: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 77 Anemia and Polycythemia; Page no: 398
4
INH
L-DOPA
Myelodysplastic anemia
Mercury
Medicine
C.V.S
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All are true about poliovirus, except -
Poliovirus type 1 ia responsible for most epidemics of paralytic poliomyelitis. ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:490
3
Type I is responsible for most epidemics
Very difficult to eliminate Type I
Type I responsible for vaccine paralytic polio myelitis
Type I most commonly associated with paralysis
Microbiology
Virology
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multi
Hiatus semilunaris is present in
Middle meatus: Uncinate process is a hook-like structure running in from anterosuperior to the posteroinferior direction in the middle meatus. It&;s postero superior border is sharp and runs parallel to the anterior border of bulla ethmoidalis. This gap between the two is called hiatus semilunaris .it is two-dimensional space of 1-2 mm width. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat and head and neck surgery, Dhingra 7th edition, Pg no. 150)
2
superior meatus
Middle meatus
Inferior meatus
Sphenoethmoidal recess
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
4d230a88-42cb-498f-bae2-1699a666e077
single
A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. There is no obvious family history. ERG and EOG were observed to be normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Loss of central vision with a normal ERG and EOG is consistent with a diagnosis of Stargardt's disease. Stargardt's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder and hence a negative family history is not uncommon.
1
Stargardt's disease
Best's Vitelliform Dystrophy
Retinitis Pigmentosa
Cone- Rod Dystrophy
Ophthalmology
null
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single
All of the following are mediators of acute inflammation except:
Kallikreins like:- Bradykinin PGs Complement components are mediators of acute inflammation.
1
Angiotensin
Prostaglandin E2
Kallikrein
C3a
Pathology
Basic Concepts and Vascular changes of Acute Inflammation
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multi
Hamptoms Hump is seen in:
Ans. Pulmonary embolism
1
Pulmonary embolism
Tuberculosis
Bronchogenic Ca
Pneumonia
Radiology
null
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single
Oxygen affinity is increased by all of the following except:
B i.e. Hypoxia
2
Alkalosis
Hypoxia
Increased HbF
Hypothermia
Physiology
null
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multi
All of the following statements regarding branchial cysts are true except
.BRANCHIAL CYST It arises from the remnants of second branchial cleft. Normally 2nd, 3rd, 4th clefts disappear to form a smooth neck. Persistent 2nd cleft is called as cervical sinus which eventually gets sequestered to form branchial cyst. Features * Swelling in the neck beneath the anterior border of upper third of the sternomastoid muscle. It is smooth, soft, fluctuant, often transilluminant with a sensation of 'Half-filled double hot water bottle'. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 381
2
Seen in mediastinum
50-70% occur in lung
Are commonly infected
Multilocular
Surgery
Cardio thoracic surgery
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Contraindications to OC pills :
Ans is a, b, c all Hea disease; Liver failure; and Epilepsy disease and liver failure are absolute contraindications of OCP's whereas Epilepsy is relative contraindication of OCP's. OCP's are used for the management of Menorrhagia so menorrhagia is an indication for use of OCP's
4
Hea disease
Epilepsy
Liver failure
All
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Which of the following strength of xylocaine is used as topical anaesthetic for tonometry?
Schiotz tonometer is commonly used to measure IOP, it measures the depth of corneal indentation by the plunger while tonometer is loaded with a given weight. Before placing the plunger barrel of a tonometer on the cornea, 4% xylocaine is used to anaesthetise the cornea. Tonometry is the method of estimation of intraocular pressure. Applanation tonometry records the force necessary to flatten the cornea. It is based on the principle which states that the flattening of a sphere made by counter pressure is equal to hydraulic pressure inside the eyeball. Ref: Comprehensive Manual of Ophthalmology By Ahmed E page 116.
