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cafc0a38-bb29-4271-a180-95433a85392c
Prucalopride drug is ?
5HT4 agonist
5HT2b agonist
5HT2b antagonist
5HT2a agonist
0
single
Ans. A. 5HT4 agonist* Prucalopride is a drug acting as a selective, high affinity 5-HT4 receptor agonist which targets the impaired motility associated with chronic constipation, thus normalizing bowel movements.* Approved for use in Europe in 2009.* Prucalopride, a first in class dihydro-benzofuran-carboxamide, is a selective, high affinity serotonin (5-HT4) receptor agonist with enterokinetic activities.* Prucalopride alters colonic motility patterns serotonin 5-HT4 receptor stimulation: it stimulates colonic mass movements, which provide the main propulsive force for defecation.* The observed effects are exeed highly selective action on 5-HT4 receptor.* Prucalopride has >150-fold higher affinity for 5-HT4 receptors than for other receptors.
Pharmacology
null
f6c37d84-4658-45dd-b75d-741f6f1bcff2
During voluntary movements, Golgi tendon organ has an impoant role to play because it continuously relays to the efferent neurons:
Length of the muscle at rest
Change in angle of joint during motion
Change in length of muscle before and after the movement
Tension in the muscle
3
single
Ans: D. Tension in the muscle(Ref.: Ganong 25/e p232; Guyton 13/e p697, 701).Golgi tendon organ senses muscle tension."The Golgi organ (also called Golgi tendon organ, GTO, tendon organ, neurotendinous organ or neurotendinous spindle) senses changes in muscle tension.It is a proprioceptive sensory receptor organ that is at the origins and inseion of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle. It provides the sensory component of the Golgi tendon reflex.
Physiology
null
bc7fdabc-0c33-4e85-befe-0015ca601164
The hormone, which stimulates uterus contraction and lets down milk, is:
Progesterone
Prolactin
Prostaglandin
Oxytocin
3
single
null
Physiology
null
6b3b112c-3f6a-4f33-afe6-421e410a1700
Production and citation impact of published work of a scientist or scholar
Impact factor
Citation
H index
Z index
1
single
null
Dental
null
b84028e6-34ae-44f6-9deb-10d9122d592f
Ig in GCF?
Ig A
Ig M
Ig G
Ig D
2
single
null
Dental
null
8db1c114-d051-431f-93d1-4a7f2ae7d2a6
The function of compensating curve is
To provide balanced occlusion in complete dentures when mandible is protruded
To aid in establishing an incisal guide
Same as function of curve of spee
None of the above
0
multi
null
Dental
null
3fb75e9e-82c7-424f-b7ff-60e5ddaa24b5
Induction of inhalational agent is faster.
Agent with high blood gas solubility
Combined with nitrous oxide
Person with increased residual volume
Right to left shunt
1
single
Answer- B. Combined with nitrous oxideInduction of inhalational agent is faster, if it is combined with nitrous oxide.'The blood:gas paition coelficient is the mainfactor that determines the rate of induction and recovery of an inhalationanaesthesic, and the lower the blood: gas paition coefficient, the faster is induction and recovery.The second gos effect usually refers to nitrous oxide combined with an inhalation agent. Because nitrous oxide is notsoluble in blood, its rapid absorption from alveoli causes an abrupt rise in the alveolar concentration of the otherinhalation anesthetic leading to faster induction.
Anaesthesia
null
bbe12324-c347-478e-b5bb-9a39e8969571
Hammock ligament is present:
Between temporal and sphenoid bone
Between hamular notch and mandible
In apical area of a tooth
As a part of deep cervical fascia
2
single
null
Dental
null
7c79a7f1-20d7-4205-a05a-f974ecc2186c
Centric holding cusp is?
Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary 1st molar
Mesiolingual cusp of mandibular first molar
Distolingual cusp of mandibular 1st molar
Mesiopalatal cusp of maxillary 1st molar
3
single
null
Dental
null
09971098-f9bf-4cc3-969f-e77e18595c96
What is the Ilekt step in management of a 32 years old woman with a 5 years history of primary infeil-ity with bilateral tubal block seen at cornu on hys-terosalpingogram?
In vitro feilization
Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
Tuboplasty
1
multi
Answer- B. Laparoscopy and hysteroscopyBilateral tubal block at cornu should be confirmed using Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy (Chromopeubation test), which is the gold standard. Trestment of choice will be tuboplosty, but other causes like spasm shoukl be ruled out ss hysterosalpingogram is not a very reliable test.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
bdc7d080-b3a4-4edb-acc4-08a35d181e75
Pickling is done:
To remove oxide film from casting
Polish the casting
Improve the strength of casting
Avoid casting defects
0
single
null
Dental
null
de1065e8-37ba-4b6b-a05d-f967fdf76f58
MHC Class II proteins are expressed by:
B-cells, dendritic cells and macrophages
Platelets
T-cells
All nucleated cells
0
multi
Answer- A. B-cells, dendritic cells and macrophagesMHC Class II proteins are expressed by all antigen-presenting cells, which include B-cells, follicular dendritic cells and macrophages. MHC Class I proteins are expressed by all nucleated cells, which excludes platelets and RBCsHLA class I antigens (A, B and C) are found on the surface of viually all nucleated cells- They ere the principal antigens involved in graft rejection and cell-mediated cytolysis.Class, I molecules may function as components of hormonal receptors. HLA class II antigens are more restricted in distribution, being found only on cells of the immune system macrophages, dendritic cells, activated T cells, and paicularly on B cells."
Microbiology
null
a0c6e73e-5ed5-42b5-a71c-24e031f7e7e8
Soft tissue curettage is used for:
Shallow pockets with gingivitis
Deep pockets with gingivitis
Infrabony pockets
Oedematous gingiva
0
multi
null
Dental
null
c1ad828e-687d-4f0b-b014-9b0b5555548e
All are true about RVG except:
80% reduction of patient exposure
Instant imaging
Easy to storage and retrieval.
Image is sharper than caused by silver halide.
3
multi
The digital radiographic resolution is lower than produced with silver halide emulsions.
Dental
null
20445700-6fe0-4e44-b27c-561d580c5ea9
HCO3/H2CO3 is the best buffer because it is:
pKa near physiological pH
Its components can be increased or decreased in the body as needed
Good acceptor and donor of H+ ions
Combination of a weak acid and weak base
1
single
Ans: B. Its components can be increased or decreased in the body as needed(Ref:Harper 30/e p11; Gaizung 25/e p6).HCO/H2CO3:Best buffer.As components can be increased or decreased in body as needed.Bicarbonate buffer system:Most powerful extracellular buffer in body.Since both elements of buffer system (HCO 3- & CO).Regulated respectively by kidneys & lungs.pH of extracellular fluid precisely controlled by HCO removal & addition by kidneys & CO 2 removal by lungs.
