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The Raga which is sung early in the morning is
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Todi
|
Darbari
|
Bhopali
|
Todi
|
Togo is the Raga which is sung early in the morning.
|
a
|
Indian Music
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Raga which is sung early in the morning is##Option_A: Todi###Option_B: Darbari##Option_C: Bhopali##Option_D: Todi##Answer:a##Explaination:Togo is the Raga which is sung early in the morning.##Topic:Indian Music##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed as the ‘Jagadguru’ by his Muslim subjects because of his belief in secularism?
|
Husain Shah
|
Zain-ul-Abidin
|
Ibrahim Adil Shah
|
Husain Shah
|
Ibrahim Adil Shah was called ‘Jagadguru’ and ‘Adilbaba’ by his people because of his belief in Secularism.
|
c
|
Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed as the ‘Jagadguru’ by his Muslim subjects because of his belief in secularism?##Option_A: Husain Shah ###Option_B: Zain-ul-Abidin##Option_C: Ibrahim Adil Shah ##Option_D: Husain Shah ##Answer:c##Explaination:Ibrahim Adil Shah was called ‘Jagadguru’ and ‘Adilbaba’ by his people because of his belief in Secularism.##Topic:Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Who among the following streamlined the Maratha administration after Sambhaji ?
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Raja Ram
|
Balaji Viswanath
|
Ganga Bai
|
Raja Ram
|
Peshwa Balaji Viswanah streamlined the Maratha administration after Sambhaji.
|
b
|
Indian Kingdoms in 18th century: Marathas, Punjab, Mysore, Hyderabad etc
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following streamlined the Maratha administration after Sambhaji ?##Option_A: Raja Ram ###Option_B: Balaji Viswanath##Option_C: Ganga Bai ##Option_D: Raja Ram ##Answer:b##Explaination:Peshwa Balaji Viswanah streamlined the Maratha administration after Sambhaji.##Topic:Indian Kingdoms in 18th century: Marathas, Punjab, Mysore, Hyderabad etc##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given the lists : List-I List-II A. Iqta. 1. Marathas B. Jagir. 2. Delhi Sultans C. Amaram. 3. Mughals D. Mokasa. 4. Vijayanagara
|
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
|
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
|
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
|
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
|
These were all land grants. Iqta – Delhi Sultans, Jagir – Mughals Amaram – Vijayanagara rulers, Mokasa – Marathas
|
b
|
Others
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given the lists : List-I List-II A. Iqta. 1. Marathas B. Jagir. 2. Delhi Sultans C. Amaram. 3. Mughals D. Mokasa. 4. Vijayanagara##Option_A:A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 ###Option_B:A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1##Option_C:A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 ##Option_D:A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 ##Answer:b##Explaination:These were all land grants. Iqta – Delhi Sultans, Jagir – Mughals Amaram – Vijayanagara rulers, Mokasa – Marathas##Topic:Others##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1.In the Prime Ministerial form of government the decisions are taken very fast. 2.In the Cabinet form of government the President of India is the sole authority to make decisions 3.Prime Ministerial form of government as the word is mentioned under the constitution. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1.In the Prime Ministerial form of government the decisions are taken very fast. 2.In the Cabinet form of government the President of India is the sole authority to make decisions 3.Prime Ministerial form of government as the word is mentioned under the constitution. Which of the statements given above are not correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
“In this instance we could not play off the Mohammedans against the Hindus.” To which one of the following events did this remark of Aitchison relate ?
|
Revolt of 1857
|
Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
|
Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement (1919-22)
|
Revolt of 1857
|
During the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement period, Muslims joined with Hindus to struggle against the common enemy British. This period had seen unprecedented unity between these two religions. This forced Aitchison to make the above statement.
|
c
|
The Khilafat Movement (1920-22) and Non Cooperation Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:“In this instance we could not play off the Mohammedans against the Hindus.” To which one of the following events did this remark of Aitchison relate ?##Option_A: Revolt of 1857###Option_B: Champaran Satyagraha (1917)##Option_C: Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement (1919-22)##Option_D: Revolt of 1857##Answer:c##Explaination:During the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement period, Muslims joined with Hindus to struggle against the common enemy British. This period had seen unprecedented unity between these two religions. This forced Aitchison to make the above statement.##Topic:The Khilafat Movement (1920-22) and Non Cooperation Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
The Indian National Army (I.N.A.) came into existence in 1943 in
|
Japan
|
Then Burma
|
Singapore
|
Japan
|
Though INA was formed by Captain Mohan Singh, on 1 September 1942, it was failed and came into existence again on 2 July 1943, when Subhash Chandra Bose reached Singapore and gave the rousing war cry of “Dilli Chalo”.
|
c
|
Subhas Bose and Indian National Army
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Indian National Army (I.N.A.) came into existence in 1943 in ##Option_A: Japan ###Option_B: Then Burma##Option_C: Singapore ##Option_D: Japan ##Answer:c##Explaination:Though INA was formed by Captain Mohan Singh, on 1 September 1942, it was failed and came into existence again on 2 July 1943, when Subhash Chandra Bose reached Singapore and gave the rousing war cry of “Dilli Chalo”.##Topic:Subhas Bose and Indian National Army##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
The last major extension of British Indian territory took place during the time of
|
Dufferin
|
Dalhousie
|
Lytton
|
Dufferin
|
Dalhousie (1849-56) introduced the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ which proved fatal for the princely states. Based on this, he annexed a lot of States and expanded the British Indian territory to a large extent.
|
b
|
Works of British Governor Generals
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The last major extension of British Indian territory took place during the time of##Option_A: Dufferin ###Option_B: Dalhousie##Option_C: Lytton ##Option_D: Dufferin ##Answer:b##Explaination:Dalhousie (1849-56) introduced the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ which proved fatal for the princely states. Based on this, he annexed a lot of States and expanded the British Indian territory to a large extent.##Topic:Works of British Governor Generals##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
As an alternative to the partition of India, Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he
|
Postpone granting of independence
|
Invite Jinnah to form the government
|
Invite Nehru and Jinnah to form the government together
|
Postpone granting of independence
|
Gandhiji, as an alternative to the partition of India, suggested to Mountbatten to invite Jinnah to form the Government. But it was opposed by Congress as well as Muslim League.
|
b
|
Partition Other Dimensions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As an alternative to the partition of India, Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he##Option_A: Postpone granting of independence###Option_B: Invite Jinnah to form the government##Option_C: Invite Nehru and Jinnah to form the government together##Option_D: Postpone granting of independence##Answer:b##Explaination:Gandhiji, as an alternative to the partition of India, suggested to Mountbatten to invite Jinnah to form the Government. But it was opposed by Congress as well as Muslim League.##Topic:Partition Other Dimensions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The native state of Tripura became involved in the Freedom movement early in the 20 th century because
|
The kings of Tripura were always anti-British
|
The Bengal revolutionaries took shelter in Tripura
|
The tribes of the state were fiercely freedom loving
|
The kings of Tripura were always anti-British
|
Tripura became involved in the freedom struggle early in the 20th century because there were already some groups (Bengal revolutionary armies) who were fighting against the Kingship ‘and its protector, the British.
|
d
|
Other Dimensions of freedom struggle
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The native state of Tripura became involved in the Freedom movement early in the 20 th century because##Option_A: The kings of Tripura were always anti-British###Option_B: The Bengal revolutionaries took shelter in Tripura##Option_C: The tribes of the state were fiercely freedom loving##Option_D: The kings of Tripura were always anti-British##Answer:d##Explaination:Tripura became involved in the freedom struggle early in the 20th century because there were already some groups (Bengal revolutionary armies) who were fighting against the Kingship ‘and its protector, the British.##Topic:Other Dimensions of freedom struggle##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in
|
Chauri-Chaura
|
Dandi
|
Champaran
|
Chauri-Chaura
|
In 1915, Gandhiji returned from South Africa, and in 1917, at Champaran (Bihar) he experimented the Satyagraha to alleviate the problems of indigo cultivators.
|
c
|
The Beginning of the Gandhian Era
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in##Option_A: Chauri-Chaura ###Option_B: Dandi##Option_C: Champaran ##Option_D: Chauri-Chaura ##Answer:c##Explaination:In 1915, Gandhiji returned from South Africa, and in 1917, at Champaran (Bihar) he experimented the Satyagraha to alleviate the problems of indigo cultivators.##Topic:The Beginning of the Gandhian Era##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Chittagong Armoury Raid 1. Kalpana Dutt B. Abhinav Bharat 2. Guru Ram Singh C. Anushilan Samiti 3. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar D. Kuka Movement 4. Aurobindo Ghosh
|
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
|
A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
|
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
|
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
|
Kalpana Dutt and Preeti Lata Waddedar were associated with Chittagong Armoury Raid in 1930, under the leadership of Surya Sen. Abhinav Bharat was as revolutionary organisation founded by V.D. Savarkar in 1904, Aurobindo Ghosh was associated with Anushilan Samiti, which was founded by Sisir Kumar Ghosh in Bengal. Kuka Rebellious movement was organized by Ram Singh in Punjab in 1863.
|
a
|
Prsonality Based Questions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Chittagong Armoury Raid 1. Kalpana Dutt B. Abhinav Bharat 2. Guru Ram Singh C. Anushilan Samiti 3. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar D. Kuka Movement 4. Aurobindo Ghosh ##Option_A:A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 ###Option_B:A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4##Option_C:A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 ##Option_D:A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:Kalpana Dutt and Preeti Lata Waddedar were associated with Chittagong Armoury Raid in 1930, under the leadership of Surya Sen. Abhinav Bharat was as revolutionary organisation founded by V.D. Savarkar in 1904, Aurobindo Ghosh was associated with Anushilan Samiti, which was founded by Sisir Kumar Ghosh in Bengal. Kuka Rebellious movement was organized by Ram Singh in Punjab in 1863.##Topic:Prsonality Based Questions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Land allotted to big feudal landlords 1. Jagirdari System B. Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors 2. Ryotwari System C. Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage, gift or sell 3. Mahalwari D. Revenue settlements made at village level 4. Zamindari System
|
A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
|
A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
|
A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
|
A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
|
The system in which Land allotted to a big landlord was called Jagirdari System, (jagirdar = landlord). The system in which land allotted to revenue farmers of rent collectors (Zamindars) was Zamindari System. The land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage transfer, girt or sell was called as Ryotwari System, as individual farmer had the owning rights. (Mahal = Village) If revenue settlement was made at village level, then it was called as Mahalwari System.
|
b
|
Changes in Indian Administration after 1858
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Land allotted to big feudal landlords 1. Jagirdari System B. Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors 2. Ryotwari System C. Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage, gift or sell 3. Mahalwari D. Revenue settlements made at village level 4. Zamindari System##Option_A:A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 ###Option_B:A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3##Option_C:A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 ##Option_D:A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 ##Answer:b##Explaination:The system in which Land allotted to a big landlord was called Jagirdari System, (jagirdar = landlord). The system in which land allotted to revenue farmers of rent collectors (Zamindars) was Zamindari System. The land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage transfer, girt or sell was called as Ryotwari System, as individual farmer had the owning rights. (Mahal = Village) If revenue settlement was made at village level, then it was called as Mahalwari System.##Topic:Changes in Indian Administration after 1858##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow describe the August Movement of 1942 as the most serious revolt after the Sepoy mutiny. Reason (R): Peasants joined the movement in large number in some places.
|
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
|
A is true but R is false
|
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
The Quit India Movement which was started on 8 August, 1942 had, unprecedent involvement of peasant community which made the struggle more fierce. Thus Lord Linlithgow described this movement as the most serious rebellion since Sepoy Mutiny.
|
a
|
The Quit India Movement, I942
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow describe the August Movement of 1942 as the most serious revolt after the Sepoy mutiny. Reason (R): Peasants joined the movement in large number in some places.##Option_A: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A###Option_B: Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A##Option_C: A is true but R is false##Option_D: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A##Answer:a##Explaination:The Quit India Movement which was started on 8 August, 1942 had, unprecedent involvement of peasant community which made the struggle more fierce. Thus Lord Linlithgow described this movement as the most serious rebellion since Sepoy Mutiny.##Topic:The Quit India Movement, I942##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Assertion (A): The basic weakness of the early nationalist movement lay in its narrow social base. Reason (R): It fought for the narrow interests of the social groups which joined it.
|
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
|
A is true but R is false
|
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
Early nationalists fought for the rights of the common man also. The reason for narrow social base of the early Nationalist movement was, the organization in those starting days was weak and at any point the British could crush it. So, leaders confined to mere prayers and petitions.
|
c
|
Moderate Phase (1885 – 1905)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): The basic weakness of the early nationalist movement lay in its narrow social base. Reason (R): It fought for the narrow interests of the social groups which joined it.##Option_A: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A###Option_B: Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A##Option_C: A is true but R is false##Option_D: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A##Answer:c##Explaination:Early nationalists fought for the rights of the common man also. The reason for narrow social base of the early Nationalist movement was, the organization in those starting days was weak and at any point the British could crush it. So, leaders confined to mere prayers and petitions.##Topic:Moderate Phase (1885 – 1905)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
While delivering the presidential address, the Congress President who advocated the introduction of Roman script for Hindi language was:
|
Mahatma Gandhi
|
Jawaharlal Nehru
|
Abul Kalam Azad
|
Mahatma Gandhi
|
It was Subhash Chandra Bose during his Presidential address in 1938, advocated the introduction of Roman Script for Hindu Language..
|
d
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:While delivering the presidential address, the Congress President who advocated the introduction of Roman script for Hindi language was:##Option_A: Mahatma Gandhi ###Option_B: Jawaharlal Nehru##Option_C: Abul Kalam Azad ##Option_D: Mahatma Gandhi ##Answer:d##Explaination:It was Subhash Chandra Bose during his Presidential address in 1938, advocated the introduction of Roman Script for Hindu Language..##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of British India came forward with a plan for a united and independent existence?
|
Punjab
|
Assam
|
Bengal
|
Punjab
|
During the Partition of India, Punjab province came forward with a plan for a United and Independent existent. But due to Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel’s effort, Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU) became a part of Indian Union.
|
a
|
Partition Other Dimensions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of British India came forward with a plan for a united and independent existence?##Option_A: Punjab ###Option_B:Assam##Option_C: Bengal ##Option_D: Punjab ##Answer:a##Explaination:During the Partition of India, Punjab province came forward with a plan for a United and Independent existent. But due to Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel’s effort, Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU) became a part of Indian Union.##Topic:Partition Other Dimensions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain–child of
|
W. Churchill
|
M.A. Jinnah
|
Lord Mountbatten
|
W. Churchill
|
British Government authorized Lord Mountbatten to resolve the situation as early as possible. It is he who felt that the situation had deteriorated so much, that the creation of Pakistan appeared inevitable.
|
c
|
Partition Other Dimensions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain–child of##Option_A: W. Churchill ###Option_B: M.A. Jinnah##Option_C: Lord Mountbatten ##Option_D: W. Churchill ##Answer:c##Explaination:British Government authorized Lord Mountbatten to resolve the situation as early as possible. It is he who felt that the situation had deteriorated so much, that the creation of Pakistan appeared inevitable.##Topic:Partition Other Dimensions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress: 1. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the Congress 2. C.R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of the Congress 3. The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was Alan Octavian Hume 4. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894 Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 4
|
2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 3
|
Sarojini Naidu was second woman to preside over the Congress in 1925, first woman was Annie Besant in 1917, C. R. Das presided over Congress from Prison in 1921. A.O. Hume was the founder of Indian National Congress. But he never presided over the Congress. Sir Alfred Webb was the President of Madras Session of Congress in 1894.
|
b
|
Prsonality Based Questions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress: 1. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the Congress 2. C.R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of the Congress 3. The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was Alan Octavian Hume 4. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894 Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 ###Option_B: 2 and 4##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 ##Option_D: 1 and 3 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Sarojini Naidu was second woman to preside over the Congress in 1925, first woman was Annie Besant in 1917, C. R. Das presided over Congress from Prison in 1921. A.O. Hume was the founder of Indian National Congress. But he never presided over the Congress. Sir Alfred Webb was the President of Madras Session of Congress in 1894.##Topic:Prsonality Based Questions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which one of the following is NOT a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935 ?