1
4% xylocaine
3% xylocaine
2% xylocaine
1% xylocaine
Ophthalmology
null
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single
All are components of Laurence Moon Biedl syndrome, EXCEPT -
In Lawrence Moon - Beidle syndrome the patient is obese, not asthenic Other features are - Mental retardation Retinitis pigmentosa Polydactyly Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (This causes Amenorrhoea)
2
Digital anomaly
Asthenic built
Mental retardation
Hypogonadism
Medicine
null
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multi
Which one of the following condition is not associated with cupping and fraying of metaphyses of long bones in children?
Cupping and fraying of metaphysis of long bones does not occur in lead poisoning. In lead poisoning bone changes become radiologically evident 3 months after chronic lead poisoning. Changes include dense metaphyseal bands exceeding coical density of same bone, found in growing skeleton. Interference with normal modeling may result in splaying of the metaphysis resulting in Erlenmeyer flask deformity. Ref: Bone and Joint Disorders By Francis A. Burgener, Mati Kormano, Tomi Pudas, 2nd Edition, Pages 316, 332; Radiology Review Manual By Wolfgang Dahne, 7th Edition, Page 159; Pediatric Endocrine Disorders By Desai, Meena P, Page 73.
2
Rickets
Lead poisoning
Metaphyseal dysplasia
Hypophosphatasia
Radiology
null
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single
Which of the following is an amine hormone?
Three general classes of hormone exist : ?1) Proteins and polypentideMost of hormones in the body are polypeptides and proteins. In general, polypeptides with 100 or more aminoacids are called proteins, and those with fewer than 100 amino acids are referred to as peptides.Proteins and peptide hormones are synthesized on the rough ER. They are usually synthesized first as larger proteins (precursors) that are not biologically active (preprohormone) and cleaved in the ER to form smaller prohormones. These are then transferred to the Golgi apparatus for packing into secretory vesicles. In this process, enzymes in the vesicles cleave the prohormones to produce smaller, biologically active hormones and inactive fragments. Vesicles are stored into cytoplasm and secretion of the hormones occur by exocytosis.The peptide/protein hormones are :?Hypothalamus :- Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), coicotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), Growth-hormone releasing hormone (GHRh), Growth hormone inhibitory hormone (GHIn), i.e., somatostatin, Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).Anterior pituitary :- Growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone (THS) or thyrotropin, adrenocoicotropin hormone (ACTH), prolactin, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), leutinizing hormone (LH).Posterior pituitary : - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/vasopressin, oxytocin.Thyroid gland : - CalcitoninPancreas : - Insulin, glucagon.Parathyroid : - ParathormonePlacenta : - Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), Human somatomammotropin.Kidney : - Renin, erythropoietinHea : - Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)Stomach : - GastrinSmall intestine : - Secretin, Cholecystokinin (CCK)Adipocytes : - LeptinAngiotensin IISome of these peptide hormones are glycoproteins, i.e., they have sugar associated with proteins. Glycoprotein hormones are FSH, LH, TSH, human chorionic gonadotropin, erythropoietin.2) Steroid hormonesThese hormones are synthesized from cholesterol. Once they are synthesized, they are simply diffuse across the cell membrane (because they are lipid soluble) and enter the interstitial fluid and then the blood. Thus, they are not stored.Steroid hormones are : ?Adrenal coex : - Coisol (Glucocoicoids), Aldosterone (mineralocoicoids).Gonads : - Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone.Kidney : - 1, 25 - Dihydroxycholecalciferol3) Amine hormonesThese hormones are derivatives of amino acid tyrosine. These hormones are :Thyroid gland : - Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3).Adrenal medulla : - Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline), Epinephrine (adrenaline)Hypothalamus : - Dopamine or Prolactin inhibiting factor (PIF)
2
TSH
T4
Insulin
FSH
Biochemistry
null
6620af95-9069-463d-8c51-a6222946a1bf
single
Heart failure cells are?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Macrophages o Heart failure cells are Hemosiderin laden alveolar macrophages.o Heart failure cells are a manifestation of pulmonary congestion and edema (as seen in heart failure)o Pulmonary edema & pulmonary infarction can be differentiated by the presence of heart failure cells in pulmonary edema.