Biochemistry
null
ed24d502-040d-47a0-b3ed-d355cd0481a8
Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?
Linoleic acid
Alpha linolenic acid
Both of the above
None of the above
2
multi
The fatty acids that are required by humans, but are not synthesized in the body, hence need to be supplied in the diet are known as essential fatty acid (EFA). Humans lack the enzymes that can introduce double bond beyond 9th Carbon. They are Polyunsaturated Fatty Acid namely: Linoleic acid. Alpha linolenic acid. Arachidonic acid is considered as semi-essential fatty acid as, it can be synthesized from linoleic acid.
Biochemistry
null
6bd02755-f813-46d8-87ff-e40297a2a949
In female adrenal gland secretes which hormone?
Progesterone
Testosterone
Estrogen
DHEA
3
single
Ans. D. DHEADHEA is an endogenous steroid hormone. This means it is naturally made by the body, and it spurs specific tissues or cells into action.It is also known as androstenolone, 3b-hydroxyandrost-5-en-17-one and 5-androsten-3b-ol-17-one.DHEA is one of the most abundant steroid hormones in the human body. It is produced by the adrenal glands, the gonads, and the brain.It is normally found in the form of dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS).The body holds DHEAS in reserve and conves it to specific hormones when needed.It is impoant for creating estrogen and androgen sex hormones and contributes to the development of so-called androgenic effects, or masculinization.These changes include the production of oilier skin, changes in body odor, and the growth of armpit and pubic hair.
Physiology
null
eb01af3c-48a4-484b-a376-1074eb7450e2
Which of the following is the function of Hyperpolarizing Cyclic Nucleotide (HCN) gated channels?
Cardiac rhythm generation
Generation of mitochondrial action potential
Myocardial muscle contraction
Memory formation
0
single
Ans: A. Cardiac rhythm generationHyperpolarizing Cycling Nucleotide (HCN) gated channels:Present in SA & AV nodes.Channel opens in hyperpolarization phase.Essential for generating pacemaker potential in SA Node (cardiac rhythm generation).HCN-Nervous systemHCN-Cardiovascular systemControls neuronal excitability, synaptic transmission & rhythmic oscillatory activity in individual neurons & neuronal networks.Play an impoant role in synaptic plasticity & memory, thalamocoical rhythms & somatic sensation.Some evidence indicates they also play a role in mechanisms of epilepsy & pain.HCN4 is the main isoform expressed in the SA node, but low levels of HCN1 & HCN2 are also seen.Current through HCN channels, called "funny current or pacemaker current", plays a key role in generation & modulation of cardiac rhythmicity.
Physiology
null
62b9add2-a5e9-451f-92c2-2eee629ee143
A 4 year old child sustained a fracture in central incisor one month ago. On examination, a necrotic pulp was seen with no other pathological findings. The treatment of choice is:
Watchful observation
Extraction followed by space maintainer
Pulpectomy and root canal filling with gutta percha
Endodontic treatment and root canal filling with ZOE
3
single
A 4 year old child sustained a fracture in central incisor one month ago. On examination, a necrotic pulp was seen with no other pathological findings. The treatment of choice is endodontic treatment and root canal filling with ZOE.
Dental
null
5948bf46-bda9-45d2-8165-c12f8387e345
Both ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids as
Isoleucine
Leucine
Arginine
Glycine
0
multi
null
Biochemistry
null
238019d8-3c6b-486e-9d00-fda1273d22e7
An un-immunized 13 months old child comes to you in OPD, according to the latest immunizations schedule, what vaccines will you advise??
OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and I measles
BCG, OPV 3 doses, 3 lPV, 3 Pentavalent and I measles
OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and 2 measles
OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-B
3
single
Ans: D. OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-BRef: ip. o rg/file s/I A P-imm unizution-sc he du le- 2 0 I 6- I P- 2 0 I 6-E p u b. p df* The latest schedule of immunization under NIS is as follows:* vNational Immunization Schedule (NIS) for Infants, children and Presnant women - - OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-B
Pediatrics
null
05f7f85c-a5f7-438b-a8b4-afd025228b21
A 32 weeks pregnant female presented with labor pains and minimal vaginal discharge, on analysis of the cervicovaginal discharge showed presence of fetal fibronectin. What is the probable diagnosis?
Preterm labour
IUGR
IUD
Cervical infection
0
single
Fibronectin is a glycoprotein that binds amnion and chorion to the decidua of uterus. Normally present in the cervicovaginal secretions before 22 weeks and after 37 weeks of pregnancy. Presence of Fibronectin (>50ng/ml) in between these weeks is suggestive of preterm labor. When the test is negative it reassures that delivery will not occur within next 7 days.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
AIIMS 2018
babb3528-da02-4ffa-b15f-4a678c902be2
A65-year-old male adult presents with chronic sinusitis, nasopharyngeal ulcers, cavitatory lung nodules and renal failure. What will be the appropriate next diagnostic step?
Lung biopsy
Sputum AFB and PCR for TB
ANCA and evaluation for vasculitis
ESR
2
multi
Ans: C. ANCA and evaluation for vasculitis(Ref Harrison 19/e p2182-2184, 18/e p2786, 2789)Suggestive of Wegener's Granulomatosis.Wegener's Granulomatosis:c-ANCA positive small vessel vasculitis. levels are required for diagnosis.Tests:Specificity of a positive antiproteinase-3 ANCA for granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener's) is very high, especially if active glomerulonephritis is present.However, the presence of ANCA should be adjunctive and, with rare exceptons, should not substitute for a tissue diagnosis.
Medicine
null
7ffc9c61-2859-48c9-8d16-7776f1e81c3d
All of the following are true about COPD except:
Decreased FEV1
Decreased MEFR
Increased RV
Decreased diffusion capacity
3
multi
null
Medicine
null
0915d8e7-21e1-4755-99a0-ac45b259c408
Bias that arises from evaluating data on patients and hospital records only such that probability of exposure to a particular factor is increased is known as:
Berkesonian bias
Confound bias
Memory or recall bias
Selection bias
0
multi
null
Dental
null
086cd30e-0ed9-4b7b-9346-38529b1445b8
A midwife at a PI-IC is monitoring pregnancy and maintaining the paograph of pregnancy progression. At how much cervical dilation should the paograph plotting be staed?
