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b4c3fa06-01fe-4c3c-8521-25299a221d43
Most effective method of assessing breathing is by measuring:
Tidal volume
Respiratory rate
Alveolar ventilation
FEV 1
3
single
null
Physiology
null
3b150083-1a5e-49ef-bc36-41a06b677b32
Major aim of phase 1 clinical trials is:
Safety
Efficacy
Dose
Pharmacokinetics
2
single
Phase 1 clinical trial : It is first phase in humans. It is conducted mainly on healthy volunteers. In drugs with serious adverse effects and where alternative treatment is not available, phase 1 can be conducted on patients also. Major aim is to know the maximum tolerable dose (MTD). The aim of phase 1 trials should be marked as MTD > Dose > Pharmacokinetics > Safety
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
fe1ce20a-009c-45a2-8279-bff1d2e4abcf
The blood pressure data of 200 persons were collected. The first quaile BP of the data was 94 mm Hg and third quaile was 110 mm. How many patients have blood pressures between the 3rd and 4th quaile?
25
50
100
200
1
single
Ans: B. 50Quaile:Type of quantile.In descriptive statistics - Quailes are ranked set of data values.Are 3 points dividing data set into four equal groups.Each group comprising quaer of data.1stquaile (Q1):25' percentile (splits off lowest 25% of data from highest 75%).2ndquaile (Q2):50' percentile (cuts data set in half).3rdquaile (Q3):75" percentile (splits off highest 25% of data from lowest 75%).Interquaile range (IQR):Difference between upper & lower quailes.IQR = Q3 - Q1.Per question:Between every two quailes one/ fouh of total number of patients present.I.e. 200/4 = 50 patients.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b687604e-5145-4aa3-ba07-56c624e501ec
Which of the following defines the pressure in the vascular system in the absence of blood flow? (Asked twice)
Pulse pressure
Critical closing pressure
Mean circulatory filling pressure
Perfusion pressure
2
single
Answer- C. Mean circulatory filling pressureMean Circulatory Filling pressure (MCFP) is equilibrium pressure that is reached throughout the cardiovascular system when cardiac output is stopped completely. MCFP can be measured by stopping blood flow (e.g., by stopping hea pumping by giving shock to hea with electricity) and allowing the pressure throughout the circulatory system to reach equilibrium. MCFP is equilibrium pressure everywhere in circulation.
Physiology
null
e5e1f694-5bce-4ea7-8d47-b629076533e1
Best parameter for ultrasound evaluation of IUGR is:
Placental membrane
Length of femur
Abdominal circumference
BPD
2
single
“Abdominal circumfernece (AC) is the single most sensitive parameter to detect IUGR. Serial measurements of AC and estimations of fetal weight are more diagnostic to fetal growth restriction.” Dutta 7/e, p 463 “The biometric parameters, AC is most affected by fetal growth” Williams 24/e, p 199
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
73818dbb-2bd3-4c46-a06a-b18b6ddb5450
According to WHO classification of periapical pathology, sinus to oral cavity comes under:
4.6
4.6
4.61
4.62
3
single
null
Dental
null
790947ee-b119-4f1f-ac07-8f0c5a701010
In a child, surgery was done for biliary stricture with hepatojejunal anastomosis. Postoperative bilirubin level after 2 weeks was 6 mg/dL from a preoperative level 12mg/dL. The reason for this could be:
Normal lowering of bilirubin takes time
Anastomotic stricture
Delta bilirubin
Mistake in lab technique
2
single
Ans: C. Delta bilirubin(Ref Harrison 19/e p280, 18/e p325)Delta Bilirubin:Albumin-linked bilirubin fraction (delta fraction/biliprotein)Is pa of direct-reacting bilirubin fraction including conjugated bilirubin, covalently linked to albumin.Represents an impoant fraction of total serum bilirubin in patients with cholestasis & hepatobiliary disorders.Clearance rate of albumin-bound bilirubin from serum approximates half-life of albumin (12-14 days) rather than sho half-life of bilirubin (4 hours).Due to tight albumin bonding.
Pediatrics
null
8d0b854f-93fb-43ae-a1b9-d489ea68103b
A 2 month old girl has failure to thrive, polyuria and medullary nephrocalcinosis affecting both kidneys. Investigations show blood pH 7.48, bicarbonate 25 mEq/l, potassium 2 mEq/l, sodium 126 mEq/l and chloride 88 mEq/l. The most likely diagnosis is -
Distal renal tubular acidosis
Primary hyperaldosteronism
Bartter syndrome
Pseudohypoaldosteronism
2
multi
Clinical features of the infant --> Polyuria, Growth retardation, Medullary Nephrocalcinosis Electrolyte abnormalities: - Decreased potassium (Normal 3.5 — 5.0 meq/L)                 o Normal Bicarbonate (Normal 21-30 meq/L) Decreased sodium (Normal 136 — 145 ineq/L)                    o Increased pH (Normal 7.38 — 7.44 meq/L) Decreased Chloride (Normal 98 — 106 meq/L) C/F and electrolyte abnormalities in Bartter's syndrome a Hypokalemia                                o Polyurea and Nocturea (d/t hypokalemia) Metabolic alkalosis                    ❑ Increased urinary chloride (cause Hypochloremia) Normal to low blood pressure o Hypomagnesemia (seen in minority of patient) Growth retardation                    o Hypercalciurea (causes nephrocalcinosis which is visible on ultrasound) Other options Distal renal tubular acidosis      - It can be easily ruled out as it causes acidosis not alkalosis Primary hyperaldosteronism - In primary hyperaldosteronism, Sodium level is always increased and the B.F. is high. Pseudo hypoaldosteronism             - Aldosterone level is normal or increased but there are features of aldosterone deficiency such as decreased sodium and increased potassium.
