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Consider the following statements regarding the revocation of national emergency: Only Lok Sabha has the power to pass a resolution for the revocation of national emergency. The resolution for revocation of national emergency must be passed by 50 % of the members present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
According to the 44 th Amendment Act 1978, only Lok Sabha can pass a resolution for the revocation of the emergency whenever it deems it fit. The resolution must be passed by simple majority, i.e. at least 50 % of the members present and voting.
|
c
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the revocation of national emergency: Only Lok Sabha has the power to pass a resolution for the revocation of national emergency. The resolution for revocation of national emergency must be passed by 50 % of the members present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:According to the 44 th Amendment Act 1978, only Lok Sabha can pass a resolution for the revocation of the emergency whenever it deems it fit. The resolution must be passed by simple majority, i.e. at least 50 % of the members present and voting.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are the correct definition of President"s Acts?
|
These are the ordinances promulgated by the President when the Parliament is not in session.
|
These are the laws made by the President for a state when the national emergency is in force in the state concerned.
|
These are the laws made by the President for a state when the Constitutional Emergency is in force in the state concerned.
|
These are the ordinances promulgated by the President when the Parliament is not in session.
|
When the President's Rule (under Article 356, also called as Constitutional Emergency) is in force in a state, generally, the Parliament delegates the power, to make laws for the state, to the President. These laws are made by the President for the respective state are called as President's Acts.
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the correct definition of President"s Acts?##Option_A: These are the ordinances promulgated by the President when the Parliament is not in session.###Option_B: These are the laws made by the President for a state when the national emergency is in force in the state concerned.##Option_C: These are the laws made by the President for a state when the Constitutional Emergency is in force in the state concerned.##Option_D: These are the ordinances promulgated by the President when the Parliament is not in session.##Answer:c##Explaination:When the President's Rule (under Article 356, also called as Constitutional Emergency) is in force in a state, generally, the Parliament delegates the power, to make laws for the state, to the President. These laws are made by the President for the respective state are called as President's Acts.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the pardoning powers of the President:
He can grant pardon to the convicts sentenced to death only if the sentence is for offence under the central law.
He can grant pardon even to the under trials likely to be sentenced to death.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The pardoning power of the President, under Article 72, can be exercised in all cases, i.e. whether the offence is under the central or the state law.
The pardoning power comes under play only upon the completion of the trial resulting in the conviction.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the pardoning powers of the President:
He can grant pardon to the convicts sentenced to death only if the sentence is for offence under the central law.
He can grant pardon even to the under trials likely to be sentenced to death.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
The pardoning power of the President, under Article 72, can be exercised in all cases, i.e. whether the offence is under the central or the state law.
The pardoning power comes under play only upon the completion of the trial resulting in the conviction.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the ordinance making powers of the President:
The ordinance-making power is co-extensive with the law-making powers of the Parliament.
An ordinance can repeal or amend an Act of the Parliament.
An ordinance can amend certain parts of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The ordinance making powers of the President under Article 123 is co-extensive with the law making powers of the Parliament as regards all matters except duration.
An ordinance can amend or repeal an Act of the Parliament. For example, recently promulgated TRAI ordinance 2014.
Though, an ordinance can’t amend those parts of the Constitution which can be amended only under Article 368. An ordinance can also amend some portions of the constitution which can be amended by the simple legislative procedure. For example, Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Ordinance 2014.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the ordinance making powers of the President:
The ordinance-making power is co-extensive with the law-making powers of the Parliament.
An ordinance can repeal or amend an Act of the Parliament.
An ordinance can amend certain parts of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
The ordinance making powers of the President under Article 123 is co-extensive with the law making powers of the Parliament as regards all matters except duration.
An ordinance can amend or repeal an Act of the Parliament. For example, recently promulgated TRAI ordinance 2014.
Though, an ordinance can’t amend those parts of the Constitution which can be amended only under Article 368. An ordinance can also amend some portions of the constitution which can be amended by the simple legislative procedure. For example, Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Ordinance 2014.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are the Constitutional provisions?
Members of Lok Sabha from Union Territories are directly elected by the people.
Members to the Lok Sabha are elected based on territorial representation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the UT in the Lok Sabha. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from UT are also chosen directly.
Constitution has adopted the territorial representation in the Lok Sabha.
|
b
|
Union and Its Territories
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the Constitutional provisions?
Members of Lok Sabha from Union Territories are directly elected by the people.
Members to the Lok Sabha are elected based on territorial representation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
The constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the UT in the Lok Sabha. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from UT are also chosen directly.
Constitution has adopted the territorial representation in the Lok Sabha.
##Topic:Union and Its Territories##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
What is the duration of the Rajya Sabha?
6 years
5 years
3 years
Indefinite
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subjected to dissolution.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What is the duration of the Rajya Sabha?
6 years
5 years
3 years
Indefinite
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subjected to dissolution.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
President administers oath to the Speaker.
Speaker doesn’t have the right to vote in parliamentary debates.
Deputy speaker is sub-ordinate to the Speaker.
Speaker continues to remain in office even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Speaker and Deputy Speaker do not make and subscribe any separate oath while assuming their office. Speaker does have the right to vote, but he can cast his vote only in case of ties to resolve the deadlock. Deputy Speaker is not sub-ordinate to the speaker and is directly responsible to the Lok Sabha. Speaker continues to remain in office, till the new Lok Sabha is constituted, even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
President administers oath to the Speaker.
Speaker doesn’t have the right to vote in parliamentary debates.
Deputy speaker is sub-ordinate to the Speaker.
Speaker continues to remain in office even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:The Speaker and Deputy Speaker do not make and subscribe any separate oath while assuming their office. Speaker does have the right to vote, but he can cast his vote only in case of ties to resolve the deadlock. Deputy Speaker is not sub-ordinate to the speaker and is directly responsible to the Lok Sabha. Speaker continues to remain in office, till the new Lok Sabha is constituted, even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
Ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President.
Ad hoc judges are appointed when there is lack of quorum of the permanent judges in the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Ad hoc judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the Chief Justice of India when there is lack of quorum of the permanent judges in the Supreme Court.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President.
Ad hoc judges are appointed when there is lack of quorum of the permanent judges in the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:Ad hoc judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the Chief Justice of India when there is lack of quorum of the permanent judges in the Supreme Court.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
The Supreme Court may refuse to tender its advice to the President.
The advice of the Supreme Court is binding on the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143 is meant for the President to seek advice from the Supreme Court. The court may refuse to tender its advice except in cases where the dispute arises out of any pre-constitution treaty. However, the advice so tendered is not binding on the President.
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
The Supreme Court may refuse to tender its advice to the President.
The advice of the Supreme Court is binding on the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143 is meant for the President to seek advice from the Supreme Court. The court may refuse to tender its advice except in cases where the dispute arises out of any pre-constitution treaty. However, the advice so tendered is not binding on the President.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
According to the Constitution, which among the following must be heard before being dissolved?
District Panchayats
Gram Panchayats
Municipalities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Under the constitutional provisions, only the municipalities are given the opportunity of being heard before they are dissolve, as far as local governments are concerned.
|
c
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
According to the Constitution, which among the following must be heard before being dissolved?
District Panchayats
Gram Panchayats
Municipalities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Under the constitutional provisions, only the municipalities are given the opportunity of being heard before they are dissolve, as far as local governments are concerned.
##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court has to issue writ for the violation of the fundamental rights, irrespective of the language used in filing the petition.
A state can choose its official language only from among the Scheduled languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Till now no change has been made regarding the language used in the Supreme Court. Therefore, all the proceedings are in English language only. The Supreme Court can’t entertain a petition in a language other than English.
The choice of a state to choose its official language is not confined to the languages enumerated in the 8 th Schedule.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court has to issue writ for the violation of the fundamental rights, irrespective of the language used in filing the petition.
A state can choose its official language only from among the Scheduled languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:Till now no change has been made regarding the language used in the Supreme Court. Therefore, all the proceedings are in English language only. The Supreme Court can’t entertain a petition in a language other than English.
The choice of a state to choose its official language is not confined to the languages enumerated in the 8 th Schedule.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which among the following authorities decides the question regarding the age of a High Court judge?
|
The President
|
The Chief Justice of India
|
The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
|
The President
|
The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India decides the question pertaining to the age of a High Court Judge.
|
a
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following authorities decides the question regarding the age of a High Court judge?##Option_A: The President###Option_B:The Chief Justice of India##Option_C: The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court##Option_D: The President##Answer:a##Explaination:The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India decides the question pertaining to the age of a High Court Judge.##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the grouping of inner and outer planets on the basis of their physical properties: Inner planets are also known as Jovian planets, whereas outer planets are known as Terrestrial planets. Inner planets are small in size and have high density, whereas outer planets are larger in size and have a low density. Inner planets are relatively hotter than the outer planets. Which one of the statement given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Mercury, Venus Earth and Mars are called the Inner planets or Terrestrial planets. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called outer planets or Jovian planets. Inner planets are small in size and have high density, whereas outer planets are larger in size and have a low density. Inner planets are relatively hotter than the outer planets. The planets closer to the sun than the earth i.e. Mercury and Venus are called the inferior planets. The planets located at a distance greater than the distance of the earth from the sun are called the superior planets. Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are the superior planets.
|
a
|
The Earth : Solar System , Latitude &Longitude , Motions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the grouping of inner and outer planets on the basis of their physical properties: Inner planets are also known as Jovian planets, whereas outer planets are known as Terrestrial planets. Inner planets are small in size and have high density, whereas outer planets are larger in size and have a low density. Inner planets are relatively hotter than the outer planets. Which one of the statement given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Mercury, Venus Earth and Mars are called the Inner planets or Terrestrial planets. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called outer planets or Jovian planets. Inner planets are small in size and have high density, whereas outer planets are larger in size and have a low density. Inner planets are relatively hotter than the outer planets. The planets closer to the sun than the earth i.e. Mercury and Venus are called the inferior planets. The planets located at a distance greater than the distance of the earth from the sun are called the superior planets. Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are the superior planets.##Topic:The Earth : Solar System , Latitude &Longitude , Motions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the conditions is/are prevalent in the Northern Hemisphere on the Summer Solstice?
The North Pole is tilted towards the sun.
The sun is vertically over the Tropic of Cancer.
The Nights are longer than the days.
Along the Arctic Circle, a day is 24 hours long and there is no sunset.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Following are the conditions associated with summer solstice (21 June) in Northern Hemisphere: The North Pole is tilted towards the sun and its summer time in Northern Hemisphere, whereas South Pole is tilted away from the sun. In Northern Hemisphere days are longer than the nights . Along the Arctic Circle a day is 24 hours long and there is no sunset, whereas along the Antarctic Circle night is 24 hours long and there is no sunrise. All places within the Arctic Circle have 24 hours daylight for 6 months and also experience the midnight sun.
|
c
|
The Earth : Solar System , Latitude &Longitude , Motions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the conditions is/are prevalent in the Northern Hemisphere on the Summer Solstice?
The North Pole is tilted towards the sun.
The sun is vertically over the Tropic of Cancer.
The Nights are longer than the days.
Along the Arctic Circle, a day is 24 hours long and there is no sunset.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:Following are the conditions associated with summer solstice (21 June) in Northern Hemisphere: The North Pole is tilted towards the sun and its summer time in Northern Hemisphere, whereas South Pole is tilted away from the sun. In Northern Hemisphere days are longer than the nights . Along the Arctic Circle a day is 24 hours long and there is no sunset, whereas along the Antarctic Circle night is 24 hours long and there is no sunrise. All places within the Arctic Circle have 24 hours daylight for 6 months and also experience the midnight sun.##Topic:The Earth : Solar System , Latitude &Longitude , Motions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following four principal lifting mechanisms which operate in the atmosphere: Convergent lifting operates when air flows toward an area of high pressure. Convectional lifting operates when air is stimulated by local surface heating. Orographic lifting operates when air is forced over a barrier such as a mountain range. Frontal lifting operates when air is displaced upward along the leading edges of homogenous air masses. Which one of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Lifting air masses cool adiabatically (by expansion) to reach the dew-point temperature. Moisture in the saturated air then can condense and form clouds, and perhaps precipitation. Four principal lifting mechanisms operate in the atmosphere: Convergent lifting-air flows toward an area of low pressure Convectional lifting-air is stimulated by local surface heating Orographic lifting-air is forced over a barrier such as a mountain range Frontal lifting-air is displaced upward along the leading edges of contrasting air masses
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following four principal lifting mechanisms which operate in the atmosphere: Convergent lifting operates when air flows toward an area of high pressure. Convectional lifting operates when air is stimulated by local surface heating. Orographic lifting operates when air is forced over a barrier such as a mountain range. Frontal lifting operates when air is displaced upward along the leading edges of homogenous air masses. Which one of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Lifting air masses cool adiabatically (by expansion) to reach the dew-point temperature. Moisture in the saturated air then can condense and form clouds, and perhaps precipitation. Four principal lifting mechanisms operate in the atmosphere: Convergent lifting-air flows toward an area of low pressure Convectional lifting-air is stimulated by local surface heating Orographic lifting-air is forced over a barrier such as a mountain range Frontal lifting-air is displaced upward along the leading edges of contrasting air masses##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Ocean productivity largely refers to the production of organic matter by "phytoplankton". Which of the following determine the amount of phytoplankton in the ocean waters? Longitudinal variations The ocean currents Seasonality Depth variation The temperature and salinity Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Ocean productivity largely refers to the production of organic matter by "phytoplankton", plants suspended in the ocean, most of which are single-celled. Phytoplankton. They are "photoautotrophs", harvesting light to convert inorganic to organic carbon, and they supply this organic carbon to diverse "heterotrophs", organisms that obtain their energy solely from the respiration of organic matter. Longitudinal variations, the ocean currents, seasonality, depth variation, temperature and salinity all determines the amount of phytoplankton in the ocean waters.
|
d
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Ocean productivity largely refers to the production of organic matter by "phytoplankton". Which of the following determine the amount of phytoplankton in the ocean waters? Longitudinal variations The ocean currents Seasonality Depth variation The temperature and salinity Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only ###Option_B: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Ocean productivity largely refers to the production of organic matter by "phytoplankton", plants suspended in the ocean, most of which are single-celled. Phytoplankton. They are "photoautotrophs", harvesting light to convert inorganic to organic carbon, and they supply this organic carbon to diverse "heterotrophs", organisms that obtain their energy solely from the respiration of organic matter. Longitudinal variations, the ocean currents, seasonality, depth variation, temperature and salinity all determines the amount of phytoplankton in the ocean waters.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Geostrophic Winds: They blow under the influence of both the pressure gradient force and Coriolis force. These winds are free from the influence of ground friction. They flows perpendicular to the isobars. These types of air flow are possible only at higher altitudes in the atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Geostrophic winds: Air under the influence of both the pressure gradient force and Coriolis force tends to move parallel to isobars in conditions where friction is low (1000 meters above the surface of the Earth) and isobars are straight. Geostrophic winds come about because pressure gradient force and Coriolis force come into balance after the air begins to move. A geostrophic wind flows parallel to the isobars. In this model of wind flow in the Northern Hemisphere, wind begins as a flow of air perpendicular to the isobars under the primary influence of the pressure gradient force (PGF). As the movement begins, the Coriolis force (CF) begins to influence the moving air causing it to deflect to the right of its path. This deflection continues until the pressure gradient force and Coriolis force are opposite and in balance with each other.