4 cm
5 cm
6 cm
8 cm
0
single
Answer- A. 4 cmPaograph recording is usually staed after a cervical dilation of 3 cm (not the 4 cm), i.e. the active stage of labor As 3 cm is not given in the option, we have to choose 4 cm.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
05863ba7-3f7b-48eb-a74b-7cd2598065b4
Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve
VII
IX
X
II
0
single
Geniculate neuralgia (Nervus intermedius neuralgia) results from herpes zoster infection of geniculate ganglion and nervus intermedius branch of seventh cranial nerve.
Pathology
null
d7f6905a-377d-4fa0-a5a5-d7f5c8d8ac4f
Empty Thecal sac sign in:
Arachnoiditis
Tethered Cord syndrome
Veebral osteomyelitis
Discitis
0
single
* Arachnoiditis is chronic inflammation of meninges and can occur after intrathecal injection of contrast agent, infections, drugs leading to nerve root getting adhered into peripheral meninges giving the appearance of EMPTY THECAL SAC sign on T2 weighted MRI * Tethered Cord Syndrome is when the spinal cord extends below the elbow level due to lipoma of Filum terminal or post op scarring/ adhesions that prevent spinal cord from ascending upward and it remains below L2 level.
Radiology
AIIMS 2018
7ce281ed-c512-4456-a9f7-87b7620d628d
An absolute indication for LSCS in case of a Heart disease is:
Co-arctation of Aorta
Eisenmenger syndrome
Ebsteins anomaly
Pulmonary stenosis
0
single
Heart disease during pregnancy, in itself is not an indication for cesarean section. Cesarean section in heart disease is done in specific cases. “In coarctation of aorta, elective cesarean section is indicated to prevent rupture of the aorta or mycotic cerebral aneurysm.” Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 278
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f23569ea-da84-4e74-aa14-69c64f04424d
Which is not true about vibrio cholera
It is non-halophilic
Grows on simple media
Man is the only natural host
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
3
multi
null
Microbiology
null
71803632-1b88-4332-88f5-be3ac2515b85
Gene commonly indicated in congenital cataract:
PAX-6
CRYGS-3
LMX- IB
PITX-3
1
single
Answer- B. CRYGS-3'Gene-S crystalline gene (CRYGS) mutalion causes dominant progressive coical cataract in humans.
Ophthalmology
null
3b184f01-db13-4379-ab0b-7709853e0326
A case of jaundice with 50% direct bilirubin, other LFTs normal. Diagnosis is –
Rotor syndrome
Gilbert syndrome
Glucuronyl transferase deficiency
Primary biliary cirrhosis
0
single
50% direct bilirubin means conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Normally the direct (conjugated) bilirubin is less than 15-20% of total bilirubin. Normal Values of bilirubin Total bilirubin       >             0.2 - 1.9 mg/d1.     Direct bilirubin >             0 - 0.3 mg/dl. So, this child has : - Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia Other LFTs normal Amongst the given options, Rotor syndrome and Primary biliary cirrhosis cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. In Primary biliary cirrhosis, other LFTs are also abnormal, e.g., SGOT and SGPT are raised. Now we are left with Rotor syndrome which causes conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Other LFTs are normal.
Pediatrics
null
bd9727ab-e559-41ba-9006-304697e2c9b7
Pickling:
Is accomplished by soaking the casting in baking soda
Causes porosity in gold
Removes surface oxides from gold castings
Remove investment from gold casting
2
single
null
Dental
null
b304b0be-c800-43e4-be04-739bd0cc47fd
Easiest 3rd molar surgical extraction is:
Mesioangular
Horizontal
Vertical
Distoangular
0
single
null
Surgery
null
4cb6b49b-3422-4add-9f90-7a7d6678be62
In examining the edentulous mouth of an aged patient wearing complete maxillary denture against six mandibular teeth, the dentist will see:
Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve
Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxilla
Flabby tissue in the posterior region
Decrease interocclusal distance
1
single
null
Dental
null
18f4759f-08b6-4600-b14c-27e86a1e7e38
Obstructive sleep apnoea caused by the following
Mandibular ameloblasma
Dentigerous cyst
Orbital fracture
Bilateral TMJ ankylosis
3
single
null
Surgery
null
35e5b5ae-82da-4f68-a011-91818a64c684
Von Willebrand factor is secreted by which of the following?
Macrophages
Endothelial cells
Platelets
Fibroblast
1
single
Endothelial cells contain intracellular stores known as WeibelPallad bodies which contain Von-willebrand factor and P-selectin.
Pathology
AIIMS 2019
6acbfeaf-7cbc-44d4-8d2c-e5555da695a2
Factors affecting the treatment of MI
Regional wall motion abnormality
Troponin level
Both
None
2
multi
null
Medicine
null
ee3171ee-b65b-477b-9a73-ea8316b648aa
All of the following are features of systemic Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis except –
Uveitis
Rash
Fever
Hepatosplenomegaly
0
multi
The eye manifestation are seen in Pauciarticular and Polyarticular JRA but not in systemic JRA. Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis can be divided in 3 major clinical types
Pediatrics
null
b934e553-46ba-4692-a9cc-cc1ae26e7d4f
An 80 kg male patient presented to the emergency with hypotension and you have been instructed to sta him on an inotrope at a dose of 10 mcg/kg/min. Each 5 mL amp of the drug contains 200 mg drug. You choose 2 ampules of the drug and decide to mix it with saline to make a 250 mL solution. What should be the flow rate of the drug solution to maintain the BP of the patient (assuming 16 drops = 1 mL)?
4 drops/min
8 drops/min
10 drops/min
16 drops/min
1
single
Ans: B. 8 drops/minA dosing of 10 mgm/kg/min of drug is requiredWeight = 80 kgTotal dose required = 10x80 = 800 mgm/min = 0.8 mg/minNow two 5 mL ls each containing 200 mg is diluted to a 250 mL solution.i.e. 400 mg is mixed in 250 mLConcentration of solution: 1 mL = 400/250 = 1.6 mg/mLNow, 1 mL 16 drops = 1.6 mg i.e. 16 drops contain 1.6 mgHence, 0.8 mg/min = 8 drops/min = 0.5 mL/min
Medicine
null
f9739409-2790-47a9-80b7-98c70f0bcc16
A two year old girl child is brought to the out patient with features of hand wringing stereotype movements, impaired language and communication development, breath holding spells, poor social skills and deceleration of head growth after 6 months of age. The most likely diagnosis is –
Asperger's syndrome
Rett's syndrome
Fragile x–syndrome
Colarad syndrome
1
single
This 2 years child has following problems. Hand wringing movements. Impaired language and communication development. Breath holding spells Poor social skills Decleration of hand growth after 6 months. Now see the clinical features of Rett syndrome. a. Age of onset is around 5 months. Development may proceed normally until 1 yr of age, when regression of language and motor milestones become apparent. a. Acquired microcephaly (Decleration of head growth due to significantly reduced brain weight). * Most children develop peculiar sighing respirations with intermittent periods of apnea that may be associated with cyanosis --> Breath holding spells. The hallmark of Rett syndrome is repetitive hand wringing movements and a loss ofpurposeful and spontaneous use of the hands. Autistic behavior is a typical finding in all patients. Generalized tonic-clonic convulsions occur in the majority. Feeding disorder and poor weight gain are common. Death occurs in adolescence or in the 3rd decade. Cardiac arrhythmias may result in sudden, unexpected death. Clinical features given in question prefectly match with Rett syndrome Asperger syndrome Qualitative impairment in the development of reciprocal social interaction. More common in males Normal intelligence. Eccentric interests. No language impairments that characterize autism. Children with Asperger syndrome appear to be at high risk for other psychiatric disorder
Pediatrics
null
541cbd4f-c0d8-43b8-bebe-9fabaa9023cd
How many scores are used in modified Dean's fluorosis index?