|
Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
|
A bicameral legislature
|
Provincial autonomy
|
Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
|
Diarchy was introduced at the centre but not in the provinces. Diarchy was introduced in the province through GOI act, 1919 but it was abolished by the GOI act, 1935.
|
a
|
The Government of India Act, 1935
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following is NOT a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935 ?##Option_A: Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces###Option_B: A bicameral legislature##Option_C: Provincial autonomy##Option_D: Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces##Answer:a##Explaination:Diarchy was introduced at the centre but not in the provinces. Diarchy was introduced in the province through GOI act, 1919 but it was abolished by the GOI act, 1935.##Topic:The Government of India Act, 1935##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Gild-edged market means
|
Bullion market
|
Market of Government securities
|
Market of guns
|
Bullion market
|
Gilt edged market means the market of Government securities. They are Gilt edged because it is certain that interest will be paid and they will be redeemed on the due date.
|
b
|
Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Gild-edged market means##Option_A: Bullion market###Option_B: Market of Government securities##Option_C: Market of guns##Option_D: Bullion market##Answer:b##Explaination:Gilt edged market means the market of Government securities. They are Gilt edged because it is certain that interest will be paid and they will be redeemed on the due date.##Topic:Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is : (C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Govt. Expenditure, total exports and total imports respectively)
|
Y = C + I + G + X
|
Y = C + I + G – X + M
|
Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
|
Y = C + I + G + X
|
nan
|
c
|
Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is : (C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Govt. Expenditure, total exports and total imports respectively)##Option_A: Y = C + I + G + X###Option_B: Y = C + I + G – X + M##Option_C: Y = C + I + G + (X – M)##Option_D: Y = C + I + G + X##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
The new GDP series released by the CSO in February, 1999 is with reference to base price of
|
1991-92
|
1992-93
|
1993-94
|
1991-92
|
nan
|
c
|
GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The new GDP series released by the CSO in February, 1999 is with reference to base price of ##Option_A: 1991-92 ###Option_B: 1992-93##Option_C: 1993-94 ##Option_D: 1991-92 ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Match List I (Power Generation Plant) with List II (Feed material) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. M/s Gowthami Solvents Oil Limited, Andhra Pradesh 1. Rice husk B. M/s K.M. Sugar Mills, Uttar Pradesh. 2. Slaughter-house waste C. M/s Satia Paper Mills, Punjab. 3. Distillery spent wash D. M/s Al Kabeer Exports Ltd., Andhra Pradesh. 4. Black liquor
|
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
|
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
|
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
|
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
|
A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
|
b
|
Energy Resourcesconventional and nonconventional resources
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match List I (Power Generation Plant) with List II (Feed material) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. M/s Gowthami Solvents Oil Limited, Andhra Pradesh 1. Rice husk B. M/s K.M. Sugar Mills, Uttar Pradesh. 2. Slaughter-house waste C. M/s Satia Paper Mills, Punjab. 3. Distillery spent wash D. M/s Al Kabeer Exports Ltd., Andhra Pradesh. 4. Black liquor ##Option_A:A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 ###Option_B:A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2##Option_C:A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 ##Option_D:A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 ##Answer:b##Explaination:A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2##Topic:Energy Resourcesconventional and nonconventional resources##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
The first Indian state to have its Human Development Report prepared and released by Amartya Kumar Sen in Delhi is
|
West Bengal
|
Kerala
|
Madhya Pradesh
|
West Bengal
|
Madhya Pradesh
|
c
|
Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The first Indian state to have its Human Development Report prepared and released by Amartya Kumar Sen in Delhi is##Option_A: West Bengal ###Option_B: Kerala##Option_C: Madhya Pradesh ##Option_D: West Bengal ##Answer:c##Explaination:Madhya Pradesh##Topic:Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20/- in 1867-68, was ascertained for the first time by
|
M.G. Ranade
|
Sir W. Hunter
|
R.C. Dutta
|
M.G. Ranade
|
For the first time in 1867-68, Dada Bhai Naoroji had ascertained the per capita income, in his book “poverty and un-British rule in India”, as Rs. 20/-
|
d
|
Economic policies and their impact, Education Policies
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20/- in 1867-68, was ascertained for the first time by##Option_A: M.G. Ranade ###Option_B: Sir W. Hunter##Option_C: R.C. Dutta ##Option_D: M.G. Ranade ##Answer:d##Explaination:For the first time in 1867-68, Dada Bhai Naoroji had ascertained the per capita income, in his book “poverty and un-British rule in India”, as Rs. 20/-##Topic:Economic policies and their impact, Education Policies##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Industrial Link) List-II (Centre) A. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd. 1. Bangalore B. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. 2. Bhubaneshwar C. Indian Farmers Ltd. Co-operative Ltd. 3. Kalol D. National Aluminium Company Ltd. 4. Sonipat
|
A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
|
A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
|
A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
|
A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
|
A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2
|
d
|
Industriestypes and their locational factors
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Industrial Link) List-II (Centre) A. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd. 1. Bangalore B. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. 2. Bhubaneshwar C. Indian Farmers Ltd. Co-operative Ltd. 3. Kalol D. National Aluminium Company Ltd. 4. Sonipat ##Option_A:A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 ###Option_B:A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2##Option_C:A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 ##Option_D:A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2##Topic:Industriestypes and their locational factors##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Match List I (Industrial processes) with List II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I List II A. Cracking 1. Rubber B. Smelting 2. Petroleum C. Hydrogenation 3. Copper D. Vulcanization 4. Edible Fats
|
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
|
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
|
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
|
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
|
A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match List I (Industrial processes) with List II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I List II A. Cracking 1. Rubber B. Smelting 2. Petroleum C. Hydrogenation 3. Copper D. Vulcanization 4. Edible Fats ##Option_A:A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 ###Option_B:A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 ##Option_C:A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 ##Option_D:A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 ##Answer:b##Explaination:A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set ?
|
Light waves
|
Sound waves
|
Microwaves
|
Light waves
|
Radio waves are used to transmit radio and T.V. signals.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set ?##Option_A: Light waves ###Option_B: Sound waves##Option_C: Microwaves ##Option_D: Light waves ##Answer:d##Explaination:Radio waves are used to transmit radio and T.V. signals.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Fluorescent tubes are fitted with a choke. The choke oil
|
Steps up the line voltage
|
Steps down the line voltage
|
Reduces current in the circuit
|
Steps up the line voltage
|
The choke oil steps up the line voltage. In a fluorescent tube (tube light) a starter is used which increases the current and sends it to the choke. The choke-oil increases the voltage of this current and sends it to tube light and the tube lights up. After this, the work of starter is completed and the choke oil is used to balance the voltage levels to save the tube from damage.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Fluorescent tubes are fitted with a choke. The choke oil##Option_A: Steps up the line voltage###Option_B: Steps down the line voltage##Option_C: Reduces current in the circuit##Option_D: Steps up the line voltage##Answer:a##Explaination:The choke oil steps up the line voltage. In a fluorescent tube (tube light) a starter is used which increases the current and sends it to the choke. The choke-oil increases the voltage of this current and sends it to tube light and the tube lights up. After this, the work of starter is completed and the choke oil is used to balance the voltage levels to save the tube from damage.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use chlorofluoro-carbons. Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquefied at ambient temperatures at low pressures.
|
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
|
A is true but R is false
|
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use chlorofluoro-carbons. Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquefied at ambient temperatures at low pressures.##Option_A: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A###Option_B: Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A##Option_C: A is true but R is false##Option_D: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements : Hard water is not suitable for 1. Drinking 2. Washing clothes with soap 3. Use in boilers 4. Irrigating crops Which of these statements are correct ?
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1, 2 and 4
|
1 and 3
|
Hardness of water is due to presence of bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium. It does not produce lather with soaps or detergents. When boiled, in the boilers, the salts of calcium and magnesium are deposited on the walls of the boilers.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements : Hard water is not suitable for 1. Drinking 2. Washing clothes with soap 3. Use in boilers 4. Irrigating crops Which of these statements are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 3 ###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 ##Option_D: 1 and 3 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Hardness of water is due to presence of bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium. It does not produce lather with soaps or detergents. When boiled, in the boilers, the salts of calcium and magnesium are deposited on the walls of the boilers.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
A small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because silica gel
|
Kills bacteria
|
Kills germs and spores
|
Absorbs moisture
|
Kills bacteria
|
Silica gel is found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because it absorbs the moisture and thereby increase the storing life of medicine.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because silica gel##Option_A: Kills bacteria###Option_B: Kills germs and spores##Option_C: Absorbs moisture##Option_D: Kills bacteria##Answer:c##Explaination:Silica gel is found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because it absorbs the moisture and thereby increase the storing life of medicine.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the
|
Seeds have very high oil content
|
Oil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids
|
Oil has long shelf-life
|
Seeds have very high oil content
|
‘Canola’ are a special type of all seed mustard varieties bred for oil rich in unsaturated fatty acids.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the##Option_A: Seeds have very high oil content###Option_B: Oil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids##Option_C: Oil has long shelf-life##Option_D: Seeds have very high oil content##Answer:b##Explaination:‘Canola’ are a special type of all seed mustard varieties bred for oil rich in unsaturated fatty acids.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Soft drinks such as colas contain significant quantifies of
|
Caffeine
|
Nicotine
|
Tannin
|
Caffeine
|
Tannin
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Soft drinks such as colas contain significant quantifies of ##Option_A: Caffeine ###Option_B: Nicotine##Option_C: Tannin ##Option_D: Caffeine ##Answer:c##Explaination:Tannin##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Insect-resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an
|
Virus
|
Bacterium
|
Insect
|
Virus
|
Transgenic cotton resistant to bollworm, (Heliothis armigera), a lepidopteran insect pest was developed by inserting a toxin gene (Cry 1 AC) taken from a bacterium (Bacillus thruingiensis). This transgenic cotton was released commercially in India as Bt cotton.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Insect-resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an##Option_A: Virus ###Option_B: Bacterium##Option_C: Insect ##Option_D: Virus ##Answer:b##Explaination:Transgenic cotton resistant to bollworm, (Heliothis armigera), a lepidopteran insect pest was developed by inserting a toxin gene (Cry 1 AC) taken from a bacterium (Bacillus thruingiensis). This transgenic cotton was released commercially in India as Bt cotton.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of
|
Monoclonal antibodies
|
Interferon
|
Antibiotics
|
Monoclonal antibodies
|
Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of Monoclonal antibodies which are highly specific to the including antigen, and are relatively cheaper.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of##Option_A: Monoclonal antibodies ###Option_B: Interferon##Option_C: Antibiotics ##Option_D: Monoclonal antibodies ##Answer:a##Explaination:Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of Monoclonal antibodies which are highly specific to the including antigen, and are relatively cheaper.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of :
|
Eight binary digits
|
Eight decimal digits
|
Two binary digits
|
Eight binary digits
|
A byte is made up of eight binary digits (bit). Each number, letter, symbol etc. put into a computer is turned into a group of eight bits (bytes). A bit is a term which can have the value of zero or one.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of :##Option_A: Eight binary digits ###Option_B: Eight decimal digits##Option_C: Two binary digits ##Option_D: Eight binary digits ##Answer:a##Explaination:A byte is made up of eight binary digits (bit). Each number, letter, symbol etc. put into a computer is turned into a group of eight bits (bytes). A bit is a term which can have the value of zero or one.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a
|
Quartz crystal
|
Titanium needle
|
Laser beam
|
Quartz crystal
|
Titanium needle. Interference is the reason for reproducing sound.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a ##Option_A: Quartz crystal ###Option_B: Titanium needle##Option_C: Laser beam ##Option_D: Quartz crystal ##Answer:b##Explaination:Titanium needle. Interference is the reason for reproducing sound.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1–12–1999: “….Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to 30. The National Assembly was split between liberal, pro-government and Shiite Muslim depties who were in favour of women’s rights, while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists and tribal MPs. A total of 64 MPs and Ministers were present, of who two abstained.” The Parliament referred to in this quotation is that of
|
Kuwait
|
Iran
|
Bahrain
|
Kuwait
|
The Parliament referred to in the quotation is that of Kuwait.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1–12–1999: “….Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to 30. The National Assembly was split between liberal, pro-government and Shiite Muslim depties who were in favour of women’s rights, while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists and tribal MPs. A total of 64 MPs and Ministers were present, of who two abstained.” The Parliament referred to in this quotation is that of##Option_A: Kuwait ###Option_B: Iran##Option_C: Bahrain ##Option_D: Kuwait ##Answer:a##Explaination:The Parliament referred to in the quotation is that of Kuwait.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:a
|
Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars : 1. Radial tyres 2. Streamline body 3. Multipoint fuel injection 4. Catalytic converter with exhaust Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more fueld efficient ?
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 2
|
Streamline body and Multipoint fuel Injection.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars : 1. Radial tyres 2. Streamline body 3. Multipoint fuel injection 4. Catalytic converter with exhaust Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more fueld efficient ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Streamline body and Multipoint fuel Injection.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Which one of the following countries occupies the first place in the “Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum?
|
U.S.A.
|
Singapore
|
Hong Kong
|
U.S.A.
|
Singapore occupies the first place in the “Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following countries occupies the first place in the “Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum? ##Option_A: U.S.A. ###Option_B: Singapore ##Option_C: Hong Kong ##Option_D: U.S.A. ##Answer:b##Explaination:Singapore occupies the first place in the “Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:b
|
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Development Programe 1. UN India Human Development Report B. National Council of Applied Economic Research 2. India Development Report C. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research 3. World Development Report D. World Bank 4. Human Development Report
|
A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
|
A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
|
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
|
A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
|
A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
|
c
|
Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Development Programe 1. UN India Human Development Report B. National Council of Applied Economic Research 2. India Development Report C. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research 3. World Development Report D. World Bank 4. Human Development Report##Option_A:A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 ###Option_B:A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 ##Option_C:A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 ##Option_D:A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 ##Answer:c##Explaination:A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1##Topic:Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
To reach the final of first grand slam of the year 2000, Martina Hingis defeated
|
Lindsay Davenport
|
Jennifer Capriati
|
Sarena Williams
|
Lindsay Davenport
|
Jennifer Capriati was defeated by Martina Hingis.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:To reach the final of first grand slam of the year 2000, Martina Hingis defeated##Option_A: Lindsay Davenport ###Option_B: Jennifer Capriati##Option_C: Sarena Williams ##Option_D: Lindsay Davenport ##Answer:b##Explaination:Jennifer Capriati was defeated by Martina Hingis.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The best performance in terms of Human Development among the Asian countries is by
|
China
|
Malaysia
|
Korea
|
China
|
nan
|
c
|
Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The best performance in terms of Human Development among the Asian countries is by ##Option_A: China ###Option_B: Malaysia ##Option_C: Korea ##Option_D: China ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements about the system of ‘subsidiary alliance’ is i ncorrect ?
|
Lord Wellesley invented the Subsidiary alliance system.
|
The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the company.
|
The state was to accept a British Resident at its headquarters.
|
Lord Wellesley invented the Subsidiary alliance system.
|
Wellesley did not invent the Subsidiary alliance system. The system existed long before him and was of an evolutionary growth. Dupleix was perhaps the first who had lent European troops to Indian Princes at the expense of the latter. The English also adopted this system. Wellesley’s special contribution was that he greatly developed and elaborated the system and applied it in the case of almost every Indian state. Subsidiary treaty was negotiated on the following terms and conditions: The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the company and was to make no wars. It was t conduct negotiations with other states through the company. A bigger state was to maintain an army within its territories commanded by British officers for the ‘preservation of peace’ and the ruler was to cede territory in full sovereignty for the upkeep of that force. A smaller state was required to pay tribute in cash to the company. The state was to accept a British Resident at its headquarters. The state was not to employ Europeans in its service without the consultation of the company. The company was not to interfere in the internal affairs of the state. The company was to protect the Indian state against foreign enemies of ‘every sort of kind’.
|
a
|
India in the late Eighteenth Century
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements about the system of ‘subsidiary alliance’ is i ncorrect ? ##Option_A: Lord Wellesley invented the Subsidiary alliance system. ###Option_B: The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the company. ##Option_C: The state was to accept a British Resident at its headquarters. ##Option_D: Lord Wellesley invented the Subsidiary alliance system. ##Answer:a##Explaination:Wellesley did not invent the Subsidiary alliance system. The system existed long before him and was of an evolutionary growth. Dupleix was perhaps the first who had lent European troops to Indian Princes at the expense of the latter. The English also adopted this system. Wellesley’s special contribution was that he greatly developed and elaborated the system and applied it in the case of almost every Indian state. Subsidiary treaty was negotiated on the following terms and conditions: The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the company and was to make no wars. It was t conduct negotiations with other states through the company. A bigger state was to maintain an army within its territories commanded by British officers for the ‘preservation of peace’ and the ruler was to cede territory in full sovereignty for the upkeep of that force. A smaller state was required to pay tribute in cash to the company. The state was to accept a British Resident at its headquarters. The state was not to employ Europeans in its service without the consultation of the company. The company was not to interfere in the internal affairs of the state. The company was to protect the Indian state against foreign enemies of ‘every sort of kind’.##Topic:India in the late Eighteenth Century##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following stages regarding the relation between British and the Indian states:
1. Company’s struggle for equality with Indian states
2. Policy of subordinate Isolation
3. Policy of subordinate Union
4. Policy of equal federation
5. Policy of Ring fence
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 – 4 – 5 – 2 –3
|
1 – 2 – 5 – 4 – 3
|
1 – 5 – 2 – 3 – 4
|
1 – 4 – 5 – 2 –3
|
Relation between British and the Indian states have following broad stages:
Company’s struggle for equality with Indian states. (1740-1765): Prior to 1940, East India Company was a commercial body. Starting with the Anglo-French rivalry with the coming of Dupleix (1940), company asserted political identity with capture of Arcot (1751). In 1757, company won Battle of Plassey. The company became ruling power after gaining diwani rights in 1965.
