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Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Earthquake measurement? Richter Scale measures the magnitude and energy of an Earthquake while Mercalli Scale measures its impact Richter Scale is an objective scale measured through a Siesmograph while Mercalli Scale is a subjective scale based on empirical observation. An Earthquake of magnitude 8.0 on Richter Scale is about 32 times in terms of energy as compared to an Earthquake of magnitude 7.0. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
An Earthquake is a tremor producing destructive waves in the Earth's Crust. Richter Scale is a logarithmic scale that measures the magnitude -- and thus, energy -- of a quake. The magnitude increases ten times with each unit increase in Richter value. The energy increases 31.7 times. It is an objective mathematical scale measured on the basis of reading in the Seismograph. There is no upper limit of Richter Scale. Mercalli intensity Scale measures the impact of an Earthquake based on empirical observation. It varies from 1 (not felt) to 12 (total destruction).
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Earthquake measurement? Richter Scale measures the magnitude and energy of an Earthquake while Mercalli Scale measures its impact Richter Scale is an objective scale measured through a Siesmograph while Mercalli Scale is a subjective scale based on empirical observation. An Earthquake of magnitude 8.0 on Richter Scale is about 32 times in terms of energy as compared to an Earthquake of magnitude 7.0. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:An Earthquake is a tremor producing destructive waves in the Earth's Crust. Richter Scale is a logarithmic scale that measures the magnitude -- and thus, energy -- of a quake. The magnitude increases ten times with each unit increase in Richter value. The energy increases 31.7 times. It is an objective mathematical scale measured on the basis of reading in the Seismograph. There is no upper limit of Richter Scale. Mercalli intensity Scale measures the impact of an Earthquake based on empirical observation. It varies from 1 (not felt) to 12 (total destruction).##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
In relation to Union Territories and National Capital Territory of Delhi, consider the following statements: Strategic importance, cultural distinctiveness and political-administrative consideration have been the reasons for creation of Union Territories. The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the President and, Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Lieutenant Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances and withdraw it without any prior permission of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Strategic importance-Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. Cultural distinctiveness - Puducherry, Dadar and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu. Political-administrative consideration—Delhi and Chandigarh. Lieutenant Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinance and withdraw it BUT ONLY with the prior permission of the President.
|
b
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In relation to Union Territories and National Capital Territory of Delhi, consider the following statements: Strategic importance, cultural distinctiveness and political-administrative consideration have been the reasons for creation of Union Territories. The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the President and, Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Lieutenant Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances and withdraw it without any prior permission of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Strategic importance-Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. Cultural distinctiveness - Puducherry, Dadar and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu. Political-administrative consideration—Delhi and Chandigarh. Lieutenant Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinance and withdraw it BUT ONLY with the prior permission of the President.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
The Government can take which of the following steps to contain price rise in essential commodities? Reduce import duties of cereals and pulses. Impose stock limits from time to time on select essential commodities such as pulses, edible oil, etc. Suspend Future trading in essential commodities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Reducing import duties would decrease prices in domestic country.
Imposing stock limit helps prevent hoarding and makes it punishable offence.
Future trading give rise to speculation and disproportionate variations in agricultural commodities prices.
|
d
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Government can take which of the following steps to contain price rise in essential commodities? Reduce import duties of cereals and pulses. Impose stock limits from time to time on select essential commodities such as pulses, edible oil, etc. Suspend Future trading in essential commodities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Reducing import duties would decrease prices in domestic country.
Imposing stock limit helps prevent hoarding and makes it punishable offence.
Future trading give rise to speculation and disproportionate variations in agricultural commodities prices.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Sources of Revenue Receipts are:
1. Disinvestment of PSUs
2. National Saving Certificate
3. Dividends and profits
Choose the correct statement using the codes given below:
|
1 and 2
|
2 Only
|
3 Only
|
1 and 2
|
Disinvestment and Savings are source of capital Receipts
|
c
|
GS_Economics_unclassified
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Sources of Revenue Receipts are:
1. Disinvestment of PSUs
2. National Saving Certificate
3. Dividends and profits
Choose the correct statement using the codes given below:
##Option_A:1 and 2
###Option_B:2 Only
##Option_C:3 Only
##Option_D:1 and 2
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Disinvestment and Savings are source of capital Receipts
##Topic:GS_Economics_unclassified##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which one of the following temples was/were built by the Chola kings? Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur Airatesvara Temple, Darasuram Durga Temple, Aihole Meenakshi Temple, Tanjavur Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Cholas who succeeded the Pallavas and ruled over South India from the 9th to 13th centuries A.D. created the great temples, the Brihadisvara temples of Thanjavur, Gangaikondacholisvaram, and the Airatesvara temple at Darasuram . The three Chola temples in India are exemplary production in the Dravidian style of temple architecture.
King Rajaraja Chola constructed the Brihadisvara Temple in 10th century A.D., designed by the famous architect Sama Varma. The other two temples, Gangaikondacholisvaram and Airatesvara were also built in the age of Cholas and testify their brilliant achievements in architecture, sculpture, painting, and bronze casting.
Durga Temple is located in Aihole in the state of Karnataka, India. The temple was built between the 7th and the 8th century by the dynasty of the Chalukyas.
The Meenakshi Temple , Tanjavur was built by the Pallava kings
|
a
|
Early Medieval Period: North India and South India
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following temples was/were built by the Chola kings? Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur Airatesvara Temple, Darasuram Durga Temple, Aihole Meenakshi Temple, Tanjavur Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Cholas who succeeded the Pallavas and ruled over South India from the 9th to 13th centuries A.D. created the great temples, the Brihadisvara temples of Thanjavur, Gangaikondacholisvaram, and the Airatesvara temple at Darasuram . The three Chola temples in India are exemplary production in the Dravidian style of temple architecture.
King Rajaraja Chola constructed the Brihadisvara Temple in 10th century A.D., designed by the famous architect Sama Varma. The other two temples, Gangaikondacholisvaram and Airatesvara were also built in the age of Cholas and testify their brilliant achievements in architecture, sculpture, painting, and bronze casting.
Durga Temple is located in Aihole in the state of Karnataka, India. The temple was built between the 7th and the 8th century by the dynasty of the Chalukyas.
The Meenakshi Temple , Tanjavur was built by the Pallava kings
##Topic:Early Medieval Period: North India and South India##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Consider the potential benefits of Neem Coated Urea:
It will significantly increase the farm yield as it improves the uptake of N, P and K significantly.
It will not effect the fertilizer prices as subsidy will be provided to Neem Coated Urea manufacturers.
This would help plug diversion of urea to non-agricultural uses and help raise the efficiency of fertilizer use.
Urea manufacturers can only produce 35% Neem Coated Urea of their total production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers has decided to remove cap of 35 percent on neem-coated urea. Removing this cap will give impetus to agri sector.
Coating urea with neem has many advantages like the release of the nitrogen becomes slow and it also helps reducing risk of disease in crops, However, this may increase the prices by around 5 percent and it will be absorbed by farmers as it has no subsidy implication.
This will also help plugging the diversion of urea to non-agricultural uses and help raise the efficiency of fertilizer use.
|
b
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the potential benefits of Neem Coated Urea:
It will significantly increase the farm yield as it improves the uptake of N, P and K significantly.
It will not effect the fertilizer prices as subsidy will be provided to Neem Coated Urea manufacturers.
This would help plug diversion of urea to non-agricultural uses and help raise the efficiency of fertilizer use.
Urea manufacturers can only produce 35% Neem Coated Urea of their total production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 2 and 4 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 2 and 4 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers has decided to remove cap of 35 percent on neem-coated urea. Removing this cap will give impetus to agri sector.
Coating urea with neem has many advantages like the release of the nitrogen becomes slow and it also helps reducing risk of disease in crops, However, this may increase the prices by around 5 percent and it will be absorbed by farmers as it has no subsidy implication.
This will also help plugging the diversion of urea to non-agricultural uses and help raise the efficiency of fertilizer use.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
In the context of Ireland recently legalizing same sex marriage,consider the following statements with respect to Section 377 in India : Section 377 was drafted by Macaulay in 1861. It violates articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Indian constitution. State governments can amend Section 377 subject to the approval of president. Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
All the statements are correct. Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code led to nondiscrimination of homosexuality . Lord Macaulay drafted Indian Penal Code,1860 and introduced it in 1861.The credit for drafting the IPC, 1860, including the controversial Section 377 goes to him.Thus the British drafted Section 377 of the IPC, while replacing a tolerant Indian attitude towards sexuality with a highly oppressive one. Sexual orientation is a ground analogous to sex and that discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is not permitted by Article 15. Section 377 of IPC also violates the constitutional protections embodied in Articles14 and 21. It makes it an unreasonable classification as it unfairly targets the homosexuals or gay community, thus infringing their right under article 14. It also unreasonably and unjustly infringes upon the right of privacy which is sine qua non to article 21, under its expanded scope. IPC is in concurrent list so can be amended by State governments with consent of President.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of Ireland recently legalizing same sex marriage,consider the following statements with respect to Section 377 in India : Section 377 was drafted by Macaulay in 1861. It violates articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Indian constitution. State governments can amend Section 377 subject to the approval of president. Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct. Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code led to nondiscrimination of homosexuality . Lord Macaulay drafted Indian Penal Code,1860 and introduced it in 1861.The credit for drafting the IPC, 1860, including the controversial Section 377 goes to him.Thus the British drafted Section 377 of the IPC, while replacing a tolerant Indian attitude towards sexuality with a highly oppressive one. Sexual orientation is a ground analogous to sex and that discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is not permitted by Article 15. Section 377 of IPC also violates the constitutional protections embodied in Articles14 and 21. It makes it an unreasonable classification as it unfairly targets the homosexuals or gay community, thus infringing their right under article 14. It also unreasonably and unjustly infringes upon the right of privacy which is sine qua non to article 21, under its expanded scope. IPC is in concurrent list so can be amended by State governments with consent of President.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
In relation to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI),consider the following statements: FDI increases access to market in domestic country and also reduces cost of production if the labor market is cheaper. FDI offers a source of external capital and increased revenue. FDI exposes local governments and businesses to new technologies and management practices. Remittances received from NRIs constitute one of the important source of FDI in India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
FDI reduces cost of production if the labor market is cheaper and the regulations are less restrictive in domestic market. FDI opens local industries to outer world and hence exchange of technologies and best practices. A Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment in a business by an investor from another country for which the foreign investor has control over the company purchased jn domestic country.