Pediatrics
null
6eb7d429-53f8-4d51-b861-81ab063b0973
Resin teeth:
Show a high compressive strength
Contraindicated in patients with decreased inter occlusal distance
Show crazing
Show a high fracture strength
3
single
null
Dental
null
3084edf2-d176-43aa-87f4-412ea4098b47
In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows:March 2005
Increased HbF and normal HbA2
Normal HbF and normal HbA2
Normal HbF and decreased HbA2
Decreased HbF and normal HbA2
1
single
Ans. B: Normal HbF and normal HbA2Alpha (0) thalassemia -Individuals with this disorder are not able to produce any functional alpha-globin and thus are unable to make any functional hemoglobin A, F, or A2. This leads to the development of hydrops fetalis, also known as hemoglobin Ba, a condition that is incompatible with extra uterine life.Alpha (+) thalassemia - genetic mutations that result in decreased production of alpha-globin usually due to the functional deletion of 1 of the 4 alpha globin genes. Based on the number of inherited alpha genes, it is subclassified into 3 general forms:Thalassemia (-u/ a a) is characterized by inheritance of 3 normal a-genes. These patients are referred to clinically as silent carrier of alpha thalassemia. Other names for this condition are alpha thalassemia minima, alpha thalassemia-2 trait, and heterozygosity for alpha (+) thalassemia minor. The affected individuals exhibit no abnormality clinically and may be hematologically normal or have mild reductions in red cell mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH).Inheritance of 2 normal alpha genes due to either heterozygosity for alpha (0) thalassemia (u a/ --) or homozygosity for alpha (+) thalassemia (-u/-a) results in the development of alpha thalassemia minor or alpha thalassemia-1 trait. The affected individuals are clinically normal but frequently have minimal anemia and reduced mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH).Inheritance of one normal alpha gene (-a/ --) results in abundant formation of hemoglobin H. This condition is known as ElbH disease. The affected individuals have moderate to severe lifelong hemolytic anemia, modest degrees of ineffective erythropoiesis, splenomegaly and variable bony changesPersons with alpha-thalassemia traits have normal HbA2 and HbF levels whereas beta- thalassemia patients have elevated HbA2
Medicine
null
362a094c-f1d9-4faa-97ab-48242be3dd4b
Zone of stimulation contains all except:
Fibroblasts
Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts
New bone formation
1
multi
The reaction of the periradicular tissues to noxious products of tissue necrosis, bacterial products and antigenic agents from the root canal has been described by Fish. The four zones  Zone of infection Zone of contamination Zone of irritation Zone of stimulation Zone of Infection: This is present in the center of the lesion. It is characterized by PMNL's. Zone of Contamination: It is characterized by round cell infiltration. It demonstrates cellular destruction due to toxins from the central zone or zone of infection. Because of autolysis and death of bone cells, the lacunae were empty. Lymphocytes are prevalent everywhere. Zone of Irritation: This zone is characterized by macrophages and osteoclasts. The collagen framework was digested by phagocytic cells, the macrophages, while osteoclasts attacked the bone tissue. This opens a gap in the bone all around the center of lesion. That space becomes filled with PMNL's. This zone demonstrates much activity preparatory to repair. Zone of Stimulation: (Peripheral zone) This zone is characterized by fibroblasts and osteoblasts. In this zone, the effects of toxins were mild enough to be stimulant which results in laying down of collagen fibers around the zone of irritation that acts both as a wall of defense and as a scaffolding on which the osteoblasts built new bone. This new bone was built in an irregular fashion.
Dental
null
00667233-3ef5-4759-bac2-850f41c6cdfc
Minimum number of lobes require to form a tooth
1
2
3
4
0
single
null
Dental
null
e6b676f8-26ba-42f6-9bd2-739abf1c039a
In the odontoblastic layer the following connections is/are found
Zona adherens
Gap junctions
Zonula occludens
All of the above
3
multi
null
Dental
null
e6478418-d6bb-47d3-b31c-a19b3a149a6c
All are features of Neonatal Tetanus except –
Refusal to feed is common initial symptom
Caused by clostridium tetani
Usually occurs in 1st 2 days of life
Mortality is 50–75%.
2
multi
Neonatal Tetanus It is caused by clostridium tetani Clinical features Symptoms of neonatal tetanus starts by 5-15 days after birth, never in the first 2 days of life and rarely after the age of 2 weeks. (ft is commonly k/a as 811! day disease) Common initial symptoms are Excessive unexplained crying, Refusal of feeds, Apathy Prognosis —> Mortality rate varies from 50-75%.
Pediatrics
null
070ff387-f612-43ac-a23e-ab3e8ed192b4
In assessing infant deaths, Ploucquet's test involves:
Change in specific gravity of lungs
Presence of air in stomach and duodenum
Change in paial weight of lungs
Air in middle ear
2
single
Ans: C. Change in paial weight of lungs(Ref: Reddy 34/e p411, 33/e p439).In assessing infant deaths, Ploucquet's test involves change in paial weight of lungs.Ploucquet's test:The blood flow in the lung beds is so increased after breathing that their weight is almost doubled from 1/70 of the body weight before respiration to 1/35 after respiration.This increase in weight is not constant and is not a reliable indication of breathing.
Forensic Medicine
null
0ada062a-c400-4012-af5e-31144ba41401
Scammon's growth curve. False is
Neural tissues-Most of the growth is completed by 6 years
Lymphoid tissues — growth reaches 200% by age 13 and regresses afterwards
Genital tissues — most of the growth is completed by the age of puberty
None of the above
2
multi
null
Dental
null
c0ed32bb-dbf2-4184-91f0-ee93c27f119f
The transport of CO is diffusion limited because
Binds avidly with Hb
Partial pressure of CO is less
CO is less absorbed in water
Alveolar membrane is less permeable
0
single
null
Physiology
null
81ba27b9-0517-444f-b592-db6a7f23c69c
Acetazolamide is given to a patient of angle closure glaucoma. It is a non-competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase enzyme. Which of the following should be the effect of this drug?
Decrease in Vmax
A.Decrease in Km
Increase in both Km and Vmax
No change in Vmax
0
multi
* Enzyme inhibition is of 3 types: Type of inhibition Km Vmax Competitive inhibition Increases No change Non competitive inhibition No change Decreases Uncompetitive inhibition Decreases Decreases * In question non competitive inhibitor is given, so answer is decrease in Vmax.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
b28a6de3-cbe2-44a2-b75c-607baefacc05
All are true about rapid sequence induction done in a cardiac patient in emergency except:
Inducing agent and neuromuscular relaxant are administered together
The patient is pre-oxygenated for 3 minutes before the procedure
Cricoid pressure has to be applied till the endotracheal tube has been secured with a cuff
Induction should be done with thiopentone sodium and succinylcholine for muscle relaxation
3
multi
Ans: D. Induction should be done with thiopentone sodium and succinylcholine for muscle relaxation(Ref Miller 7/e p34, 887)Thiopentone induction is contraindicated in cardiac patients because of direct negative inotropic effects on the hea and depressant effects on systemic BR.Etomidate is the preferred induction agent in such a patient.
