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With regard to Geographical Indication (GI) status and registration of products in India, consider the following statements: It is a collective public right. Gi registration for products in India is done under Ministry of Environment , Forests and Climate Change. Products of foreign origin cannot be given GI registration in India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The GI may be consideredas a collective sui generis right as its use is normally reserved for those producers who respect that is defined by a community of producers belonging to that specified geographical area, and approved by a competent authority. Hence, 1 st statement is correct. Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM) shall be the Registrar for GIs - under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. The Products of foreign origin have also been given GI registration in India like Pisco, liquor belonging to Peru, Scotch Whisky of UK, etc. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.
|
d
|
Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Geographical Indication (GI) status and registration of products in India, consider the following statements: It is a collective public right. Gi registration for products in India is done under Ministry of Environment , Forests and Climate Change. Products of foreign origin cannot be given GI registration in India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The GI may be consideredas a collective sui generis right as its use is normally reserved for those producers who respect that is defined by a community of producers belonging to that specified geographical area, and approved by a competent authority. Hence, 1 st statement is correct. Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM) shall be the Registrar for GIs - under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. The Products of foreign origin have also been given GI registration in India like Pisco, liquor belonging to Peru, Scotch Whisky of UK, etc. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the initiatives taken in Union Budget 2015-16 to boost investment in infrastructure: National Investment & Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is to be set up as a section 25 Company. Government permitted tax-free infra bonds for rail, road and irrigation projects. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
National Investment & Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was announced in Union Budget 2015-16. This is to be set up as a Trust and it would raise debt to invest in the equity of infrastructure finance companies . Hence 1st Statement is incorrect.
Government permitted tax-free infra bonds for rail, road and irrigation projects for widening the scope for investments. The cost of borrowed capital for implementing the infra projects will come down due to tax-free infrastructure bonds. Hence 2nd statement is correct and option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the initiatives taken in Union Budget 2015-16 to boost investment in infrastructure: National Investment & Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is to be set up as a section 25 Company. Government permitted tax-free infra bonds for rail, road and irrigation projects. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
National Investment & Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was announced in Union Budget 2015-16. This is to be set up as a Trust and it would raise debt to invest in the equity of infrastructure finance companies . Hence 1st Statement is incorrect.
Government permitted tax-free infra bonds for rail, road and irrigation projects for widening the scope for investments. The cost of borrowed capital for implementing the infra projects will come down due to tax-free infrastructure bonds. Hence 2nd statement is correct and option (b) is the correct answer.
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With regard to the Plate Tectonics theory, consider the following statements: It describes that both continents and oceans are in motion. The destructive plate margins are found on all sides of Pacific Ocean. The constructive plate margins are found in Atlantic Ocean. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
According to the theory, continental and oceanic plates are in motion.
|
d
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the Plate Tectonics theory, consider the following statements: It describes that both continents and oceans are in motion. The destructive plate margins are found on all sides of Pacific Ocean. The constructive plate margins are found in Atlantic Ocean. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:According to the theory, continental and oceanic plates are in motion. ##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? Agencies Headquarters 1. International Atomic Energy Agency(IAEA) Rome 2. Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) Vienna 3. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Geneva Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
FAO is an agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger. It serves both developed and developing countries. FAO helps developing countries and countries in transition to modernize and improve agriculture, forestry and fisheries practices, ensuring good nutrition and food security for all. Its Headquarter is located in Rome, Italy. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is a specialized agency of the UN created in 1967 to encourage creative activity, to promote the protection of intellectual property throughout the world. Its headquarter is located in Geneva, Switzerland. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons. The IAEA was established as an autonomous organization on 29 July 1957. Though established independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
|
c
|
Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? Agencies Headquarters 1. International Atomic Energy Agency(IAEA) Rome 2. Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) Vienna 3. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Geneva Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:FAO is an agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger. It serves both developed and developing countries. FAO helps developing countries and countries in transition to modernize and improve agriculture, forestry and fisheries practices, ensuring good nutrition and food security for all. Its Headquarter is located in Rome, Italy. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is a specialized agency of the UN created in 1967 to encourage creative activity, to promote the protection of intellectual property throughout the world. Its headquarter is located in Geneva, Switzerland. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons. The IAEA was established as an autonomous organization on 29 July 1957. Though established independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Services sector of India: India"s services sector has a low share in income and relatively high share in employment. The share of services sector in employment has been always higher than industry since liberalization of Indian economy. The share of trade, hotels and restaurant in employment from services has been highest since liberalization of Indian economy. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
India's services sector has a high share in income and relatively low share in employment. The share of services sector is high in income as compared to its share in employment. The share community, social and personal services was highest till 2004. Since then trade, hotels and restaurants have highest share in employment. So only statement 2 is correct. Rest all statements are incorrect.
|
b
|
Services
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Services sector of India: India"s services sector has a low share in income and relatively high share in employment. The share of services sector in employment has been always higher than industry since liberalization of Indian economy. The share of trade, hotels and restaurant in employment from services has been highest since liberalization of Indian economy. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:India's services sector has a high share in income and relatively low share in employment. The share of services sector is high in income as compared to its share in employment. The share community, social and personal services was highest till 2004. Since then trade, hotels and restaurants have highest share in employment. So only statement 2 is correct. Rest all statements are incorrect.##Topic:Services##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana: It will be a one-year accident insurance cover to people in age group 18 to 80 years with bank account. It will be provided for a premium of just Rs.12 per annum. It will provide Rs.2 Lakh for accidental death and full disability while Rs.1 Lakh for partial disability. It will be offered by all Public Sector General Insurance Companies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Highlights of the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (Pmsby – Scheme 1 - for Accidental Death Insurance) Eligibility : Available to people in age group 18 to 70 years with bank account. Premium: Rs.12 per annum. Payment Mode: The premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscribers account. This is the only mode available. Risk Coverage: For accidental death and full disability - Rs.2 Lakh and for partial disability – Rs.1 Lakh. Eligibility: Any person having a bank account and Aadhaar number linked to the bank account can give a simple form to the bank every year before 1 st of June in order to join the scheme. Name of nominee to be given in the form. Terms of Risk Coverage: A person has to opt for the scheme every year. He can also prefer to give a long-term option of continuing in which case his account will be auto-debited every year by the bank. Who will implement this Scheme?: The scheme will be offered by all Public Sector General Insurance Companies and all other insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie-up with banks for this purpose. Government Contribution: (i) Various Ministries can co-contribute premium for various categories of their beneficiaries from their budget or from Public Welfare Fund created in this budget from unclaimed money. This will be decided separately during the year. (ii) Common Publicity Expenditure will be borne by the Government.
|
b
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana: It will be a one-year accident insurance cover to people in age group 18 to 80 years with bank account. It will be provided for a premium of just Rs.12 per annum. It will provide Rs.2 Lakh for accidental death and full disability while Rs.1 Lakh for partial disability. It will be offered by all Public Sector General Insurance Companies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Highlights of the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (Pmsby – Scheme 1 - for Accidental Death Insurance) Eligibility : Available to people in age group 18 to 70 years with bank account. Premium: Rs.12 per annum. Payment Mode: The premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscribers account. This is the only mode available. Risk Coverage: For accidental death and full disability - Rs.2 Lakh and for partial disability – Rs.1 Lakh. Eligibility: Any person having a bank account and Aadhaar number linked to the bank account can give a simple form to the bank every year before 1 st of June in order to join the scheme. Name of nominee to be given in the form. Terms of Risk Coverage: A person has to opt for the scheme every year. He can also prefer to give a long-term option of continuing in which case his account will be auto-debited every year by the bank. Who will implement this Scheme?: The scheme will be offered by all Public Sector General Insurance Companies and all other insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie-up with banks for this purpose. Government Contribution: (i) Various Ministries can co-contribute premium for various categories of their beneficiaries from their budget or from Public Welfare Fund created in this budget from unclaimed money. This will be decided separately during the year. (ii) Common Publicity Expenditure will be borne by the Government.##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With regard to the criteria regarding declaration of Critically endangered category by IUCN, consider the following statements:
1. A decline of population or will decrease , by greater than 80% over the last 10 years or three generations.
2. High probability of extinction in the wild.
3. It has a restricted geographical range.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
All the statements are correct.
To be defined as Critically endangered in the Red List , a species must meet ANY of the following criteria (A–E) ("3Generations(3G)/10Y" signifies three generations or ten years—whichever is longer—over a maximum of 100 years; "MI" signifies Mature Individuals):
A : Occurring over less than 100 km² and two of:
1. Severe habitat fragmentation or existing at just one location
2. Decline in extent of occurence, area of occupancy, area/extent/quality of habitat, number of locations/subpopulations, or amount of MI.
3. Extreme fluctuations in extent of occurrence, area of occupancy, number of locations/subpopulations, or amount of MI.
B : As above, but less than 10 km² (used to show differing levels of severity).
C : Declining population of less than 250 MI and either:
1. A decline of 25% over 3G/10Y;
2. Extreme fluctuations, or over 90% of MI in a single subpopulation, or no more than 50 MI in any one subpopulation.
D : Numbers less than 50 MI.
E : At least 50% chance of going Extinct in the Wild over 3G/10Y.
|
d
|
Manorama Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With regard to the criteria regarding declaration of Critically endangered category by IUCN, consider the following statements:
1. A decline of population or will decrease , by greater than 80% over the last 10 years or three generations.
2. High probability of extinction in the wild.
3. It has a restricted geographical range.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
All the statements are correct.
To be defined as Critically endangered in the Red List , a species must meet ANY of the following criteria (A–E) ("3Generations(3G)/10Y" signifies three generations or ten years—whichever is longer—over a maximum of 100 years; "MI" signifies Mature Individuals):
A : Occurring over less than 100 km² and two of:
1. Severe habitat fragmentation or existing at just one location
2. Decline in extent of occurence, area of occupancy, area/extent/quality of habitat, number of locations/subpopulations, or amount of MI.
3. Extreme fluctuations in extent of occurrence, area of occupancy, number of locations/subpopulations, or amount of MI.
B : As above, but less than 10 km² (used to show differing levels of severity).
C : Declining population of less than 250 MI and either:
1. A decline of 25% over 3G/10Y;
2. Extreme fluctuations, or over 90% of MI in a single subpopulation, or no more than 50 MI in any one subpopulation.
D : Numbers less than 50 MI.
E : At least 50% chance of going Extinct in the Wild over 3G/10Y.
##Topic:Manorama Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
What is/are the recent initiatives by Government of India to boost industrial growth? Liberalization of licensing for large number of defence products. The process of application for industry licenses made online. Eliminating the need for environmental and forest clearances. Shram Suvidha portal. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Statement 1,2 and 4 are correct: To improve India`s low Ease of Doing Business, the important measures that have been undertaken are liberalization of licensing and deregulation of a large number of defence products. Under the project a Government to Business (G2B) portal is being set up to serve as a one-stop shop for delivery of services to the investors and address the needs of the business and industry from inception through the entire life cycle of the business. The process of applying for industrial licence has been made online. A process for online submission of applications for environment, coastal regulation zone (CRZ), and forest clearances has been started. Thus, streamlining environmental and forest clearances. A Shram Suvidha portal has been launched for online registration of units, filing of self-certified, simplified, single online return by units, introduction of a transparent labour inspection scheme.
|
a
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is/are the recent initiatives by Government of India to boost industrial growth? Liberalization of licensing for large number of defence products. The process of application for industry licenses made online. Eliminating the need for environmental and forest clearances. Shram Suvidha portal. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1,2 and 4 are correct: To improve India`s low Ease of Doing Business, the important measures that have been undertaken are liberalization of licensing and deregulation of a large number of defence products. Under the project a Government to Business (G2B) portal is being set up to serve as a one-stop shop for delivery of services to the investors and address the needs of the business and industry from inception through the entire life cycle of the business. The process of applying for industrial licence has been made online. A process for online submission of applications for environment, coastal regulation zone (CRZ), and forest clearances has been started. Thus, streamlining environmental and forest clearances. A Shram Suvidha portal has been launched for online registration of units, filing of self-certified, simplified, single online return by units, introduction of a transparent labour inspection scheme.##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTG) are identified as the most vulnerable section of the tribal groups in India. With respect to these consider the following statements about PVTGs: PVTGs can be characterised by pre-agriculture levels of technology and subsistence economy Their population levels are increasing, hence the need for their identification to ensure a targeted approach towards their holistic development. "Scheme of development of primitive tribal groups" is a centrally sponsored scheme to prioritise their protection and development. They inhabit isolated areas especially lakshadweep islands and Andaman and Nicobar islands Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
In 1973, the Debra Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) Among scheduled tribes there are certain tribal communities who have declining or stagnant population, low level of literacy, pre-agricultural level of technology and are economically backward. 75 such groups in 17 States and 1 Union Territory have been identified and categorized as Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs). Only 1 UT is there Andaman & Nicobar, lakshadweep is not included.
|
b
|
ST
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTG) are identified as the most vulnerable section of the tribal groups in India. With respect to these consider the following statements about PVTGs: PVTGs can be characterised by pre-agriculture levels of technology and subsistence economy Their population levels are increasing, hence the need for their identification to ensure a targeted approach towards their holistic development. "Scheme of development of primitive tribal groups" is a centrally sponsored scheme to prioritise their protection and development. They inhabit isolated areas especially lakshadweep islands and Andaman and Nicobar islands Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination: In 1973, the Debra Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) Among scheduled tribes there are certain tribal communities who have declining or stagnant population, low level of literacy, pre-agricultural level of technology and are economically backward. 75 such groups in 17 States and 1 Union Territory have been identified and categorized as Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs). Only 1 UT is there Andaman & Nicobar, lakshadweep is not included.##Topic:ST##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY): It will be one-year life cover to people in age group 18 to 60 years with bank account. It will provide Rs. 2 Lakh in case of accidental death only. The scheme will be offered by Life Insurance Corporation only. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Eligibility: Available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 and having a bank account. People who join the scheme before completing 50 years can, however, continue to have the risk of life cover up to the age of 55 years subject to payment of premium. Premium: Rs.330 per annum. It will be auto-debited in one instalment. Payment Mode: The payment of premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscribers account. Risk Coverage: Rs.2 Lakh in case of death for any reason . Terms of Risk Coverage: A person has to opt for the scheme every year. He can also prefer to give a long-term option of continuing, in which case his account will be auto-debited every year by the bank. Who will implement this Scheme?: The scheme will be offered by Life Insurance Corporation and all other life insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie-up with banks for this purpose. Government Contribution: (i) Various other Ministries can co-contribute premium for various categories of their beneficiaries out of their budget or out of Public Welfare Fund created in this budget out of unclaimed money. This will be decided separately during the year. (ii) Common Publicity Expenditure will be borne by Government.
|
d
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY): It will be one-year life cover to people in age group 18 to 60 years with bank account. It will provide Rs. 2 Lakh in case of accidental death only. The scheme will be offered by Life Insurance Corporation only. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Eligibility: Available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 and having a bank account. People who join the scheme before completing 50 years can, however, continue to have the risk of life cover up to the age of 55 years subject to payment of premium. Premium: Rs.330 per annum. It will be auto-debited in one instalment. Payment Mode: The payment of premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscribers account. Risk Coverage: Rs.2 Lakh in case of death for any reason . Terms of Risk Coverage: A person has to opt for the scheme every year. He can also prefer to give a long-term option of continuing, in which case his account will be auto-debited every year by the bank. Who will implement this Scheme?: The scheme will be offered by Life Insurance Corporation and all other life insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie-up with banks for this purpose. Government Contribution: (i) Various other Ministries can co-contribute premium for various categories of their beneficiaries out of their budget or out of Public Welfare Fund created in this budget out of unclaimed money. This will be decided separately during the year. (ii) Common Publicity Expenditure will be borne by Government.##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Atal Pension Yojna (APY): This will focus on all citizens in the unorganised sector, who join the National Pension System (NPS) and who are not members of any statutory social security scheme. The minimum age of joining APY is 18 years and maximum age is 40 years. It is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority. The Institutional Architecture of NPS would be utilised to enroll subscribers under APY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Atal Pension Yojana (APY) was announced in Budget Speech of 2015-16.
The APY will be focused on all citizens in the unorganised sector , who join the National Pension System (NPS) administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) and who are not members of any statutory social security scheme.
It is Government of India Scheme, which is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority .
The minimum age of joining APY is 18 years and maximum age is 40 years .
All Points of Presence (Service Providers) and Aggregators under Swavalamban Scheme would enroll subscribers through architecture of National Pension System .
Hence all the statements are correct and option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Atal Pension Yojna (APY): This will focus on all citizens in the unorganised sector, who join the National Pension System (NPS) and who are not members of any statutory social security scheme. The minimum age of joining APY is 18 years and maximum age is 40 years. It is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority. The Institutional Architecture of NPS would be utilised to enroll subscribers under APY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Atal Pension Yojana (APY) was announced in Budget Speech of 2015-16.
The APY will be focused on all citizens in the unorganised sector , who join the National Pension System (NPS) administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) and who are not members of any statutory social security scheme.
It is Government of India Scheme, which is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority .
The minimum age of joining APY is 18 years and maximum age is 40 years .
All Points of Presence (Service Providers) and Aggregators under Swavalamban Scheme would enroll subscribers through architecture of National Pension System .
Hence all the statements are correct and option (d) is the correct answer.