4
6
8
5
1
single
DEAN'S FLUOROSIS INDEX It was introduced by Trendley H. Dean in 1934. It is also known as 'Dean's Classification System For Dental Fluorosis'. The criteria for Dean's fluorosis index was based on a 7-point ordinal scale: normal, questionable, very mild, mild, moderate, moderately severe, and severe. Dean's Fluorosis Index – Modified Criteria (1942) 6 points – Normal, questionable, very mild, mild, moderate, severe. Essentials of preventive and community dentistry 5th edition Soben Peter
Dental
null
a1bea2c7-217e-4240-a208-541618437eec
Beta 3 glucan assay testing not done for
Invasive candidiasis
Aspergillosis
Pneumocystis carnii
Mucormycosis
3
single
Beta 3 glucan assay is used to detect the presence of beta 3 glucan in the fungal cell wall. It is used for Invasive candidiasis, Aspergillosis, Pneumocystis cranii but not for Mucormycosis.
Microbiology
AIIMS 2019
b192b045-d178-4bbf-8796-3c26dae548f3
Topical treatment for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis includes:
Acyclovir
Cidofovir
Ranitidine
Zinc
1
single
Ans: B. Cidofovir(Ref Dhingra 74, p346, 6/c, p305).Cidofovir:Topical treatment for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (Incomplete in stopping tumor growth).Mostly injected to control frequency of tumor growth.
ENT
null
b81486a0-3a2d-447b-b740-7d086488d10c
More than 80% cephalic index of a patient indicates which of the following
Brachycephalic
Mesocephatic
Dolicocephalic
Depends on age
0
single
null
Dental
null
c3b4d610-571b-4e86-be27-d41b8b2efc65
Major determinant of loading dose of a drug is
Half life
Clearance
Volume of distribution
Bioavailability
2
single
LOADING DOSE = Vd * target plasma concentration MAINTENANCE DOSE = Clearance * target plasma concentration
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
149a2ddf-56f1-431b-ba74-5ba05950ae9e
Divergence from contact area in proximal surfaces causes embrasures:
Facially
Lingually
Cervically
Facially, lingually, cervically & occlusally
3
multi
null
Dental
null
b973cb7b-da19-43d1-a05c-7fa5ec994cdc
Yellowish-brown staining of the IOPA dental X-ray film is due to:
Immersion in fixer without washing
Increased temperature of developer
Increased exposure time
Drying away of the developer solution
0
single
null
Radiology
null
870f28d5-6352-429f-a3c0-a881671f6d37
Which of the following is not ture about increased intracraniaL pressure
Headache
Nausea / vomiting
Muscle twitching
Somnolence
2
single
null
Surgery
null
f90856e7-a924-43b9-9e08-89b95508c61f
Retromolar pad:
Should not be covered by Low denture
Should be covered by lower denture
Has tendon of temporal muscle attached to it
Disappears on eruption of mandibular last molars
1
single
null
Dental
null
5f653449-2396-4d96-83e8-f4d2d3cb43be
The process of transfer of information from the RNA to the proteins is called:
Mutation
Translation
Transcription
Conjugation
1
multi
null
Biochemistry
null
5891372b-60e8-4a7c-b773-48598b2712e3
All of the following are potentially serious side effects of thioamide group of antithyroid drugs except:
Hepatic dysfunction
Severe rash
Agranulocytosis
Anaphylaxis
3
multi
Ans: D. Anaphylaxis(Ref. Goodman Gilman 12/e p1149; Katzung 13/e p671, 12/e p688)Adverse effects of anti-thyroid drugs:Most serious reaction: AgranulocytosisMC reaction: Mild, purpuric, uicarial papular rash.Less frequent complications: Pain & stiffness in joints, paresthesias, headache, skin pigmentation & loss of hair.ANCAs in -50% of patients receiving propylthiouracil.Cholestatic jaundice - More common with methimazole than propylthiouracil.Propylthiouracil-associated hepatic failure.
Pharmacology
null
10b14133-7f8a-43dd-ab66-b0cfd0c784c2
In which stage of neurocysticercosis, there is no edema?
Vesicular
Vesicular colloidal
Granular nodular
Nodular calcified
3
single
Ans. d. Nodular calcified (Ref Robbins 9/e1)395, SA, 1)392-393)Surrounding edema is seen in the colloidal vesicular and granular nodular stages.StageCyst wallScolexCommentVesicularNon-enhancingWall defined membraneOnly one ble scolexEccentric hyperdense hole-with-dot" appearanceSuggestive of ble larvaColloidalRing Enhancing with perilesional edemaDegenerating scolexFluid becomes more turbidEarliest stage in the cyst involution - larval degenerationGranularFocal nodular enhancing necrotic lesions with perilesional edemaDegenerating scolexEosinophilic structure Bladder and scolex are in various stages of disintegationCalcifiedSmall hyperdense nodules without perilesional edema
Pathology
null
f3f3ad74-951f-4907-913d-f5c6c6c2dd2a
Which of the following is not a pa of the quadruple test for antenatal detection of Down syndrome?
AFP
Estriol
Beta HCG
Inhibin B
3
single
TRIPLE TEST b Hcg || a feto protein || Estriol || QUADRAPLE TEST BHcg || A feto protein || Estriol || Inhibin A ||
Pathology
AIIMS 2018
3d3896ce-b736-4e9a-bb7e-cb4608cdd29a
Antibody-dependent enhancement is implicated in the immunopathogenesis of which disease?
Influenza
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
Dengue hemorrhagic fever
3
single
Ans: D. Dengue hemorrhagic feverAntiborly-dependent enhancement is implicated in the immunopathogenesis of Dengue hemorrhagic fever.