|
b
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In relation to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI),consider the following statements: FDI increases access to market in domestic country and also reduces cost of production if the labor market is cheaper. FDI offers a source of external capital and increased revenue. FDI exposes local governments and businesses to new technologies and management practices. Remittances received from NRIs constitute one of the important source of FDI in India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:FDI reduces cost of production if the labor market is cheaper and the regulations are less restrictive in domestic market. FDI opens local industries to outer world and hence exchange of technologies and best practices. A Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment in a business by an investor from another country for which the foreign investor has control over the company purchased jn domestic country.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
The Martand Sun Temple was a Kashmiri Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Surya and built during the 8th century CE. It"s architecture is said to be blend of which of the following styles? Gandhara Mathura Roman Choose the correct options:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The temple can be said it was an excellent specimen of Kashmiri architecture, which had blended the Gandharan, Gupta, Chinese, Roman, Syrian-Byzantine and Greek forms of architecture.
|
c
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Martand Sun Temple was a Kashmiri Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Surya and built during the 8th century CE. It"s architecture is said to be blend of which of the following styles? Gandhara Mathura Roman Choose the correct options:##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The temple can be said it was an excellent specimen of Kashmiri architecture, which had blended the Gandharan, Gupta, Chinese, Roman, Syrian-Byzantine and Greek forms of architecture.##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
In Buddhist Philosophy, which of the following is/are correctly matched? Abhidhamma Pitaka -- Rules of the order Sutta Pitaka -- Buddha’s sermons or doctrines and ethics Vinaya Pitaka --Buddhist scripture Choose the correct option:
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
Gautama's three main disciples known as Upali, Ananda and Mahakashyap remembered his teachings and passed them on to his followers. It is believed that soon after the Buddha's death a council was called at Rajagriha where Upali recited the Vinaya Pitaka (rules of the order) and Ananda recited the Sutta Pitaka (Buddha’s sermons or doctrines and ethics). Sometime later the Abhidhamma Pitaka consisting of the Buddhist philosophy came into existence.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In Buddhist Philosophy, which of the following is/are correctly matched? Abhidhamma Pitaka -- Rules of the order Sutta Pitaka -- Buddha’s sermons or doctrines and ethics Vinaya Pitaka --Buddhist scripture Choose the correct option:##Option_A: 1 and 2###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 1 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2##Answer:b##Explaination:Gautama's three main disciples known as Upali, Ananda and Mahakashyap remembered his teachings and passed them on to his followers. It is believed that soon after the Buddha's death a council was called at Rajagriha where Upali recited the Vinaya Pitaka (rules of the order) and Ananda recited the Sutta Pitaka (Buddha’s sermons or doctrines and ethics). Sometime later the Abhidhamma Pitaka consisting of the Buddhist philosophy came into existence.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Shore Temple?
1. Shore temple was built by Narasimhavarman II of Chalukya dynasty.
2. This temple has been classified as UNESCO world heritage site.
3. This temple has both deities Vishnu and Shiva in its premises.
Options:
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Shore temple was built by Narasimhavarman II of Pallava dynasty.
Other two statements are correct.
Shore Temple - The Shore Temple at Mamallapuram, built during the reign of the Pallava King Rajasimha (c. 700 - 728), is the earliest important structural temple in Southern India. Its three sanctuaries are dedicated to Vishnu and Shiva. The temple walls, are topped by large sculptures of Nandi, and its two steep pyramidal towers capped by octagonal domes.
As its name suggests, the Shore Temple overlooks the Bay of Bengal (Mamallapuram was the port city of Kanchipuram, the Pallava capital). Its location, so near the sea, has resulted in considerable erosion of the temple's superstructure.
|
b
|
Places(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Shore Temple?
1. Shore temple was built by Narasimhavarman II of Chalukya dynasty.
2. This temple has been classified as UNESCO world heritage site.
3. This temple has both deities Vishnu and Shiva in its premises.
Options:
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Shore temple was built by Narasimhavarman II of Pallava dynasty.
Other two statements are correct.
Shore Temple - The Shore Temple at Mamallapuram, built during the reign of the Pallava King Rajasimha (c. 700 - 728), is the earliest important structural temple in Southern India. Its three sanctuaries are dedicated to Vishnu and Shiva. The temple walls, are topped by large sculptures of Nandi, and its two steep pyramidal towers capped by octagonal domes.
As its name suggests, the Shore Temple overlooks the Bay of Bengal (Mamallapuram was the port city of Kanchipuram, the Pallava capital). Its location, so near the sea, has resulted in considerable erosion of the temple's superstructure.
##Topic:Places(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: River Originating State 1. Tlawng Arunachal Pradesh 2. Feni Sikkim 3. Iril Manipur Which one of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2
|
1 and 3
|
1 only
|
1 and 2
|
First pair is wrong because Tlawng river originates in Mizoram. Second is also wrong because Feni river originates in Triupra. This river was also in news with respect water sharing agreement between India and Bangladesh. Option D is correct. 1. Tlawng Mizoram 2. Feni Triupra 3. Iril Manipur
|
d
|
Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: River Originating State 1. Tlawng Arunachal Pradesh 2. Feni Sikkim 3. Iril Manipur Which one of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2###Option_B: 1 and 3##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1 and 2##Answer:d##Explaination:First pair is wrong because Tlawng river originates in Mizoram. Second is also wrong because Feni river originates in Triupra. This river was also in news with respect water sharing agreement between India and Bangladesh. Option D is correct. 1. Tlawng Mizoram 2. Feni Triupra 3. Iril Manipur##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Virupaksha Temple? 1) Vittala Temple is located near the banks of the Kaveri river. 2) Temple, also has a monolithic rock cut stone chariot. 3) Temple"s Ranga Mantapa has musical pillars. Choose the correct options : A) 1 and 2 B) 1, 2 and 3 C) 3 Only D) None of the above
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement one is incorrect. Vittla Temple is located near the banks of the Tungabhadra River not Kavery.
Statement Two is incorrect. The chariot looks as if it is a monolithic structure that has been carved out of a gigantic stone.However, the colossal structure was built using a number of granite blocks of huge size. The joints of the granite blocks were hidden by exceptional carvings and it provided the chariot the look of a monolithic structure.
Statement three is correct - The Ranga Mantapa is one of the main attractions of the Vittala Temple. The large mantapa is renowned for its 56 musical pillars. These musical pillars are also known as SAREGAMA pillars, indicating the musical notes emitted by them. The musical notes and emanated when the pillars are tapped gently.
Hence Option C is correct.
|
c
|
Difference between Architecture & Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Virupaksha Temple? 1) Vittala Temple is located near the banks of the Kaveri river. 2) Temple, also has a monolithic rock cut stone chariot. 3) Temple"s Ranga Mantapa has musical pillars. Choose the correct options : A) 1 and 2 B) 1, 2 and 3 C) 3 Only D) None of the above##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement one is incorrect. Vittla Temple is located near the banks of the Tungabhadra River not Kavery.
Statement Two is incorrect. The chariot looks as if it is a monolithic structure that has been carved out of a gigantic stone.However, the colossal structure was built using a number of granite blocks of huge size. The joints of the granite blocks were hidden by exceptional carvings and it provided the chariot the look of a monolithic structure.
Statement three is correct - The Ranga Mantapa is one of the main attractions of the Vittala Temple. The large mantapa is renowned for its 56 musical pillars. These musical pillars are also known as SAREGAMA pillars, indicating the musical notes emitted by them. The musical notes and emanated when the pillars are tapped gently.
Hence Option C is correct.
##Topic:Difference between Architecture & Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
With regard to the development of Education in British India, consider the following statements: The first beginnings with respect to education was laid out by the Charter Act of 1833, which directed the Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually for promoting oriental knowledge in the country. Lord Macaulay"s Minute of 1835, settled the Orientalist-Anglicist controversy in favour of Orientalists. Wood"s Despatch of 1854 asked the Government of India to assume the responsibility to spread education. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The first humble beginnings with respect to education were made by the Charter Act of 1813, which directed the East India Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually to encourage learned Indians and promote modern sciences and not oriental knowledge. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.
However, there arose a debate among the members within the General Committee on Public Instruction , popularly known as Orientalist-Anglicist controversy, with respect to government spending on education on which subjects and medium of instruction. It was Lord Macaulay , who settled this row in favour of Anglicists i.e. the government resources to be spent on teaching western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone, through his famous Macaulay Minute in 1835. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
Wood's Despatch of 1854, also known as Magna Carta of English Education in india , was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education and asked the Government to assume the responsibility for education of the masses. Hence, only 3rd statement is correct.
|
c
|
Development of Education
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the development of Education in British India, consider the following statements: The first beginnings with respect to education was laid out by the Charter Act of 1833, which directed the Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually for promoting oriental knowledge in the country. Lord Macaulay"s Minute of 1835, settled the Orientalist-Anglicist controversy in favour of Orientalists. Wood"s Despatch of 1854 asked the Government of India to assume the responsibility to spread education. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
The first humble beginnings with respect to education were made by the Charter Act of 1813, which directed the East India Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually to encourage learned Indians and promote modern sciences and not oriental knowledge. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.