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the recently discovered super heavy element-117: Elements beyond atomic number 90 are called super heavy elements This element has a high degree of stability. India was a part of the group of nations who discovered this element. This element which has 117 protons was made artificially. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Ununseptium is a superheavy artificial chemical element with temporary symbol Uus and atomic number 117. The element, also known as eka-astatine or simply element 117, is the second-heaviest of all the elements(Its isotope Ununoctium is considered heaviest ). Its discovery was first announced in 2010—synthesis was claimed in Dubna, Russia, by a joint Russian-American collaboration, thus making it the most recently discovered element. Recently its discovery was confirmed. It was part of this confirmation team not discoverer team. It was created by combining calcium and berkelium. Elements heavier than uranium (with 92 protons) are not usually found in nature, but they can be forced into existence in laboratories. Element 117’s existence gives scientists hope, however, that they are getting closer to discovering a rumored “island of stability” where nuclei with so-called magic numbers of protons and neutrons become long-lived. Elements beyond atomic number 104 are called superheavy elements, but so far all have been found to have short half-lives, which is their rate of decay. Super-heavy elements, may refer to elements beyond atomic number 100, but also may refer to all transuranium elements. The transactinide elements begin with rutherfordium (atomic number 104). But so far all Super-heavy elements have been found to have short half-lives.
|
c
|
Manorama year book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the recently discovered super heavy element-117: Elements beyond atomic number 90 are called super heavy elements This element has a high degree of stability. India was a part of the group of nations who discovered this element. This element which has 117 protons was made artificially. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination: Ununseptium is a superheavy artificial chemical element with temporary symbol Uus and atomic number 117. The element, also known as eka-astatine or simply element 117, is the second-heaviest of all the elements(Its isotope Ununoctium is considered heaviest ). Its discovery was first announced in 2010—synthesis was claimed in Dubna, Russia, by a joint Russian-American collaboration, thus making it the most recently discovered element. Recently its discovery was confirmed. It was part of this confirmation team not discoverer team. It was created by combining calcium and berkelium. Elements heavier than uranium (with 92 protons) are not usually found in nature, but they can be forced into existence in laboratories. Element 117’s existence gives scientists hope, however, that they are getting closer to discovering a rumored “island of stability” where nuclei with so-called magic numbers of protons and neutrons become long-lived. Elements beyond atomic number 104 are called superheavy elements, but so far all have been found to have short half-lives, which is their rate of decay. Super-heavy elements, may refer to elements beyond atomic number 100, but also may refer to all transuranium elements. The transactinide elements begin with rutherfordium (atomic number 104). But so far all Super-heavy elements have been found to have short half-lives.##Topic:Manorama year book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The Hubble telescope recently completed 25 years of operation in space. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Hubble telescope?
Even from the Hubble telescope,which is situated in thermosphere, the stars appear to twinkle.
The Hubble telescope helped in measuring the Hubble constant i.e. the rate of expansion of universe.
Hubble telescope helped in discovering that almost every galaxy contains a black hole in its centre.
Hubble telescope will be replaced by James Webb Space telescope by 2020.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Stars twinkle because of disturbances in our atmosphere. Hubble telescope was placed in space, in order to gaze upon the universe unhindered by the veil of the atmosphere. Stars do not twinkle when viewed from Hubble telescope.
One of the first achievements of HST was to determine the rate at which our universe has been expanding i.e. Hubble Constant. This requires an accurate measurement of the distances of far away galaxies, which is almost impossible with ground-based telescopes. This was one of the key projects of the telescope. The observations with HST settled the rate of expansion within ten per cent accuracy.
Another revolutionary discovery in astronomy that HST helped to make was that almost every galaxy contains a black hole in its centre. Observations with HST were crucial in this discovery because of its ability to measure the speed of gas near the centres of galaxies.
|
d
|
Space Discoveries
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Hubble telescope recently completed 25 years of operation in space. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Hubble telescope?
Even from the Hubble telescope,which is situated in thermosphere, the stars appear to twinkle.
The Hubble telescope helped in measuring the Hubble constant i.e. the rate of expansion of universe.
Hubble telescope helped in discovering that almost every galaxy contains a black hole in its centre.
Hubble telescope will be replaced by James Webb Space telescope by 2020.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2, 3 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Stars twinkle because of disturbances in our atmosphere. Hubble telescope was placed in space, in order to gaze upon the universe unhindered by the veil of the atmosphere. Stars do not twinkle when viewed from Hubble telescope.
One of the first achievements of HST was to determine the rate at which our universe has been expanding i.e. Hubble Constant. This requires an accurate measurement of the distances of far away galaxies, which is almost impossible with ground-based telescopes. This was one of the key projects of the telescope. The observations with HST settled the rate of expansion within ten per cent accuracy.
Another revolutionary discovery in astronomy that HST helped to make was that almost every galaxy contains a black hole in its centre. Observations with HST were crucial in this discovery because of its ability to measure the speed of gas near the centres of galaxies.
##Topic:Space Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Which one of the following is covered under Cultural World Heritage Sites? Churches and Convents of Goa Western Ghats Rani-ki-Vav at Patan, Gujarat Cellular Jail, Andaman Islands Group of Monuments at Hampi Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
Churches and Convents of Goa, Rani-ki-Vav at Patan, Gujarat and Group of Monuments at Hampi are listed under Cultural World Heritage Sites, whereas Western Ghats is listed under Natural World Heritage Sites .
Cellular Jail, Andaman Islands is submitted on Tentative List. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following is covered under Cultural World Heritage Sites? Churches and Convents of Goa Western Ghats Rani-ki-Vav at Patan, Gujarat Cellular Jail, Andaman Islands Group of Monuments at Hampi Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only###Option_B: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Churches and Convents of Goa, Rani-ki-Vav at Patan, Gujarat and Group of Monuments at Hampi are listed under Cultural World Heritage Sites, whereas Western Ghats is listed under Natural World Heritage Sites .
Cellular Jail, Andaman Islands is submitted on Tentative List. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
The Fourteenth Finance Commission"s recommendations aim to increase the fiscal autonomy of the states. Consider the following statements in this regard: The Centre will increase the Central assistance to the states to 42 %. The states prefer "plan expenditure" as it gives them greater autonomy. The recommendations will have a favourable impact on the states which are relatively less developed. Along with states the FFC also aims at greater autonomy to the local bodies, both rural and urban. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The recommendation is to increase the state’s share from the central pool of taxes. This might affect the fiscal space of the centre. To address this there will be commensurate reductions in the Central Assistance to States (CAS) known as “plan transfers.” CAS transfers per capita are only mildly progressive as greater central discretion reduced progressivity. Implementing the FFC recommendations would increase progressivity because progressive tax transfers would increase, which gives greater discretion and fiscal autonomy to the states. The FFC transfers have more favorable impact on the states which are relatively less developed which is an indication that the FFC transfers are progressive i.e. states with lower per capita net state domestic product, receive on average much larger transfers per capita. The Finance Commission is also required to recommend on ‘the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State’ FFC has recommended distribution of grants to States for local bodies using 2011 population data with weight of 90% and area with weight of 10%. The grants to States will be divided into two, a grant to duly constituted Gram Panchayats and a grant to duly constituted Municipal bodies, on the basis of rural and urban population.
|
c
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Fourteenth Finance Commission"s recommendations aim to increase the fiscal autonomy of the states. Consider the following statements in this regard: The Centre will increase the Central assistance to the states to 42 %. The states prefer "plan expenditure" as it gives them greater autonomy. The recommendations will have a favourable impact on the states which are relatively less developed. Along with states the FFC also aims at greater autonomy to the local bodies, both rural and urban. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The recommendation is to increase the state’s share from the central pool of taxes. This might affect the fiscal space of the centre. To address this there will be commensurate reductions in the Central Assistance to States (CAS) known as “plan transfers.” CAS transfers per capita are only mildly progressive as greater central discretion reduced progressivity. Implementing the FFC recommendations would increase progressivity because progressive tax transfers would increase, which gives greater discretion and fiscal autonomy to the states. The FFC transfers have more favorable impact on the states which are relatively less developed which is an indication that the FFC transfers are progressive i.e. states with lower per capita net state domestic product, receive on average much larger transfers per capita. The Finance Commission is also required to recommend on ‘the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State’ FFC has recommended distribution of grants to States for local bodies using 2011 population data with weight of 90% and area with weight of 10%. The grants to States will be divided into two, a grant to duly constituted Gram Panchayats and a grant to duly constituted Municipal bodies, on the basis of rural and urban population.##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With regard to "Rashtriya Krishi Bima Yojana", consider the following statements: It provides insurance cover and financial support to the farmers in case of crop failure due to natural calamities. It is available to all the farmers irrespective of their size of holdings. Except the cash crops, all the food crops and oil seeds are covered in this scheme. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Rahtriya Krishi Bima Yojana intends to provide insurance cover and financial support to the farmers in the event of failure of crops as a result of natural calamities like natural fire, lightening, storms, cyclone, flood, draught, pests and diseases.
The salient features of the Scheme are :
It is available to all the farmers irrespective of their size of holding.
The scheme will be compulsory for loanee farmers and optional farmers.
No restriction on total sum insured and it can be of the value of the threshold yield of the crop with an option to cover upto 150% of average yield of the crop for extra premium.
All the crops will be covered and in addition three cash crops like sugarcane, potato and cotton are brought under the purview of the scheme. Hence, only 3rd statement is incorrect. Rest all are correct.
Remaining crops including horticultural and commercial crops will be placed under the scheme within the next three years.
In case the premium rates worked out on the basis of actuarial data are less than the prescribed premium rates, the lower rate will be applicable.
In case of the commercial and horticultural crops actuarial rates will be charged.
Transition to the actuarial regime will be achieved in five years so as to make it sustainable.
For small and marginal farmers, a subsidy of 50% on the premium.
Premium subsidy to be phased out over a period of five years.
Scheme will be operated on the basis of Area Approach.
All farmers of a defined area affected by a calamity will be entitled to payment of insurance according to the indemnity rates prescribed for the area.
In case of localised calamities like hailstorm, landslides, cyclone, flood etc., individual claims will be entertained.
Number of crop cutting experiments will be increased suitably in order to arrive at a realistic assessment of threshold yield level in a particular area.
Though initially General Insurance Corporation of India will implement the Scheme, in due course of time an exclusive organisation will be set up to administer this Scheme.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to "Rashtriya Krishi Bima Yojana", consider the following statements: It provides insurance cover and financial support to the farmers in case of crop failure due to natural calamities. It is available to all the farmers irrespective of their size of holdings. Except the cash crops, all the food crops and oil seeds are covered in this scheme. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Rahtriya Krishi Bima Yojana intends to provide insurance cover and financial support to the farmers in the event of failure of crops as a result of natural calamities like natural fire, lightening, storms, cyclone, flood, draught, pests and diseases.
The salient features of the Scheme are :
It is available to all the farmers irrespective of their size of holding.
The scheme will be compulsory for loanee farmers and optional farmers.
No restriction on total sum insured and it can be of the value of the threshold yield of the crop with an option to cover upto 150% of average yield of the crop for extra premium.
All the crops will be covered and in addition three cash crops like sugarcane, potato and cotton are brought under the purview of the scheme. Hence, only 3rd statement is incorrect. Rest all are correct.
Remaining crops including horticultural and commercial crops will be placed under the scheme within the next three years.
In case the premium rates worked out on the basis of actuarial data are less than the prescribed premium rates, the lower rate will be applicable.
In case of the commercial and horticultural crops actuarial rates will be charged.
Transition to the actuarial regime will be achieved in five years so as to make it sustainable.
For small and marginal farmers, a subsidy of 50% on the premium.
Premium subsidy to be phased out over a period of five years.
Scheme will be operated on the basis of Area Approach.
All farmers of a defined area affected by a calamity will be entitled to payment of insurance according to the indemnity rates prescribed for the area.
In case of localised calamities like hailstorm, landslides, cyclone, flood etc., individual claims will be entertained.
Number of crop cutting experiments will be increased suitably in order to arrive at a realistic assessment of threshold yield level in a particular area.
Though initially General Insurance Corporation of India will implement the Scheme, in due course of time an exclusive organisation will be set up to administer this Scheme.
##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
In the debate about Net Neutrality, issue of differential internet traffic management received maximum attention. In that regard, consider following methods employed by Telecom Service Providers (TSPs) for Internet traffic management: Toll-boothing system Zero-rating system Data caps Differential throttling Blocking Access-tiering Which of the above are price-based, differential traffic management methods?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 6 only
|
4 and 5 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Internet traffic management can be done by differential treatment which is categorized into two types: 1. Non-price based differential treatment: This involves degraded quality of service, delay interconnection requests, require customers to go through additional procedures to decrease the application’s brand value, or even outright refuse to interconnect. Telecom Operators can provide customized services to Application Service Providers via revenue sharing or payment: Toll-booth system where different services are priced differently but here the service fees is borne by the application developer and not consumer Zero-rating, where they can provide preferential access to certain defined sites, such as Reliance Communications’ relationship with Facebook, and Airtel ‘One Touch Internet’. Differential throttling: this technique is for content that is bandwidth hungry and non-time-critical. This can also ensure differentiated delivery of various OTT (Over-the-Top) services depending on various agreements with the App companies. Also, if the users exceed the data cap, the speeds are throttled. Blocking: End users may be prevented from viewing content or accessing a site (e.g. the blocking of VoIP traffic on a mobile data network). 2. Price based discrimination: Pricing an Internet service too high can effectively lead to prohibition of the service; equally, pricing services too low may result in entry of inefficient apps into the market. Some of the common ways of price discrimination are: Data caps: To monitor traffic and throttle data or charge extra volume once a predefined data cap is reached. This is currently being used in India. Access-tiering: A telecom operator may prioritize a specific application or content for a price to be paid by a customer. They can generate revenue to fund network investments this way. This is similar to pricing in the railways where travellers on passenger trains and express trains are priced differentially.
|
b
|
Reports(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the debate about Net Neutrality, issue of differential internet traffic management received maximum attention. In that regard, consider following methods employed by Telecom Service Providers (TSPs) for Internet traffic management: Toll-boothing system Zero-rating system Data caps Differential throttling Blocking Access-tiering Which of the above are price-based, differential traffic management methods?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 6 only##Option_C: 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Internet traffic management can be done by differential treatment which is categorized into two types: 1. Non-price based differential treatment: This involves degraded quality of service, delay interconnection requests, require customers to go through additional procedures to decrease the application’s brand value, or even outright refuse to interconnect. Telecom Operators can provide customized services to Application Service Providers via revenue sharing or payment: Toll-booth system where different services are priced differently but here the service fees is borne by the application developer and not consumer Zero-rating, where they can provide preferential access to certain defined sites, such as Reliance Communications’ relationship with Facebook, and Airtel ‘One Touch Internet’. Differential throttling: this technique is for content that is bandwidth hungry and non-time-critical. This can also ensure differentiated delivery of various OTT (Over-the-Top) services depending on various agreements with the App companies. Also, if the users exceed the data cap, the speeds are throttled. Blocking: End users may be prevented from viewing content or accessing a site (e.g. the blocking of VoIP traffic on a mobile data network). 2. Price based discrimination: Pricing an Internet service too high can effectively lead to prohibition of the service; equally, pricing services too low may result in entry of inefficient apps into the market. Some of the common ways of price discrimination are: Data caps: To monitor traffic and throttle data or charge extra volume once a predefined data cap is reached. This is currently being used in India. Access-tiering: A telecom operator may prioritize a specific application or content for a price to be paid by a customer. They can generate revenue to fund network investments this way. This is similar to pricing in the railways where travellers on passenger trains and express trains are priced differentially.##Topic:Reports(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the recommendations of the Fourteenth finance commission(FFC): 1. The share of states in the central divisible pool has been increased from 32% to 50% to promote balanced centre-state relations. 2. For calculating each states share, It takes into consideration the population of 2011. 3. The previous finance commissions had fiscal discipline as a criteria for tax devolution which was excluded by FFC. Which of the above statements are correct ? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The FFC has submitted its recommendations for the period 2015-16 to 2020-21. They are likely to have major implications for center-state relations The FFC has radically enhanced the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 percent to 42 per cent which is the biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution. The FFC has also proposed a new horizontal formula for the distribution of the states’ share in divisible pool among the states. Relative to the Thirteenth Finance Commission, the FFC has incorporated two new variables: 2011 population and forest cover; and excluded the fiscal discipline variable
|
c
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the recommendations of the Fourteenth finance commission(FFC): 1. The share of states in the central divisible pool has been increased from 32% to 50% to promote balanced centre-state relations. 2. For calculating each states share, It takes into consideration the population of 2011. 3. The previous finance commissions had fiscal discipline as a criteria for tax devolution which was excluded by FFC. Which of the above statements are correct ? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:The FFC has submitted its recommendations for the period 2015-16 to 2020-21. They are likely to have major implications for center-state relations The FFC has radically enhanced the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 percent to 42 per cent which is the biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution. The FFC has also proposed a new horizontal formula for the distribution of the states’ share in divisible pool among the states. Relative to the Thirteenth Finance Commission, the FFC has incorporated two new variables: 2011 population and forest cover; and excluded the fiscal discipline variable##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the 19th Amendment, recently adopted by Sri Lankan Parliament: It is an outcome of India-Sri Lanka Accord of 1987. It will convert the Sri Lankan polity from Presidential form to that of Parliamentary. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
It is not an outcome of India-Sri Lanka Accord. The 19 th Amendment was adopted by the Sri Lankan Parliament for curbing the presidential powers, rather than switching over to the Parliamentary from of government.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the 19th Amendment, recently adopted by Sri Lankan Parliament: It is an outcome of India-Sri Lanka Accord of 1987. It will convert the Sri Lankan polity from Presidential form to that of Parliamentary. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:It is not an outcome of India-Sri Lanka Accord. The 19 th Amendment was adopted by the Sri Lankan Parliament for curbing the presidential powers, rather than switching over to the Parliamentary from of government.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Secretary in the state legislature: He is administered oath of office by the Chief Minister. His main function is to assist a Minister in the discharge of his functions within the legislature. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Both the statements are correct. Parliamentary secretary is a member of the legislature. His main function is to assist a minister in discharging his Parliamentary functions. He is administered oath by the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister as the case may be. (Note Parliamentary secretary is different from secretary general of legislature) The Issue Many states in the Indian Union have instituted the post of Parliamentary Secretary. A Parliament Secretary often holds the rank of Minister of State and has the same entitlements and is assigned to a government department. Manipur, HP, Mizoram, Assam, Rajasthan, Punjab, Goa are some of the states where MLAs have been appointed Parliament Secretaries by the Government. PILs filed in various High Courts on the matter have argued that the appointment of Parliament Secretaries is ultra vires the 91 st Amendment. Recently Delhi chief minister Arvind Kejriwal’s decision to appoint 21 MLAs as ‘parliamentary secretaries (PS)’ to assist his six ministers has drawn sharp criticism from the Congress and BJP which called it a waste of public money and a way to oblige his men. The State Government, on the other hand, had recently said that the Parliamentary Secretaries would not receive any remuneration or perks of any kind. They could use government transport for official purpose and utilise space in the Minister's office to facilitate their work. Background Appointments and Functions of Parliamentary Secretary In the United Kingdom, a Minister who is a member Of one House, cannot go to the other House of Parliament. Therefore, a member of the House other than the one to which a Minister belongs, is appointed as Parliamentary Secretary to help his Minister and deputise for the Minister in that House. The Parliamentary Secretary has a status below that of a Cabinet Minister and a Minister of State. He is a paid servant and as he is not a Minister, who must be careful not to speak or to conduct himself as if he was a member of the Government. In India, the institution Of the office Of Parliamentary Secretary has no statutory origin nor does it derive authority from the Constitution of India. The office Of the Parliamentary Secretary in India was first created in 1951, purely for the purpose of assisting the Minister in parliamentary work. Unlike the Ministers,' the oath to the Parliamentary Secretaries is administered by the Prime Minister and not by the President. The appointment of a Parliamentary Secretary is entirely at the discretion of the Prime Minister, who decides when and who should be appointed as a Parliamentary Secretary. The functions of a Parliamentary Secretary are as under: He will assist the Minister in his official work. He will represent the Department/ Ministry in the House to which he belongs. He will perform such functions as may be assigned to him by the Minister.