|
c
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Geostrophic Winds: They blow under the influence of both the pressure gradient force and Coriolis force. These winds are free from the influence of ground friction. They flows perpendicular to the isobars. These types of air flow are possible only at higher altitudes in the atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Geostrophic winds: Air under the influence of both the pressure gradient force and Coriolis force tends to move parallel to isobars in conditions where friction is low (1000 meters above the surface of the Earth) and isobars are straight. Geostrophic winds come about because pressure gradient force and Coriolis force come into balance after the air begins to move. A geostrophic wind flows parallel to the isobars. In this model of wind flow in the Northern Hemisphere, wind begins as a flow of air perpendicular to the isobars under the primary influence of the pressure gradient force (PGF). As the movement begins, the Coriolis force (CF) begins to influence the moving air causing it to deflect to the right of its path. This deflection continues until the pressure gradient force and Coriolis force are opposite and in balance with each other.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs of Major mining centers of the world: Nikopol - Manganese ore - Ukraine Pittsburg - Iron ore – USA Pilbara - Iron ore – Australia Sudbury – Nickel – Canada Karaganda – Coal - Kazakhstan Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
nan
|
d
|
Infrastructure, Location factors and distribution of key natural resources across the world
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs of Major mining centers of the world: Nikopol - Manganese ore - Ukraine Pittsburg - Iron ore – USA Pilbara - Iron ore – Australia Sudbury – Nickel – Canada Karaganda – Coal - Kazakhstan Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Infrastructure, Location factors and distribution of key natural resources across the world##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following major discontinuities of Earth: Conrad - Outer and Inner Crust Mohorovicic - Crust and mantle Gutenberg - Outer and Inner Mantle Lehmann - Mantle and Core Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Earth's major discontinuities: Conrad - Outer and Inner Crust Mohorovicic - Crust and mantle Wichart - Gutenberg - Mantle and core Lehmann - Outer and Inner Core Repitte - Outer and Inner Mantle
|
a
|
The Lithosphere Interior structure of the earth, Earth’s crust, Classification of rocks.
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following major discontinuities of Earth: Conrad - Outer and Inner Crust Mohorovicic - Crust and mantle Gutenberg - Outer and Inner Mantle Lehmann - Mantle and Core Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Earth's major discontinuities: Conrad - Outer and Inner Crust Mohorovicic - Crust and mantle Wichart - Gutenberg - Mantle and core Lehmann - Outer and Inner Core Repitte - Outer and Inner Mantle##Topic:The Lithosphere Interior structure of the earth, Earth’s crust, Classification of rocks.##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following soil properties: Sandy loam in texture Deficient in Nitrogen Rich in Potash, Phosphoric Acid Fertile Which of the below given soil group represents the above properties?
|
Alluvial Soils
|
Laterite Soils
|
Black Soils
|
Alluvial Soils
|
The alluvial soils are yet immature and have weak profiles. They differ in consistency from drift sand to rich loams and from silts to stiff clays. A few occasional kankar beds are also present. The chemical composition of the alluvial soils makes this group of soils as one of the most fertile in the world. The proportion of nitrogen is generally low, but potash, phosphoric acid and alkalies are adequate, while iron oxide and lime vary within a wide range.
|
a
|
Classification of Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following soil properties: Sandy loam in texture Deficient in Nitrogen Rich in Potash, Phosphoric Acid Fertile Which of the below given soil group represents the above properties?##Option_A: Alluvial Soils###Option_B: Laterite Soils##Option_C: Black Soils##Option_D: Alluvial Soils##Answer:a##Explaination:The alluvial soils are yet immature and have weak profiles. They differ in consistency from drift sand to rich loams and from silts to stiff clays. A few occasional kankar beds are also present. The chemical composition of the alluvial soils makes this group of soils as one of the most fertile in the world. The proportion of nitrogen is generally low, but potash, phosphoric acid and alkalies are adequate, while iron oxide and lime vary within a wide range.##Topic:Classification of Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs of world peninsular regions: Yucatan Peninsula - Spain Sinai Peninsula - North eastern Egypt Kra Peninsula - Malaysia Iberian Peninsula - Mexico Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Yucatan Peninsula - Mexico Sinai Peninsula - North eastern Egypt (in news because of conflict in MENA region) Kra Peninsula - Malaysia (Major producer of Tin) Iberian Peninsula - Spain
|
c
|
Continents Major physical features
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs of world peninsular regions: Yucatan Peninsula - Spain Sinai Peninsula - North eastern Egypt Kra Peninsula - Malaysia Iberian Peninsula - Mexico Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Yucatan Peninsula - Mexico Sinai Peninsula - North eastern Egypt (in news because of conflict in MENA region) Kra Peninsula - Malaysia (Major producer of Tin) Iberian Peninsula - Spain##Topic:Continents Major physical features##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to coral reefs, consider the following statements: They are generally absent on western coast of continents. They are found at shallow, salty and muddy waters. They are also known as the Tropical Rainforests of the ocean due to its high productivity and biodiversity. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
Only 2nd statement is incorrect, rest all are correct- Coral reefs are generally found at shallow salty and mud - free water.
|
b
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to coral reefs, consider the following statements: They are generally absent on western coast of continents. They are found at shallow, salty and muddy waters. They are also known as the Tropical Rainforests of the ocean due to its high productivity and biodiversity. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Only 2nd statement is incorrect, rest all are correct- Coral reefs are generally found at shallow salty and mud - free water.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following: Trenches Ocean 1. Aleutian trench Pacific Ocean 2. Java trench Indian Ocean 3. Mariana Trench Atlantic Ocean Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Aleutian Trench is an oceanic trench along a convergent plate boundary which runs along the southern coastline of Alaska and the Aleutian islands, in the North Pacific Ocean . Java Trench , also called Sunda Double Trench, is a deep submarine depression in the eastern Indian Ocean that extends some 2,000 miles (3,200 km) in a northwest-southeast arc along the southwestern and southern Indonesian archipelago. Mariana Trench is a deep-sea trench in the floor of the western North Pacific Ocean , the deepest such trench known on Earth, located mostly east as well as south of the Mariana Islands. It is part of the western Pacific system of oceanic trenches coinciding with subduction zones.
|
a
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: Trenches Ocean 1. Aleutian trench Pacific Ocean 2. Java trench Indian Ocean 3. Mariana Trench Atlantic Ocean Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Aleutian Trench is an oceanic trench along a convergent plate boundary which runs along the southern coastline of Alaska and the Aleutian islands, in the North Pacific Ocean . Java Trench , also called Sunda Double Trench, is a deep submarine depression in the eastern Indian Ocean that extends some 2,000 miles (3,200 km) in a northwest-southeast arc along the southwestern and southern Indonesian archipelago. Mariana Trench is a deep-sea trench in the floor of the western North Pacific Ocean , the deepest such trench known on Earth, located mostly east as well as south of the Mariana Islands. It is part of the western Pacific system of oceanic trenches coinciding with subduction zones.##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the statement given below is/are correct about characteristics of igneous rocks? These rocks are solidified from molten magma. They are fossiliferrous rocks. They are granular and crystalline. These rocks are permeable and porous. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Igneous rocks are produced by the crystallization and solidification of molten magma. Some of the characteristics of igneous rocks include: These rocks are solidified from molten magma. These are not fossiliferrous rocks. They are granular and crystalline. They are generally weathered by mechanical weathering. They are generally hard and water percolate in them with great difficulty .
|
b
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the statement given below is/are correct about characteristics of igneous rocks? These rocks are solidified from molten magma. They are fossiliferrous rocks. They are granular and crystalline. These rocks are permeable and porous. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Igneous rocks are produced by the crystallization and solidification of molten magma. Some of the characteristics of igneous rocks include: These rocks are solidified from molten magma. These are not fossiliferrous rocks. They are granular and crystalline. They are generally weathered by mechanical weathering. They are generally hard and water percolate in them with great difficulty .##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regards to Global Innovation Index (GII) 2014 The theme of 2014 GII is ‘Human factor in innovation’ Political environment and infrastructure are one the parameters used by GII India is ranked lowest among the BRICS countries on GII Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Global Innovation Index 2014 (GII), in its 7th edition this year, is co-published by Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO, an agency of the United Nations, UN)
The theme of the 2014 GII, the ‘Human Factor in Innovation’, explores the role of the individuals and teams behind the innovation process. Statistically capturing this human contribution to innovation is a daunting challenge.
India slipped off 10 places to 76 th place. India is worst performer among BRICS countries. China -29, Russia 49, SA – 53, Brazil 61 (each country is moving up places except India
|
d
|
Misc. Tech.
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regards to Global Innovation Index (GII) 2014 The theme of 2014 GII is ‘Human factor in innovation’ Political environment and infrastructure are one the parameters used by GII India is ranked lowest among the BRICS countries on GII Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Global Innovation Index 2014 (GII), in its 7th edition this year, is co-published by Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO, an agency of the United Nations, UN)
The theme of the 2014 GII, the ‘Human Factor in Innovation’, explores the role of the individuals and teams behind the innovation process. Statistically capturing this human contribution to innovation is a daunting challenge.
India slipped off 10 places to 76 th place. India is worst performer among BRICS countries. China -29, Russia 49, SA – 53, Brazil 61 (each country is moving up places except India
##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Narmada Valley: It is situated between the Satpuras and the Vindhyas Ranges. It has been formed due to the subsidence of the landmass between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. Narmada River flows from east to west in it and falls into the Arabian Sea. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The valley of Narmada is situated between the Satpuras and the Vindhyas . River Narmada flows from east to west in this valley and falls into the Arabian Sea. This valley has been formed due to the subsidence of the land mass between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. Hence all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Narmada Valley: It is situated between the Satpuras and the Vindhyas Ranges. It has been formed due to the subsidence of the landmass between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. Narmada River flows from east to west in it and falls into the Arabian Sea. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The valley of Narmada is situated between the Satpuras and the Vindhyas . River Narmada flows from east to west in this valley and falls into the Arabian Sea. This valley has been formed due to the subsidence of the land mass between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. Hence all the statements are correct.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Geo-tagging: Geo-tagging is the process of adding geographical information to various media like images, audio and video. Latitude and longitude coordinates are used to locate the place where media is generated. Geo-tagging was done to identify irregularities in the construction of houses under housing schemes in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Geotagging is the process of adding geographical information to various media in the form of metadata. The data usually consists of coordinates like latitude and longitude, but may even include bearing, altitude, distance and place names. Geotagging is most commonly used for photographs and can help people get a lot of specific information about where the picture was taken or the exact location of a friend who logged on to a service. The irregularities in the construction of houses under various housing schemes, including the Rajiv Gruhakalpa scheme, would be known only after geo-tagging was done. Option A correct.
|
a
|
New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Geo-tagging: Geo-tagging is the process of adding geographical information to various media like images, audio and video. Latitude and longitude coordinates are used to locate the place where media is generated. Geo-tagging was done to identify irregularities in the construction of houses under housing schemes in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:a##Explaination:Geotagging is the process of adding geographical information to various media in the form of metadata. The data usually consists of coordinates like latitude and longitude, but may even include bearing, altitude, distance and place names. Geotagging is most commonly used for photographs and can help people get a lot of specific information about where the picture was taken or the exact location of a friend who logged on to a service. The irregularities in the construction of houses under various housing schemes, including the Rajiv Gruhakalpa scheme, would be known only after geo-tagging was done. Option A correct.##Topic:New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Fault Systems in the Himalayas: The Main Boundary Thrust marks the fault between the higher and lesser Himalayan Mountains. The fault to the south of lesser Himalaya is called the Main Central Thrust . In the Himalayan region, majority of the earthquakes occur between Main Central Thrust and Main Boundary Thrust. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The fault is in between the two major fault systems in the Himalayas - the Main Boundary Thrust and the Main Central Thrust. The two fault systems are 100-120 km apart and run as a linear belt all along the Himalayas from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh. In the Himalayan region, 90 per cent of the earthquakes occur between these two fault systems. The Main Central fault marks the boundary between the higher and lesser Himalayan Mountains. The Lesser Himalayan zone is bounded the Main Central Thrust (MCT) in the north and Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) to the south. So option C.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Fault Systems in the Himalayas: The Main Boundary Thrust marks the fault between the higher and lesser Himalayan Mountains. The fault to the south of lesser Himalaya is called the Main Central Thrust . In the Himalayan region, majority of the earthquakes occur between Main Central Thrust and Main Boundary Thrust. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The fault is in between the two major fault systems in the Himalayas - the Main Boundary Thrust and the Main Central Thrust. The two fault systems are 100-120 km apart and run as a linear belt all along the Himalayas from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh. In the Himalayan region, 90 per cent of the earthquakes occur between these two fault systems. The Main Central fault marks the boundary between the higher and lesser Himalayan Mountains. The Lesser Himalayan zone is bounded the Main Central Thrust (MCT) in the north and Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) to the south. So option C.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the abolition of untouchability by the constitution.
1. This right against untouchability is available against private individuals as well as State.
2. The term untouchability has been defined in the constitution.
3. Creation of separate colonies for untouchables with an aim of providing better amenities to them is also a practice of untouchability under article 17.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
Supreme Court held that the right under article 17 is available against private individuals and it is the constitutional obligation of the state to ensure that this right is not violated.
The term untouchability has not been defined in the constitution nor in the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. It refers to social disabilities imposed on certain classes of persons based on the reason of their birth in certain castes.
Madras High Court ruled that acquisition of land by state to create separate colonies for untouchables so as to improve their living standards will not amount to discrimination under article 17.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the abolition of untouchability by the constitution.
1. This right against untouchability is available against private individuals as well as State.
2. The term untouchability has been defined in the constitution.
3. Creation of separate colonies for untouchables with an aim of providing better amenities to them is also a practice of untouchability under article 17.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Supreme Court held that the right under article 17 is available against private individuals and it is the constitutional obligation of the state to ensure that this right is not violated.
The term untouchability has not been defined in the constitution nor in the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. It refers to social disabilities imposed on certain classes of persons based on the reason of their birth in certain castes.
Madras High Court ruled that acquisition of land by state to create separate colonies for untouchables so as to improve their living standards will not amount to discrimination under article 17.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the minorities in India: The autonomy of minority educational institutions can be taken away to improve educational standard of poorly performing institutes. The scheduled castes can also be included in the definition of minority under article 30. Minorities can be classified on national as well as state level. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The autonomy of minority education institutions cannot be taken away. So long as the minority is not deprived of the actual management of the institution, a law regulating certain matters concerning industrial relations, academic matters and the like does not infringe article 30(1).