However, there arose a debate among the members within the General Committee on Public Instruction , popularly known as Orientalist-Anglicist controversy, with respect to government spending on education on which subjects and medium of instruction. It was Lord Macaulay , who settled this row in favour of Anglicists i.e. the government resources to be spent on teaching western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone, through his famous Macaulay Minute in 1835. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
Wood's Despatch of 1854, also known as Magna Carta of English Education in india , was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education and asked the Government to assume the responsibility for education of the masses. Hence, only 3rd statement is correct.
##Topic:Development of Education##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With regard to the basic premise / values held by the Theosophical Society, consider the following statements: It rejected the philosophy of Upanishads samkhya, yoga and Vedanta school of thought. It accepted the Hindu beliefs of karma and rebirth. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel M.S. Olcott founded the Theosophical Society in the United States in 1875, were inspired by Indian culture and thought. The Society, in 1882, shifted their headquarters in to Adyar (Madras), accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and karma and drew inspiration from the philosophy of Upanishads, Samkhya, Yoga and Vedanta schools of thought. The Theosophical Movement came to be allied with Hindu renaissance. Hence, both statements are wrong. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect and 2nd statement is correct.
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the basic premise / values held by the Theosophical Society, consider the following statements: It rejected the philosophy of Upanishads samkhya, yoga and Vedanta school of thought. It accepted the Hindu beliefs of karma and rebirth. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel M.S. Olcott founded the Theosophical Society in the United States in 1875, were inspired by Indian culture and thought. The Society, in 1882, shifted their headquarters in to Adyar (Madras), accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and karma and drew inspiration from the philosophy of Upanishads, Samkhya, Yoga and Vedanta schools of thought. The Theosophical Movement came to be allied with Hindu renaissance. Hence, both statements are wrong. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect and 2nd statement is correct.##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which of the following sites are part of the Vijaynagara style of Mural Painting tradition? 1. Virbhadra Temple, Lepakshi. 2. Virupaksha Temple, Hampi. 3. Shri Krishna Temple, Chengam. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
All statements are correct.
All three temples are example of Vijanagar style of mural paintings and extention of Vijaynagar painting known as Nayaka painting style.
The location and temples are correctly matched in the statements.
Option A
|
a
|
Paintings
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following sites are part of the Vijaynagara style of Mural Painting tradition? 1. Virbhadra Temple, Lepakshi. 2. Virupaksha Temple, Hampi. 3. Shri Krishna Temple, Chengam. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 3###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3##Answer:a##Explaination:
All statements are correct.
All three temples are example of Vijanagar style of mural paintings and extention of Vijaynagar painting known as Nayaka painting style.
The location and temples are correctly matched in the statements.
Option A
##Topic:Paintings##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is correct related to Information Technology Act, 2000?
a. It deals with issues related to cyber crimes only such as spreading false and offensive messages through communication networks.
b. It deals with e-commerce
c. Section 66A penalizes sending false and offensive messages through communication services with imprisonment of three years or more and/or fine.
d. None of the above
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 provides for legal recognition for transactions through electronic communication and deals with cyber crimes. Thus, a is incorrect due to 'ONLY' and b is correct.
Section 66A penalises spreading false and offensive messages through communication networks and provides for imprisonment upto three years and fine. Offences over three years are cognizable offences and the ones under IT act are one of those.
|
b
|
Events.National
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is correct related to Information Technology Act, 2000?
a. It deals with issues related to cyber crimes only such as spreading false and offensive messages through communication networks.
b. It deals with e-commerce
c. Section 66A penalizes sending false and offensive messages through communication services with imprisonment of three years or more and/or fine.
d. None of the above
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 provides for legal recognition for transactions through electronic communication and deals with cyber crimes. Thus, a is incorrect due to 'ONLY' and b is correct.
Section 66A penalises spreading false and offensive messages through communication networks and provides for imprisonment upto three years and fine. Offences over three years are cognizable offences and the ones under IT act are one of those.
##Topic:Events.National##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with respect to "Net Neutrailty": It lays down responsibility solely on the Internet Service Providers(ISP) not to discriminate in terms of data speed and its pricing. It is related to over the top services (OTT). Net neutrality promotes innovation. Provides level playing field especially to start-ups. Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Net neutrality lays down responsibility on both internet service provider and government for not discriminating data in terms of speed and pricing. It is also related to over the top services such as Whatsapp, Skype, etc. Gives way to innovation and provide level playing field especially to start-ups.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to "Net Neutrailty": It lays down responsibility solely on the Internet Service Providers(ISP) not to discriminate in terms of data speed and its pricing. It is related to over the top services (OTT). Net neutrality promotes innovation. Provides level playing field especially to start-ups. Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Net neutrality lays down responsibility on both internet service provider and government for not discriminating data in terms of speed and pricing. It is also related to over the top services such as Whatsapp, Skype, etc. Gives way to innovation and provide level playing field especially to start-ups.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following activites are not asscociated with money laundering?
a. Particpating notes
b. Buying of capital goods from abroad by big corporates
c. Education sector
d. None of the above
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All of them comes under money laundering activites
Particpatory notes are a means of money aundering through round tripping
Big corporates pay a part of money of capital goods through Hawala transaction so as to avoid custom duty
Capitation fees in colleges comes under money laundering activities
|
d
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following activites are not asscociated with money laundering?
a. Particpating notes
b. Buying of capital goods from abroad by big corporates
c. Education sector
d. None of the above
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
All of them comes under money laundering activites
Particpatory notes are a means of money aundering through round tripping
Big corporates pay a part of money of capital goods through Hawala transaction so as to avoid custom duty
Capitation fees in colleges comes under money laundering activities
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is false regarding the initiatives taken to curb black money?
|
SIT has been formed by Supreme Court to investigate into matters of stashed black money inside and outside India.
|
Black money bill, 2015 is a money bill.
|
Benami transaction prohibition (amendment) bill, 2015 deals with curbing black money in real estate sector.
|
SIT has been formed by Supreme Court to investigate into matters of stashed black money inside and outside India.
|
SIT has been formed with the primary aim of investigating into matters of black money stashed outside India. Black money bill, 2015 is a money bill as it deals with imposition of taxes on money which has not been declared; providing for compliance window. Benami transaction prohibition (amendment) bill, 2015 deals with benami transactions taking place especially in real estate. G20 is playing a crucial role in ensuring international cooperation and pressuring tax havens for disclosing details.
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is false regarding the initiatives taken to curb black money?##Option_A: SIT has been formed by Supreme Court to investigate into matters of stashed black money inside and outside India.###Option_B: Black money bill, 2015 is a money bill.##Option_C: Benami transaction prohibition (amendment) bill, 2015 deals with curbing black money in real estate sector.##Option_D: SIT has been formed by Supreme Court to investigate into matters of stashed black money inside and outside India.##Answer:a##Explaination:SIT has been formed with the primary aim of investigating into matters of black money stashed outside India. Black money bill, 2015 is a money bill as it deals with imposition of taxes on money which has not been declared; providing for compliance window. Benami transaction prohibition (amendment) bill, 2015 deals with benami transactions taking place especially in real estate. G20 is playing a crucial role in ensuring international cooperation and pressuring tax havens for disclosing details.##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): In positive IOD ocean water off the Sumatra coast becomes colder than normal. The IOD is the difference in sea surface temperature between the Arabian Sea and the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia. An IOD can counter or worsen an El Nino's impact on the monsoon. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
All the statements are correct: The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between two areas (or poles, hence a dipole) - a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia. During a 'positive IOD', the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes colder than normal while the western tropical part of the ocean near the African coast becomes unusually warm. An IOD can counter or worsen an El Nino's impact on the monsoon.
|
d
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): In positive IOD ocean water off the Sumatra coast becomes colder than normal. The IOD is the difference in sea surface temperature between the Arabian Sea and the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia. An IOD can counter or worsen an El Nino's impact on the monsoon. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct: The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between two areas (or poles, hence a dipole) - a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia. During a 'positive IOD', the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes colder than normal while the western tropical part of the ocean near the African coast becomes unusually warm. An IOD can counter or worsen an El Nino's impact on the monsoon.##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with regards to 'Genome Editing': It is a new technique to change part of a plant genome with a gene from some other organism"s gene unlike wholesome change done under Recombinant DNA technique. It involves breaking apart a genome using "molecular scissors" and speeding up the repair process thus mimicking the natural action of plants developing resistance against pests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Genome editing (also called gene editing) is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA. These technologies allow genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome. Several approaches to genome editing have been developed. Genome editing technologies enable scientists to make changes to DNA, leading to changes in physical traits, like eye color, and disease risk. Scientists use different technologies to do this. These technologies act like scissors, cutting the DNA at a specific spot. Then scientists can remove, add, or replace the DNA where it was cut. Researchers use "molecular scissors" to break apart a genome and then speed up the repair process thus mimicking the natural action which occurs when plants are under attack from diseases. Hence statement 1 is not correct. It does not involve wholesome change of plant genome or introduction of other organism’s genes as in Geneticall Modified(GM) organism which is GM’s major criticism.