Microbiology
null
eddd8435-1826-40ba-97d9-83a73e23a5f3
The drug not belonging to amide group
Procaine
Xylocaine
Lignocaine
Bupivacaine
0
single
null
Pharmacology
null
56889b42-0d93-428e-bc1e-b4e7432944a7
Extra retention in abutment teeth is obtained with:
Dovetail
Slots, pins and grooves
Outline form
Increasing tooth reduction
1
single
null
Dental
null
815a13ca-72f8-4964-8732-04f03b313aa4
Sonic frequency range is:
1000-2000 Hz
1500-6000 Hz
20,000-30,000 Hz
10,000 Hz
1
single
null
Dental
null
4a7410ad-78f0-457e-abf9-b5beb5ec4a1c
Cause of apical periodontitis is/are:
Sequel of pulpal diseases
Wedging of foreign object between the teeth
High points in restoration
All of the above
3
multi
Apical periodontitis (AP) may occur in a vital or nonvital tooth. Causes of AP in a vital tooth: Abnormal occlusal contacts High points in restoration Wedging of foreign object between the teeth Traumatic blow to teeth (Eg: Concussion). Causes of AP in a nonvital tooth: Sequelae of pulpal diseases   Iatrogenic Apical extrusion of debris through apical foramen during RCT. Pushing irrigants or medicaments or obturating material through apical foramen.
Dental
null
3c7f7351-8925-4c0e-89e7-1d4b8e806797
Which of the following series act as the best space maintainer in a child's mouth?
Restored deciduous tooth
Acrylic partial denture
Distal shoe space maintainer
Band and loop space maintainer
0
single
null
Dental
null
5900458a-b839-47eb-a745-b93e35ba2d40
Most common cause of postauricular lymphadenopathy in children :
Sore throat
Pediculosis capitis
Pulmonary Koch's
Chronic suppurative otitis media
1
single
Posterior or Suboccipital cervical lymphadenopathy is caused by Roseola, Rubella, Scalp infections. The lymphatic drainage of posterior scalp is to the occipital region. Posterior or Suboccipital cervical lymphadenopathy without obvious disease or secondary infection is characteristic of lice. Secondary pyodenna due to scratching may result in matting together of the hair and cervical and occipital lymphadenopathy.
Pediatrics
null
a629e297-c858-4665-8991-b4c49606bf38
Infected mandibular angle fracture is treated by?
Mini plates
Reconstruction plates
Champy plate at upper border
IMF + ID
3
single
We can never place a foreign object(implant mini plates or reconstruction plates) at infection site.
Surgery
null
10bc576b-b04f-41cf-ba0f-f6536df45ca2
Of all the solvent used to dissolve Gutta Percha, safest & efficacious G.P. solvent is?
Halothane
Chloroform
Methylchloroform
Xylene
1
multi
null
Dental
null
e1cf9f3f-2fd8-40e3-96c3-1a6ecb016b22
The following enzyme is responsible for thirst mechanism during dehydration?
ADH
Noradrenaline
Epinephrine
Dopamine
0
single
Ans. A. ADH* Because, arginine vasopressin (AVP) also known as antidiuretic hormone, cannot reduce water loss below a ceain minimum level obligated by urinary solute load and evaporation from skin and lungs, a mechanism for ensuring adequate intake is essential for preventing dehydration.* This vital function is performed by the thirst mechanism.* Like AVP, thirst is regulated primarily by an osmostat that is situated in the anteromedial hypothalamus and is able to detect very small changes in the plasma concentration of sodium and ceain other effective solutes.
Physiology
null
6345cacc-9150-4410-8add-3153eaed701c
Ptosis may be caused by a lesion of the:
Oculomotor nerve
Superior oblique
Trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
0
single
null
Medicine
null
6f03967a-8c4b-4a57-8443-1c81d4543711
The treatment of choice for primary grade V vesicoureteric reflux involving both kidneys in a 6 month old boy is –
Antibiotic prophylaxis
Ureteric reimplantation
Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of teflon
Bilateral ureterostomies.
0
multi
Since the age of the boy is less than 1 year we will try medical management. See the below given tables from Nelson and the answer will be clear. Treatment Recommendation for VUR diagnosed following a UTI
Pediatrics
null
82356aae-5bd4-4503-acab-5f70c0db6bee
Idiosyncratic side-effects of carbamazepine are all except:
Steven-Johnson syndrome
Agranulocytosis
Rash
Blurred vision
3
multi
Answer- D. Blurred visionDiplopia (not the blurring of vision) is a dose related side effect of carbamazepine, while others are idiosyncratic, reactions."The most common dose-related adverse effects of carbamazepine are diplopia and ataxia. The diplopia often occursfirst and may last less than an hour during a paicular time of day
Pharmacology
null
f3b10e99-fb84-459f-8947-e90618a9e6c8
Neoplasia of blood vessel is called
Angioma
Hematoma
Lymphosarcoma
Papilloma
0
multi
null
Pathology
null
298fc434-3b3e-48bf-bd3b-cd93efb45fdb
Which of the following is innervated by the vagus nerve?
The levator veli palatine (levator palatini)
The posterior belly of digastric
Mylohyoid
The tensor veli palatine (tensor palatini)
0
single
null
Anatomy
null
da143133-e8d3-44d6-a66d-607ed0bcf458
A voluntary donor underwent apheresis for platelet donation for the first time after which he developed perioral tingling and numbness. This is seen because
His platelet count was low for donation
He underwent apheresis for the first time
Due to fluid depletion
Due to citrate based anticoagulant
3
single
SDP-Single Donor Platelet are preffered. -In this process whole bloodis drawn from one arm into a sterile kit inside a cell separating machine. -The machine separates the bloodso that onlyplateletsand plasma are collected. -The other bloodcomponents (red cells and white cells) are returned to thedonor the same arm. -Because we want the blood to flow in the proper way, so we will do addition of anti-coagulant solution like citrate based anti-coagulant. -This anti-coagulant solution will not only prevent clot formation but will also cause decrease in the concentration of ionized Ca2+ - causing transient hypocalcemia which will lead to Perioral tingling and numbness. To prevent this condition from happening we prescribe oral calcium supplementation to the respective patient or we reduce the flow of device through which the blood is supposed to pass.