Backward classes are not minorities under article 30(1). For example, Scheduled castes are neither a racial nor linguistic minority. They are part of the Hindu community.
At national level religious minorities like Muslims, Christians etc. exist while at the state level also minorities do exist. For example, Maharashtrian in west Bengal will be a minority.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the minorities in India: The autonomy of minority educational institutions can be taken away to improve educational standard of poorly performing institutes. The scheduled castes can also be included in the definition of minority under article 30. Minorities can be classified on national as well as state level. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
The autonomy of minority education institutions cannot be taken away. So long as the minority is not deprived of the actual management of the institution, a law regulating certain matters concerning industrial relations, academic matters and the like does not infringe article 30(1).
Backward classes are not minorities under article 30(1). For example, Scheduled castes are neither a racial nor linguistic minority. They are part of the Hindu community.
At national level religious minorities like Muslims, Christians etc. exist while at the state level also minorities do exist. For example, Maharashtrian in west Bengal will be a minority.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the freedom of religion in the constitution.
1. Institutions receiving aid from the state are completely prohibited to impart religious instruction.
2. Institutions only getting recognition from the state can give religious instructions.
3. No person shall be compelled to pay fees for the maintenance and administration of religious institutions.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
Art 28 distinguishes four types of educational institutions
1. Wholly maintained by the state
2. Administered by the state but established under a trust or endowment
3. Recognized by the state
4. Receiving aid form the state
In first type, religious instruction is completely forbidden. In second type, it is permitted. In third and fourth type, it is permitted on a voluntary basis.
Article 27 prohibits the imposition of a tax but not the fees. The purpose of fees is to provide secular administration of the religious institution and not to promote any religion. The fee is used to provide some special facilities and services to the pilgrims upon whom it is being imposed.a
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the freedom of religion in the constitution.
1. Institutions receiving aid from the state are completely prohibited to impart religious instruction.
2. Institutions only getting recognition from the state can give religious instructions.
3. No person shall be compelled to pay fees for the maintenance and administration of religious institutions.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Art 28 distinguishes four types of educational institutions
1. Wholly maintained by the state
2. Administered by the state but established under a trust or endowment
3. Recognized by the state
4. Receiving aid form the state
In first type, religious instruction is completely forbidden. In second type, it is permitted. In third and fourth type, it is permitted on a voluntary basis.
Article 27 prohibits the imposition of a tax but not the fees. The purpose of fees is to provide secular administration of the religious institution and not to promote any religion. The fee is used to provide some special facilities and services to the pilgrims upon whom it is being imposed.a
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the preventive detention.
1. Both the Parliament and state legislatures can make law on preventive detention.
2. The protection against preventive detention is available to Indian citizens only.
3. India is the only democratic country in the world to have preventive detention as a part of constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
Both parliament and state legislatures can make laws of preventive detention on subjects lying in their domain. Parliament has exclusive authority to make laws on subjects of defence, foreign affairs and security of India. While states can make laws on the security of state, maintenance of public order and maintenance of supply and services essential to the community.
India is the only democratic country in the world to have preventive detention as a part of constitution. It is colonial legacy which unfortunately found way into the constitution.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the preventive detention.
1. Both the Parliament and state legislatures can make law on preventive detention.
2. The protection against preventive detention is available to Indian citizens only.
3. India is the only democratic country in the world to have preventive detention as a part of constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Both parliament and state legislatures can make laws of preventive detention on subjects lying in their domain. Parliament has exclusive authority to make laws on subjects of defence, foreign affairs and security of India. While states can make laws on the security of state, maintenance of public order and maintenance of supply and services essential to the community.
India is the only democratic country in the world to have preventive detention as a part of constitution. It is colonial legacy which unfortunately found way into the constitution.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements. 1. Meaning of titles under Article 18 also includes titles like Bharat Ratna. 2. Persons conferred with awards like Barat Ratna, Padma Shri etc cannot use them as prefix before their names. 3. Only a citizen of India not holding an office of profit or trust under the state can accept a foreign title. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
From various judgments of Supreme courts and high courts in India a comprehensive list of rights heve emerged as being within the ambit of article 21. However, it does not include right to sleep and right to end one’s life. Although government is going to decriminalize suicide by repealing Section 309 of IPC, yet suicide is not a fundamental right under article 21.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements. 1. Meaning of titles under Article 18 also includes titles like Bharat Ratna. 2. Persons conferred with awards like Barat Ratna, Padma Shri etc cannot use them as prefix before their names. 3. Only a citizen of India not holding an office of profit or trust under the state can accept a foreign title. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 3 only##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
From various judgments of Supreme courts and high courts in India a comprehensive list of rights heve emerged as being within the ambit of article 21. However, it does not include right to sleep and right to end one’s life. Although government is going to decriminalize suicide by repealing Section 309 of IPC, yet suicide is not a fundamental right under article 21.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements.
1. Meaning of titles under Article 18 also includes titles like Bharat Ratna.
2. Persons conferred with awards like Barat Ratna, Padma Shri etc cannot use them as prefix before their names.
3. Only a citizen of India not holding an office of profit or trust under the state can accept a foreign title.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
Supreme Court in1996 ruled that the definition of titles does not include awards based on merit like Bharat Ratna etc. Article 18 includes hereditary titles of nobility. However, it ruled that such awards should not be used as suffixes or prefixes with the name of awardees. Else, they should forfeit the award.
Any citizen of India even if not holding an office of profit under state is prohibited from accepting a foreign title. However, it does not forbid the receiving of awards and honors like Leigon de honor of France or Nishane Imtiyaz of Pakistan etc.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. Meaning of titles under Article 18 also includes titles like Bharat Ratna.
2. Persons conferred with awards like Barat Ratna, Padma Shri etc cannot use them as prefix before their names.
3. Only a citizen of India not holding an office of profit or trust under the state can accept a foreign title.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Supreme Court in1996 ruled that the definition of titles does not include awards based on merit like Bharat Ratna etc. Article 18 includes hereditary titles of nobility. However, it ruled that such awards should not be used as suffixes or prefixes with the name of awardees. Else, they should forfeit the award.
Any citizen of India even if not holding an office of profit under state is prohibited from accepting a foreign title. However, it does not forbid the receiving of awards and honors like Leigon de honor of France or Nishane Imtiyaz of Pakistan etc.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which among the following actions are not violative of the right to equality provided in the constitution?
|
nbsp; Social boycott of few individuals.
|
nbsp; Grant of exemption from taxation to Public sector Employees.
|
nbsp; Allotment of extra marks in admissions to a medical course based on the participation in NCC of candidate.
|
nbsp; Social boycott of few individuals.
|
Social boycott of few individuals does not count as practice of untouchability, which is social disability imposed on certain classes of persons by reason of their birth in certain castes and the practice that has developed historically.
Grant of exemption from tax to public sector employees is valid unless it is not arbitrary.
MP High court ruled that allotment of extra marks for participation in NCC in admission to PG Medical course was arbitrary and void, because- it had no nexus with object of selection, all institutions do not have NCC facilities, the rule did not provide for any level of achievement by the candidate.
Allotment through lottery is valid as it is not considered as arbitrary.
Denial of benefits to migrating members of SCs and STs is not violative of article 14.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following actions are not violative of the right to equality provided in the constitution?
##Option_A:nbsp; Social boycott of few individuals.
###Option_B:nbsp; Grant of exemption from taxation to Public sector Employees.
##Option_C:nbsp; Allotment of extra marks in admissions to a medical course based on the participation in NCC of candidate.
##Option_D:nbsp; Social boycott of few individuals.
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Social boycott of few individuals does not count as practice of untouchability, which is social disability imposed on certain classes of persons by reason of their birth in certain castes and the practice that has developed historically.
Grant of exemption from tax to public sector employees is valid unless it is not arbitrary.
MP High court ruled that allotment of extra marks for participation in NCC in admission to PG Medical course was arbitrary and void, because- it had no nexus with object of selection, all institutions do not have NCC facilities, the rule did not provide for any level of achievement by the candidate.
Allotment through lottery is valid as it is not considered as arbitrary.
Denial of benefits to migrating members of SCs and STs is not violative of article 14.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding judicial review.
1. Only a law that seeks to implement the provisions of Article 39(b) and 39(c), if in contravention with fundamental rights will be beyond judicial review.
2. A law for acquisition of the estates by the state government is beyond judicial review only if it has received President’s assent.
3. All the laws that are placed in the 9 th schedule of the constitution before the Kesavananda Bharati Judgment of SC are beyond the judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
In Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973, SC held the second provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional, which aimed to eliminate the judicial review of the laws made for the implementation of 39(b) and 39(c).
Acquisition of estates by the state governments under article 31B is saved from judicial review only if the law for such an action has been kept for the consideration of President and has received his assent.
SC court in 2007 ruled that there can be no blanket immunity to laws in ninth schedule from judicial review and the laws paced in the ninth schedule post Kesavananda Bharati judgment are open to challenge in court if they violate fundamental rights under art 14, 15, 19 and 21.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding judicial review.
1. Only a law that seeks to implement the provisions of Article 39(b) and 39(c), if in contravention with fundamental rights will be beyond judicial review.
2. A law for acquisition of the estates by the state government is beyond judicial review only if it has received President’s assent.
3. All the laws that are placed in the 9 th schedule of the constitution before the Kesavananda Bharati Judgment of SC are beyond the judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
In Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973, SC held the second provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional, which aimed to eliminate the judicial review of the laws made for the implementation of 39(b) and 39(c).
Acquisition of estates by the state governments under article 31B is saved from judicial review only if the law for such an action has been kept for the consideration of President and has received his assent.
SC court in 2007 ruled that there can be no blanket immunity to laws in ninth schedule from judicial review and the laws paced in the ninth schedule post Kesavananda Bharati judgment are open to challenge in court if they violate fundamental rights under art 14, 15, 19 and 21.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding citizenship in India: Citizenship Act mentions the fundamental rights which are available exclusively to citizens. Possession of passport of another country by a person is indicative of another country"s citizenship and is sufficient proof to terminate his Indian citizenship. In India only a citizen by birth is eligible for president-ship while in US naturalized citizen is also eligible. Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Constitution and not Citizenship Act mentions the fundamental rights that are available to citizens and not aliens.
Mere proof of the fact that the person has obtained a passport of another country is not sufficient to sustain an order for deportation or prosecution, unless there has been a decision of the central government under section 9(2) of the Citizenship Act.
In India both naturalized and citizen by birth is eligible for office of president but in USA only a citizen by birth is eligible for the office of president.
|
d
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding citizenship in India: Citizenship Act mentions the fundamental rights which are available exclusively to citizens. Possession of passport of another country by a person is indicative of another country"s citizenship and is sufficient proof to terminate his Indian citizenship. In India only a citizen by birth is eligible for president-ship while in US naturalized citizen is also eligible. Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Constitution and not Citizenship Act mentions the fundamental rights that are available to citizens and not aliens.
Mere proof of the fact that the person has obtained a passport of another country is not sufficient to sustain an order for deportation or prosecution, unless there has been a decision of the central government under section 9(2) of the Citizenship Act.
In India both naturalized and citizen by birth is eligible for office of president but in USA only a citizen by birth is eligible for the office of president.
##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the citizenship in India. The question whether a person has lost his/her citizenship by acquisition of citizenship of foreign state is determined by the central government. A person whose citizenship is lost can approach the Supreme Court under article 32. Only central government and not state government is empowered to decide upon the methods through which citizenship is acquired or lost. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : Central government is vested by section 9(2) of the Citizenship Act, with exclusive jurisdiction to determine the question whether a person has lost his citizenship b acquiring citizenship of a foreign state. Statement 2 is incorrect : Because this question cannot be determined by any court either by suit or in a proceeding under article 226 or 32. Statement 3 is also incorrect : As per Article 11, only Parliament has the power to make any provision with respect to acquisition and loss of citizenship. Neither central nor state governments can make provisions regarding it.
|
a
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the citizenship in India. The question whether a person has lost his/her citizenship by acquisition of citizenship of foreign state is determined by the central government. A person whose citizenship is lost can approach the Supreme Court under article 32. Only central government and not state government is empowered to decide upon the methods through which citizenship is acquired or lost. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : Central government is vested by section 9(2) of the Citizenship Act, with exclusive jurisdiction to determine the question whether a person has lost his citizenship b acquiring citizenship of a foreign state. Statement 2 is incorrect : Because this question cannot be determined by any court either by suit or in a proceeding under article 226 or 32. Statement 3 is also incorrect : As per Article 11, only Parliament has the power to make any provision with respect to acquisition and loss of citizenship. Neither central nor state governments can make provisions regarding it.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about cooperative societies.
1. The right to form a cooperative society is a fundamental right.
2. Cooperative societies come under the ambit of RTI Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; Both 1 & 2
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
Ninety Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 has made forming cooperative societies a fundamental right under Article 19(c).
As per SC ruling Cooperative Societies are, of course, subject to the control of the statutory authorities like Registrar, Joint Registrar, the Government, etc. but cannot be said that the State exercises any direct or indirect control over the affairs of the society which is deep and all pervasive. Supervisory or general regulation under the statute over the co-operative societies, which are body corporate does not render activities of the body so regulated as subject to such control of the State so as to bring it within the meaning of the State or instrumentality of the State. It is not a public authority and hence out of the ambit of RTI.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about cooperative societies.
1. The right to form a cooperative society is a fundamental right.
2. Cooperative societies come under the ambit of RTI Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; Both 1 & 2
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Ninety Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 has made forming cooperative societies a fundamental right under Article 19(c).
As per SC ruling Cooperative Societies are, of course, subject to the control of the statutory authorities like Registrar, Joint Registrar, the Government, etc. but cannot be said that the State exercises any direct or indirect control over the affairs of the society which is deep and all pervasive. Supervisory or general regulation under the statute over the co-operative societies, which are body corporate does not render activities of the body so regulated as subject to such control of the State so as to bring it within the meaning of the State or instrumentality of the State. It is not a public authority and hence out of the ambit of RTI.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about "Union of States" mentioned in Article 1. The union of states includes only the states and not the union territories. "Territory of India" as mentioned in Article 1 is a wider term than Union of states. Union of States indicates that India is not the result of an agreement between the states to join together. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Art 1 describes India as a union of states rather than the federation of states. Union of states includes only the states and not UTs. While according to Art 1, the territory of India includes territories of the states, UTs and the territories that may be acquired by the Government of India any time.
Use of union of states instead of federation of states indicates that Indian federation is not result of an agreement among the states and the states have no right to secede from the federation.
|
d
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about "Union of States" mentioned in Article 1. The union of states includes only the states and not the union territories. "Territory of India" as mentioned in Article 1 is a wider term than Union of states. Union of States indicates that India is not the result of an agreement between the states to join together. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Art 1 describes India as a union of states rather than the federation of states. Union of states includes only the states and not UTs. While according to Art 1, the territory of India includes territories of the states, UTs and the territories that may be acquired by the Government of India any time.
