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With regard to Deoband Movement consider the following statements :
The objective of the Movement was moral and religious regeneration of muslim community.
The acitivities of the Movement were targeted against the Sir Syed Ahmed Khan and his organization.
It opposed the formation of the Congress.
Which of the statement(s) given below is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
All the statements are correct except statement 3. The Deoband Movement (1866) was organized by the orthodox section among the Muslim ulema ( Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi) as a revivalist movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teachings of the Quran and the Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad against the foreign rulers. On the political front , Deoband School welcomed the formation of Congress and issued fatwa( religious decree) against Sir Syed Ahmed Khan's Mohammaden Anglo-Oriental Association.
|
a
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Deoband Movement consider the following statements :
The objective of the Movement was moral and religious regeneration of muslim community.
The acitivities of the Movement were targeted against the Sir Syed Ahmed Khan and his organization.
It opposed the formation of the Congress.
Which of the statement(s) given below is/are correct ?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:All the statements are correct except statement 3. The Deoband Movement (1866) was organized by the orthodox section among the Muslim ulema ( Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi) as a revivalist movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teachings of the Quran and the Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad against the foreign rulers. On the political front , Deoband School welcomed the formation of Congress and issued fatwa( religious decree) against Sir Syed Ahmed Khan's Mohammaden Anglo-Oriental Association. ##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Akali Movement played a significant role in the freedom struggle. Select the correct statements from the following with reference to Akali Movement.
1. It was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha movement founded at Amritsar.
2. To liberate gurudwaras from the control of Udasi Mahant (loyalist to government) Akalis launched akali movement in 1921.
3. Sikh Gurudwaras Act passed in 1922(amended in 1925), It made the Shiromani GUrudwara Prabandhak Committee the apex body of Sikhs.
|
nbsp; 2 and 3 only
|
nbsp; 3 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 and 3 only
|
Akali Movement was a regional movement but not a communal one. Their leaders played a notable role in freedom struggle.
|
d
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Akali Movement played a significant role in the freedom struggle. Select the correct statements from the following with reference to Akali Movement.
1. It was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha movement founded at Amritsar.
2. To liberate gurudwaras from the control of Udasi Mahant (loyalist to government) Akalis launched akali movement in 1921.
3. Sikh Gurudwaras Act passed in 1922(amended in 1925), It made the Shiromani GUrudwara Prabandhak Committee the apex body of Sikhs.
##Option_A:nbsp; 2 and 3 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 3 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 2 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Akali Movement was a regional movement but not a communal one. Their leaders played a notable role in freedom struggle.
##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider following statements regarding Theosophical Society:
|
nbsp; In 1882 the society’s headquarters shifted to Adayar (Madras).
|
nbsp; It drew inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Samkhya Yoga and Vedanta school of thought.
|
nbsp; Annie Besant became its president in 1907 and laid the foundation of Central Hindu College.
|
nbsp; In 1882 the society’s headquarters shifted to Adayar (Madras).
|
Theosophical Society shifted their headquarters from US to Adyar in 1882.
The westerners glorifying Indian religious and philosophical traditions gave much needed self respect to the Indian fighting to the British.
Their objective was not to spread christanity.
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider following statements regarding Theosophical Society:
##Option_A:nbsp; In 1882 the society’s headquarters shifted to Adayar (Madras).
###Option_B:nbsp; It drew inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Samkhya Yoga and Vedanta school of thought.
##Option_C:nbsp; Annie Besant became its president in 1907 and laid the foundation of Central Hindu College.
##Option_D:nbsp; In 1882 the society’s headquarters shifted to Adayar (Madras).
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Theosophical Society shifted their headquarters from US to Adyar in 1882.
The westerners glorifying Indian religious and philosophical traditions gave much needed self respect to the Indian fighting to the British.
Their objective was not to spread christanity.
##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With regard to Bal Gangadhar Tilak, consider the following statements: He presided over the Calcutta Session of 1906 which called for Swaraj. He always interpreted Swaraj as complete independence from foreign rule. He supported the age of consent bill which raised the marriageable age . Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1st statement is incorrect - The demand for Swaraj was made in Calcutta session of 1906 which was presided over by Dada Bhai Naoroji. 2nd statement is incorrect - In the later part of his political association with Congress Tilak made it clear that demand of swaraj was within the British govt and not complete independence. He insisted that Swaraj was a demand related to the reformation of existing constitutional reforms. 3rd statement is incorrect - Despite being opposed to early marriage, Tilak opposed Age of Consent Bill as he saw it as an interference with Hinduism by foreigners.
|
d
|
Freedom Struggle : Extremist Phase (1905 – 17)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Bal Gangadhar Tilak, consider the following statements: He presided over the Calcutta Session of 1906 which called for Swaraj. He always interpreted Swaraj as complete independence from foreign rule. He supported the age of consent bill which raised the marriageable age . Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1st statement is incorrect - The demand for Swaraj was made in Calcutta session of 1906 which was presided over by Dada Bhai Naoroji. 2nd statement is incorrect - In the later part of his political association with Congress Tilak made it clear that demand of swaraj was within the British govt and not complete independence. He insisted that Swaraj was a demand related to the reformation of existing constitutional reforms. 3rd statement is incorrect - Despite being opposed to early marriage, Tilak opposed Age of Consent Bill as he saw it as an interference with Hinduism by foreigners.##Topic:Freedom Struggle : Extremist Phase (1905 – 17)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Government of India Act 1935? An All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units came into existence after this act. It proposed for the abolition of dyarchy both in the provinces and at the centre. It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed class, women and labour. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The GOI Act, 1935 proposed an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units but such a structure but the Federation never came into existence as the princely states did not join it. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.
Dyarchy was abolished in provinces only.Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
It extended the communal representation to depressed classes ( SCs) , women and labour (workers) too.Hence, only 3rd statement is correct.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Government of India Act 1935? An All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units came into existence after this act. It proposed for the abolition of dyarchy both in the provinces and at the centre. It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed class, women and labour. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
The GOI Act, 1935 proposed an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units but such a structure but the Federation never came into existence as the princely states did not join it. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.
Dyarchy was abolished in provinces only.Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
It extended the communal representation to depressed classes ( SCs) , women and labour (workers) too.Hence, only 3rd statement is correct.
##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
By 12 th century AD, the Buddhism had practically disappeared from India. Choose the correct causes from the following:
|
nbsp; Entry of women into Monasteries.
|
nbsp; Persecution from rulers of the other religious belief.
|
nbsp; The Brahmans reformed their religion. They adopted the language of people, Pali. They allowed Sudras in temple etc.
|
nbsp; Entry of women into Monasteries.
|
Brahmins did not allow shudras in Temple.
|
c
|
Early Medieval Period: North India ( Rajput Period )
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: By 12 th century AD, the Buddhism had practically disappeared from India. Choose the correct causes from the following:##Option_A:nbsp; Entry of women into Monasteries.###Option_B:nbsp; Persecution from rulers of the other religious belief.##Option_C:nbsp; The Brahmans reformed their religion. They adopted the language of people, Pali. They allowed Sudras in temple etc.##Option_D:nbsp; Entry of women into Monasteries.##Answer:c##Explaination:
Brahmins did not allow shudras in Temple.
##Topic:Early Medieval Period: North India ( Rajput Period )##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider following statements with regard to the development of Indian Civil Services: Lord Cornwallis established the Fort William College with the aim of training British Officials in Indian languages. The Charter Act of 1833 proposed for an open Competition in Civil Services for the first time. Indian Councils Act, 1861 reduced the maximum permissible age for Civil Services from 23 to19 years. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
College of Fort William was an academy and learning centre of Oriental Studies established by Lord Wellesley, the then Governor-General of British India . It aimed at training British officials in Indian languages and in the process it fostered the development of languages such as Bengali and Urdu. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect. Charter Act of 1833 proposed the open Competition in civil services for the first time , but after opposition from court of directors it was negated.And finally it was done in 1854. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. In 1860, 1866 and 1878, maximum age of candidates for civil services examination was respectively reduced to 22, 21 and finally to 19 years in 1878. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider following statements with regard to the development of Indian Civil Services: Lord Cornwallis established the Fort William College with the aim of training British Officials in Indian languages. The Charter Act of 1833 proposed for an open Competition in Civil Services for the first time. Indian Councils Act, 1861 reduced the maximum permissible age for Civil Services from 23 to19 years. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:College of Fort William was an academy and learning centre of Oriental Studies established by Lord Wellesley, the then Governor-General of British India . It aimed at training British officials in Indian languages and in the process it fostered the development of languages such as Bengali and Urdu. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect. Charter Act of 1833 proposed the open Competition in civil services for the first time , but after opposition from court of directors it was negated.And finally it was done in 1854. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. In 1860, 1866 and 1878, maximum age of candidates for civil services examination was respectively reduced to 22, 21 and finally to 19 years in 1878. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Sir Syed Ahmed Khan: He started Mohammaden Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh . He advocated partition of India and formation of Pakistan. He opposed political activity of muslims. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan thought that Muslims should first acquire education before going for politics. He wanted patronage of colonial govt for the development of Muslims. He never advocated the partition of India.
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Sir Syed Ahmed Khan: He started Mohammaden Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh . He advocated partition of India and formation of Pakistan. He opposed political activity of muslims. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Sir Syed Ahmed Khan thought that Muslims should first acquire education before going for politics. He wanted patronage of colonial govt for the development of Muslims. He never advocated the partition of India.##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the parliamentary forums.
|
nbsp; It is mentioned in the Rules of Conducting Business of both houses of parliament.
|
nbsp; The duration of each member in the forum is one year.
|
nbsp; A member resigns from the forum by writing to the speaker/chairman.
|
nbsp; It is mentioned in the Rules of Conducting Business of both houses of parliament.
|
It is not mentioned in the Rules of conducting Business of the Parliament.
The duration of each member of the forum is co-terminus with his term in the house.
A member resigns from the forum by writing to the speaker/chairman.
Each forum can have a maximum of 31 (may be less) members excluding the president and ex-officio vice presidents. 21 are to be nominated from the Lok Saha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the parliamentary forums.
##Option_A:nbsp; It is mentioned in the Rules of Conducting Business of both houses of parliament.
###Option_B:nbsp; The duration of each member in the forum is one year.
##Option_C:nbsp; A member resigns from the forum by writing to the speaker/chairman.
##Option_D:nbsp; It is mentioned in the Rules of Conducting Business of both houses of parliament.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
It is not mentioned in the Rules of conducting Business of the Parliament.
The duration of each member of the forum is co-terminus with his term in the house.
A member resigns from the forum by writing to the speaker/chairman.
Each forum can have a maximum of 31 (may be less) members excluding the president and ex-officio vice presidents. 21 are to be nominated from the Lok Saha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the National Judicial Appointments Council (NJAC).
1. NJAC will replace the collegium system created by the Third Judges Case, 1993.
2. The two eminent persons nominated to the council have a tenure of three years only.
3. One eminent person must compulsorily be a woman.
Which of the statements given above are not correct ?
|
1 & 2 only
|
1 & 3 only
|
2 & 3 only
|
1 & 2 only
|
The collegium system was created by the Supreme Court in Second Judges Case, 1993. Third Judges Case, 1998 made some modifications to the composition of the collegium.
Two eminent persons are nominated to the council for a period of three years and are not eligible for reappointment.
One eminent person must be a SC/ST/OBC/Minority or a woman, but not necessarily a woman.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the National Judicial Appointments Council (NJAC).
1. NJAC will replace the collegium system created by the Third Judges Case, 1993.
2. The two eminent persons nominated to the council have a tenure of three years only.
3. One eminent person must compulsorily be a woman.
Which of the statements given above are not correct ?##Option_A:1 & 2 only###Option_B:1 & 3 only##Option_C: 2 & 3 only##Option_D:1 & 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
The collegium system was created by the Supreme Court in Second Judges Case, 1993. Third Judges Case, 1998 made some modifications to the composition of the collegium.
Two eminent persons are nominated to the council for a period of three years and are not eligible for reappointment.
One eminent person must be a SC/ST/OBC/Minority or a woman, but not necessarily a woman.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the judge of a Supreme Court: (1) A member of the higher judiciary, which means the Judges and Chief Justices of the Supreme Court of India and the state High Courts, can be removed from service only through the process of impeachment under Article 124 (4) of the Constitution. (2) A judge is removable from his office, only on the grounds of proved misbehavior only. (3) Parliament is empowered to regulate the procedure for the investigation and proof of such misbehavior or incapacity. (4) A judge may be removed from his office only by an order of the president. Choose the correct options from below:
|
Only one statement is correct
|
Only two Statements are correct
|
Only three statements are correct
|
Only one statement is correct
|
In statement 2... incapacity shall also be there.
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the judge of a Supreme Court: (1) A member of the higher judiciary, which means the Judges and Chief Justices of the Supreme Court of India and the state High Courts, can be removed from service only through the process of impeachment under Article 124 (4) of the Constitution. (2) A judge is removable from his office, only on the grounds of proved misbehavior only. (3) Parliament is empowered to regulate the procedure for the investigation and proof of such misbehavior or incapacity. (4) A judge may be removed from his office only by an order of the president. Choose the correct options from below:##Option_A:Only one statement is correct###Option_B:Only two Statements are correct##Option_C:Only three statements are correct##Option_D:Only one statement is correct##Answer:c##Explaination:In statement 2... incapacity shall also be there.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the function of National Judicial Appointments Council (NJAC).
1. When a vacancy arises in Supreme Court the Chief Justice of India will make reference to NJAC, which will then start the selection process.
2. Among the two members vetoing a candidate’s name, one should necessarily belong to judiciary.
3. It is not binding upon the President to accept the recommendation of the NJAC and can send it back for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 & 2 only
|
When a vacancy arises in the SC or HCs, the central government will make a reference to the NJAC.
The NJAC shall not recommend a person for appointment if any two of its members do not agree to such recommendation. It does not have to include the member of judiciary.
The President may require the NJAC to reconsider the recommendations made by it. If the NJAC makes a unanimous recommendation after such reconsideration, the President shall make the appointment accordingly.
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the function of National Judicial Appointments Council (NJAC).
1. When a vacancy arises in Supreme Court the Chief Justice of India will make reference to NJAC, which will then start the selection process.
2. Among the two members vetoing a candidate’s name, one should necessarily belong to judiciary.
3. It is not binding upon the President to accept the recommendation of the NJAC and can send it back for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 & 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
When a vacancy arises in the SC or HCs, the central government will make a reference to the NJAC.
The NJAC shall not recommend a person for appointment if any two of its members do not agree to such recommendation. It does not have to include the member of judiciary.
The President may require the NJAC to reconsider the recommendations made by it. If the NJAC makes a unanimous recommendation after such reconsideration, the President shall make the appointment accordingly.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the National Judicial Appointments Council (NJAC). The NJAC has to recommend the senior most judge of the Supreme Court for appointment as Chief Justice of India provided he is considered fit to hold the office. For appointment of judge of SC, NJAC shall recommend name of a person on the basis of their ability, merit and other criteria specified in the NJAC Act. For appointment of judge of HC, NJAC has to seek nomination from the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The NJAC shall recommend the senior most judge of the Supreme Court for appointment as Chief Justice of India. This is provided he is considered fit to hold the office.