2
Neutrophills
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
Lymphocytes
Pathology
C.V.S
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single
BETA-blockers are used in all, EXCEPT
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Variant angina [Ref: K.D.T. 5th/e page 127\We all know that attacks of variant angina occur due to coronary vasospasm.So, the drugs which relieve coronary vasospasms will used in variant angina (C.C.B.'S, Nitrates) b blockers are contraindicated in these patients because b blockers, instead of dilating the coronary arteries constrict the coronary arteries (due to unopposed a mediated constriction).Remember, b blockers are useful in classical angina. (They cause favourable redistribution of blood)Uses of b blocker: -HypertensionCardiac arrhythmiasMyocardial infarctionEssential tremorCHFGlaucomaDissecting aneurysmHOCMPheochromocytomaThyrotoxicosisAngina pectoris (classical)MigraineAnxiety
3
Hypertension
Thyrotoxicosis
Variant angina
All of the above
Pharmacology
Anti Adrenergic System
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multi
Which of the following vaccines has maximum efficacy after a single dose –
null
3
Tetanus toxoid
DPT
Measles
Typhoid
Pediatrics
null
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single
The Radiological hallmark of Osteo SA-
Ans. is 'b' i.e. sunray appearance .X-ray features of Osteosarcoma.Area of irregular destruction of metaphysesErosion of the overlying cortex.New bone formation in the matrix of the tumor*Periosteal reaction* (which is irregular; periosteal reaction in osteomyelitis is smooth)Codman's triangle*Sun-ray appearance*
2
Soap bubble appearance
Sun ray appearance
Osteoid formation by neoplastic cells
Cotton wool appearance
Radiology
Imaging of Musculoskeletal Tumors
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multi
The following is true of vancomycin EXCEPT :
null
2
It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria
It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis
It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis
It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity
Pharmacology
null
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multi
MAC of halothane is –
null
1
0.75%
1-2%
6%
2%
Anaesthesia
null
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single
The only medial branch of external carotid artery is -,
Only branch arises from medial side of ECA is ascending pharyngeal artery.
4
Lingual
Maxillary
Superior thyroid
Ascending pharyngeal
Anatomy
null
56dd3e3f-9f5d-4669-8000-e0ba5537ae68
single
All of the following statements about leptospirosis are true except -
null
3
Infection acquired by direct contact with infected urine
Mortality is 5-15% in severe cases
Antibodies are usually detectable in the first week
IV penicillin is recommended for treatment of severe cases
Microbiology
null
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multi
Saddleback/ biphasic fever is seen in: September 2004
Ans. B i.e. Dengue
2
Typhoid
Dengue
Brucellosis
Trench fever
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
2f61fd48-8583-4faa-a374-29964f1dfc4c
single
Increasing number of services in rural areas is a part of –
The first key principle in the primary health care strategy is equity or equitable distribution of health services. At present health services are mainly concentrated in the major towns and cities resulting in inequality of care to the people in rural areas. Primary health care aims to redress this imbalance by shifting the centre of gravity of the health care system from cities to rural areas and bring these services as near people's homes as possible.
2
Intersectoral coordination
Equitible distribution
Appropriate technology
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Through which of the following does glucose mediated insulin release occur?
Glucose-mediated insulin release occurs through ATP sensitive K+ channels. Increased blood glucose concentration is the primary controller of insulin secretion. Inside the beta cells, glucose is conveed to glucose-6-phosphate and later ATP is generated. This ATP closes ATP sensitive potassium channels, leading to rise in K+ and depolarisation. This in turn causes opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels and influx of Ca+. This ultimately leads to secretion of insulin exocytosis. Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 990
1
ATP sensitive K+ channels
cAMP
Carrier mediated
Receptor phosphorylation
Physiology
Endocrinology
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single
Most common primary intraocular neoplasm in a child is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Retinoblastoma
2
Metastasis
Retinoblastoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Ophthalmology
Intra Ocular Tumour
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single
All are principles of primary health care EXCEPT:
ANSWER: (D) Decentralised approachREF: Park 20th edition page 792Principles of primary health care:Equitable distributionCommunity participationIntersectoral coordination4. Appropriate technology
4
Intersectoral coordination
Community participation
Appropriate technology
Decentralised approach
Social & Preventive Medicine
Community Healthcare
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The following infection resembles malignancy ?