|
c
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Secretary in the state legislature: He is administered oath of office by the Chief Minister. His main function is to assist a Minister in the discharge of his functions within the legislature. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Both the statements are correct. Parliamentary secretary is a member of the legislature. His main function is to assist a minister in discharging his Parliamentary functions. He is administered oath by the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister as the case may be. (Note Parliamentary secretary is different from secretary general of legislature) The Issue Many states in the Indian Union have instituted the post of Parliamentary Secretary. A Parliament Secretary often holds the rank of Minister of State and has the same entitlements and is assigned to a government department. Manipur, HP, Mizoram, Assam, Rajasthan, Punjab, Goa are some of the states where MLAs have been appointed Parliament Secretaries by the Government. PILs filed in various High Courts on the matter have argued that the appointment of Parliament Secretaries is ultra vires the 91 st Amendment. Recently Delhi chief minister Arvind Kejriwal’s decision to appoint 21 MLAs as ‘parliamentary secretaries (PS)’ to assist his six ministers has drawn sharp criticism from the Congress and BJP which called it a waste of public money and a way to oblige his men. The State Government, on the other hand, had recently said that the Parliamentary Secretaries would not receive any remuneration or perks of any kind. They could use government transport for official purpose and utilise space in the Minister's office to facilitate their work. Background Appointments and Functions of Parliamentary Secretary In the United Kingdom, a Minister who is a member Of one House, cannot go to the other House of Parliament. Therefore, a member of the House other than the one to which a Minister belongs, is appointed as Parliamentary Secretary to help his Minister and deputise for the Minister in that House. The Parliamentary Secretary has a status below that of a Cabinet Minister and a Minister of State. He is a paid servant and as he is not a Minister, who must be careful not to speak or to conduct himself as if he was a member of the Government. In India, the institution Of the office Of Parliamentary Secretary has no statutory origin nor does it derive authority from the Constitution of India. The office Of the Parliamentary Secretary in India was first created in 1951, purely for the purpose of assisting the Minister in parliamentary work. Unlike the Ministers,' the oath to the Parliamentary Secretaries is administered by the Prime Minister and not by the President. The appointment of a Parliamentary Secretary is entirely at the discretion of the Prime Minister, who decides when and who should be appointed as a Parliamentary Secretary. The functions of a Parliamentary Secretary are as under: He will assist the Minister in his official work. He will represent the Department/ Ministry in the House to which he belongs. He will perform such functions as may be assigned to him by the Minister. ##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
According to the Ayurveda, which of following are humors found in all the living beings? Pitta Vata Kapha Shipta Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Ayurveda Doshas are the basis of health and disease in Ayurvedic Medicine. There are three Doshas or humors - Vata, Pitta and Kapha. Doshas are in turn dependent upon and represent the working of Five Primary Elements - earth, water, fire, air and ether.
|
c
|
Also in News(History)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to the Ayurveda, which of following are humors found in all the living beings? Pitta Vata Kapha Shipta Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2, and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Ayurveda Doshas are the basis of health and disease in Ayurvedic Medicine. There are three Doshas or humors - Vata, Pitta and Kapha. Doshas are in turn dependent upon and represent the working of Five Primary Elements - earth, water, fire, air and ether.##Topic:Also in News(History)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
With reference to medieval India, what were "manigram" and "nanadesi"N?
|
Villages for revenue collection
|
Guilds of merchants
|
Village headmen
|
Villages for revenue collection
|
The Indian merchants were organised in guilds. There were several such guilds in south India from the eighth century onwards – the most famous being the Manigram and Nanadesi. These guilds traded extensively both within the peninsula and with Southeast Asia and China.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to medieval India, what were "manigram" and "nanadesi"N?##Option_A: Villages for revenue collection###Option_B: Guilds of merchants##Option_C: Village headmen##Option_D: Villages for revenue collection##Answer:b##Explaination:The Indian merchants were organised in guilds. There were several such guilds in south India from the eighth century onwards – the most famous being the Manigram and Nanadesi. These guilds traded extensively both within the peninsula and with Southeast Asia and China.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to "Sidereal time" consider the following statements: It is based on the Earth"s rate of rotation measured relative to the fixed stars rather than the Sun. A sidereal day is shorter than the solar day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The rotation period of a celestial object is the time that it takes to complete one revolution around its axis of rotation relative to the background stars. It differs from the planet's solar day, which includes an extra fractional rotation needed to accommodate the portion of the planet's orbital period during one day. A sidereal day represents the time taken by the earth to rotate on its axis relative to the stars, and is almost four minutes shorter than the solar day because of the earth's orbital motion.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to "Sidereal time" consider the following statements: It is based on the Earth"s rate of rotation measured relative to the fixed stars rather than the Sun. A sidereal day is shorter than the solar day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The rotation period of a celestial object is the time that it takes to complete one revolution around its axis of rotation relative to the background stars. It differs from the planet's solar day, which includes an extra fractional rotation needed to accommodate the portion of the planet's orbital period during one day. A sidereal day represents the time taken by the earth to rotate on its axis relative to the stars, and is almost four minutes shorter than the solar day because of the earth's orbital motion.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements in the context of the famous Meerut Conspiracy case which led to the trial of a group of labour leaders: 1. The labor leaders were arrested for secretly taking part in a plot to kill the viceroy. 2. Among the labor leaders who were tried, there were Englishmen involved. 3. Tej Bahadhur Sapru and K.N.Katju defended the accused in the trials. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The Meerut Conspiracy refers to the 1929 arrest and trial of twenty-nine Indians and two Englishmen suspected of having either communist or trade union affiliations. An organization, Communist International is commonly known as 'Comintern' was operating in Russia. Two Britishers, Philip Sprat and B.F. Bradly were sent out to India by the Communist International to carry out its design and to strengthen its movement. They, together with persons of communist convictions formed a Workers and Peasant Party and held its conference at Meerut. This worried the Britishers. They raided and arrested persons connected with Workers and Peasants Party, some trade unions and All India Congress. There was no plot of assassination or ride involved in this case as it was generally the case with other conspiracy cases during British India. Hence statement 1 is not correct. In all 32 persons were charged and 31 of them were arrested including the two Britishers. Hence statement 2 is correct. Muzaffar Ahamed, S.A. Dange , S.V. Ghate, Dr. G. Adhikari, P.C. Joshi, S.S. Mirajkar, Shaukat Usmani, Philip Strat, etc., were arrested . They were collectively charged under Section 121A of the India Penal Code with “conspiracy to deprive the King of Sovereignty of British India.” Sir Tej Bahadhur Sapru and Sri K.N. Katju and others represented the convicts. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Public Safety Bill of 1929 was aimed towards enabling the British Government to arbitrarily deport the anti-British agitators and ultimately snatch individual freedom. It was especially introduced in order to repress the growing communist activities in India.
|
d
|
Revolutionary movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in the context of the famous Meerut Conspiracy case which led to the trial of a group of labour leaders: 1. The labor leaders were arrested for secretly taking part in a plot to kill the viceroy. 2. Among the labor leaders who were tried, there were Englishmen involved. 3. Tej Bahadhur Sapru and K.N.Katju defended the accused in the trials. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Meerut Conspiracy refers to the 1929 arrest and trial of twenty-nine Indians and two Englishmen suspected of having either communist or trade union affiliations. An organization, Communist International is commonly known as 'Comintern' was operating in Russia. Two Britishers, Philip Sprat and B.F. Bradly were sent out to India by the Communist International to carry out its design and to strengthen its movement. They, together with persons of communist convictions formed a Workers and Peasant Party and held its conference at Meerut. This worried the Britishers. They raided and arrested persons connected with Workers and Peasants Party, some trade unions and All India Congress. There was no plot of assassination or ride involved in this case as it was generally the case with other conspiracy cases during British India. Hence statement 1 is not correct. In all 32 persons were charged and 31 of them were arrested including the two Britishers. Hence statement 2 is correct. Muzaffar Ahamed, S.A. Dange , S.V. Ghate, Dr. G. Adhikari, P.C. Joshi, S.S. Mirajkar, Shaukat Usmani, Philip Strat, etc., were arrested . They were collectively charged under Section 121A of the India Penal Code with “conspiracy to deprive the King of Sovereignty of British India.” Sir Tej Bahadhur Sapru and Sri K.N. Katju and others represented the convicts. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Public Safety Bill of 1929 was aimed towards enabling the British Government to arbitrarily deport the anti-British agitators and ultimately snatch individual freedom. It was especially introduced in order to repress the growing communist activities in India. ##Topic:Revolutionary movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
With reference to the gems and jewelry sector of India, consider the following statements: 1. India is the largest manufacturer of cut and polished diamonds in the world. 2. India is the second-largest diamond exporter in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
India is the world’s largest manufacturing center of cut and polished diamonds for the last many years, contributing 60% of the world’s supply in terms of value, 85% in terms of volume and 92% in terms of pieces. A large portion of which is sold in the national markets. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The size of the industry is 6000 crore rupees. India’s diamond exports ranked second in the world valued at US$ 23.82 billion in FY19. Hence, statement 2 is correct . The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) was set up by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India (GoI) in 1966. Since 1998, the GJEPC has been granted autonomous status. The GJEPC is the apex body of the gems & jewellery industry and today it represents almost 6,000 exporters in the sector. With headquarters in Mumbai, the GJEPC has Regional Offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Surat and Jaipur, all of which are major centres for the industry. The GJEPC’s promotional activities include organising a number of important trade shows held in the country like the India International Jewellery Show (IIJS), Signature IIJS, India Gem & Jewellery Machinery Expo (IGJME).
|
c
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the gems and jewelry sector of India, consider the following statements: 1. India is the largest manufacturer of cut and polished diamonds in the world. 2. India is the second-largest diamond exporter in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:India is the world’s largest manufacturing center of cut and polished diamonds for the last many years, contributing 60% of the world’s supply in terms of value, 85% in terms of volume and 92% in terms of pieces. A large portion of which is sold in the national markets. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The size of the industry is 6000 crore rupees. India’s diamond exports ranked second in the world valued at US$ 23.82 billion in FY19. Hence, statement 2 is correct . The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) was set up by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India (GoI) in 1966. Since 1998, the GJEPC has been granted autonomous status. The GJEPC is the apex body of the gems & jewellery industry and today it represents almost 6,000 exporters in the sector. With headquarters in Mumbai, the GJEPC has Regional Offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Surat and Jaipur, all of which are major centres for the industry. The GJEPC’s promotional activities include organising a number of important trade shows held in the country like the India International Jewellery Show (IIJS), Signature IIJS, India Gem & Jewellery Machinery Expo (IGJME). ##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the history of philosophical thoughts in India, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
|
Samkhya and Vedanta school put forward the materialist view of life.
|
According to Nyaya school, salvation can be attained through the acquisition of knowledge.
|
Vaisheshika theory propounded the atom theory.
|
Samkhya and Vedanta school put forward the materialist view of life.
|
Acc to Samkhya school, world owes its creation and evolution mote to nature than to God. Later, the creation of world was attributed to both nature and spirit. Thus in the beginning this school was materialistic and later becomes spiritualistic.
Vaisheshika school also put forward the materialistic view of life. According to vaisheshika schhol, material objects are made up of atoms. Hence it propounded the atom theory.
Nyaya school was developed as a system of logic. According to Nyaya school, salvation can be attained through the acquisition of knowledge.
Acc to Mimansa school, Vedas contain the eternal truth. And to attain salvation, one should perform vedic sacrifices.
Acc to Vedanta philosophy, brahma is reality and everything else is unreal. By the knowledge of self, one can attain salvation.
|
a
|
GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the history of philosophical thoughts in India, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
##Option_A: Samkhya and Vedanta school put forward the materialist view of life.
###Option_B: According to Nyaya school, salvation can be attained through the acquisition of knowledge.
##Option_C: Vaisheshika theory propounded the atom theory.
##Option_D: Samkhya and Vedanta school put forward the materialist view of life.
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Acc to Samkhya school, world owes its creation and evolution mote to nature than to God. Later, the creation of world was attributed to both nature and spirit. Thus in the beginning this school was materialistic and later becomes spiritualistic.
Vaisheshika school also put forward the materialistic view of life. According to vaisheshika schhol, material objects are made up of atoms. Hence it propounded the atom theory.
Nyaya school was developed as a system of logic. According to Nyaya school, salvation can be attained through the acquisition of knowledge.
Acc to Mimansa school, Vedas contain the eternal truth. And to attain salvation, one should perform vedic sacrifices.
Acc to Vedanta philosophy, brahma is reality and everything else is unreal. By the knowledge of self, one can attain salvation.
##Topic:GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements about the system of ‘subsidiary alliance’ is INCORRECT?
|
Lord Wellesley invented the Subsidiary alliance system
|
The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the company
|
The state was to accept a British Resident at its headquarters
|
Lord Wellesley invented the Subsidiary alliance system
|
Wellesley did not invent the Subsidiary alliance system. The system existed long before him and was of an evolutionary growth. Dupleix was perhaps the first who had lent European troops to Indian Princes at the expense of the latter. The English also adopted this system. Wellesley’s special contribution was that he greatly developed and elaborated the system and applied it in the case of almost every Indian state.
Subsidiary treaty was negotiated on the following terms and conditions:
The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the company and was to make no wars. It was t conduct negotiations with other states through the company.
A bigger state was to maintain an army within its territories commanded by British officers for the ‘preservation of peace’ and the ruler was to cede territory in full sovereignty for the upkeep of that force. A smaller state was required to pay tribute in cash to the company.
The state was to accept a British Resident at its headquarters.
The state was not to employ Europeans in its service without the consultation of the company.
The company was not to interfere in the internal affairs of the state.
The company was to protect the Indian state against foreign enemies of ‘every sort of kind’.
|
a
|
The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements about the system of ‘subsidiary alliance’ is INCORRECT?
##Option_A: Lord Wellesley invented the Subsidiary alliance system
###Option_B: The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the company
##Option_C: The state was to accept a British Resident at its headquarters
##Option_D: Lord Wellesley invented the Subsidiary alliance system
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Wellesley did not invent the Subsidiary alliance system. The system existed long before him and was of an evolutionary growth. Dupleix was perhaps the first who had lent European troops to Indian Princes at the expense of the latter. The English also adopted this system. Wellesley’s special contribution was that he greatly developed and elaborated the system and applied it in the case of almost every Indian state.
Subsidiary treaty was negotiated on the following terms and conditions:
The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the company and was to make no wars. It was t conduct negotiations with other states through the company.
A bigger state was to maintain an army within its territories commanded by British officers for the ‘preservation of peace’ and the ruler was to cede territory in full sovereignty for the upkeep of that force. A smaller state was required to pay tribute in cash to the company.
The state was to accept a British Resident at its headquarters.
The state was not to employ Europeans in its service without the consultation of the company.
The company was not to interfere in the internal affairs of the state.
The company was to protect the Indian state against foreign enemies of ‘every sort of kind’.
##Topic:The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Brahmo Samaj is incorrect ?
|
It denounced polytheism and idol worship and also the caste system.
|
It discarded the idea of doctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul.
|
It discarded the faith in divine incarnation.
|
It denounced polytheism and idol worship and also the caste system.
|
Brahmo samaj was established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828. It was based on the twin pillars of reason and the Vedas and Upanishads.
It discarded the faith in divine incarnation. It denounced polytheism and idol worship. It criticized caste system.
It took no definite stand on the doctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul and left it to individual Brahmos to believe either way.Hence,(b) is the incorrect statement.
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding the Brahmo Samaj is incorrect ?##Option_A: It denounced polytheism and idol worship and also the caste system.###Option_B: It discarded the idea of doctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul.##Option_C: It discarded the faith in divine incarnation.##Option_D: It denounced polytheism and idol worship and also the caste system.##Answer:b##Explaination:
Brahmo samaj was established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828. It was based on the twin pillars of reason and the Vedas and Upanishads.
It discarded the faith in divine incarnation. It denounced polytheism and idol worship. It criticized caste system.
It took no definite stand on the doctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul and left it to individual Brahmos to believe either way.Hence,(b) is the incorrect statement.
##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding different battles of Panipat: First battle of Panipat was fought between Babur and Hemu. Mughals won first two battles but were defeated in the third battle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
First battle of Panipat was fought between Babur and Ibrahim lodi in 1526. Babur defeated Ibrahim lodi in this battle.
Second battle of Panipat was fought between Akbar and Hemu in 1556. Akbar defeated Hemu in this battle.
Third battle of Panipat was fought between Ahmed shah Abdali (he was not a mughal) and Marathas. Marathas were defeated in this battle.
|
d
|
Mughal Period
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding different battles of Panipat: First battle of Panipat was fought between Babur and Hemu. Mughals won first two battles but were defeated in the third battle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
First battle of Panipat was fought between Babur and Ibrahim lodi in 1526. Babur defeated Ibrahim lodi in this battle.