|
b
|
Biotech
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regards to 'Genome Editing': It is a new technique to change part of a plant genome with a gene from some other organism"s gene unlike wholesome change done under Recombinant DNA technique. It involves breaking apart a genome using "molecular scissors" and speeding up the repair process thus mimicking the natural action of plants developing resistance against pests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Genome editing (also called gene editing) is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA. These technologies allow genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome. Several approaches to genome editing have been developed. Genome editing technologies enable scientists to make changes to DNA, leading to changes in physical traits, like eye color, and disease risk. Scientists use different technologies to do this. These technologies act like scissors, cutting the DNA at a specific spot. Then scientists can remove, add, or replace the DNA where it was cut. Researchers use "molecular scissors" to break apart a genome and then speed up the repair process thus mimicking the natural action which occurs when plants are under attack from diseases. Hence statement 1 is not correct. It does not involve wholesome change of plant genome or introduction of other organism’s genes as in Geneticall Modified(GM) organism which is GM’s major criticism.##Topic:Biotech##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
With regard to the ideology of the Congress Left Wing with the rise of Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements: They stood for complete independence and wanted Swaraj not for the classes but for the masses. They stood for anti-Imperialism, nationalism and socialism. Their ideological inspiration came from Russian nihilists and Irish nationalists. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Congress Socialist Party was launched in 1934, to work within the Congress, to strengthen it, to mould and shape its policies. Their ideological inspiration came from Marxism and Democratic Socialism and they stood for anti-Imperialism, nationalism and Socialism, whereas , it was Revolutionary Terrorists who were inspired by the methods of Russian nihilists and Irish nationalists. Hence only 3rd statement is incorrect. They stood for complete independence and Socialism and they advocated Swaraj not for the classes but for the masses.
|
c
|
Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the ideology of the Congress Left Wing with the rise of Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements: They stood for complete independence and wanted Swaraj not for the classes but for the masses. They stood for anti-Imperialism, nationalism and socialism. Their ideological inspiration came from Russian nihilists and Irish nationalists. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only ##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:The Congress Socialist Party was launched in 1934, to work within the Congress, to strengthen it, to mould and shape its policies. Their ideological inspiration came from Marxism and Democratic Socialism and they stood for anti-Imperialism, nationalism and Socialism, whereas , it was Revolutionary Terrorists who were inspired by the methods of Russian nihilists and Irish nationalists. Hence only 3rd statement is incorrect. They stood for complete independence and Socialism and they advocated Swaraj not for the classes but for the masses.##Topic:Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are associated with eight limbs of Yoga, outlined by Patanjali's Yoga Sutra
1. Yama and Niyama
2. Praṇayama and Pratyahara
3. Dhyana and Samadhi
4. Dharana and Niravana
Select the correct answers using the codes given below
|
4 Only
|
1 and 2 Only
|
1, 2 and 3 Only
|
4 Only
|
Patanjali's Yoga Sutras outline eight limbs to better oneself physically, mentally and spiritually.
1. Yama – ethical restraints (the don'ts)
2. Niyama – ethical observances (the dos)
3. Asana – a posture that one can hold for a period of time, staying relaxed, steady, comfortable and motionless
4. Praṇayama – conscious regulation and exercise of breath
5. Pratyahara – mastery of sensory organs, withdrawal of the senses from external objects
6. Dharaṇa– concentration, introspective focus, one-pointedness of mind
7. Dhyana – meditation
8. Samadhi – the quiet state of complete forgetfulness of external world and the physical, complete blissful awareness of one's mind and liberated being, super conscious state.
Hence Niravana is not part of 8 limbs of Yoga, therefore option c is correct.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are associated with eight limbs of Yoga, outlined by Patanjali's Yoga Sutra
1. Yama and Niyama
2. Praṇayama and Pratyahara
3. Dhyana and Samadhi
4. Dharana and Niravana
Select the correct answers using the codes given below
##Option_A: 4 Only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 Only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 Only
##Option_D: 4 Only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Patanjali's Yoga Sutras outline eight limbs to better oneself physically, mentally and spiritually.
1. Yama – ethical restraints (the don'ts)
2. Niyama – ethical observances (the dos)
3. Asana – a posture that one can hold for a period of time, staying relaxed, steady, comfortable and motionless
4. Praṇayama – conscious regulation and exercise of breath
5. Pratyahara – mastery of sensory organs, withdrawal of the senses from external objects
6. Dharaṇa– concentration, introspective focus, one-pointedness of mind
7. Dhyana – meditation
8. Samadhi – the quiet state of complete forgetfulness of external world and the physical, complete blissful awareness of one's mind and liberated being, super conscious state.
Hence Niravana is not part of 8 limbs of Yoga, therefore option c is correct.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Kuka Revolt? Kuka Revolt occurred in western Maharashtra. Kuka revolt was led by Bhagat Jawahar Mal. The basic tenets of this revolt were abolition of caste, discouraging consumption of meat and alcohol. It encouraged women to step out of seclusion. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
Kuka Revolt was founded in 1840 by Bhagat Jawahar Mal also known as Sian Saheb in western Punjab. The basic tenets of this revolt were abolition of caste and similar discrimination among Sikhs, discouraging eating of meat and intake of alcohol and drugs and encouraging women to step out of seclusion. Hence Option D is correct.
|
d
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Kuka Revolt? Kuka Revolt occurred in western Maharashtra. Kuka revolt was led by Bhagat Jawahar Mal. The basic tenets of this revolt were abolition of caste, discouraging consumption of meat and alcohol. It encouraged women to step out of seclusion. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:##Option_A: 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Kuka Revolt was founded in 1840 by Bhagat Jawahar Mal also known as Sian Saheb in western Punjab. The basic tenets of this revolt were abolition of caste and similar discrimination among Sikhs, discouraging eating of meat and intake of alcohol and drugs and encouraging women to step out of seclusion. Hence Option D is correct.##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Khond Uprising? Participants of this movement were predominantly from the lower castes. The movement was led by Tirut Singh. One of the reasons of this movement was the government’s attempt to suppress human sacrifice. To counter this movement British formed a Mariah Agency. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Khond uprising from 1837 to 1856 were directed against the British, in which tribal of Ghumsar, china-ki-medi, kalahandi and Patna actively participated. The movement was led by Chakra Bisoi in the name of young Raja. The main issue was the attempt by the government to suppress human sacrifice - Mariah System (Traditional Human Sacrifice practiced by the Khonds), introduction of new taxes, influx of Zamindars and sahookars into their areas. The British formed a Mariah Agency to counter this movement. Tirut Singh was leader of Khasi uprising. Hence only statement 3 and 4 are correct and option B is correct.
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Khond Uprising? Participants of this movement were predominantly from the lower castes. The movement was led by Tirut Singh. One of the reasons of this movement was the government’s attempt to suppress human sacrifice. To counter this movement British formed a Mariah Agency. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Khond uprising from 1837 to 1856 were directed against the British, in which tribal of Ghumsar, china-ki-medi, kalahandi and Patna actively participated. The movement was led by Chakra Bisoi in the name of young Raja. The main issue was the attempt by the government to suppress human sacrifice - Mariah System (Traditional Human Sacrifice practiced by the Khonds), introduction of new taxes, influx of Zamindars and sahookars into their areas. The British formed a Mariah Agency to counter this movement. Tirut Singh was leader of Khasi uprising. Hence only statement 3 and 4 are correct and option B is correct.##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which of the following portions of the constitution are going to be amended by the proposed GST Bill, 2014 :-
7th Schedule
9th Schedule
Article 368
Directive Principles of State Policy
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The GST bill will make several amendements in total 17 items in the constitution, the substantive ones being addition of Art. 279A (to set up GST council) and to alter the taxation powers of centre and state (7th Schedule - Union List and State List; and addition of Art 269A (inclusion of GST in division pool). Along with it, article 279A will be added to list of articles whose amendment requires ratification by half of the states, hence an amendment to Art. 368 is also included in the bill.
|
a
|
Center-State Financial Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following portions of the constitution are going to be amended by the proposed GST Bill, 2014 :-
7th Schedule
9th Schedule
Article 368
Directive Principles of State Policy
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
The GST bill will make several amendements in total 17 items in the constitution, the substantive ones being addition of Art. 279A (to set up GST council) and to alter the taxation powers of centre and state (7th Schedule - Union List and State List; and addition of Art 269A (inclusion of GST in division pool). Along with it, article 279A will be added to list of articles whose amendment requires ratification by half of the states, hence an amendment to Art. 368 is also included in the bill.
##Topic:Center-State Financial Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to the transfer of power to Indians after 1940s: August Offer recognized that the framing of the new Constitution should primarily the responsibility of Indians themselves. The Cripps Mission provided a provision for the participation of Princely states in the Constitution-making body. The Wavell Plan did away with the exception of the Governor General and Commander-in-Chief being only English members. The Cabinet Mission gave the powers to British India and the States to raise the finances for subjects of Foreign Affairs , Defence and Communication. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Except 3rd statement, all the statements are correct. Under August offer 1940, the framing of the new Constitution should be primarily the responsibility of Indian themselves and should originate from Indian conception of the social , economic and political structure of Indian life. The Cripps Mission, 1942, declared that an elected body, charged with the task of framing a new Constitution. Also the provision shall be made for the participation of Indian States in the constitution-making body. The Wavell Plan , 1945, proposed the reconstitution of the Governor-General's Exeutive Council pending the preparation of a new Constitution. with the exception of the Governor General and the Commander in Chief ( who would retain his position as a War member) all other members of the Executive council would be nominated from amongst the leaders of political life. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 most importantly it rejected the demand of Muslim league for Pakistan and recommended for a Union of India , consisting of British India and Princely states which should deal with the subjects of Foreign Affairs , Defence and Communications and they should have powers to raise the finances of these subjects.