For appointment of judge to SC, NJAC shall recommend names of persons on the basis of their ability, merit and other criteria specified in the regulations, not in the Act itself.
For Appointment of HC Judges, nominations shall be sought from Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the National Judicial Appointments Council (NJAC). The NJAC has to recommend the senior most judge of the Supreme Court for appointment as Chief Justice of India provided he is considered fit to hold the office. For appointment of judge of SC, NJAC shall recommend name of a person on the basis of their ability, merit and other criteria specified in the NJAC Act. For appointment of judge of HC, NJAC has to seek nomination from the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
The NJAC shall recommend the senior most judge of the Supreme Court for appointment as Chief Justice of India. This is provided he is considered fit to hold the office.
For appointment of judge to SC, NJAC shall recommend names of persons on the basis of their ability, merit and other criteria specified in the regulations, not in the Act itself.
For Appointment of HC Judges, nominations shall be sought from Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements.
|
nbsp; Constitution authorizes President to appoint a place apart from Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.
|
nbsp; Supreme Court has complete independence to make rules for regulating its practice and procedure.
|
nbsp; Chief Justice of India has complete independence to appoint the staff of SC.
|
nbsp; Constitution authorizes President to appoint a place apart from Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.
|
Constitution authorizes CJI to appoint a place apart from Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. This is obligatory and not compulsory. Hence, no authority can force the CJI to do the same.
Supreme Court can make rules for regulating its practice and procedure. However, it needs approval of the President for the same.
Chief Justice of India has complete independence to appoint the staff of SC and determine their service conditions.
Parliament can increase the powers and Jurisdiction of SC through an amendment madeby a smle majority of the Parliament.
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
##Option_A:nbsp; Constitution authorizes President to appoint a place apart from Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.
###Option_B:nbsp; Supreme Court has complete independence to make rules for regulating its practice and procedure.
##Option_C:nbsp; Chief Justice of India has complete independence to appoint the staff of SC.
##Option_D:nbsp; Constitution authorizes President to appoint a place apart from Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Constitution authorizes CJI to appoint a place apart from Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. This is obligatory and not compulsory. Hence, no authority can force the CJI to do the same.
Supreme Court can make rules for regulating its practice and procedure. However, it needs approval of the President for the same.
Chief Justice of India has complete independence to appoint the staff of SC and determine their service conditions.
Parliament can increase the powers and Jurisdiction of SC through an amendment madeby a smle majority of the Parliament.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following instances are not included in the original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
Inter-state water disputes.
A dispute arising out of pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, sanad etc.
Recovery of damages by a state against centre.
Suit brought by a citizen against the Centre.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Original jurisdiction of the SC does not include Inter-state water disputes, dispute arising out of pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, sanad etc, recovery of damages by a state against centre the suit brought by a citizen against the centre or states.
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following instances are not included in the original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
Inter-state water disputes.
A dispute arising out of pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, sanad etc.
Recovery of damages by a state against centre.
Suit brought by a citizen against the Centre.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Original jurisdiction of the SC does not include Inter-state water disputes, dispute arising out of pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, sanad etc, recovery of damages by a state against centre the suit brought by a citizen against the centre or states.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which among the following take the oath of defending the constitution? 1. President 2. Judges of Supreme Court 3. Governor 4. Judges of High Court 5. Prime Minister Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Under the third schedule of the Indian Constitution: President and Governor take the oath of preserving, protecting, and defending the Constitution. SC and HC judges take the oath of upholding the constitution. PM takes the oath of bearing true faith and allegiance to the Constitution and abiding by it.
|
b
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following take the oath of defending the constitution? 1. President 2. Judges of Supreme Court 3. Governor 4. Judges of High Court 5. Prime Minister Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Under the third schedule of the Indian Constitution: President and Governor take the oath of preserving, protecting, and defending the Constitution. SC and HC judges take the oath of upholding the constitution. PM takes the oath of bearing true faith and allegiance to the Constitution and abiding by it. ##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the Legislative Council of a State: The maximum and minimum strength of the Legislative council has been fixed under the Constitution. The actual strength of the Council is fixed by the Parliament. The propriety of the nomination of 1/6 th members to the council by Governor is justiciable in court. Governor can nominate to the Council, persons having experience in cooperative movement. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The maximum and minimum strength of the Legislative council has been fixed under the constitution. The maximum strength is one third of the strength of the legislative assembly. Minimum is fixed at 40 with some exceptions. The actual strength of the council is fixed by the Parliament. The propriety of the nomination of 1/6 th members to the council by governor cannot be challenged in any court. Governor can nominate to council, persons having experience in art, literature, science, social service and cooperative movement.
|
c
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Legislative Council of a State: The maximum and minimum strength of the Legislative council has been fixed under the Constitution. The actual strength of the Council is fixed by the Parliament. The propriety of the nomination of 1/6 th members to the council by Governor is justiciable in court. Governor can nominate to the Council, persons having experience in cooperative movement. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The maximum and minimum strength of the Legislative council has been fixed under the constitution. The maximum strength is one third of the strength of the legislative assembly. Minimum is fixed at 40 with some exceptions. The actual strength of the council is fixed by the Parliament. The propriety of the nomination of 1/6 th members to the council by governor cannot be challenged in any court. Governor can nominate to council, persons having experience in art, literature, science, social service and cooperative movement.##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Areas under Fifth Schedule of the Constitution: President is empowered to declare that Parliament’s law is not applicable to a scheduled area of the state. Governor is empowered to declare that state legislature’s law is not applicable to a scheduled area of the state. President can direct a state to establish a body similar to Tribes Advisory Council even if it does not have scheduled area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A similar council can also be established in a state having scheduled tribe but not scheduled areas, therein if the president so directs. The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of the parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Areas under Fifth Schedule of the Constitution: President is empowered to declare that Parliament’s law is not applicable to a scheduled area of the state. Governor is empowered to declare that state legislature’s law is not applicable to a scheduled area of the state. President can direct a state to establish a body similar to Tribes Advisory Council even if it does not have scheduled area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:A similar council can also be established in a state having scheduled tribe but not scheduled areas, therein if the president so directs. The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of the parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: Constitution empowers the Parliament to establish administrative tribunals for Centre, States as well as local bodies. States can themselves establish tribunals for matters falling within their legislative competence, other than administrative. Administrative tribunals created under Article 323-A operate in a hierarchy. Other tribunals created under Article 323-B may or may not operate under hierarchy. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Art 323A empowers Parliament to provide for establishment of administrative tribunals for centre, states, local bodies, public corporations, and other public authorities. In pursuance of this article Parliament passed the Administrative Tribunals Act. This act authorizes the Central Government to establish one Central Administrative tribunal and the state administrative tribunals.
Art 323B empowers the Parliament and state legislatures to establish tribunals for adjudicating disputes over matter other than administrative.
Administrative tribunals created under Article 323-A do not operate in a hierarchy since there is one for the centre and one for each state. While for tribunals under art 323B hierarchy may be created.
|
b
|
Tribunals
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Constitution empowers the Parliament to establish administrative tribunals for Centre, States as well as local bodies. States can themselves establish tribunals for matters falling within their legislative competence, other than administrative. Administrative tribunals created under Article 323-A operate in a hierarchy. Other tribunals created under Article 323-B may or may not operate under hierarchy. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Art 323A empowers Parliament to provide for establishment of administrative tribunals for centre, states, local bodies, public corporations, and other public authorities. In pursuance of this article Parliament passed the Administrative Tribunals Act. This act authorizes the Central Government to establish one Central Administrative tribunal and the state administrative tribunals.
Art 323B empowers the Parliament and state legislatures to establish tribunals for adjudicating disputes over matter other than administrative.
Administrative tribunals created under Article 323-A do not operate in a hierarchy since there is one for the centre and one for each state. While for tribunals under art 323B hierarchy may be created.
##Topic:Tribunals##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the District Council formed under the Sixth Schedule: District Council in an autonomous district consists of 30 members. All the members of the District council are elected on the basis of adult franchise. The district councils have power to make laws on all the matters for their territorial jurisdiction subject to the approval of governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
District Council in an autonomous district consists of 30 members.
26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise and 4 are nominated by the governor.
The district councils have power to make laws on specific matters like land, forest, property, marriage etc. (not all matters) for their territorial jurisdiction subjected to the approval of governor.
|
a
|
Local Urban government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the District Council formed under the Sixth Schedule: District Council in an autonomous district consists of 30 members. All the members of the District council are elected on the basis of adult franchise. The district councils have power to make laws on all the matters for their territorial jurisdiction subject to the approval of governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
District Council in an autonomous district consists of 30 members.
26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise and 4 are nominated by the governor.
The district councils have power to make laws on specific matters like land, forest, property, marriage etc. (not all matters) for their territorial jurisdiction subjected to the approval of governor.
##Topic:Local Urban government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding official language(s) in India: Constitution lays down that English should be mandatorily used for the purpose of communication between Union and non-Hindi states. President has the power to direct a state to officially recognize a language in that state. Constitution mandates that proceedings of the Supreme Court can only be conducted in English and no other language. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1st statement is incorrect- Official Language Act (1963), and not the constitution, lays down that English should be mandatorily used for the purpose of communication between Union and non-Hindi states. 2nd statement is correct- President has the power to direct a state to officially recognize a language in that state if he is satisfied that a substantial portion of population of state desires so. 3rd statement is correct- Constitution has empowered Parliament to decide any other language also to be used in the proceedings of the SC. However, Parliament has made no law till now, so presently only English is being used in the proceedings of the SC. There is no constitutional mandate of imposition of English.
|
b
|
Provisions related to Language
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding official language(s) in India: Constitution lays down that English should be mandatorily used for the purpose of communication between Union and non-Hindi states. President has the power to direct a state to officially recognize a language in that state. Constitution mandates that proceedings of the Supreme Court can only be conducted in English and no other language. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:1st statement is incorrect- Official Language Act (1963), and not the constitution, lays down that English should be mandatorily used for the purpose of communication between Union and non-Hindi states. 2nd statement is correct- President has the power to direct a state to officially recognize a language in that state if he is satisfied that a substantial portion of population of state desires so. 3rd statement is correct- Constitution has empowered Parliament to decide any other language also to be used in the proceedings of the SC. However, Parliament has made no law till now, so presently only English is being used in the proceedings of the SC. There is no constitutional mandate of imposition of English.##Topic:Provisions related to Language##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
What is the role of Reverse Osmosis (RO) system in the water purification process? It inactivates/kills the harmful bacteria in water. It makes water pH normal for drinking purposes. It removes impurities in the form of ions and molecules from the solution. It injects essential salt and minerals into the water to make it suitable for drinking purpose. Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect ?
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Osmosis means flow of water molecules from a higher solution concentration to a lower concentration of solution through a semi permeable membrane. RO works opposite to Osmosis and moves water molecules from a lower concentration region to a higher region. In the RO system, impurities like dissolved solids in water are removed. Invisible bacteria is also removed(though not 100%) but bacteria are not killed or inactivated but just filtered out.
|
c
|
Misc. Tech.
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the role of Reverse Osmosis (RO) system in the water purification process? It inactivates/kills the harmful bacteria in water. It makes water pH normal for drinking purposes. It removes impurities in the form of ions and molecules from the solution. It injects essential salt and minerals into the water to make it suitable for drinking purpose. Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect ?##Option_A: 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Osmosis means flow of water molecules from a higher solution concentration to a lower concentration of solution through a semi permeable membrane. RO works opposite to Osmosis and moves water molecules from a lower concentration region to a higher region. In the RO system, impurities like dissolved solids in water are removed. Invisible bacteria is also removed(though not 100%) but bacteria are not killed or inactivated but just filtered out.##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Consider the following sentences with reference to banking sector in India: Reduction of Repo Rate by Reserve Bank of India so that the commercial banks have a greater ability to raise funds. Reduction of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) so that banks may have more liquidity of funds to operate. Issuing of new shares and loans from the government to the Banks. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
Bank lost money due to credit crunch, means their liabilities are greater than their assets. Recapitalization is to restore confidence in banking. Government agrees to buy shares or infuse capital into banking sector and this is called recapitalisation. Repo rate changes and SLR changes are measures used by RBI to control the flow of money into the market.
|
c
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following sentences with reference to banking sector in India: Reduction of Repo Rate by Reserve Bank of India so that the commercial banks have a greater ability to raise funds. Reduction of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) so that banks may have more liquidity of funds to operate. Issuing of new shares and loans from the government to the Banks. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Bank lost money due to credit crunch, means their liabilities are greater than their assets. Recapitalization is to restore confidence in banking. Government agrees to buy shares or infuse capital into banking sector and this is called recapitalisation. Repo rate changes and SLR changes are measures used by RBI to control the flow of money into the market.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution, which gives right to conserve distinct language and culture, is applicable to:
a. Linguistic minorities only
b. Religious minorities only
c. Both of them
d. Any section of citizens
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Any section of citizens of India has the right to conserve their distinct language, script or culture - there is no requirement of minority to be able to do so. Minority institutions are covered under Article 30.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution, which gives right to conserve distinct language and culture, is applicable to:
a. Linguistic minorities only
b. Religious minorities only
c. Both of them
d. Any section of citizens
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Any section of citizens of India has the right to conserve their distinct language, script or culture - there is no requirement of minority to be able to do so. Minority institutions are covered under Article 30.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to freedom struggle,Which of the following is incorrect regarding AITUC(All India Trade Union Congress) ? 1. All India Trade Union Congress was founded on October 31, 1920. 2. Dewan Chaman Lal was its first president and Lala Lajpat Rai was the first general secretary 3. C.R. Das presided over the third and the fourth sessions of the AITUC 4. Gaya session of the Congress (1922) welcomed the formation of the AITUC
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
2 only
|
1 and 2
|
1.All India Trade Union Congress was founded on October 31, 1920.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai was its first president and Dewan Chaman Lal was the first general secretary
3. C.R. Das presided over the third and the fourth sessions of the AITUC
4. Gaya session of the Congress (1922) welcomed the formation of the AITUC
|
c
|
Economic Impact of British Rule
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: With reference to freedom struggle,Which of the following is incorrect regarding AITUC(All India Trade Union Congress) ? 1. All India Trade Union Congress was founded on October 31, 1920. 2. Dewan Chaman Lal was its first president and Lala Lajpat Rai was the first general secretary 3. C.R. Das presided over the third and the fourth sessions of the AITUC 4. Gaya session of the Congress (1922) welcomed the formation of the AITUC##Option_A: 1 and 2###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2##Answer:c##Explaination:
1.All India Trade Union Congress was founded on October 31, 1920.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai was its first president and Dewan Chaman Lal was the first general secretary
3. C.R. Das presided over the third and the fourth sessions of the AITUC
4. Gaya session of the Congress (1922) welcomed the formation of the AITUC
##Topic:Economic Impact of British Rule##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is true when the no-confidence motion is passed in Lok Sabha?
1. Ministers from Rajya Sabha resign
2. President has to obilige by the request of the Council of Ministers to dissolve the Lok Sabha
Select the correct option from the above :-
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
D. None
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The President may not obilige and ask the opposition to form the govt
|
a
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is true when the no-confidence motion is passed in Lok Sabha?