Policy of Ring fence (1765-1813): This policy was reflected in the Warren Hastings’ wars against Marathas and Mysore and to create buffer states. Wellesley’s policy of subsidiary alliance was an extension of ring fence, which sought to reduce Indian states to a position of dependence on the company.
Policy of subordinate Isolation. (1813-1857): During this period, the theory of paramountcy began to develop. Indian states were supposed to act in subordinate cooperation with the British.
Policy of subordinate Union. (1857-1935): States came under the Union of British after the assumption of direct responsibility by the crown in 1858. The paramount supremacy of the Crown presupposed and implied the subordination of states.
Policy of equal federation. (1935-1947): The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed a Federal Assembly. The federation never came to existence for the requisite number of states did not agree to join it.
|
c
|
The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following stages regarding the relation between British and the Indian states:
1. Company’s struggle for equality with Indian states
2. Policy of subordinate Isolation
3. Policy of subordinate Union
4. Policy of equal federation
5. Policy of Ring fence
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 – 4 – 5 – 2 –3 ###Option_B: 1 – 2 – 5 – 4 – 3
##Option_C: 1 – 5 – 2 – 3 – 4 ##Option_D: 1 – 4 – 5 – 2 –3 ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Relation between British and the Indian states have following broad stages:
Company’s struggle for equality with Indian states. (1740-1765): Prior to 1940, East India Company was a commercial body. Starting with the Anglo-French rivalry with the coming of Dupleix (1940), company asserted political identity with capture of Arcot (1751). In 1757, company won Battle of Plassey. The company became ruling power after gaining diwani rights in 1965.
Policy of Ring fence (1765-1813): This policy was reflected in the Warren Hastings’ wars against Marathas and Mysore and to create buffer states. Wellesley’s policy of subsidiary alliance was an extension of ring fence, which sought to reduce Indian states to a position of dependence on the company.
Policy of subordinate Isolation. (1813-1857): During this period, the theory of paramountcy began to develop. Indian states were supposed to act in subordinate cooperation with the British.
Policy of subordinate Union. (1857-1935): States came under the Union of British after the assumption of direct responsibility by the crown in 1858. The paramount supremacy of the Crown presupposed and implied the subordination of states.
Policy of equal federation. (1935-1947): The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed a Federal Assembly. The federation never came to existence for the requisite number of states did not agree to join it.
##Topic:The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs:
1. Wood’s Despatch : Lord Dalhousie
2. Partition of Bengal : Lord Curzon
3. Rowlatt act : Lord Minto II
4. Suppression of thugee : William Bentick
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Rowlatt act was passed in 1919. At that time, the viceroy was Lord Chelmsford.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs:
1. Wood’s Despatch : Lord Dalhousie
2. Partition of Bengal : Lord Curzon
3. Rowlatt act : Lord Minto II
4. Suppression of thugee : William Bentick
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Rowlatt act was passed in 1919. At that time, the viceroy was Lord Chelmsford.
##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The imperial Cholas paid special attention to their navy and ventured a successful naval expedition. In this context, to which of the following regions Cholas naval expedition did reach? 1. Sri Lanka 2. Malay Peninsula 3. Maldive Islands Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Cholas became prominent in the ninth century and established an empire comprising the major portion of South India. Their capital was Tanjore. They also extended their sway in Sri Lanka and the Malay Peninsula. Therefore, they are called the Imperial Cholas. Thousands of inscriptions found in the temples provide detailed information regarding the administration, society, economy, and culture of the Chola period. The Cholas maintained a regular standing army consisting of elephants, cavalry, infantry, and navy. The Cholas paid special attention to their navy. The naval achievements of the Tamils reached its climax under the Cholas. They controlled the Malabar and Coromandel coasts. In fact, the Bay of Bengal became a Chola lake for some time. It was under Rajaraja I and his son Rajendra I that the Chola power reached its highest point of glory. The Cholas under Rajaraja annexed northern Sri Lanka. The capital was shifted from Anuradhapura to Polanaruva where a Shiva temple was built. Rajendra defeated Mahinda V of Sri Lanka and seized southern Sri Lanka. Thus the whole of Sri Lanka was made part of the Chola Empire. Rajaraja’s last military achievement was a naval expedition against the Maldive Islands which were conquered. Another famous venture of Rajendra was his naval expedition to Kadaram or Sri Vijaya of the Malay Peninsula. It is difficult to pinpoint the real object of the expedition. Whatever its objects were, the naval expedition was a complete success. A number of places were occupied by Chola forces. But it was only temporary and no permanent annexation of these places was contemplated. He assumed the title Kadaramkondan. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Early Medieval Period: North India and South India
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The imperial Cholas paid special attention to their navy and ventured a successful naval expedition. In this context, to which of the following regions Cholas naval expedition did reach? 1. Sri Lanka 2. Malay Peninsula 3. Maldive Islands Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Cholas became prominent in the ninth century and established an empire comprising the major portion of South India. Their capital was Tanjore. They also extended their sway in Sri Lanka and the Malay Peninsula. Therefore, they are called the Imperial Cholas. Thousands of inscriptions found in the temples provide detailed information regarding the administration, society, economy, and culture of the Chola period. The Cholas maintained a regular standing army consisting of elephants, cavalry, infantry, and navy. The Cholas paid special attention to their navy. The naval achievements of the Tamils reached its climax under the Cholas. They controlled the Malabar and Coromandel coasts. In fact, the Bay of Bengal became a Chola lake for some time. It was under Rajaraja I and his son Rajendra I that the Chola power reached its highest point of glory. The Cholas under Rajaraja annexed northern Sri Lanka. The capital was shifted from Anuradhapura to Polanaruva where a Shiva temple was built. Rajendra defeated Mahinda V of Sri Lanka and seized southern Sri Lanka. Thus the whole of Sri Lanka was made part of the Chola Empire. Rajaraja’s last military achievement was a naval expedition against the Maldive Islands which were conquered. Another famous venture of Rajendra was his naval expedition to Kadaram or Sri Vijaya of the Malay Peninsula. It is difficult to pinpoint the real object of the expedition. Whatever its objects were, the naval expedition was a complete success. A number of places were occupied by Chola forces. But it was only temporary and no permanent annexation of these places was contemplated. He assumed the title Kadaramkondan. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Early Medieval Period: North India and South India##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Scientists at the Indian Institute of Science(IIS) have successfully tested an alternative drug delivery mechanism involving a capsule based non-intusive method. Which of the following statements is/are true about this?
1. The Capsules are made from natural rubber with medicines in them.
2. The Capsules are in the mouth and waves release the medicines slowly from the capsules.
3. The electromagnetic waves are used to deliver the medicines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
1. Capsules are made natural rubber with polymer in them.
2. The Capsules are in the wound and waves release the medicines slowly from the capsules.
3. The shockwaves waves are used to deliver the medicines.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Scientists at the Indian Institute of Science(IIS) have successfully tested an alternative drug delivery mechanism involving a capsule based non-intusive method. Which of the following statements is/are true about this?
1. The Capsules are made from natural rubber with medicines in them.
2. The Capsules are in the mouth and waves release the medicines slowly from the capsules.
3. The electromagnetic waves are used to deliver the medicines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
1. Capsules are made natural rubber with polymer in them.
2. The Capsules are in the wound and waves release the medicines slowly from the capsules.
3. The shockwaves waves are used to deliver the medicines.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
The Constitution 69th Amendment Act passed in 1991, whose Article 239 AA regarding governance of Delhi. Which of the following statements is/are true about this article?
1. Article 239AA of the Constitution precludes the government of Delhi from control on the subjects of land, police and public order.
2. Delhi legislative assembly “shall have power to make laws for the whole or any part of the National Capital Territory, with respect to any of the matters included in the State List or the Concurrent List”.
3. It states that any law made by the legislative assembly, if repugnant to a law made by Parliament, would be void.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution 69th Amendment Act passed in 1991, whose Article 239 AA almost made Delhi a full state — but stopped short. While excluding the entries relating to police, public order and land, the amendment stipulated that the legislative assembly “shall have power to make laws for the whole or any part of the National Capital Territory, with respect to any of the matters included in the State List or the Concurrent List” — which means 47 entries on the State List and 64 on the Concurrent List. Sounds great. But a caveat that follows also states that any law made by the legislative assembly, if repugnant to a law made by Parliament, would be void. So, while you can pass bills, they will not become law without the approval of the Central government.
For the same reason, your promise to get full statehood for Delhi and bring police and law and order under the control of its government is destined to remain just that — a promise, as Article 239AA of the Constitution expressly precludes the government of Delhi from control on the subjects of land, police and public order. Howsoever undemocratic, there is no alternative to amending the Constitution to change that. And that is simply not going to happen — in the foreseeable future. It would be prudent to circumscribe your promise right now because even if Delhi is on your side, the Constitution will prevail.
|
d
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Constitution 69th Amendment Act passed in 1991, whose Article 239 AA regarding governance of Delhi. Which of the following statements is/are true about this article?
1. Article 239AA of the Constitution precludes the government of Delhi from control on the subjects of land, police and public order.
2. Delhi legislative assembly “shall have power to make laws for the whole or any part of the National Capital Territory, with respect to any of the matters included in the State List or the Concurrent List”.
3. It states that any law made by the legislative assembly, if repugnant to a law made by Parliament, would be void.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Constitution 69th Amendment Act passed in 1991, whose Article 239 AA almost made Delhi a full state — but stopped short. While excluding the entries relating to police, public order and land, the amendment stipulated that the legislative assembly “shall have power to make laws for the whole or any part of the National Capital Territory, with respect to any of the matters included in the State List or the Concurrent List” — which means 47 entries on the State List and 64 on the Concurrent List. Sounds great. But a caveat that follows also states that any law made by the legislative assembly, if repugnant to a law made by Parliament, would be void. So, while you can pass bills, they will not become law without the approval of the Central government.
For the same reason, your promise to get full statehood for Delhi and bring police and law and order under the control of its government is destined to remain just that — a promise, as Article 239AA of the Constitution expressly precludes the government of Delhi from control on the subjects of land, police and public order. Howsoever undemocratic, there is no alternative to amending the Constitution to change that. And that is simply not going to happen — in the foreseeable future. It would be prudent to circumscribe your promise right now because even if Delhi is on your side, the Constitution will prevail.
##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Recently India proposed the creation of a ‘India Nuclear Insurance Pool’ in its agreement with the USA. Which of the following statements is/are true about this?
1. This pool will be a consortium of Indian public sector nuclear reactor operator companies.
2. USA and India will contribute Rs 750 crore in the form of a contingent liability.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The government also said it had proposed the creation of a ‘India Nuclear Insurance Pool’ as part of the overall risk management scheme for liability. This pool will be a consortium of five Indian public sector insurance companies, in which the government will contribute Rs 750 crore in the form of a contingent liability, against which the government will actually earn a part of the premium revenue
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently India proposed the creation of a ‘India Nuclear Insurance Pool’ in its agreement with the USA. Which of the following statements is/are true about this?