Use of union of states instead of federation of states indicates that Indian federation is not result of an agreement among the states and the states have no right to secede from the federation.
##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following provisions of the constitution.
|
nbsp; The elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
|
nbsp; No person shall be deprived of his property except by the authority of law.
|
nbsp; Freedom of speech and expression for every citizen of the country.
|
nbsp; The elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
|
Few provisions explicitly indicate a secular character of the state while in other provisions it is implicit, although all the rights are secular in nature. The Sapru Report (1945) described fundamental rights as a warning to all that what constitution demands and expects is perfect equality between one section of the community with another in the matter of political and civic rights, equality of liberty and security in the enjoyment of the freedom of religion, worship, and the pursuit of ordinary applications of life. Thus, fundamental rights as a whole establish a secular character of the state.
However, certain legal rights like right to vote also establish a secular character of the state, which is evident with recent controversy regarding the voting rights of the minorities.
At the same time provisions 2 & 5 can also be considered as promoting secularism, however, they do not essentially aim to establish a secular polity.
|
b
|
Working of the political system
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following provisions of the constitution.
##Option_A:nbsp; The elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
###Option_B:nbsp; No person shall be deprived of his property except by the authority of law.
##Option_C:nbsp; Freedom of speech and expression for every citizen of the country.
##Option_D:nbsp; The elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Few provisions explicitly indicate a secular character of the state while in other provisions it is implicit, although all the rights are secular in nature. The Sapru Report (1945) described fundamental rights as a warning to all that what constitution demands and expects is perfect equality between one section of the community with another in the matter of political and civic rights, equality of liberty and security in the enjoyment of the freedom of religion, worship, and the pursuit of ordinary applications of life. Thus, fundamental rights as a whole establish a secular character of the state.
However, certain legal rights like right to vote also establish a secular character of the state, which is evident with recent controversy regarding the voting rights of the minorities.
At the same time provisions 2 & 5 can also be considered as promoting secularism, however, they do not essentially aim to establish a secular polity.
##Topic:Working of the political system##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following features are visible during the youth stage of a river? Gorges V – shaped valleys Meanders Rapids Floodplains Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The gorges, V – shaped valleys, waterfalls, rapids and steep spurs are the characteristics of youth stage (these are upper-course river features).
Meander, ox-bow lakes, levees and floodplains are the features of mature stage or Middle-course river features.
While Monadnock, gentle slopes and featureless plains are the characteistics of old stage or lower-course river features.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following features are visible during the youth stage of a river? Gorges V – shaped valleys Meanders Rapids Floodplains Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
The gorges, V – shaped valleys, waterfalls, rapids and steep spurs are the characteristics of youth stage (these are upper-course river features).
Meander, ox-bow lakes, levees and floodplains are the features of mature stage or Middle-course river features.
While Monadnock, gentle slopes and featureless plains are the characteistics of old stage or lower-course river features.
##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following environmental conditions are favorable to temperature inversion?
Calm winds
Clear skies
Long nights
Saturated air
Ice covered surface
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Temperature inversion is reversal of normal temperature pattern so that air temperature increases with altitude.
Conditions favorable to temperature inversion:
Calm winds will reduce vertical mixing.
Clear skies will increase rate of surface cooling.
Longer nights will provide greater duration of cooling.
Inversion is more common in winter due to longer nights and Inversions are stronger in winter because of the greater difference in temperature between the cool surface air and the warmer air aloft.
A very low angle of the sun in the sky (as in winter)
Less daytime heating of air close to the ground and surface.
Dry air instead of saturated air is favorable to temperature inversion.
|
c
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following environmental conditions are favorable to temperature inversion?
Calm winds
Clear skies
Long nights
Saturated air
Ice covered surface
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:Temperature inversion is reversal of normal temperature pattern so that air temperature increases with altitude.
Conditions favorable to temperature inversion:
Calm winds will reduce vertical mixing.
Clear skies will increase rate of surface cooling.
Longer nights will provide greater duration of cooling.
Inversion is more common in winter due to longer nights and Inversions are stronger in winter because of the greater difference in temperature between the cool surface air and the warmer air aloft.
A very low angle of the sun in the sky (as in winter)
Less daytime heating of air close to the ground and surface.
Dry air instead of saturated air is favorable to temperature inversion.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the wave - motion generated by an earthquake. P-waves are longitudinal waves and can travel in solid, liquid and gaseous media. S-waves are transverse waves and can travel only in solid media. Both P and S-waves have short wavelength and high frequency. L-waves are longitudinal vibrations and confined to the outer skin of the crust. Which of the statements given above is are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The main type of wave - motion generated by an earthquake include: P waves are longitudinal waves (similar to sound waves) and can travel in solid, liquid and gaseous media. S waves are transverse waves (similar to Light and other types of electromagnetic waves) and can travel only in solid media. In comparison to primary waves, they are slow in motion. P and S both waves have short wavelength and high frequency . L waves are transverse vibrations and confined to the outer skin of the crust. They are also known as surface waves or Rayleigh waves. They have low velocity, low frequency, and long wavelength.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the wave - motion generated by an earthquake. P-waves are longitudinal waves and can travel in solid, liquid and gaseous media. S-waves are transverse waves and can travel only in solid media. Both P and S-waves have short wavelength and high frequency. L-waves are longitudinal vibrations and confined to the outer skin of the crust. Which of the statements given above is are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The main type of wave - motion generated by an earthquake include: P waves are longitudinal waves (similar to sound waves) and can travel in solid, liquid and gaseous media. S waves are transverse waves (similar to Light and other types of electromagnetic waves) and can travel only in solid media. In comparison to primary waves, they are slow in motion. P and S both waves have short wavelength and high frequency . L waves are transverse vibrations and confined to the outer skin of the crust. They are also known as surface waves or Rayleigh waves. They have low velocity, low frequency, and long wavelength.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following evidences strengthened the idea of "Continental-drift"? Similarity in fossil contents Ocean gyre Development of mid-oceanic ridges Palaeo-magnetism Polar-wandering Development of fold-mountains and island arcs Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 6 only
|
1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 6 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 6 only
|
Except ocean gyre all strengthened the idea of 'Continental-drift'. An ocean gyre is a large system of circular ocean currents formed by global wind patterns and forces created by Earth's rotation. According to the studies on Palaeo-magnetism , it is possible to find out the direction and dip of the earth's magnetic field during different geological periods. It has been observed that the pole positions of the present globe are different during the geological past and by joining these poles a curve is obtained which is known as polar wandering curve . It is seen that the polar wandering curves drawn for different continents are not parallel or sympathetic, which confirms 'Continental- drift'.
|
b
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following evidences strengthened the idea of "Continental-drift"? Similarity in fossil contents Ocean gyre Development of mid-oceanic ridges Palaeo-magnetism Polar-wandering Development of fold-mountains and island arcs Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 6 only###Option_B: 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only##Option_C: 1, 3, 4 and 6 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 6 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Except ocean gyre all strengthened the idea of 'Continental-drift'. An ocean gyre is a large system of circular ocean currents formed by global wind patterns and forces created by Earth's rotation. According to the studies on Palaeo-magnetism , it is possible to find out the direction and dip of the earth's magnetic field during different geological periods. It has been observed that the pole positions of the present globe are different during the geological past and by joining these poles a curve is obtained which is known as polar wandering curve . It is seen that the polar wandering curves drawn for different continents are not parallel or sympathetic, which confirms 'Continental- drift'.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about different types of Population Pyramids. Expansive pyramids typically represent populations with high fertility rates and below-average life expectancies. Constrictive pyramids reflect populations with a large number of adults and a longer average life expectancy. Stationary pyramids display somewhat equal numbers or percentages for almost all age groups. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
There are generally three types of population pyramids created from age-sex distributions- expansive, constrictive and stationary.
Expansive pyramids : These types of pyramids are usually found in populations with very large fertility rates and lower than average life expectancies. The age-sex distributions of Latin American and many Third World countries would probably display expansive population pyramids.
Constrictive pyramids: These pyramids typically reflect populations with a large number of adults and a longer average life expectancy, like those found in the United States and some European countries.
Stationary pyramids: These pyramids usually reflect nations with a very even age/sex distribution. Several European countries fall under this population model.
Hence all three statements are correct.
|
d
|
World: Population , Distribution & Density , Races & Tribes , Settlement & Migration
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about different types of Population Pyramids. Expansive pyramids typically represent populations with high fertility rates and below-average life expectancies. Constrictive pyramids reflect populations with a large number of adults and a longer average life expectancy. Stationary pyramids display somewhat equal numbers or percentages for almost all age groups. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
There are generally three types of population pyramids created from age-sex distributions- expansive, constrictive and stationary.
Expansive pyramids : These types of pyramids are usually found in populations with very large fertility rates and lower than average life expectancies. The age-sex distributions of Latin American and many Third World countries would probably display expansive population pyramids.
Constrictive pyramids: These pyramids typically reflect populations with a large number of adults and a longer average life expectancy, like those found in the United States and some European countries.
Stationary pyramids: These pyramids usually reflect nations with a very even age/sex distribution. Several European countries fall under this population model.
Hence all three statements are correct.
##Topic:World: Population , Distribution & Density , Races & Tribes , Settlement & Migration##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: They are partially enclosed coastal body of water where the salty tidal water mixes with the fresh water of the river. They are biologically highly productive zones. They act as a filter for some dissolved constituents in river water. The rivers flowing into Arabian sea form estuaries whereas the rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal make deltas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct about "Estuaries"?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Estuary : A partially enclosed coastal body of water where the salty tidal water mixes with the fresh water of the river. e.g. Narmada river makes an estuary. The banks of estuarine channels form a favoured location for human settlements, which use the estuaries for fishing and commerce. Estuaries are usually biologically highly productive zones. They also act as a filter for some dissolved constituents in river water; these precipitate in the zone where river water meets seawater. The rivers flowing into Arabian sea form estuaries whereas the rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal make deltas. Delta : A triangular shaped land at the mouth of a river formed from the deposition of silt, sand and small rocks that flow downstream in the river. e.g. Ganga delta.
|
d
|
Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: They are partially enclosed coastal body of water where the salty tidal water mixes with the fresh water of the river. They are biologically highly productive zones. They act as a filter for some dissolved constituents in river water. The rivers flowing into Arabian sea form estuaries whereas the rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal make deltas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct about "Estuaries"?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Estuary : A partially enclosed coastal body of water where the salty tidal water mixes with the fresh water of the river. e.g. Narmada river makes an estuary. The banks of estuarine channels form a favoured location for human settlements, which use the estuaries for fishing and commerce. Estuaries are usually biologically highly productive zones. They also act as a filter for some dissolved constituents in river water; these precipitate in the zone where river water meets seawater. The rivers flowing into Arabian sea form estuaries whereas the rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal make deltas. Delta : A triangular shaped land at the mouth of a river formed from the deposition of silt, sand and small rocks that flow downstream in the river. e.g. Ganga delta.##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following indicate the non-federal nature of Indian polity?
Election of President.
Representation to states in Rajya Sabha based on their population.
Flexibility in the amendment of the constitution.
Impeachment of President.
Appointment of judges of High Courts.
Three Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
Select the correct answers:
|
1, 4, 5 and 6 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 4, 5 and 6 only
|
Non-federal nature of Indian polity means that there is a bias towards the centre in the distribution of powers and functions or there is disparity in the interests of the states.
In the election of President Council of states as well as state legislative assemblies participate, hence, it is a federal feature.
Unequal representation of states based on their population is against the interest of small states. Equal representation of states irrespective of population is practiced in true federations like USA.
Most of the provisions of the constitution can be easily amended by the parliament with simple or special majority. Hence, it is not a federal feature.
In the impeachment of President only the Parliament participates. Although, Council of states participates, due to unequal representation of states, the states don’t have equal say in the removal of the president. Hence, it is a non federal feature.
Appointment of Judges of the High Courts will now be done by the NJAC which will not have any representative of the states. Moreover, the opinion of the Chief Justice of High Court and the governor is not binding on the NJAC. Hence, it is also a non federal feature.
Distribution of powers and functions between centre and states through creation of lists is a federal feature.
Hence, c is the correct option.
|
c
|
Political systems: concepts, forms and types
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following indicate the non-federal nature of Indian polity?
Election of President.
Representation to states in Rajya Sabha based on their population.
Flexibility in the amendment of the constitution.
Impeachment of President.
Appointment of judges of High Courts.
Three Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
Select the correct answers:##Option_A:1, 4, 5 and 6 only###Option_B:2, 4 and 5 only##Option_C:2, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_D:1, 4, 5 and 6 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Non-federal nature of Indian polity means that there is a bias towards the centre in the distribution of powers and functions or there is disparity in the interests of the states.
In the election of President Council of states as well as state legislative assemblies participate, hence, it is a federal feature.
Unequal representation of states based on their population is against the interest of small states. Equal representation of states irrespective of population is practiced in true federations like USA.
Most of the provisions of the constitution can be easily amended by the parliament with simple or special majority. Hence, it is not a federal feature.
In the impeachment of President only the Parliament participates. Although, Council of states participates, due to unequal representation of states, the states don’t have equal say in the removal of the president. Hence, it is a non federal feature.
Appointment of Judges of the High Courts will now be done by the NJAC which will not have any representative of the states. Moreover, the opinion of the Chief Justice of High Court and the governor is not binding on the NJAC. Hence, it is also a non federal feature.
Distribution of powers and functions between centre and states through creation of lists is a federal feature.
Hence, c is the correct option.
##Topic:Political systems: concepts, forms and types##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following types of bills require prior recommendation of the President before being introduced in the Parliament? A bill regarding the custody of Contingency Fund of India. A bill to amend the fundamental rights in the constitution. A bill to change the name of any state. A bill that seeks to impose surcharge on a tax for the purpose of centre. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
A bill regarding the custody of contingency fund of India is a money bill and hence needs prior recommendation of the president.
A Constitutional amendment bill does not need prior recommendation of the President.
A bill that seeks to change the name of the state or any other change under Article 3 can be introduced after recommendation of the president.
A bill that seeks to impose surcharge on a duty or tax for the purpose of centre can be introduced after the recommendation of the president.
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following types of bills require prior recommendation of the President before being introduced in the Parliament? A bill regarding the custody of Contingency Fund of India. A bill to amend the fundamental rights in the constitution. A bill to change the name of any state. A bill that seeks to impose surcharge on a tax for the purpose of centre. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
A bill regarding the custody of contingency fund of India is a money bill and hence needs prior recommendation of the president.
A Constitutional amendment bill does not need prior recommendation of the President.
A bill that seeks to change the name of the state or any other change under Article 3 can be introduced after recommendation of the president.
A bill that seeks to impose surcharge on a duty or tax for the purpose of centre can be introduced after the recommendation of the president.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the President of India.