Second battle of Panipat was fought between Akbar and Hemu in 1556. Akbar defeated Hemu in this battle.
Third battle of Panipat was fought between Ahmed shah Abdali (he was not a mughal) and Marathas. Marathas were defeated in this battle.
##Topic:Mughal Period##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Consider the following stages regarding the relation between British and the Indian states: Company"s struggle for equality with Indian states Policy of subordinate Isolation Policy of subordinate Union Policy of equal federation Policy of Ring fence Which one of the following is the chronologically correct sequence of the above stages?
|
1-4-5-2-3
|
1-2-5-4-3
|
1-5-2-3-4
|
1-4-5-2-3
|
Relation between British and the Indian states have following broad stages:
Company’s struggle for equality with Indian states (1740-1765): Prior to 1940, East India Company was a commercial body. Starting with the Anglo-French rivalry with the coming of Dupleix (1940), company asserted political identity with capture of Arcot (1751). In 1757, company won Battle of Plassey. The company became ruling power after gaining diwani rights in 1965.
Policy of Ring fence (1765-1813): This policy was reflected in the Warren Hastings’ wars against Marathas and Mysore and to create buffer states. Wellesley’s policy of subsidiary alliance was an extension of ring fence, which sought to reduce Indian states to a position of dependence on the company.
Policy of subordinate Isolation (1813-1857): During this period, the theory of paramountcy began to develop. Indian states were supposed to act in subordinate cooperation with the British.
Policy of subordinate Union (1857-1935): States came under the Union of British after the assumption of direct responsibility by the crown in 1858. The paramount supremacy of the Crown presupposed and implied the subordination of states.
Policy of equal federation (1935-1947): The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed a Federal Assembly. The federation never came to existence for the requisite number of states did not agree to join it.
|
c
|
The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following stages regarding the relation between British and the Indian states: Company"s struggle for equality with Indian states Policy of subordinate Isolation Policy of subordinate Union Policy of equal federation Policy of Ring fence Which one of the following is the chronologically correct sequence of the above stages?##Option_A: 1-4-5-2-3###Option_B: 1-2-5-4-3##Option_C: 1-5-2-3-4##Option_D: 1-4-5-2-3##Answer:c##Explaination:
Relation between British and the Indian states have following broad stages:
Company’s struggle for equality with Indian states (1740-1765): Prior to 1940, East India Company was a commercial body. Starting with the Anglo-French rivalry with the coming of Dupleix (1940), company asserted political identity with capture of Arcot (1751). In 1757, company won Battle of Plassey. The company became ruling power after gaining diwani rights in 1965.
Policy of Ring fence (1765-1813): This policy was reflected in the Warren Hastings’ wars against Marathas and Mysore and to create buffer states. Wellesley’s policy of subsidiary alliance was an extension of ring fence, which sought to reduce Indian states to a position of dependence on the company.
Policy of subordinate Isolation (1813-1857): During this period, the theory of paramountcy began to develop. Indian states were supposed to act in subordinate cooperation with the British.
Policy of subordinate Union (1857-1935): States came under the Union of British after the assumption of direct responsibility by the crown in 1858. The paramount supremacy of the Crown presupposed and implied the subordination of states.
Policy of equal federation (1935-1947): The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed a Federal Assembly. The federation never came to existence for the requisite number of states did not agree to join it.
##Topic:The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With reference to the history of temple architecture in India, which of the following statement is not correct:
|
Unlike the Nagara temple, the Dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall.
|
The term Shikhara in Nagara style is equivalent to the term Vimana in the Dravida style.
|
The term Shikhara in Dravida style is equivalent to Kalasha in Nagara style.
|
Unlike the Nagara temple, the Dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall.
|
Unlike the nagara temple, the dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall. The front wall has an entrance gateway in its centre, which is known as a gopuram. The shape of the main temple tower known as vimana in Tamil Nadu is like a stepped pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than the curving shikhara of North India. In the South Indian temple, the word "shikhara" is used only for the crowning element at the top of the temple which is usually shaped like a small stupika or an octagonal cupola- this is equivalent to the amlak and kalasha of North Indian temples. The North Indian idea of multiple shikharas rising together as a cluster was not popular in South India. At some of the most sacred temples in South India, the main temple in which the garbhagriha is situated has, in fact, one of the smallest towers. This is because it is usually the oldest part of the temple.
|
d
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the history of temple architecture in India, which of the following statement is not correct:##Option_A:Unlike the Nagara temple, the Dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall.###Option_B:The term Shikhara in Nagara style is equivalent to the term Vimana in the Dravida style.##Option_C:The term Shikhara in Dravida style is equivalent to Kalasha in Nagara style.##Option_D:Unlike the Nagara temple, the Dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall.##Answer:d##Explaination:Unlike the nagara temple, the dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall. The front wall has an entrance gateway in its centre, which is known as a gopuram. The shape of the main temple tower known as vimana in Tamil Nadu is like a stepped pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than the curving shikhara of North India. In the South Indian temple, the word "shikhara" is used only for the crowning element at the top of the temple which is usually shaped like a small stupika or an octagonal cupola- this is equivalent to the amlak and kalasha of North Indian temples. The North Indian idea of multiple shikharas rising together as a cluster was not popular in South India. At some of the most sacred temples in South India, the main temple in which the garbhagriha is situated has, in fact, one of the smallest towers. This is because it is usually the oldest part of the temple. ##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statement/s regarding measures of money supply is/are incorrect ? M2 includes Net time deposits of commercial banks. M3 includes Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks. M4 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks. M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks. M3 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources. Hence all the statements are wrong here.
|
d
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement/s regarding measures of money supply is/are incorrect ? M2 includes Net time deposits of commercial banks. M3 includes Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks. M4 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks. M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks. M3 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources. Hence all the statements are wrong here.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statement/s regarding the proposed Goods and Services Tax (GST) Bill is/are correct?
Integrated GST (IGST) will be another tax, in addition to the SGST and CGST,proposed in the bill.
IGST will be levied by the importing state.
The manner of dividing the IGST will be provided by the parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
IGST will not be a Tax in addition to the SGST and CGST so one should not be presumed that IGST is a third tax but it is only a mechanism to monitor the interstate trade of Goods and services and further to ensure that the ultimate SGST is gone to the consumer state since the GST is a destination based tax. Also,only the centre may levy and collect GST on supplies in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.Hence statements 1 and 2 are wrong. The tax collected would be divided between the centre and the states in a manner to be provided by Parliament, by law, on the recommendations of the GST Council.So statement 3rd is correct.
|
b
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement/s regarding the proposed Goods and Services Tax (GST) Bill is/are correct?
Integrated GST (IGST) will be another tax, in addition to the SGST and CGST,proposed in the bill.
IGST will be levied by the importing state.
The manner of dividing the IGST will be provided by the parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:IGST will not be a Tax in addition to the SGST and CGST so one should not be presumed that IGST is a third tax but it is only a mechanism to monitor the interstate trade of Goods and services and further to ensure that the ultimate SGST is gone to the consumer state since the GST is a destination based tax. Also,only the centre may levy and collect GST on supplies in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.Hence statements 1 and 2 are wrong. The tax collected would be divided between the centre and the states in a manner to be provided by Parliament, by law, on the recommendations of the GST Council.So statement 3rd is correct.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to surcharges, consider the following statements: Government can levy surcharge on any tax or duty. A bill which imposes surcharge can be introduced in parliament only on recommendations of president. Which of the above statement is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
It is the parliament that can levy surcharges and not the government. Also, the proceeds of the surcharge will go entirely to the centre. Surcharge can be levied on taxes on sale or purchase of goods (other than newspaper) in the course of inter-state trade or commerce, on any cess levied for specific purposes etc. It is not levied on taxes on services. Thus, statement 1 is false. To protect the interest of the states in financial matters, constitution lays down that certain bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on recommendations of the President. This includes a bill which imposes any surcharge on any tax or duty.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to surcharges, consider the following statements: Government can levy surcharge on any tax or duty. A bill which imposes surcharge can be introduced in parliament only on recommendations of president. Which of the above statement is/are correct?##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:It is the parliament that can levy surcharges and not the government. Also, the proceeds of the surcharge will go entirely to the centre. Surcharge can be levied on taxes on sale or purchase of goods (other than newspaper) in the course of inter-state trade or commerce, on any cess levied for specific purposes etc. It is not levied on taxes on services. Thus, statement 1 is false. To protect the interest of the states in financial matters, constitution lays down that certain bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on recommendations of the President. This includes a bill which imposes any surcharge on any tax or duty.Hence, statement 2 is correct.##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Corresponding to Green Card issued by the US government, Government of India is also considering a proposal to issue Orange Card to those NRI who acquire US citizenship. Which of the following statement is/are correct in this regard :
1. Orange card holder need not acquire Indian Visa and they will not face any police verification during their stay in India.
2. They will have same rights of acquiring assets and educating their children, as applicable to Indian citizens.
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
Both
|
1 Only
|
Green Card issued by US govt to foreign nationals seeking US citizenship similarly india is also considering the same proposal. This proposal was first made in 1995 to GOI by then Indian Ambassador to USA Mr. Siddharath Shankar Ray.In this the Orange card holder need not acquire Indian Visa and they will not face any police interrogation during their stay in India and They will be granted equal rights of acquiring assets and giving education to their children.
|
c
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Corresponding to Green Card issued by the US government, Government of India is also considering a proposal to issue Orange Card to those NRI who acquire US citizenship. Which of the following statement is/are correct in this regard :
1. Orange card holder need not acquire Indian Visa and they will not face any police verification during their stay in India.
2. They will have same rights of acquiring assets and educating their children, as applicable to Indian citizens.
##Option_A: 1 Only
###Option_B: 2 Only
##Option_C: Both
##Option_D: 1 Only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Green Card issued by US govt to foreign nationals seeking US citizenship similarly india is also considering the same proposal. This proposal was first made in 1995 to GOI by then Indian Ambassador to USA Mr. Siddharath Shankar Ray.In this the Orange card holder need not acquire Indian Visa and they will not face any police interrogation during their stay in India and They will be granted equal rights of acquiring assets and giving education to their children.
##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Task-Force formed for identification of Poor by the government, which of the following statement is/are correct :
1. It will suggest the new methodology to estimate the number of poor in the country.
2. It will also suggest strategies and anti-poverty programmes including reforms in the existing programmes.
3. It is a 14 member Task Force headed by NITI Aayog Vice-chairman
4. The members consist of economist, statistician, secretaries of central ministries, Director General of UIDAI and cabinet Ministers.
|
1, 3 and 4
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1, 2 and 4
|
1, 3 and 4
|
It is a 14 member Task Force headed by NITI Aayog Vice-chairman Arvind Pangariya. Other member include Bibek Debroy, who is permanent member of NITI aayog, economist suraj bhalla, chief statistician T.C.A. Anant, the secretaries of 5 central ministries, Director General of UIDAI and two advisors from NITI aayog but no cabinet Minister will be part of it.
The force will not only suggest the new methodology to estimate the number of poor in the country but also suggest strategies and anti-poverty programmes including reforms in the existing programmes.
|
b
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Task-Force formed for identification of Poor by the government, which of the following statement is/are correct :
1. It will suggest the new methodology to estimate the number of poor in the country.
2. It will also suggest strategies and anti-poverty programmes including reforms in the existing programmes.
3. It is a 14 member Task Force headed by NITI Aayog Vice-chairman
4. The members consist of economist, statistician, secretaries of central ministries, Director General of UIDAI and cabinet Ministers.
##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4
##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4
##Answer:b##Explaination:
It is a 14 member Task Force headed by NITI Aayog Vice-chairman Arvind Pangariya. Other member include Bibek Debroy, who is permanent member of NITI aayog, economist suraj bhalla, chief statistician T.C.A. Anant, the secretaries of 5 central ministries, Director General of UIDAI and two advisors from NITI aayog but no cabinet Minister will be part of it.
The force will not only suggest the new methodology to estimate the number of poor in the country but also suggest strategies and anti-poverty programmes including reforms in the existing programmes.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which if the following states were covered by Harappan culture
1. Gujarat
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Punjab
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Harappan Culture covered parts of Punjab, Harayana, Sindh, Baluchistan, Gujarat, Rajasthan , J&K and western UP. So all options are correct.
|
d
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which if the following states were covered by Harappan culture
1. Gujarat
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Punjab
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 and 4 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 4 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Harappan Culture covered parts of Punjab, Harayana, Sindh, Baluchistan, Gujarat, Rajasthan , J&K and western UP. So all options are correct.
##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
With reference to Aihole-Pattadakal-Badami temple complexes, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? It was bigger (in geographical area) than contemporary civilization in Mesopotamia and Egypt. People in Indus valley civilization used burnt bricks for construction. In Indus valley civilization well established drainage system was present. It extended to present Indian states of Jammu & Kashmir and Uttar Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Indus valley civilization was bigger than ancient Egypt and Mesopotamia. People in Egypt and Mesopotamia used dried brick but in Indus valley civilization people used burnt bricks. Indus valley civilization is famous for its well established drainage system. It extended to present Indian states of Rajasthan, Haryana, Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir and Uttar Pradesh. So all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Aihole-Pattadakal-Badami temple complexes, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? It was bigger (in geographical area) than contemporary civilization in Mesopotamia and Egypt. People in Indus valley civilization used burnt bricks for construction. In Indus valley civilization well established drainage system was present. It extended to present Indian states of Jammu & Kashmir and Uttar Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Indus valley civilization was bigger than ancient Egypt and Mesopotamia. People in Egypt and Mesopotamia used dried brick but in Indus valley civilization people used burnt bricks. Indus valley civilization is famous for its well established drainage system. It extended to present Indian states of Rajasthan, Haryana, Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir and Uttar Pradesh. So all the statements are correct.##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with respect to Agriculture in Indus valley civilization: Ploughshare marks have been discovered in some of the sites belonging to Harappan culture. Cotton was produced by the people of Indus Valley Civilization. Wheat, Rice and Mustard was produced by the people of in Indus Valley Civilization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Ploughshares marks have been found in Indus valley civilisation. People in Indus valley civilisaiton were earliest people to produce cotton. Indus people produced wheat, barley, rai, peas, musturd.
|
d
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to Agriculture in Indus valley civilization: Ploughshare marks have been discovered in some of the sites belonging to Harappan culture. Cotton was produced by the people of Indus Valley Civilization. Wheat, Rice and Mustard was produced by the people of in Indus Valley Civilization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Ploughshares marks have been found in Indus valley civilisation. People in Indus valley civilisaiton were earliest people to produce cotton. Indus people produced wheat, barley, rai, peas, musturd.##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding "Sandesh One" program launched by Kerala government: It is government-citizen interaction forum based on the ICT. Government will open sandesh one centre in every panchayat to bring inclusive development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Sandesh one program is a network of 1000 plus women, which will help in employment generation through micro enterprises. Over 1000 women will be selected from various panchayats of kerala, who will be provided training by IIM-A and IL&FS. After training these women entrepreneurs will open sandesh one centres in every panchayat. These centres will act as a hub of micro entrerprise projects and high end solution that will help in mass employment generation and empowerment of society.
|
d
|
Women and Child Development
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding "Sandesh One" program launched by Kerala government: It is government-citizen interaction forum based on the ICT. Government will open sandesh one centre in every panchayat to bring inclusive development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Sandesh one program is a network of 1000 plus women, which will help in employment generation through micro enterprises. Over 1000 women will be selected from various panchayats of kerala, who will be provided training by IIM-A and IL&FS. After training these women entrepreneurs will open sandesh one centres in every panchayat. These centres will act as a hub of micro entrerprise projects and high end solution that will help in mass employment generation and empowerment of society.##Topic:Women and Child Development##Subject:Botany##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding crafts and technology in Indus valley civilisation: Indus valley civilisation belongs to Iron age. Jewellery of silver, gold and precious stones has been found at Harappan sites. Harappan people used to practise boat making. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Indus valley civilisation belongs to Bronze age. Though gold, silver and precious stones was not mined in Indus valley civilisation but they imported them to produce jewellery. Harappan people were expert in boat and ship making.
|
b
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding crafts and technology in Indus valley civilisation: Indus valley civilisation belongs to Iron age. Jewellery of silver, gold and precious stones has been found at Harappan sites. Harappan people used to practise boat making. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Indus valley civilisation belongs to Bronze age. Though gold, silver and precious stones was not mined in Indus valley civilisation but they imported them to produce jewellery. Harappan people were expert in boat and ship making.##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to animals present in Indus valley civilisation consider the following statements: Harappan culture was horse centred. Harappan people domesticated elephants. Harappan people used to worship cow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
There are no evidence of presence of horse are found so it's identity is doubtful. Thus it was not centered around horse. Harappan people domesticated elephants but there are no evidence of cow worship.
|
c
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to animals present in Indus valley civilisation consider the following statements: Harappan culture was horse centred. Harappan people domesticated elephants. Harappan people used to worship cow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:There are no evidence of presence of horse are found so it's identity is doubtful. Thus it was not centered around horse. Harappan people domesticated elephants but there are no evidence of cow worship.##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Geographical indications(GI) are covered as an element of IPRs under international conventions.Which of the the following GI tagged goods of North-Eastern region are correctly matched with their respective location?
Manipur - Kachai Lemon
Tripura - Tezpur Litchi
Nagaland - Queen Pineapple
Mizoram - Bird eye Chilly
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Geographical Indications of Goods are defined as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the geographical indication referring to a country or to a place situated therein as being the country or place of origin of that product. Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to the fact of its origin in that defined geographical locality, region or country.
Government owned North Eastern Regional Agricultural Maketing Corporation Limited (NERMAC) took the initiative to get GI registry for some exclusive local crops.
The products include:
1. Assam- Karbi Anglongs ginger and tezpur litchi
2. Meghalaya- Khasi Mandarin
3. Sikkim- Large Cardomom
4. Mizoram- BIrd eye chilly
5. Manipur- Kachai lemon
6. Tripura - Queen Pineapple
7. Arunachal- Orange
8. Nagaland- tree tomato
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Geographical indications(GI) are covered as an element of IPRs under international conventions.Which of the the following GI tagged goods of North-Eastern region are correctly matched with their respective location?