Pathology
AIIMS 2017
a2106819-7406-4698-8f7d-b166a05fe17e
P3L3 came to opd with postcoital bleeding and pap positive p/v cervix hyperophied bleed on touch diagnosis -
CA cervix
Fibroid
Cervicitis
Cervical polyp
0
single
Ans. A. CA cervixSYMPTOMS:Arises from: Squamo-columnar junctionEarliest symptom: Post-coital bleedingAs the cancer progresses, symptoms may include:Unusual vaginal dischargeVaginal bleeding between periodsBleeding after menopausePyometraBleeding or pain during sexMC site: EctocervixLymph nodes affected: Obturator, hypogastric and external iliacTime taken for conversion of CIN to invasive Ca: 10 yearsMC type: Squamous cell Ca100% cure rates are seen in: CISUremia: altered sensorium and is having hiccupsMC cause of death: Renal failureCa cervix can be prevented by screeningBoth positive Pap smear and test is suggestive of CA cervix
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
6ec2995f-3b3d-495c-8768-98368ad2b08d
Which of the following PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) is removed first?
Gloves
Face shield
Gown
Mask
0
single
Personal protective equipment: PPE - protect the user against health or safety risks at work. Can include items such as safety helmets, gloves, eye- protection, high visibility clothing, safety footwear and safety harness. It can also include respiratory protective equipment (RPE) Order of removing PPE: Gloves Face shield Gown Mask
Surgery
AIIMS 2019
e0d6862e-e62f-4aa6-a4b1-f42c042e46c6
A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is called:
Mucocele
Ranula
Derrnoid cyst
Dentigerous cyst
1
multi
null
Pathology
null
c97369ec-b7b9-405c-ba9c-35cfdae8ce24
What is the maximum capacity of Bakri balloon which is used in post paum hemorrhage?
200 mL
300 in L
500 mL
1000 m L
2
multi
Ans: C. 500 mLBakri balloon:Inseed & inflated to tamponade endometrial cavity to stop bleeding.Initially staed by rapidly infusing at least 150 mL followed by fuher instillation over a few minutes for a total of 500 mL to arrest hemorrhage.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f14171b9-69fe-4e7f-b004-40f2eb8d4b8c
All of these are G2 phase blockers except:
Etoposide
Topotecan
Paclitaxel
Daunorubicin
2
multi
Ans: C. Paclitaxel(Ref: Goodman Gilman 121e p1708; Katzung 13/e p932, 12Ie p963; KDT 7/e p865)Paclitaxel:Taxane, which act by causing disruption of the cell's microtubule function by stabilizing microtubule formation.Acts on the M-phase of cell division.Binds specifically to the P-tubulin subunit of microtubules and antagonizes the disassembly of this key cvtoskeletal protein, with the result that bundles of micro-tubules and aberrant structures derived from microtubules appear in the mitotic phase of the cell cycle.Arrest in mitosis follows.
Pharmacology
null
bf4732f0-2a61-4911-8463-11e3bee37870
The primary action of topical fluoride is a:
Conversion of hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatite
Decrease in the plaque bacteria
Form a reservoir in saliva
Improve morphology of teeth
0
single
null
Dental
null
2e78ce60-b4af-41c4-b2bd-595a6e728c1d
A child is admitted on 7 days of life with severe respiratory distress and shock. He was discharged 2 days back healthy. What could be the probable diagnosis –
VSD large
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Ebstein anomaly
AP window defect
1
single
livpolastic left heart syndrome Hypoplastic left heart syndrome occurs when parts of the left side of the heart (mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, and aorta) do not develop completely. The condition is present at birth (congenital). Hypoplastic left heart is a rare type of congenital heart disease. It is more common in males than in females. As with most congenital heart defects, there is no known cause. About 10 % of patients with hypoplastic left heart syndrome also have other birth defects. The problem develops before birth when the left ventricle and other structures do not grow properly, including the: (i) Aorta-the blood vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood from the left ventricle to the entire body Entrace and exit of the ventricle Mitral and aortic valves This causes the left ventricle and aorta to be poorly developed, or hypoplastic. In most cases, the left ventricle and aorta are much smaller than normal. In patients with this condition, the left side of the heart is unable to send enough blood to the body. As a result, the right side of the heart must maintain the circulation for both the lungs and the body. The right ventricle can support the circulation to both the lungs and the body for awhile, but this extra workoad eventually causes the right side of the heart to fail. The only possibility of survival is a connection between the right and left side of the heart, or between the systemic arteries and pumonary arteries (the blood vessels that carry blodd to the lungs). Babies are normally born with two of these connections: (i) Foramen ovale (a hole between the right and left atrium) Ductus arteriosus (a small vessel that connects the aorta to the pulmonary artery) Both of these connections normally close on their own a few days after birth. In babies with hypoplastic left heart syndrome, blood from the right side of the heart travels through the ductus arteriosus. This is the only way for blood to get to the body. if the ductus arteriosus is allowed to close in a baby with hypoplastic left heart syndrome, the patient may quickly die because no blood will be pumped to the body. Babies with known hypoplatic left heart syndrome are usually started on a medicine to keep the ductus arteriosusopen. Because there is little or no flow out of the left heart, blood reaming to the heart from the lungs needs to pass through the foramen ovale or an atrial septal defect (a hole connecting the collecting chambers on the left and right sides of the heart) back to the right side of the heart. If there is no foramen ovale, or if it is too small, the baby could die. Patients with this problem have the hole between their atria opened, either with surgery or using a thin, flexible tube (heart catheterization). Symptoms At first, a newborn with hypoplastic left heart may apper normal. Symptoms usually occur in the first few hours of life, although it may take up to a few days to develop symptoms. These symptoms may include: Bluish (cyanosis) or poor skin color Cold hands and feed (extremities) Lethargy Poor pulse Poor suckling and feeding Pounding heart Rapid breathing Shortness of breath. Since the systemic circulation is dependent on the patent ductus arteriosus the closure of ductus arterious leads to shock. Signs of heart failure usually appears within the first few days or weeks of life and include dyspnoea, hepatomegaly and low cardiac output. When PDA closes suddenly shock occurs all the peripheral pulses may be weak or absent. Ventricular septal defect These patients with VSD's become symptomatic around 6-10 weeks of age. They usually present with congestive cardiac failure. Ebstein's anomaly Ebstein's anomaly consists of downward displacement of an abnormal tricuspid value into the right ventricle. These patients usually present in teenage/adolescent years. They may also present in infancy but they usually do not present with shock or severe hypoperfusion. Aorticopulmonary window defect An Aorticopulmanry window defect consists of a communication between the ascending Aorta and the main pulmonary artery. In these cases minimal cyanosis is present and they may present with heart failure in infancy.