1. Disputes regarding the election of the President are referred to the Election commission Of India.
2. President resigns by submitting his resignation to the Chief Justice of India.
3. A bill for the impeachment of President should be passed by a special majority by both the houses of parliment.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
Disputes and doubts regarding the election of President are referred to the SC whose decision on the matter is final.
President resigns by submitting his resignation to the Vice-President.
A bill for impeachment of President is to be passed by both the houses with two-third majority of the total membership of the house. Any majority which is not a simple majority is considered as special majority, hence the statement 3 is correct.
|
a
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the President of India.
1. Disputes regarding the election of the President are referred to the Election commission Of India.
2. President resigns by submitting his resignation to the Chief Justice of India.
3. A bill for the impeachment of President should be passed by a special majority by both the houses of parliment.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Disputes and doubts regarding the election of President are referred to the SC whose decision on the matter is final.
President resigns by submitting his resignation to the Vice-President.
A bill for impeachment of President is to be passed by both the houses with two-third majority of the total membership of the house. Any majority which is not a simple majority is considered as special majority, hence the statement 3 is correct.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Amendment to which of the following provisions of the constitution do not need the consent of at least half of the state legislative assemblies?
|
nbsp; Amendment in the Fifth and Sixth Schedule.
|
nbsp; Representation of states in Parliament.
|
nbsp; Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
|
nbsp; Amendment in the Fifth and Sixth Schedule.
|
Only the provision regarding representation of states in Parliament need the approval of state legislatures along with special majority in both the houses of the parliament.
Amendment of fundamental rights requires special majority in both the houses but does not need the assent of states.
Rest of the provisions need simple majority of both the houses of parliament.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Amendment to which of the following provisions of the constitution do not need the consent of at least half of the state legislative assemblies?##Option_A:nbsp; Amendment in the Fifth and Sixth Schedule.###Option_B:nbsp; Representation of states in Parliament.##Option_C:nbsp; Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.##Option_D:nbsp; Amendment in the Fifth and Sixth Schedule.##Answer:d##Explaination:
Only the provision regarding representation of states in Parliament need the approval of state legislatures along with special majority in both the houses of the parliament.
Amendment of fundamental rights requires special majority in both the houses but does not need the assent of states.
Rest of the provisions need simple majority of both the houses of parliament.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties. 1. A citizen cannot be forced to follow fundamental duty through the method of writs. 2. Fundamental duties only have moral sanction and are non-justiciable. 3. Fundamental duties also put moral obligation on the state to follow them. Which among the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
Provision of fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be promoted only through constitutional methods. But they can be used to interpret ambiguous statutes.
Presently Fundamental Duties are not justiciable and cannot be enforced by the courts. However, parliament is empowered to make them legally enforceable through a law, which it has not done till date.
On the principle that duties are obligatory on citizens, state should also observe them. SC has in the light of Art 51A has issued directions to state to protect environment and forests.
|
d
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties. 1. A citizen cannot be forced to follow fundamental duty through the method of writs. 2. Fundamental duties only have moral sanction and are non-justiciable. 3. Fundamental duties also put moral obligation on the state to follow them. Which among the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 3 only##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Provision of fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be promoted only through constitutional methods. But they can be used to interpret ambiguous statutes.
Presently Fundamental Duties are not justiciable and cannot be enforced by the courts. However, parliament is empowered to make them legally enforceable through a law, which it has not done till date.
On the principle that duties are obligatory on citizens, state should also observe them. SC has in the light of Art 51A has issued directions to state to protect environment and forests.
##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the imposition of Martial Law in the country.
|
nbsp; Its provisions are not explicitly provided in the constitution.
|
nbsp; Its purpose is only to maintain or restore order in any area of the country.
|
nbsp; For its effective implementation the writ of habeas corpus is automatically suspended.
|
nbsp; Its provisions are not explicitly provided in the constitution.
|
Article 34 is primarily concerned with granting indemnity by law in respect of acts done during the operation of martial law. The constitution does not have a provision authorizing proclamation of martial law. It is implicit.
As per the text of the article 34 it is evident that the purpose of the martial law is only to maintain or restore order in the area affected. Hence, it does not serve any other purpose.
SC held that declaration of martial law does not ispo facto result in suspension of writ of habeas corpus.
When martial law is in force in an area, the civilian government and ordinary law courts cease to be in force. The government is run by the military authorities as per their rules and regulations.
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the imposition of Martial Law in the country.
##Option_A:nbsp; Its provisions are not explicitly provided in the constitution.
###Option_B:nbsp; Its purpose is only to maintain or restore order in any area of the country.
##Option_C:nbsp; For its effective implementation the writ of habeas corpus is automatically suspended.
##Option_D:nbsp; Its provisions are not explicitly provided in the constitution.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Article 34 is primarily concerned with granting indemnity by law in respect of acts done during the operation of martial law. The constitution does not have a provision authorizing proclamation of martial law. It is implicit.
As per the text of the article 34 it is evident that the purpose of the martial law is only to maintain or restore order in the area affected. Hence, it does not serve any other purpose.
SC held that declaration of martial law does not ispo facto result in suspension of writ of habeas corpus.
When martial law is in force in an area, the civilian government and ordinary law courts cease to be in force. The government is run by the military authorities as per their rules and regulations.
##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With regard to the Directive Principles of State Policy(DPSP), consider the following statements: The Courts can declare a law in violation of the DPSP to be void and invalid. There are directives to the state outside Part IV as well. They are based on the "Objectives Resolution" adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Courts cannot declare a law violative of DPSP to be invalid or void unlike fundamental rights because DPSPs are moral obligation on the state and are not legally binding. However, courts can uphold a law violative of a fundamental right if it seeks to implement a DPSP. There are directives outside Part IV as well. They are mentioned in Articles 335, 350A & 351. Preamble is based on Objectives Resolution drafted by Nehru and adopted by Constituent Assembly. DPSP resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act, 1935.
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the Directive Principles of State Policy(DPSP), consider the following statements: The Courts can declare a law in violation of the DPSP to be void and invalid. There are directives to the state outside Part IV as well. They are based on the "Objectives Resolution" adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Courts cannot declare a law violative of DPSP to be invalid or void unlike fundamental rights because DPSPs are moral obligation on the state and are not legally binding. However, courts can uphold a law violative of a fundamental right if it seeks to implement a DPSP. There are directives outside Part IV as well. They are mentioned in Articles 335, 350A & 351. Preamble is based on Objectives Resolution drafted by Nehru and adopted by Constituent Assembly. DPSP resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act, 1935.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the office of Vice-President. 1. Election to fill the vacancy in case of sudden demise of Vice-President is to be conducted within six months. 2. Elected members of both the houses of parliament form the Electoral College for election of Vice-President. 3. A motion for removal of Vice-President cannot be taken up in Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 & 2 only
|
2 & 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 & 2 only
|
Election to fill the vacancy in case of death, removal or resignation should be conducted as soon as possible. However, no time frame is given for the same.
Both the nominated and elected members of the parliament form the electoral college for election of Vice-president.
A motion for removal of vice-president can be taken up only in Rajya Sabha, which must be passed by it with a special majority and agreed by Lok Sabha with simple majority.
|
c
|
Vice President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the office of Vice-President. 1. Election to fill the vacancy in case of sudden demise of Vice-President is to be conducted within six months. 2. Elected members of both the houses of parliament form the Electoral College for election of Vice-President. 3. A motion for removal of Vice-President cannot be taken up in Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 & 2 only###Option_B:2 & 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 & 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Election to fill the vacancy in case of death, removal or resignation should be conducted as soon as possible. However, no time frame is given for the same.
Both the nominated and elected members of the parliament form the electoral college for election of Vice-president.
A motion for removal of vice-president can be taken up only in Rajya Sabha, which must be passed by it with a special majority and agreed by Lok Sabha with simple majority.
##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the grants under article 282.
1. States can make discretionary grants to other states
2. States can make discretionary grants to the centre
3. Both Centre and states can make grants only for purposes within their legislative competence
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
Article 282 empowers both the centre and the states to make any grants for any public purposes even if it is not within their legislative competence. The practice is that centre gives discretionary grants to states. However, states are empowered to provide grants to other states as well as centre.
|
b
|
Center-State Financial Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the grants under article 282.
1. States can make discretionary grants to other states
2. States can make discretionary grants to the centre
3. Both Centre and states can make grants only for purposes within their legislative competence
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Article 282 empowers both the centre and the states to make any grants for any public purposes even if it is not within their legislative competence. The practice is that centre gives discretionary grants to states. However, states are empowered to provide grants to other states as well as centre.
##Topic:Center-State Financial Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the statements given below is/are correct? The Earth"s rotation creates the Coriolis effect. The Coriolis force deflects wind motion, making air spiral around cyclones and anticyclones. Cyclones are centers of low pressure and divergence. Anticyclones are centers of high pressure and convergence. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Coriolis effect: Effect of the earth's rotation that acts like a force to deflect a moving object on the Earth’s surface to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The Coriolis force is zero right at the equator and becomes a maximum at the poles . Cyclones are centers of low pressure and convergence while Anticyclones are centers of high pressure and divergence .
|
a
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the statements given below is/are correct? The Earth"s rotation creates the Coriolis effect. The Coriolis force deflects wind motion, making air spiral around cyclones and anticyclones. Cyclones are centers of low pressure and divergence. Anticyclones are centers of high pressure and convergence. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Coriolis effect: Effect of the earth's rotation that acts like a force to deflect a moving object on the Earth’s surface to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The Coriolis force is zero right at the equator and becomes a maximum at the poles . Cyclones are centers of low pressure and convergence while Anticyclones are centers of high pressure and divergence .##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
India shares land borders with seven countries. Arrange them in ascending order according to their length. 1. Bangladesh 2. Nepal 3. Afghanistan 4. Myanmar 5. Pakistan 6. Bhutan 7. China Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3, 6, 2, 4, 7, 5, 1
|
3, 6, 4, 2, 5, 7, 1
|
3, 2, 6, 7, 4, 5, 1
|
3, 6, 2, 4, 7, 5, 1
|
Name of the Country Length of Border (Km.) Afghanistan 106 Bhutan 699 Myanmar 1643 Nepal 1751 Pakistan 3323 China 3488 Bangladesh 4096.7
|
b
|
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India shares land borders with seven countries. Arrange them in ascending order according to their length. 1. Bangladesh 2. Nepal 3. Afghanistan 4. Myanmar 5. Pakistan 6. Bhutan 7. China Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:3, 6, 2, 4, 7, 5, 1 ###Option_B:3, 6, 4, 2, 5, 7, 1##Option_C:3, 2, 6, 7, 4, 5, 1 ##Option_D:3, 6, 2, 4, 7, 5, 1 ##Answer:b##Explaination: Name of the Country Length of Border (Km.) Afghanistan 106 Bhutan 699 Myanmar 1643 Nepal 1751 Pakistan 3323 China 3488 Bangladesh 4096.7 ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements.
1. The Leader of the house and Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha are mentioned in the statute.
2. Office of Whip is mentioned in the Rules of respective houses.
3. The Secretarial staff for each house of Parliament is provided by the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 3 only
1, 2 & 3 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The Leader of the House in Lok Sabha is mentioned in the Rules of Lok Sabha while the Leader of Opposition has been granted statutory status since 1977.
Office of Whip is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Art 98 provides that each house shall have its own secretarial staff.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. The Leader of the house and Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha are mentioned in the statute.
2. Office of Whip is mentioned in the Rules of respective houses.
3. The Secretarial staff for each house of Parliament is provided by the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 3 only
1, 2 & 3 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Leader of the House in Lok Sabha is mentioned in the Rules of Lok Sabha while the Leader of Opposition has been granted statutory status since 1977.
Office of Whip is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Art 98 provides that each house shall have its own secretarial staff.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements.
1. A candidate for election to the Lok Sabha can be an elector of any constituency in India.
2. Representative of states in Rajya Sabha should be an elector of any constituency in that state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; Both 1 and 2
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
According to RPA, 1951 a candidate must be a registered elector in any parliamentary constituency of India. The condition that a member of Rajya Sabha must be an elector in that particular state was done away in 2003.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. A candidate for election to the Lok Sabha can be an elector of any constituency in India.
2. Representative of states in Rajya Sabha should be an elector of any constituency in that state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; Both 1 and 2
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
According to RPA, 1951 a candidate must be a registered elector in any parliamentary constituency of India. The condition that a member of Rajya Sabha must be an elector in that particular state was done away in 2003.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following elements can influence the impacts of surface albedo? Surface colour Angle of incidence Surface texture Particulates in the atmosphere Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
Albedo implies the proportion of the shortwave solar radiation reflected by a surface.
It is a function of s urface colour, angle of incidence, and surface texture etc .
In the visible wavelengths, darker colors have lower albedos, and lighter colors higher albedos. On water surfaces, the angle of the solar rays also affects albedo values.
Lower angles produce a greater reflection than do higher angles. In addition, smooth surfaces increase albedo, whereas rougher surfaces reduce it. In general, light surfaces are more reflective than dark surfaces and thus have higher albedo values.
Particulates in the atmosphere appear to enhance this albedo impact. Scientists now have evidence that soot and particulate aerosol fallout are significant causes of glacial snow and ice losses across the Himalayas.
On the Greenland Ice Sheet, black soot, dust, and particulates accumulate with snow and harden into the ice, darkening the surface. As surface albedo decreases, ice absorbs more insolation, and increased melting causes soot to become even more concentrated and darker. The stack emissions from Arctic shipping produce similar impacts.
|
d
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following elements can influence the impacts of surface albedo? Surface colour Angle of incidence Surface texture Particulates in the atmosphere Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Albedo implies the proportion of the shortwave solar radiation reflected by a surface.
It is a function of s urface colour, angle of incidence, and surface texture etc .
In the visible wavelengths, darker colors have lower albedos, and lighter colors higher albedos. On water surfaces, the angle of the solar rays also affects albedo values.
Lower angles produce a greater reflection than do higher angles. In addition, smooth surfaces increase albedo, whereas rougher surfaces reduce it. In general, light surfaces are more reflective than dark surfaces and thus have higher albedo values.
Particulates in the atmosphere appear to enhance this albedo impact. Scientists now have evidence that soot and particulate aerosol fallout are significant causes of glacial snow and ice losses across the Himalayas.
On the Greenland Ice Sheet, black soot, dust, and particulates accumulate with snow and harden into the ice, darkening the surface. As surface albedo decreases, ice absorbs more insolation, and increased melting causes soot to become even more concentrated and darker. The stack emissions from Arctic shipping produce similar impacts.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the below given surfaces and arrange them in decreasing order of their Albedo: Fresh snow Tropical forests Deserts Grasslands Ocean surface Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 4, 3, 5, 2
|
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
|
1, 3, 4, 2, 5
|
1, 4, 3, 5, 2
|
Albedo is the reflective quality of a surface, expressed as the percentage of reflected insolation to incoming insolation.