|
b
|
British Response and Negotiations
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to the transfer of power to Indians after 1940s: August Offer recognized that the framing of the new Constitution should primarily the responsibility of Indians themselves. The Cripps Mission provided a provision for the participation of Princely states in the Constitution-making body. The Wavell Plan did away with the exception of the Governor General and Commander-in-Chief being only English members. The Cabinet Mission gave the powers to British India and the States to raise the finances for subjects of Foreign Affairs , Defence and Communication. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Option_C: 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Except 3rd statement, all the statements are correct. Under August offer 1940, the framing of the new Constitution should be primarily the responsibility of Indian themselves and should originate from Indian conception of the social , economic and political structure of Indian life. The Cripps Mission, 1942, declared that an elected body, charged with the task of framing a new Constitution. Also the provision shall be made for the participation of Indian States in the constitution-making body. The Wavell Plan , 1945, proposed the reconstitution of the Governor-General's Exeutive Council pending the preparation of a new Constitution. with the exception of the Governor General and the Commander in Chief ( who would retain his position as a War member) all other members of the Executive council would be nominated from amongst the leaders of political life. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 most importantly it rejected the demand of Muslim league for Pakistan and recommended for a Union of India , consisting of British India and Princely states which should deal with the subjects of Foreign Affairs , Defence and Communications and they should have powers to raise the finances of these subjects.##Topic:British Response and Negotiations##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
In relation to Digital India Programme launched by the Government of India, which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Digital Inclusion’? Implementation of National Optical Fiber Network (NOFN). Incentives for telecom companies to increase 3G network coverage replacing their 2G network. National Telecom Policy,2012 Promotion of Domestic Electronic Goods Manufacturing. Promotion of Mobile and web applications in Indian Languages. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
Digital inclusion is the ability of individuals and groups to access and use information and communication technologies. NOFN aims to connect all Panchayats to internet. Shifting from 2G to 3G does not essentially guarantee ‘inclusion’ or spread of new connections; it merely indicates increase in speed of internet access. National Telecom Policy, 2012 envisions spread of internet connection to masses. Promotion of Domestic Electronic Manufacturing will decrease cost of production and more internet devices would be available at affordable rates and internet penetration will increase. Promotion of Mobile and web applications in Indian Languages will make internet usages more accessible to common man.
|
d
|
Good Governance , e-Governance
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In relation to Digital India Programme launched by the Government of India, which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Digital Inclusion’? Implementation of National Optical Fiber Network (NOFN). Incentives for telecom companies to increase 3G network coverage replacing their 2G network. National Telecom Policy,2012 Promotion of Domestic Electronic Goods Manufacturing. Promotion of Mobile and web applications in Indian Languages. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 3 and 5 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 5 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Digital inclusion is the ability of individuals and groups to access and use information and communication technologies. NOFN aims to connect all Panchayats to internet. Shifting from 2G to 3G does not essentially guarantee ‘inclusion’ or spread of new connections; it merely indicates increase in speed of internet access. National Telecom Policy, 2012 envisions spread of internet connection to masses. Promotion of Domestic Electronic Manufacturing will decrease cost of production and more internet devices would be available at affordable rates and internet penetration will increase. Promotion of Mobile and web applications in Indian Languages will make internet usages more accessible to common man.##Topic:Good Governance , e-Governance ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Given below is a list of initiatives taken by Government of India: One Rank One Pension scheme. Atal Pension Yojana and PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana Mission Indradhanush Which of the above schemes is/are the part of policy initiative(s) to bring more citizens under the domain of social security net?
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
2 only
|
In the Indian context, Social Security is a comprehensive approach designed to prevent deprivation, assure the individual of a basic minimum income for himself and his dependents and to protect the individual from any uncertainties. One Rank One Pension scheme doesn’t increase pension coverage but it is to address existing anomalies in pension provisions for retired defence personnel. Mission Indradhanush is to to fully immunize more than 89 lakh children who are either unvaccinated or partially vaccinated. Atal Pension Yojana: Under the scheme, a pension of Rs.1,000 to Rs.5000 will be provided to people over 60 years of age .The focus is on all those not covererd under any other social security program.Government will contribute 50% of the total contribution for five years,up to a maximum of Rs.1000 per annum. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana: It provides life insurance worth Rs.2 lakhs at 90 paise per day in event of death due to any reason (amounts to Rs.330 per annum.)for the people in the age group of 18-50 years. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is a Flagship outcome-based skill training scheme of the newly created Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
|
a
|
Human Capital Development
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Given below is a list of initiatives taken by Government of India: One Rank One Pension scheme. Atal Pension Yojana and PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana Mission Indradhanush Which of the above schemes is/are the part of policy initiative(s) to bring more citizens under the domain of social security net?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In the Indian context, Social Security is a comprehensive approach designed to prevent deprivation, assure the individual of a basic minimum income for himself and his dependents and to protect the individual from any uncertainties. One Rank One Pension scheme doesn’t increase pension coverage but it is to address existing anomalies in pension provisions for retired defence personnel. Mission Indradhanush is to to fully immunize more than 89 lakh children who are either unvaccinated or partially vaccinated. Atal Pension Yojana: Under the scheme, a pension of Rs.1,000 to Rs.5000 will be provided to people over 60 years of age .The focus is on all those not covererd under any other social security program.Government will contribute 50% of the total contribution for five years,up to a maximum of Rs.1000 per annum. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana: It provides life insurance worth Rs.2 lakhs at 90 paise per day in event of death due to any reason (amounts to Rs.330 per annum.)for the people in the age group of 18-50 years. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is a Flagship outcome-based skill training scheme of the newly created Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.##Topic:Human Capital Development##Subject:Botany##Answer:a
|
Which of the following factors helped in weakening of caste rigidity in British India during the period of religious and social reform movements?
1.The introduction of principle equality before law by British government.
2.The creation of private property and free sale of land.
3. 'Bharat Dharma Mahamandala’ was an all India organization which worked against the orthodoxy prevailing in Hindu Samaj.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
nbsp; 1 and 2
|
nbsp; 2 and 3
|
1, 2 and 3
|
’Bharat Dharma Mahamandala’ was a revivalist organization and was working for restoring old Hindu traditions and orthodoxy.
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following factors helped in weakening of caste rigidity in British India during the period of religious and social reform movements?
1.The introduction of principle equality before law by British government.
2.The creation of private property and free sale of land.
3. 'Bharat Dharma Mahamandala’ was an all India organization which worked against the orthodoxy prevailing in Hindu Samaj.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 and 2
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:b##Explaination:
’Bharat Dharma Mahamandala’ was a revivalist organization and was working for restoring old Hindu traditions and orthodoxy.
##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is incorrect about Swami Vivekananad?
|
nbsp; He founded the Ramkrishna Math in 1897.
|
nbsp; He never gave a political message but urged the people to imbibe the spirit of liberty, equality and free thinking.
|
nbsp; He addressed the Parliament of Chicago in 1897.
|
nbsp; He founded the Ramkrishna Math in 1897.
|
Vivekananda founded the Ramkrishna Mission, the Ramkrishna Math was founded by His guru Swami Ramkrishna Paramhansa.
|
a
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is incorrect about Swami Vivekananad?
##Option_A:nbsp; He founded the Ramkrishna Math in 1897.
###Option_B:nbsp; He never gave a political message but urged the people to imbibe the spirit of liberty, equality and free thinking.
##Option_C:nbsp; He addressed the Parliament of Chicago in 1897.
##Option_D:nbsp; He founded the Ramkrishna Math in 1897.
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Vivekananda founded the Ramkrishna Mission, the Ramkrishna Math was founded by His guru Swami Ramkrishna Paramhansa.
##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regards to SONAR (Sound navigation and Ranging) and RADAR (Radio detection and Ranging): SONAR uses sound waves because sound waves have high penetration in water If radio waves are used instead of sound waves, range of SONAR will decrease If sound waves are used instead of radio waves, range of RADAR will increase Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Sonar and Radar work on the same principle of detecting an object through echo. SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) uses sound waves as in water radio waves are easily absorbed but sound waves can travel far. RADAR (Radio detection and ranging) is used for aerial detection as radio waves have high penetration in air whereas sound waves have low penetration in air. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct as range of SONAR will decrease as radio waves are absorbed more easily. Statement 3 is incorrect as sound waves are reading absorbed in air
|
c
|
Misc. Tech.
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regards to SONAR (Sound navigation and Ranging) and RADAR (Radio detection and Ranging): SONAR uses sound waves because sound waves have high penetration in water If radio waves are used instead of sound waves, range of SONAR will decrease If sound waves are used instead of radio waves, range of RADAR will increase Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Sonar and Radar work on the same principle of detecting an object through echo. SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) uses sound waves as in water radio waves are easily absorbed but sound waves can travel far. RADAR (Radio detection and ranging) is used for aerial detection as radio waves have high penetration in air whereas sound waves have low penetration in air. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct as range of SONAR will decrease as radio waves are absorbed more easily. Statement 3 is incorrect as sound waves are reading absorbed in air##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
The following statements are made with respect to monetary policy. 1. It is released monthly by the RBI in consultation with Central Government 2. It deals with keeping more money with the bank and does not target inflation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
d
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The following statements are made with respect to monetary policy. 1. It is released monthly by the RBI in consultation with Central Government 2. It deals with keeping more money with the bank and does not target inflation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
दिवाला और दिवालियापन (शोधन अक्षमता) कानून (Insolvency and bankruptcy code) के सन्दर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये :
1-ऐसे किसी मामलों का निस्तारण 180 दिनों में हो जाना चाहिए तथा कुछ विशिष्ट सन्दर्भों में यह न्यूनतम 90 दिन तथा अधिकतम 270 दिन हो सकता है | 2-इस कानून के अंतर्गत पहले वित्तीय निवेशकों के लेन देन को पूरा किया जाता है तथा उसके पश्चात क्रियान्वयन के स्तर के सहयोगियों के कर्ज निपटाएं जाते हैं | 3-वर्ष 2017 में इसे संशोधित करते हुए उन लोगों को अलग रखा गया जो जान-बूझकर स्वयं को दिवालिया घोषित कर रहे हैं |
उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सत्य हैं/है ?