Anaesthesia
null
b0060b73-4e6b-4537-a556-c1fb94a65c4a
A 25-year-old lady presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light. Rest of the examination including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus are normal. She was able to touch the tips of her fingers with her right eye closed but not with her left eye closed. The most like1 tgnosis is:
Optic neuritis
Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
CMV retinitis
Functional vision loss
3
single
Ans. d. Functional vision loss (Ref Kanski 6/e p 477, 790, 792-793)The most likely diagnosis in this young lady who presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light and normal examination findings including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus, who is able to touch tips of her finger with right eye closed but not with left eye closed, is functional vision loss.
Ophthalmology
null
624cf635-1421-416e-978a-996781f350c0
A 60-year old male presents with painful, 141 oupet. vesicles over erythematous plaques in T3 dermatome region of trunk. Which of the following would be the most likely causative organism?
Varicella zoster
Herpes simplex
Pox virus
Papilloma virus
0
single
Ans. a. Varicella zosterA 60-year-old male presents with painful, grouped vesicles over erythematous plaques in T dermatome region of trunk. Varicella zoster is the most likely causative organism.
ENT
null
e7278113-c555-4128-a8df-cbd10ca7833f
A patient is administered 200 mg of a drug. 75 mg of the drug is eliminated from the body in 90 minutes. If the drug follows first order kinetics, how much drug will remain after 6 hours?
12.5 mg
25 mg
30 mg
50 mg
2
single
Answer- C. 30 mgDrug remains in the body at the end of 4th 90 minutes (6 hours) : 48.7 -18.3 = 30.4 (Approx. 30 mg)
Pharmacology
null
bfc8d03e-6a47-44af-8883-a2786a23da19
The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is
Anaphylactic shock
Diarrhoea
Oral candidiasis
Renal failure
1
single
null
Pharmacology
null
a5d733b4-18d3-468c-8aaa-bbcb66cbb07e
Adverse effects of salbutamol are all except
Tremors
Tachycardia
Hypoglycemia
Hypokalemia
2
multi
Salbutamol is a beta 2 agonist. Adverse effects of beta 2 agonists: Tremors Tachycardia Tolerance Hypokalemia (by enhancing potassium uptake into muscles) Hypoxia Hyperglycemia (by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis) Note: Tolerance occurs to only long acting beta 2 agonists .
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
32cf44b6-600a-4ea1-ab8a-15696485643e
Most common extraradicular microorganism is/ are:
Actinomyces species.
Propioni bacterium.
Propionicum.
All of the above.
3
multi
null
Dental
null
0545a2b0-b535-46ee-843b-a8adf5c97c40
Ludwig's angina is characterized by
Raised tongue
Elevation of ear lobe
Trismus
Unilateral swelling
0
single
null
Surgery
null
b21a38b8-c966-425a-a140-9ff775745931
Least condensation pressure is required in:
Spherical amalgam alloy, high copper
Admixed amalgam alloy, high copper
Admixed amalgam alloy, low copper
Lathe cut alloy
0
multi
A spherical amalgam contains small, round alloy particles that are mixed with mercury to form the mass that is placed into the tooth preparation. Because of the shape of the particles, the material is condensed into the tooth preparation with little condensation pressure. This advantage is combined with its high early strength to provide a material that is well suited for very large amalgam restorations, such as complex amalgams or foundations. Sturdevant ed 4 pg 654
Dental
null
6506849d-8885-4adf-88b7-4e010e026d6c
Denominator in perinatal moality rate
Total bihs
Total live bihs
Live bihs + Still bih
Total number of newborns
0
single
Ans: A. Total bihs* PERINATAL MOALITY RATE is the sum of the number of resident fetal deaths of 28 or more weeks gestation plus the number of resident newborns dying under 7 days of age in a specified geographic area (country, state, county, etc.) divided by TOTAL BIHS includes the sum of the number of resident live bihs plus the number of resident fetal deaths of 28 or more weeks gestation for the same geographic area (for a specified time period, usually a calendar year) and multiplied by 1,000.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
769b87a2-ecb8-4508-82d5-4fde94fa7f60
A child spends 8 years of life in a temperate climate where the drinking water had fluoride of 3 ppm. The teeth that are effected are:
All primary teeth
All permanent teeth, except third molars
Incisors, canines, premolars and third molars
Only molars
1
multi
Enamel fluorosis is a developmental phenomenon due to excessive fluoride ingestion during amelogenesis. Once the crowns of the teeth are formed, no further fluorosis can be induced by additional intake of fluoride or by posteruptive topical applications of fluoride.
Dental
null
2cc9a274-380c-4a8e-b2b6-6c8ae412c55b
The ideal instrument that is used to widen the canal is
Broach
File
Fissure bur
Reamer
1
single
null
Dental
null
1d7028cb-08b7-422e-8feb-26392e8f97dc
According to instrument formula given by G.V. Black, primary cutting edge angle should be:
More than 50 degree
More than 90 degree
Less than 50 degree
Less than 90 degree
0
single
The second number of a four-number code indicates the primary cutting edge angle, measured from a line parallel to the long axis of the instrument handle in clockwise centigrade. The centigrade angle is expressed as a percent of 360 degrees (e.g., 85 = 85% × 360 degrees = 306 degrees). The instrument is positioned so that this number always exceeds 50. Sturdevants operative dentistry 7th edition page e2
Dental
null
71166b66-1d91-490c-8bf2-ff1a44fc6ba5
Which of the following is not true for incubation period?
For determining isolation period of a disease
To prevent infection among contacts
For quarantine of disease
To differentiate among secondary cases and co-primary cases
0
multi
null
Dental
null
9663a6e9-55d1-4a7e-8af9-556a6478688d
Treatment of ANUG utilizes all except:
Debridement
Oral hygiene
Penicillin
Topical steroid
3
multi
null
Dental
null
46fe2094-87db-4117-b06f-7a7bebb94646
Median rhomboid glossitis is associated with:
Burning mouth syndrome
Fungal infection
Bacterial infection
Absence of filiform papillae
3
single
null
Pathology
null
e4749151-5d65-4cf3-b663-67e75d1da084
A young male present with loose motions and intermittent abdominal pain over the past 1 year. Wet mount stool specimen showed the presence of multiple ova which are more than 100u in diameter. The causative organisms for the disease shall not include?
Fasciola gigantica
Gastrodiscoides hominis
Echinostoma ilocanum
Opisthorchis viverrini
3
multi
null
Microbiology
null
81a24a92-4459-4999-9c49-6ee91a6182a3
Concentric teeth bite mark on forearm, what to do next?