Arranging them in their decreasing value : Fresh snow (~80-95%), Deserts(~30%), Grasslands(~15-35%), Tropical forests(~15%). The ocean surface is darker, reflecting only an average of about 10% of insolation.
|
c
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the below given surfaces and arrange them in decreasing order of their Albedo: Fresh snow Tropical forests Deserts Grasslands Ocean surface Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 4, 3, 5, 2 ###Option_B: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5##Option_C: 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 ##Option_D: 1, 4, 3, 5, 2 ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Albedo is the reflective quality of a surface, expressed as the percentage of reflected insolation to incoming insolation.
Arranging them in their decreasing value : Fresh snow (~80-95%), Deserts(~30%), Grasslands(~15-35%), Tropical forests(~15%). The ocean surface is darker, reflecting only an average of about 10% of insolation.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements.
1. A member of parliament elected independently joining a political party after the expiry of six months is liable for disqualification on the ground of defection.
2. Presiding officer can take up the defection case against a member suo-moto.
3. All rules to give effect to the provisions of tenth schedule are made by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
Under the tenth schedule an MP elected independently joining a political partly any time after his election is liable for disqualification on the ground of defection.
Presiding officer cannot take up a case of defection against the presiding officer suo-moto but only on a complaint made by any member of that house.
Rules to give effect to the provisions of the tenth schedule are made by the presiding officer of each house.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. A member of parliament elected independently joining a political party after the expiry of six months is liable for disqualification on the ground of defection.
2. Presiding officer can take up the defection case against a member suo-moto.
3. All rules to give effect to the provisions of tenth schedule are made by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Under the tenth schedule an MP elected independently joining a political partly any time after his election is liable for disqualification on the ground of defection.
Presiding officer cannot take up a case of defection against the presiding officer suo-moto but only on a complaint made by any member of that house.
Rules to give effect to the provisions of the tenth schedule are made by the presiding officer of each house.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements.
|
nbsp; Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry send members to Rajya Sabha though indirect election by an electoral college.
|
nbsp; Rest of the Union Territories doesn’t send any members to the Rajya Sabha.
|
nbsp; Method of election of the representatives from the Union Territories to the Lok Sabha is described in the constitution.
|
nbsp; Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry send members to Rajya Sabha though indirect election by an electoral college.
|
Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry send members to Rajya Sabha though indirect election by an electoral college constituted for this purpose.
The population of remaining UTs is too less to have representation in the Rajya Sabha.
The constitution does not describe the manner of choosing representatives from the Union Territories to the Lok Sabha and has empowered the parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the UTs in the Lok Sabha. Parliament has passed the UTs(Direct Election to House of People) Act to provide for the direct election in UTs for Lok Sabha.
The constitution has not fixed the term of office of the members of the Rajya Sabha. RPA 1951, fixes the term of office of the members for a period of six years.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
##Option_A:nbsp; Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry send members to Rajya Sabha though indirect election by an electoral college.
###Option_B:nbsp; Rest of the Union Territories doesn’t send any members to the Rajya Sabha.
##Option_C:nbsp; Method of election of the representatives from the Union Territories to the Lok Sabha is described in the constitution.
##Option_D:nbsp; Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry send members to Rajya Sabha though indirect election by an electoral college.
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry send members to Rajya Sabha though indirect election by an electoral college constituted for this purpose.
The population of remaining UTs is too less to have representation in the Rajya Sabha.
The constitution does not describe the manner of choosing representatives from the Union Territories to the Lok Sabha and has empowered the parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the UTs in the Lok Sabha. Parliament has passed the UTs(Direct Election to House of People) Act to provide for the direct election in UTs for Lok Sabha.
The constitution has not fixed the term of office of the members of the Rajya Sabha. RPA 1951, fixes the term of office of the members for a period of six years.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements.
1. A minister submits his resignation to the Prime Minister.
2. The satisfaction of President mentioned in the constitution means the satisfaction of Cabinet including Prime Minister.
3. Any minister cannot disagree with cabinet decision in the public else he has to resign.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
A minister submits his resignation to the President and not the PM.
In 1974, SC held that a satisfaction of President is not his personal satisfaction but the satisfaction of the council of ministers.
It is duty of every minister to stand by cabinet decision and support them both outside and within the parliament. If any minister disagrees and cannot defend it, he must resign.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. A minister submits his resignation to the Prime Minister.
2. The satisfaction of President mentioned in the constitution means the satisfaction of Cabinet including Prime Minister.
3. Any minister cannot disagree with cabinet decision in the public else he has to resign.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
A minister submits his resignation to the President and not the PM.
In 1974, SC held that a satisfaction of President is not his personal satisfaction but the satisfaction of the council of ministers.
It is duty of every minister to stand by cabinet decision and support them both outside and within the parliament. If any minister disagrees and cannot defend it, he must resign.
##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the resignation of Prime Minister. It results in the dissolution of Council of Ministers. It mandates fresh election to Lok Sabha. It is mandatory for the President to accept the resignation of Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is / are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Since PM is the head of the CoM, other ministers cannot work when the PM dies or resigns. Hence, his death or resignation automatically dissolves the CoM. It does not necessarily leads to fresh election. The ruling party or coalition can provide a new candidate for the post and if it has the majority in the Lok Sabha, then there is no need for its dissolution and fresh elections. However, if post the death or resignation the ruling party fails to prove its majority in Lok Sabha and any other party or coalition also fails to prove majority, then president can dissolve assembly and order fresh elections. It is not mandatory for President to accept the resignation of PM. It is mandated by the constitution that there should be council of minister to aid and advice the President. If president feels that the fresh elections have to be conducted for the Lok Sabha or opposition will take time to prove its majority on the floor of the Lok Sabha, he can ask the PM to stay till the new government is elected.
|
c
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the resignation of Prime Minister. It results in the dissolution of Council of Ministers. It mandates fresh election to Lok Sabha. It is mandatory for the President to accept the resignation of Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is / are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Since PM is the head of the CoM, other ministers cannot work when the PM dies or resigns. Hence, his death or resignation automatically dissolves the CoM. It does not necessarily leads to fresh election. The ruling party or coalition can provide a new candidate for the post and if it has the majority in the Lok Sabha, then there is no need for its dissolution and fresh elections. However, if post the death or resignation the ruling party fails to prove its majority in Lok Sabha and any other party or coalition also fails to prove majority, then president can dissolve assembly and order fresh elections. It is not mandatory for President to accept the resignation of PM. It is mandated by the constitution that there should be council of minister to aid and advice the President. If president feels that the fresh elections have to be conducted for the Lok Sabha or opposition will take time to prove its majority on the floor of the Lok Sabha, he can ask the PM to stay till the new government is elected.##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are Federal features?
Dual Polity
Integrated Judiciary
Single citizenship
Written Constitution
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 4
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Federal features include Dual Polity, Written Constitution, separation of powers etc. while Unitary features include Single constitution, written constitution, single citizenship, Integrated Judiciary etc.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are Federal features?
Dual Polity
Integrated Judiciary
Single citizenship
Written Constitution
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 4##Option_C:1, 2 and 3##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Federal features include Dual Polity, Written Constitution, separation of powers etc. while Unitary features include Single constitution, written constitution, single citizenship, Integrated Judiciary etc.
##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Jammu and Kashmir: State Emergency in J & K can be imposed both by the President as well as Governor. President cannot declare a financial emergency in the state. The total seats in the Assembly of J & K also include that form the Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. Preventive Detention laws made by the state legislature as well as Parliament are applicable to the state. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
There can be two type of state emergencies: President's Rule under the Indian Constitution and Governor's Rule under State's constitution. However, President Rule can be imposed only for the failure of the constitutional machinery under the state's constitution. Declaration of Financial Emergency is not applicable to state. Of the 111 assembly seats for direct election, 24 are vacant as they are allotted for the area under Pakistan's occupation. Only preventive detention laws made by the state are applicable in the state and not those made by the Parliament.
|
a
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Jammu and Kashmir: State Emergency in J & K can be imposed both by the President as well as Governor. President cannot declare a financial emergency in the state. The total seats in the Assembly of J & K also include that form the Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. Preventive Detention laws made by the state legislature as well as Parliament are applicable to the state. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:There can be two type of state emergencies: President's Rule under the Indian Constitution and Governor's Rule under State's constitution. However, President Rule can be imposed only for the failure of the constitutional machinery under the state's constitution. Declaration of Financial Emergency is not applicable to state. Of the 111 assembly seats for direct election, 24 are vacant as they are allotted for the area under Pakistan's occupation. Only preventive detention laws made by the state are applicable in the state and not those made by the Parliament.##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following situations as the reasons for imposition of President Rule under Article 356.
|
nbsp; Maladministration of the state and allegations of corruption against the government.
|
nbsp; In case of a hung assembly.
|
nbsp; Internal disturbances not amounting to internal subversion.
|
nbsp; Maladministration of the state and allegations of corruption against the government.
|
Supreme Court in the Bommai Case, 1994 enlisted the instances where the use of article 356 is proper or improper.
1, 3 & 4 are situations where use of article 356 is improper.
2 is a valid situation.
Also, secularism is a basic feature of the constitution and therefore when a government pursues anti-secular policies, the use of article 356 is valid.
|
b
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following situations as the reasons for imposition of President Rule under Article 356.
##Option_A:nbsp; Maladministration of the state and allegations of corruption against the government.
###Option_B:nbsp; In case of a hung assembly.
##Option_C:nbsp; Internal disturbances not amounting to internal subversion.
##Option_D:nbsp; Maladministration of the state and allegations of corruption against the government.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Supreme Court in the Bommai Case, 1994 enlisted the instances where the use of article 356 is proper or improper.
1, 3 & 4 are situations where use of article 356 is improper.
2 is a valid situation.
Also, secularism is a basic feature of the constitution and therefore when a government pursues anti-secular policies, the use of article 356 is valid.
##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statement about the President’s Rule.
1. President Rule in a state can be extended upto a maximum period of three years with parliamentary approval after each year.
2. President Rule can be revoked before the due time only by President and not Parliament.
3. During President’s Rule the legislative power of the state assembly is taken over by President.
Which of the statements given above is are incorrect ?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 & 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
President Rule in a state can be extended upto a maximum period of three years with parliamentary approval after every six months.
President’s rule can be revoked before the expiry of the given period of president rule by a proclamation of president and parliament has no role to play.
During the President Rule the legislative power of states is taken away as the assembly is either suspended or dissolved. However, it is not the President but the Parliament that is authorized to make laws on the subjects enumerated in the state list. However, the practice has been that Parliament confers the legislative power upon the president. Such a law made by the President or Parliament continues to remain in force even after the expiry of the President rule but can be revoked by the assembly whenever it wants.
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement about the President’s Rule.
1. President Rule in a state can be extended upto a maximum period of three years with parliamentary approval after each year.
2. President Rule can be revoked before the due time only by President and not Parliament.
3. During President’s Rule the legislative power of the state assembly is taken over by President.
Which of the statements given above is are incorrect ?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 & 3 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 & 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
President Rule in a state can be extended upto a maximum period of three years with parliamentary approval after every six months.
President’s rule can be revoked before the expiry of the given period of president rule by a proclamation of president and parliament has no role to play.
During the President Rule the legislative power of states is taken away as the assembly is either suspended or dissolved. However, it is not the President but the Parliament that is authorized to make laws on the subjects enumerated in the state list. However, the practice has been that Parliament confers the legislative power upon the president. Such a law made by the President or Parliament continues to remain in force even after the expiry of the President rule but can be revoked by the assembly whenever it wants.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With regard to the Emergency provisions, consider the following statements: Article 358 operates only on the grounds of External Emergency. Article 359 operates on the grounds of both external aggression and armed rebellion. In Jammu and Kashmir, emergency can be declared only on the basis of internal disturbance with the concurrence of State Government. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1st statement is correct - An emergency declared under Article 358 can be imposed in case of war or external aggression which is also called as external emergency. 2nd statement is correct - An emergency under Article 359 can be imposed for war, external aggression and armed rebellion(i.e. both External and Internal Emergency). 3rd statement is incorrect - In J & K an emergency can be imposed on the grounds of both internal disturbance and armed rebellion. However, it needs the concurrence of state government.
|
a
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the Emergency provisions, consider the following statements: Article 358 operates only on the grounds of External Emergency. Article 359 operates on the grounds of both external aggression and armed rebellion. In Jammu and Kashmir, emergency can be declared only on the basis of internal disturbance with the concurrence of State Government. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:1st statement is correct - An emergency declared under Article 358 can be imposed in case of war or external aggression which is also called as external emergency. 2nd statement is correct - An emergency under Article 359 can be imposed for war, external aggression and armed rebellion(i.e. both External and Internal Emergency). 3rd statement is incorrect - In J & K an emergency can be imposed on the grounds of both internal disturbance and armed rebellion. However, it needs the concurrence of state government.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the pardoning power of the President.
1. It is binding on the President to decide upon a mercy petition expeditiously.
2. Courts can commute a death sentence to life term if President takes inexplicably long delay in deciding upon mercy petition.
3. Pardoning power of the President is one amongst the few discretionary powers of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
In the Shatruughan Chauhan Case, 2014, SC held that it is incumbent on the Executive to decide upon the mercy petition of a convict. An inexplicable delay is agonizing to the convict and his family and it can be a basis for the court to commute a death sentence to life term.
The pardoning power of President is not his discretionary power but is exercised on the advice of Council of Minsters.
|
a
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the pardoning power of the President.
1. It is binding on the President to decide upon a mercy petition expeditiously.
2. Courts can commute a death sentence to life term if President takes inexplicably long delay in deciding upon mercy petition.
3. Pardoning power of the President is one amongst the few discretionary powers of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
In the Shatruughan Chauhan Case, 2014, SC held that it is incumbent on the Executive to decide upon the mercy petition of a convict. An inexplicable delay is agonizing to the convict and his family and it can be a basis for the court to commute a death sentence to life term.