|
केवल 2 और 3
|
केवल 2
|
केवल 1 और 3
|
केवल 2 और 3
|
nan
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:दिवाला और दिवालियापन (शोधन अक्षमता) कानून (Insolvency and bankruptcy code) के सन्दर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये :
1-ऐसे किसी मामलों का निस्तारण 180 दिनों में हो जाना चाहिए तथा कुछ विशिष्ट सन्दर्भों में यह न्यूनतम 90 दिन तथा अधिकतम 270 दिन हो सकता है | 2-इस कानून के अंतर्गत पहले वित्तीय निवेशकों के लेन देन को पूरा किया जाता है तथा उसके पश्चात क्रियान्वयन के स्तर के सहयोगियों के कर्ज निपटाएं जाते हैं | 3-वर्ष 2017 में इसे संशोधित करते हुए उन लोगों को अलग रखा गया जो जान-बूझकर स्वयं को दिवालिया घोषित कर रहे हैं |
उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सत्य हैं/है ?##Option_A:केवल 2 और 3 ###Option_B:केवल 2 ##Option_C:केवल 1 और 3 ##Option_D:केवल 2 और 3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is incorrect ?
|
Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratios are inversely related to base rate.
|
Repo rate is directly related to base rate.
|
Open market operations are related to selling of government bonds by RBI.
|
Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratios are inversely related to base rate.
|
Cut in CRR and SLR affects the supply side of the banks, thus leading to decrease in base rate. Hence they are directly related to base rate. Hence option (a) is incorrect. Cut in repo rate affects the demand side and thus lead to decrease in base rate. Thus, it is also directly proportional to base rate. Open market operations are carried out by RBI for selling and re-selling of government bonds to monitor liquidity. Cut in repo rate will lead to monetary transmission only if bank decreases the base rate.
|
a
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is incorrect ?##Option_A: Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratios are inversely related to base rate.###Option_B: Repo rate is directly related to base rate.##Option_C: Open market operations are related to selling of government bonds by RBI.##Option_D: Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratios are inversely related to base rate.##Answer:a##Explaination:Cut in CRR and SLR affects the supply side of the banks, thus leading to decrease in base rate. Hence they are directly related to base rate. Hence option (a) is incorrect. Cut in repo rate affects the demand side and thus lead to decrease in base rate. Thus, it is also directly proportional to base rate. Open market operations are carried out by RBI for selling and re-selling of government bonds to monitor liquidity. Cut in repo rate will lead to monetary transmission only if bank decreases the base rate. ##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Q. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer
Assertion: The recent Nepal Earthquake was a shallow focus earthquake causing immense damage.
Reason: Great Boundary Fault is tectonically very active.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is correct but R is false.
Both A and R are false.
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Nepal Earthquake occured along Main Central Thrust. Great Boundary Fault is in south east Rajasthan. According to Earquake zone map of India, this region lies in Zone 1, the most stable.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer
Assertion: The recent Nepal Earthquake was a shallow focus earthquake causing immense damage.
Reason: Great Boundary Fault is tectonically very active.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is correct but R is false.
Both A and R are false.
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Nepal Earthquake occured along Main Central Thrust. Great Boundary Fault is in south east Rajasthan. According to Earquake zone map of India, this region lies in Zone 1, the most stable.
##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to Banking and Financial sector in India, consider the following statements: Governor of Reserve Bank of India is the chairperson of Financial Stability and Development Council. Merging public sector banks to form big and globally aspiring banks is known as Bank consolidation. SARFAESI Act, 2002 enables banks to reduce their non-performing assets (NPAs) by adopting measures for recovery or reconstruction. Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Financial Stability and Development Council is chaired by Union Finance Minister.
|
a
|
Prices & Monetary management,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Banking and Financial sector in India, consider the following statements: Governor of Reserve Bank of India is the chairperson of Financial Stability and Development Council. Merging public sector banks to form big and globally aspiring banks is known as Bank consolidation. SARFAESI Act, 2002 enables banks to reduce their non-performing assets (NPAs) by adopting measures for recovery or reconstruction. Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Financial Stability and Development Council is chaired by Union Finance Minister.##Topic:Prices & Monetary management,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following have been proven as possible impacts of Earthquakes? Landslides and Avalanches Rift Valley Fold Mountains Floods Tsunami Soil Liquefaction
|
Only 1 and 5
|
Only 2, 3 and 5
|
Only 1, 2 and 4
|
Only 1 and 5
|
Earthquake is shaking of earth's crust. The shaking may easily cause fall of unconsolidated rocks (Landslide) or snow (Avalanche) on a slope. The falling debris may dam a river. Once the dam breaks, it may lead to flooding. Also, rupture of existing dams by shaking may lead to flood. Tsunami can also be caused by an Earthquake in Ocean Floor. Earthquake may also cause loss of strength of soil particles saturated with water causing their liquefaction. Thus, 1, 4, 5 and 6 are correct. Rift Valley and Fold Mountain formation is caused by tectonic activity and not the shaking of Earth. These 2 are associated with Earthquakes as all 3 are caused by tectonic activity, but these 2 are not caused by Earthquakes.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following have been proven as possible impacts of Earthquakes? Landslides and Avalanches Rift Valley Fold Mountains Floods Tsunami Soil Liquefaction##Option_A:Only 1 and 5###Option_B:Only 2, 3 and 5##Option_C:Only 1, 2 and 4##Option_D:Only 1 and 5##Answer:d##Explaination:Earthquake is shaking of earth's crust. The shaking may easily cause fall of unconsolidated rocks (Landslide) or snow (Avalanche) on a slope. The falling debris may dam a river. Once the dam breaks, it may lead to flooding. Also, rupture of existing dams by shaking may lead to flood. Tsunami can also be caused by an Earthquake in Ocean Floor. Earthquake may also cause loss of strength of soil particles saturated with water causing their liquefaction. Thus, 1, 4, 5 and 6 are correct. Rift Valley and Fold Mountain formation is caused by tectonic activity and not the shaking of Earth. These 2 are associated with Earthquakes as all 3 are caused by tectonic activity, but these 2 are not caused by Earthquakes.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
What is meant by Induced Earthquakes?
|
These are Earthquakes triggered by other Earthquakes which happened earlier in the same region.
|
These are Earthquakes triggered by any natural disaster like volcanic eruptions.
|
These are Earthquakes triggered by human activity.
|
These are Earthquakes triggered by other Earthquakes which happened earlier in the same region.
|
Induced seismicity refers to typically minor earthquakes and tremors that are caused by human activity that alters the stresses and strains on the Earth's crust. Most induced seismicity is of a low magnitude. This may occur due to various causes: Artificial Lakes Mining and Extraction activities Waste disposal wells Geothermal Energy Nuclear Bomb Explosion
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is meant by Induced Earthquakes?##Option_A: These are Earthquakes triggered by other Earthquakes which happened earlier in the same region.###Option_B: These are Earthquakes triggered by any natural disaster like volcanic eruptions.##Option_C: These are Earthquakes triggered by human activity.##Option_D: These are Earthquakes triggered by other Earthquakes which happened earlier in the same region.##Answer:c##Explaination:Induced seismicity refers to typically minor earthquakes and tremors that are caused by human activity that alters the stresses and strains on the Earth's crust. Most induced seismicity is of a low magnitude. This may occur due to various causes: Artificial Lakes Mining and Extraction activities Waste disposal wells Geothermal Energy Nuclear Bomb Explosion##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following condition/s is/are laid down by Constitution for being a member of Lok Sabha?
1. He/She must not be less than 25 years of age
2. He/She must be a citizen of India
3. He/She must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 & 2 only
|
2 & 3 only
|
1 & 3 only
|
1 & 2 only
|
The Constitution lays down following qualifications for a person to be chosen as a member of Lok Sabha:
1. He must be a citizen of India
2. He must not be less than 25 years of age
3. He must make and subscribe before the person authorized by the election commission an oath or affirmation according to the form prescribed in the 3 rd Schedule
4. He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament
The Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
1. He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency
Therefore 1 st two requirements are laid down by the constitution for being a member of Lok Sabha. 3 rd requirement is mandated under the Representation of People Act 1951.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following condition/s is/are laid down by Constitution for being a member of Lok Sabha?