1. Ministers from Rajya Sabha resign
2. President has to obilige by the request of the Council of Ministers to dissolve the Lok Sabha
Select the correct option from the above :-
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
D. None
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
The President may not obilige and ask the opposition to form the govt
##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to condition for the growth of coral polyps: Corals mainly found in tropical oceans as they require high mean annual temperature in the range of 20 o C - 25 o C for their survival. As corals need fresh water, they thrive in coastal areas near the mouth of river. Ocean currents lead to coral bleaching, therefore, they develop very well in enclosed seas and lagoons. Very high proportion of ocean salinity can be very good for the development of coral polyps. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Corals cannot survive in the waters either having very high temperature or very low temperature. They mainly found in in tropical oceans as they require high mean annual temperature in the range of 20 o C - 25 o C for their survival. Corals need clean sediments free water because muddy and turbid water clog the mouths of coral polyps resulting into their death. Therefore they don't survive near river mouth. Corals need clean sediments free water but fresh water is also injurious for their growth. Therefore they void coastal lands and live away from the areas of river mouths. Oceans currents and waves are favourable for the growth of corals because they bring necessary food supply. Therefore they grow well in open seas and oceans but die in lagoons and enclosed seas. Very high proportion of ocean salinity is injurious for their growth because such water contain little amount of calcium carbonates whereas lime is important food of coral polyps.
|
a
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to condition for the growth of coral polyps: Corals mainly found in tropical oceans as they require high mean annual temperature in the range of 20 o C - 25 o C for their survival. As corals need fresh water, they thrive in coastal areas near the mouth of river. Ocean currents lead to coral bleaching, therefore, they develop very well in enclosed seas and lagoons. Very high proportion of ocean salinity can be very good for the development of coral polyps. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Corals cannot survive in the waters either having very high temperature or very low temperature. They mainly found in in tropical oceans as they require high mean annual temperature in the range of 20 o C - 25 o C for their survival. Corals need clean sediments free water because muddy and turbid water clog the mouths of coral polyps resulting into their death. Therefore they don't survive near river mouth. Corals need clean sediments free water but fresh water is also injurious for their growth. Therefore they void coastal lands and live away from the areas of river mouths. Oceans currents and waves are favourable for the growth of corals because they bring necessary food supply. Therefore they grow well in open seas and oceans but die in lagoons and enclosed seas. Very high proportion of ocean salinity is injurious for their growth because such water contain little amount of calcium carbonates whereas lime is important food of coral polyps.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to Sirocco consider the following statements: (1) Sirocco is a warm and dry local wind which blows from north east and east to west in the eastern part of Sahara desert. (2) Rain caused by sirocco is called blood rain because of fallout of red sands with falling rains. Select the correct statements:
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
· Sirocco is a warm, dry and dusty local winds which blows in northerly directions from Sahara desert and after crossing Mediterranean it reaches Italy, Spain etc.
· Sirocco pick up moisture while passing over Mediterranean sea and yield rainfall in southern Italy where this rain is called blood rain because of fallout of red sands with falling rains. (It pick up red sand while blowing over Sahara desert.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Sirocco consider the following statements: (1) Sirocco is a warm and dry local wind which blows from north east and east to west in the eastern part of Sahara desert. (2) Rain caused by sirocco is called blood rain because of fallout of red sands with falling rains. Select the correct statements:##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:
· Sirocco is a warm, dry and dusty local winds which blows in northerly directions from Sahara desert and after crossing Mediterranean it reaches Italy, Spain etc.
· Sirocco pick up moisture while passing over Mediterranean sea and yield rainfall in southern Italy where this rain is called blood rain because of fallout of red sands with falling rains. (It pick up red sand while blowing over Sahara desert.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Himalayan ranges are more or less parallel to each other and Curved shape of Himalayas is convex to the south. The Himalayas are the product of divergence of Asiatic plate and Indian plate. Himalayas face frequent earthquakes as plates are still moving and Himalayas are still rising. Himalayan ranges have very steep slopes towards north and gentler slopes towards south. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Himalayan ranges are more or less parallel to each other. The curved shape of Himalayas is convex to the south is attributed to the maximum push offered at the two ends of the Indian peninsular during its northward drift. The Himalayas are the product of convergence of Asiatic plate in the north and Indian plate in the south. Himalayas face frequent earthquake as Indian plate is still moving northward and stress build up between the colliding plates and thus this stress release in the form of energy as earthquakes. And Himalayas are still rising. Himalayan ranges have very steep slopes towards south and gentler slopes towards north.
|
a
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Himalayan ranges are more or less parallel to each other and Curved shape of Himalayas is convex to the south. The Himalayas are the product of divergence of Asiatic plate and Indian plate. Himalayas face frequent earthquakes as plates are still moving and Himalayas are still rising. Himalayan ranges have very steep slopes towards north and gentler slopes towards south. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 3 and 4 only ##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Himalayan ranges are more or less parallel to each other. The curved shape of Himalayas is convex to the south is attributed to the maximum push offered at the two ends of the Indian peninsular during its northward drift. The Himalayas are the product of convergence of Asiatic plate in the north and Indian plate in the south. Himalayas face frequent earthquake as Indian plate is still moving northward and stress build up between the colliding plates and thus this stress release in the form of energy as earthquakes. And Himalayas are still rising. Himalayan ranges have very steep slopes towards south and gentler slopes towards north.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: A Constitution Amendment bill can be introduced by a private member in either House of the Parliament. If a Constitution Amendment bill seeks to make changes in the Federal Character of the Constitution,it must be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the states by a special majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A Constitution Amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or a private member and does not require prior permission of the President.
There is only provision for a simple majority in the state legislature and not of a special majority.
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: A Constitution Amendment bill can be introduced by a private member in either House of the Parliament. If a Constitution Amendment bill seeks to make changes in the Federal Character of the Constitution,it must be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the states by a special majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
A Constitution Amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or a private member and does not require prior permission of the President.
There is only provision for a simple majority in the state legislature and not of a special majority.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
According to the Constitution of India, which of the following provides for India to be a "Welfare State"? Fundamental Rights Fundamental Duties Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy contains many provisions which provides for India to be a 'Welfare State' like free access to education, minority rights, social justice and economic justice rights.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to the Constitution of India, which of the following provides for India to be a "Welfare State"? Fundamental Rights Fundamental Duties Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy contains many provisions which provides for India to be a 'Welfare State' like free access to education, minority rights, social justice and economic justice rights.##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following can be the basis for limitations on the Right to Freedom of Expression? sovereignty and integrity of India public order decency or morality defamation hurting sentiments causing offense
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 4 and 6 only
|
1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
nan
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following can be the basis for limitations on the Right to Freedom of Expression? sovereignty and integrity of India public order decency or morality defamation hurting sentiments causing offense##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2, 4 and 6 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Who among the following can preside over the joint sitting of the Parliament? Speaker of Lok Sabha Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha Chairperson of Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Joint session is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the Two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting. It is clear that the Chairman of Rajya Sabha doesn’t preside over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House of the Parliament.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following can preside over the joint sitting of the Parliament? Speaker of Lok Sabha Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha Chairperson of Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Joint session is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the Two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting. It is clear that the Chairman of Rajya Sabha doesn’t preside over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House of the Parliament.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the statements given below is/are correct regarding the ordinance making power of the President of India? An ordinance may come into force from a back date (it can have retrospective effect). Decision of the President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court. An ordinance can be issued even if one House is in session. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
An ordinance can be retrospective. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. An ordinance can be issued even if one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the statements given below is/are correct regarding the ordinance making power of the President of India? An ordinance may come into force from a back date (it can have retrospective effect). Decision of the President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court. An ordinance can be issued even if one House is in session. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:An ordinance can be retrospective. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. An ordinance can be issued even if one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the powers of the Governor under the 71 st Constitutional Amendment Act: The Governor cannot remove the State Election Commissioner, though appointed by him. The Governor decides the composition of the State Finance Commission, the qualification of its members and the manner of their selection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
2 nd statement is incorrect - The State legislature decides the composition of the State Finance Commission, the qualification of its members and the manner of their selection.
|
a
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the powers of the Governor under the 71 st Constitutional Amendment Act: The Governor cannot remove the State Election Commissioner, though appointed by him. The Governor decides the composition of the State Finance Commission, the qualification of its members and the manner of their selection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:2 nd statement is incorrect - The State legislature decides the composition of the State Finance Commission, the qualification of its members and the manner of their selection.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
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Consider the following statements: 1. Muhammad Ghori like his predecessor Mahmud of Ghazini wanted to annex Indian kingdoms to his empire. 2. Muhammad Ghori established first Muslim kingdom in India at Ajmer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Muhammad Ghori wanted to conquer Indian kingdoms and annex them but Mahmud Ghazini did not want to annex part of India. His main aim was looting and plundering the wealth of India. So, the second part of the statement is incorrect. After defeating Prithviraj Chauhan in 2nd Battle of Tarain in 1192 AD, Muhammad Ghori established first Muslim kingdom in India in Ajmer.
|
b
|
Early Medieval Period: North India ( Rajput Period )
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Muhammad Ghori like his predecessor Mahmud of Ghazini wanted to annex Indian kingdoms to his empire. 2. Muhammad Ghori established first Muslim kingdom in India at Ajmer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Muhammad Ghori wanted to conquer Indian kingdoms and annex them but Mahmud Ghazini did not want to annex part of India. His main aim was looting and plundering the wealth of India. So, the second part of the statement is incorrect. After defeating Prithviraj Chauhan in 2nd Battle of Tarain in 1192 AD, Muhammad Ghori established first Muslim kingdom in India in Ajmer.##Topic:Early Medieval Period: North India ( Rajput Period )##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
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Consider following pair regarding usage of pottery in ancient India.
Type of pottery Period of use
Ochre colored pottery ware : 2 nd Millenium BCE
Northern Black Polished ware : Indus valley civilization Period
Black and Red Ware : Later Hadappan period
Painted Grey Ware : Aryan Period
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Different cultures are identified by their distinct pottery and they also depict the level of cultural and technical development.
Ochre colored pottery belongs to 2 nd millennium BCE and it was one of the potteries used by Hadappan people.
Black and Red ware belongs to later Hadappan civilizations and its period roughly falls between 1200 BCE to 800 BCE. It is sandwitched between OCPW and PGW. It has black color inside and near the rim on the outside, and red color over the rest of the body. This color combination was produced by inverted firing.
Painted Grey Ware or PGW belongs to a period between 800 BCE to 400 BCE. It was characteristic potteryof Aryan people.
Northern Black Polished Ware is most advanced stage of distinct pottery making in ancient India. It started from Mahjanapada period. Its period is roughly between 500 BCE to 100 BCE.
|
d
|
GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider following pair regarding usage of pottery in ancient India.
Type of pottery Period of use
Ochre colored pottery ware : 2 nd Millenium BCE
Northern Black Polished ware : Indus valley civilization Period
Black and Red Ware : Later Hadappan period
Painted Grey Ware : Aryan Period
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Different cultures are identified by their distinct pottery and they also depict the level of cultural and technical development.
Ochre colored pottery belongs to 2 nd millennium BCE and it was one of the potteries used by Hadappan people.
Black and Red ware belongs to later Hadappan civilizations and its period roughly falls between 1200 BCE to 800 BCE. It is sandwitched between OCPW and PGW. It has black color inside and near the rim on the outside, and red color over the rest of the body. This color combination was produced by inverted firing.
Painted Grey Ware or PGW belongs to a period between 800 BCE to 400 BCE. It was characteristic potteryof Aryan people.
Northern Black Polished Ware is most advanced stage of distinct pottery making in ancient India. It started from Mahjanapada period. Its period is roughly between 500 BCE to 100 BCE.
##Topic:GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Soil alkalinity: It is associated with the presence of sodium carbonates in the soil. Over irrigation in canal-irrigated areas is the prominent reason behind Soil Alkalinity. Alkalinity problems are more pronounced in Silty or Sandy soils as compared to Clay soils. These types of soils can be reclaimed by adding acidifying minerals like pyrite and Gypsum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Alkaline soils are soils (mostly clay soils) with a high pH (> 9) and a poor soil structure and a low infiltration capacity. The causes of soil alkalinity are natural or they can be man-made. The natural development is due to the presence soil minerals producing sodium carbonate upon weathering. The man-made development is due to the application of irrigation water (surface or ground water) containing a relatively high proportion of sodium bicarbonates). Soil alkalinity is associated with the presence of sodium carbonates (Na 2 CO 3 ) in the soil, either as a result of natural mineralization of the soil particles or brought in by irrigation and/or floodwater. Alkalinity problems are more pronounced in clay soils than in loamy, silty or sandy soils. Hence 3rd statement is incorrect. Alkaline soils with solid CaCO 3 can be reclaimed with grass cultures, ensuring the incorporation of much acidifying organic material into the soil, and leaching of the excess sodium. Deep ploughing and incorporating the calcareous subsoil into the topsoil also helps. It is also possible to reclaim them by adding like pyrite and gypsum (calcium sulphate, CaSO 4 )
|
c
|
Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Soil alkalinity: It is associated with the presence of sodium carbonates in the soil. Over irrigation in canal-irrigated areas is the prominent reason behind Soil Alkalinity. Alkalinity problems are more pronounced in Silty or Sandy soils as compared to Clay soils. These types of soils can be reclaimed by adding acidifying minerals like pyrite and Gypsum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Alkaline soils are soils (mostly clay soils) with a high pH (> 9) and a poor soil structure and a low infiltration capacity. The causes of soil alkalinity are natural or they can be man-made. The natural development is due to the presence soil minerals producing sodium carbonate upon weathering. The man-made development is due to the application of irrigation water (surface or ground water) containing a relatively high proportion of sodium bicarbonates). Soil alkalinity is associated with the presence of sodium carbonates (Na 2 CO 3 ) in the soil, either as a result of natural mineralization of the soil particles or brought in by irrigation and/or floodwater. Alkalinity problems are more pronounced in clay soils than in loamy, silty or sandy soils. Hence 3rd statement is incorrect. Alkaline soils with solid CaCO 3 can be reclaimed with grass cultures, ensuring the incorporation of much acidifying organic material into the soil, and leaching of the excess sodium. Deep ploughing and incorporating the calcareous subsoil into the topsoil also helps. It is also possible to reclaim them by adding like pyrite and gypsum (calcium sulphate, CaSO 4 ) ##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Market Rate of Interest: Price of a bond is inversely related to the market rate of interest. Speculative demand for money is inversely related to the market rate of interest. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Speculative demand for money can be written as M=(Rmax-R)/(R-Rmin) Where R is the market rate of interest and Rmax and Rmin are the upper and lower limits of R, both positive constants. It is evident from equation that as R decreases from Rmax to Rmin, the value of M increases from 0 to ∞. Hence 2nd statement is correct. Similarly 1st statement is also correct. Another way to understnd is - To grasp why bond prices move opposite to interest rates is to consider zero-coupon bonds, which don't pay coupons but derive their value from the difference between the purchase price and the par value paid at maturity. If a zero-coupon bond is trading at $950 and has a par value of $1,000 (paid at maturity in one year), the bond's rate of return at the present time is approximately 5.26% ((1000-950) / 950 = 5.26%). If current interest rates were to rise, giving newly issued bonds a yield of 10%, then the zero-coupon bond yielding 5.26% would not only be less attractive, it wouldn't be in demand at all. Who wants a 5.26% yield when they can get 10%? To attract demand, the price of the pre-existing zero-coupon bond would have to decrease enough to match the same return yielded by prevailing interest rates.