1. This pool will be a consortium of Indian public sector nuclear reactor operator companies.
2. USA and India will contribute Rs 750 crore in the form of a contingent liability.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
The government also said it had proposed the creation of a ‘India Nuclear Insurance Pool’ as part of the overall risk management scheme for liability. This pool will be a consortium of five Indian public sector insurance companies, in which the government will contribute Rs 750 crore in the form of a contingent liability, against which the government will actually earn a part of the premium revenue
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about e-cigarettes? 1. E-cigarettes have not been found to harm the immune system. 2. e-cigarette vapours contain free radical chemicals which are also found in tobacco cigarettes. 3. Free radicals are agents that can damage DNA. 4. In India its sale is regulated by Cigarette and Other Tobacco Product Act (COPTA). Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
For more useful information, the detailed explanation is given. E-cigarettes have for the first time been found to harm the immune system in the lungs exactly the same way as traditional nicotine cigarettes. Scientists have confirmed that e-cigarette vapors to contain the same potentially dangerous chemicals. Research has also confirmed that e-cigarette vapours contain free radical chemicals previously thought only to be found in tobacco cigarettes and air pollutants. Free radicals are highly reactive agents that can damage DNA or other molecules within cells, resulting in cell death. Cigarette smoke contains 1014 free radicals per puff. Though e-cigarette vapour contains far fewer free radicals than cigarette smoke - one percent as much - their presence in e-cigarettes still suggests potential health risks, the researchers say. For their study, Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health researchers divided the mice into two groups: one was exposed to e-cigarette vapour in an inhalation chamber in amounts that approximated actual human e-cigarette inhalation for two weeks, while the other group was just exposed to air. The researchers then divided each group into three subgroups. One received nasal drops containing Streptococcus pneumonia, a bacteria responsible for pneumonia and sinusitis, among other illnesses, in humans. A second received nasal drops of the virus Influenza A, and the third subgroup did not receive either virus or bacteria. The mice exposed to e-cigarette vapour were significantly more likely to develop compromised immune responses to both the virus and the bacteria, which in some cases killed the mice, the researchers found. Experts say both cigarettes and e-cigarettes are sources of nicotine. E-cigarettes contain less nicotine than cigarettes, but actual nicotine intake by e-cigarette users can approximate that of cigarette smokers. "Our findings suggest that e-cigarettes are not neutral in terms of the effects on the lungs," notes senior author Shyam Biswal, a professor in the department of environmental health sciences at the Bloomberg School. "We have observed that they increase the susceptibility to respiratory infections in the mouse models. This warrants further study in susceptible individuals, such as COPD patients who have switched from cigarettes to e-cigarettes or to new users of e-cigarettes who may have never used cigarettes". "E-cigarette vapour alone produced mild effects on the lungs, including inflammation and protein damage," says Thomas Sussan, lead author at the Bloomberg School. "However, when this exposure was followed by a bacterial or viral infection, the harmful effects of e-cigarette exposure became even more pronounced. The e-cigarette exposure inhibited the ability of mice to clear the bacteria from their lungs, and the viral infection led to increased weight loss and death indicative of an impaired immune response". "In the absence of a regulation the use of e-cigarettes has grown; they are easily accessible to even the non smokers. In many countries these e-cigarettes are available in candy flavours, giving an impression they are not harmful. We have sought a regulation on their use to protect public health. There should be a ban on smoking of e-cigarettes in public as well and a restriction on their use,"
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true about e-cigarettes? 1. E-cigarettes have not been found to harm the immune system. 2. e-cigarette vapours contain free radical chemicals which are also found in tobacco cigarettes. 3. Free radicals are agents that can damage DNA. 4. In India its sale is regulated by Cigarette and Other Tobacco Product Act (COPTA). Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:For more useful information, the detailed explanation is given. E-cigarettes have for the first time been found to harm the immune system in the lungs exactly the same way as traditional nicotine cigarettes. Scientists have confirmed that e-cigarette vapors to contain the same potentially dangerous chemicals. Research has also confirmed that e-cigarette vapours contain free radical chemicals previously thought only to be found in tobacco cigarettes and air pollutants. Free radicals are highly reactive agents that can damage DNA or other molecules within cells, resulting in cell death. Cigarette smoke contains 1014 free radicals per puff. Though e-cigarette vapour contains far fewer free radicals than cigarette smoke - one percent as much - their presence in e-cigarettes still suggests potential health risks, the researchers say. For their study, Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health researchers divided the mice into two groups: one was exposed to e-cigarette vapour in an inhalation chamber in amounts that approximated actual human e-cigarette inhalation for two weeks, while the other group was just exposed to air. The researchers then divided each group into three subgroups. One received nasal drops containing Streptococcus pneumonia, a bacteria responsible for pneumonia and sinusitis, among other illnesses, in humans. A second received nasal drops of the virus Influenza A, and the third subgroup did not receive either virus or bacteria. The mice exposed to e-cigarette vapour were significantly more likely to develop compromised immune responses to both the virus and the bacteria, which in some cases killed the mice, the researchers found. Experts say both cigarettes and e-cigarettes are sources of nicotine. E-cigarettes contain less nicotine than cigarettes, but actual nicotine intake by e-cigarette users can approximate that of cigarette smokers. "Our findings suggest that e-cigarettes are not neutral in terms of the effects on the lungs," notes senior author Shyam Biswal, a professor in the department of environmental health sciences at the Bloomberg School. "We have observed that they increase the susceptibility to respiratory infections in the mouse models. This warrants further study in susceptible individuals, such as COPD patients who have switched from cigarettes to e-cigarettes or to new users of e-cigarettes who may have never used cigarettes". "E-cigarette vapour alone produced mild effects on the lungs, including inflammation and protein damage," says Thomas Sussan, lead author at the Bloomberg School. "However, when this exposure was followed by a bacterial or viral infection, the harmful effects of e-cigarette exposure became even more pronounced. The e-cigarette exposure inhibited the ability of mice to clear the bacteria from their lungs, and the viral infection led to increased weight loss and death indicative of an impaired immune response". "In the absence of a regulation the use of e-cigarettes has grown; they are easily accessible to even the non smokers. In many countries these e-cigarettes are available in candy flavours, giving an impression they are not harmful. We have sought a regulation on their use to protect public health. There should be a ban on smoking of e-cigarettes in public as well and a restriction on their use,"##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
India continues its dismal run in Global Intellectual Property Index score, occupying the 29th position among 30 countries.Which of the following are the reasons stated by the Index report? 1. India is not a contracting party to any of the international treaties included in the GIPC Index. 2. India has not concluded an FTA (free trade agreement) with substantial IP provisions since acceding to the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement. 3. The draft national IPR policy does not recognised the fundamental links between IP, innovation, and the successful development of innovative products. 4. The new bilateral dialogue mechanisms between the US and India has many lacunas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The latest GIPC Index mapped the IP environment of 30 economies that constitute 80 per cent of global gross domestic product with scores evaluated on 30 indicators indicative of a robust IP system. "India is not a contracting party to any of the international treaties included in the GIPC Index, nor has India concluded an FTA (free trade agreement) with substantial IP provisions since acceding to the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement," the report said. When it comes to protection of patents, India could manage just one mark (out of a highest possible of seven). However, the silver lining to India's dismal performance on IP environment was that the report acknowledged the efforts by the new government to make fundamental changes in the country's IP framework. "The draft national IPR policy recognised the fundamental links between IP, innovation, and the successful development of innovative products," the report said. It further noted that "new bilateral dialogue mechanisms between the US and India - including the high-level IP Working Group of the Trade Policy Forum - have potential to elicit positive changes to India's IP system". The report termed the decision to revise the country's Preferential Market Access policy as "a positive step".
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India continues its dismal run in Global Intellectual Property Index score, occupying the 29th position among 30 countries.Which of the following are the reasons stated by the Index report? 1. India is not a contracting party to any of the international treaties included in the GIPC Index. 2. India has not concluded an FTA (free trade agreement) with substantial IP provisions since acceding to the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement. 3. The draft national IPR policy does not recognised the fundamental links between IP, innovation, and the successful development of innovative products. 4. The new bilateral dialogue mechanisms between the US and India has many lacunas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:The latest GIPC Index mapped the IP environment of 30 economies that constitute 80 per cent of global gross domestic product with scores evaluated on 30 indicators indicative of a robust IP system. "India is not a contracting party to any of the international treaties included in the GIPC Index, nor has India concluded an FTA (free trade agreement) with substantial IP provisions since acceding to the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement," the report said. When it comes to protection of patents, India could manage just one mark (out of a highest possible of seven). However, the silver lining to India's dismal performance on IP environment was that the report acknowledged the efforts by the new government to make fundamental changes in the country's IP framework. "The draft national IPR policy recognised the fundamental links between IP, innovation, and the successful development of innovative products," the report said. It further noted that "new bilateral dialogue mechanisms between the US and India - including the high-level IP Working Group of the Trade Policy Forum - have potential to elicit positive changes to India's IP system". The report termed the decision to revise the country's Preferential Market Access policy as "a positive step".##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Russia-India-China (RIC) grouping issued a comprehensive joint communiqué in 2015. Which of the following statements is/are true about this?
1. It called for an ambitious reform of an international system that was respectful of the diversity of home-grown political systems.
2. It supported India"s inclusion in permanant United Nations Security Council.
3. It supported Pivot of Aisa doctrine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
At the end of their day-long deliberations in the Chinese capital on Monday, the foreign ministers of the Russia-India-China (RIC) grouping issued a comprehensive joint communiqué that called for an ambitious reform of an international system that was respectful of the diversity of home-grown political systems.
The communiqué recommended India’s inclusion in an expanded Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC), a 21-nation grouping of Pacific Rim countries. The Ministers endorsed India’s impending membership to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) after elevating the grouping, which is pillared by Russia, China and most of the Central Asian States as “one of the key instruments in promoting multilateral political, security, economic and humanitarian interaction in the region.”
Without specifying the “Pivot to Asia” doctrine of the U.S., which involves concentration of forces on China’s periphery, a joint statement by the RIC grouping called for advancing talks in the East Asia summit framework on rule-based security architecture in the Asia-Pacific, driven by the United Nations
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Russia-India-China (RIC) grouping issued a comprehensive joint communiqué in 2015. Which of the following statements is/are true about this?
1. It called for an ambitious reform of an international system that was respectful of the diversity of home-grown political systems.
2. It supported India"s inclusion in permanant United Nations Security Council.
3. It supported Pivot of Aisa doctrine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
At the end of their day-long deliberations in the Chinese capital on Monday, the foreign ministers of the Russia-India-China (RIC) grouping issued a comprehensive joint communiqué that called for an ambitious reform of an international system that was respectful of the diversity of home-grown political systems.
The communiqué recommended India’s inclusion in an expanded Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC), a 21-nation grouping of Pacific Rim countries. The Ministers endorsed India’s impending membership to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) after elevating the grouping, which is pillared by Russia, China and most of the Central Asian States as “one of the key instruments in promoting multilateral political, security, economic and humanitarian interaction in the region.”
Without specifying the “Pivot to Asia” doctrine of the U.S., which involves concentration of forces on China’s periphery, a joint statement by the RIC grouping called for advancing talks in the East Asia summit framework on rule-based security architecture in the Asia-Pacific, driven by the United Nations
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about Commercial Courts Bill 2015?
1. It sets a time limit of 90 days for delivery of judgment after conclusion of arguments.
2. It hands over powers to the courts to impose exemplary costs against defaulting parties for wilful failure to disclose any of the documents.
3. The bill also provides for appellate division benches in Supreme court which will hear the appeals from commercial courts.
4. This bill will boost "Make in India" campaign.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
In an effort to give a boost to Narendra Modi's 'Make in India' campaign and encourage foreign investments, the law commission on Thursday submitted a draft bill to the government on setting up of commercial courts.
The Commercial Courts Bill 2015, likely to be introduced in the coming budget session, has proposed some key amendments that includes setting a time limit of 90 days for delivery of judgment after conclusion of arguments besides powers to the courts to impose 'exemplary costs against defaulting parties for wilful failure to disclose all documents'.
Once the bill is passed by Parliament, it will lead to setting up of at least 60 commercial courts across the country or about two to three courts in each state, said law commission chairman Justice A P Shah. The bill also provides for appellate division benches in high courts which will hear the appeals from commercial courts.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true about Commercial Courts Bill 2015?
1. It sets a time limit of 90 days for delivery of judgment after conclusion of arguments.
2. It hands over powers to the courts to impose exemplary costs against defaulting parties for wilful failure to disclose any of the documents.
3. The bill also provides for appellate division benches in Supreme court which will hear the appeals from commercial courts.
4. This bill will boost "Make in India" campaign.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
In an effort to give a boost to Narendra Modi's 'Make in India' campaign and encourage foreign investments, the law commission on Thursday submitted a draft bill to the government on setting up of commercial courts.
The Commercial Courts Bill 2015, likely to be introduced in the coming budget session, has proposed some key amendments that includes setting a time limit of 90 days for delivery of judgment after conclusion of arguments besides powers to the courts to impose 'exemplary costs against defaulting parties for wilful failure to disclose all documents'.
Once the bill is passed by Parliament, it will lead to setting up of at least 60 commercial courts across the country or about two to three courts in each state, said law commission chairman Justice A P Shah. The bill also provides for appellate division benches in high courts which will hear the appeals from commercial courts.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the statements given below is/are incorrect about ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana’?
1. Its objective is to create models of local development, which can be replicated in other villages.
2. The MP would be free to identify a suitable Gram Panchayat for being developed as Adarsh Gram, other than his/her own village or that of his/her spouse.
3. Lok Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat from within his/her constituency whereas Rajya Sabha MP is free to choose it from the rural area of any district in the country.
4. The planning process in each village will be a participatory exercise coordinated by the District Collector.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
2 only
|
Objectives of ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana’ includes:
trigger processes which lead to holistic development of the identified Gram Panchayats
To substantially improve the standard of living and quality of life of all sections of the population through –
improved basic amenities
higher productivity
enhanced human development
better livelihood opportunities
reduced disparities
access to rights and entitlements
wider social mobilization
enriched social capital
To generate models of local level development and effective local governance which can motivate and inspire neighbouring Gram Panchayats to learn and adapt
To nurture the identified Adarsh Grams as schools of local development to train other Gram Panchayats
The MP would be free to identify a suitable Gram Panchayat for being developed as Adarsh Gram, other than his/her own village or that of his/her spouse.
Lok Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat from within his/her constituency and whereas a Rajya Sabha MP will choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of a district of his/her choice in the State from which he/she is elected. Nominated MPs may choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of any district in the country. In the case of urban constituencies, (where there are no Gram Panchayats), the MP will identify a Gram Panchayat from a nearby rural constituency.
The planning process in each village will be a participatory exercise coordinated by the District Collector and the MP will play an active facilitating role in this exercise.
No new funds have been allocated for the Yojana. Resources may be raised through existing schemes, MPLADS, gram panchayat’s own revenue, CSR funds etc.
Hence 3rd statement is incorrect and option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the statements given below is/are incorrect about ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana’?
1. Its objective is to create models of local development, which can be replicated in other villages.
2. The MP would be free to identify a suitable Gram Panchayat for being developed as Adarsh Gram, other than his/her own village or that of his/her spouse.
3. Lok Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat from within his/her constituency whereas Rajya Sabha MP is free to choose it from the rural area of any district in the country.
4. The planning process in each village will be a participatory exercise coordinated by the District Collector.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
##Option_A: 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Objectives of ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana’ includes:
trigger processes which lead to holistic development of the identified Gram Panchayats
To substantially improve the standard of living and quality of life of all sections of the population through –
improved basic amenities
higher productivity
enhanced human development
better livelihood opportunities
reduced disparities
access to rights and entitlements
wider social mobilization
enriched social capital
To generate models of local level development and effective local governance which can motivate and inspire neighbouring Gram Panchayats to learn and adapt
To nurture the identified Adarsh Grams as schools of local development to train other Gram Panchayats
The MP would be free to identify a suitable Gram Panchayat for being developed as Adarsh Gram, other than his/her own village or that of his/her spouse.
Lok Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat from within his/her constituency and whereas a Rajya Sabha MP will choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of a district of his/her choice in the State from which he/she is elected. Nominated MPs may choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of any district in the country. In the case of urban constituencies, (where there are no Gram Panchayats), the MP will identify a Gram Panchayat from a nearby rural constituency.
The planning process in each village will be a participatory exercise coordinated by the District Collector and the MP will play an active facilitating role in this exercise.
No new funds have been allocated for the Yojana. Resources may be raised through existing schemes, MPLADS, gram panchayat’s own revenue, CSR funds etc.