Ans. is 'b i.e., E. multilocularis The chief character of E. multilocularis cyst is its tendency to proliferate, thereby resembling a neoplasm.
2
Echinococcus granulosus
E. multilocularis
E.vogeli
E. oligahus
Microbiology
null
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single
Aedes agypti can fly -
The flight range of different mosquitoes: Anopheles - 3 to 5 km Culex - 11 km Aedes - 100 m REFERENCE: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 831
1
100 m
200 m
1000 m
3-5 km
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
56e2c7c0-ff2e-4304-acc9-ef64b0545c72
single
Which of the following is false about salmeterol: March 2010
Ans. C: Effective for acute asthmatic attacks Salmeterol is a first, long acting beta-adrenoceptor agonist (LABA), usually only prescribed for severe persistent asthma following previous treatment with a sho-acting beta agonist such as salbutamol. The primary noticeable difference of salmeterol to salbutamol is that the duration of action lasts approximately 12 hours in comparison with 4-6 hours of salbutamol. When used regularly every day as prescribed, inhaled salmeterol decreases the number and severity of asthma attacks. However, like all LABA medications, it is not for use for relieving an asthma attack that has already staed. Inhaled salmeterol works like other beta 2-agonists, causing bronchodilation by relaxing the smooth muscle in the airway so as to treat the exacerbation of asthma.
3
Regular use may worsen asthma
First long acting selective beta-2 agonist
Effective for acute asthmatic attacks
More beta-2 selective agonist than salbutamol
Pharmacology
null
4b4ebe10-3854-4223-b6a8-cc76e1465ebf
multi
A 30 year old male patient presented with anterior granulomatous uveitis, ahralgia and respiratory difficulties. Probable diagnosis is
A i.e. Ocular sarcoidosis - Bechet's syndrome and HLA B27 associated uveitis are ruled out as both are non granulomatous. Sarcoidosis may cause granulomatous pan-uveitis, periphlebitis (causing candle wax drippingsQ or en taches de bougie), pulmonary lesions (Vt progressive dyspnea, pulmonary HTN & cor pulmonary), skin lesions (erythema nodosum, lupus perniaQ granulomatous deposits), neuropathy, ahritis/ ahralgiaQ (typically symmetrical, involving both large & small joints), bone cysts & renal /liver / lymph node disease.
1
Ocular sarcoidosis
TB
Behcet's syndrome
HLA B27 Uveitis
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Most common cause of Budd Chiari syndrome is -
null
4
Idiopathic
Valves in hepatic veins
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Thrombosis of hepatic veins
Medicine
null
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single
Neostigmine is used for reversing the adverse effect of:
A i.e. dTC + Pancuronium As d-TC & Panduronium, both are non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, so neostigmine is used to reverse the drugs.
1
dTC + pancuronium
d TC only
Alcuronium only
Ketamine complication
Anaesthesia
null
294248b5-9a39-4827-ba10-747b6fd3ccb0
single
Sensory neural deafness associated with hereditary nephritis is seen in
Clinically patients with Alpos syndrome develop hematuria, thinning and splitting of GBM's,mild proteinuria (<1-2g/24hrs) which appears late in the course followed by chronic glomerulosclerosis leading to renal failure associated with sensorineural deafness. There r four forms of alpos syndrome Type 1 classic As -x linked disorder with Hematuria,sensorineural deafness ,lenticonus Type 2-x linked form associated with diffuse leiomymomatosis T3 -autosomal recessive ,T4autosomal dominant -both forms can cause renal disease without deafness or lenticonus. Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 2146,2977
4
Fanconi syndrome
Berger's disease
Albright syndrome
Alpo's syndrome
Medicine
Kidney
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single
A rubber industry worker presents with abdominal colic and severe anemi His blood examination reveals basophilic stippling of RBCs and microcytic anemi What is the likely diagnosis?
null
3
Radiation effects
Benzene poisoning
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anemia
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Harakari practiced in Japan is
Harakari practiced in Japan is suicidal stab injury. It is a form of ritual suicide by disembowelment.