1. He/She must not be less than 25 years of age
2. He/She must be a citizen of India
3. He/She must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 & 2 only
###Option_B: 2 & 3 only
##Option_C: 1 & 3 only
##Option_D: 1 & 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Constitution lays down following qualifications for a person to be chosen as a member of Lok Sabha:
1. He must be a citizen of India
2. He must not be less than 25 years of age
3. He must make and subscribe before the person authorized by the election commission an oath or affirmation according to the form prescribed in the 3 rd Schedule
4. He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament
The Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
1. He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency
Therefore 1 st two requirements are laid down by the constitution for being a member of Lok Sabha. 3 rd requirement is mandated under the Representation of People Act 1951.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement about Doldrums. It is a belt of low pressure between westerlies and trade winds. It is an area of variable winds and calm conditions. It is an area of convergence and strong upward movement of air. It is an equatorial belt of low atmospheric pressure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Doldrum is the equatorial belt of low atmospheric pressure where the NE and SE trade winds converge on. Low pressure, variable winds and calm conditions, and the convergence of trade winds are the characteristics of trade winds.
|
c
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement about Doldrums. It is a belt of low pressure between westerlies and trade winds. It is an area of variable winds and calm conditions. It is an area of convergence and strong upward movement of air. It is an equatorial belt of low atmospheric pressure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Doldrum is the equatorial belt of low atmospheric pressure where the NE and SE trade winds converge on. Low pressure, variable winds and calm conditions, and the convergence of trade winds are the characteristics of trade winds.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the statements regarding the most active groups in the WTO"s agriculture negotiations. Cairns group is coalition of agricultural exporting nations lobbying for agricultural trade liberalization. G-10 is coalition of countries lobbying for agriculture to be treated as diverse and special because of non-trade concerns. C-4 is West African coalition seeking cuts in cotton subsidies and tariffs. G-33 Coalition of developing countries pressing for flexibility for developing countries to undertake limited market opening in agriculture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The main coalition groups in the WTO's agriculture negotiations are the G-20, the G-10, the G-33, the Cairns group, the African Group, the Cotton-4 (Benin, Burkina Faso, Chad, Mali) etc. All the statements made in the questions about groupings are correct. India is a member of the G-20 and G-33 coalation groups. The G-20, lead by Brazil is a coalition of developing countries pressing for ambitious reforms of agriculture in developed countries with some flexibilities for developing countries. The G-33 is lead by Indonesia is pressing for flexibility for developing countries to undertake limited market opening in agriculture.
|
d
|
Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the statements regarding the most active groups in the WTO"s agriculture negotiations. Cairns group is coalition of agricultural exporting nations lobbying for agricultural trade liberalization. G-10 is coalition of countries lobbying for agriculture to be treated as diverse and special because of non-trade concerns. C-4 is West African coalition seeking cuts in cotton subsidies and tariffs. G-33 Coalition of developing countries pressing for flexibility for developing countries to undertake limited market opening in agriculture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The main coalition groups in the WTO's agriculture negotiations are the G-20, the G-10, the G-33, the Cairns group, the African Group, the Cotton-4 (Benin, Burkina Faso, Chad, Mali) etc. All the statements made in the questions about groupings are correct. India is a member of the G-20 and G-33 coalation groups. The G-20, lead by Brazil is a coalition of developing countries pressing for ambitious reforms of agriculture in developed countries with some flexibilities for developing countries. The G-33 is lead by Indonesia is pressing for flexibility for developing countries to undertake limited market opening in agriculture.##Topic:Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Caretaker Government, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for a Caretaker Government. 2. President may ask the Council of Ministers to continue as Caretaker Government till alternative arrangements are made. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The phrase ‘caretaker government’ describes a government that holds office subject to certain temporary restrictions on what it may do, either during the pre-election period or because it may have lost the confidence of the House. ‘Caretaker government’ is a concept of the Westminster parliamentary system since the days of Churchill. Statements are correct: The term Caretaker Government has come to be used in common parlance to describe the status of a Council of Ministers that has resigned for certain reasons but is asked by President to continue till alternative arrangements are made. Due to ease of administration, many times the President(s) and the State Governor(s) agree to continue the same dissolved government till the new government gets formed but in the name of “Caretaker Government”. Hence statement 2 is correct. There is no mention of caretaker government in the Constitution of India and for that matter in any parliamentary Constitution. There are, however, conventions and court judgements with varying dos and donts. Hence statement 1 is correct. Caretaker governments are expected to handle daily issues but are not expected to take decisions with long-term impact or introduce controversial bills.
|
c
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Caretaker Government, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for a Caretaker Government. 2. President may ask the Council of Ministers to continue as Caretaker Government till alternative arrangements are made. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The phrase ‘caretaker government’ describes a government that holds office subject to certain temporary restrictions on what it may do, either during the pre-election period or because it may have lost the confidence of the House. ‘Caretaker government’ is a concept of the Westminster parliamentary system since the days of Churchill. Statements are correct: The term Caretaker Government has come to be used in common parlance to describe the status of a Council of Ministers that has resigned for certain reasons but is asked by President to continue till alternative arrangements are made. Due to ease of administration, many times the President(s) and the State Governor(s) agree to continue the same dissolved government till the new government gets formed but in the name of “Caretaker Government”. Hence statement 2 is correct. There is no mention of caretaker government in the Constitution of India and for that matter in any parliamentary Constitution. There are, however, conventions and court judgements with varying dos and donts. Hence statement 1 is correct. Caretaker governments are expected to handle daily issues but are not expected to take decisions with long-term impact or introduce controversial bills.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is correct with reference to the vesting of the lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters or the continental shelf of India?
|
All the resources are vested with respective states along the coasts.
|
While land is vested with the Union, mineral resources comes under the states.
|
While land comes under the states, mineral resources are vested in the Union.
|
All the resources are vested with respective states along the coasts.
|
Article 297- Things of value within territorial waters or continental shelf and resources of the exclusive economic zone to vest in the Union (1) All lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters, or the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic zone, of India, shall vest in the Union and be held for the purposes of the Union. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Legislative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is correct with reference to the vesting of the lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters or the continental shelf of India?##Option_A:All the resources are vested with respective states along the coasts.###Option_B:While land is vested with the Union, mineral resources comes under the states.##Option_C:While land comes under the states, mineral resources are vested in the Union.##Option_D:All the resources are vested with respective states along the coasts.##Answer:d##Explaination:Article 297- Things of value within territorial waters or continental shelf and resources of the exclusive economic zone to vest in the Union (1) All lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters, or the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic zone, of India, shall vest in the Union and be held for the purposes of the Union. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Legislative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a direct bearing on Education? Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Rights Preamble Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Option 1 is correct: DPSP Article 45 says: The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. Option 2 is correct: Art 21A (part of Fundamental Rights)- The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. Option 4 is correct: Art. 51A was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 as part of Fundamental Duties and it reads: “who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years”. The preamble has an indirect bearing on education. Hence option 3 is not correct.
|
b
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a direct bearing on Education? Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Rights Preamble Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Option 1 is correct: DPSP Article 45 says: The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. Option 2 is correct: Art 21A (part of Fundamental Rights)- The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. Option 4 is correct: Art. 51A was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 as part of Fundamental Duties and it reads: “who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years”. The preamble has an indirect bearing on education. Hence option 3 is not correct.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements in context of Chief minister (CM) of a state in India: The Representation of People"s Act, 1951 is the source for enabling or barring a candidate from becoming CM. According to the the RPA Act, if the CM is convicted, he/she cannot contest elections for 6 years from the date of conviction. Normally, a non-member can be CM for a maximum of six months only if he/she is eligible for contesting an election. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The constitution is the source for enabling or barring a candidate from becoming CM. Normally, a non-member can be CM for a maximum of six months only if he/she is eligible for contesting an election. It is mentioned in Article 164. The law is that the disqualification continues for six years from the date of release not from the date of conviction.
|
c
|
Chief Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in context of Chief minister (CM) of a state in India: The Representation of People"s Act, 1951 is the source for enabling or barring a candidate from becoming CM. According to the the RPA Act, if the CM is convicted, he/she cannot contest elections for 6 years from the date of conviction. Normally, a non-member can be CM for a maximum of six months only if he/she is eligible for contesting an election. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The constitution is the source for enabling or barring a candidate from becoming CM. Normally, a non-member can be CM for a maximum of six months only if he/she is eligible for contesting an election. It is mentioned in Article 164. The law is that the disqualification continues for six years from the date of release not from the date of conviction.##Topic:Chief Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Match List I with List II: List I (Industry) List II (Location) A. Guntur : 1. Fertilizers B. Bhatinda : 2. Bicycle C. Jaipur : 3. Tobacco D. Ludhiana : 4. Gems Industry Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A B C D
|
3 1 4 2
|
3 2 4 1
|
2 1 4 3
|
3 1 4 2
|
(Industry) (Location) Guntur Tobacco Bhatinda Fertilizers Jaipur Gems Industry Ludhiana Bicycle
|
a
|
Manufacturing Industries
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match List I with List II: List I (Industry) List II (Location) A. Guntur : 1. Fertilizers B. Bhatinda : 2. Bicycle C. Jaipur : 3. Tobacco D. Ludhiana : 4. Gems Industry Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A B C D##Option_A: 3 1 4 2###Option_B: 3 2 4 1##Option_C: 2 1 4 3##Option_D: 3 1 4 2##Answer:a##Explaination:(Industry) (Location) Guntur Tobacco Bhatinda Fertilizers Jaipur Gems Industry Ludhiana Bicycle##Topic:Manufacturing Industries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the given ocean currents is/are cold currents?
Labrador Current
Canary Current
Oyashio Current
Peru Current
Agulhas Current
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Labrador Current is a cold current of North Atlantic ocean.
Canary Current is a cold water Current, which flows along the western coast of Northern Africa
Kuroshio (or Kuro Siwo) Current of Pacific is similar to the gulf stream of Atlantic.
The Cold Oyashio (or Oya Siwo) Current (similar to Labrador current) is also known as Kurile current & it flows through the Bering Strait in a southerly direction.
Peru Current, also known as the Humboldt Current is a cold current, which flows along the west coast of South America.
Agulhas Current (Warm Current) is a branch of the south equatorial current, which flows along the eastern coast of Madagascar.
|
c
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the given ocean currents is/are cold currents?
Labrador Current
Canary Current
Oyashio Current
Peru Current
Agulhas Current
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Labrador Current is a cold current of North Atlantic ocean.
Canary Current is a cold water Current, which flows along the western coast of Northern Africa
Kuroshio (or Kuro Siwo) Current of Pacific is similar to the gulf stream of Atlantic.
The Cold Oyashio (or Oya Siwo) Current (similar to Labrador current) is also known as Kurile current & it flows through the Bering Strait in a southerly direction.
Peru Current, also known as the Humboldt Current is a cold current, which flows along the west coast of South America.
Agulhas Current (Warm Current) is a branch of the south equatorial current, which flows along the eastern coast of Madagascar.