2 swab technique for saliva collection
Keep scale for measuring below the mark and take photo in the plane of bite
Complete description of injury as seen
Prepare cast using vinyl polysiloxane
2
single
Ans: C. Complete description of injury as seenRef KSN Reddy's The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 33' edn; Page no. 97Impoant: The order of Bite mark investigation: C > B > A> DBite Mark InvestigationComplete description of injury as seenPhotograph: Keep scale for measuring below the mark and take photo from different angle.Swabbing of saliva: To identify or exclude assailant from secretor status who exude blood group substance in the saliva.Impression of bite mark: Plastic substance (rubber or silicone based) or plaster of Paris is laid over the bite mark that hardens and produces permanent negative cast of the lesion.Skin carrying the bite is removed and preserved in formalin during autopsy.
Forensic Medicine
null
36eda6ec-6654-41ba-937b-60a3052e6c49
A patient believes he is the most impoant person in the world than anyone so his neighbors and family is trying to harm him as they are jealous of him. His wife says otherwise and says he behaves like this recently only before he was working as a school-teacher peacefully and brought to OPD. He is suffering from:
Delusion of grandiosity
Delusion of persecution
Delusion of grandiosity and persecution
Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference
3
single
Ans. d. Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference The given description suggests that the patient is having delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference.Delusion of grandeurExaggerated conception of one's impoance, power, or identity.Delusion of persecutionFalse belief of being harassed or persecuted; often found in litigious patients who have a pathological tendency to take legal action because of imagined mistreatment.MC delusion.Delusion of referenceFalse belief that behavior of others refers to oneself or that events, objects, or other people have a paicular & unusual significance, usually of a negative natureDerived from idea of reference, in which persons falsely feel that others are talking about them (e.g., belief that people on television or radio are talking to or about the person).
Psychiatry
null
cc956481-f985-449c-ac18-22c7109b641b
Measuring variation between two different units is done through
Variance
Standard deviation
Coefficient of variation
Range
2
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
e8aa61af-a6f5-49ed-a221-93765caf901f
Which of the following diseases is diagnosed with the help of the flowcytometry pattern?
Bruton disease
Bare lymphocyte syndrome
Hyper IgM syndrome
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
2
single
Flow cytometry can rapidly and quantitatively measure several individual cell characteristics, but is mainly used to identify cellular antigens expressed by liquidtumors , those that arise from blood forming tissues. Hyper IgM syndrome - In this disorder the affected patients make IgM antibodies but are deficient in their ability to produce IgG, IgA and IgE antibodies. There is problem in Ig class switching. Approximately 70%of individuals with hyper lgM syndrome have the X linked form of the disease , caused by mutations in the gene coding CD40L located on Xq26. In remaining patients,the disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Most of these patients have loss of function mutation involving either CD40 or enzyme called AID. So, B-cells can be detected by flowcytometryhaving low expression of CD40. Bruton's disease -In this disease, there is defect in B-cell tyrosine kinase enzyme. This leads to hypogammaglobulinemia. Bare lymphocyte syndrome- In this disorder, There is defect in MHC-2 molecule which is required for CD4 T-cell formation. SCID - This is both X-linked and autosomal recessive disorder.
Pathology
AIIMS 2019
93b48788-a643-45c3-ad41-304738ff6f55
Best indicator of developing cardiovascular disease is
LDL cholesterol level more than 120 mg/dl
History of salt intake of more than 6 gm/day
LDL/HDL ratio
All of the above
2
multi
null
Medicine
null
e9adae98-f03e-4451-bd05-750e85d15ca2
Pulp proper contains
Large Blood vessels
Nerve fibers
Fibroblasts
All of the above
3
multi
null
Dental
null
79c95aee-a0ff-4f7a-8a3f-2228f0ca66ce
Which of the following is used as a bio-degradable membrane in "guided tissue regeneration" process?
Polylactic acid
Poly tetrafluoroethylene
Millipore
Core membrane
0
single
null
Dental
null
f1586168-b5a9-4b50-acf4-f0575cfb10ea
Pulmonary-renal syndromes include-
Goodpasture
Leptospirosis
Hantavirus and Wegner's
All
3
multi
Answer-D. AllPulmonary-renal syndromes are most commonly caused by an underlying autoimmune disease. PRS is most commonly due to ANCA-associated vasculitides (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis) or due to anti-basement membrane diseases (e.g., Goodpasture's syndrome). Other etiologies include toxic injury such as paraquat poisoning, infection with hantavirus, leptospirosis, or legionella, or vascular, as seen in nephrotic syndrome when a renal vein thrombosis embolism to the lungs.
Medicine
null
58d83508-8ad5-4137-a215-d6b084f49e3c
Bone sounding done in modern times is performed by which method?
RVG
Probing
CBCT
Radiovisiography
2
single
null
Dental
null
9a292f87-6a2d-4bba-bcee-f11ca9a94c73
Oil red '0' stain is used for:
Glutaraldehyde fixed specimen
Alcohol fixed specimen
Formalin fixed specimen
Frozen specimen
3
single
Ans: D. Frozen specimenFor Connective Tissue and LipidsName of stainElements stainedTrichrome StainCollagenVerhoeff-Van Gieson stain (Best for Elastin)Elastic fibersLuna stainElastin & Mast cellsSilver Methenamine stainReticulinOil red '0' stain (on Fresh specimen)Sudan black (on fixed specimen)FatMallory's PTAH stainMuscle striationsMaius scarlet blue (MSB)FibrinPAS, Silver Methenamine stainBasement membraneBielschowsky (silver stain)Neurofibrillary tangles senile plaquesLuxol fast blueMyelin(Ref Netter :s* Essential Histology 2/e p479)
Pathology
null
d384e3c5-1ec0-4c7d-b7c2-ec9fd223f3e3
Jaw or tooth apart swallow is:
Infantile swallow.
Mature swallow.
Both
None.
0
multi
null
Dental
null
62081a5c-5ffc-4a88-9aca-c9e430490e73
A female with suspected child abuse was brought to the casualty with severe bleeding from the perineum. What should be the first line of management?