2
Homicidal stab injury
Suicidal stab injury
Judicial hanging method
Suicidal hanging
Forensic Medicine
null
1006e103-eab6-4d8e-8902-2ddeb7fd7f92
single
Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Median nerve f Ref: Basics of orthopaedics 2nd/e p. 718]Carpal tunnel syndromeo Carpal tunnel syndrome is the most common and widely known entrapment neuropathy in which the body's peripheral nerve is compressed or traumatized. Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed in the carpal tunnel below flexor retinaculum. The carpal tunnel is a narrow rigid passage way of ligament and bones at the base of hand, in front of distal part of wrist. Carpal tunnel houses the median nerve and 9 tendons (4 FDS, 4 FDP & FPL).Causes of carpal tunnel syndromeo There are many causes of carpal tunnel syndrome : -Idiopathic : - This is the most common cause.Pregnancy and menopauseMetabolic : - Gout, Diabetes mellitus4} Endocrine : - Hypothyroidism, Myxedema, Acromegaly, Hyperparathyroidism.Deposition disorder Amyloidosis, Sarcoidosis, Rheumatid arthritis, Leukemia, CRF, Nlucopoly saccharoidosis.AlcoholismLocal causes : - Malunited colie's fracture, osteo-arthritis of the carpal bones, synovitits of flexor tendon sheath, hematoma.Clinical features of carpal tunnel syndromeo Carpal tunnel syndrome is more common in women and occurs between 35-50years.o Symptoms usually start gradually, writh frequent burning, tingling,paresthesia and numbness in the distribution of median nerve, i.e., lateral three & half of fingers and lateral 2/3rd of palm,o The symptoms often first appear during night, since many people sleep with flexed wrists. (Flexion decreases the space in carpal tunnel which results in increased pressure over median nerve),o Sensory symptoms can often be reproduced by percussing over median nerve (Tinel's sign) or by holding the wrist fully flexed for a minute (Pltalen's test).o As the disease progresses, clumsiness of hand and impairment of digital function develop,o Later in the disease, there is sensory loss in median nerve distribution and obvious wasting of thenar eminence.Clinical Tests for Carpal tunnel syndromeo There are some provocative tests which act as important screening methods : -Wrist flexion (Phalen's test) : - The patient is asked to actively place the wrist in complete flexion. If tingling and numbness develop in the distribution of median nerve, the test is positive. This is the most sensitive provocative testTourniquet test : - A pneumatic BP cuff is applied proximal to the elbow' and inflated higher than the patient's systolic BP. The test is positive if there is paresthesia or numbness in the region of median nerve distribution in hand.Median nerve percussion test (Ttnel's sign) : - The median nerv e is gently tapped at the wrist. The test is positive if there is tingling sensation.;Median nerve compression test: - Direct pressure is exerted equally over both wrists by the examiner. If symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome appear, the test is positive.
1
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Axillary nerve
Orthopaedics
Peripheral Nerve Injuries
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Which of the following tuberculoides is characterized by involvement of sweat glands & hair follicle with non caseating epithelioid granuloma?
Ans. A. lichen scrofulosorumHistopathology of Lichen scrofulosorum shows hair follicle infiltrated with mononuclear cells and occasional epithelioid cells, and upper dermal granuloma formed by mononuclear cells and epithelioid cells. Ziehl-Neelsen may demonstrate AFB.
1
Lichen scrofulosorum
Miliary tuberculosis
Papulonecrotic tuberculide
Lupus vulgaris
Skin
Bacterial Infection of Skin
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Which of the following doesn't cause urethritis in males?