Hence 3rd statement is incorrect and option (c) is the correct answer.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched MUDRA Bank: 1. The bank will provide direct financial assistance to the small enterprises in the informal sector. 2. The initial corpus would be Rs. 20,000 crore. 3. MUDRA Bank would be set up through statutory enactment. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2only
|
The Prime Minister launched the MUDRA bank with a corpus of Rs. 20,000 crore and credit guarantee of Rs. 3,000 crore. The bank will be responsible for refinancing micro-finance institutions in the business of lending to small entities, rather than directly funding the small enterprises. MUDRA will be set up through a statutory enactment. It will be responsible for developing and refinancing all micro-finance institutions (MFIs) which are in the business of lending to micro and small business entities engaged in manufacturing, trading and service activities.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched MUDRA Bank: 1. The bank will provide direct financial assistance to the small enterprises in the informal sector. 2. The initial corpus would be Rs. 20,000 crore. 3. MUDRA Bank would be set up through statutory enactment. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2only ##Answer:b##Explaination:The Prime Minister launched the MUDRA bank with a corpus of Rs. 20,000 crore and credit guarantee of Rs. 3,000 crore. The bank will be responsible for refinancing micro-finance institutions in the business of lending to small entities, rather than directly funding the small enterprises. MUDRA will be set up through a statutory enactment. It will be responsible for developing and refinancing all micro-finance institutions (MFIs) which are in the business of lending to micro and small business entities engaged in manufacturing, trading and service activities.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding newly launched Social Progress Index (SPI): 1. It is being launched by a UN agency. 2. It measures progress on a wide range of indicators, including GDP. 3. In the recent report India ranks above all of the South Asian countries. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1only
|
Out of 133 countries rated on indicators of well-being such as health, water and sanitation, personal safety, access to opportunity, tolerance, inclusion, personal freedom and choice India has secured the 101th place. This is lower than India’s rank, of 93, for GDP per capita income. Even Nepal and Bangladesh rank higher than India on the Social Progress Index (SPI) ratings to be released globally.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding newly launched Social Progress Index (SPI): 1. It is being launched by a UN agency. 2. It measures progress on a wide range of indicators, including GDP. 3. In the recent report India ranks above all of the South Asian countries. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Out of 133 countries rated on indicators of well-being such as health, water and sanitation, personal safety, access to opportunity, tolerance, inclusion, personal freedom and choice India has secured the 101th place. This is lower than India’s rank, of 93, for GDP per capita income. Even Nepal and Bangladesh rank higher than India on the Social Progress Index (SPI) ratings to be released globally.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information Act (RTI), 2005: 1. The security and intelligence agencies are completely exempted from the provisions of RTI Act. 2. These agencies are exempted from the purview of RTI Act because disclosing sensitive information may jeopardize national security. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Twenty-five of India’s top security agencies are exempt from most of the requirements of the RTI Act, but are required to provide access to information if it relates to allegations of corruption and human rights violations. They also need to appoint public information officers and submit reports to the Central Information Commission about the number of RTI applications received, amount of fees collected and details of cases where access to information was rejected.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information Act (RTI), 2005: 1. The security and intelligence agencies are completely exempted from the provisions of RTI Act. 2. These agencies are exempted from the purview of RTI Act because disclosing sensitive information may jeopardize national security. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Twenty-five of India’s top security agencies are exempt from most of the requirements of the RTI Act, but are required to provide access to information if it relates to allegations of corruption and human rights violations. They also need to appoint public information officers and submit reports to the Central Information Commission about the number of RTI applications received, amount of fees collected and details of cases where access to information was rejected.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The Foreign Trade Policy 2015, launched in April 2015, talks about ‘Special Notified Zones.’ What ‘Special Notified Zones’ are meant for?
|
For promoting renewal power generation through zero custom duty on the import in those areas.
|
These are re-engineered format of SEZs for promoting exports from these areas by providing regulation free environment.
|
For promoting trade in diamond by eliminating intermediaries.
|
For promoting renewal power generation through zero custom duty on the import in those areas.
|
The Special Notified Zone is being created with view to cut out middlemen and encourage overseas diamond mining companies to open their offices in India at designated zones to sell their produce directly to Indian man.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Foreign Trade Policy 2015, launched in April 2015, talks about ‘Special Notified Zones.’ What ‘Special Notified Zones’ are meant for?##Option_A: For promoting renewal power generation through zero custom duty on the import in those areas.###Option_B: These are re-engineered format of SEZs for promoting exports from these areas by providing regulation free environment.##Option_C: For promoting trade in diamond by eliminating intermediaries.##Option_D: For promoting renewal power generation through zero custom duty on the import in those areas.##Answer:c##Explaination:The Special Notified Zone is being created with view to cut out middlemen and encourage overseas diamond mining companies to open their offices in India at designated zones to sell their produce directly to Indian man.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following agencies do not issue ‘green bond’? 1. World Bank 2. Corporations 3. Government agencies 4. Municipalities Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 only
|
A bond is a debt instrument with which an entity raises money from investors. The bond issuer gets capital while the investors receive fixed income in the form of interest. When the bond matures, the money is repaid. A green bond is very similar. The only difference is that the issuer of a green bond publicly states that capital is being raised to fund ‘green’ projects, which typically include those relating to renewable energy, emission reductions and so on. There is no standard definition of green bonds as of now. Indian firms like Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd and Greenko have in the past issued bonds that have been used for financing renewable energy, however, without the tag of green bonds. Green bonds are issued by multilateral agencies such as the World Bank, corporations, government agencies and municipalities.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following agencies do not issue ‘green bond’? 1. World Bank 2. Corporations 3. Government agencies 4. Municipalities Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only ##Option_D: 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:A bond is a debt instrument with which an entity raises money from investors. The bond issuer gets capital while the investors receive fixed income in the form of interest. When the bond matures, the money is repaid. A green bond is very similar. The only difference is that the issuer of a green bond publicly states that capital is being raised to fund ‘green’ projects, which typically include those relating to renewable energy, emission reductions and so on. There is no standard definition of green bonds as of now. Indian firms like Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd and Greenko have in the past issued bonds that have been used for financing renewable energy, however, without the tag of green bonds. Green bonds are issued by multilateral agencies such as the World Bank, corporations, government agencies and municipalities.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding ‘green bonds’: 1. They are issued by multilateral agencies for funding only the green projects. 2. Green bonds carry a lower interest rate than conventional loans. 3. Green bonds carry lower risk than conventional bonds. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Green bonds are issued by multilateral agencies such as the World Bank, corporations, government agencies and municipalities. Green bonds typically carry a lower interest rate than the loans offered by the commercial banks. Hence, when compared to other forms of debt, green bonds offer better returns for an independent power producers. An investor gets excited with lower interest because, it inherently carries lower risk than other bonds.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding ‘green bonds’: 1. They are issued by multilateral agencies for funding only the green projects. 2. Green bonds carry a lower interest rate than conventional loans. 3. Green bonds carry lower risk than conventional bonds. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Green bonds are issued by multilateral agencies such as the World Bank, corporations, government agencies and municipalities. Green bonds typically carry a lower interest rate than the loans offered by the commercial banks. Hence, when compared to other forms of debt, green bonds offer better returns for an independent power producers. An investor gets excited with lower interest because, it inherently carries lower risk than other bonds.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following institutions/organizations organizes the ‘Earth Hour’?
|
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
|
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
|
World Health Organization (WHO).
|
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
|
Earth Hour is a worldwide movement for the planet organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). The event is held worldwide annually encouraging individuals, communities, households and businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour, from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. on the last Saturday in March, as a symbol for their commitment to the planet.
|
d
|
Enviournment
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following institutions/organizations organizes the ‘Earth Hour’?##Option_A: United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).###Option_B: Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).##Option_C: World Health Organization (WHO).##Option_D: United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).##Answer:d##Explaination:Earth Hour is a worldwide movement for the planet organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). The event is held worldwide annually encouraging individuals, communities, households and businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour, from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. on the last Saturday in March, as a symbol for their commitment to the planet.##Topic:Enviournment##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the effects of Iran Nuclear deal: 1. All the economic sanctions imposed on Iran would immediately be withdrawn on signing the final deal. 2. India’s expenditure on oil imports would be lowered. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The first statement is incorrect, because the lifting of some of the sanctions would be possible only the approval of American Congress, irrespective of the deal. In fact, this has been a new bone of contention between the U.S. and the Iranian leadership. Second statement is correct as India had to relent to the U.S. pressure for cutting down its oil imports from Iran. So if the deal is signed and sanctions would be lifted then India stands to gain.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the effects of Iran Nuclear deal: 1. All the economic sanctions imposed on Iran would immediately be withdrawn on signing the final deal. 2. India’s expenditure on oil imports would be lowered. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:The first statement is incorrect, because the lifting of some of the sanctions would be possible only the approval of American Congress, irrespective of the deal. In fact, this has been a new bone of contention between the U.S. and the Iranian leadership. Second statement is correct as India had to relent to the U.S. pressure for cutting down its oil imports from Iran. So if the deal is signed and sanctions would be lifted then India stands to gain.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Nurses are eligible to perform abortions in rural areas. 2. AYUSH doctors are not eligible to perform abortions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
At present both the nurses and AYUSH doctors are not eligible to perform abortions. The Centre recently announced its proposal to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 to allow nurses and AYUSH (Indian system of medicines) doctors to perform abortions to provide safe abortion. The move has drawn sharp criticism from the medical associations.
|
b
|
Scientific, Academic, Legal and related.
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Nurses are eligible to perform abortions in rural areas. 2. AYUSH doctors are not eligible to perform abortions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:At present both the nurses and AYUSH doctors are not eligible to perform abortions. The Centre recently announced its proposal to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 to allow nurses and AYUSH (Indian system of medicines) doctors to perform abortions to provide safe abortion. The move has drawn sharp criticism from the medical associations.##Topic:Scientific, Academic, Legal and related.##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: 1. Gujarat tops the list of states in implementing Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, while Odisha has excelled in the construction of community toilets, in 2014-15. 2. The mission aims to ensure cleanliness in all the statutory municipalities only by 2 nd October, the 150 th birth anniversary of Gandhiji. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
First statement is correct, according to an assessment done by the Urban Development Ministry for 2014-15. Second statement is incorrect because the mission intends to ensure the cleanliness of all the towns and villages.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: 1. Gujarat tops the list of states in implementing Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, while Odisha has excelled in the construction of community toilets, in 2014-15. 2. The mission aims to ensure cleanliness in all the statutory municipalities only by 2 nd October, the 150 th birth anniversary of Gandhiji. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:First statement is correct, according to an assessment done by the Urban Development Ministry for 2014-15. Second statement is incorrect because the mission intends to ensure the cleanliness of all the towns and villages.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With regard to the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) scheme,consider the following statements : It is being implemented by Ministry of Panchayati Raj. It is based on demand driven approach wherein a Member of Parliament (MP) can adopt any village across the country. Gram Sabha would be the basic unit for development under this scheme. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAANJHI) was launched in October , 2014 and at the national level it is being implemented by Ministry of Rural Development. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect. The Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, would have three distinct features – it would be (a) demand driven (b) inspired by society (c) based on people’s participation. The MP would be free to identify a suitable Gram Panchayat for being developed as Adarsh Gram, other than his/her own village or that of his/her spouse. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. It aims at instilling certain values, such as people’s participation, Antyodaya, gender equality, dignity of women, social justice, spirit of community service, cleanliness, eco-friendliness, maintaining ecological balance, peace and harmony, mutual cooperation, self-reliance, local self-government, transparency and accountability in public life, etc. in the villages and their people so that they get transformed into models for others. A Gram Panchayat would be the basic unit and not the Gram Sabha. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect. Primarily, the goal is to develop three Adarsh Grams by March 2019, of which one would be achieved by 2016. Thereafter, five such Adarsh Grams (one per year) will be selected and developed by 2024. The MP will identify one Gram Panchayat to be taken up immediately, and two others to be taken up a little later. Lok Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat from within his/her constituency and Rajya Sabha MP a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of a district of his/her choice in the State from which he/she is elected. Nominated MPs may choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of any district in the country. In the case of urban constituencies, (where there are no Gram Panchayats), the MP will identify a Gram Panchayat from a nearby rural constituency.
|
d
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) scheme,consider the following statements : It is being implemented by Ministry of Panchayati Raj. It is based on demand driven approach wherein a Member of Parliament (MP) can adopt any village across the country. Gram Sabha would be the basic unit for development under this scheme. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAANJHI) was launched in October , 2014 and at the national level it is being implemented by Ministry of Rural Development. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect. The Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, would have three distinct features – it would be (a) demand driven (b) inspired by society (c) based on people’s participation. The MP would be free to identify a suitable Gram Panchayat for being developed as Adarsh Gram, other than his/her own village or that of his/her spouse. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. It aims at instilling certain values, such as people’s participation, Antyodaya, gender equality, dignity of women, social justice, spirit of community service, cleanliness, eco-friendliness, maintaining ecological balance, peace and harmony, mutual cooperation, self-reliance, local self-government, transparency and accountability in public life, etc. in the villages and their people so that they get transformed into models for others. A Gram Panchayat would be the basic unit and not the Gram Sabha. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect. Primarily, the goal is to develop three Adarsh Grams by March 2019, of which one would be achieved by 2016. Thereafter, five such Adarsh Grams (one per year) will be selected and developed by 2024. The MP will identify one Gram Panchayat to be taken up immediately, and two others to be taken up a little later. Lok Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat from within his/her constituency and Rajya Sabha MP a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of a district of his/her choice in the State from which he/she is elected. Nominated MPs may choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of any district in the country. In the case of urban constituencies, (where there are no Gram Panchayats), the MP will identify a Gram Panchayat from a nearby rural constituency.##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
With regard to the Central Adoption Resource Authority( CARA) , consider the following statements : It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Women and Child Development created by Guardian and Wards Act of 1890. It regulates all child adoption related activities in India. With regard to inter- country adoptions,only Non Resident Indians (NRIs) and Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) are allowed to adopt children from India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect. CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies. It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003. “Inter-country Adoption” means adoption of a child or children by persons having status of Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) or Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) or Persons of Indian Origins (PIOs) or Foreign Nationals. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect. Changes will be made in the CARA (will be made a statutory body, etc.) through the proposed Juvenile Justice Bill, 2014 whenever it will get passed by both the houses of the Parliament. Currently The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act of 1956 governs adoption by India citizens who are Hindus, Sikhs, Jains or Buddhists and does not permit adoption of more than one child of the same sex. Adoption by Indian citizens who are Muslims, Christians, Parsis, Jews, Indian NRIs and foreign citizens are governed by the Guardian and Wards Act of 1890 under which the adoptive parent is only the guardian of the child till its majority at 18 years of age.
|
b
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the Central Adoption Resource Authority( CARA) , consider the following statements : It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Women and Child Development created by Guardian and Wards Act of 1890. It regulates all child adoption related activities in India. With regard to inter- country adoptions,only Non Resident Indians (NRIs) and Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) are allowed to adopt children from India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect. CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies. It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003. “Inter-country Adoption” means adoption of a child or children by persons having status of Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) or Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) or Persons of Indian Origins (PIOs) or Foreign Nationals. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect. Changes will be made in the CARA (will be made a statutory body, etc.) through the proposed Juvenile Justice Bill, 2014 whenever it will get passed by both the houses of the Parliament. Currently The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act of 1956 governs adoption by India citizens who are Hindus, Sikhs, Jains or Buddhists and does not permit adoption of more than one child of the same sex. Adoption by Indian citizens who are Muslims, Christians, Parsis, Jews, Indian NRIs and foreign citizens are governed by the Guardian and Wards Act of 1890 under which the adoptive parent is only the guardian of the child till its majority at 18 years of age.##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
High Level Committee headed by Shanta Kumar to restructure the Public Distribution System has submitted its report.Which of the following statements is/are true about its recommedations?
Deregulate the fertilizer sector.
Delink the prices of grain sold through Targeted PDS from Minimus Support Price.
Reduce monthly quantum of rationed grain from 7kg to 5kg per person.
Introduce cash transfer for beneficiaries under Food Security Act as well as farmers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 , 2 and 3 only
|
2 , 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 , 2 and 3 only
|
c
|
committees and Commissions
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
High Level Committee headed by Shanta Kumar to restructure the Public Distribution System has submitted its report.Which of the following statements is/are true about its recommedations?
Deregulate the fertilizer sector.
Delink the prices of grain sold through Targeted PDS from Minimus Support Price.
Reduce monthly quantum of rationed grain from 7kg to 5kg per person.
Introduce cash transfer for beneficiaries under Food Security Act as well as farmers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 , 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 , 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 , 2 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
##Topic:committees and Commissions##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
|
Recently India witnessed the outbreak of Swine Flu.Which of the following statements is/are correct in this regard? It is caused by H5N1 virus. Swine flu spreads in the same way as the seasonal flu. Oseltamivir is used to prevent and treat Swine flu. In 2015 the states of Gujarat and Rajasthan are the worst effected. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 , 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 , 2 and 3 only
|
H1N1 flu is also known as swine flu. It's called swine flu because in the past, the people who caught it had direct contact with pigs. That changed several years ago, when a new virus emerged that spread among people who hadn't been near pigs. Hence, only 1st statement is incorrect. Rest all the correct. Some of the same antiviral drugs that are used to treat seasonal flu also work against H1N1 swine flu. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) seem to work best, although some kinds of swine flu are resistant to Tamiflu.
|
b
|
Events.National
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently India witnessed the outbreak of Swine Flu.Which of the following statements is/are correct in this regard? It is caused by H5N1 virus. Swine flu spreads in the same way as the seasonal flu. Oseltamivir is used to prevent and treat Swine flu. In 2015 the states of Gujarat and Rajasthan are the worst effected. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 , 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 , 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:H1N1 flu is also known as swine flu. It's called swine flu because in the past, the people who caught it had direct contact with pigs. That changed several years ago, when a new virus emerged that spread among people who hadn't been near pigs. Hence, only 1st statement is incorrect. Rest all the correct. Some of the same antiviral drugs that are used to treat seasonal flu also work against H1N1 swine flu. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) seem to work best, although some kinds of swine flu are resistant to Tamiflu.##Topic:Events.National##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
India has struck a deal to buy Spike missiles. Which of the following statements is/are true about this missile? It is designed and developed by the Israeli company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems. It is an anti-aircraft guided missile. It has fire and forget capability. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Spike is an Israeli fourth generation man-portable fire-and-forget anti-tank guided missile and anti-personnel missile with a tandem-charged HEAT warhead, developed and designed by the Israeli company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and in service with a number of nations.