Pediatrics
null
90b7e4be-4395-4305-9f19-8499bc1bff4a
A 20 years old boy presented with persistent cervical lymphadenopathy for the past 1 year. Histopathology of lymph node shows Reed-Sternberg cells with focal nodularity and background of T reactive lymphocytes. The cells were positive for CD20, LCA, EMA and negative for CD15 and CD30 and EBV negative. Diagnosis is:
Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma
Lymphocyte rich Hodgkin's lymphoma
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Small cell lymphoma
0
multi
Answer- A. Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphomaThis tumor contains so-called L&H (lymphocytic and histiocytic) variants, which have a multilobed nucleus resembling a popcorn kernel ("popcorn cell"). Eosinophils and plasma cells are usually scant or absent. In contrast to the Reed-Sternberg cells found in classical forms of HL, L&E variants express B-cell markers typical of germinal-cenler B cells, sach as CD20 and BCL6, and are usually negative for CD15 and CD30.Histological diagnosis is established by presence of Reed-Sterntrerg cells along with background of mixed inflammation consisting of neutrophils, plasma cells, eosinophils & histiocytes.Reed-Sternberg cells are large and are either multinucleated or have a bilobed nucleus (thus resembling an "owl's eye" appearance) with prominent eosinophilic inclusion-like nucleoli.Reed-Sternberg cells are CD30 & CD15 positive, usually negative for CD20 & CD45.Nodular sclerosisMC subtype; usually stage I or ll disease frequent mediastinal involvementMore common in females, most patients young adults
Pathology
null
82d43b40-d7e9-427f-8870-81445cc14391
Among all of the following foramens in the base of skull, which is, the most posteriorly present:
Foramen spinosum
Foramen rotundum
Foramen ovale
All at same level
0
multi
null
Anatomy
null
6370f514-0f67-4a88-835d-9d94a6ffa24d
Most common pathognomonic sign of mandibular fracture:
Sublingual hematoma.
Malocclusion
Tenderness
Buccal hematoma.
0
single
Sublingual hematoma is the best pathognomonic sign.
Surgery
null
1c392503-537c-4926-a3bc-3daf8ddefeb3
Open reduction of condylar fracture is strongly indicated in (Or) Absolute indication for open reduction in condylar fractures
Condyle fracture along with body fracture
Lateral displacement of the condyle (or) Lateral fracture dislocation condyle
200 angulations
Condyle is separated from the stump
1
single
null
Surgery
null
9572a3f9-b8a0-4fc4-96a1-cc0409721155
BCG is maximally protective against:-
Pulmonary TB
Pulmonary and CNS TB
CNS and Disseminated TB
Extra pulmonary TB
2
multi
BCG VACCINE: - Vaccine used in India- Copenhagen strain - Primarily includes cell-mediated immunity - It has low protective efficacy against primary infection & pulmonary infection & all forms of TB - But enables satisfactory protection against severe forms of TB like Miliary TB, Tubercular meningitis & reduces moality
Pediatrics
AIIMS 2018
d8c8d387-cac9-4633-b85c-9fd5f0aa2dd2
A patient underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy and was discharged on the same day. On postoperative day 3, he presented to the hospital with fever. Ultra-sonography showed a 5 x 5 cm collection in the right sub diaphragmatic region. What will be the manage!ment?
Observe with antibiotic cover
Re-explore the wound with T-tube inseion
Pigtail inseion and drainage
ERCP and proceed
2
single
Answer- C. Pigtail inseion and drainageThis patienl is most likely having a biliary leak from the cystic duct stump, which has formed a large 5 x 5 cm collection.Such a patient needs to be managed with intravenous antibiotics as well as drainage of the collections (as it acts as source of injection). Ultrasound guided pigtail inseion is the easiest method to obtain adequate drainage of the bile leak.
Surgery
null
e367bed7-6413-438a-94c7-bf4a3d7b4f4b
About Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI), all of the following are true except:
Signs and symptoms usually subsides within 2-3 weeks of onset
Suppoive care is the mainstay of treatment
Steroids have a doubtful role in management
Moality is less than 10%
0
multi
Ans: A. Signs and symptoms usually subsides within 2-3 weeks of onset(Ref Harrison 19/e p138e-5, 18/e pg 1217 Wintrobe's 14/e p 575)TRALI - Treatment & recovery:Recovery within 2-3 days (instead of 2-3 weeks).No definitive treatment.Suppoive care:Patient's oxygenation improves & return to normal in 2-3 days.
Medicine
null
f9be858f-ef2f-475e-9c82-ced530a1a623
A pregnant lady is diagnosed to be HBs Ag positive. Which of the following is the best way to prevent infection to the child:
Hepatitis vaccine to the child
Full course of Hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin to the child
Hepatitis B immunoglobulin to the mother
Hepatitis B immunization to mother
1
single
The best way to prevent infection in a child born to HBsAg positive mother is to give both active and passive immunization. Infants born to HBsAg positive mothers should be given hepatitis immunoglobulin (0.5 m 1/m) within 12 hours after birth. Along with this the first dose of hepatitis B recombinant vaccine is given. This is followed by hepatitis B vaccine at 1 and 6 months. Hepatitis B is not a contraindication for breastfeeding.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
4067ea1a-de54-4762-a2d8-54acaaf54a18
Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis infection in pregnancy is true?:
Hepatitis B core antigen status is the most sensitive indicator of positive vertical transmission of disease
Hepatitis B is the most common form of hepatitis after blood transfusion
The proper treatment of infants born to infected mothers includes the administration of hepatitis B immune globulin as well as vaccine
Patients who develop chronic active hepatitis should undergo MTP
2
multi
Persons at increased risk of hepatitis B infection include homosexuals, abusers of intravenous drugs, healthcare personnel, and people who have received blood or blood products. However, because of intensive screening of blood for type B hepatitis, hepatitis C has become the major form of hepatitis after blood transfusion. (i.e. option b. incorrect). The most sensitive indicator of positive vertical transmission of disease is HBe antigen. (i.e. option a. incorrect). The proper treatment of infants born to infected mothers include administration of hepatitis B immune globulin as well as vaccine. Chronic acute hepatitis does not necessarily warrant therapeutic abortion (i.e. option d. incorrect). Fertility is decreased, but pregnancy may proceed on a normal course as long as steroid therapy is continued. Prematurity and fetal loss are increased, but there is no increase in malformations.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
1546ba77-5320-472a-9b48-ac0a2734f57a
Endocarditis is most commonly seen in:
Aortic stenosis.
Mitral regurgitation.
Patent ductus arteriosus.
Venous bypass graft.
0
single
null
Medicine
null
52214090-675c-402d-b898-bb6c05aa3e95
A patient with multiple loose teeth requires extraction and has mitral stenosis with mild cardiac insufficiency. He is on enalapril, digoxin, and furosemide. The antibiotic of choice to prevent bacterial endocarditis is:
Amoxicillin
Doxycycline
Cotrimoxazole
Gentamicin
0
single
null
Medicine
null
18c1a5f9-d998-414e-bb9c-991191c10710
A patient with a history of diabetes for one year with no other complications should have an ophthalmic examination?