|
d
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Market Rate of Interest: Price of a bond is inversely related to the market rate of interest. Speculative demand for money is inversely related to the market rate of interest. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Speculative demand for money can be written as M=(Rmax-R)/(R-Rmin) Where R is the market rate of interest and Rmax and Rmin are the upper and lower limits of R, both positive constants. It is evident from equation that as R decreases from Rmax to Rmin, the value of M increases from 0 to ∞. Hence 2nd statement is correct. Similarly 1st statement is also correct. Another way to understnd is - To grasp why bond prices move opposite to interest rates is to consider zero-coupon bonds, which don't pay coupons but derive their value from the difference between the purchase price and the par value paid at maturity. If a zero-coupon bond is trading at $950 and has a par value of $1,000 (paid at maturity in one year), the bond's rate of return at the present time is approximately 5.26% ((1000-950) / 950 = 5.26%). If current interest rates were to rise, giving newly issued bonds a yield of 10%, then the zero-coupon bond yielding 5.26% would not only be less attractive, it wouldn't be in demand at all. Who wants a 5.26% yield when they can get 10%? To attract demand, the price of the pre-existing zero-coupon bond would have to decrease enough to match the same return yielded by prevailing interest rates.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statement/s regarding fiat money is/are correct? Currency notes are called fiat money because they don"t have intrinsic value like a gold or silver coin. They cannot be refused by any citizen of the country for settlement of any kind of transaction. Cheques and Demand deposits are the example of fiat money. Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Currency notes and coins are therefore called fiat money. They do not have intrinsic value like a gold or silver coin. They are also called legal tenders as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the country for settlement of any kind of transaction. Cheques drawn on savings or current accounts, however , can be refused by anyone as a mode of payment. Hence, demand deposits are not legal tenders. Currency that a government has declared to be legal tender, but is not backed by a physical commodity. The value of fiat money is derived from the relationship between supply and demand rather than the value of the material that the money is made of.
|
a
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement/s regarding fiat money is/are correct? Currency notes are called fiat money because they don"t have intrinsic value like a gold or silver coin. They cannot be refused by any citizen of the country for settlement of any kind of transaction. Cheques and Demand deposits are the example of fiat money. Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Currency notes and coins are therefore called fiat money. They do not have intrinsic value like a gold or silver coin. They are also called legal tenders as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the country for settlement of any kind of transaction. Cheques drawn on savings or current accounts, however , can be refused by anyone as a mode of payment. Hence, demand deposits are not legal tenders. Currency that a government has declared to be legal tender, but is not backed by a physical commodity. The value of fiat money is derived from the relationship between supply and demand rather than the value of the material that the money is made of.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With regard to philosophy of Advaitavada , consider the following statements :
1. It believed in non-dualism.
2. It rejected the path of Bhakti.
3. It believed in salvation through knowledge(jnana).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Correct answer (b)
2nd statement incorrect because Advaitavada philosophy propunded by Sankara also called the doctrine of non-dualism, didnot reject the path of bhakti , but rather the bhakt or the devotee had to first clean his heart through jnan or knowledge which can only be attained through Vedic scriptures. In other words, Sankara confirmed Vedas as the fountainhead of true knowledge. Rest all the statements are correct.
|
b
|
Religious Movements Bhakti Movement
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With regard to philosophy of Advaitavada , consider the following statements :
1. It believed in non-dualism.
2. It rejected the path of Bhakti.
3. It believed in salvation through knowledge(jnana).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Correct answer (b)
2nd statement incorrect because Advaitavada philosophy propunded by Sankara also called the doctrine of non-dualism, didnot reject the path of bhakti , but rather the bhakt or the devotee had to first clean his heart through jnan or knowledge which can only be attained through Vedic scriptures. In other words, Sankara confirmed Vedas as the fountainhead of true knowledge. Rest all the statements are correct.
##Topic:Religious Movements Bhakti Movement##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Which of the following can be regarded as the reason(s) for the conversion of large number of Hindus under the Delhi Sultanate period? The nature of Jizyah tax forced Hindus to embrace Islam. Influence of Sufi saints was major reason for Hindus converting to Islam. The lower caste embraced Islam due to the discrimination by upper caste. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Correct answer is option (d) i.e. all the statements are incorrect. 1st statement is incorrect because Jizyah was a tax levied by the Sultanate rulers in lieu of the military service provided to protect the Hindus who accepted the Muslim rule ( and not the religion per se) and the ones who had insufficient means like women , children , etc. were exempted from this tax. Under some rulers, Brahmanas were also exempted even though not provided under Muslim rule. 2nd and 3rd statements are incorrect because conversions during this period mostly happened in the hopes for political gain, economic advantage, personal failth, etc or when an important ruler or tribal chief converted to Islam, his subjects followed the suit . However, there has been no evidence( no historical account) found to establish the fact that lower caste people converted to Islam to avoid discriminations against them in the Hindu society or to the influence of Sufi Saints mass conversions took place ( even though Sufi Saints did provide a receptive climate for Islam, but the conversions that took place were at the personal or individual level.)
|
d
|
The Delhi Sultanate
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following can be regarded as the reason(s) for the conversion of large number of Hindus under the Delhi Sultanate period? The nature of Jizyah tax forced Hindus to embrace Islam. Influence of Sufi saints was major reason for Hindus converting to Islam. The lower caste embraced Islam due to the discrimination by upper caste. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Correct answer is option (d) i.e. all the statements are incorrect. 1st statement is incorrect because Jizyah was a tax levied by the Sultanate rulers in lieu of the military service provided to protect the Hindus who accepted the Muslim rule ( and not the religion per se) and the ones who had insufficient means like women , children , etc. were exempted from this tax. Under some rulers, Brahmanas were also exempted even though not provided under Muslim rule. 2nd and 3rd statements are incorrect because conversions during this period mostly happened in the hopes for political gain, economic advantage, personal failth, etc or when an important ruler or tribal chief converted to Islam, his subjects followed the suit . However, there has been no evidence( no historical account) found to establish the fact that lower caste people converted to Islam to avoid discriminations against them in the Hindu society or to the influence of Sufi Saints mass conversions took place ( even though Sufi Saints did provide a receptive climate for Islam, but the conversions that took place were at the personal or individual level.)##Topic:The Delhi Sultanate##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
About sixty percent (60%) of the population of our country depends on Agriculture and its allied activities as their principal source of livelihood. Which of the following initiatives can be said to be useful for making agriculture economically sustainable, and hence, a profession for farmers to practice with pride and prestige?
1. National Food Security Mission
2. National Dairy Plan
3. Price Stabilization Fund
4. National Horticulture Mission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1,2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
National Food Security Mission aims to increase production of Rice, Wheat and Pulses by adopting new farm practices and capacity building of farmers.
National Dairy Plan is to improve productivity of Milch animals and integrating rural milk producers with organized milk processing sector.
National Horticulture Mission aims at holistic development of horticulture sector by ensuring forward and backward linkages.
---All the above programmes/mission is helpful to boost up yield of crops, fruits and vegetables and,therefore empowering farmers economically.
The Department of Agriculture and Cooperation has approved the Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) as a Central Sector Scheme to support market interventions for price control of perishable agriculture and horticultural commodities. This intervention is expected to regulate price volatility,so, cannot be attributed to increasing productivity and farmer's income.
|
d
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:About sixty percent (60%) of the population of our country depends on Agriculture and its allied activities as their principal source of livelihood. Which of the following initiatives can be said to be useful for making agriculture economically sustainable, and hence, a profession for farmers to practice with pride and prestige?
1. National Food Security Mission
2. National Dairy Plan
3. Price Stabilization Fund
4. National Horticulture Mission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1,2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:National Food Security Mission aims to increase production of Rice, Wheat and Pulses by adopting new farm practices and capacity building of farmers.
National Dairy Plan is to improve productivity of Milch animals and integrating rural milk producers with organized milk processing sector.
National Horticulture Mission aims at holistic development of horticulture sector by ensuring forward and backward linkages.
---All the above programmes/mission is helpful to boost up yield of crops, fruits and vegetables and,therefore empowering farmers economically.
The Department of Agriculture and Cooperation has approved the Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) as a Central Sector Scheme to support market interventions for price control of perishable agriculture and horticultural commodities. This intervention is expected to regulate price volatility,so, cannot be attributed to increasing productivity and farmer's income.##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Quit India movement was started after the failure of Cripps India Mission. 2. Quit India movement was a civil disobedience movement. 3. Parallel government was started in Satara by Y B Chavan, Nana Patil and others. 4. Businessmen did not support the Quit India movement. Which of the above statements are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Businessmen actively helped the movement through donations, shelter and material help
|
a
|
Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Quit India movement was started after the failure of Cripps India Mission. 2. Quit India movement was a civil disobedience movement. 3. Parallel government was started in Satara by Y B Chavan, Nana Patil and others. 4. Businessmen did not support the Quit India movement. Which of the above statements are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Businessmen actively helped the movement through donations, shelter and material help
##Topic:Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of the below mentioned initiatives are primarily focused on increasing transparency and efficiency into the processes of governance?
SEVOTTAM
Shram Suvidha Portal
eBiz scheme
Sagarmala Project
Udaan Scheme
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
The concept of Sevottam is related to reforms, performances and public grievances and comes from the Hindi words “Seva” and “Uttam” and means excellence in service delivery.
The Shram Suvidha Portal was launched in the Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate programme in 2014. This portal will facilitate ease of reporting at one place or various Labour Laws, consolidated information of Labour Inspection and its enforcement. This initiative will bring together all multiple labor enforcement agencies on a common platform.
eBiz is to avail 14 Government of India Services through online single window portal.
"Sagarmala Project" has been launched with an objective of modernizing the ports along India's coastline and achieving rapid expansion of port capacity and development of inland and coastal Navigation.
Udaan scheme is for youth of Jammu & Kashmir to provide skills and provide employ-ability with the help of National Skill Development Council (NSDC).
|
c
|
Good Governance , e-Governance
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the below mentioned initiatives are primarily focused on increasing transparency and efficiency into the processes of governance?
SEVOTTAM
Shram Suvidha Portal
eBiz scheme
Sagarmala Project
Udaan Scheme
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1, 3 and 5 only
###Option_B: 2, 3 and 5 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1, 3 and 5 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
The concept of Sevottam is related to reforms, performances and public grievances and comes from the Hindi words “Seva” and “Uttam” and means excellence in service delivery.
The Shram Suvidha Portal was launched in the Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate programme in 2014. This portal will facilitate ease of reporting at one place or various Labour Laws, consolidated information of Labour Inspection and its enforcement. This initiative will bring together all multiple labor enforcement agencies on a common platform.
eBiz is to avail 14 Government of India Services through online single window portal.
"Sagarmala Project" has been launched with an objective of modernizing the ports along India's coastline and achieving rapid expansion of port capacity and development of inland and coastal Navigation.
Udaan scheme is for youth of Jammu & Kashmir to provide skills and provide employ-ability with the help of National Skill Development Council (NSDC).
##Topic:Good Governance , e-Governance ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following sentence regarding the usage of seals during Hadappan period:
Their primary purpose was to mark the ownership of the property.
They were used as currency for the purpose commercial exchange.
They were used by Hadappan people as amulets or ornaments.
These seals also had religious significance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
Only 1, 3 and 4
|
Only 1 and 2
|
One of the characteristic features Hadappa civilization was its seals.
They were used for many purposes:
They were used by traders and trade association to mark or stamp the ownership of property.
They were used as amulets and ornaments.
They also had religious significance as they were used as amulets and their depiction appears to be the scenes from religious legends.
They were not used as currency for commercial exchange.
Hadappan seals are only significant example of Hadappan script to have survived. They usually depicted animals, such as the bull tiger, elephant, goat, buffalo etc.
|
c
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following sentence regarding the usage of seals during Hadappan period:
Their primary purpose was to mark the ownership of the property.
They were used as currency for the purpose commercial exchange.
They were used by Hadappan people as amulets or ornaments.
These seals also had religious significance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: Only 1 and 2
###Option_B: Only 1, 2 and 3
##Option_C: Only 1, 3 and 4
##Option_D: Only 1 and 2
##Answer:c##Explaination:
One of the characteristic features Hadappa civilization was its seals.
They were used for many purposes:
They were used by traders and trade association to mark or stamp the ownership of property.
They were used as amulets and ornaments.
They also had religious significance as they were used as amulets and their depiction appears to be the scenes from religious legends.
They were not used as currency for commercial exchange.
Hadappan seals are only significant example of Hadappan script to have survived. They usually depicted animals, such as the bull tiger, elephant, goat, buffalo etc.
##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Press Trust of India is a statutory quasi-judicial authority mandated by the Parliament to improve the standards of newspapers and the news agencies in India. Press Council of India has the additional responsibility of Advisory institution to Election Commission and other government institutions. NAM News Network is the news exchange arrangement of the news agencies belonging to non-aligned movement countries. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
PCI is a statutory quasi-judicial authority mandated by the Parliament to preserve the freedom of the press and maintain and improve the standards of newspapers and the news agencies in India. Press Trust of India (PTI) is India’s largest news agency. It is a non-profit sharing cooperative owned by the country’s newspapers with a mandate to provide efficient and unbiased news to all the subscribers. The PCI has rendered its opinion from time-to-time to Law Commission and also to Election Commission on issue of Paid News etc. NAM News Network uses English, French, Spanish and Arabic for exchange of News among its member countries.
|
a
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Press Trust of India is a statutory quasi-judicial authority mandated by the Parliament to improve the standards of newspapers and the news agencies in India. Press Council of India has the additional responsibility of Advisory institution to Election Commission and other government institutions. NAM News Network is the news exchange arrangement of the news agencies belonging to non-aligned movement countries. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:PCI is a statutory quasi-judicial authority mandated by the Parliament to preserve the freedom of the press and maintain and improve the standards of newspapers and the news agencies in India. Press Trust of India (PTI) is India’s largest news agency. It is a non-profit sharing cooperative owned by the country’s newspapers with a mandate to provide efficient and unbiased news to all the subscribers. The PCI has rendered its opinion from time-to-time to Law Commission and also to Election Commission on issue of Paid News etc. NAM News Network uses English, French, Spanish and Arabic for exchange of News among its member countries.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements on Mountbatten Plan: The date of independence was fixed as Aug 15, 1947. Referendum in Punjab and Bengal would decide their fate. Congress" acceptance of Mountbatten plan was in tune with the spirit of Lahore Congress (1929). Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Referendum was not held in Punjab and Bengal. Lahore Congress of 1929 had set the goal of Congress as Poorna Swaraj (complete independence), where as Mountbatten plan offered Dominion Status. It was accepted to ensure a smooth transfer of power
|
a
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements on Mountbatten Plan: The date of independence was fixed as Aug 15, 1947. Referendum in Punjab and Bengal would decide their fate. Congress" acceptance of Mountbatten plan was in tune with the spirit of Lahore Congress (1929). Which of the above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Referendum was not held in Punjab and Bengal. Lahore Congress of 1929 had set the goal of Congress as Poorna Swaraj (complete independence), where as Mountbatten plan offered Dominion Status. It was accepted to ensure a smooth transfer of power##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015: It provides for Overseas Citizens of India(OCI) cardholders to be considered as Persons of Indian Origin(PIO) cardholders. Both OCI and PIO cardholders shall be provided a life-long visa. Any person who is/has been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh will be ineligible to apply for Overseas Citizenship of India under this Act. Which of the statement given below is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2015 was passed by the Parliament in March, 2015. Statement 1 is incorrect :The Act provides for Persons of Indian Origin cardholders to be considered as Overseas citizen of India cardholders. Statement 2 is correct :Both will now get life-long visa. Earlier, PIO cardholders were entitled to visa free entry into India for 15 years. The Act provides that where a person renounces their overseas citizenship, their minor child shall also cease to be an Overseas Citizen of India. Statement 3 is also correct : The Act also provides that any person who is/has been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh or any other country which is notified by the central government will be ineligible to apply for Overseas Citizenship of India.