As well as engaging and destroying targets within the line-of-sight of the launcher ("fire-and-forget"), some variants of the missile are capable of making a top-attack profile through a "fire, observe and update" guidance method;[2] the operator tracking the target, or switching to another target, optically through the trailing fiber-optic wire while the missile is climbing to altitude after launch. This is similar to the lofted trajectory flight profile of the US FGM-148 Javelin.
|
b
|
Missiles
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India has struck a deal to buy Spike missiles. Which of the following statements is/are true about this missile? It is designed and developed by the Israeli company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems. It is an anti-aircraft guided missile. It has fire and forget capability. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Spike is an Israeli fourth generation man-portable fire-and-forget anti-tank guided missile and anti-personnel missile with a tandem-charged HEAT warhead, developed and designed by the Israeli company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and in service with a number of nations.
As well as engaging and destroying targets within the line-of-sight of the launcher ("fire-and-forget"), some variants of the missile are capable of making a top-attack profile through a "fire, observe and update" guidance method;[2] the operator tracking the target, or switching to another target, optically through the trailing fiber-optic wire while the missile is climbing to altitude after launch. This is similar to the lofted trajectory flight profile of the US FGM-148 Javelin.
##Topic:Missiles##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
University Grants Commission (UGC) issued directives which require that all universities follow a Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) from 2015 onward. Which of the following statements is/are true about this new system? It will provide choice to students within an institution. It will provide students the mobility across institutions in India and abroad. It will apply to all undergraduate and postgraduate level degree and diploma courses. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The directives require that all universities follow a Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) from 2015 onwards. The aim is to provide choice to students within an institution as well as “seamless mobility across institutions” in India and abroad by adopting a “cafeteria approach”. These guidelines are apparently supposed to apply to all undergraduate and postgraduate level degree, diploma and certificate programmes being run by Central, State and deemed universities in India. Once again: such sweeping change, so little thought.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:University Grants Commission (UGC) issued directives which require that all universities follow a Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) from 2015 onward. Which of the following statements is/are true about this new system? It will provide choice to students within an institution. It will provide students the mobility across institutions in India and abroad. It will apply to all undergraduate and postgraduate level degree and diploma courses. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The directives require that all universities follow a Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) from 2015 onwards. The aim is to provide choice to students within an institution as well as “seamless mobility across institutions” in India and abroad by adopting a “cafeteria approach”. These guidelines are apparently supposed to apply to all undergraduate and postgraduate level degree, diploma and certificate programmes being run by Central, State and deemed universities in India. Once again: such sweeping change, so little thought.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
The Budget placed before the Parliament comprises of which of the following documents? The Budget Speech of the Finance Minister. Demand for Grants Fiscal Policy strategy for financial year Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Budget documents presented to Parliament comprise, besides the Finance Minister's Budget Speech, of the following: Annual Financial Statement (AFS) Demand for Grants (DG) Appropriation Bill Finance Bill Memorandum Explaining the Provisions in the Finance Bill, 2015 Macro-economic framework for the relevant financial year Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement for the financial year Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement Expenditure Budget Volume -1 Expenditure Budget Volume -2 Receipts Budget
|
d
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Budget placed before the Parliament comprises of which of the following documents? The Budget Speech of the Finance Minister. Demand for Grants Fiscal Policy strategy for financial year Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Budget documents presented to Parliament comprise, besides the Finance Minister's Budget Speech, of the following: Annual Financial Statement (AFS) Demand for Grants (DG) Appropriation Bill Finance Bill Memorandum Explaining the Provisions in the Finance Bill, 2015 Macro-economic framework for the relevant financial year Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement for the financial year Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement Expenditure Budget Volume -1 Expenditure Budget Volume -2 Receipts Budget##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following Ocean Currents is/are correctly matched with their respective Gyres? Boundary Current Gyre 1. Canary Current North Atlantic Gyre 2. Agulhas Current South Atlantic Gyre 3. Gulf Stream Current South Pacific Gyre Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
An ocean gyre is a large system of circular ocean currents formed by global wind patterns and forces created by Earth’s rotation. Three forces cause the circulation of a gyre: global wind patterns, Earth’s rotation, and Earth’s landmasses. The Canary Current is a wind-driven surface current that is part of the North Atlantic Gyre. This eastern boundary current branches south from the North Atlantic Current and flows southwest about as far as Senegal where it turns west and later joins the Atlantic North Equatorial Current. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. The Agulhas Current is the western boundary current of the southwest Indian Ocean. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched. The Gulf Stream, together with its northern extension the North Atlantic Drift, is a warm and swift Atlantic ocean current that originates in the Gulf of Mexico and stretches to the tip of Florida, and follows the eastern coastlines of the United States and Newfoundland before crossing the Atlantic Ocean. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
|
a
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Ocean Currents is/are correctly matched with their respective Gyres? Boundary Current Gyre 1. Canary Current North Atlantic Gyre 2. Agulhas Current South Atlantic Gyre 3. Gulf Stream Current South Pacific Gyre Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:An ocean gyre is a large system of circular ocean currents formed by global wind patterns and forces created by Earth’s rotation. Three forces cause the circulation of a gyre: global wind patterns, Earth’s rotation, and Earth’s landmasses. The Canary Current is a wind-driven surface current that is part of the North Atlantic Gyre. This eastern boundary current branches south from the North Atlantic Current and flows southwest about as far as Senegal where it turns west and later joins the Atlantic North Equatorial Current. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. The Agulhas Current is the western boundary current of the southwest Indian Ocean. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched. The Gulf Stream, together with its northern extension the North Atlantic Drift, is a warm and swift Atlantic ocean current that originates in the Gulf of Mexico and stretches to the tip of Florida, and follows the eastern coastlines of the United States and Newfoundland before crossing the Atlantic Ocean. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
The Economic Survey 2015-16 conceived certain fiscal and tax measures as a tool to de-incentivise the fossil fuel use. Which of the following steps are listed by the economic survey as a measure? Excise duty on petrol and diesel. Additional Cess on Coal. Deregulation of petrol and diesel prices. Reduction in subsidies on fossil fuels. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
All the statements are correct. The economic survey talks about a move from carbon incentives in the form of subsidies to carbon taxes to de-incentivise the use of fossil fuels. Here deregulations and reduction in subsidies is one and the same. Excise duty is viewed as implicit carbon tax and cess on coal is conceived as precursor to carbon tax.
|
d
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Economic Survey 2015-16 conceived certain fiscal and tax measures as a tool to de-incentivise the fossil fuel use. Which of the following steps are listed by the economic survey as a measure? Excise duty on petrol and diesel. Additional Cess on Coal. Deregulation of petrol and diesel prices. Reduction in subsidies on fossil fuels. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct. The economic survey talks about a move from carbon incentives in the form of subsidies to carbon taxes to de-incentivise the use of fossil fuels. Here deregulations and reduction in subsidies is one and the same. Excise duty is viewed as implicit carbon tax and cess on coal is conceived as precursor to carbon tax.##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Recently, Supreme Court has directed the Government to identify transgenders as the ‘third Gender’. Consider the following statements with respect to this:
Not recognising "Third gender" violates article 14, 15, 16 and 17 of the Indian constitution.
The first step in this regard was taken by election commission by giving the option as ‘third gender’ on ballot forms.
Supreme court has directed government to recognise transgenders as a minority group.
Germany was the first country to recognise transgenders by giving an option of ‘indeterminate’ on birth certificates.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Not recognising ‘Third gender’ violates article 14, 15, 16 19 and 21 of the Indian constitution. These articles use either the term “person” or “citizen” or “sex”. All these expressions, are “gender neutral” , they refer to human-beings. Article 17 is not being violated as it pertains only to untouchability
The first step in this regard was taken by election commission by giving the option as ‘Others’ on ballot forms in 2009.
Supreme court has directed government to recognise transgenders as a minority group which are eligible for welfare programmes, health care and employment.
Germany was the first country to recognise transgenders in 2013 by giving an option of ‘indeterminate’ on birth certificates.
|
d
|
Events.National
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, Supreme Court has directed the Government to identify transgenders as the ‘third Gender’. Consider the following statements with respect to this:
Not recognising "Third gender" violates article 14, 15, 16 and 17 of the Indian constitution.
The first step in this regard was taken by election commission by giving the option as ‘third gender’ on ballot forms.
Supreme court has directed government to recognise transgenders as a minority group.
Germany was the first country to recognise transgenders by giving an option of ‘indeterminate’ on birth certificates.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 2 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Not recognising ‘Third gender’ violates article 14, 15, 16 19 and 21 of the Indian constitution. These articles use either the term “person” or “citizen” or “sex”. All these expressions, are “gender neutral” , they refer to human-beings. Article 17 is not being violated as it pertains only to untouchability
The first step in this regard was taken by election commission by giving the option as ‘Others’ on ballot forms in 2009.
Supreme court has directed government to recognise transgenders as a minority group which are eligible for welfare programmes, health care and employment.
Germany was the first country to recognise transgenders in 2013 by giving an option of ‘indeterminate’ on birth certificates.
##Topic:Events.National##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
The Union cabinet has accorded minority status to Jains. Consider the following statements with respect to this: This would ensure that Jains get the minority status in the states that they are in minority like Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh etc. Once they get a minority status, they will have the right to establish and administer educational institutions under article 30. Jains will be the fifth community to get the minority status in India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Jains are already enjoying minority status in some status like Rajasthan, MP , UP and Chattisgarh. by this decision they will get a status of national minority. Jains will be the 6th community to get this status after muslims, christians, Parsis, buddhists and sikhs
|
b
|
Events.National
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Union cabinet has accorded minority status to Jains. Consider the following statements with respect to this: This would ensure that Jains get the minority status in the states that they are in minority like Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh etc. Once they get a minority status, they will have the right to establish and administer educational institutions under article 30. Jains will be the fifth community to get the minority status in India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Jains are already enjoying minority status in some status like Rajasthan, MP , UP and Chattisgarh. by this decision they will get a status of national minority. Jains will be the 6th community to get this status after muslims, christians, Parsis, buddhists and sikhs##Topic:Events.National##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Regarding the difference between the Essential Commodities (EC) Act and the Agricultural Produce Marketing Commodities (APMC) Act, consider the following statements: The Essential Commodities (EC) Act empowers Central and State governments to control production, supply, pricing and distribution of certain commodities. The Agricultural Produce Marketing Commodities (APMC) Act controls only the first sale of the agricultural produce. APMC covers food stuff while EC covers drugs, fertilizers and coal along with certain food stuff. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The scope of the Essential Commodities Act (EC Act) is much broader than the APMC Act. It empowers the central and state governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities, including pricing, stock-holding and the period for which the stocks can be kept and to impose duties. The APMC Act on the other hand, controls only the first sale of the agricultural produce. Apart from food-stuffs which are covered under the APMC Act, the commodities covered under the EC Act generally are: drugs, fertilisers, and textiles and coal.
|
d
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Regarding the difference between the Essential Commodities (EC) Act and the Agricultural Produce Marketing Commodities (APMC) Act, consider the following statements: The Essential Commodities (EC) Act empowers Central and State governments to control production, supply, pricing and distribution of certain commodities. The Agricultural Produce Marketing Commodities (APMC) Act controls only the first sale of the agricultural produce. APMC covers food stuff while EC covers drugs, fertilizers and coal along with certain food stuff. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The scope of the Essential Commodities Act (EC Act) is much broader than the APMC Act. It empowers the central and state governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities, including pricing, stock-holding and the period for which the stocks can be kept and to impose duties. The APMC Act on the other hand, controls only the first sale of the agricultural produce. Apart from food-stuffs which are covered under the APMC Act, the commodities covered under the EC Act generally are: drugs, fertilisers, and textiles and coal.##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the "Double Financial Repression" discussed in the Economic Survey 2014-15, which of the following are policy recommendations to address the repression? Decreasing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Reduction in the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) requirements for banks. Encouraging growth in banks and types of banks. Reforms in bankruptcy procedures. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
According to the economic survey: The SLR requirement in India have been high traditionally and there is need to decrease the SLR. It also list Priority sector lending requirement as one of the reason for repression but does not suggest decrease in PSL. Instead it suggests reforms in the PSL. Hence, only 2nd statement is in correct, rest all are correct. Survey recommends the last two steps as a measure to India for future shocks and repression. So answer is C
|
c
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the "Double Financial Repression" discussed in the Economic Survey 2014-15, which of the following are policy recommendations to address the repression? Decreasing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Reduction in the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) requirements for banks. Encouraging growth in banks and types of banks. Reforms in bankruptcy procedures. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4##Answer:c##Explaination:According to the economic survey: The SLR requirement in India have been high traditionally and there is need to decrease the SLR. It also list Priority sector lending requirement as one of the reason for repression but does not suggest decrease in PSL. Instead it suggests reforms in the PSL. Hence, only 2nd statement is in correct, rest all are correct. Survey recommends the last two steps as a measure to India for future shocks and repression. So answer is C##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
A new scheme “Nayi Manzil” was announced in Union Budget 2015-16. Which of the statements given below is/are true about this scheme? It will be an integrated education and livelihood scheme. It will enable minority youth who do not have a formal school-leaving certificate to obtain one and find better employment. It will provide skill development and employment-cum-income generation to Maoist effected areas. It will be a sub part of “Nai Roshni” which aimed for leadership development of minority youth. Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
“Nai Manzil” scheme announced in the budget will be an integrated education and livelihood scheme to enable minority youth who do not have a formal school-leaving certificate to obtain one and find better employment. The scheme will help bridge the gap in education and skills of those passing out of madrasas. Hence 1st and 2nd statements are correct. Roshni is the scheme for skill development for rural youth from the most critical left wing extremism affected districts in the country. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. “Nai Roshni” is the scheme for leadership development of minority women with the objective to empower and instill confidence in women, by providing knowledge, tools and techniques to interact with Government systems, banks, and intermediaries at all levels so that they are emboldened to move out of the confines of home and assume leadership roles. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
|
c
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A new scheme “Nayi Manzil” was announced in Union Budget 2015-16. Which of the statements given below is/are true about this scheme? It will be an integrated education and livelihood scheme. It will enable minority youth who do not have a formal school-leaving certificate to obtain one and find better employment. It will provide skill development and employment-cum-income generation to Maoist effected areas. It will be a sub part of “Nai Roshni” which aimed for leadership development of minority youth. Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:“Nai Manzil” scheme announced in the budget will be an integrated education and livelihood scheme to enable minority youth who do not have a formal school-leaving certificate to obtain one and find better employment. The scheme will help bridge the gap in education and skills of those passing out of madrasas. Hence 1st and 2nd statements are correct. Roshni is the scheme for skill development for rural youth from the most critical left wing extremism affected districts in the country. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. “Nai Roshni” is the scheme for leadership development of minority women with the objective to empower and instill confidence in women, by providing knowledge, tools and techniques to interact with Government systems, banks, and intermediaries at all levels so that they are emboldened to move out of the confines of home and assume leadership roles. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the stalled development projects in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? The share of electricity projects is highest in total stalled projects. The share of services sector is the highest for the stalled projects in private sector. Market condition is a dominant factor behind stalling of private sector projects. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
In terms of share in total, electricity and services dominate for both public and private sectors , while manufacturing forms the major component of stalled projects in the private sector. It is clear that private projects are held up overwhelmingly due to market conditions and non-regulatory factors whereas the government projects are stalled due to lack of required clearances. So statement 1 and 3 correct and option C is answer.