Airway maintenance
Internal iliac aery ligation
Whole blood transfusion
Inform police before staing the treatment
0
single
Ans. a. Airway maintenanceThe primary survey aims to identify and manage the most immediately life-threatening pathologies first and follows ABCDE.c- exsanguinating external hemorrhageA- Airway maintenanceB- Breathing & ventilationC- Circulation & hemorrhageD- DisabilityE- Exposure
Surgery
null
d4e13d7b-8ca9-447e-b93d-e8b86afd017a
Classify the class of recession:
Class 1
Class 2
Class 3
Class 4
2
single
null
Dental
null
33a697bc-627a-4a24-b381-19c181fcdded
Method of choice for a New born child not passing urine for 36 hours :
Ultrasound of kidney & bladder
CT Scan
Cystoscopy
X–ray pelvis
0
single
A history of Anuria suggests Acute Renal failure. Ultrasonography is the ideal imaging tool in Renal failure because of its non dependence on Renal function. As it allows visualization of : Pelvicalyceal system ofAssessment of Renal Size o Structural anomalies and calculi . Note - In this question DTPA scan has not been provided as an option. So, the best answer is USG.
Pediatrics
null
cd3ee63d-d3f2-44ea-a18c-dbf9bf1c57cf
Bacteria free zone of dentinal caries is
a)Zone of decomposed dentin
Zone of bacterial invasion
Zone of decalcification
Zone of dentinal sclerosis
3
single
null
Pathology
null
5bc29ae1-a1a8-4c3b-a11e-e469be9f0640
Which is not a type of Gracey curvettes?
# 1-2
# 11-12
# 13-14
# 5-16
3
single
null
Dental
null
1359605e-c8e4-4847-b8b6-eb1500b5356f
Which ion of hydroxyapatite crystals is substituted by Fluoride imparts more strength?
Hydroxyl ion
Calcium ion
Phosphate ion
None
0
multi
null
Dental
null
51baa169-5c84-4d0e-94fb-d21279cea570
Cleaning of base metal alloy is done by
Warm HCl
Cold HF
Cold H2 So4
Sand blasting with aluminium oxide
3
multi
null
Dental
null
16f26f56-f5ab-4542-910b-eca95b907278
Estimation of the blood sugar is relevant in all except –
Birth asphyxia
Large for date baby
Baby of hypothyroid mother
Rh Incompatibility
2
multi
ARDS (Birth asphyxia), Rh incompatibility (if causes erythroblastosis fetalis) and large for date baby of diabetic mother are prone for hypoglycemia.
Pediatrics
null
8b906077-3b73-4397-96bb-4e66e0dc9d20
All are true about isolated aoic stenoses except:
Pulsus bisferiens
Cardiac apex is displaced laterally to left
Thrill in carotid aery
Blood pressure maintained in initial phase
0
multi
Ans: A. Pulsus bisferiens(Ref Harrison 19/e p15.31, 1536, 18/e p1939)Pulsus bisferiens is seen in a patient of aoic stenosis (AS) along with aoic regurgitation (AR) and is rare in isolated AS.The cardiac apex is usually displaced to left because of left ventricular hyperophy.In some patients with AR or with combined AS and AR, the carotid aerial pulse may be bisferiens, i.e., with two systolic waves separated by a trough.
Medicine
null
00eb7f90-ec76-4b2a-89e8-9f716b070bfa
Which of the following is the most common site for the occurrence of a basal cell carcinoma?
Buccal mucosa
Hard palate
Skin of the lower lip
Dorsum of the tongue
2
single
null
Pathology
null
951a385e-d512-4613-a822-443f1f429ab9
Who was associated with second amalgam war?
G V Black
Charles bell
Huggins
Alfred stock
3
single
null
Dental
null
46c8e8cf-5930-486f-ad11-99b9339c12ab
Reticular fibers of collagen tissues are present in all of the following except:
Thymus
Spleen
Bone marrow
Lymph node
0
multi
Ans: A. ThymusReticular fibers of collagen tissues are present in Spleen, Bone marrow & Lymph node but not in thymus.Reticulin:Type of fiber in connective tissue.Composed of type III collagen.Secreted by reticular cells.Reticular fibers crosslink to form a fine meshwork.Acts as a suppoing mesh in soft tissues such as liver, bone marrow & tissues and organs of lymphatic system.
Anatomy
null
3f6665ca-6b69-4345-88c2-72c2befd4d18
Which of the following muscle is not supplied by the nerve marked in the diagram?
Superior oblique
Medial rectus
Inferior rectus
Inferior oblique
0
single
The nerve marked in the diagram is oculomotor nerve. It supplies superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus and inferior oblique. Superior oblique is supplied by Trochlear nerve.
Ophthalmology
AIIMS 2019
47f8f5d9-4611-4a68-9e8f-2993951ccc95
Which is a direct content of cavernous sinus?
Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
Abducent nerve
Oculomotor nerve
2
single
Abducent nerve: Only cranial nerve passing through the centre of cavernous sinus.
Anatomy
null
a4260f2f-ca39-4778-90a9-87064c39a11c
In Mount and Hume classification, what will be the site size of the following lesion?
2.1
2.2
3.1
3.2
2
single
MOUNT AND HUME CLASSIFICATION 1998
Dental
null
d2a908d2-59df-4591-9a9c-1212a0ce7347
Keeping in Jack-knife position for long leads to death by:
Wedging
Burking
Positional asphyxia
Traumatic asphyxia
2
single
Answer- C. Positional asphyxiaKeeping in Jack-knife position for long leads to death by positional asphyxia."Postural or Positional Asphyxia":Occasionally, it results from indirect compression, when the body is subjected to force in such a manner that his thighs and the knees are driven against his chest, the so-called "Jack-Knife" position. There is usually marked congestion, cyanosis, and petechiae in the face and neck.This occurs when the individual acquires a ceain body position in which breathing is impaired, often because of neck twisting with kinking or compression of trachea and/or elevation of the tongue into the posterior hypopharynx. Normal venous return to the hea may be impaired.The body is typically inveed (upside-down) & weight of abdominal contents press against the diaphragm pushing it upwards, thus compressing the thoracic organs, which combined with decreased respiratory movements, leads to cardiorespiratory failure & death.It is always accidental
Forensic Medicine
null
2e264a60-ba19-4880-bc92-5c42c121eee8
Extraction of 3rd molar tooth bud in 7-9 yr old child:
Improves growth of maxilla
Causes excessive damage to the mandible
Results of future orthodontic treatment are improved anterior teeth
Results in less crowding
3
single
null
Dental
null
d2ca31a3-800c-4bf7-b150-a3981acc7587
Which of the following statements is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome?
Mainly affects young females
Is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits as grinding and clenching
Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition
The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic
3
multi
null
Pathology
null
aefae2fe-eb5f-411d-95a2-e7823c010a40
Which of the following features is not seen in Crouzon syndrome?