As early as feasible
After 5 years
After 10 years
Only after visual symptoms level
0
single
Answer- A i.e. As early as feasibleAll diabetic (IDDM & NIDDM both) aged over 12 years and/or entering pubey should be screened (visual activity measurement and fundus examination by ophthalmoscopy)For retinopathy. and those with risk for visual loss referred to an ophthalmologist.Type I DM (IDDM) require ophthalmoscopic examination within 3 years of diagnosis and annual review. (If lt is diagnosed before the age of pubey).Type II DM (NIDDM) require ophthalmoscopic examination at the time of diagnosis (because it is usually diagnosed after the age of 12 years) and annual review.
Ophthalmology
null
94cfe1dc-7810-4c50-af95-87a3c560f6bb
An I.V. drug abuser presents with fever for 10 days. CXR shows B/L lower lobe consolidation with necrosis and right sided pyopneumothorax. Probable diagnosis is:
MV endocarditis due to viridans Streptococci
TV endocarditis due to Staph. aureus
Tuberculosis
Pneumocystis jirovecii infection
1
single
Infective endocarditis typically occurs at sites of pre-existing endocardial damage, but infection with particularly virulent or aggressive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus can cause endocarditis in a previously normal heart. Staphylococcal endocarditis of the tricuspid valve is a common complication of intravenous drug use. Many acquired and congenital cardiac lesions are vulnerable, particularly areas of endocardial damage caused by a high-pressure jet of blood, such as ventricular septal defect, mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation, many of which are haemodynamically insignificant. In contrast, the risk of endocarditis at the site of haemodynamically important low-pressure lesions, such as a large atrial septal defect, is minimal. Reference: : Davidson 23rd ed page no 527
Medicine
null
0f86c441-70a5-466d-b59f-1512fe88cbfd
A breast fed child presents with hypernatremia (Serum sodium > 170m Eq/L). His urine sodium is 70 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause –
Diabetes insipidus
Acute necrosis
Severe dehydration
Excessive intake of sodium
3
single
The child is having hypernatremia. Serum sodium >170 rnEq/L (Normal level is 135-145 mEq/L). Urine sodium is also very high, >70mEq/L (Normal urine sodium level in <20 mEq/L) This combination can be seen with excessive intake of sodium. With excessive intake of sodium there will be increase in serum sodium and excessive excretion of sodium in urine (Kidney tries to compensate for increase in serum sodium by excreting large amount of sodium). Diabetes Insipidus      ->    Serum sodium conc. will be high but urine sodium conc. will be very low (Lack of ADH leads to defect in concentration of urine). Acute necrosis            ->    Urine sodium conc. will be high but serum sodium conc. will be low.  Severe dehydration    ->   Urine sodium concentration will be low.
Pediatrics
null
4329bad6-ab20-42bc-8cb5-b89601d7bdee
Gingival massage increases blood supply in:
Epidermis
Basal layer
Lamina propria
All of the above
2
multi
null
Dental
null
3b514c9e-965c-463a-b141-9dcecd91c957
Initial calcification of crown represents Which Nolla's stage:
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
1
single
Stages 0 : Absence of crypt 1 : Presence of crypt 2 : Initial calcification of crown 3 : 1/3rd calcification of crown – completed 4 : 2/3rd of crown completed 5 : Crown almost completed 6 : Complete calcification of crown. Tooth shows eruptive movement 7 : 1/3rd of root completed 8 : 2/3rd of Root completed 9 : Root almost completed with open apex 10 : Apical end of Root completed
Dental
null
2b325080-a90d-4813-b2bd-cfa4fa246c27
Plastic carrier size of 40-90 in carrier base Gutta percha are made from?
Poly propylene
Poly Sulphone
Poly Sulphide
Liquid crystal plastic
1
single
null
Dental
null
22f5d1c3-8073-452a-937e-63414dc5065e
All of the following are true for light cure composite except:
Held at distance of 1 mm from tooth
Use of orange glass shield for eye protection
Polymerization reaction continues for a period of 72 hours
Adding increments of 1-2 mm
2
multi
In case of light cure composites, application of light source to the composite material is held at a distance of 1 mm from the tooth surface and the 1-2 mm of increments are added, bulk addition of composite is contraindicated.  Usually, 70% of polymerization takes place during the first 10 minutes, though the polymerization reaction continues for a period of 24 hours.  The operator is asked to wear an orange glass shield for the protection of the eyes. Ref: Textbook of Operative Dentistry, Nisha and Amit Garg, 3rd edition, Pg no:264
Dental
null
a9dcb424-8323-4d52-9cf6-22edf370b728
The joint which histologically & morphologically best simulate the TMJ is
5th costochondral graft
3rd metatarsal graft
Sternoclavicular graft
None of the above
2
multi
null
Surgery
null
5c0f862f-2651-4ed4-88d4-2456dab0f036
A patient sustained A and endotracheal intubation was done. Most likely GCS score of such a patient would be:March 2013 (b, c, d)
8
10
12
15
0
single
Ans. A i.e. 8Patients with severe head injury, an altered level of consciousness, or a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8 or less usually require placement of a definitive airway.Orotracheal or nasotracheal intubation can be attempted with cervical spine precautions if a second person maintains axial immobilization of the head to prevent destabilization of the spine.In this patient, GCS score was 8, so endotracheal intubation was done to secure airway.You don't have to calculate the GCS score of this patient after intubation.
Surgery
null
c6a12e46-d354-43bf-9230-6fe2fb96feab
Rapid onset of action seen by local anesthesia in small nerve endings is due to
Increased threshold of small nerves due to depolarization
Low pH of small nerve fibres
High ratio of surface area to the volume of small nerve fibres
Increased resting potential of small nerve fibres
2
multi
null
Surgery
null
05887319-687e-4b8e-a850-9c4097ceeef7
Which of the following intrauterine infections is associated with limb reduction defects and scarring of skin –
Varicella virus
Herpes virus
Rubella
Parvovirus
0
single
Congenital varicella syndrome is characteristically associated with scarring of skin and limb reduction defect (limb hypoplasia). Perinatal chicken Pox (Perinatal varicella infection) The baby may develop two types of complications depending on the period of gestation.
Pediatrics
null
6e76c806-14b1-49b3-a6f9-898a83447e54
Acromegaly is associated with
Class. I malocclusion
Class. I cross bite
Class. II malocclusion
Class. III malocclusion
3
single
null
Dental
null