|
c
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the stalled development projects in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? The share of electricity projects is highest in total stalled projects. The share of services sector is the highest for the stalled projects in private sector. Market condition is a dominant factor behind stalling of private sector projects. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:c##Explaination:In terms of share in total, electricity and services dominate for both public and private sectors , while manufacturing forms the major component of stalled projects in the private sector. It is clear that private projects are held up overwhelmingly due to market conditions and non-regulatory factors whereas the government projects are stalled due to lack of required clearances. So statement 1 and 3 correct and option C is answer.##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are the region(s) of the Solar System beyond the planets? Kuiper belt Asteroid belt Scattered disc Oort cloud Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
In 1950, Dutch astronomer Jan Oort proposed that certain comets come from a vast, extremely distant, spherical shell of icy bodies surrounding the solar system . This giant swarm of objects is now named the Oort Cloud, occupying space at a distance between 5,000 and 100,000 astronomical units. (One astronomical unit, or AU, is the mean distance of Earth from the sun: about 150 million km or 93 million miles.) The outer extent of the Oort Cloud is believed to be in the region of space where the sun's gravitational influence is weaker than the influence of nearby stars. The Oort Cloud probably contains 0.1 to 2 trillion icy bodies in solar orbit. Occasionally, giant molecular clouds, stars passing nearby, or tidal interactions with the Milky Way's disc disturb the orbits of some of these bodies in the outer region of the Oort Cloud, causing the object to fall into the inner solar system as a so-called long-period comet. These comets have very large, eccentric orbits and take thousands of years to circle the sun. In recorded history, they are observed in the inner solar system only once.
|
b
|
Manorama year book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the region(s) of the Solar System beyond the planets? Kuiper belt Asteroid belt Scattered disc Oort cloud Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:In 1950, Dutch astronomer Jan Oort proposed that certain comets come from a vast, extremely distant, spherical shell of icy bodies surrounding the solar system . This giant swarm of objects is now named the Oort Cloud, occupying space at a distance between 5,000 and 100,000 astronomical units. (One astronomical unit, or AU, is the mean distance of Earth from the sun: about 150 million km or 93 million miles.) The outer extent of the Oort Cloud is believed to be in the region of space where the sun's gravitational influence is weaker than the influence of nearby stars. The Oort Cloud probably contains 0.1 to 2 trillion icy bodies in solar orbit. Occasionally, giant molecular clouds, stars passing nearby, or tidal interactions with the Milky Way's disc disturb the orbits of some of these bodies in the outer region of the Oort Cloud, causing the object to fall into the inner solar system as a so-called long-period comet. These comets have very large, eccentric orbits and take thousands of years to circle the sun. In recorded history, they are observed in the inner solar system only once.##Topic:Manorama year book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about recently concluded ‘Monetary Policy Framework Agreement’ by Central Government Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while taking care of growth. This policy framework shall be operated by Ministry of Finance. Under its targets Ministry of Finance will aim to bring inflation below 6 per cent by January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
India has set a target for inflation in a landmark change in its monetary policy.
The objective of the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement is to primarily maintain price stability (containing inflation) while keeping in mind the objective of growth . Hence 1st statement is correct.
India’s monetary policy framework will be operated by the central bank .
Under ‘Monetary Policy Framework Agreement’ RBI will look to contain consumer price inflation within 6% by January 2016 and within 4% with a band of 2 percentage points for all subsequent years.
Under its framework if the central bank misses the inflation target, it will send a report to the government citing reasons and remedial actions.
The central bank will also need to give an estimated time-period within which it expects to return to the target level.
|
a
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about recently concluded ‘Monetary Policy Framework Agreement’ by Central Government Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while taking care of growth. This policy framework shall be operated by Ministry of Finance. Under its targets Ministry of Finance will aim to bring inflation below 6 per cent by January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
India has set a target for inflation in a landmark change in its monetary policy.
The objective of the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement is to primarily maintain price stability (containing inflation) while keeping in mind the objective of growth . Hence 1st statement is correct.
India’s monetary policy framework will be operated by the central bank .
Under ‘Monetary Policy Framework Agreement’ RBI will look to contain consumer price inflation within 6% by January 2016 and within 4% with a band of 2 percentage points for all subsequent years.
Under its framework if the central bank misses the inflation target, it will send a report to the government citing reasons and remedial actions.
The central bank will also need to give an estimated time-period within which it expects to return to the target level.
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about ‘Soil health Card Scheme’: The card will carry crop wise recommendations of nutrients/fertilizers required for farms. Every soil health card will be renewed every year. This scheme will improve soil fertility on a sustainable basis. This is a centrally sponsored scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Soil Health Card (Centrally Sponsored Scheme) for Integrated Plant Nutrient Management to improve soil fertility and productivity on a sustainable basis. 3rd statement is correct.
It aims to provide every farmer a Soil Health Card in a Mission mode. The card will carry crop wise recommendations of nutrients/fertilizers required for farms, making it possible for farmers to improve productivity by using appropriate inputs.
Hence 1st statement is correct.
Every soil health card will be renewed after every three years . Hence 2nd statement is incorrect.
Central Government provides assistance to State Governments for setting up Soil Testing Laboratories for issuing Soil Health Cards to farmers. State Governments have adopted innovative practices like involvement of agricultural students, NGOs and private sector in soil testing, determining average soil health of villages, etc., to issue Soil Health Cards. Hence 4th statement is correct. So option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about ‘Soil health Card Scheme’: The card will carry crop wise recommendations of nutrients/fertilizers required for farms. Every soil health card will be renewed every year. This scheme will improve soil fertility on a sustainable basis. This is a centrally sponsored scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Soil Health Card (Centrally Sponsored Scheme) for Integrated Plant Nutrient Management to improve soil fertility and productivity on a sustainable basis. 3rd statement is correct.
It aims to provide every farmer a Soil Health Card in a Mission mode. The card will carry crop wise recommendations of nutrients/fertilizers required for farms, making it possible for farmers to improve productivity by using appropriate inputs.
Hence 1st statement is correct.
Every soil health card will be renewed after every three years . Hence 2nd statement is incorrect.
Central Government provides assistance to State Governments for setting up Soil Testing Laboratories for issuing Soil Health Cards to farmers. State Governments have adopted innovative practices like involvement of agricultural students, NGOs and private sector in soil testing, determining average soil health of villages, etc., to issue Soil Health Cards. Hence 4th statement is correct. So option (b) is the correct answer.
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With regard to "Dwarf Planet" , consider the following statements: It orbits around the Sun. It is a satellite. Pluto is a dwarf planet. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
According to the International Astronomical Union, which sets definitions for planetary science, a dwarf planet is a celestial body that: i) orbits the sun ii) has enough mass to assume a nearly round shape iii) has not cleared the neighborhood around its orbit iv) is not a satellite (moon). Hence, only 2nd statement is incorrect. Rest all are correct. The main distinction between a dwarf planet and a planet is that planets have cleared the path around the sun while dwarf planets tend to orbit in zones of similar objects that can cross their path around the sun, such as the asteroid and Kupier Belts. Dwarf planets also are generally smaller than the planet Mercury. The first five recognized dwarf planets are Ceres, Pluto, Eris, Makemake and Haumea. Scientists believe there may be dozens or even more than 100 dwarf planets awaiting discovery.
|
c
|
Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to "Dwarf Planet" , consider the following statements: It orbits around the Sun. It is a satellite. Pluto is a dwarf planet. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:According to the International Astronomical Union, which sets definitions for planetary science, a dwarf planet is a celestial body that: i) orbits the sun ii) has enough mass to assume a nearly round shape iii) has not cleared the neighborhood around its orbit iv) is not a satellite (moon). Hence, only 2nd statement is incorrect. Rest all are correct. The main distinction between a dwarf planet and a planet is that planets have cleared the path around the sun while dwarf planets tend to orbit in zones of similar objects that can cross their path around the sun, such as the asteroid and Kupier Belts. Dwarf planets also are generally smaller than the planet Mercury. The first five recognized dwarf planets are Ceres, Pluto, Eris, Makemake and Haumea. Scientists believe there may be dozens or even more than 100 dwarf planets awaiting discovery.##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following schemes is/are included under the The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate Karyakram? A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal Shramik Arogya Nidhi Compliance Tracking system Apprentice Protsahan Yojana Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate Karyakram includes five schemes:
A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal: That would allot Labour Identification Number (LIN) to nearly 6 lakhs units and allow them to file online compliance for 16 out of 44 labour laws
An all-new Random Inspection Scheme: Utilizing technology to eliminate human discretion in selection of units for Inspection, and uploading of Inspection Reports within 72 hours of inspection mandatory.
Universal Account Number: Enables 4.17 crore employees to have their Provident Fund account portable, hassle-free and universally accessible.
Apprentice Protsahan Yojana: Will support manufacturing units mainly and other establishments by reimbursing 50% of the stipend paid to apprentices during first two years of their training.
Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana: Introducing a Smart Card for the workers in the unorganized sector seeded with details of two more social security schemes.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following schemes is/are included under the The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate Karyakram? A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal Shramik Arogya Nidhi Compliance Tracking system Apprentice Protsahan Yojana Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A: 1, 3 and 5 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 5 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate Karyakram includes five schemes:
A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal: That would allot Labour Identification Number (LIN) to nearly 6 lakhs units and allow them to file online compliance for 16 out of 44 labour laws
An all-new Random Inspection Scheme: Utilizing technology to eliminate human discretion in selection of units for Inspection, and uploading of Inspection Reports within 72 hours of inspection mandatory.
Universal Account Number: Enables 4.17 crore employees to have their Provident Fund account portable, hassle-free and universally accessible.
Apprentice Protsahan Yojana: Will support manufacturing units mainly and other establishments by reimbursing 50% of the stipend paid to apprentices during first two years of their training.
Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana: Introducing a Smart Card for the workers in the unorganized sector seeded with details of two more social security schemes.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
With regard to the special provisions provided under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. It provides permanent provisions to Jammu and Kashmir by granting it special autonomy . 2. President"s Rule cannot be applied on the grounds of "internal disturbance" without the concurrence of the State Government. 3. The President of india can revoke this article only on the recommendation of the Governor with the concurrence of the Chief Minister. 4. Fifth and Sixth Schedules pertaining to Scheduled Tribes and Tribal Areas donot apply to Jammu and Kashmir. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
No proclamation of emergency made on the grounds of internal disturbance or imminent danger thereof shall have effect in relation to the state unless (a) it is made at the request or with the concurrence of the government of the state ; or (b) where it has not been so made, it is a pplied subsequently by the President to that state at the request or with the concurrence of the government of that state. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. Under Article 370(3) - The President may, by public notification , declare that this Article shall cease to be operative but only on the recommendation of the Constituent Assembly of the State . In other words, Article 370 can be revoked only if a new Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir is convened and is willing to recommend its revocation. Even though , Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution to change this provision. But this could be subject to a judicial review which may find that this clause is a basic feature of the relationship between the State and the Centre and cannot, therefore, be amended. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.
|
b
|
Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the special provisions provided under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. It provides permanent provisions to Jammu and Kashmir by granting it special autonomy . 2. President"s Rule cannot be applied on the grounds of "internal disturbance" without the concurrence of the State Government. 3. The President of india can revoke this article only on the recommendation of the Governor with the concurrence of the Chief Minister. 4. Fifth and Sixth Schedules pertaining to Scheduled Tribes and Tribal Areas donot apply to Jammu and Kashmir. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination: No proclamation of emergency made on the grounds of internal disturbance or imminent danger thereof shall have effect in relation to the state unless (a) it is made at the request or with the concurrence of the government of the state ; or (b) where it has not been so made, it is a pplied subsequently by the President to that state at the request or with the concurrence of the government of that state. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. Under Article 370(3) - The President may, by public notification , declare that this Article shall cease to be operative but only on the recommendation of the Constituent Assembly of the State . In other words, Article 370 can be revoked only if a new Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir is convened and is willing to recommend its revocation. Even though , Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution to change this provision. But this could be subject to a judicial review which may find that this clause is a basic feature of the relationship between the State and the Centre and cannot, therefore, be amended. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
New Horizons Spacecraft is launched by NASA:
|
to study Sun"s influence on Earth and near-Earth space by studying the solar atmosphere .
|
to carry astronauts to destinations at or beyond low Earth orbit.
|
to study Mercury"s chemical composition, geology and magnetic field.
|
to study Sun"s influence on Earth and near-Earth space by studying the solar atmosphere .
|
The Orion Multi-Purpose Crew Vehicle ( MPCV ) is a spacecraft intended to carry astronauts to destinations at or beyond low Earth orbit (LEO). Currently under development by NASA for launch on the Space Launch System.Orion is currently intended to facilitate human exploration of asteroids and of Mars, as well as to provide a means of delivering or retrieving crew or supplies from the ISS if needed. MESSENGER (an acronym of MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging , and a reference to Mercury being the messenger of the gods) is a robotic NASA spacecraft orbiting the planet Mercury to study its chemical composition, geology, and magnetic field. New Horizons is a NASA space probe or spacecraft, launched to study the dwarf planet Pluto, its moons and one or two other Kuiper Belt objects(KBOs) , depending on which are in position to be explored. On January 15, 2015, then New Horizons spacecraft began its approach phase to Pluto, which will result in the first flyby of the dwarf planet on July 14, 2015. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:New Horizons Spacecraft is launched by NASA:##Option_A: to study Sun"s influence on Earth and near-Earth space by studying the solar atmosphere .###Option_B: to carry astronauts to destinations at or beyond low Earth orbit.##Option_C: to study Mercury"s chemical composition, geology and magnetic field.##Option_D: to study Sun"s influence on Earth and near-Earth space by studying the solar atmosphere .##Answer:d##Explaination:The Orion Multi-Purpose Crew Vehicle ( MPCV ) is a spacecraft intended to carry astronauts to destinations at or beyond low Earth orbit (LEO). Currently under development by NASA for launch on the Space Launch System.Orion is currently intended to facilitate human exploration of asteroids and of Mars, as well as to provide a means of delivering or retrieving crew or supplies from the ISS if needed. MESSENGER (an acronym of MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging , and a reference to Mercury being the messenger of the gods) is a robotic NASA spacecraft orbiting the planet Mercury to study its chemical composition, geology, and magnetic field. New Horizons is a NASA space probe or spacecraft, launched to study the dwarf planet Pluto, its moons and one or two other Kuiper Belt objects(KBOs) , depending on which are in position to be explored. On January 15, 2015, then New Horizons spacecraft began its approach phase to Pluto, which will result in the first flyby of the dwarf planet on July 14, 2015. Hence, option d is the correct answer.##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which among the following pairs is/are correctly matched with respect to the Northern Hemisphere ? 1. Summer : When the Sun is directly overhead the Equator 2. Winter : When the Sun is at Tropic of Capricorn 3. Spring : When the Sun is at Tropic of Cancer Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
SUMMER - When the Sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer and the North Temperate Zone experiences summer. WINTER - When the Sun is at the Tropic of Capricorn and the North Temperate Zone experiences winter. SPRING - When the Sun is directly overhead the Equator . AUTUMN - When the Sun returns to the Equator , the North Temperate Zone experiences autumn. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following pairs is/are correctly matched with respect to the Northern Hemisphere ? 1. Summer : When the Sun is directly overhead the Equator 2. Winter : When the Sun is at Tropic of Capricorn 3. Spring : When the Sun is at Tropic of Cancer Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:SUMMER - When the Sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer and the North Temperate Zone experiences summer. WINTER - When the Sun is at the Tropic of Capricorn and the North Temperate Zone experiences winter. SPRING - When the Sun is directly overhead the Equator . AUTUMN - When the Sun returns to the Equator , the North Temperate Zone experiences autumn. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following languages spoken in India have been given "Classical" status? Telugu Sanskrit Malayalam Oriya Tamil Kannada Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
|
2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
|
1 , 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
|
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
|
The six languages which are included in the list of Classical Languages are : Tamil (since 2004) Sanskrit (since 2005) Telugu (since 2008) Kannada (Since 2008) Malayalam (since 2013) Odiya (since 2014) . The Government of India currently follows the following criteria to determine the eligibility of language to be considered for classification as "classical language" : High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
|
d
|
Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following languages spoken in India have been given "Classical" status? Telugu Sanskrit Malayalam Oriya Tamil Kannada Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only###Option_B: 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only##Option_C: 1 , 3, 4, 5 and 6 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The six languages which are included in the list of Classical Languages are : Tamil (since 2004) Sanskrit (since 2005) Telugu (since 2008) Kannada (Since 2008) Malayalam (since 2013) Odiya (since 2014) . The Government of India currently follows the following criteria to determine the eligibility of language to be considered for classification as "classical language" : High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
With regard to the provisions of Official language in Indian Constitution , consider the following statements: Hindi is the official language of the Union. The States are free to adopt any language other than Hindi as official language for the conduct of their official functions All the proceedings of both Supreme Court and High Courts will be in English only. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
India has 22 officially recognised languages. Article 343 provides that the official language of Republic of India is Hindi with English as an additional language for official work and the States can legislate their own official languages, other than Hindi. The Constitution ( Article 348(1)(a) ) provides that all proceedings of Supreme Court of India and the High Courts , shall be in English. However, the Parliament has the power to alter this by law, but has not done so. Hence, all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Provisions related to Language
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the provisions of Official language in Indian Constitution , consider the following statements: Hindi is the official language of the Union. The States are free to adopt any language other than Hindi as official language for the conduct of their official functions All the proceedings of both Supreme Court and High Courts will be in English only. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:India has 22 officially recognised languages. Article 343 provides that the official language of Republic of India is Hindi with English as an additional language for official work and the States can legislate their own official languages, other than Hindi. The Constitution ( Article 348(1)(a) ) provides that all proceedings of Supreme Court of India and the High Courts , shall be in English. However, the Parliament has the power to alter this by law, but has not done so. Hence, all the statements are correct.##Topic:Provisions related to Language##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the statements given below is/are correct about ‘Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana’? It is essentially an organic farming scheme. It replaces earlier "Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana". Under this scheme there will be no liability on the farmers for expenditure on certification of organic produce. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to promote organic farming and to develop potential markets for organic products. It will maximize the utilization of natural resources through eco-friendly cultivation. Under this scheme Groups of farmers would be motivated to take up organic farming under. Fifty or more farmers will form a cluster having 50 acre land to take up the organic farming under the scheme. There will be no liability on the farmers for expenditure on certification. Every farmer will be provided Rs. 20,000 per acre in three years for seed to harvesting of crops and to transport produce to the market. Organic farming will be promoted by using traditional resources and the organic products will be linked with the market. It will increase domestic production and certification of organic produce by involving farmers. It has not replaced Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana. Hence, only 2nd statement is incorrect. Rest all are correct.