The pardoning power of President is not his discretionary power but is exercised on the advice of Council of Minsters.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following right bank tributaries of Brahmaputra river system and arrange them from east to west direction of joining Brahmaputra river. 1. Sankosh 2. Manas 3. Subansiri 4. Kameng 5. Tista Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3, 4, 2, 1, 5
|
4, 3, 2, 1, 5
|
2, 3, 1, 4, 5
|
3, 4, 2, 1, 5
|
Burhi Dihang, Dhansri and Kelang are the left bank tributaries, while Dibang, Subansir, Kameng, Manas, Sankosh, Tista are its right bank tributaries.
|
a
|
Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following right bank tributaries of Brahmaputra river system and arrange them from east to west direction of joining Brahmaputra river. 1. Sankosh 2. Manas 3. Subansiri 4. Kameng 5. Tista Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:3, 4, 2, 1, 5 ###Option_B:4, 3, 2, 1, 5 ##Option_C:2, 3, 1, 4, 5 ##Option_D:3, 4, 2, 1, 5 ##Answer:a##Explaination:Burhi Dihang, Dhansri and Kelang are the left bank tributaries, while Dibang, Subansir, Kameng, Manas, Sankosh, Tista are its right bank tributaries. ##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following hills/mountain ranges of North-east India and their location: Hills/ Mountain ranges State where located 1. Tura Hills : Meghalaya 2. Blue Mountains : Tripura 3. Laimatol Range : Mizoram 4. Mikir Hills : Assam 5. Abor Hills : Arunachal Pradesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 4 and 5 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Hill State where located
1. Tura Hills Meghalaya
2. Blue Mountains Mizoram
3. Laimatol Range Manipur
4. Mikir Hills Assam
5. Abor Hills Arunachal Pradesh
|
c
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following hills/mountain ranges of North-east India and their location: Hills/ Mountain ranges State where located 1. Tura Hills : Meghalaya 2. Blue Mountains : Tripura 3. Laimatol Range : Mizoram 4. Mikir Hills : Assam 5. Abor Hills : Arunachal Pradesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Hill State where located
1. Tura Hills Meghalaya
2. Blue Mountains Mizoram
3. Laimatol Range Manipur
4. Mikir Hills Assam
5. Abor Hills Arunachal Pradesh
##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding the Prime Minister National Relief Fund (PMNRF) ? The disbursement out of the fund is made by the Prime Minister with the prior approval from President of India. The fund is audited by Comptroller General of India (CAG). The fund can be used to provide the relief to only citizens of India. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1st statement is incorrect as the disbursement out of the fund is made at the discretion of the Prime Minister, and in accordance with the Prime Minister’s directions.
2nd statement is incorrect as the PMNRF is audited by an independent auditor, outside the Government.
Only 3rd statement is correct - According to the rules of the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund and the tax exemption granted to donors, the fund can be used to provide relief only to the citizens of India.
The PMNRF website (pmnrf.gov.in) says “contributions wherein the donor mentions that the amount is meant for the foreign citizens/calamities abroad, are not accepted in the fund. PMNRF accepts only voluntary contributions by individuals and institutions and contributions flowing out of budgetary sources or from the balance sheets of the Public Sector Undertakings are not accepted. The fund was setup in the year 1948 to assist relief work.
|
c
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement is/are true regarding the Prime Minister National Relief Fund (PMNRF) ? The disbursement out of the fund is made by the Prime Minister with the prior approval from President of India. The fund is audited by Comptroller General of India (CAG). The fund can be used to provide the relief to only citizens of India. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
1st statement is incorrect as the disbursement out of the fund is made at the discretion of the Prime Minister, and in accordance with the Prime Minister’s directions.
2nd statement is incorrect as the PMNRF is audited by an independent auditor, outside the Government.
Only 3rd statement is correct - According to the rules of the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund and the tax exemption granted to donors, the fund can be used to provide relief only to the citizens of India.
The PMNRF website (pmnrf.gov.in) says “contributions wherein the donor mentions that the amount is meant for the foreign citizens/calamities abroad, are not accepted in the fund. PMNRF accepts only voluntary contributions by individuals and institutions and contributions flowing out of budgetary sources or from the balance sheets of the Public Sector Undertakings are not accepted. The fund was setup in the year 1948 to assist relief work.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
With regard to Money Bill , consider the following statements: The decision of the Speaker with regard to money bill cannot be questioned by any authority except by President of India. A Money Bill can be introduced in any house of the parliament with the prior permission of the President. When a Money Bill is presented to the President, he cannot return the bill for the reconsideration of the house. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1st statement is incorrect - the decision of the Speaker with regard to money bill is final and in this regard cannot be questioned in any court of law or in either House of Parliament and even by the President of India. 2nd statement is incorrect - Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President. Only 3rd statement is correct i.e. when a money bill is presented to President, President cannot return the bill for the reconsideration of the house.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Money Bill , consider the following statements: The decision of the Speaker with regard to money bill cannot be questioned by any authority except by President of India. A Money Bill can be introduced in any house of the parliament with the prior permission of the President. When a Money Bill is presented to the President, he cannot return the bill for the reconsideration of the house. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:1st statement is incorrect - the decision of the Speaker with regard to money bill is final and in this regard cannot be questioned in any court of law or in either House of Parliament and even by the President of India. 2nd statement is incorrect - Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President. Only 3rd statement is correct i.e. when a money bill is presented to President, President cannot return the bill for the reconsideration of the house. ##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are included in the conditions necessary for a committee to be a Parliamentary Committee? It is elected by the members of Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha. It is nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. Must have the leader of opposition in Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha. Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha Secretariat. Works under the direction of President. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
According to the rules of the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha, following conditions are necessary for a parliamentary committee:
It is appointed or elected by the house or nominated by the leader of the house.
Works under the direction of speaker/chairman.
Presents its report to the house or speaker/chairman.
Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha Secretariat.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are included in the conditions necessary for a committee to be a Parliamentary Committee? It is elected by the members of Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha. It is nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. Must have the leader of opposition in Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha. Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha Secretariat. Works under the direction of President. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 2, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
According to the rules of the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha, following conditions are necessary for a parliamentary committee:
It is appointed or elected by the house or nominated by the leader of the house.
Works under the direction of speaker/chairman.
Presents its report to the house or speaker/chairman.
Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha Secretariat.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding passage of bills in the parliament: Amendments to a bill a can be introduced at the stage of second reading only and not first or third. It is mandatory for every bill to be referred to a parliamentary committee during second reading. A private member cannot introduce a bill without the prior permission of President. Defeat of Money Bill leads to resignation of the government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Amendments to a bill can be introduced at the stage of second reading only. During the first reading the bill is introduced while during the third reading the whole bill is voted upon.
It is not mandatory for every bill to be referred to a parliamentary committee during second reading. House may or may not refer the bill to the committee.
A private member bill does not require permission of President.
Defeat of money bill indicates loss of confidence of Lok Sabha in the government. Hence, the government has to resign.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding passage of bills in the parliament: Amendments to a bill a can be introduced at the stage of second reading only and not first or third. It is mandatory for every bill to be referred to a parliamentary committee during second reading. A private member cannot introduce a bill without the prior permission of President. Defeat of Money Bill leads to resignation of the government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only ##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Amendments to a bill can be introduced at the stage of second reading only. During the first reading the bill is introduced while during the third reading the whole bill is voted upon.
It is not mandatory for every bill to be referred to a parliamentary committee during second reading. House may or may not refer the bill to the committee.
A private member bill does not require permission of President.
Defeat of money bill indicates loss of confidence of Lok Sabha in the government. Hence, the government has to resign.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Lok Sabha can pass a resolution to revoke President’s rule. A law made during President’s rule continue to operate even after it is revoked. A proclamation imposing President’s rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
There is no such provision. It can be revoked by the President only by own. A proclamation imposing President’s rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A law made by the Parliament or president or any other specified authority continues to be operative even after the President’s Rule.
|
b
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Lok Sabha can pass a resolution to revoke President’s rule. A law made during President’s rule continue to operate even after it is revoked. A proclamation imposing President’s rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:There is no such provision. It can be revoked by the President only by own. A proclamation imposing President’s rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A law made by the Parliament or president or any other specified authority continues to be operative even after the President’s Rule.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements.
1. President appoints the panel of vice-chairpersons in Rajya Sabha.
2. Any person from the panel can preside over the house in the case of vacancy of the office of Chairman and deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; Both 1 & 2
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
Chairman appoints the panel of vice-chairpersons to preside over the house in case of absence of chairman or deputy chairman. However, they cannot preside over the house when both the offices are vacant. During such time these duties are performed by a person appointed by the President. The elections are conducted soon to fill the vacancy.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. President appoints the panel of vice-chairpersons in Rajya Sabha.
2. Any person from the panel can preside over the house in the case of vacancy of the office of Chairman and deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; Both 1 & 2
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Chairman appoints the panel of vice-chairpersons to preside over the house in case of absence of chairman or deputy chairman. However, they cannot preside over the house when both the offices are vacant. During such time these duties are performed by a person appointed by the President. The elections are conducted soon to fill the vacancy.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Chairman of Rajya Sabha: Vice-President can be removed from his office only if he is removed as chairman of Rajya Sabha. Chairman of Rajya Sabha unlike speaker is not a member of the house. Chairman of Rajya Sabha unlike speaker does not have a voting right. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The chairman of Rajya Sabha can be removed only he is removed as Vice-President. There is no separate procedure for his removal in the constitution. Chairman of Rajya Sabha unike speaker is not its member. Chairman of Rajya sabha can vote but only during a case of tie and not in the first instance.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Chairman of Rajya Sabha: Vice-President can be removed from his office only if he is removed as chairman of Rajya Sabha. Chairman of Rajya Sabha unlike speaker is not a member of the house. Chairman of Rajya Sabha unlike speaker does not have a voting right. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The chairman of Rajya Sabha can be removed only he is removed as Vice-President. There is no separate procedure for his removal in the constitution. Chairman of Rajya Sabha unike speaker is not its member. Chairman of Rajya sabha can vote but only during a case of tie and not in the first instance.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India can be both discussed and voted. Expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India can only be voted but not discussed. Consolidated Fund of India, Public Account of India and Contingency Fund of India are constitutional funds. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India can be both discussed and voted while Expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India can only be discussed but not voted.
Consolidated Fund of India and Public Account of India are constitutional funds while Contingency Fund of India is a statutory fund created by Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India can be both discussed and voted. Expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India can only be voted but not discussed. Consolidated Fund of India, Public Account of India and Contingency Fund of India are constitutional funds. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India can be both discussed and voted while Expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India can only be discussed but not voted.
Consolidated Fund of India and Public Account of India are constitutional funds while Contingency Fund of India is a statutory fund created by Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding expansion of the Universe: Gravity slows down the rate of expansion. Dark Energy affects Universe"s expansion. Relative expansion between two distant objects can occur at a rate faster than light. All the galaxies observed till now show Red shift. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
The Universe is full of matter and the attractive force of gravity pulls all matter together. In 1990s when Hubble Space Telescope made observation about faster acceleration, the theory of Dark Energy was put forward as a possible explanation. While special relativity constrains objects in the Universe from moving faster than light with respect to each other when they are in a local, dynamical relationship, it places no theoretical constraint on the relative motion between two objects that are globally separated and out of causal contact. It is thus possible for two objects to become separated in space by more than the distance light could have travelled, which means that, if the expansion remains constant, the two objects will never come into causal contact. Red Shift and Blue shift depend on the relative motion of objects - if they are coming together, the light will show blue shift and if they are receding, it will show red shift. Andromeda, our closest galaxy shows Blue Shift.
|
b
|
Space Discoveries
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding expansion of the Universe: Gravity slows down the rate of expansion. Dark Energy affects Universe"s expansion. Relative expansion between two distant objects can occur at a rate faster than light. All the galaxies observed till now show Red shift. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Universe is full of matter and the attractive force of gravity pulls all matter together. In 1990s when Hubble Space Telescope made observation about faster acceleration, the theory of Dark Energy was put forward as a possible explanation. While special relativity constrains objects in the Universe from moving faster than light with respect to each other when they are in a local, dynamical relationship, it places no theoretical constraint on the relative motion between two objects that are globally separated and out of causal contact. It is thus possible for two objects to become separated in space by more than the distance light could have travelled, which means that, if the expansion remains constant, the two objects will never come into causal contact. Red Shift and Blue shift depend on the relative motion of objects - if they are coming together, the light will show blue shift and if they are receding, it will show red shift. Andromeda, our closest galaxy shows Blue Shift.##Topic:Space Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Cave State 1. Tabo: Jammu and Kashmir 2. Edakkal: Kerala 3. Varaha: Tamil Nadu Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Tabo caves are located, just above the ancient Tabo monastery, in Spiti Valley in Himachal Pradesh. These caves were artificially excavated for monks and used as assembly halls. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. Edakkal caves are located on the Ambukuthy Hills in Wayanad district in Kerala. They were believed to be the camping shelters for neolithic communities. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. The famous Varaha cave or Boar cave is located in Mahabalipuram, near the coromandel coast of Chennai in Tamil Nadu. It is a part of the Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
|
b
|
Difference between Architecture & Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Cave State 1. Tabo: Jammu and Kashmir 2. Edakkal: Kerala 3. Varaha: Tamil Nadu Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Tabo caves are located, just above the ancient Tabo monastery, in Spiti Valley in Himachal Pradesh. These caves were artificially excavated for monks and used as assembly halls. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. Edakkal caves are located on the Ambukuthy Hills in Wayanad district in Kerala. They were believed to be the camping shelters for neolithic communities. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. The famous Varaha cave or Boar cave is located in Mahabalipuram, near the coromandel coast of Chennai in Tamil Nadu. It is a part of the Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.##Topic:Difference between Architecture & Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Project ‘Mausam’
1. Project ‘Mausam’ is a Ministry of Culture project with United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization(UNESCO). 2. It aims to re-connect and re-establish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world. .
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
1 and 2
|
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Only 1
|
Project ‘Mausam’ is a Ministry of Culture project with Archaeological Society of India (ASI) . It aims to re-connect and re-establish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world, which would lead to an enhanced understanding of cultural values and concerns.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about Project ‘Mausam’
1. Project ‘Mausam’ is a Ministry of Culture project with United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization(UNESCO). 2. It aims to re-connect and re-establish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world. .
Which of the statements above is/are correct? ##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: 1 and 2 ##Option_C: Neither 1 nor 2 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Project ‘Mausam’ is a Ministry of Culture project with Archaeological Society of India (ASI) . It aims to re-connect and re-establish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world, which would lead to an enhanced understanding of cultural values and concerns.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
The Reserve Bank Governor recently mooted the idea of minimum support price for across the all commodities. In the light of this news,consider the following statements.
(1) The Commission of Agricultural Costs & Prices is mandated to recommend minimum support prices. (2) The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs takes a final decision on the level of MSPs. (3) Currently,the Commission of Agricultural Costs & Prices recommends MSPs of 23 commodities.
Which iof the satements above is/are correct?
|
Only 1 and 2
|
only 2 and 3
|
3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
The Commission of Agricultural Costs & Prices is mandated to recommend minimum support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the cultivators to adopt modern technology, and raise productivity and overall grain production in line with the emerging demand patterns in the country. The government, in turn, circulates the CACP reports to state governments and concerned central Ministries for their comments. After receiving the feed-back from them, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union government takes a final decision on the level of MSPs and other recommendations made by CACP. CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
|
c
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Reserve Bank Governor recently mooted the idea of minimum support price for across the all commodities. In the light of this news,consider the following statements.
(1) The Commission of Agricultural Costs & Prices is mandated to recommend minimum support prices. (2) The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs takes a final decision on the level of MSPs. (3) Currently,the Commission of Agricultural Costs & Prices recommends MSPs of 23 commodities.
Which iof the satements above is/are correct?