|
c
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015: It provides for Overseas Citizens of India(OCI) cardholders to be considered as Persons of Indian Origin(PIO) cardholders. Both OCI and PIO cardholders shall be provided a life-long visa. Any person who is/has been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh will be ineligible to apply for Overseas Citizenship of India under this Act. Which of the statement given below is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:c##Explaination:Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2015 was passed by the Parliament in March, 2015. Statement 1 is incorrect :The Act provides for Persons of Indian Origin cardholders to be considered as Overseas citizen of India cardholders. Statement 2 is correct :Both will now get life-long visa. Earlier, PIO cardholders were entitled to visa free entry into India for 15 years. The Act provides that where a person renounces their overseas citizenship, their minor child shall also cease to be an Overseas Citizen of India. Statement 3 is also correct : The Act also provides that any person who is/has been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh or any other country which is notified by the central government will be ineligible to apply for Overseas Citizenship of India. ##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Investment or Gross Capital Formation in India: India"s Investment Ratio is higher than Savings Ratio. Expenditure on construction of buildings, bridges, roads are considered as investment. Contribution of Expenditure on gold in overall investment increased in the past 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
Investment = Savings - Current Account Balance. Since, India has a negative Current Account Balance (CAD), Investment is greater than Savings. Basically, Gross Capital Formation includes 3 things: Fixed Capital Formation (Buildings, Bridges, Roads, etc.) Valuables (including gold) Increase in Inventory Investments in Gold hovers around 1.5% of GDP for India. However, with high inflation, low growth , investment in Valuables increased to 2.6% of GDP in 2012-13.
|
d
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Investment or Gross Capital Formation in India: India"s Investment Ratio is higher than Savings Ratio. Expenditure on construction of buildings, bridges, roads are considered as investment. Contribution of Expenditure on gold in overall investment increased in the past 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Investment = Savings - Current Account Balance. Since, India has a negative Current Account Balance (CAD), Investment is greater than Savings. Basically, Gross Capital Formation includes 3 things: Fixed Capital Formation (Buildings, Bridges, Roads, etc.) Valuables (including gold) Increase in Inventory Investments in Gold hovers around 1.5% of GDP for India. However, with high inflation, low growth , investment in Valuables increased to 2.6% of GDP in 2012-13. ##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
According to the Constitution, which of the following is/are true with regards to the appointment as a Governor of a state? He should be eligible to be elected as a member of Lok Sabha. He should have completed the age of 35 years. While appointing the Governor, the President should consult the Chief Minister of the state concerned. He should not belong to the state in which he is appointed as a governor. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a governor. These are: He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed the age of 35 years. Statements 3 and 4 are also correct but these are conventions that have developed in this regard. These are not provided for in the Constitution.
|
b
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to the Constitution, which of the following is/are true with regards to the appointment as a Governor of a state? He should be eligible to be elected as a member of Lok Sabha. He should have completed the age of 35 years. While appointing the Governor, the President should consult the Chief Minister of the state concerned. He should not belong to the state in which he is appointed as a governor. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a governor. These are: He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed the age of 35 years. Statements 3 and 4 are also correct but these are conventions that have developed in this regard. These are not provided for in the Constitution.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With regard to the National Human Rights Commission, which of the following statements are incorrect? The commission can award monetary relief to the victim of a human right violation. NHRC submits its annual reports to the President, who causes it to be laid before the respective legislatures. The chairman of NHRC is selected by a panel comprising the Prime Minister, Minister of Home Affairs and Leader of Opposition. Select the correct option using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
The functions of the NHRC are mainly recommendatory in nature. NHRC has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. It submits its reports to the Central or state government concerned. These reports are laid before the respective legislatures. The chairman of NHRC should be a retd. Chief Justice of India. The chairman and members are appointed by the president on the recommendation of a six-member committee consisting of: The prime minister as its head, The Speaker of the Lok Sabha, The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, Leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament and The Central home minister.
|
d
|
NHRC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the National Human Rights Commission, which of the following statements are incorrect? The commission can award monetary relief to the victim of a human right violation. NHRC submits its annual reports to the President, who causes it to be laid before the respective legislatures. The chairman of NHRC is selected by a panel comprising the Prime Minister, Minister of Home Affairs and Leader of Opposition. Select the correct option using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The functions of the NHRC are mainly recommendatory in nature. NHRC has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. It submits its reports to the Central or state government concerned. These reports are laid before the respective legislatures. The chairman of NHRC should be a retd. Chief Justice of India. The chairman and members are appointed by the president on the recommendation of a six-member committee consisting of: The prime minister as its head, The Speaker of the Lok Sabha, The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, Leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament and The Central home minister.##Topic:NHRC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding Littoral forest is/are incorrect ? They are found in Wet marshy areas. They are distributed in the deltas of large rivers on the western coast. Mangroves are the important trees of the littoral forest. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
The statement 2 is incorrect because, they are distributed in the deltas of large rivers on the eastern coast and in the pockets on the western coast in saline swamps of sunder=ban in west Bengal and coastal areas of Andra Pradesh and Odisha.
|
b
|
Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Littoral forest is/are incorrect ? They are found in Wet marshy areas. They are distributed in the deltas of large rivers on the western coast. Mangroves are the important trees of the littoral forest. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:b##Explaination:The statement 2 is incorrect because, they are distributed in the deltas of large rivers on the eastern coast and in the pockets on the western coast in saline swamps of sunder=ban in west Bengal and coastal areas of Andra Pradesh and Odisha.##Topic:Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following features: The mean annual temperature is between 25-27 deg C. Plants remain leafless and scrub vegetation. These forest are found in south western Punjab. Which of the following type of vegetation satisfies all the above condition?
|
Montane forest
|
Tropical Deciduous forest
|
Tropical thorn forest
|
Montane forest
|
Tropical desert or thorn forest are found in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm, the mean annual temperature ranges between 25c to 27c and has humidity below 47 % The forests are chiefly distributed in the south western Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, central and eastern Rajasthan. Due to paucity of rainfall, the trees are stunted with large patches of coarse grasses. Plants remain leafless for most part of the year and look like scrub vegetation.
|
c
|
Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following features: The mean annual temperature is between 25-27 deg C. Plants remain leafless and scrub vegetation. These forest are found in south western Punjab. Which of the following type of vegetation satisfies all the above condition?##Option_A: Montane forest###Option_B: Tropical Deciduous forest##Option_C: Tropical thorn forest##Option_D: Montane forest##Answer:c##Explaination:Tropical desert or thorn forest are found in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm, the mean annual temperature ranges between 25c to 27c and has humidity below 47 % The forests are chiefly distributed in the south western Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, central and eastern Rajasthan. Due to paucity of rainfall, the trees are stunted with large patches of coarse grasses. Plants remain leafless for most part of the year and look like scrub vegetation.##Topic:Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following: Terrace farming Contour ploughing Strip cropping Construction of Dams Which of the above options is/are used to prevent soil erosion and to conserve soil?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Following are some of the measures taken to prevent soil erosion and to conserve soil: (a) Terrace farming (b) Shelter belts (c) Contour ploughing (d) Strip cropping (e) Construction of Dams (f) Plugging gullies (g) Planting trees
|
d
|
Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: Terrace farming Contour ploughing Strip cropping Construction of Dams Which of the above options is/are used to prevent soil erosion and to conserve soil?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Following are some of the measures taken to prevent soil erosion and to conserve soil: (a) Terrace farming (b) Shelter belts (c) Contour ploughing (d) Strip cropping (e) Construction of Dams (f) Plugging gullies (g) Planting trees##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following: It is rich in potash and lime. It is suitable for cultivation of wheat, sugarcane. It is present in Lower Ganga valley. Which of the following soils satisfies the above features?
|
Alluvial soil
|
Laterite soil
|
Marshy Soil
|
Alluvial soil
|
Alluvial soil is rich in potash and lime and suitable for the cultivation of wheat, and sugarcane. It is present in Lower Ganga valley. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: It is rich in potash and lime. It is suitable for cultivation of wheat, sugarcane. It is present in Lower Ganga valley. Which of the following soils satisfies the above features?##Option_A: Alluvial soil###Option_B: Laterite soil##Option_C: Marshy Soil##Option_D: Alluvial soil##Answer:a##Explaination:Alluvial soil is rich in potash and lime and suitable for the cultivation of wheat, and sugarcane. It is present in Lower Ganga valley. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: In South India, the hot weather is not as intense as North India. The coastal areas experience seasonal change very often in the distribution pattern of temperature. Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
In South India, the hot weather is not as intense as North India this is because the moderating influence of the oceans together with the peninsular situation of south India keeps the temperatures lower than that in north India. The coastal areas hardly experience seasonal change in the distribution pattern of temperature due to the moderating influence of the sea and proximity to the equator.
|
b
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: In South India, the hot weather is not as intense as North India. The coastal areas experience seasonal change very often in the distribution pattern of temperature. Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:In South India, the hot weather is not as intense as North India this is because the moderating influence of the oceans together with the peninsular situation of south India keeps the temperatures lower than that in north India. The coastal areas hardly experience seasonal change in the distribution pattern of temperature due to the moderating influence of the sea and proximity to the equator.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following: The Himalayas The Monsoon Winds Latitude Western disturbances Distance from the sea Which of the above are the factors that affect the climate of India?
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
Climate refers to the generalized and composite picture of the average weather conditions spread over a long period, for a given large area. The factors which influence the climate of India are: The Himalayas The Monsoon Winds Latitude Western disturbances Distance from the sea The Varied relief Altitude Influencing of the surrounding seas Jet streams
|
d
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: The Himalayas The Monsoon Winds Latitude Western disturbances Distance from the sea Which of the above are the factors that affect the climate of India?##Option_A: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Climate refers to the generalized and composite picture of the average weather conditions spread over a long period, for a given large area. The factors which influence the climate of India are: The Himalayas The Monsoon Winds Latitude Western disturbances Distance from the sea The Varied relief Altitude Influencing of the surrounding seas Jet streams##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Chinook, a local wind: Wind Chinook is experienced on the windward side of mountains in North America. Chinook wind is responsible for snowfall in Rockies. The wind helps the growth of fruits and crops in North America. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3
|
Chinook is experienced on the leeward side of mountains in North America. They are 'snow eaters' which cause avalanches. They are not responsible for snow fall as they are warm winds. The Chinook winds help in growth of crops is snow-covered areas of mountains in North America.
|
c
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Chinook, a local wind: Wind Chinook is experienced on the windward side of mountains in North America. Chinook wind is responsible for snowfall in Rockies. The wind helps the growth of fruits and crops in North America. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 3##Answer:c##Explaination:Chinook is experienced on the leeward side of mountains in North America. They are 'snow eaters' which cause avalanches. They are not responsible for snow fall as they are warm winds. The Chinook winds help in growth of crops is snow-covered areas of mountains in North America.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Suppose centre collects X amount of income tax. Y is the amount which is spent in collecting this tax. Which of the following amount will be liable to be shared between centre and states?
|
X
|
X + Y
|
X – Y
|
X
|
Income tax is levied and collected by the Centre but its proceeds are distributed between the Centre and the states. However the amount spent on collecting the taxes will be deducted from the total amount of income tax to be shared between states and centre.
|
c
|
Center-State Financial Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Suppose centre collects X amount of income tax. Y is the amount which is spent in collecting this tax. Which of the following amount will be liable to be shared between centre and states?
##Option_A: X
###Option_B: X + Y
##Option_C: X – Y
##Option_D: X
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Income tax is levied and collected by the Centre but its proceeds are distributed between the Centre and the states. However the amount spent on collecting the taxes will be deducted from the total amount of income tax to be shared between states and centre.
##Topic:Center-State Financial Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is correct regarding Special Leave Petitions (SLP) filed in the Supreme Court?
|
A party aggrieved by the judgment of High Court in criminal matters, has the right to file SLP in Supreme Court.
|
SLP is a discretionary power that lies with the Supreme Court.
|
SLP can be granted against any court or tribunal, and not necessarily against a high court.
|
A party aggrieved by the judgment of High Court in criminal matters, has the right to file SLP in Supreme Court.
|
The Supreme Court is authorized to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgment in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). Therefore, options (a) and (c) are incorrect. SLP cannot be claimed as a matter of right. This power of Supreme Court falls under Appellate jurisdiction.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is correct regarding Special Leave Petitions (SLP) filed in the Supreme Court?
##Option_A: A party aggrieved by the judgment of High Court in criminal matters, has the right to file SLP in Supreme Court.
###Option_B: SLP is a discretionary power that lies with the Supreme Court.
##Option_C: SLP can be granted against any court or tribunal, and not necessarily against a high court.
##Option_D: A party aggrieved by the judgment of High Court in criminal matters, has the right to file SLP in Supreme Court.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Supreme Court is authorized to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgment in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). Therefore, options (a) and (c) are incorrect. SLP cannot be claimed as a matter of right. This power of Supreme Court falls under Appellate jurisdiction.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Unorganized Sector in India.
Unorganized sector includes unincorporated enterprises and household industries, which do not maintain accounts.
The National Pension Scheme has been extended to Unorganized sector.
The informal employment generated through Unorganized Sector has increased in India between 2004-05 to 2011-12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 Only
|
1 and 3 Only
|
2 and 3 Only
|
1 and 2 Only
|
The Unorganized Sector includes primarily unincorporated proprieties or partnership enterprises and household enterprises. These do not come under the ambit of various labour laws like Factory Act, etc.
The National Pension System (NPS) which was initially introduced for the new recruits who had joined central government service (except armed forces at first stage) with effect from 1 January 2004, has been subsequently extended to autonomous bodies, state governments, and the unorganized sector. Thus, 2 is correct.
Although total informal employment increased by 9.5 million to 435.7 million between 2004-05 and 2011-12, it is significant that informal unorganized sector employment declined by 5.8 million to 390.9 million, leading to an increase in informal organized sector employment by 15.2 million. Consequently the share of unorganized labour has declined from 87 per cent to 82.7 per cent. Thus, 3 is incorrect.
|
a
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Unorganized Sector in India.
Unorganized sector includes unincorporated enterprises and household industries, which do not maintain accounts.
The National Pension Scheme has been extended to Unorganized sector.
The informal employment generated through Unorganized Sector has increased in India between 2004-05 to 2011-12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 Only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 Only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 Only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 Only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Unorganized Sector includes primarily unincorporated proprieties or partnership enterprises and household enterprises. These do not come under the ambit of various labour laws like Factory Act, etc.