Manipur - Kachai Lemon
Tripura - Tezpur Litchi
Nagaland - Queen Pineapple
Mizoram - Bird eye Chilly
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:Geographical Indications of Goods are defined as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the geographical indication referring to a country or to a place situated therein as being the country or place of origin of that product. Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to the fact of its origin in that defined geographical locality, region or country.
Government owned North Eastern Regional Agricultural Maketing Corporation Limited (NERMAC) took the initiative to get GI registry for some exclusive local crops.
The products include:
1. Assam- Karbi Anglongs ginger and tezpur litchi
2. Meghalaya- Khasi Mandarin
3. Sikkim- Large Cardomom
4. Mizoram- BIrd eye chilly
5. Manipur- Kachai lemon
6. Tripura - Queen Pineapple
7. Arunachal- Orange
8. Nagaland- tree tomato##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the Following statements: The Lucknow Gharana is characterised by complex and powerful footwork. The Jaipur Gharana is characterised by elegance and natural poise with dance. The Varanasi Gharana is characterized by the exclusive use of the natwari or dance bols. Select the correct code:
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
The lucknow Gharana is characterised by graceful movements, elegance and natural poise also called as nazakat. The Jaipur Gharana is characterised by more technical aspects of dance such as complex footwork and multiple spins. The Benares Gharana is characterized by the exclusive use of the natwari or dance bols.
|
a
|
GS_Art and Culture unclassified
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the Following statements: The Lucknow Gharana is characterised by complex and powerful footwork. The Jaipur Gharana is characterised by elegance and natural poise with dance. The Varanasi Gharana is characterized by the exclusive use of the natwari or dance bols. Select the correct code: ##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The lucknow Gharana is characterised by graceful movements, elegance and natural poise also called as nazakat. The Jaipur Gharana is characterised by more technical aspects of dance such as complex footwork and multiple spins. The Benares Gharana is characterized by the exclusive use of the natwari or dance bols.##Topic:GS_Art and Culture unclassified##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
With reference to Chit Funds in India, consider the following statements: Chit fund business is regulated under the respective state government"s act only. Chit funds are included in the definition of Non- Banking Financial Companies by RBI. RBI has power to investigate and prosecute the cases of mismanagement related to chit funds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Chit fund business is regulated under the Central Act of Chit Funds Act, 1982 and the Rules framed under this Act by the various State Governments for this purpose. Central Government has not framed any Rules of operation for them. Thus, Registration and Regulation of Chit funds are carried out by State Governments under the Rules framed by them. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Functionally, Chit funds are included in the definition of Non- Banking Financial Companies by RBI under the sub-head miscellaneous non-banking company (MNBC). Hence Statement 2 is correct. RBI has not laid out any separate regulatory framework for them. Cheating by Chit Fund Company through fraudulent schemes is an offence under the Prize Chits and Money Circulation Schemes (Banning) Act, 1978. The power to investigate and prosecute lies with the State Governments. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, option d is correct.
|
d
|
Misc Economic Issues
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Chit Funds in India, consider the following statements: Chit fund business is regulated under the respective state government"s act only. Chit funds are included in the definition of Non- Banking Financial Companies by RBI. RBI has power to investigate and prosecute the cases of mismanagement related to chit funds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Chit fund business is regulated under the Central Act of Chit Funds Act, 1982 and the Rules framed under this Act by the various State Governments for this purpose. Central Government has not framed any Rules of operation for them. Thus, Registration and Regulation of Chit funds are carried out by State Governments under the Rules framed by them. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Functionally, Chit funds are included in the definition of Non- Banking Financial Companies by RBI under the sub-head miscellaneous non-banking company (MNBC). Hence Statement 2 is correct. RBI has not laid out any separate regulatory framework for them. Cheating by Chit Fund Company through fraudulent schemes is an offence under the Prize Chits and Money Circulation Schemes (Banning) Act, 1978. The power to investigate and prosecute lies with the State Governments. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, option d is correct.##Topic:Misc Economic Issues##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Financial Repression, consider the following statements-
1.Financial Repression, on the liability side is created by the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) and priority sector lending (PSL).
2.Financial Repression, on the asset side it has arisen from high inflation and reduction in household's financial savings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
Both of the above
|
1 Only
|
Both the statements are incorrect because Financial Repression, on the assest side is created by the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) and priority sector lending (PSL) and on the liability side it has arisen from high inflation and reduction in household's financial savings.
Hence option d is correct.
|
d
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Financial Repression, consider the following statements-
1.Financial Repression, on the liability side is created by the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) and priority sector lending (PSL).
2.Financial Repression, on the asset side it has arisen from high inflation and reduction in household's financial savings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
##Option_A: 1 Only
###Option_B: 2 Only
##Option_C: Both of the above
##Option_D: 1 Only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Both the statements are incorrect because Financial Repression, on the assest side is created by the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) and priority sector lending (PSL) and on the liability side it has arisen from high inflation and reduction in household's financial savings.
Hence option d is correct.
##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Rational Investor Ratings Index (RIRI), consider the following statements- In calculating RIRI, equal weight is given to country"s economic growth rate and macro economic stability. RIRI is used for assessing the risks and rewards of competing destinations. Lesser the number value of this index, better should be it"s investor rating. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
In calculating RIRI, equal weight is given to country's economic growth rate and other macro economic indicators. Hence statement 1 is correct. Macro economic indicators include fiscal deficit, current account deficit and inflation(All with negative signs). RIRI is used for assessing the risks and rewards of competing destinations. Here risks is depicted by the twin deficit and inflation while reward is depicted by growth rate or rate on investment. Hence, 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because greater the number value of this index, better should be it's investor rating. Hence option a is correct.
|
a
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Rational Investor Ratings Index (RIRI), consider the following statements- In calculating RIRI, equal weight is given to country"s economic growth rate and macro economic stability. RIRI is used for assessing the risks and rewards of competing destinations. Lesser the number value of this index, better should be it"s investor rating. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In calculating RIRI, equal weight is given to country's economic growth rate and other macro economic indicators. Hence statement 1 is correct. Macro economic indicators include fiscal deficit, current account deficit and inflation(All with negative signs). RIRI is used for assessing the risks and rewards of competing destinations. Here risks is depicted by the twin deficit and inflation while reward is depicted by growth rate or rate on investment. Hence, 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because greater the number value of this index, better should be it's investor rating. Hence option a is correct.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
32. Which of the following statements regarding Space pioneer award is/are incorrect ?
1. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) bagged 2015 Space pioneer award for it’s mars orbiter mission.
2. The award is presented by NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) to ISRO.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Space pioneer award are given by National Space Society of USA to individuals or team who have revolutionized the space frontier.
ISRO’s Mars Orbiter Mission received award in 2015 in science and Engineering category. The award is presented annually and awarded in 13 categories.
|
b
|
Scientific, Academic, Legal and related.
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
32. Which of the following statements regarding Space pioneer award is/are incorrect ?
1. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) bagged 2015 Space pioneer award for it’s mars orbiter mission.
2. The award is presented by NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) to ISRO.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Space pioneer award are given by National Space Society of USA to individuals or team who have revolutionized the space frontier.
ISRO’s Mars Orbiter Mission received award in 2015 in science and Engineering category. The award is presented annually and awarded in 13 categories.
##Topic:Scientific, Academic, Legal and related.##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are also cultivated as fodder crops in India?
|
Maize
|
ats
|
orghum
|
Maize
|
The major fodder crops cultivated in India are sorghum, maize, bajra, oats, hybrid Napier, Guinea grass, paragrass, lucerne(AlfaAlfa), berseem, cowpea, velvet bean and green gram.Among these crops, sorghum, maize, oats, lucerne and berseem are more popular because of easy availability of seeds of improved varieties and well developed technology to increase the forage yield and quality.
|
d
|
GS_Geography_unclassified
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are also cultivated as fodder crops in India?##Option_A:Maize###Option_B:ats##Option_C:orghum##Option_D:Maize##Answer:d##Explaination:
The major fodder crops cultivated in India are sorghum, maize, bajra, oats, hybrid Napier, Guinea grass, paragrass, lucerne(AlfaAlfa), berseem, cowpea, velvet bean and green gram.Among these crops, sorghum, maize, oats, lucerne and berseem are more popular because of easy availability of seeds of improved varieties and well developed technology to increase the forage yield and quality.
##Topic:GS_Geography_unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to the constitution of NITI Aayog, consider the following statements: It is a government think tank comprised of Prime Minister (PM), State Chief Ministers, Lt. Governors of the Union territories and few other members nominated by PM. National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development and UIDAI are its subordinate offices to further national development agenda. Main objective is to develop national repository of best governance practices and to act as platform for convergence of various sectors and departments to achieve national development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 st statement is incorrect as though it mentions all the members, it fails to mention the legislatures of UTs. In fact, this was an error in the original circular of cabinet on January 1, 2015 and later it was amended (16 th February, 2015) with the above mentioned correction. 2 nd statement is correct as NILERD whose chairman is Arvind Pangariya and UIDAI are designated as the subordinate offices under the NITI Aayog. 3 rd statement is also correct as new innovative aim of this think tank is to create a repository of best governance practices – a state-of-the-art resource centre - for sustainable and equitable development along with emphasis on the dissemination of the information to all its stakeholders.
|
c
|
NITI Aayog
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the constitution of NITI Aayog, consider the following statements: It is a government think tank comprised of Prime Minister (PM), State Chief Ministers, Lt. Governors of the Union territories and few other members nominated by PM. National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development and UIDAI are its subordinate offices to further national development agenda. Main objective is to develop national repository of best governance practices and to act as platform for convergence of various sectors and departments to achieve national development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:1 st statement is incorrect as though it mentions all the members, it fails to mention the legislatures of UTs. In fact, this was an error in the original circular of cabinet on January 1, 2015 and later it was amended (16 th February, 2015) with the above mentioned correction. 2 nd statement is correct as NILERD whose chairman is Arvind Pangariya and UIDAI are designated as the subordinate offices under the NITI Aayog. 3 rd statement is also correct as new innovative aim of this think tank is to create a repository of best governance practices – a state-of-the-art resource centre - for sustainable and equitable development along with emphasis on the dissemination of the information to all its stakeholders.##Topic:NITI Aayog##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of fresh water distribution according to the decreasing amount of water?
|
Glacial ice, lakes and rivers, soil moisture, groundwater
|
Groundwater, glacial ice, lakes and river, soil moisture
|
Glacial ice, groundwater, lakes and rivers, soil moisture
|
Glacial ice, lakes and rivers, soil moisture, groundwater
|
Glacial ice -- 1.97 percent
Groundwater-- 0.5 percent
Lakes and rivers-- 0.02 percent
Soil moistrure-- 0.01 percent
|
c
|
Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following is the correct sequence of fresh water distribution according to the decreasing amount of water?##Option_A: Glacial ice, lakes and rivers, soil moisture, groundwater###Option_B: Groundwater, glacial ice, lakes and river, soil moisture##Option_C: Glacial ice, groundwater, lakes and rivers, soil moisture##Option_D: Glacial ice, lakes and rivers, soil moisture, groundwater##Answer:c##Explaination:
Glacial ice -- 1.97 percent
Groundwater-- 0.5 percent
Lakes and rivers-- 0.02 percent
Soil moistrure-- 0.01 percent
##Topic:Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Madad (Help) portal:
1. It is a grievance redressal e- portal
2. It seeks to reform post grievance procedure.
3. This platform is for addressing the grievance of students only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Madad portal is for Indian citizens living abroad. It is an e-portal where NRI,OCI can file consular grievances online.
It will help to fix accountability and responsibility of officials as well as enhance accessability for people.
It’s main focus will be on handling complaint, redressal and tracking. It will cut down the time taken in the whole process and will make it more user friendly.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Madad (Help) portal:
1. It is a grievance redressal e- portal
2. It seeks to reform post grievance procedure.
3. This platform is for addressing the grievance of students only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Madad portal is for Indian citizens living abroad. It is an e-portal where NRI,OCI can file consular grievances online.
It will help to fix accountability and responsibility of officials as well as enhance accessability for people.
It’s main focus will be on handling complaint, redressal and tracking. It will cut down the time taken in the whole process and will make it more user friendly.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following schemes and there desired aims is/are correctly matched?
1. Nai Roshni : leadership development of adolescent women
2. Hamari dharohar : Preserve heritage of minorities
3. Seekho aur Kamao : Skill development of youth of naxal affected region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Nai Roshni is scheme for development of leadership qualities in minority women. It is implemented via NGO’s. It’s objective is to provide confidence to women and empower them to move out of their house by providing them knowledge and tools to interact with govt. system.
Seekho aur kamao is a scheme for skill development of minorities. It ensures employment to 75% trained candidates, half of which will be in organized sector.
Hamari Dharohar scheme is to preserve the heritage and culture of minorities.
|
b
|
Minorities
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following schemes and there desired aims is/are correctly matched?
1. Nai Roshni : leadership development of adolescent women
2. Hamari dharohar : Preserve heritage of minorities
3. Seekho aur Kamao : Skill development of youth of naxal affected region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Nai Roshni is scheme for development of leadership qualities in minority women. It is implemented via NGO’s. It’s objective is to provide confidence to women and empower them to move out of their house by providing them knowledge and tools to interact with govt. system.
Seekho aur kamao is a scheme for skill development of minorities. It ensures employment to 75% trained candidates, half of which will be in organized sector.
Hamari Dharohar scheme is to preserve the heritage and culture of minorities.
##Topic:Minorities##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Raziya, the Queen of Delhi: She was selected as the heir of the Delhi throne by Iltutmish as she was his only child. Her ascend to throne was opposed by the Chahalgani, the forty Turkish chiefs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Iltutmish considered none of his surviving sons to be worthy of the throne. So he finally decided to nominate his daughter Raziya to the throne.
This marked the beginning of a struggle for power between the monarchy and the Turkish chiefs, sometimes called ‘the forty’ or the ‘chahalgani’.
|
b
|
The Delhi Sultanate
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Raziya, the Queen of Delhi: She was selected as the heir of the Delhi throne by Iltutmish as she was his only child. Her ascend to throne was opposed by the Chahalgani, the forty Turkish chiefs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Iltutmish considered none of his surviving sons to be worthy of the throne. So he finally decided to nominate his daughter Raziya to the throne.
This marked the beginning of a struggle for power between the monarchy and the Turkish chiefs, sometimes called ‘the forty’ or the ‘chahalgani’.
##Topic:The Delhi Sultanate##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
An event, occurred in Bengal in 1750s, is known as "Black Hole Tragedy". This Black hole tragedy was:
|
The death of English prisoners of war in the Fort William, captured by Nawab of Bengal.
|
The attack of Nawab on the English factory at kasimbazar and at Fort William.
|
The treachery with the Nawab by the leading men of his court.
|
The death of English prisoners of war in the Fort William, captured by Nawab of Bengal.
|
Siraj-ud-daulah, the Nawab of Bengal, captured the Fort William from English in 1756. The British prisoners of war were lodged in a prison room in the fort. Out of the 146 white prisoners, only 23 survived the next morning when the prison room was opened, the rest having trampled one other down for places near the window. Excessive heat and suffocation took a heavy toll.
|
a
|
The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:An event, occurred in Bengal in 1750s, is known as "Black Hole Tragedy". This Black hole tragedy was:##Option_A: The death of English prisoners of war in the Fort William, captured by Nawab of Bengal.###Option_B: The attack of Nawab on the English factory at kasimbazar and at Fort William.##Option_C: The treachery with the Nawab by the leading men of his court.##Option_D: The death of English prisoners of war in the Fort William, captured by Nawab of Bengal.##Answer:a##Explaination:
Siraj-ud-daulah, the Nawab of Bengal, captured the Fort William from English in 1756. The British prisoners of war were lodged in a prison room in the fort. Out of the 146 white prisoners, only 23 survived the next morning when the prison room was opened, the rest having trampled one other down for places near the window. Excessive heat and suffocation took a heavy toll.
##Topic:The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Anglo-French rivalry of the 18th century in India, consider the following statements about the Second Carnatic war: It was the extension of the Anglo-French struggle in Europe. It ended with the Battle of Wandiwash followed by the Treaty of Paris. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The first Carnatic war was the echo of the Anglo-French struggle in Europe, not the second Carnatic war. The civil war of succession to the thrones of Hyderabad and Carnatic provided the opportunity to the French and the English to interfere in their internal affairs which led to the Second Carnatic War. Hence statement 1 is not correct. The third Carnatic war ended with the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760 in which the British defeated the French. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
|
d
|
The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Anglo-French rivalry of the 18th century in India, consider the following statements about the Second Carnatic war: It was the extension of the Anglo-French struggle in Europe. It ended with the Battle of Wandiwash followed by the Treaty of Paris. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The first Carnatic war was the echo of the Anglo-French struggle in Europe, not the second Carnatic war. The civil war of succession to the thrones of Hyderabad and Carnatic provided the opportunity to the French and the English to interfere in their internal affairs which led to the Second Carnatic War. Hence statement 1 is not correct. The third Carnatic war ended with the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760 in which the British defeated the French. Hence statement 2 is not correct.##Topic:The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the contributions of Muslims to the Indo-Islamic architecture: As among Muslims the representation of living beings was taboo by way of decoration, they introduced geometrical and arabesque patterns. Mosaic designs and Pietra-Dura were made use of for surface decoration particularly in the dado panels of the walls. Muslims were responsible for making extensive use of concrete and lime mortar as an important factor of construction. Calligraphy was used extensively for the purpose of decoration of walls. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
The contribution of the Muslims to Indo-Muslim architecture is profound and no less interesting. Among the architectural features introduced by them mention may be made of arches, domes, minars and minarets, the pendentive, squinch arch, half domed double portals, kiosks (chhatris) and the use of concrete as a factor of construction. They also introduced gilding and painting in varied colours and designs.
As among the Muslims the representation of living beings was taboo by way of decoration or ornamentation, they introduced geometrical and arabesque patterns, ornamental writing and formal representation of plant and floral life.