Midface hypoplasia
Syndactyly
Beak shaped nose
Ocular hypertelorism
1
single
Crouzon syndrome can have following appearances/conditions
Pathology
null
ef09a789-e189-42dc-a0fb-70da2c5ca170
The best finish line for anterior metal ceramic crown is
Chamfer with bevel
Heavy chamfer
Shoulder
Shoulder with bevel
3
single
null
Dental
null
5682860b-5ef4-4c1d-88b4-eb81546548ba
Kamlesh, a 2 year old girl, has Down's syndrome. Her karyotype is 21/21 translocation. What is the risk ofrecurrence in subsequent pregnancies if the father is a balanced translocation carrier :
100%
50%
25%
0%
0
single
Down Syndrome– (Trisomy 21) Seen in 11n 800 to 1000 newborns M/C Nonlethal trisomy Risk of Down syndrome increases with increase in maternal age At maternal age of 35 years, the risk of having a baby with Down syndrome is 1:365. to 1:400. Recurrent Risk of Down’s syndrome
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
01731260-fa5c-45ae-bbf3-5aed1b1cb9b9
Which of the following are the predominant connective tissue cells of the periodontal Ligament?
Cementoblasts
Fibroblasts
Osteoblasts
Rests of Malassez
1
single
null
Dental
null
315212cd-d605-4f61-8d4e-535ef7847059
Which of the following is characterized by Apple Jelly Nodules?
Scrofula
Lupus vulgaris
Ghon’s focus
Ghon's complex
1
single
Granulomatous skin diseases may have a characteristic appearance under diascopy, such as in lupus vulgaris (cutaneous tuberculosis), in which ‘apple jelly nodules’ are typically seen on diascopy. Ref: Davidson Ed 23 Pg 1214
Medicine
null
e37f2652-5ce3-4373-88b7-e78460690f57
A 50 years okl smoker and hypeensive was diagnose to have non-small cell lung carcinoma with brain metastases. He is on enalapril and hydrochlorothiazide for hypeension. On investigation, he had a serum Sodium 120 mg/dl|, Urinary Sodium ll0 mg/dl, Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL, Serum osmolarity 285 mOsm/L, Urinary osmolarity 35l mOsm/L, Urinary K+ 9 mg/dl, Blood sugar ll2 mgldL and BP of 150/90 mm Hg. Which of the following is the mnst probable cause for his hyponatremia?
Cerebral salt wasting
Diuretic induced
SIADH
Pseudohyponatremia
2
multi
Answer-C. SIADHHyponatremia is a common electrolyte abnormality in cancer patients, and SIADH is the most common cause among patients with cancer.The term SIADH is applied to conditions with vasopressin excess.Vasopressin excess is termed inappropriate as this increase occurs despite decreased plasma osmolality.Increased vasopressin acts on renal tubules, resulting in increased absorption of water (increased total body water), concentrated urinec and decreasing serum osmolalityEUR and hyponatremiao.Edema does not occur despite increased total body waterg (due to unknown reasons)-Clinical euvolemia
Medicine
null
710d1f09-b5eb-46b7-b5b7-801b1ebe3341
A 40 year male complaining of hot flushes each time he baths. Hb: 20%gm, Platelet: 89,000/mL, WBC: 30,000/mL, Investigation revealed JAK2 mutation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
PMF
CML
PCV
Essential thrombocytosis
2
single
diagnosis Polycythemia Vera Polycythemia | platelet | WBL | | RBC | JAK2 mutation Polycythemia Vera | WBC | Basohils | histamine release - contribute to hot flushes or itching Every time patient takes bath (aquagenic pruritis) impoant diagnostic feature: Serum erythropoietin level below normal. Impoant diagnostic feature: Serum erythropoietin level below normal. Rx=Hydroxyurea Cells count control Option A- PMF Should show SplenoHepatomegaly Pancytopenia No TLC RBC drop mentioned Option B- CML ||| WBL upto 1 lakh Jak2 must along with bcr-abl fusion transcription present. Option D- Essential thrombocytosis Leads to |only platelet count initially other counts will increase Later significant increase in platelet count upto 5-6 lakh approx.: less in our of answer.
Medicine
AIIMS 2019
e59188f6-856a-4300-a2fa-176a8a1b030a
A 55- year old diabetic patient presents with transient obscuration in vision for 2-3 days followed by sudden loss of vision. Which of the following would be the best test to evaluate the symptoms?
Serum ACE levels
Quantiferon-Gold TB test
Elevated homocysteine levels
Serum creatinine levels
3
single
Answer- D. Serum creatinine levelsDM can lead to both retinopathy and nephropathy, Serum creatinine levels would be the best for kidney function and evaluation of patient symptoms.
Medicine
null
54d61676-f03f-4c52-a706-26481e10ec98
One of the most common side effects of phenytoin is
Gingival Hyperplasia
Gingival Necrosis
Dental stains
Hypertension
0
single
null
Dental
null
92f20736-5ed3-4785-928d-5a4bdaf622a1
A 38-years old patient who had a total abdominal hysterectomy presents 2 months postop complaining of leakage of urine from the vagina. On examination, no fistula can be identified. Dilute methylene blue (100mL) is injected into the bladder through a Foley catheter and a tampon is placed in the vagina. The patient is asked to walk for about 15 minutes, after which the patient is found to be wet, but there is no blue stain anywhere on the tampon. Which of the following is true:-
100mL was probably not enough methylene blue, and the test should be repeated with a higher volume
The patient probably has stress incontinence not a fistula
The patient probably has a ureterovaginal fistula
The patient most likely has small apical vesicovaginal fistula that was too small to leak the dye in 15 minutes
2
multi
Methylene blue Swab Test-- A catheter is introduced into the bladder through the urethra, The vaginal cavity is packed with three sterile swabs, 50-100 mL of dilute methylene blue dye is injected into the bladder through the catheter. If there is a VVF present, the methylene blue dye stains the uppermost swab.If the lowermost swab gets stained, the leak is from the urethra--> urethrovaginal fistula Swabs do not take up the stain, but get wet with urine, the leak is from the ureter-->ureterovaginal fistula
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
AIIMS 2018
39ddbf97-8946-4e0b-9236-156755b4b31f
Freedom of centric relation correlates with
0.15 - 1.5 mm
0.20 - 0.40 mm
0.5 to 1.5 mm
1 to 2 mmm
2
single
null
Dental
null
100d2a31-8f28-4500-99c9-67690fe15625
Ganglionic transmission is mediated by:
Presynaptic alpha-receptors
Postsynaptic beta-receptors
Postsynaptic dopaminergic receptors
Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors
3
single
Ans: D .Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors(Ref: Goodman Gilman 13/e p108, 12Ie p255; Katzung 13Ie p108, 12/e p98).Ganglionic transmission is mediated by nicotinic receptors present post-synaptically.Nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor mediates neurotransmission post-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction and peripheral autonomic ganglia.In CNS, controls release of neurotransmitters from presynaptic sites.The receptor is called the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor - Due to both alkaloid nicotine & neurotransmitter ACh can stimulate the receptor.