##Option_A: Only 1 and 2 ###Option_B: only 2 and 3
##Option_C: 3
##Option_D: Only 1 and 2 ##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Commission of Agricultural Costs & Prices is mandated to recommend minimum support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the cultivators to adopt modern technology, and raise productivity and overall grain production in line with the emerging demand patterns in the country. The government, in turn, circulates the CACP reports to state governments and concerned central Ministries for their comments. After receiving the feed-back from them, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union government takes a final decision on the level of MSPs and other recommendations made by CACP. CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Foreign funded NGOs, has been alleged for
1. Endanering economic development
2. Endangering sovereignity and security of the nation
3. Involvement in political activism
4. Voilation of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1,2 and 4
|
1,3 and 4
|
2,3 and 4
|
1,2 and 4
|
Foregin funded NGOs has been alleged for hindering economic development (Eg., Greenpeace India's involvement in Kundankulam project).
They are also alleged for supporting anti-national outfits supporting secessionist movements.
Some of them are involved in camapigning for and against political parties.
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Foreign funded NGOs, has been alleged for
1. Endanering economic development
2. Endangering sovereignity and security of the nation
3. Involvement in political activism
4. Voilation of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1,2 and 4
###Option_B: 1,3 and 4
##Option_C: 2,3 and 4
##Option_D: 1,2 and 4
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Foregin funded NGOs has been alleged for hindering economic development (Eg., Greenpeace India's involvement in Kundankulam project).
They are also alleged for supporting anti-national outfits supporting secessionist movements.
Some of them are involved in camapigning for and against political parties.
##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brihadeswarar Temple? This temple was constructed by rulers of Pandya empire. The sikhara of this temple is octagonal and rests on a single block of granite. The temple has idols for "Ashta-dikpaalakas". The entire temple structure is made out of granite. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
|
2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Brihadeeswarar Temple, also known as Daksinameru. Dedicated to Shiva that is located in the city of Thanjavur. It is an important example of Tamil architecture achieved during the Chola dynasty. Built by emperor Raja Raja Chola I and completed in 1010 AD. The sikhara, a cupolic dome, is octagonal and rests on a single block of granite, a square of 7.8 m weighing 80 tons. The Brihadiswarar temple is one of the rare temples which has idols for "Ashta-dikpaalakas" (Guardians of the directions) -Indra, Agni, Yama, Nirrti, Varuna, Vayu, Kubera, Isana.
Except statement 1 all other statments are correct.
Hence Option B is correct.
|
b
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brihadeswarar Temple? This temple was constructed by rulers of Pandya empire. The sikhara of this temple is octagonal and rests on a single block of granite. The temple has idols for "Ashta-dikpaalakas". The entire temple structure is made out of granite. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:##Option_A: 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Brihadeeswarar Temple, also known as Daksinameru. Dedicated to Shiva that is located in the city of Thanjavur. It is an important example of Tamil architecture achieved during the Chola dynasty. Built by emperor Raja Raja Chola I and completed in 1010 AD. The sikhara, a cupolic dome, is octagonal and rests on a single block of granite, a square of 7.8 m weighing 80 tons. The Brihadiswarar temple is one of the rare temples which has idols for "Ashta-dikpaalakas" (Guardians of the directions) -Indra, Agni, Yama, Nirrti, Varuna, Vayu, Kubera, Isana.
Except statement 1 all other statments are correct.
Hence Option B is correct.
##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are included in Public Debt as defined by the government? Dated Securities Treasury Bills External Rupee Debt Public Account Liabilities Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
Public Debt in India includes only Internal and External Debt incurred by the Central Government. Internal Debt includes liabilities incurred by resident units in the Indian economy to other resident units, while External Debt includes liabilities incurred by residents to non-residents.The major instruments covered under Internal Debt are - Dated Securities, Treasury-Bills, Securities issued to International Financial Institutions , etc. External Debt consists of Multilateral, bilateral, IMF and Rupee debt. Public account liabilities comprises of small savings collections into NSSF, PF and bond towards oil, food and fertiliser subsidies among others. These are liabilities on the government with an interest component, however these are not a part of Public Debt.
|
b
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are included in Public Debt as defined by the government? Dated Securities Treasury Bills External Rupee Debt Public Account Liabilities Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 2, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 2, 3 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Public Debt in India includes only Internal and External Debt incurred by the Central Government. Internal Debt includes liabilities incurred by resident units in the Indian economy to other resident units, while External Debt includes liabilities incurred by residents to non-residents.The major instruments covered under Internal Debt are - Dated Securities, Treasury-Bills, Securities issued to International Financial Institutions , etc. External Debt consists of Multilateral, bilateral, IMF and Rupee debt. Public account liabilities comprises of small savings collections into NSSF, PF and bond towards oil, food and fertiliser subsidies among others. These are liabilities on the government with an interest component, however these are not a part of Public Debt.##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following groups were given separate electorates in 1935 Act?
|
Sikhs
|
Europeans
|
Indian Christains
|
Sikhs
|
Muslims were given separate electorates in 1919
|
c
|
Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following groups were given separate electorates in 1935 Act?
##Option_A:Sikhs
###Option_B:Europeans
##Option_C:Indian Christains
##Option_D:Sikhs
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Muslims were given separate electorates in 1919
##Topic:Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following features were implemented in 1935 Act? 1. Federation 2. Provincial Autonomy 3. bicameralism A. 1 only B. 1,2 C. 2 only D. 2,3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Federation was not implemented as the Indian Princes never gave their consent
|
d
|
Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following features were implemented in 1935 Act? 1. Federation 2. Provincial Autonomy 3. bicameralism A. 1 only B. 1,2 C. 2 only D. 2,3##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Federation was not implemented as the Indian Princes never gave their consent
##Topic:Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Saksham Scheme, launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development: This scheme is for adolescent boys and girls for getting vocational skills post school and also get economic benefit. Only children of below poverty line families are applicable to apply in this scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Saksham Scheme is a scheme for encouragement of differently abled students to pursue technical education in a year. It is launched by Ministry of HRD and implemented by AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education). In the scheme, a scholarship of Rs. 30000 or at actual (whichever is less) is provided along with Rs. 2000 per month for 10 months as incidental. The scholarship is for differently abled students whose family income is less than Rs. 6 lac per annum. The student must be registered in the first year of degree or diploma program.
|
d
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Saksham Scheme, launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development: This scheme is for adolescent boys and girls for getting vocational skills post school and also get economic benefit. Only children of below poverty line families are applicable to apply in this scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Saksham Scheme is a scheme for encouragement of differently abled students to pursue technical education in a year. It is launched by Ministry of HRD and implemented by AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education). In the scheme, a scholarship of Rs. 30000 or at actual (whichever is less) is provided along with Rs. 2000 per month for 10 months as incidental. The scholarship is for differently abled students whose family income is less than Rs. 6 lac per annum. The student must be registered in the first year of degree or diploma program.##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Botany##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Dark Fermentation, a process to convert organic waste into biohydrogen: 1. It can take place both in the presence and absence of oxygen. 2. Farm and food waste can be utilized as input material. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Dark fermentation is a technology used to convert organic waste into biohydrogen. It takes place in the absence of oxygen i.e . anaerobic conditions. It is a very useful technique considering the two biggest problems of the era being- fuel resource and management of environmental waste. Hence statement 1 is not correct. This technology uses wastewater from industries, crop residues, livestock or food waste to generate biohydrogen. This hydrogen can be used as a source of energy. It is environment friendly and also solves the problem of fuel required for energy. But the major problem with this technology currently is its low efficiency. Hence statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
Non Conventional Engergy
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Dark Fermentation, a process to convert organic waste into biohydrogen: 1. It can take place both in the presence and absence of oxygen. 2. Farm and food waste can be utilized as input material. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Dark fermentation is a technology used to convert organic waste into biohydrogen. It takes place in the absence of oxygen i.e . anaerobic conditions. It is a very useful technique considering the two biggest problems of the era being- fuel resource and management of environmental waste. Hence statement 1 is not correct. This technology uses wastewater from industries, crop residues, livestock or food waste to generate biohydrogen. This hydrogen can be used as a source of energy. It is environment friendly and also solves the problem of fuel required for energy. But the major problem with this technology currently is its low efficiency. Hence statement 2 is correct.##Topic:Non Conventional Engergy##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Which of the following Geological characteristics can be found in the Himalayan Mountain Ranges:
|
uars
|
arewas
|
ot water Springs. 4.Sholas Select the correct code: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1,2 and 3 only d) 1,2 ,3 and
|
uars
|
The kashmir Himalayas are famous for karewa formation which are useful for the cultivation of zaffran.In the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas ,in the place of Shiwaliks Duar formations are observed, which are used for the development of Tea gardens.Hot Springs are found all across India. There are many Hot water springs in Himalayas that have religious importance such as the springs found in Badrinath, Manikaran, Yamunotri and GauriKund. Shola forests are found in the higher altitude hill regions of the Nilgiris, Kanyakumari district, the Western Ghats and associated ranges in the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
|
c
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Geological characteristics can be found in the Himalayan Mountain Ranges:##Option_A:uars###Option_B:arewas##Option_C:ot water Springs. 4.Sholas Select the correct code: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1,2 and 3 only d) 1,2 ,3 and ##Option_D:uars##Answer:c##Explaination:The kashmir Himalayas are famous for karewa formation which are useful for the cultivation of zaffran.In the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas ,in the place of Shiwaliks Duar formations are observed, which are used for the development of Tea gardens.Hot Springs are found all across India. There are many Hot water springs in Himalayas that have religious importance such as the springs found in Badrinath, Manikaran, Yamunotri and GauriKund. Shola forests are found in the higher altitude hill regions of the Nilgiris, Kanyakumari district, the Western Ghats and associated ranges in the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Attorney General of India,which of the following statements is/are correct? Attorney General is appointed by the Prime Minister Five year term is fixed for Attorney General subject to the pleasure of the President. Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Attorney General enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Refer to Article 76 of the Constitution which states that: Attorney General is appointed by President and not by Prime Minister. There is no fixed term for Attorney General, holds office during the pleasure of the President.
|
c
|
Attorney General of India
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Attorney General of India,which of the following statements is/are correct? Attorney General is appointed by the Prime Minister Five year term is fixed for Attorney General subject to the pleasure of the President. Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Attorney General enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Refer to Article 76 of the Constitution which states that: Attorney General is appointed by President and not by Prime Minister. There is no fixed term for Attorney General, holds office during the pleasure of the President.##Topic:Attorney General of India##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of following is correct regarding Tripuri session of congress
1. It was held in 1940
2. It was presided by Pattabhi Sitaramayya
3. Govind Ballabh Pant moved a resolution at Tripuri expressing full faith in Gandhiji’s leadership
|
3 only
|
1 and 3
|
1,2 and 3
|
3 only
|
1. It was held in 1939
2. It was presided by subhash Chandra bose
3. Govind Ballabh Pant moved a resolution at Tripuri expressing full faith in Gandhiji’s leadership
|
a
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of following is correct regarding Tripuri session of congress
1. It was held in 1940
2. It was presided by Pattabhi Sitaramayya
3. Govind Ballabh Pant moved a resolution at Tripuri expressing full faith in Gandhiji’s leadership
##Option_A: 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3
##Option_C: 1,2 and 3
##Option_D: 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
1. It was held in 1939
2. It was presided by subhash Chandra bose
3. Govind Ballabh Pant moved a resolution at Tripuri expressing full faith in Gandhiji’s leadership
##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of the following countries, apart from India, have participated in Malabar Exercises?
USA
Japan
Singapore
Australia
South Korea
Indonesia
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1, 2, 4 and 5
|
Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Exercise Malabar is a bilateral naval exercise involving the United States and India . Participation has been expanded in some years to include Japan , Australia and/or Singapore . The annual Malabar series began in 1992, and includes diverse activities
Japan has been a partner country in 2007, 2009, 2011 and 2014
Australia and Singapore have been involved in 2007.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous World
|
Civil Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following countries, apart from India, have participated in Malabar Exercises?
USA
Japan
Singapore
Australia
South Korea
Indonesia
##Option_A: Only 1 and 2
###Option_B: Only 1, 2, 4 and 5
##Option_C: Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
##Option_D: Only 1 and 2
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Exercise Malabar is a bilateral naval exercise involving the United States and India . Participation has been expanded in some years to include Japan , Australia and/or Singapore . The annual Malabar series began in 1992, and includes diverse activities
Japan has been a partner country in 2007, 2009, 2011 and 2014
Australia and Singapore have been involved in 2007.
##Topic:Miscellaneous World##Subject:Civil Engineering##Answer:c
|
. Shifting cultivation is also known as:
1. Slash and burn agriculture
2. Jhuming
3. Milpa
4. Ladang
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Shifting cultivation is a practice in which vegetation over a piece of land is cleared by fire(usually) and then it is cultivated. After few years when the fertility of land is lost because of traditional cultivation methods, the farmers shift to another land and leave this land fallow.
It is known as Jhuming in India, Milpa in central America and Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia
|
d
|
Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
. Shifting cultivation is also known as:
1. Slash and burn agriculture
2. Jhuming
3. Milpa
4. Ladang
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Shifting cultivation is a practice in which vegetation over a piece of land is cleared by fire(usually) and then it is cultivated. After few years when the fertility of land is lost because of traditional cultivation methods, the farmers shift to another land and leave this land fallow.
It is known as Jhuming in India, Milpa in central America and Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia
##Topic:Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding quinary activities:
1. It is referred to as Gold collar profession
2. It includes collection, production and dissemination of information.
3. Specialised skill professional are required for these activities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
QUinary activities are services that focus on data analysis i.e. creation, interpretation of new and existing ideas. They are sub-division of tertiary sector. It includes research scientist, financial and legal consultants, top level business executives etc.
|
b
|
Manufacturing Industries
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding quinary activities:
1. It is referred to as Gold collar profession
2. It includes collection, production and dissemination of information.
3. Specialised skill professional are required for these activities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
QUinary activities are services that focus on data analysis i.e. creation, interpretation of new and existing ideas. They are sub-division of tertiary sector. It includes research scientist, financial and legal consultants, top level business executives etc.
##Topic:Manufacturing Industries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs:
City Town Planner
New Delhi: Edwin Lutyens and Laurie Baker
Chandigarh Le Corbusier
Jaipur Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
Which of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
|
Only 1
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1
|
The Town Planning of New Delhi was done by Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker, not Laurie Baker. The other two pairs are correct.
|
c
|
Difference between Architecture & Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs:
City Town Planner
New Delhi: Edwin Lutyens and Laurie Baker
Chandigarh Le Corbusier
Jaipur Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
Which of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
##Option_A: Only 1
###Option_B: Only 1 and 2
##Option_C: Only 2 and 3
##Option_D: Only 1
##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Town Planning of New Delhi was done by Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker, not Laurie Baker. The other two pairs are correct.
##Topic:Difference between Architecture & Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
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