The National Pension System (NPS) which was initially introduced for the new recruits who had joined central government service (except armed forces at first stage) with effect from 1 January 2004, has been subsequently extended to autonomous bodies, state governments, and the unorganized sector. Thus, 2 is correct.
Although total informal employment increased by 9.5 million to 435.7 million between 2004-05 and 2011-12, it is significant that informal unorganized sector employment declined by 5.8 million to 390.9 million, leading to an increase in informal organized sector employment by 15.2 million. Consequently the share of unorganized labour has declined from 87 per cent to 82.7 per cent. Thus, 3 is incorrect.
##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Relative humidity is defined as:
|
Actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere.
|
Percent of moisture present in atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature.
|
actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere at a given temperature.
|
Actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere.
|
Actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere is absolute humidity. Relative humidity is percent of moisture present in atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Relative humidity is defined as:
##Option_A: Actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere.
###Option_B: Percent of moisture present in atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature.
##Option_C: actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere at a given temperature.
##Option_D: Actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere is absolute humidity. Relative humidity is percent of moisture present in atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following regarding India Joining Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) are correct? India will be benefitted by being a member in getting access to world class technology in space programs India will also benefit in the exports of missiles to the other member countries MTCR will impose a ban on production of UAV"s by India as prevention of proliferation of UAV is also covered under MTCR. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
India has applied for MTCR's membership. It is a elite group of 34 countries that control trade in missile and space technology. After joining the group India will benefit in it's space program, in getting new technologies in missile defence and also it will be able to increase its export of indigenously developed missiles to other countries. MTCR is a voluntary organisation of 34 countries. It aims at prevention of proliferation of UAV's capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction and missiles.
|
a
|
Space Technology
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following regarding India Joining Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) are correct? India will be benefitted by being a member in getting access to world class technology in space programs India will also benefit in the exports of missiles to the other member countries MTCR will impose a ban on production of UAV"s by India as prevention of proliferation of UAV is also covered under MTCR. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:India has applied for MTCR's membership. It is a elite group of 34 countries that control trade in missile and space technology. After joining the group India will benefit in it's space program, in getting new technologies in missile defence and also it will be able to increase its export of indigenously developed missiles to other countries. MTCR is a voluntary organisation of 34 countries. It aims at prevention of proliferation of UAV's capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction and missiles.##Topic:Space Technology##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding steps taken for Rural Development:
Rurban Mission aims at creation of urban civic infrastructure and employment generation in Rural areas to prevent rising extremism and migration
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana involves development of 3 adarsh villages by each MP by 2019 with a Program outlay of Rs 5000 Crore
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Rurban Mission aims at creation of urban civic infrastructure leading to skill development and employment creation to address the development deficit of Indian villages. This will deal with problems of extremism, migration, etc. Thus, 1 is correct.
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana has been allocated no new funds. Funds under existing schemes like IAY, MPLAD, etc. are to be utilised. Thus, 2 is incorrect.
|
a
|
Rural Development
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding steps taken for Rural Development:
Rurban Mission aims at creation of urban civic infrastructure and employment generation in Rural areas to prevent rising extremism and migration
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana involves development of 3 adarsh villages by each MP by 2019 with a Program outlay of Rs 5000 Crore
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: Only 1
###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: Only 1
##Answer:a##Explaination:Rurban Mission aims at creation of urban civic infrastructure leading to skill development and employment creation to address the development deficit of Indian villages. This will deal with problems of extremism, migration, etc. Thus, 1 is correct.
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana has been allocated no new funds. Funds under existing schemes like IAY, MPLAD, etc. are to be utilised. Thus, 2 is incorrect.##Topic:Rural Development##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: Transgenic plants are made to resist only insect viruses through incorporation of foreign gene into DNA of host plant cells. Transgenic plants have also been developed for delaying ripening of fruits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
There are more than 50 types of genetically engineered plant species, called transgenic plants have been successfully developed. These plants were made to resist insect pests, viruses or herbicides through incorporation of foreign gene into DNA of host plant cells. Initially transgenic plants were developed more in cotyledons, but now extended to several monocotyledons like wheat, maize, rice and oats. Transgenic plants have also been developed and are suitable for food industries like delaying ripening in tomato.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Transgenic plants are made to resist only insect viruses through incorporation of foreign gene into DNA of host plant cells. Transgenic plants have also been developed for delaying ripening of fruits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:There are more than 50 types of genetically engineered plant species, called transgenic plants have been successfully developed. These plants were made to resist insect pests, viruses or herbicides through incorporation of foreign gene into DNA of host plant cells. Initially transgenic plants were developed more in cotyledons, but now extended to several monocotyledons like wheat, maize, rice and oats. Transgenic plants have also been developed and are suitable for food industries like delaying ripening in tomato.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Human capital formation in India will necessarily occur due to: More people getting educated Increased healthy life Increase in per capita income Skill development training Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Human capital formation is the outcome of investments in education, health, on-the-job-training, information facilities etc. Of these education and health are very important sources of human capital formation. In India, state and central government, through their social sector expenditures, take care of health and education. Increase in per capita income does not guarantee any of these components of human capital formation.
|
a
|
Sustainable Development
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Human capital formation in India will necessarily occur due to: More people getting educated Increased healthy life Increase in per capita income Skill development training Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Human capital formation is the outcome of investments in education, health, on-the-job-training, information facilities etc. Of these education and health are very important sources of human capital formation. In India, state and central government, through their social sector expenditures, take care of health and education. Increase in per capita income does not guarantee any of these components of human capital formation.##Topic:Sustainable Development##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which among the following statements is/are correct regarding Rajya Sabha?
1. Its elected members are elected by only elected members of legislative assemblies of states
2. It has no representation from Union Territories
3. Maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250
4. It has equal representation from all the states
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 & 3 only
|
3 only
|
2, 3 & 4 only
|
1 & 3 only
|
The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies. Rajya Sabha has representation from Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. The populations of other five union territories are too small to have any representative in Rajya Sabha. The representation of states in Rajya Sabha is decided by the population of the states. Hence the states don’t have same representation in the Rajya Sabha. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the states and union territories and 12 are nominated by the President. At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following statements is/are correct regarding Rajya Sabha?
1. Its elected members are elected by only elected members of legislative assemblies of states
2. It has no representation from Union Territories
3. Maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250
4. It has equal representation from all the states
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 & 3 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 2, 3 & 4 only
##Option_D: 1 & 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies. Rajya Sabha has representation from Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. The populations of other five union territories are too small to have any representative in Rajya Sabha. The representation of states in Rajya Sabha is decided by the population of the states. Hence the states don’t have same representation in the Rajya Sabha. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the states and union territories and 12 are nominated by the President. At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which among the following is/are correct regarding advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. Supreme Court is bound to tender advice to President if he seek so
2. President is bound to act on the advice tendered by Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 & 2
|
1 only
|
The Constitution (Article 143) authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court. However Supreme Court is not bound to give advice to the President. It may refuse to tender its opinion to the President. The advice tendered by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the President.
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following is/are correct regarding advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. Supreme Court is bound to tender advice to President if he seek so
2. President is bound to act on the advice tendered by Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 & 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Constitution (Article 143) authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court. However Supreme Court is not bound to give advice to the President. It may refuse to tender its opinion to the President. The advice tendered by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the President.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Who among the following enjoys Parliamentary privileges?
1. Member of Parliament 2. Attorney General of India 3. Union Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following enjoys Parliamentary privileges?
1. Member of Parliament 2. Attorney General of India 3. Union Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
GDP Deflator gives an idea of how the prices have moved from the base year to the current year. While, Consumer Price Index (CPI) is another way to measure change of prices in an economy. In this context, consider the following: Though being based on two different methods of calculation, both give same picture of output data. All goods and services produced in an economy are taken into account while calculating GDP Deflator and CPI. CPI includes prices of imported goods while GDP Deflator does not include prices of imported goods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Output after calculation of GDP Deflator and CPI need not be same due to their nature. The goods purchased by consumers do not represent all the goods which are produced in a country and CPI is based on goods consumed by consumer.So,some products/goods are left behind.GDP deflator takes into account all such goods and services produced in an economy. CPI includes prices of goods consumed by the representative consumer, hence prices of imported goods while GDP Deflator does not include prices of imported goods.
|
b
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:GDP Deflator gives an idea of how the prices have moved from the base year to the current year. While, Consumer Price Index (CPI) is another way to measure change of prices in an economy. In this context, consider the following: Though being based on two different methods of calculation, both give same picture of output data. All goods and services produced in an economy are taken into account while calculating GDP Deflator and CPI. CPI includes prices of imported goods while GDP Deflator does not include prices of imported goods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Output after calculation of GDP Deflator and CPI need not be same due to their nature. The goods purchased by consumers do not represent all the goods which are produced in a country and CPI is based on goods consumed by consumer.So,some products/goods are left behind.GDP deflator takes into account all such goods and services produced in an economy. CPI includes prices of goods consumed by the representative consumer, hence prices of imported goods while GDP Deflator does not include prices of imported goods. ##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding economic indicators: National Income is calculated by adding subsidies to market prices. Gross National Product (GNP) is a measure of the value of output produced by all Indian nationals anywhere in the world. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) shows how much is produced within the boundary of the country by the citizens of the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
National Income is Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost=NNP at market prices - indirect taxes + subsidies. GNP is a measure of the value of output produced by the 'nationals' of a country-both within the geographical boundaries and outside. I.e. both within India and all other countries. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) shows how much is produced within the boundary of the country by both the citizens and the foreigners.
|
b
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding economic indicators: National Income is calculated by adding subsidies to market prices. Gross National Product (GNP) is a measure of the value of output produced by all Indian nationals anywhere in the world. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) shows how much is produced within the boundary of the country by the citizens of the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:National Income is Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost=NNP at market prices - indirect taxes + subsidies. GNP is a measure of the value of output produced by the 'nationals' of a country-both within the geographical boundaries and outside. I.e. both within India and all other countries. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) shows how much is produced within the boundary of the country by both the citizens and the foreigners.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which among the following is/are correct regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha?
1. He is sub-ordinate to the Speaker
2. He doesn’t vote in the house, but can only cast a casting vote to resolve the deadlock
3. Whenever he is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 & 2 only
|
2 & 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 & 2 only
|
The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. It should be noted here that the Deputy Speaker is not sub-ordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House. The Deputy speaker has one special privilege, that is, whenever he is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman. When Speaker presides over the House, the Deputy Speaker is like any other ordinary member of the House. He can speak in the House, participate in its proceedings and vote on any question before the House. However while presiding over the House, he can’t vote in the first instance, he can only exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following is/are correct regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha?
1. He is sub-ordinate to the Speaker
2. He doesn’t vote in the house, but can only cast a casting vote to resolve the deadlock
3. Whenever he is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 & 2 only
###Option_B: 2 & 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 & 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. It should be noted here that the Deputy Speaker is not sub-ordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House. The Deputy speaker has one special privilege, that is, whenever he is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman. When Speaker presides over the House, the Deputy Speaker is like any other ordinary member of the House. He can speak in the House, participate in its proceedings and vote on any question before the House. However while presiding over the House, he can’t vote in the first instance, he can only exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
In Economic terminology, the term "Transfer Payments" is used for:
|
Payments made in lieu of imported goods and services in an economy.
|
Subsidies by government which are directly credited to the beneficiary accounts.
|
Payments made by government for which there is no economic activity involved like scholarship and pension.
|
Payments made in lieu of imported goods and services in an economy.
|
Transfer Payment refers to payments made by government to individuals for which there is no economic activity is produced in return by these individuals. Examples of transfer are scholarship, pension etc.
|
c
|
Government Budgeting
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In Economic terminology, the term "Transfer Payments" is used for:##Option_A: Payments made in lieu of imported goods and services in an economy.###Option_B: Subsidies by government which are directly credited to the beneficiary accounts.##Option_C:Payments made by government for which there is no economic activity involved like scholarship and pension.##Option_D: Payments made in lieu of imported goods and services in an economy.##Answer:c##Explaination:Transfer Payment refers to payments made by government to individuals for which there is no economic activity is produced in return by these individuals. Examples of transfer are scholarship, pension etc.##Topic:Government Budgeting##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
India is said to be moving into the phase of Demographic Dividend. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
India would have a competitive edge over China, Japan, USA, UK, etc. because of a high dependency ratio.
India has launched the Make In India Programme to generate gainful employment for the increasing labourforce in the country.
The Shrameva Jayate Program involves improving employability of India"s labour and securing their welfare.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The period when the dependency ratio "declines" is known as the "window of opportunity" when a "demographic dividend" may be reaped because society has a growing number of potential producers relative to the number of consumers. Thus, Statement 1 is incorrect. "Make in India" Campaign is DESIGNED TO FACILITATE INVESTMENT. FOSTER INNOVATION. ENHANCE SKILL DEVELOPMENT. PROTECT INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY. AND BUILD BEST-IN-CLASS MANUFACTURING INFRASTRUCTURE. This will generate jobs for the growing Indian labourforce. Under National Manufacturing Policy, 100 million jobs are sought to be added in Manufacturing sector itself by 2022. Thus, Statement 2 is correct. Shramev Jayate Program: The programme seeks to improve employability, skill development and other conveniences for labour. The five components of the programme are: A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal An all-new Random Inspection Scheme Universal Account Number Apprentice Protsahan Yojana Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana Thus, 3 is also correct
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India is said to be moving into the phase of Demographic Dividend. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
India would have a competitive edge over China, Japan, USA, UK, etc. because of a high dependency ratio.
India has launched the Make In India Programme to generate gainful employment for the increasing labourforce in the country.