Pharmacology
null
c86f02db-18ea-4ef1-a03a-1bee6d661c7b
Which of the following is not an example of a syndrome caused by uniparental disomy?
Prader-Willi syndrome
Angelman syndrome
Russell-Silver syndrome
Bloom syndrome
3
single
Answer- D. Bloom syndromeUniparental disomy is the term used when both chromosome of a pair of chromosome is a person with normal number of chromosome, have been inherited from only one parent (Normally one chromosome of a pair is inherited from only one parent).The two chromosomes inherited from the same parent maybe identical (Uniparental isodisomy) or different (Uniparental heterodisomy).In Uniparental isodisomy, both chromosomes in the pair are identical; consequently the genes on both chromosomes are also identical.Angelman syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome and Russell-Silver syndrome are ossociated with uniparental disomy.
Pediatrics
null
6e09a527-f1c4-4c9b-973b-aa93392f3f75
One of the many mechanisms of adverse events is its increased binding to secondary targets, usually proteins. With respect to the primary target, the secondary target:
Should be present in the same tissue as the primary target
Should have similar binding sites
Should have absolutely identical secondary structure
Should have a similar primary structure
1
multi
Ans. b. Should have similar binding sites (Ref: vvww'plosone'org)Secondary site compared to the primary site has the same sequence of binding site.
Pharmacology
null
aff4bd90-ab90-45b7-8ef7-2b02c25da7ad
School based dental health care for whole country is adopted by which of the following country?
USA
NewZealand
Sweden
Australia
1
single
null
Dental
null
f7469b1f-dda2-476a-9b27-312a080e0c8a
Postrenal transplant patient presents with diarrhoea after 3 months; it was showing organism measuring 2-6 micron meter and kinoyn stain positive. Most likely it is caused by:
Balantidium coli
Clostridium difficile
Cystoisospora belli
Cryptosporidium hominis
3
single
Ans. d. Cryptosporidium hominisOppounistic infections are extremely common post-transplant in the period staing from 1 month post-transplant to 6 months post-transplant.Clostridium difficle is usually seen within 1 month post-transplant because of profound antibiotic use.Kinoyn stain (Modified acid fast) positivity rules out Balantidium.Now it is between cryptosporidium vs cycloisospora. Size (smaller i.e., 2-6 microns) tells us that the organism is undoubtedly cryptosporidium hominis (previously parvum).
Microbiology
null
40a69530-6238-4f33-8003-86d143d6de77
Iron entry into enterocytes occurs which of the following?
DMT-1
Ferropoin
Transferrin
Hepcidin
0
single
GI Luminal non-heme iron is mostly in the Fe3+ (ferric) state and must first be reduced to Fe2+ ferrous) iron by ferrireductases, such as b cytochromes and STEAP3. Fe2+ iron is then transpoed across the apical membrane of enterocytes by divalent metal transpoer-1 (DMT1).
Pathology
AIIMS 2019
8e686bff-ca17-4507-89bc-cce7d6ab9e7f
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry coughp; sputum culture showed growth on Charcoal Yeast Extract Medium, the organism is
H. influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis
Legionella
Burkholderia cepacia
2
single
null
Microbiology
null
3146c248-2dd4-4888-99c9-bafda2fa1ec7
Ashley-Howe model analysis is used to predict:
Tooth material excess
Maxillo-mandibular relationships
Basal bone-transverse relationship
Growth prediction
2
single
null
Dental
null
913d6913-f5de-41a9-8159-d7ac61d57c47
A neonate on routine examination at bih was found to have hepatomegaly. Rest of the examination was essentially unremarkable. On investigations, Anti-HCMV antibodies were found to be positive. What sequelae in later life is the child at risk of?
Renal failure
Mental retardation
Hepatic fibrosis
Sensorineural hearing loss
3
multi
Ans: D. Sensorineural hearing loss (Ref: (Ghai 8/e p272 ; Nelson 20/e p 592-1594)Positive human cytomegalovirus (HCMV) antibodies at bih - Suggestive of congenital asymptomatic CMV infection.Symptomatic child at increased risk a Develops mental retardation.Asymptomatic child is at as high as 7% risk a Develop sensorineural hearing loss.Congenital CMV infection:Characteristic signs & symptoms:Clinically manifested infections - Intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, blueberry muffin--like rash, thrombocytopenia and purpura, microcephaly & intracranial calcifications.Neurologic problems:Chorioretinitis, sensorineural hearing loss & mild increases in cerebrospinal fluid protein.
Pediatrics
null
c1069842-8261-4a97-b1bb-5faeaacc6435
Patient is a known case of epilepsy, taking levetiracetam 1 gm BD. He is now seizure free from 2 years but he developed agitation and anger issues interfering with day to day activities as a result of the drug intake. What should be the next best step?
Stop levetiracetam and sta on a different antiepileptic
Discontinue the drug as he is seizure free
Slowly taper the drug over next 6 months
Continue levetiracetam since a 5-year seizure free interval is needed
2
multi
Answer- C. Slowly taper the drug over next 6 monthsStopping or switching an antiepileptic is based on seizure free period & compliance or adverse effects of the drug.Withdrawal of therapy should be gradual over 2-3 monlhs, in the question 6 months. Anti-epileptic drug therapy shouldnever he stopped abruptly. Even if new drug is to be added/replaced, the previous drug should be gradually stoppedotherwise it can lead to breakthrough seizures.
Pharmacology
null
60485d84-b6cd-4796-984a-9432906a4585
Which of the following statements regarding the National Programme for Non-communicable diseases-Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases (CVD) and stroke (NPCDCS) is true?