Even though lime was known and to certain extent used in construction work in India fairly early, mud was generally used for brick work and large blocks of stones were laid one on top of the other and held by means of iron clamps. The Muslims incidentally used lime as plaster and a base for decoration which was incised into it and held enamel work on tiles. The Muslims, like the Romans, were also responsible for making extensive use of concrete and lime mortar as an important factor of construction
The techniques of tessellation (mosaic designs) and pietra dura were made use of for surface decoration particularly in the dado panels of the walls. At times lapis lazuli was used in the interior walls or on canopies. Other decorations included arabesque, calligraphy and high and low relief carving and a profuse use of jalis.
|
d
|
Difference between Architecture & Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the contributions of Muslims to the Indo-Islamic architecture: As among Muslims the representation of living beings was taboo by way of decoration, they introduced geometrical and arabesque patterns. Mosaic designs and Pietra-Dura were made use of for surface decoration particularly in the dado panels of the walls. Muslims were responsible for making extensive use of concrete and lime mortar as an important factor of construction. Calligraphy was used extensively for the purpose of decoration of walls. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The contribution of the Muslims to Indo-Muslim architecture is profound and no less interesting. Among the architectural features introduced by them mention may be made of arches, domes, minars and minarets, the pendentive, squinch arch, half domed double portals, kiosks (chhatris) and the use of concrete as a factor of construction. They also introduced gilding and painting in varied colours and designs.
As among the Muslims the representation of living beings was taboo by way of decoration or ornamentation, they introduced geometrical and arabesque patterns, ornamental writing and formal representation of plant and floral life.
Even though lime was known and to certain extent used in construction work in India fairly early, mud was generally used for brick work and large blocks of stones were laid one on top of the other and held by means of iron clamps. The Muslims incidentally used lime as plaster and a base for decoration which was incised into it and held enamel work on tiles. The Muslims, like the Romans, were also responsible for making extensive use of concrete and lime mortar as an important factor of construction
The techniques of tessellation (mosaic designs) and pietra dura were made use of for surface decoration particularly in the dado panels of the walls. At times lapis lazuli was used in the interior walls or on canopies. Other decorations included arabesque, calligraphy and high and low relief carving and a profuse use of jalis.
##Topic:Difference between Architecture & Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Gupta kings: Samudragupta believed in the policy of peace and non-aggression. Chandragupta-I adopted the title of Vikramaditya, as a mark of victory over the Shakas. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Samudragupta delighted in violence and conquest. His court poet Harishena wrote a glowing account of the military exploits of his patron.
Chandragupta-II adopted the title of Vikramaditya, as a mark of victory over the Shakas.
|
d
|
Guptas & Post Guptas / Vardhana
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Gupta kings: Samudragupta believed in the policy of peace and non-aggression. Chandragupta-I adopted the title of Vikramaditya, as a mark of victory over the Shakas. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Samudragupta delighted in violence and conquest. His court poet Harishena wrote a glowing account of the military exploits of his patron.
Chandragupta-II adopted the title of Vikramaditya, as a mark of victory over the Shakas.
##Topic:Guptas & Post Guptas / Vardhana##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the visit of various Chinese travellers to India:
Among the Chinese monks who visited India, Fa-Hien was the first .
Hiuen-Tsang visited India during Chandragupta"s reign.
I-tsing studied at Nalanda and translated Buddhist texts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Three great Chinese pilgrims Fa-Hien, Hiuen-Tsang and I-tsing visited India in search of knowledge, manuscripts and relics between the fifth and seventh centuries A.D. Fa-Hien with four other monks came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II. As he was interested only in Buddhism, his report does not contain much political information, but he has given a general description of northern India at that time. His report gives an idea ofgeneral peace and welfare during Gupta period. Hiuen-Tsang visited India during Harsha's reign. He spent thirteen years in India (A.D. 630-643), of which eight were in Harsha's kingdom. Like Fa-Hien, Hiuen- Tsang also came to India via central Asia. But unlike Fa-Hien, Hiuen-Tsang has left an account ofhis travels, giving details of the various Indian kingdoms visited by him. I-tsing came to India via sea route spending several years in Sumatra and Sri Vijaya learning Buddhism. He stayed at Nalanda for ten years studying and translating Buddhist texts and returned to China with a collection of 400 Sanskrit manuscripts.
|
c
|
Early Medieval Period: North India and South India
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the visit of various Chinese travellers to India:
Among the Chinese monks who visited India, Fa-Hien was the first .
Hiuen-Tsang visited India during Chandragupta"s reign.
I-tsing studied at Nalanda and translated Buddhist texts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:Three great Chinese pilgrims Fa-Hien, Hiuen-Tsang and I-tsing visited India in search of knowledge, manuscripts and relics between the fifth and seventh centuries A.D. Fa-Hien with four other monks came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II. As he was interested only in Buddhism, his report does not contain much political information, but he has given a general description of northern India at that time. His report gives an idea ofgeneral peace and welfare during Gupta period. Hiuen-Tsang visited India during Harsha's reign. He spent thirteen years in India (A.D. 630-643), of which eight were in Harsha's kingdom. Like Fa-Hien, Hiuen- Tsang also came to India via central Asia. But unlike Fa-Hien, Hiuen-Tsang has left an account ofhis travels, giving details of the various Indian kingdoms visited by him. I-tsing came to India via sea route spending several years in Sumatra and Sri Vijaya learning Buddhism. He stayed at Nalanda for ten years studying and translating Buddhist texts and returned to China with a collection of 400 Sanskrit manuscripts.##Topic:Early Medieval Period: North India and South India##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
In reference to "Bhagvatism", which of the following statements is not correct?
|
It was centered around the worship of Vishnu.
|
It was created by merging of three Gods into one and believed that salvation could be achieved by observance of three different path i.e. Jnana (Knowledge), Karma (Action) and Bhakti (Devotion).
|
By Gupta times, Mahayana Buddhism overshadowed the Bhagavatism.
|
It was centered around the worship of Vishnu.
|
Bhagavatism centred around the worship of Vishnu or Bhagavat, and originated in post-Maurya times. Vishnu- minor god in post vedic times, Bhagavat- Non-vedi tribal god, and Krishna- legendary hero of Mahabharata was merged into one and this resulted in the creation of Bhagavatism or Vaishnavism. By Gupta times, Bhagavatism overshadowed the Mahayana Buddhism. History was presented as a cycle of ten incarnation of Vishnu, by Bhagavatism.
|
c
|
Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan Age
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In reference to "Bhagvatism", which of the following statements is not correct?##Option_A:It was centered around the worship of Vishnu.###Option_B:It was created by merging of three Gods into one and believed that salvation could be achieved by observance of three different path i.e. Jnana (Knowledge), Karma (Action) and Bhakti (Devotion).##Option_C:By Gupta times, Mahayana Buddhism overshadowed the Bhagavatism.##Option_D:It was centered around the worship of Vishnu.##Answer:c##Explaination:Bhagavatism centred around the worship of Vishnu or Bhagavat, and originated in post-Maurya times. Vishnu- minor god in post vedic times, Bhagavat- Non-vedi tribal god, and Krishna- legendary hero of Mahabharata was merged into one and this resulted in the creation of Bhagavatism or Vaishnavism. By Gupta times, Bhagavatism overshadowed the Mahayana Buddhism. History was presented as a cycle of ten incarnation of Vishnu, by Bhagavatism.##Topic:Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan Age##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Ashokan inscriptions: Ashoka was the first Indian king who has left his records engraved on stones. The inscriptions were written in four different scripts. The inscriptions refer to him as Devanampiya Piyadasi. They are found in India, Nepal, Pakistan and even in Afghanistan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The history of Ashoka is reconstructed on the basis of his inscriptions. He is the first king in the Indian history who has left his records engraved on stones.
The name of Ashoka occurs only in some Rock addicts. All the other inscriptions mentions only devanampiya piyadasi, dear to gods, and leave out the word Ashoka.
They are found in India, Nepal, Pakistan and Afghanistan. They were generally placed on ancient highways.
They were written in Brahmi, Kharoshthi, Aramaic and Greek scripts.
|
d
|
Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan Age
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Ashokan inscriptions: Ashoka was the first Indian king who has left his records engraved on stones. The inscriptions were written in four different scripts. The inscriptions refer to him as Devanampiya Piyadasi. They are found in India, Nepal, Pakistan and even in Afghanistan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The history of Ashoka is reconstructed on the basis of his inscriptions. He is the first king in the Indian history who has left his records engraved on stones.
The name of Ashoka occurs only in some Rock addicts. All the other inscriptions mentions only devanampiya piyadasi, dear to gods, and leave out the word Ashoka.
They are found in India, Nepal, Pakistan and Afghanistan. They were generally placed on ancient highways.
They were written in Brahmi, Kharoshthi, Aramaic and Greek scripts.
##Topic:Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan Age##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs:
(Gandhiji’s activism) (Type)
1. Champaran Satyagraha: First Civil Disobedience
2. Ahmedabad Mill strike: First Non-Cooperation
3. Kheda Satyagraha: First Hunger Strike
4. Rowlatt satyagraha: First mass-strike
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
nan
|
b
|
Gandhi – Advent and Achievement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs:
(Gandhiji’s activism) (Type)
1. Champaran Satyagraha: First Civil Disobedience
2. Ahmedabad Mill strike: First Non-Cooperation
3. Kheda Satyagraha: First Hunger Strike
4. Rowlatt satyagraha: First mass-strike
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:2 and 4 only###Option_B:1 and 4 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:2 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Gandhi – Advent and Achievement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre:
The brutality stunned the nation and Rabindranath Tagore renounced its Knighthood in protest
Gandhi overwhelmed by the total atmosphere of violence withdrew the Rowlatt Satyagraha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 Only
|
nan
|
c
|
Rowllat Act , Jalianawala Bagh Massacre and Khilapat Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre:
The brutality stunned the nation and Rabindranath Tagore renounced its Knighthood in protest
Gandhi overwhelmed by the total atmosphere of violence withdrew the Rowlatt Satyagraha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 Only ###Option_B:2 Only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 Only ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Rowllat Act , Jalianawala Bagh Massacre and Khilapat Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the Following statement with respect to State Development Loans (SDLs):
1. SDLs are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements.
2. The SDL are similar to the dated securities issued by the central government.
Select the correct option from the above statements.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the Following statement with respect to State Development Loans (SDLs):
1. SDLs are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements.
2. The SDL are similar to the dated securities issued by the central government.
Select the correct option from the above statements.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following Indian cities is located nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
|
Ranchi
|
Kolkata
|
Ahmedabad
|
Ranchi
|
Tropic of Cancer is the latitude approximately 23°27′ N of the terrestrial Equator. This latitude corresponds to the northernmost declination of the Sun’s ecliptic to the celestial equator. At the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, around June 21, the Sun attains its greatest declination north and is directly over the Tropic of Cancer. Tropic of Cancer is passes through the India, including 8 Indian states. Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states including: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. Ranchi is located on 23.36°N latitude. Kolkata is located on 22.57°N latitude. Dehradun is located on 30.31°N latitude. Ahmedabad is located on 23.03°N latitude. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Map based Questins from Indian Geography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Indian cities is located nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?##Option_A:Ranchi###Option_B:Kolkata##Option_C:Ahmedabad##Option_D:Ranchi##Answer:a##Explaination:Tropic of Cancer is the latitude approximately 23°27′ N of the terrestrial Equator. This latitude corresponds to the northernmost declination of the Sun’s ecliptic to the celestial equator. At the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, around June 21, the Sun attains its greatest declination north and is directly over the Tropic of Cancer. Tropic of Cancer is passes through the India, including 8 Indian states. Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states including: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. Ranchi is located on 23.36°N latitude. Kolkata is located on 22.57°N latitude. Dehradun is located on 30.31°N latitude. Ahmedabad is located on 23.03°N latitude. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. ##Topic:Map based Questins from Indian Geography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs: Folk dance State of origin 1. Hojagiri Andhra Pradesh 2. Cheraw Mizoram 3. Kamsale Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Hojagiri: Hojagiri is a folk dance, performed in the state of Tripura by the Reang people. The dance is performed by women and young girls, about 4 to 6 members in a team, singing, balancing on an earthen pitcher and managing other props such as a bottle on the head and earthen lamp on the hand, while only the lower half of the body is moved. It is attractive due to its melodious songs accompanied by bamboo flute, cymbals and the khamb. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. Cheraw dance is performed in the north eastern state of Mizoram . This dance includes four people. It is the most notable dance of Mizoram and a center for attraction during festive season in Mizoram. Similar dance forms could be found in East and even in Philippines (known as Tinikling.) Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. Kamsale dance : The Kamsale dance is named after the instrument held in the hands of the dancer. The Kamsale artistes or dancers are found in the Kannada speaking areas of Mysore, Nanjangudu, Kollegal and Bangalore. The instrument comprises a cymbal held in one hand and a bronze disc in the other. The main element in art is the rhythmic clang, which blends with the melodious music of the Mahadeeshvara epic. The instruments, in the course of the vigorous rhythmic beatings, are moved around the body of the dancer in innumerable patterns manifesting both skill and art. In a group movement, the dancer provides the vision of a series of offensive and defensive manoeuvres. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
|
c
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Folk dance State of origin 1. Hojagiri Andhra Pradesh 2. Cheraw Mizoram 3. Kamsale Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Hojagiri: Hojagiri is a folk dance, performed in the state of Tripura by the Reang people. The dance is performed by women and young girls, about 4 to 6 members in a team, singing, balancing on an earthen pitcher and managing other props such as a bottle on the head and earthen lamp on the hand, while only the lower half of the body is moved. It is attractive due to its melodious songs accompanied by bamboo flute, cymbals and the khamb. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. Cheraw dance is performed in the north eastern state of Mizoram . This dance includes four people. It is the most notable dance of Mizoram and a center for attraction during festive season in Mizoram. Similar dance forms could be found in East and even in Philippines (known as Tinikling.) Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. Kamsale dance : The Kamsale dance is named after the instrument held in the hands of the dancer. The Kamsale artistes or dancers are found in the Kannada speaking areas of Mysore, Nanjangudu, Kollegal and Bangalore. The instrument comprises a cymbal held in one hand and a bronze disc in the other. The main element in art is the rhythmic clang, which blends with the melodious music of the Mahadeeshvara epic. The instruments, in the course of the vigorous rhythmic beatings, are moved around the body of the dancer in innumerable patterns manifesting both skill and art. In a group movement, the dancer provides the vision of a series of offensive and defensive manoeuvres. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Recently the term Khaibar-buster; frequently seen in news, is associated with:
|
Anti-insurgent operation conducted by Pakistan army in Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa region
|
Common invasive species found in Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa region of Pakistan
|
New Houbara Bustards species of Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa region of Pakistan
|
Anti-insurgent operation conducted by Pakistan army in Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa region
|
Khaibar-buster: Why in news? Iran unveiled a new missile with a reported range that would allow it to reach both US bases in the region as well as targets inside its archfoe Israel. Iran has unveiled a new missile- ‘Khaibar-buster’ that is capable of hitting nearby US bases and targets within its arch-enemy Israel. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. Khaibar-buster is a reference to a Jewish castle overrun by Muslim warriors in the early days of Islam. It has a range of 900 miles and runs on solid fuel. Iran has the largest arsenal of missiles in the Middle East.
|
d
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently the term Khaibar-buster; frequently seen in news, is associated with:##Option_A:Anti-insurgent operation conducted by Pakistan army in Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa region###Option_B:Common invasive species found in Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa region of Pakistan##Option_C:New Houbara Bustards species of Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa region of Pakistan##Option_D:Anti-insurgent operation conducted by Pakistan army in Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa region##Answer:d##Explaination:Khaibar-buster: Why in news? Iran unveiled a new missile with a reported range that would allow it to reach both US bases in the region as well as targets inside its archfoe Israel. Iran has unveiled a new missile- ‘Khaibar-buster’ that is capable of hitting nearby US bases and targets within its arch-enemy Israel. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. Khaibar-buster is a reference to a Jewish castle overrun by Muslim warriors in the early days of Islam. It has a range of 900 miles and runs on solid fuel. Iran has the largest arsenal of missiles in the Middle East.##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which one of the following was not a cause of the fall of Mauryan Empire?
|
Brahmanical reaction against the anti-sacrifice attitude of Ashoka.
|
Rise of feudatories and governors to become independent.
|
Enormous expenditure on the army and bureaucracy.
|
Brahmanical reaction against the anti-sacrifice attitude of Ashoka.
|
Causes for the fall of Mauryan Empire were: Brahmanical reaction against the anti-sacrifice attitude of Buddhism and Ashoka. Ashoka prohibited the killing of animals and birds, and derided superfluous rituals performed by women. Financial crisis due to enormous expenditure on the army and bureaucracy. Oppressive rule of the mahamatras in the pronvinces under Mauryan Empire. Knowledge of the use of new elements in the adjoining areas. The use of Iron tool and weapons in the peripheral provinces coincided with the decline and fall of the Mauryan Empire. Neglect of the North-West frontier and the Great wall of China led to attack on the Mouryan Empire from these areas. Rise of feudatories and governors to become independent was a cause for the fall of Gupta Empire.
|
b
|
Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following was not a cause of the fall of Mauryan Empire?##Option_A:Brahmanical reaction against the anti-sacrifice attitude of Ashoka.###Option_B:Rise of feudatories and governors to become independent.##Option_C:Enormous expenditure on the army and bureaucracy.##Option_D:Brahmanical reaction against the anti-sacrifice attitude of Ashoka.##Answer:b##Explaination:Causes for the fall of Mauryan Empire were: Brahmanical reaction against the anti-sacrifice attitude of Buddhism and Ashoka. Ashoka prohibited the killing of animals and birds, and derided superfluous rituals performed by women. Financial crisis due to enormous expenditure on the army and bureaucracy. Oppressive rule of the mahamatras in the pronvinces under Mauryan Empire. Knowledge of the use of new elements in the adjoining areas. The use of Iron tool and weapons in the peripheral provinces coincided with the decline and fall of the Mauryan Empire. Neglect of the North-West frontier and the Great wall of China led to attack on the Mouryan Empire from these areas. Rise of feudatories and governors to become independent was a cause for the fall of Gupta Empire.##Topic:Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Which of the following intangible cultural heritage is/are inscribed in the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity? Ramman Kalariyapattu Navruz Kutiyattam Bhavai Ramlila Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 3, 4 and 6
|
1, 2, 4 and 6
|
2, 3, 4 and 5
|
1, 3, 4 and 6
|
11 Cultural Heritages of India included in the list are: Tradition of Vedic chanting Ramlila- the traditional performance of the Ramayan Kutiyattam- Sanskrit theatre Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India Novruz festival Mudiyettu- ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan Chhau dance Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India Sankirtana- ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab
|
a
|
arts
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following intangible cultural heritage is/are inscribed in the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity? Ramman Kalariyapattu Navruz Kutiyattam Bhavai Ramlila Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 3, 4 and 6###Option_B: 1, 2, 4 and 6##Option_C: 2, 3, 4 and 5##Option_D: 1, 3, 4 and 6##Answer:a##Explaination:11 Cultural Heritages of India included in the list are: Tradition of Vedic chanting Ramlila- the traditional performance of the Ramayan Kutiyattam- Sanskrit theatre Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India Novruz festival Mudiyettu- ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan Chhau dance Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India Sankirtana- ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab##Topic:arts##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about the communal awards and the Poona pact of 1932:
1. Communal awards were announced after the Second Round Table Conference.
2. Communal awards declared depressed classes as a minority community.
3. Poona pact abandoned the separate electorates for the depressed classes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
The British policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ found another expression in the announcement of the Communal Award in August 1932. The Award allotted to each minority a number of seats in the legislatures to be elected on the basis of a separate electorate.