The Shrameva Jayate Program involves improving employability of India"s labour and securing their welfare.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:The period when the dependency ratio "declines" is known as the "window of opportunity" when a "demographic dividend" may be reaped because society has a growing number of potential producers relative to the number of consumers. Thus, Statement 1 is incorrect. "Make in India" Campaign is DESIGNED TO FACILITATE INVESTMENT. FOSTER INNOVATION. ENHANCE SKILL DEVELOPMENT. PROTECT INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY. AND BUILD BEST-IN-CLASS MANUFACTURING INFRASTRUCTURE. This will generate jobs for the growing Indian labourforce. Under National Manufacturing Policy, 100 million jobs are sought to be added in Manufacturing sector itself by 2022. Thus, Statement 2 is correct. Shramev Jayate Program: The programme seeks to improve employability, skill development and other conveniences for labour. The five components of the programme are: A dedicated Shram Suvidha Portal An all-new Random Inspection Scheme Universal Account Number Apprentice Protsahan Yojana Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana Thus, 3 is also correct##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Kanishka, the most important ruler of Kushana dynasty, is known for- He started Saka era which is the official calendar of Government of India. He convened fourth Buddhist council in Kashmir in which Mahayana doctrine of Buddhism was given its final shape. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Kushana started Saka era in 78 A.D. which is the official calendar of Government of India. Kushana convened fourth Buddhist council in Kashmir and it was headed by Vasumitra. The Council prepared an authoritative commentary on the Tripitakas and the Mahayana doctrine was given final shape.
|
c
|
Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Kanishka, the most important ruler of Kushana dynasty, is known for- He started Saka era which is the official calendar of Government of India. He convened fourth Buddhist council in Kashmir in which Mahayana doctrine of Buddhism was given its final shape. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Kushana started Saka era in 78 A.D. which is the official calendar of Government of India. Kushana convened fourth Buddhist council in Kashmir and it was headed by Vasumitra. The Council prepared an authoritative commentary on the Tripitakas and the Mahayana doctrine was given final shape.##Topic:Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider following statements regarding Pallavas: They introduced the art of excavating temples from the rock which gradually evolved from cave temples to monolithic rathas and culminated in structural temples. They not only built very large temple complexes but also very large deities and idols. The rock cut temples or Rathas of Mahabalipuram are the prime example of Pallavas architecture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The art of excavating temples from rocks was introduced by Pallavas which can be seen in four stages. It gradually evolved from cave temples to structural temples. Pallavas were among the first emperors in India to build both large temple complexes and very large deities and idols. The Rathas of Mamallapuram or Mahaballipuram temples were built by using the soft sand rocks. The Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi and the Shore temple at Mamallapuram remain the finest examples of the early structural temples of the Pallavas. The Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi is the greatest architectural master piece of the Pallava art.
|
d
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider following statements regarding Pallavas: They introduced the art of excavating temples from the rock which gradually evolved from cave temples to monolithic rathas and culminated in structural temples. They not only built very large temple complexes but also very large deities and idols. The rock cut temples or Rathas of Mahabalipuram are the prime example of Pallavas architecture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The art of excavating temples from rocks was introduced by Pallavas which can be seen in four stages. It gradually evolved from cave temples to structural temples. Pallavas were among the first emperors in India to build both large temple complexes and very large deities and idols. The Rathas of Mamallapuram or Mahaballipuram temples were built by using the soft sand rocks. The Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi and the Shore temple at Mamallapuram remain the finest examples of the early structural temples of the Pallavas. The Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi is the greatest architectural master piece of the Pallava art. ##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
A country is undergoing rapid economic growth. Then, which of statements is/are correct? A general switch from agricultural to industrial economy. A shift from full convertibility of domestic currency to non convertibility as country is becoming economically stable. Strong capital investment from foreign countries. Low income disparity among peoples. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
When an economy is under rapid growth then movement towards free flow of rupee and relaxation of controls on convertibility is adopted i.e. shift towards full convertibility of currency. Economic growth is measured in terms of overall growth of the country and it does not guarantee bridging of income disparity. There can be increase in overall GDP of country (a measure of economic growth) but at the same time increase of income disparity as well.(Few persons becoming very rich and others are still at the same level of income).
|
b
|
Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A country is undergoing rapid economic growth. Then, which of statements is/are correct? A general switch from agricultural to industrial economy. A shift from full convertibility of domestic currency to non convertibility as country is becoming economically stable. Strong capital investment from foreign countries. Low income disparity among peoples. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 3 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:When an economy is under rapid growth then movement towards free flow of rupee and relaxation of controls on convertibility is adopted i.e. shift towards full convertibility of currency. Economic growth is measured in terms of overall growth of the country and it does not guarantee bridging of income disparity. There can be increase in overall GDP of country (a measure of economic growth) but at the same time increase of income disparity as well.(Few persons becoming very rich and others are still at the same level of income).##Topic:Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
With reference to monetary policy and fiscal policy, which of the following statement is/are correct? Fiscal Stimulus implies increasing government expenditure and reducing tax rates. Monetary Stimulus implies increasing supply of money and reducing interest rates. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
1 and 2
|
1 Only
|
Fiscal Stimulus is a process where government tries to increase the spending through reducing taxation. Hence (1) is correct. Monetary Stimulus is a process of increasing the money supply through monetary policy i.e. by reduction of interest rates. Hence (2) is also correct.
|
c
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to monetary policy and fiscal policy, which of the following statement is/are correct? Fiscal Stimulus implies increasing government expenditure and reducing tax rates. Monetary Stimulus implies increasing supply of money and reducing interest rates. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 Only###Option_B: 2 Only##Option_C: 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 Only##Answer:c##Explaination:Fiscal Stimulus is a process where government tries to increase the spending through reducing taxation. Hence (1) is correct. Monetary Stimulus is a process of increasing the money supply through monetary policy i.e. by reduction of interest rates. Hence (2) is also correct.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are correct regarding MUDRA? It has been launched to tackle lack of financial support in the Non-Corporate Small Business Sector. MUDRA"s role would involve registration and accreditation of all MFIs. MUDRA Bank would be a statutory body. Regional Rural Banks are not eligible for assistance from MUDRA.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Majority of NCBCS lacks access to formal credit, which hinders growth of entrepreneurship in this sector. MUDRA aims at removing this bottleneck by providing finance to the Non-Corporate Small Business Sector (NCBCS) .Hence statement 1 is correct. Apart from refinancing, MUDRA would also be involved in registration, regulation and accreditation of MFIs. Thus, statement 2 is also correct. MUDRA will be set up through a statutory enactment. Thus, statement 3 is also correct. MUDRA would ensure finance to small business entities through Last Mile Financiers (MFIs, RRBs, Scheduled Banks, Co-operatives, Societies, etc.). Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.
|
c
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correct regarding MUDRA? It has been launched to tackle lack of financial support in the Non-Corporate Small Business Sector. MUDRA"s role would involve registration and accreditation of all MFIs. MUDRA Bank would be a statutory body. Regional Rural Banks are not eligible for assistance from MUDRA.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Majority of NCBCS lacks access to formal credit, which hinders growth of entrepreneurship in this sector. MUDRA aims at removing this bottleneck by providing finance to the Non-Corporate Small Business Sector (NCBCS) .Hence statement 1 is correct. Apart from refinancing, MUDRA would also be involved in registration, regulation and accreditation of MFIs. Thus, statement 2 is also correct. MUDRA will be set up through a statutory enactment. Thus, statement 3 is also correct. MUDRA would ensure finance to small business entities through Last Mile Financiers (MFIs, RRBs, Scheduled Banks, Co-operatives, Societies, etc.). Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Provident fund deposits and savings bank deposits constitute Public Account of India. Expenditure from Consolidated Fund of India on salary and allowances of Comptroller Auditor General and Members of UPSC is subject to vote by the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Salary and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor General and members of UPSC comes under the category of ‘charged’ expenditure. The charged expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament; it can only be discussed by the Parliament. All public money other than Consolidated Fund Of India recieved by Government of India are parts of Public Account of India like PF deposits,judicial deposits,remittances,saving deposits and so on.
|
a
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Provident fund deposits and savings bank deposits constitute Public Account of India. Expenditure from Consolidated Fund of India on salary and allowances of Comptroller Auditor General and Members of UPSC is subject to vote by the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Salary and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor General and members of UPSC comes under the category of ‘charged’ expenditure. The charged expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament; it can only be discussed by the Parliament. All public money other than Consolidated Fund Of India recieved by Government of India are parts of Public Account of India like PF deposits,judicial deposits,remittances,saving deposits and so on.##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Federal character of Indian Political system and good Centre-State relationship has been primarily emphasized for effective and cooperative governance. Which of the following constitutional provision(s) would be useful to strengthen upon this? Inter-State Council National Development council Finance Commission Zonal Councils Central Administrative Tribunal Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 4 and 5
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2, 3 and 4
|
1, 4 and 5
|
Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effective coordination between the states and between Centre and states. The Zonal Councils are the statutory bodies and not constitutional bodies, established under States Reorganization Act. National Development Council was established by an executive decision of the Government of India. Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi judicial body. It primarily deals with matters and provisions related to sound financial relation between Centre and the states. Central Administrative Tribunal is not concerned with Center state relationship and federalism,it deals with administrative and service matters of government employees.
|
d
|
Center-State Administrative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Federal character of Indian Political system and good Centre-State relationship has been primarily emphasized for effective and cooperative governance. Which of the following constitutional provision(s) would be useful to strengthen upon this? Inter-State Council National Development council Finance Commission Zonal Councils Central Administrative Tribunal Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 4 and 5###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4##Option_D: 1, 4 and 5##Answer:d##Explaination:Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effective coordination between the states and between Centre and states. The Zonal Councils are the statutory bodies and not constitutional bodies, established under States Reorganization Act. National Development Council was established by an executive decision of the Government of India. Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi judicial body. It primarily deals with matters and provisions related to sound financial relation between Centre and the states. Central Administrative Tribunal is not concerned with Center state relationship and federalism,it deals with administrative and service matters of government employees.##Topic:Center-State Administrative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following steps would be useful, directly or indirectly, for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to flourish?
National Investment Fund
National Manufacturing Policy
Mahatma Gandhi NREGA
National Skill Development Corporation
Priority Sector Lending by Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
National Investment Fund was constituted to collect disinvestment proceeds of govt. equity in CPSEs.75 % to be used for social sector schemes and rest 25 % for reliable Public Sector Enterprises. National Manufacturing Policy has special incentives for MSMEs. NSDC aims to improve skill base of India's labor class unskilled labor is the major concern of MSMEs. MGNREGA is not concerned with MSME sector. Priority Sector Lending include only those sectors as part of the priority sector, that impact large sections of society, the weaker sections and the sectors which are employment intensive such as agriculture, and Micro and small enterprises.
|
d
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following steps would be useful, directly or indirectly, for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to flourish?
National Investment Fund
National Manufacturing Policy
Mahatma Gandhi NREGA
National Skill Development Corporation
Priority Sector Lending by Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 5 only
###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 4 and 5 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 5 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:National Investment Fund was constituted to collect disinvestment proceeds of govt. equity in CPSEs.75 % to be used for social sector schemes and rest 25 % for reliable Public Sector Enterprises. National Manufacturing Policy has special incentives for MSMEs. NSDC aims to improve skill base of India's labor class unskilled labor is the major concern of MSMEs. MGNREGA is not concerned with MSME sector. Priority Sector Lending include only those sectors as part of the priority sector, that impact large sections of society, the weaker sections and the sectors which are employment intensive such as agriculture, and Micro and small enterprises.##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Real GDP can calculate the change in prices. GDP deflator does not include price of imported goods Subsidies are included in National Income Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Real GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices (or constant prices). Since these prices remain fixed, if the Real GDP changes we can be sure that it is the volume of production which is undergoing changes.
|
b
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? Real GDP can calculate the change in prices. GDP deflator does not include price of imported goods Subsidies are included in National Income Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Real GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices (or constant prices). Since these prices remain fixed, if the Real GDP changes we can be sure that it is the volume of production which is undergoing changes.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to the monetary policy of Reserve Bank of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Decreasing the reverse-repo rate can be a suggestive monetary policy to combat inflation. 2. Purchasing power of money decreases if there is inflation in the market. 3. Inflation favors the debtors.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The RBI manages monetary policy of India. Monetary policy deals with controlling the money supply in the market. It uses repo rate as the instrument to control inflation. In simple terms, Repo rate is the rate at which RBI gives loan (by pledging some securities) to commercial banks, if the repo rate is increased, banks find it difficult to borrow and hence the liquidty is squeezed and inflation is controlled. Reverse Repo is reverse of repo rate - It is the rate at which commercial banks give loan to RBI. Obviously, repo rate will always be higher than reverse repo rate.
Conceptually, increasing repo rate controls inflation and hence it is assumed that decreasing reverse repo rate will decrease inflation, but that is not correct. The reverse repo if decreased means RBI will taken loan at cheaper rate from commercial banks. It has no linkage to the monetary policy because the money which is available with the commercial bank may not be kept with the RBI as they do not have any advantage. Hence decreasing reverse repo does not squeeze liquidity and combat inflation. (1) is incorrect.
The second statment and third statement are obvious, p urchasing power of money decreases if there is inflation in the market as inflation makes things costly. Inflation favors the debtors as the amount which the debtor actually pays is less due to inflation.
Hence (2 and 3) - c is the answer
|
c
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the monetary policy of Reserve Bank of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Decreasing the reverse-repo rate can be a suggestive monetary policy to combat inflation. 2. Purchasing power of money decreases if there is inflation in the market. 3. Inflation favors the debtors.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
The RBI manages monetary policy of India. Monetary policy deals with controlling the money supply in the market. It uses repo rate as the instrument to control inflation. In simple terms, Repo rate is the rate at which RBI gives loan (by pledging some securities) to commercial banks, if the repo rate is increased, banks find it difficult to borrow and hence the liquidty is squeezed and inflation is controlled. Reverse Repo is reverse of repo rate - It is the rate at which commercial banks give loan to RBI. Obviously, repo rate will always be higher than reverse repo rate.
Conceptually, increasing repo rate controls inflation and hence it is assumed that decreasing reverse repo rate will decrease inflation, but that is not correct. The reverse repo if decreased means RBI will taken loan at cheaper rate from commercial banks. It has no linkage to the monetary policy because the money which is available with the commercial bank may not be kept with the RBI as they do not have any advantage. Hence decreasing reverse repo does not squeeze liquidity and combat inflation. (1) is incorrect.
The second statment and third statement are obvious, p urchasing power of money decreases if there is inflation in the market as inflation makes things costly. Inflation favors the debtors as the amount which the debtor actually pays is less due to inflation.
Hence (2 and 3) - c is the answer
##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following items: Cheese Butter Idlis Bread In which of the above items, micro-organisms are used for fermentation?
|
3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
3 only
|
Microorganisms have been widely used for preparation of a variety of fermented foods. E.g. cheese, butter, idlis, etc., in addition, some microorganisms have long been used as human food, e.g. the blue green alga Spirulina, and the fungi commonly known as mushrooms. More recently, efforts have been made to produce microbial biomass using lowcost substrates and use as a supplemental food for human consumption or used as feed for animals.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following items: Cheese Butter Idlis Bread In which of the above items, micro-organisms are used for fermentation?##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Microorganisms have been widely used for preparation of a variety of fermented foods. E.g. cheese, butter, idlis, etc., in addition, some microorganisms have long been used as human food, e.g. the blue green alga Spirulina, and the fungi commonly known as mushrooms. More recently, efforts have been made to produce microbial biomass using lowcost substrates and use as a supplemental food for human consumption or used as feed for animals. ##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Products Functions Human growth hormone Promotes growth in children Insulin Decreases blood pressure Interferon Helps the cells resist viruses Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Genetically engineered products: Products Functions 1. Human growth hormone Promotes growth in children with hypopituitarism 2. Interferon Helps the cells resist viruses. 3. Interleukin Stimulates the proliferation of WBCs that take part in immunity 4. Insulin Treats diabetes 5. Renin inhibitors Decreases blood pressure.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Products Functions Human growth hormone Promotes growth in children Insulin Decreases blood pressure Interferon Helps the cells resist viruses Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Genetically engineered products: Products Functions 1. Human growth hormone Promotes growth in children with hypopituitarism 2. Interferon Helps the cells resist viruses. 3. Interleukin Stimulates the proliferation of WBCs that take part in immunity 4. Insulin Treats diabetes 5. Renin inhibitors Decreases blood pressure.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a flavor enhancer. In which of the following it doesn’t occurs naturally? Tomatoes Parmesan cheese Potatoes Mushrooms Select the correct option from the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a flavor enhancer commonly added to Chinese food, canned vegetables, soups and processed meats. It is the sodium salt of glutamic acid, one of the most abundant naturally-occurring non-essential amino acids. MSG is found in tomatoes, Parmesan cheese, potatoes, mushrooms, and other vegetables and fruits.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a flavor enhancer. In which of the following it doesn’t occurs naturally? Tomatoes Parmesan cheese Potatoes Mushrooms Select the correct option from the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a flavor enhancer commonly added to Chinese food, canned vegetables, soups and processed meats. It is the sodium salt of glutamic acid, one of the most abundant naturally-occurring non-essential amino acids. MSG is found in tomatoes, Parmesan cheese, potatoes, mushrooms, and other vegetables and fruits.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following: Germinating cereals Cane sugar Milk In which of the above, there is presence of natural sugar “Glucose”?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Disaccharides are the carbohydrates formed by condensation of two monosaccharide monomers. These are found in common food substances such as milk and sugar. There are three common disaccharides namely maltose, sucrose and lactose. They have the following composition: Maltose: glucose + glucose (In germinating cereals) Sucrose (cane sugar) : glucose + fructose Lactose (milk) : glucose + galactose
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: Germinating cereals Cane sugar Milk In which of the above, there is presence of natural sugar “Glucose”?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Disaccharides are the carbohydrates formed by condensation of two monosaccharide monomers. These are found in common food substances such as milk and sugar. There are three common disaccharides namely maltose, sucrose and lactose. They have the following composition: Maltose: glucose + glucose (In germinating cereals) Sucrose (cane sugar) : glucose + fructose Lactose (milk) : glucose + galactose##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: Water serves as a transport medium for nutrients and excretory products. Water is useful in physiological activities such as oxygen transport and hormone synthesis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is wrong because Minerals like iron, copper, zinc, cobalt, manganese, iodine and fluorine (trace elements). Of these minerals, larger portion of certain minerals are concerned with body building activities such as formation of bones and teeth (Calcium, Magnesium and Phosphorus). Trace elements and other minerals are useful in physiological activities such as oxygen transport (Iron), hormone synthesis (Iodine) and intermediary metabolism (Manganese, Copper, Zinc).