The plan is to implement the programme in 10 districts across the 5 states during 2010-2012
The diagnosis or treatment of non-communicable diseases to be carried out at the subcentre level
Coronary care unit and cancer care facility to be established at the district level hospital
All the components of the programme to be addressed separately- cancer, diabetes, CVD and stroke
2
multi
Ans. c. Coronary care unit and cancer care facility to be established at the district level hospital (Ref: NPCDCS Operational Guidelines, DGHS, GOI, Page 6)The NPCDCS program has two components viz. (i) Cancer and (ii) Diabetes, CVDs and Stroke.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
7f3f6968-3304-4039-89b0-eebab7f702b4
Contractile element in myofibril is:
H band
Sarcoplasm
Sarcomere
A line
2
single
null
Physiology
null
69bd9d80-fa4f-45f8-963d-aaef80a18d46
All of the following complications are more common in ventouse assisted delivery than forceps except:
Subgaleal hemorrhage
Cephalhematoma
Intracranial hemorrhage
Transient lateral rectus palsy
3
multi
Answer- D. Transient lateral rectus palsyTransient lateral rectus palsy is more common inforceps assisted delivery.Subgaleal hemonhage, cephalhematoma and intracranial hemonhage are more common in ventouse assisted delivery.
Surgery
null
3e76b92d-f48f-4a2f-98ed-d97420a71e53
All of the following are true about aspiration pneumonia except:
Aspiration of 20-30 mL of contents with pH < 2.5 is required
Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumonia
Posterior segment of the right upper lobe is most commonly affected in the recumbent position
Aspiration responsible for 5-15% of community acquired pneumonia
1
multi
Answer- B.Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumoniaMixed polymicrobial infection involving both aerobes and anaerobes are the common cause of aspiration pneumonia, not the fungal infection.Incidence: It is common and may account for up to 15% of patients with community-acquired pneumonia.Gastric pH of 2.5 or less with a gastric contents volume greater than 25 ml are critical values for causing aspiration pneumonia.The posterior segments of the upper lobe and apical segments of lower lobes are most commonly involved when aspiration occurs in a supine position.The basal segments of the lower lobes are usually affected in patients who aspirate in an upright or semirecumbent position.
Medicine
null
783aaf31-fd64-4f4e-aa67-93c00cb407ad
Which of the following is not associated with haemorrhage?
Ecchymosis
Petechiae
Melanosis
Purpura
2
single
null
Pathology
null
bb46d4ce-440a-4cea-ab6f-75ce99cdd3aa
Dapsone is used for treatment of bacterial and fungal infections as well as for immunomodulatory actions. What is mechanism of dapsone for these indication?
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Inhibition of ergosterol in cell membranes
Inhibition of protein synthesis
Competition with PABA in folic acid synthesis
3
multi
Sulfonamides (including Dapsone and PAS) : Competitively inhibit folic acid synthase enzyme as these are PABA analogues. Trimethoprim, Pyrimethamine : Inhibit Dihydro folate reductase enzyme (DHFRase). Inhibition of ergosterol in cell membrane (in fungus and leishmania): Amphotericin B.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
0c826104-685f-4601-beb6-d9d102c15cbd
In processing methyl methacrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed too soon. Porosity most likely occur
Throughout the denture
Near the borders
In the thickest part
On the denture surface
2
single
null
Dental
null
afb560a9-453f-43f9-b0d8-8e54519d46a6
Pre-maxillary hard palate is supplied by which nerve
Nasopalatine nerve
Pharyngeal branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
Greater palatine nerve
Tensor palatine nerve
0
single
null
Anatomy
null
44483815-3319-493d-b156-d3663a4d61a1
23 serotypes pneumococcal vaccine Most useful in
Cystic fibrosis
Recurrent otitis media & sinusitis
Child less than 2 years
Sickle cell anaemia
3
single
Ans-D. Sickle cell anaemia* PPSV23 (Pneumovax or Pnu-Immune) is the most widely available formulation and contains 23 pneumococcal polysaccharides* A single dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) is indicated for adults (ages 19 to 64 years)* Vaccination with both PCV13 and PPSV23 is indicated in individuals with impaired splenic function for eg- Sickle cell disease or other hemoglobinopathy
Microbiology
null
55028fba-fc8a-4c77-ad53-33e7cebc34e6
Fourth generation apex locater based on
Resistance
lmpedence
Frequency
Multiple frequency ratio
3
single
null
Dental
null
99ebfb54-f46f-4053-8ef1-3c931d657bdb
Biopsy specimens removed for examinations are immediately placed in:
10% ethanol
10% formalin
Hydrogen peroxide
1% formalin
1
single
null
Surgery
null
8c65bc28-e274-4579-a200-6e26782878df
True open bite is caused by
Horizontal fracture of the maxilla
Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle
Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of mandible
Fracture of mandibular symphysis
0
multi
null
Surgery
null
f3022374-f442-471a-b015-f438366b61e3
Greatest potential hazard of mercury toxicity occurs due to:
Skin contact with mercury
Inhalation of mercury vapours
During amalgam restoration
Ingestion of amalgam scrap during removal
1
single
null
Dental
null
fd315adc-df4b-4a81-895b-6f093eeb71b2
Which of the following is an indiction for tonsillectomy –a) Rheumatic feverb) Glomerulonephritisc) Recurrent upper respiratory infectiond) Persistent carrier of diptheria bacilli
ab
cd
bd
ac
1
single
Indications of tonsillectomy Recurrent sore throat —› If more than six attacks of tonsillitis in a year for two consecutive years. Tonsillar or peritonsillar abscess              o Retention cyst of tonsil                  o Diphtheria carriers Tonsillolith                                                   o Suspicious malignancy                  o Obustructive sleep apnea
Pediatrics
null
9c176b2e-017d-4b57-902a-3637bdf4dff8
Which of the following is not an effect of efferent aeriole constriction :
Decreased GFR
Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Decreased blood flow in peritubular vessels
Increased oncotic pressure in peritubular vessels
0
single
Constriction of efferent aeriole has biphasic effect on GFR. At moderate levels of constriction, It increases glomerular hydrostatic pressure resulting in increasing GFR If efferent aeriolar constriction is severe; It decreases renal blood flow; filtration fraction & glomerular colloid osmotic pressure increases as efferent aeriolar resistance increases resulting in colloid osmotic pressure exceeds increase in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure resulting in decrease in GFR. Blood from efferent aerioles enter peritubular capillaries, so if efferent aeriole is constricted, less blood enters peritubular capillaries, which results in increase in oncotic pressure in peri tubular capillaries.
Physiology
AIIMS 2017