The Award declared the Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes of today) also to be a minority community entitled to separate electorate and thus separated them from the rest of the Hindus.
By Poona Pact, separate electorates for the Depressed Classes were abandoned but the seats reserved for them in the provincial legislatures were increased from seventy one in the Award to 147 and in the Central Legislature to eighteen per cent of the total.
|
d
|
Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the communal awards and the Poona pact of 1932:
1. Communal awards were announced after the Second Round Table Conference.
2. Communal awards declared depressed classes as a minority community.
3. Poona pact abandoned the separate electorates for the depressed classes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 2 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The British policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ found another expression in the announcement of the Communal Award in August 1932. The Award allotted to each minority a number of seats in the legislatures to be elected on the basis of a separate electorate.
The Award declared the Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes of today) also to be a minority community entitled to separate electorate and thus separated them from the rest of the Hindus.
By Poona Pact, separate electorates for the Depressed Classes were abandoned but the seats reserved for them in the provincial legislatures were increased from seventy one in the Award to 147 and in the Central Legislature to eighteen per cent of the total.
##Topic:Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Performance Related Incentives Scheme (PRIS) for government employees.
1. It is being implemented by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances of the Union Government.
2. It is to be applied both at the individual as well as team level.
3. It is budget neutral.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
Performance Related Incentives refers to variable part of the pay which is awarded each year depending on the performance. The scheme is applied at the individual employee level as well as team/group level.
The scheme has two parts. One part measures the performance of the entity, the other part links the performance to the financial incentives.
The Cabinet Secretariat is working towards the implementation of scheme based on the recommendation of Sixth Pay Commission.
It is budget neutral, which means that it will have no impact on the budget. In other words the government departments or ministries will have to incentivize the employees through funds generated from internal cost cuttings and cost effective practices rather than any separate component in the budget for the scheme.
|
c
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about Performance Related Incentives Scheme (PRIS) for government employees.
1. It is being implemented by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances of the Union Government.
2. It is to be applied both at the individual as well as team level.
3. It is budget neutral.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Performance Related Incentives refers to variable part of the pay which is awarded each year depending on the performance. The scheme is applied at the individual employee level as well as team/group level.
The scheme has two parts. One part measures the performance of the entity, the other part links the performance to the financial incentives.
The Cabinet Secretariat is working towards the implementation of scheme based on the recommendation of Sixth Pay Commission.
It is budget neutral, which means that it will have no impact on the budget. In other words the government departments or ministries will have to incentivize the employees through funds generated from internal cost cuttings and cost effective practices rather than any separate component in the budget for the scheme.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the elections in India.
1. The 61 st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 to 18.
2. The 9 th Lok Sabha Elections of 1989 saw the maximum voter turnout in any general elections in the history of India.
3. The 16 th Lok Sabha Elections witnessed a reduction in the gender gap in voting compared to previous general election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
The 61 st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 to 18.
However, the maximum voter turnout has taken place in the 16 th Lok Sabha Elections of 2014, which in percentage term is equal to 66.4. This turnout is highest both in terms of percentage and numbers.
The last election saw a reduction in gender gap in voting from 4.42 in 15 th to 1.46 in 16 th .
|
b
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the elections in India.
1. The 61 st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 to 18.
2. The 9 th Lok Sabha Elections of 1989 saw the maximum voter turnout in any general elections in the history of India.
3. The 16 th Lok Sabha Elections witnessed a reduction in the gender gap in voting compared to previous general election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The 61 st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 to 18.
However, the maximum voter turnout has taken place in the 16 th Lok Sabha Elections of 2014, which in percentage term is equal to 66.4. This turnout is highest both in terms of percentage and numbers.
The last election saw a reduction in gender gap in voting from 4.42 in 15 th to 1.46 in 16 th .
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements.
1. USA is the top importer of Indian goods while China is the top exporter to India.
2. There has been a decline of Indian imports from China last year owing to revival of manufacturing in India in last two years.
3. The share of engineering goods in the Indian Goods Exports is highest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
In 2013-14, USA replaced UAE as the top importer from India, while China continues to maintain its position as the top exporter to India.
There has been a continuous growth in the imports from China. Last year saw an 8.47% growth in imports from China.
In 2013 and 2014, the share of Petroleum products was the highest in the total exports of goods from India.
|
a
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. USA is the top importer of Indian goods while China is the top exporter to India.
2. There has been a decline of Indian imports from China last year owing to revival of manufacturing in India in last two years.
3. The share of engineering goods in the Indian Goods Exports is highest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
In 2013-14, USA replaced UAE as the top importer from India, while China continues to maintain its position as the top exporter to India.
There has been a continuous growth in the imports from China. Last year saw an 8.47% growth in imports from China.
In 2013 and 2014, the share of Petroleum products was the highest in the total exports of goods from India.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about the Gramin Dak Sevak Post Offices.
1. It employs Gramin Dak Sevak who runs the post office for not more than five hours.
2. Gramin Dak Sevak delivers mails on payment of certain allowance.
3. Such post offices offer limited services of delivery of mails and payment of wages and pensions under social security programs only.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
Gramin Dak Sewak Post Offices are part time post offices being run by department of Posts to make the postal and banking services accessible in rural areas.
Under this system, postal personnel called Gramin Dak Sewak are employed to run the post office for a period not exceeding 5 hours, and to deliver and convey mails on payment of certain allowances.
Such post offices offer mail, retail, savings bank, life insurance, and remittance services in addition to disbursement of wages and pensions under social security programmes.
|
a
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the Gramin Dak Sevak Post Offices.
1. It employs Gramin Dak Sevak who runs the post office for not more than five hours.
2. Gramin Dak Sevak delivers mails on payment of certain allowance.
3. Such post offices offer limited services of delivery of mails and payment of wages and pensions under social security programs only.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Gramin Dak Sewak Post Offices are part time post offices being run by department of Posts to make the postal and banking services accessible in rural areas.
Under this system, postal personnel called Gramin Dak Sewak are employed to run the post office for a period not exceeding 5 hours, and to deliver and convey mails on payment of certain allowances.
Such post offices offer mail, retail, savings bank, life insurance, and remittance services in addition to disbursement of wages and pensions under social security programmes.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about the National Pension System.
1. It is mandatory for all the persons belonging to the organized sector except the armed forces.
2. Under this system the Pension funds are managed by the Private Fund managers also.
3. A part of savings can be withdrawn from the funds by an individual before his/her retirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2only
|
The National Pension System (NPS) was launched on 1st January, 2004 with the objective of providing retirement income to all the citizens. NPS aims to institute pension reforms and to inculcate the habit of saving for retirement amongst the citizens.
Initially, NPS was introduced for the new government recruits (except armed forces). With effect from 1 st May, 2009, NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country including the unorganised sector workers on voluntary basis.
Additionally, to encourage people from the unorganized sector to voluntarily save for their retirement the Central Government launched a co-contributory pension scheme, Swawlamban in the Union Budget of 2010-11. Under Swawlamban the government will contribute a sum of Rs. 1,000 to each eligible NPS subscriber who contributes a minimum of Rs. 1,000 and maximum Rs. 12,000 per annum. This scheme is presently applicable upto F.Y.2016-17.
Under NPS the person will have access to two personal accounts:
· Tier I Account : This is a non-withdrawable account meant for savings for retirement.
· Tier II Account : This is simply a voluntary savings facility. The subscriber is free to withdraw savings from this account whenever subscriber wishes. No tax benefit is available on this account.
The retirement savings of government employees are managed by the LIC Pension Fund, SBI Pension Fund and UTI Retirement Solutions. The general public can choose from any of the eight pension fund managers which include private fund managers as well.
|
d
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the National Pension System.
1. It is mandatory for all the persons belonging to the organized sector except the armed forces.
2. Under this system the Pension funds are managed by the Private Fund managers also.
3. A part of savings can be withdrawn from the funds by an individual before his/her retirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The National Pension System (NPS) was launched on 1st January, 2004 with the objective of providing retirement income to all the citizens. NPS aims to institute pension reforms and to inculcate the habit of saving for retirement amongst the citizens.
Initially, NPS was introduced for the new government recruits (except armed forces). With effect from 1 st May, 2009, NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country including the unorganised sector workers on voluntary basis.
Additionally, to encourage people from the unorganized sector to voluntarily save for their retirement the Central Government launched a co-contributory pension scheme, Swawlamban in the Union Budget of 2010-11. Under Swawlamban the government will contribute a sum of Rs. 1,000 to each eligible NPS subscriber who contributes a minimum of Rs. 1,000 and maximum Rs. 12,000 per annum. This scheme is presently applicable upto F.Y.2016-17.
Under NPS the person will have access to two personal accounts:
· Tier I Account : This is a non-withdrawable account meant for savings for retirement.
· Tier II Account : This is simply a voluntary savings facility. The subscriber is free to withdraw savings from this account whenever subscriber wishes. No tax benefit is available on this account.
The retirement savings of government employees are managed by the LIC Pension Fund, SBI Pension Fund and UTI Retirement Solutions. The general public can choose from any of the eight pension fund managers which include private fund managers as well.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements.
|
nbsp; India has constantly faced trade deficit for more than last twenty years.
|
nbsp; India’s trade deficit majorly comes from Asian trade, while outside Asia it is generally trade surplus.
|
nbsp; India has constantly seen growth in its exports in the last ten years.
|
nbsp; India has constantly faced trade deficit for more than last twenty years.
|
India has been facing trade deficit continuously, with not a single year in last two decades when it has attained a trade surplus.
India’s trade deficit majorly comes from its Asian trade including China and West Asia. 49.45% of its imports and 60.78% of its exports took place in Asia in 2014. With rest of the world it has trade surplus.
India has seen a constant growth in its exports in the last ten years. However, it witnessed a decline in imports once in the fiscal year 2009-10.
|
b
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
##Option_A:nbsp; India has constantly faced trade deficit for more than last twenty years.
###Option_B:nbsp; India’s trade deficit majorly comes from Asian trade, while outside Asia it is generally trade surplus.
##Option_C:nbsp; India has constantly seen growth in its exports in the last ten years.
##Option_D:nbsp; India has constantly faced trade deficit for more than last twenty years.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
India has been facing trade deficit continuously, with not a single year in last two decades when it has attained a trade surplus.
India’s trade deficit majorly comes from its Asian trade including China and West Asia. 49.45% of its imports and 60.78% of its exports took place in Asia in 2014. With rest of the world it has trade surplus.
India has seen a constant growth in its exports in the last ten years. However, it witnessed a decline in imports once in the fiscal year 2009-10.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojna(SAGY).
|
nbsp; It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
|
nbsp; It is not applicable to MPs belonging to urban constituencies having no villages.
|
nbsp; Government has proposed to merge the currently running MPLADS with SAGY within next five years.
|
nbsp; It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
|
The scheme is to be implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
For MPs belonging to urban constituencies not having any villages/gram panchayats, the MP will identify a gram panchayat from a nearby rural constituency.
There is currently no proposal to merge the MPLADS with SAGY. Although MPLADS has been criticized as being one of the most inefficient schemes, yet no such proposal exists.
Gujarat government has not launched any such scheme for the MLAs from the state.
|
d
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojna(SAGY).
##Option_A:nbsp; It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
###Option_B:nbsp; It is not applicable to MPs belonging to urban constituencies having no villages.
##Option_C:nbsp; Government has proposed to merge the currently running MPLADS with SAGY within next five years.
##Option_D:nbsp; It is to be implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The scheme is to be implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
For MPs belonging to urban constituencies not having any villages/gram panchayats, the MP will identify a gram panchayat from a nearby rural constituency.
There is currently no proposal to merge the MPLADS with SAGY. Although MPLADS has been criticized as being one of the most inefficient schemes, yet no such proposal exists.
Gujarat government has not launched any such scheme for the MLAs from the state.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
What is MeghRaj?
|
nbsp; It is a cloud seeding programme under development by the Ministry of Science and Technology, to minimize the impact of adverse monsoons.
|
nbsp; It is a satellite to be launched in 2017 for Monsoon forecasting and prediction.
|
nbsp; It refers to the code name given by Indian Air-Force to the rescue Mission it operated in Uttarakhand Flash floods.
|
nbsp; It is a cloud seeding programme under development by the Ministry of Science and Technology, to minimize the impact of adverse monsoons.
|
To harness the benefit of cloud computing, DeitY has initaiated project MeghRaj for creating a Government of India cloud computing environment (GI Cloud) at the national level. This will act as common repository of cloud based infrastructure resources and applications available on demand. GI Cloud is aimed at optional utilization of ICT infrastructure, speedy development, and deployment of e-gov applications, quick replication of successful applications, and e-gov application store.
|
d
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What is MeghRaj?
##Option_A:nbsp; It is a cloud seeding programme under development by the Ministry of Science and Technology, to minimize the impact of adverse monsoons.
###Option_B:nbsp; It is a satellite to be launched in 2017 for Monsoon forecasting and prediction.
##Option_C:nbsp; It refers to the code name given by Indian Air-Force to the rescue Mission it operated in Uttarakhand Flash floods.
##Option_D:nbsp; It is a cloud seeding programme under development by the Ministry of Science and Technology, to minimize the impact of adverse monsoons.
##Answer:d##Explaination:
To harness the benefit of cloud computing, DeitY has initaiated project MeghRaj for creating a Government of India cloud computing environment (GI Cloud) at the national level. This will act as common repository of cloud based infrastructure resources and applications available on demand. GI Cloud is aimed at optional utilization of ICT infrastructure, speedy development, and deployment of e-gov applications, quick replication of successful applications, and e-gov application store.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Swach Bharat Mission: One of the aims is to lay water pipelines to all the villages to enable tap connections in all households on demand. It will use NABARD and SIDBI to make available small loans to people who need money for toilet construction. The loans given for toilet construction will be included in the priority sector lending of the bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Swachh Bharat Mission has a target period of five years. To make India Open Defecation Free in 5 years it aims to: construct individual, cluster and community toilets, cleanliness through solid and liquid waste management and laying water pipelines to all the villages to enable tap connections in all households.
One of the proposals of the mission is enabling a system of small loans through agencies like NABARD and SIDBI or Banks through priority sector lending without collateral to those households which are eligible for incentives or need funds to construct better toilets.
|
d
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Swach Bharat Mission: One of the aims is to lay water pipelines to all the villages to enable tap connections in all households on demand. It will use NABARD and SIDBI to make available small loans to people who need money for toilet construction. The loans given for toilet construction will be included in the priority sector lending of the bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Swachh Bharat Mission has a target period of five years. To make India Open Defecation Free in 5 years it aims to: construct individual, cluster and community toilets, cleanliness through solid and liquid waste management and laying water pipelines to all the villages to enable tap connections in all households.
One of the proposals of the mission is enabling a system of small loans through agencies like NABARD and SIDBI or Banks through priority sector lending without collateral to those households which are eligible for incentives or need funds to construct better toilets.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Niche Tourism Products.
1. It aims at development of certain aspect of tourisms which are independent of seasonality.
2. It aims at identifying products where the country has a comparative advantage over others.
3. In India Golf, Polo, Cruise, and Adventure are some of the niche tourism products identified by the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
The Ministry of tourism has taken the initiative of identifying, diversifying, developing, and promoting niche products of the tourism industry. This is done in order to overcome the aspect of seasonality and make the country a 365 days destination, attract tourists with specific interests, and to ensure repeat visits for the unique products in which the country has a comparative advantage.
Identification of niche products is a dynamic process and the products are added in due course. Ministry has identified following products as niche: Cruise, Medical, Adventure, Wellness, Golf, Polo, Conferences and Exhibitions, Eco-Tourism, Film-Tourism and Sustainable Tourism.
|
a
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the Niche Tourism Products.
1. It aims at development of certain aspect of tourisms which are independent of seasonality.
2. It aims at identifying products where the country has a comparative advantage over others.
3. In India Golf, Polo, Cruise, and Adventure are some of the niche tourism products identified by the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Ministry of tourism has taken the initiative of identifying, diversifying, developing, and promoting niche products of the tourism industry. This is done in order to overcome the aspect of seasonality and make the country a 365 days destination, attract tourists with specific interests, and to ensure repeat visits for the unique products in which the country has a comparative advantage.
Identification of niche products is a dynamic process and the products are added in due course. Ministry has identified following products as niche: Cruise, Medical, Adventure, Wellness, Golf, Polo, Conferences and Exhibitions, Eco-Tourism, Film-Tourism and Sustainable Tourism.
##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Provisions regarding which of the following came into force on the "date of adoption’ of the Constitution? Parliament President Supreme Court Elections Citizenship Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The date of adoption of the constitution is Nov 26, 1946. On this date only certain provisions came into force. The major among them were- Parliament, elections, and citizenship. Rest of the constitution came in force on Jan 26, 1950.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Provisions regarding which of the following came into force on the "date of adoption’ of the Constitution? Parliament President Supreme Court Elections Citizenship Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The date of adoption of the constitution is Nov 26, 1946. On this date only certain provisions came into force. The major among them were- Parliament, elections, and citizenship. Rest of the constitution came in force on Jan 26, 1950.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
Indian Parliament is vested with sovereign powers.