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Water serves as a transport medium for nutrients and excretory products. Water is useful in physiological activities such as oxygen transport and hormone synthesis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is wrong because Minerals like iron, copper, zinc, cobalt, manganese, iodine and fluorine (trace elements). Of these minerals, larger portion of certain minerals are concerned with body building activities such as formation of bones and teeth (Calcium, Magnesium and Phosphorus). Trace elements and other minerals are useful in physiological activities such as oxygen transport (Iron), hormone synthesis (Iodine) and intermediary metabolism (Manganese, Copper, Zinc).##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following: Improvement of crops Animal Husbandry Disease resistance Origin of new species Heritable diseases In which of the above mutation plays significant role?
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
1 and 5 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
Significance of mutation m Mutations play an important role in the origin of new species and serves as a tool for evolution. Induced mutations are useful in agriculture, animal husbandry and biotechnology to produce new strains. It is one of the best approaches for improvement of crops. Induced mutants are reported in paddy, wheat, soyabeans, tomatoes, oats, and barley. Mutant varieties of wheat are early maturing, disease resistance and they are enriched with protein. Mutant varieties of paddy produce many tillers with long grains. The study of mutant strains of viruses helps us to know the fine structure of gene. The genes are made up of small functional units such as cistron, recon and muton. Cistron is an unit of function, recon is the unit of recombination and muton is the unit of mutation. Many types of mutations cause heritable diseases and cancer in human beings.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: Improvement of crops Animal Husbandry Disease resistance Origin of new species Heritable diseases In which of the above mutation plays significant role?##Option_A: 2, 4 and 5 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1 and 5 only##Option_D: 2, 4 and 5 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Significance of mutation m Mutations play an important role in the origin of new species and serves as a tool for evolution. Induced mutations are useful in agriculture, animal husbandry and biotechnology to produce new strains. It is one of the best approaches for improvement of crops. Induced mutants are reported in paddy, wheat, soyabeans, tomatoes, oats, and barley. Mutant varieties of wheat are early maturing, disease resistance and they are enriched with protein. Mutant varieties of paddy produce many tillers with long grains. The study of mutant strains of viruses helps us to know the fine structure of gene. The genes are made up of small functional units such as cistron, recon and muton. Cistron is an unit of function, recon is the unit of recombination and muton is the unit of mutation. Many types of mutations cause heritable diseases and cancer in human beings.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Gas Functions 1. Oxygen for aerobic respiration 2. CO2 waste product of respiration 3. Nitrogen inert gas. Which of the above is incorrectly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
All the options are rightly matched.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Gas Functions 1. Oxygen for aerobic respiration 2. CO2 waste product of respiration 3. Nitrogen inert gas. Which of the above is incorrectly matched?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the options are rightly matched.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: Superbugs are employed in clearing oil spills in the ocean. Genetically engineered bacteria are called superbugs. Which of the above is/are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Genetically engineered bacteria are called superbugs. Superbugs can degrade several aromatic hydrocarbons, at the same time. They are employed in clearing oil spills in the ocean. Thus these are used in pollution abatement. The super bug was produced first by an Indian researcher Anand Chakrabarthy in USA. He developed a strain of Pseudomonas bacterium to clear up oil spills. The above superbug can destroy octanes, xylenes camphors and toluenes.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Superbugs are employed in clearing oil spills in the ocean. Genetically engineered bacteria are called superbugs. Which of the above is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Genetically engineered bacteria are called superbugs. Superbugs can degrade several aromatic hydrocarbons, at the same time. They are employed in clearing oil spills in the ocean. Thus these are used in pollution abatement. The super bug was produced first by an Indian researcher Anand Chakrabarthy in USA. He developed a strain of Pseudomonas bacterium to clear up oil spills. The above superbug can destroy octanes, xylenes camphors and toluenes.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Transgenic Brinjals has been developed in India. The reason behind gene modification of Brinjal is to
|
Gain resistance against lepidopteron insects.
|
Personalize the genes for cellular therapeutics involving stem cells.
|
Enhance the mineral and vitamin content.
|
Gain resistance against lepidopteron insects.
|
The Bt Brinjal is a suite of transgenic Brinjals (also known as an eggplant or aubergine) created by inserting a crystal protein gene (Cry1Ac) from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into the genome of various brinjal cultivars. The Bt brinjal has been developed to give resistance against lepidopteron insects, in particular the Brinjal Fruit and Shoot Borer.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Transgenic Brinjals has been developed in India. The reason behind gene modification of Brinjal is to##Option_A: Gain resistance against lepidopteron insects.###Option_B: Personalize the genes for cellular therapeutics involving stem cells.##Option_C: Enhance the mineral and vitamin content.##Option_D: Gain resistance against lepidopteron insects.##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Bt Brinjal is a suite of transgenic Brinjals (also known as an eggplant or aubergine) created by inserting a crystal protein gene (Cry1Ac) from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into the genome of various brinjal cultivars. The Bt brinjal has been developed to give resistance against lepidopteron insects, in particular the Brinjal Fruit and Shoot Borer.
##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about Swadeshi Movement
1. It involved the participation of certain zamindari section, lower middle class in cities and small towns
2. It involved the boycott of government schools and colleges
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Answer Explanation
Swadeshi movement did involve participation of certain zamindari section and lower middle class in cities and small towns. It however, did not see participation of peasants and muslims. There were also communal riots.Hence, option 1 is correct.
Swadeshi movement as such did not involve the boycott of government schools and colleges. Even though extremists led by Tilak wanted "extended boycott" to include boycott of goverment schools and colleges, it was not aproved by INC as INC was dominated by moderates during that time. Even in later years of swadeshi movement, when extremists took up the leadership, many students did participate in the boycott agitation. But there was no boycott of government schools and colleges as such. Studetns who participated were fined, suspended from colleges, they were held ineligible for goverment jobs. Boycott of goverment schools and colleges was a prominant feature of Non-Cooperation Movement.Hence option 2 is false.
|
a
|
Freedom Struggle : Extremist Phase (1905 – 17)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about Swadeshi Movement
1. It involved the participation of certain zamindari section, lower middle class in cities and small towns
2. It involved the boycott of government schools and colleges
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
##Option_A: Only 1
###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: Only 1
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Answer Explanation
Swadeshi movement did involve participation of certain zamindari section and lower middle class in cities and small towns. It however, did not see participation of peasants and muslims. There were also communal riots.Hence, option 1 is correct.
Swadeshi movement as such did not involve the boycott of government schools and colleges. Even though extremists led by Tilak wanted "extended boycott" to include boycott of goverment schools and colleges, it was not aproved by INC as INC was dominated by moderates during that time. Even in later years of swadeshi movement, when extremists took up the leadership, many students did participate in the boycott agitation. But there was no boycott of government schools and colleges as such. Studetns who participated were fined, suspended from colleges, they were held ineligible for goverment jobs. Boycott of goverment schools and colleges was a prominant feature of Non-Cooperation Movement.Hence option 2 is false.
##Topic:Freedom Struggle : Extremist Phase (1905 – 17)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of the following diseases are caused by Bacteria? Typhoid Pneumonia Filariasis Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), the filarial worms cause a slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs in which they live for many years, usually the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and the disease is called elephantiasis or filariasis. Typhoid and Pneumonia is caused by Bacteria.
|
a
|
Disease
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following diseases are caused by Bacteria? Typhoid Pneumonia Filariasis Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), the filarial worms cause a slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs in which they live for many years, usually the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and the disease is called elephantiasis or filariasis. Typhoid and Pneumonia is caused by Bacteria.##Topic:Disease ##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Masala Bonds:
1.They have been issued by International Finance Corp. (IFC) to raise funds from international investors.
2.They have been issued for development of spice farming in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both of them
d. None of them
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The International Finance Corporation (IFC), the investment arm of the World Bank, in November 2014, issued a Rs 1,000 crore bond to fund infrastructure projects in India.
These bonds were listed on the London Stock Exchange (LSE). IFC then named them Masala bonds to give a local flavour by calling to mind Indian culture and cuisine.
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Masala Bonds:
1.They have been issued by International Finance Corp. (IFC) to raise funds from international investors.
2.They have been issued for development of spice farming in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both of them
d. None of them
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
The International Finance Corporation (IFC), the investment arm of the World Bank, in November 2014, issued a Rs 1,000 crore bond to fund infrastructure projects in India.
These bonds were listed on the London Stock Exchange (LSE). IFC then named them Masala bonds to give a local flavour by calling to mind Indian culture and cuisine.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the new series of GDP in India:
The base year change to 2011-12 from 2004-05 would ensure that GDP calculation involves contemporary products and services.
The new GDP calculation methodology involves a more comprehensive sample of economic activity in the country.
India is a pioneer in this methodology of GDP calculation and is different from IMF's methodology.
Earlier GDP series did not account for subsidies and indirect taxes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The change in base year ensures that the products and services included in the GDP calculation do remain contemporary and reflect the present state of the economy. For instance, the latest change in base year from 2004-05 to 2011-12 has included the recycling industry which didn’t figure in the earlier GDP computations.
Statement 2 is correct: The new GDP incorporates more comprehensive data on corporate activity than the old one. Earlier, data from the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), which comprises over two lakh factories, was used to gauge activity in the manufacturing sector. Now, annual accounts of companies filed with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs — MCA21 — has been used. This is said to include around five lakh companies, bringing in more companies from the unlisted and informal sectors.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The change in method of calculation has brought Indian GDP calculations more in line with global practise. This methodology is similar to IMF's methodology.
Statement 4 is correct: Earllier series of GDP was at factor cost while the new series is at market price.
GDP (Factor Cost) + Indirect Tax - Subsidy = GDP (market price)
|
c
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the new series of GDP in India:
The base year change to 2011-12 from 2004-05 would ensure that GDP calculation involves contemporary products and services.
The new GDP calculation methodology involves a more comprehensive sample of economic activity in the country.
India is a pioneer in this methodology of GDP calculation and is different from IMF's methodology.
Earlier GDP series did not account for subsidies and indirect taxes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: The change in base year ensures that the products and services included in the GDP calculation do remain contemporary and reflect the present state of the economy. For instance, the latest change in base year from 2004-05 to 2011-12 has included the recycling industry which didn’t figure in the earlier GDP computations.
Statement 2 is correct: The new GDP incorporates more comprehensive data on corporate activity than the old one. Earlier, data from the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), which comprises over two lakh factories, was used to gauge activity in the manufacturing sector. Now, annual accounts of companies filed with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs — MCA21 — has been used. This is said to include around five lakh companies, bringing in more companies from the unlisted and informal sectors.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The change in method of calculation has brought Indian GDP calculations more in line with global practise. This methodology is similar to IMF's methodology.
Statement 4 is correct: Earllier series of GDP was at factor cost while the new series is at market price.
GDP (Factor Cost) + Indirect Tax - Subsidy = GDP (market price)
##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following acts are matched correctly with the Constitutional Section they implement?
|
Representation of People Act 1951 ---- Fundamental Duty
|
Criminal Procedure Code 1973 ------ Directive Principle of State Policy
|
Reservation of SC/STs in Government Services ------ Directive Principle of State Policy
|
Representation of People Act 1951 ---- Fundamental Duty
|
The elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly shall be on the basis of adult suffrage (Art 326)
|
a
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following acts are matched correctly with the Constitutional Section they implement?
##Option_A:Representation of People Act 1951 ---- Fundamental Duty
###Option_B:Criminal Procedure Code 1973 ------ Directive Principle of State Policy
##Option_C:Reservation of SC/STs in Government Services ------ Directive Principle of State Policy
##Option_D:Representation of People Act 1951 ---- Fundamental Duty
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly shall be on the basis of adult suffrage (Art 326)
##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission:
Recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Government.
The 14th Finance Commission has increased the devolution of shareable tax revenues to the States.
The 14th Finance Commission has provided an incentive to States to preserve Forest Cover by including it in the formula for the division of Revenues between the States.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Under Article 281, the recommendations of the Finance Commission are laid before the Houses of Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken on them. The recommendations are not theoretically binding, although there has been no case so far when the Government of India has deviated from recommendations of successive Finance Commissions. Hence1 st statement is incorrect.
14th FC has recommended by majority decision that the the States’ share in the net proceeds of the Union tax revenues be 42%. The recommendation of tax devolution at 42% is a huge jump from the 32% recommended by the 13th Finance Commission. The transfers to the States will see a quantum jump. This is the largest ever change in the percentage of devolution. Hence 2 nd statement is correct.
|
b
|
Finance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission:
Recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Government.
The 14th Finance Commission has increased the devolution of shareable tax revenues to the States.
The 14th Finance Commission has provided an incentive to States to preserve Forest Cover by including it in the formula for the division of Revenues between the States.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Under Article 281, the recommendations of the Finance Commission are laid before the Houses of Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken on them. The recommendations are not theoretically binding, although there has been no case so far when the Government of India has deviated from recommendations of successive Finance Commissions. Hence1 st statement is incorrect.
14th FC has recommended by majority decision that the the States’ share in the net proceeds of the Union tax revenues be 42%. The recommendation of tax devolution at 42% is a huge jump from the 32% recommended by the 13th Finance Commission. The transfers to the States will see a quantum jump. This is the largest ever change in the percentage of devolution. Hence 2 nd statement is correct.
##Topic:Finance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
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