|
c
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the statements given below is/are correct about ‘Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana’? It is essentially an organic farming scheme. It replaces earlier "Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana". Under this scheme there will be no liability on the farmers for expenditure on certification of organic produce. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to promote organic farming and to develop potential markets for organic products. It will maximize the utilization of natural resources through eco-friendly cultivation. Under this scheme Groups of farmers would be motivated to take up organic farming under. Fifty or more farmers will form a cluster having 50 acre land to take up the organic farming under the scheme. There will be no liability on the farmers for expenditure on certification. Every farmer will be provided Rs. 20,000 per acre in three years for seed to harvesting of crops and to transport produce to the market. Organic farming will be promoted by using traditional resources and the organic products will be linked with the market. It will increase domestic production and certification of organic produce by involving farmers. It has not replaced Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana. Hence, only 2nd statement is incorrect. Rest all are correct.##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the statements given below is/are true about Self Employment and Talent Utilisation (SETU) mechanism? It will be a Techno-Financial, Incubation and Facilitation Programme to support self-employment activities particularly in technology-driven areas. Its focus will be on preserving rich heritage of minority communities of India under the overall concept of Indian culture. It will be a placement linked Skill Development imitative for SCs and STs to provide self-employment opportunities. Its focus will be on upgrading the skill and training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Self- Employment and Talent Utilisation (SETU) mechanism is announced in Union Budget 2015-16.
It will be a Techno-Financial, Incubation and Facilitation Programme to support all aspects of start up businesses, and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology-driven areas . An amount of Rs.1000 crore is being set up initially in NITI Aayog for SETU. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the statements given below is/are true about Self Employment and Talent Utilisation (SETU) mechanism? It will be a Techno-Financial, Incubation and Facilitation Programme to support self-employment activities particularly in technology-driven areas. Its focus will be on preserving rich heritage of minority communities of India under the overall concept of Indian culture. It will be a placement linked Skill Development imitative for SCs and STs to provide self-employment opportunities. Its focus will be on upgrading the skill and training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Self- Employment and Talent Utilisation (SETU) mechanism is announced in Union Budget 2015-16.
It will be a Techno-Financial, Incubation and Facilitation Programme to support all aspects of start up businesses, and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology-driven areas . An amount of Rs.1000 crore is being set up initially in NITI Aayog for SETU. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs): They are used as instruments for pooling of investment for infrastructure projects. It would help attract more funds in a transparent manner into infrastructure sector. It would reduce the pressure on the banking system while also making available fresh equity. They are regulated by Reserve bank of India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are used as instruments for pooling of investment for infrastructure projects like Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITS) , which have been successfully used as instruments for pooling of investment in several countries.
These structures would reduce the pressure on the banking system while also making available fresh equity. Both the instruments would attract long-term finance from foreign and domestic sources including the NRIs. Hence 1st, 2nd and 3rd statements are correct.
Any person who wishes to carry on the activities of InvITs would have to obtain appropriate registration from SEBI. Hence 4th statement is incorrect. Hence (b) is the correct answer
|
b
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs): They are used as instruments for pooling of investment for infrastructure projects. It would help attract more funds in a transparent manner into infrastructure sector. It would reduce the pressure on the banking system while also making available fresh equity. They are regulated by Reserve bank of India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are used as instruments for pooling of investment for infrastructure projects like Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITS) , which have been successfully used as instruments for pooling of investment in several countries.
These structures would reduce the pressure on the banking system while also making available fresh equity. Both the instruments would attract long-term finance from foreign and domestic sources including the NRIs. Hence 1st, 2nd and 3rd statements are correct.
Any person who wishes to carry on the activities of InvITs would have to obtain appropriate registration from SEBI. Hence 4th statement is incorrect. Hence (b) is the correct answer
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct about tax buoyancy in India? It measures the corresponding change in tax revenues with the changes in GDP. Higher tax buoyancy would potentially lead to increase in the deficit ratio. Tax evasion and tax collection lags increase the tax buoyancy, hence improve the productivity of the economy. Proposed Goods & Service Tax (GST) will be less buoyant than Value added tax (VAT). Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Tax buoyancy is the measure for how tax revenues vary with changes in GDP. Hence 1st statement is correct.
A buoyancy of one would imply that an extra percent of GDP would increase tax revenue by one percent, thus leaving the tax to GDP ratio unchanged. Tax buoyancy exceeding one, however would increase tax revenue by more than GDP and potentially lead to reduction in the deficit ratio. Hence 2nd statement is incorrect.
Tax evasion and tax collection lags are administrative factors which reduces Tax buoyancy, Hence 3rd statement is incorrect.
A uniform taxation system such as GST will be more buoyant than Value added tax (VAT). Hence 4th statement is incorrect and option (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct about tax buoyancy in India? It measures the corresponding change in tax revenues with the changes in GDP. Higher tax buoyancy would potentially lead to increase in the deficit ratio. Tax evasion and tax collection lags increase the tax buoyancy, hence improve the productivity of the economy. Proposed Goods & Service Tax (GST) will be less buoyant than Value added tax (VAT). Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Tax buoyancy is the measure for how tax revenues vary with changes in GDP. Hence 1st statement is correct.
A buoyancy of one would imply that an extra percent of GDP would increase tax revenue by one percent, thus leaving the tax to GDP ratio unchanged. Tax buoyancy exceeding one, however would increase tax revenue by more than GDP and potentially lead to reduction in the deficit ratio. Hence 2nd statement is incorrect.
Tax evasion and tax collection lags are administrative factors which reduces Tax buoyancy, Hence 3rd statement is incorrect.
A uniform taxation system such as GST will be more buoyant than Value added tax (VAT). Hence 4th statement is incorrect and option (a) is the correct answer.
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about Organic LED (OLED): An OLED is simply an LED where the light is emitted by organic molecules. OLEDs are lighter, much more flexible and can produce a brighter and more colorful picture when compared to LCDs. OLEDs are brighter as they use backlight but they consume much more energy than LCDs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
OLED were in news as in Budget 2015-16 Basic customs duty was reduced from 10 % to nil to reduce the cost of raw materials.
OLED panels are made from organic (carbon based) materials that emit light when electricity is applied through them.
Since OLEDs do not require a backlight and filters (unlike LCD displays), they are more efficient, simpler to make, and much thinner.
OLEDs have a great picture quality - brilliant colors, fast response rate and a wide viewing angle.
Hence 1st and 2nd statements are correct; 3rd statement is incorrect and option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Organic LED (OLED): An OLED is simply an LED where the light is emitted by organic molecules. OLEDs are lighter, much more flexible and can produce a brighter and more colorful picture when compared to LCDs. OLEDs are brighter as they use backlight but they consume much more energy than LCDs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
OLED were in news as in Budget 2015-16 Basic customs duty was reduced from 10 % to nil to reduce the cost of raw materials.
OLED panels are made from organic (carbon based) materials that emit light when electricity is applied through them.
Since OLEDs do not require a backlight and filters (unlike LCD displays), they are more efficient, simpler to make, and much thinner.
OLEDs have a great picture quality - brilliant colors, fast response rate and a wide viewing angle.
Hence 1st and 2nd statements are correct; 3rd statement is incorrect and option (b) is the correct answer.
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
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In Union Budget 2015-16 basic customs duty was reduced from 2.5 % to Nil on Ulexite ore. Consider the following statements about ‘Ulexite ore’: It is a naturally occurring fiber-optic material and is composed of thousands of fibrous fragments, which transmit light. Ulexite is also known as TV rock due to its unusual optical characteristics. It is used in agriculture as a good component for making different micronutrients and fertilizers. Select the correct answer using code given below:
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1 only
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1 and 2 only
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3 only
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1 only
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Ulexite (NaCaB5O6(OH)6•5(H2O)) (hydrated sodium calcium borate hydroxide), sometimes known as TV rock, is a naturally occurring fiber-optic material and is composed of thousands of fibrous fragments, which transmit light. The fibers of Ulexite act as optical fibers, transmitting light along their lengths by internal reflection. Hence 1st and 2nd statements are correct. Uses of Ulexite Agriculture field : Because of it's properties, Ulexite gets great results on agriculture as a good component for making different micronutrients and fertilizers. Ulexite can offer it's goodness both products for microfoliar applications and fertilizers to soil applications. Hence 3rd statement is also correct. Fries: Calcined Ulexite is also used to make fries not only to ceramic industry but also for fiberglass industry. Boric acid and borax production: Ulexite is also a necessary element to make other products related to borates family.
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d
|
Budget 2015-16
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Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In Union Budget 2015-16 basic customs duty was reduced from 2.5 % to Nil on Ulexite ore. Consider the following statements about ‘Ulexite ore’: It is a naturally occurring fiber-optic material and is composed of thousands of fibrous fragments, which transmit light. Ulexite is also known as TV rock due to its unusual optical characteristics. It is used in agriculture as a good component for making different micronutrients and fertilizers. Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Ulexite (NaCaB5O6(OH)6•5(H2O)) (hydrated sodium calcium borate hydroxide), sometimes known as TV rock, is a naturally occurring fiber-optic material and is composed of thousands of fibrous fragments, which transmit light. The fibers of Ulexite act as optical fibers, transmitting light along their lengths by internal reflection. Hence 1st and 2nd statements are correct. Uses of Ulexite Agriculture field : Because of it's properties, Ulexite gets great results on agriculture as a good component for making different micronutrients and fertilizers. Ulexite can offer it's goodness both products for microfoliar applications and fertilizers to soil applications. Hence 3rd statement is also correct. Fries: Calcined Ulexite is also used to make fries not only to ceramic industry but also for fiberglass industry. Boric acid and borax production: Ulexite is also a necessary element to make other products related to borates family.##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
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Which of the following dances have been conferred "Classical" status? Kathak Bharatnatyam Sattriya Manipuri Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1 and 2 only
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1 , 2 and 3 only
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2, 3 and 4 only]
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1 and 2 only
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A dance style is classical to the extent that it incorporates Natya Shastra techniques. There are eight classical dances recognized by both Sangeet Natak Academy and ministry of Culture as Classical Dances viz. Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathakali (Kerela), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Kathak (North India), Manipuri (Manipur), Odissi (Odisha) and Sattriya (Assam).
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d
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Manorama Year Book 2015
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Chemistry
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following dances have been conferred "Classical" status? Kathak Bharatnatyam Sattriya Manipuri Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:1 , 2 and 3 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only]##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:A dance style is classical to the extent that it incorporates Natya Shastra techniques. There are eight classical dances recognized by both Sangeet Natak Academy and ministry of Culture as Classical Dances viz. Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathakali (Kerela), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Kathak (North India), Manipuri (Manipur), Odissi (Odisha) and Sattriya (Assam).##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
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Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched? Dance Region 1. Bharatnatyam : Tamil Nadu 2. Kathakali : Andhra Pradesh 3. Mohiniyattam : Kerela Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1 only
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2 only
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3 only
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1 only
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Bharatnatyam -originated in Tamil Nadu , name possibly derived from Bharat. In Natya Shastra, Bharatanatyam is described as ekaharya in which one dancer depicts many roles. Siva as Nataraja, the Lord of Dance is depicted in various dance forms . Bharatnatyam leans heavily on the abhinaya or mime aspect of dance - the nritya, where the dancer expresses the sahitya through movement and mime (gestures and facial expression). Bharatanatyam is usually accompanied by the classical music. It is practiced by both male and female dancers. Kathakali- Evolved from many social and religious theatrical forms of Kerala . This dance form is a blend of dance, music and acting and dramatizes stories , which are mostly adapted from the Indian epics. Kathakali is considered to be a combination of five elements of fine art: Expressions (Natyam, the component with emphasis on facial expressions) Dance (Nritham, the component of dance with emphasis on rhythm and movement of hands, legs and body) Enactment (Nrithyam, the element of drama with emphasis on "mudras", which are hand gestures) Song/vocal accompaniment (Geetha) Instrument accompaniment (Vadyam). Mohiniyattam- It is a classical dance form from Kerala.It is considered a very graceful form of dance meant to be performed as solo recitals by women.There are approximately 40 basic movements, known as atavukal. The vocal music of Mohiniyattam involves variations in rhythmic structure known as chollu. Hence, correct option is (b) only.
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b
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Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched? Dance Region 1. Bharatnatyam : Tamil Nadu 2. Kathakali : Andhra Pradesh 3. Mohiniyattam : Kerela Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Bharatnatyam -originated in Tamil Nadu , name possibly derived from Bharat. In Natya Shastra, Bharatanatyam is described as ekaharya in which one dancer depicts many roles. Siva as Nataraja, the Lord of Dance is depicted in various dance forms . Bharatnatyam leans heavily on the abhinaya or mime aspect of dance - the nritya, where the dancer expresses the sahitya through movement and mime (gestures and facial expression). Bharatanatyam is usually accompanied by the classical music. It is practiced by both male and female dancers. Kathakali- Evolved from many social and religious theatrical forms of Kerala . This dance form is a blend of dance, music and acting and dramatizes stories , which are mostly adapted from the Indian epics. Kathakali is considered to be a combination of five elements of fine art: Expressions (Natyam, the component with emphasis on facial expressions) Dance (Nritham, the component of dance with emphasis on rhythm and movement of hands, legs and body) Enactment (Nrithyam, the element of drama with emphasis on "mudras", which are hand gestures) Song/vocal accompaniment (Geetha) Instrument accompaniment (Vadyam). Mohiniyattam- It is a classical dance form from Kerala.It is considered a very graceful form of dance meant to be performed as solo recitals by women.There are approximately 40 basic movements, known as atavukal. The vocal music of Mohiniyattam involves variations in rhythmic structure known as chollu. Hence, correct option is (b) only.##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
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