The subordinate courts at the district level enforce only the state laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body, like that of British, because we have written constitution thereby the Parliament is bound by the constitution. Further, according to the Supreme Court, the Parliament can’t change the basic structure of the constitution.
Indian judiciary is integrated and organic, meaning thereby that, it enforces both the central and the state laws.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
Indian Parliament is vested with sovereign powers.
The subordinate courts at the district level enforce only the state laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body, like that of British, because we have written constitution thereby the Parliament is bound by the constitution. Further, according to the Supreme Court, the Parliament can’t change the basic structure of the constitution.
Indian judiciary is integrated and organic, meaning thereby that, it enforces both the central and the state laws.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
When did India become a sovereignty state?
July 18, 1947
Aug 15, 1947
Nov 26, 1946
Jan 26, 1950
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
On July 18, 1947 the Indian Independence Act was approved by the British monarch. The Act came into force on Aug 15, 1947. Till the passage of this Act, India was a British colony. From Aug 15, 1947 to Jan 26, 1950, India was a dominion of British Commonwealth of Nations. India ceased to be a British dominion only on Jan 26, 1950 by declaring itself to be a sovereign republic.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
When did India become a sovereignty state?
July 18, 1947
Aug 15, 1947
Nov 26, 1946
Jan 26, 1950
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
On July 18, 1947 the Indian Independence Act was approved by the British monarch. The Act came into force on Aug 15, 1947. Till the passage of this Act, India was a British colony. From Aug 15, 1947 to Jan 26, 1950, India was a dominion of British Commonwealth of Nations. India ceased to be a British dominion only on Jan 26, 1950 by declaring itself to be a sovereign republic.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble to the Indian Constitution:
Preamble is the reservoir of powers to the legislature.
Parliament can amend any part of the Preamble.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
According to the Supreme Court, the Preamble though is an integral part of the constitution, but its not the source of power to any of the institution. It not enforceable in the court of law.
However, it doesn’t mean that the Parliament can amend any part of the Preamble. In other words, Parliament can’t amend the basic features contained in the Preamble.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble to the Indian Constitution:
Preamble is the reservoir of powers to the legislature.
Parliament can amend any part of the Preamble.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
According to the Supreme Court, the Preamble though is an integral part of the constitution, but its not the source of power to any of the institution. It not enforceable in the court of law.
However, it doesn’t mean that the Parliament can amend any part of the Preamble. In other words, Parliament can’t amend the basic features contained in the Preamble.
##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Parliament’s power to reorganize the states (under Article 3):
The bill to effect such changes can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
The bill for such changes amends the Constitution of India.
This power is being used to pass the Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Parliament, under Article 3, has the power to redraw the political map of the country. However, for doing so two conditions must be fulfilled- the bill to this effect can be introduced only with prior recommendation of the President, and before recommending such a bill the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views. Thus first statement is correct.
Since, such a bill effects changes in the 1 st Schedule of the constitution, which contains the name and territorial jurisdiction of the state/union territory, therefore it amends the constitution. However, such an amendment does not come under Article 368.
The power of the Parliament under Article 3 doesn’t include the power to cede Indian territory to foreign state. For such doing, Constitution has to be amended under Article 368. The current LBA with Bangladesh involves the ceding (exchange) of territorial enclave, therefore it doesn’t come under Article 3.
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the Parliament’s power to reorganize the states (under Article 3):
The bill to effect such changes can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
The bill for such changes amends the Constitution of India.
This power is being used to pass the Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Parliament, under Article 3, has the power to redraw the political map of the country. However, for doing so two conditions must be fulfilled- the bill to this effect can be introduced only with prior recommendation of the President, and before recommending such a bill the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views. Thus first statement is correct.
Since, such a bill effects changes in the 1 st Schedule of the constitution, which contains the name and territorial jurisdiction of the state/union territory, therefore it amends the constitution. However, such an amendment does not come under Article 368.
The power of the Parliament under Article 3 doesn’t include the power to cede Indian territory to foreign state. For such doing, Constitution has to be amended under Article 368. The current LBA with Bangladesh involves the ceding (exchange) of territorial enclave, therefore it doesn’t come under Article 3.
##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Indian citizenship:
In India only citizen by birth are eligible for the office of the President.
Constitution contains five ways of acquiring citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
In India both a citizen by birth as well as naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President.
Constitution does not contain any provision for acquisition or loss of citizenship post Jan 26, 1950. It empowers the Parliament to make law in this regard.
|
d
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Indian citizenship:
In India only citizen by birth are eligible for the office of the President.
Constitution contains five ways of acquiring citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
In India both a citizen by birth as well as naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President.
Constitution does not contain any provision for acquisition or loss of citizenship post Jan 26, 1950. It empowers the Parliament to make law in this regard.
##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
Article 16(4) provides reservation for the backward classes.
State legislature can prescribe residence in the state as a qualification for employment to certain posts.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Article 16(4) is only an enabling article, which means that, by itself it doesn’t provide any reservation to any section of the population. It only empowers the Parliament to make provisions in this regard if it deems fit.
It is not the state legislature, rather it’s the Parliament that can prescribe residence as the qualification for certain jobs.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
Article 16(4) provides reservation for the backward classes.
State legislature can prescribe residence in the state as a qualification for employment to certain posts.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Article 16(4) is only an enabling article, which means that, by itself it doesn’t provide any reservation to any section of the population. It only empowers the Parliament to make provisions in this regard if it deems fit.
It is not the state legislature, rather it’s the Parliament that can prescribe residence as the qualification for certain jobs.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
What are the remedies to a person whose right to speech and expression (Article 19) is curtailed by the members of his community? He can move to the Supreme Court under Article 32. He can move to the High Court under Article 226. He only has ordinary legal remedy through lower courts. Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The rights under Article 19 are protected against only the state action and not against the private individual. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Therefore, under the current case the aggrieved can’t move to the Supreme Court. Though, he can go the High Court because the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court, as High Court can issue writs even for the enforcement of the ordinary rights.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What are the remedies to a person whose right to speech and expression (Article 19) is curtailed by the members of his community? He can move to the Supreme Court under Article 32. He can move to the High Court under Article 226. He only has ordinary legal remedy through lower courts. Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The rights under Article 19 are protected against only the state action and not against the private individual. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Therefore, under the current case the aggrieved can’t move to the Supreme Court. Though, he can go the High Court because the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court, as High Court can issue writs even for the enforcement of the ordinary rights.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Writ of Quo-Warranto issued by the Supreme Court: It can be issued only in case of a substantive public office. It can’t be issued against a minister. It can be issued against a judge of a High Court if he has acquired office through corrupt means. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
This writ is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of permanent character. Therefore, it is not applicable to a ministerial post. Further, this writ can’t be issued against members of higher judiciary, who only be removed through impeachment procedure.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Writ of Quo-Warranto issued by the Supreme Court: It can be issued only in case of a substantive public office. It can’t be issued against a minister. It can be issued against a judge of a High Court if he has acquired office through corrupt means. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:This writ is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of permanent character. Therefore, it is not applicable to a ministerial post. Further, this writ can’t be issued against members of higher judiciary, who only be removed through impeachment procedure.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Martial Law in India:
It suspends the center-state relations.
It suspends the ordinary law courts.
Writ of habeas corpus is not applicable to areas under martial law.
It is explicitly mentioned in Article 34.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 only
1 and 4 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The concept of Martial Law is not explicitly mentioned in Indian constitution, rather it is only implicitly mentioned under Article 34.
It refers to a situation where the civil administration is run military authorities, therefore it suspends the ordinary law.
It doesn’t affect the center-state relations. It only restricts the fundamental rights.
However, writ of habeas corpus is not suspended.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Martial Law in India:
It suspends the center-state relations.
It suspends the ordinary law courts.
Writ of habeas corpus is not applicable to areas under martial law.
It is explicitly mentioned in Article 34.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 only
1 and 4 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
The concept of Martial Law is not explicitly mentioned in Indian constitution, rather it is only implicitly mentioned under Article 34.
It refers to a situation where the civil administration is run military authorities, therefore it suspends the ordinary law.
It doesn’t affect the center-state relations. It only restricts the fundamental rights.
However, writ of habeas corpus is not suspended.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties:
Fundamental duties in Indian Constitution are inspired by the Irish Constitution.
Fundamental duties are applicable to all the residents of India.
Fundamental duties can be enforced in the court of law if the Parliament passes a law in this regard.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Fundamental duties are inspired by the erstwhile Soviet Constitution. We have adopted Directive principles from the Irish Constitution. Fundamental duties are confined only to the citizens of India. Residents is a wider term than citizens. Fundamental duties can be enforced in court of law if the Parliament passes a law in this regard.
|
b
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties:
Fundamental duties in Indian Constitution are inspired by the Irish Constitution.
Fundamental duties are applicable to all the residents of India.
Fundamental duties can be enforced in the court of law if the Parliament passes a law in this regard.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:Fundamental duties are inspired by the erstwhile Soviet Constitution. We have adopted Directive principles from the Irish Constitution. Fundamental duties are confined only to the citizens of India. Residents is a wider term than citizens. Fundamental duties can be enforced in court of law if the Parliament passes a law in this regard.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Constitutional provisions regarding which of the can be amended by simple legislative procedure? Election of the President and its manner. Increasing the strength of the Supreme Court. Conferment of more jurisdictions on the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
There are many provisions in the constitution which can be amended by simple legislative procedure outside the scope of Article 368. These among others, increasing the number of puisne judges of the Supreme Court, conferment of more powers on the Supreme Court etc. These are those provision which do not affect the Indian federal structure or other substantial provisions. Whereas the appointment of President and its manner has considerable effect on the federal structure, therefore amending this provision requires special procedure.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Constitutional provisions regarding which of the can be amended by simple legislative procedure? Election of the President and its manner. Increasing the strength of the Supreme Court. Conferment of more jurisdictions on the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:There are many provisions in the constitution which can be amended by simple legislative procedure outside the scope of Article 368. These among others, increasing the number of puisne judges of the Supreme Court, conferment of more powers on the Supreme Court etc. These are those provision which do not affect the Indian federal structure or other substantial provisions. Whereas the appointment of President and its manner has considerable effect on the federal structure, therefore amending this provision requires special procedure.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Who among the following is regarded as the ‘Leader of the Parliament’ in India?
Speaker
Prime Minister
Vice President
Leader of the Lok Sabha
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
In a Parliamentary form of government the Prime Minister is regarded the most crucial part of the polity. He is the leader of the government, the Parliament, and his Party.
Speaker is the leader of the Lok Sabha, Vice President is the leader of the Rajya Sabha.
|
b
|
Political systems: concepts, forms and types
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Who among the following is regarded as the ‘Leader of the Parliament’ in India?
Speaker
Prime Minister
Vice President
Leader of the Lok Sabha
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
In a Parliamentary form of government the Prime Minister is regarded the most crucial part of the polity. He is the leader of the government, the Parliament, and his Party.
Speaker is the leader of the Lok Sabha, Vice President is the leader of the Rajya Sabha.
##Topic:Political systems: concepts, forms and types##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the power of the Parliament to make laws on a state subject when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in this regard: The Rajya Sabha has to pass such a resolution with a majority similar to the one needed to pass a Constitutional Amendment Act under Article 368. The state legislature can no longer pass any law on the subject till the resolution remains in force. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary in national interest that the Parliament should enact a law on a state subject then the Parliament becomes empowered to pass such a law. However, it does not restrict the power of the state legislature to pass on the same subject. But, in case of inconsistency between a state law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail. The Rajya Sabha has to pass such a resolution by a majority of two-third present and voting.
|
c
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the power of the Parliament to make laws on a state subject when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in this regard: The Rajya Sabha has to pass such a resolution with a majority similar to the one needed to pass a Constitutional Amendment Act under Article 368. The state legislature can no longer pass any law on the subject till the resolution remains in force. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary in national interest that the Parliament should enact a law on a state subject then the Parliament becomes empowered to pass such a law. However, it does not restrict the power of the state legislature to pass on the same subject. But, in case of inconsistency between a state law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail. The Rajya Sabha has to pass such a resolution by a majority of two-third present and voting.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Article 249 of the Constitution empowers the Centre to legislate on subjects of State list. Which of the following statements regarding this provision is/are correct ? To make laws on a subject of state list in National interest , Centre has to get a resolution passed in both the houses of Parliament with the support of two-thirds of members present and voting. Such a resolution remains in force for one year and can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as under Article 249 , only Rajya Sabha can pass such a resolution on state subject in national interest. Statement 2 is correct as given under article 249. Such a law ceases to have effect on passage of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
|
b
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Article 249 of the Constitution empowers the Centre to legislate on subjects of State list. Which of the following statements regarding this provision is/are correct ? To make laws on a subject of state list in National interest , Centre has to get a resolution passed in both the houses of Parliament with the support of two-thirds of members present and voting. Such a resolution remains in force for one year and can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct as under Article 249 , only Rajya Sabha can pass such a resolution on state subject in national interest. Statement 2 is correct as given under article 249. Such a law ceases to have effect on passage of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: While, the Central Government can borrow money from outside of India, the state governments can"t. The loans made by the central government to the states are made from the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
As per current constitutional provisions, the central government can borrow money from outside of India, but the state governments can't. This provision was inserted to prevent sovereign debt crisis. The loans made by the center to the states are charged on the consolidated fund of India.
|
b
|
Center-State Financial Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: While, the Central Government can borrow money from outside of India, the state governments can"t. The loans made by the central government to the states are made from the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:As per current constitutional provisions, the central government can borrow money from outside of India, but the state governments can't. This provision was inserted to prevent sovereign debt crisis. The loans made by the center to the states are charged on the consolidated fund of India.##Topic:Center-State Financial Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding borrowing powers of Centre and States is/are correct? The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in case of loans raised by the states with the approval of the Parliament. A state government can borrow both from India and abroad within the limits fixed by the State Legislature and upon the Security of the Consolidated fund of the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as the Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in case of loans raised by the states but Parliament approval is not needed. Statement 2 is not correct as the state government can't borrow from abroad using security of the Consolidated Fund of the State.
|
d
|
Center-State Financial Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding borrowing powers of Centre and States is/are correct? The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in case of loans raised by the states with the approval of the Parliament. A state government can borrow both from India and abroad within the limits fixed by the State Legislature and upon the Security of the Consolidated fund of the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct as the Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in case of loans raised by the states but Parliament approval is not needed. Statement 2 is not correct as the state government can't borrow from abroad using security of the Consolidated Fund of the State.##Topic:Center-State Financial Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are Constitutional bodies? Inter-State Council Central Council of Indian Medicine Central Council of Health Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A constitutional body is one which is either directly established by the Constitution or derives its functions, authority from a Constitutional provision. Under Article 263, the President has set up a number of bodies, and are therefore constitutional in nature. These include the Inter-State Council, Central Council of Health. Whereas, Central Council of Indian Medicine was set up under an Act of the Parliament.
|
b
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are Constitutional bodies? Inter-State Council Central Council of Indian Medicine Central Council of Health Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:A constitutional body is one which is either directly established by the Constitution or derives its functions, authority from a Constitutional provision. Under Article 263, the President has set up a number of bodies, and are therefore constitutional in nature. These include the Inter-State Council, Central Council of Health. Whereas, Central Council of Indian Medicine was set up under an Act of the Parliament.##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas Act 2008: Gram Nyayalayas are the mobile courts set up at the intermediate level of the panchayat. Nyayadhikari, the presiding officer of Gram Nyaylayas, is appointed by the High Court. They can try only civil cases. They can only try offences under the state acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3, and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Gram Nyayalayas are mobile courts set up at the intermediate levels of panchayat or for a group of contiguous panchayats in every district. The presiding officer is a first class magistrate appointed by the state government. These courts can try both petty civil and criminal cases under both central and state laws.
|
a
|
District Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas Act 2008: Gram Nyayalayas are the mobile courts set up at the intermediate level of the panchayat. Nyayadhikari, the presiding officer of Gram Nyaylayas, is appointed by the High Court. They can try only civil cases. They can only try offences under the state acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3, and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Gram Nyayalayas are mobile courts set up at the intermediate levels of panchayat or for a group of contiguous panchayats in every district. The presiding officer is a first class magistrate appointed by the state government. These courts can try both petty civil and criminal cases under both central and state laws.##Topic:District Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding 97th Constitutional Amendment Act 2011:
The Act has made it a fundamental right to form cooperative societies by amending Article 19 of the Constitution.
It has inserted a new Article in part-IV of the constitution.
It has added a new Part IXB to the constitution.
It has provided for 1/3 reservation for women on the board of every co-operative society.
It has empowered the state election commission to oversee the election to the co-operatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
97th Constitutional Amendment Act has made some major changes in the Constitution. It has amended Article 19(1)(c), which deals with fundamental right to form association, and has added the words “Cooperative Societies” after the words “or unions”. It has inserted a new Article 43B stating that, it shall be the endeavor of the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies. It has added a new Part IXB dealing with the provisions relating to the co-operative societies. The act provides for reservation of one seat for SC/ST and two seats for women on the board of every co-operative society. Further the act empowers the co-operatives to set up agency for overseeing elections to the co-operatives.
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding 97th Constitutional Amendment Act 2011:
The Act has made it a fundamental right to form cooperative societies by amending Article 19 of the Constitution.
It has inserted a new Article in part-IV of the constitution.
It has added a new Part IXB to the constitution.
It has provided for 1/3 reservation for women on the board of every co-operative society.
It has empowered the state election commission to oversee the election to the co-operatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
97th Constitutional Amendment Act has made some major changes in the Constitution. It has amended Article 19(1)(c), which deals with fundamental right to form association, and has added the words “Cooperative Societies” after the words “or unions”. It has inserted a new Article 43B stating that, it shall be the endeavor of the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies. It has added a new Part IXB dealing with the provisions relating to the co-operative societies. The act provides for reservation of one seat for SC/ST and two seats for women on the board of every co-operative society. Further the act empowers the co-operatives to set up agency for overseeing elections to the co-operatives.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
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