H. Ducreyi causes soft chancre/ chancroid. It doesn't cause urethritis in males. Infectious cause of urethritis- Neisseria gonorrhea Chlamydia trachomatis Trichomonas vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalum HSV Adenovirus Ureaplasma urealyticum
1
H. Ducreyi
Trichomonas vaginalis
N. Gonorrhoea
Chlamydia trachomatis
Dental
NEET Jan 2020
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Following is are the clinical feature's of lepromatous leprosy
Important clinical features oflepromatous leprosy Diffuse erythema, ngling, nasal stuffiness or ep is tax is are earliest manifestations. Nodules with predelicon for external ears, Madarosis (loss of eyelashes and eye brow s), Saddle nose (Collapse of nasal bridge) and perforation of palate. Testicular involvement results in loss of tescular sensaon, loss of libido, impotence & gynaecomasa. o Leonine face (Diffuse dermal infiltraon of face). Symmetrical thickening of peripheral nerve.? Trophic ulcer/neuropathic ulcer/Performing ulcer develop frequently in lepromatous leprosy because sensory impairment appears before motor weakness and the parent continues to misuse his hands and feet, Systemic involvementLymphadenopathy, Hepatomegaly, ocular i
4
Leonine facies
Loss of libido and impotence
Saddle nose
All the above
Dental
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Co-efficient of thermal expansion is highest for:
null
4
Amalgam
Silicate cement
Gold alloy
Acrylic resin
Dental
null
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A person can give valid consent for routine clinical examination if he is above the minimum age of
Section 90 in The Indian Penal Code "Consent known to be given under fear or misconception.--A consent is not such a consent as it intended by any section of this Code, if the consent is given by a person under fear of injury, or under a misconception of fact, and if the person doing the act knows, or has reason to believe, that the consent was given in consequence of such fear or misconception; or Consent of insane person.--if the consent is given by a person who, from unsoundness of mind, or intoxication, is unable to understand the nature and consequence of that to which he gives his consent; or Consent of child.--unless the contrary appears from the context, if the consent is given by a person who is under twelve years of age." Ref - Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg - 370 , 421
1
12 years
16 years
18 years
21 years
Forensic Medicine
Identification
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Which of the following is the FAD-linked dehydrogenase of TCA cycle?
Ans. c)Succinate dehydrogenase is the only 1 FAD-linked dehydrogenase in TCA cycle
3
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Malate dehydrogenase
Succinate dehydrogenase
a ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Biochemistry
TCA Cycle
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Human growth hormone has:
Ans. B. One polypeptide chain and two intra chaindisulphide bondGrowth hormone or somatotrophin consists of a single polypeptide with a molecular weight of about 21500. It consists of 191 amino acids. There are two disulfide bridges between the adjacent cysteine residues. GH brings about positive nitrogen balance by retaining nitrogen.
2
One polypeptide chain and one intra chaindisulphide bond
One polypeptide chain and two intra chaindisulphide bond
Two polypeptide chains joined by onedisulphide bond
Two polypeptide chains joined by twodisulphide bond
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry)
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Pericardial effusion is best diagnosed by: September 2004
Ans. D i.e. Echocardiography
4
USG
Angiography
Gallium scan
Echocardiography
Radiology
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Aims of abbreviated laparotomy
null
4
Decreased chance of infection
Early ambulation
Early wound healing
Hemostasis
Surgery
null
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Hinge fracture is seen in
Skull base fractures Anteruor cranial fossa Subconjunctival hematoma CSF Rhinorrhea Carotico-cavernous fistula Periorbital hematoma or "Raccoon eyes" Middle cranial fossa fracture CSF otorrhea Hemotympanum Ossicular disruption Battle sign : Bruising behind the ear 7th and 8th cranial nerve palsies Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 333
3
Vault
Ant cranial fossa
Middle cranial fossa
Posterior cranial fossa
Surgery
Trauma
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Skin flap is used in all except -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Burn wound
3
Bone
Tendon
Burn wound
Cailage
Surgery
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