##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for precipitation to take place? The air must be saturated. There must be hygroscopic nuclei in the air. The temperature of the air must fall below the dew point. The air must have a high temperature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
High temperature is not a necessary precondition for rain to take place. Except that all three are the conditios that are necessary. which includes saturated air, presence of hygroscopic nuclei in the air and the temperature of the air must fall below the dew point.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for precipitation to take place? The air must be saturated. There must be hygroscopic nuclei in the air. The temperature of the air must fall below the dew point. The air must have a high temperature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
High temperature is not a necessary precondition for rain to take place. Except that all three are the conditios that are necessary. which includes saturated air, presence of hygroscopic nuclei in the air and the temperature of the air must fall below the dew point.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
In case of an inflationary situation persisting in an economy, consider the following statements: Central bank following a tight monetary policy. An increase in the aggregate level of output in the economy. Repayment of Public debt. Purchase of government securities from the public by the central bank. Which of the above steps could be useful in controlling inflation?
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Inflation is controlled by limiting flow of currency in the economy and/or increasing the output of production. Purchase of government securities from the public is inflationary as it would infuse more money to the market. Repayment of public debt will release money in the market and hence increase inflationary trend.
|
c
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In case of an inflationary situation persisting in an economy, consider the following statements: Central bank following a tight monetary policy. An increase in the aggregate level of output in the economy. Repayment of Public debt. Purchase of government securities from the public by the central bank. Which of the above steps could be useful in controlling inflation?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only ##Option_C: 1 and 2 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Inflation is controlled by limiting flow of currency in the economy and/or increasing the output of production. Purchase of government securities from the public is inflationary as it would infuse more money to the market. Repayment of public debt will release money in the market and hence increase inflationary trend.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Corruption and Black Money has been the most discussed subject in Indian Politics in recent times. In this context consider the following statements: CVC is the main Constitutional body for preventing corruption in the Central government. India is one of the signatory of United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC), UNCAC enjoins governments to make enough legislative provisions to prohibit bribery of public officials in home country as well as officials of public international organizations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
In May 2011, the Indian Government ratified two UN Conventions - the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) and the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) and its three protocols. CVC was established by an executive resolution of the central government,it is not a constitutional body.
|
b
|
Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Corruption and Black Money has been the most discussed subject in Indian Politics in recent times. In this context consider the following statements: CVC is the main Constitutional body for preventing corruption in the Central government. India is one of the signatory of United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC), UNCAC enjoins governments to make enough legislative provisions to prohibit bribery of public officials in home country as well as officials of public international organizations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:In May 2011, the Indian Government ratified two UN Conventions - the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) and the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) and its three protocols. CVC was established by an executive resolution of the central government,it is not a constitutional body.##Topic:Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
As defined in the Constitution, which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Special Provisions given to National Capital Region Territory of Delhi? The strength of council of ministers is fixed at 15% of total strength of assembly. The Chief minister is appointed by Lieutenant Governor. In case of difference of opinion between Lieutenant Governor and Council of Ministers, the matter is referred to the President . Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect- The strength of council of ministers including Chief Minister is fixed at 10% of total strength of assembly. Since there are 70 members in Delhi assembly hence the strength of council of ministers including Chief Minister is fixed at 7. Statement 2 is incorrect- In case of Delhi, Chief Minister is appointed by President of India into by governor or Lt. Governor. Only 3rd statement is correct- In case of difference of opinion between Lt.governor and COM, then Lt. Governor has to refer the matter to the President for decisions and act accordingly.
|
b
|
Center-State Administrative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As defined in the Constitution, which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Special Provisions given to National Capital Region Territory of Delhi? The strength of council of ministers is fixed at 15% of total strength of assembly. The Chief minister is appointed by Lieutenant Governor. In case of difference of opinion between Lieutenant Governor and Council of Ministers, the matter is referred to the President . Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect- The strength of council of ministers including Chief Minister is fixed at 10% of total strength of assembly. Since there are 70 members in Delhi assembly hence the strength of council of ministers including Chief Minister is fixed at 7. Statement 2 is incorrect- In case of Delhi, Chief Minister is appointed by President of India into by governor or Lt. Governor. Only 3rd statement is correct- In case of difference of opinion between Lt.governor and COM, then Lt. Governor has to refer the matter to the President for decisions and act accordingly.##Topic:Center-State Administrative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Jatra : Bengal Lazim: Maharashtra Yakshagana: Karnataka Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Jatra is folk dance of Bengal. Lazim is martial dance of Maharashtra. Yakshagana belongs to Karnataka.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Jatra : Bengal Lazim: Maharashtra Yakshagana: Karnataka Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Jatra is folk dance of Bengal. Lazim is martial dance of Maharashtra. Yakshagana belongs to Karnataka.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Classical Dances in India: Natya Shastra, written by Bharata Muni, is known as the fifth veda. As per ancient treatises, dance is considered as having three aspects: natya, nritya and nritta. Tandava dance is masculine and Lasya dance is feminine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as the according to the author, he has evolved this veda by taking words from rigveda, music from Samveda, gestures from Yajurveda and emotions from the Atharvaveda. That's why it is also known as fifth veda, An ancient classification followed in all styles of dance is of Tandava and Lasya, Tandav is the masculine and Lasya is the feminine. So, statement 3 is also correct.
|
d
|
literature
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Classical Dances in India: Natya Shastra, written by Bharata Muni, is known as the fifth veda. As per ancient treatises, dance is considered as having three aspects: natya, nritya and nritta. Tandava dance is masculine and Lasya dance is feminine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as the according to the author, he has evolved this veda by taking words from rigveda, music from Samveda, gestures from Yajurveda and emotions from the Atharvaveda. That's why it is also known as fifth veda, An ancient classification followed in all styles of dance is of Tandava and Lasya, Tandav is the masculine and Lasya is the feminine. So, statement 3 is also correct.##Topic:literature##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following items in Bharatnatyam dance: Alarippu Jatiswaram Mangalam Varnam Arrange the above items in sequential order as they are played in Bharatnatyam dance and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1-2-3-4
|
1-2-4-3
|
2-4-1-3
|
1-2-3-4
|
Alarippu is the invocation song and it literally means "to adorn with flowers". Jatiswaram is the pure dance sequences- nritta, which is performed just after alarippu. Varnam encompasses both nritta and nriya and is done after shabdam which follows Jatiswaram. The performance ends with a mangalam invoking the blessings of the Gods.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following items in Bharatnatyam dance: Alarippu Jatiswaram Mangalam Varnam Arrange the above items in sequential order as they are played in Bharatnatyam dance and select the correct answer using the codes given below. ##Option_A: 1-2-3-4###Option_B: 1-2-4-3##Option_C: 2-4-1-3##Option_D: 1-2-3-4##Answer:b##Explaination:Alarippu is the invocation song and it literally means "to adorn with flowers". Jatiswaram is the pure dance sequences- nritta, which is performed just after alarippu. Varnam encompasses both nritta and nriya and is done after shabdam which follows Jatiswaram. The performance ends with a mangalam invoking the blessings of the Gods.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in Parliamentary procedure. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Zero Hour? The duration of Zero Hour has been fixed as One Hour just like the Question Hour Zero Hour is used only in the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Zero Hour is an informal device not mentioned in the Rule of Procedure that is used by members to raise matters without any prior notice. Statement 1. is incorrect. Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is the time gap between the end of Question Hour and the beginning of the agenda of the House on that day. Thus, its timings are flexible in the Lok Sabha Statement 2 is incorrect as Zero Hour is used in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Thus, all are incorrect.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in Parliamentary procedure. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Zero Hour? The duration of Zero Hour has been fixed as One Hour just like the Question Hour Zero Hour is used only in the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Zero Hour is an informal device not mentioned in the Rule of Procedure that is used by members to raise matters without any prior notice. Statement 1. is incorrect. Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is the time gap between the end of Question Hour and the beginning of the agenda of the House on that day. Thus, its timings are flexible in the Lok Sabha Statement 2 is incorrect as Zero Hour is used in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Thus, all are incorrect.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Astrological Phenomenon Description 1. Super Moon : A full moon closest to Earth in its elliptical orbit. 2. Blood Moon : Occurrence of two full moons in the same month 3. Blue Moon : Colored appearance of moon during total lunar eclipse. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A lunar eclipse is a spectacular celestial show, during which the bright, pearly-white disc of the full Moon turns dark, and sometimes takes on the colour of dark copper, or even dried blood. A lunar eclipse occurs when the Sun, the Earth and the Moon are so aligned that for a period of time, the full Moon passes through the shadow of Earth in space (called Earth’s Umbra). During a total lunar eclipse, though the Moon gets shadowed by the Earth, sunlight passing through the Earth’s atmosphere, break down in its constituent colours and the red part gets scattered by the atmosphere and falls on the Moon's surface, thereby making it take on a reddish copper hue. For this reason since antiquity, a totally eclipsed Moon is called a “ Blood Moon ”. It has no other special relevance other than the fact that the colour of the Moon looks blackish-red. When full Moon occurs twice in a calendar month it is termed a “ Blue Moon ”. The Moon does not turn blue but historically the second full Moon of an English calendar month is termed as a Blue Moon. Hence the oft-quoted phrase of a rare occurrence of any event as “once in a Blue Moon”. When the Moon is near its perigee it looks larger than an average full Moon, and is termed a Super Moon .
|
c
|
The Universe
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Astrological Phenomenon Description 1. Super Moon : A full moon closest to Earth in its elliptical orbit. 2. Blood Moon : Occurrence of two full moons in the same month 3. Blue Moon : Colored appearance of moon during total lunar eclipse. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:A lunar eclipse is a spectacular celestial show, during which the bright, pearly-white disc of the full Moon turns dark, and sometimes takes on the colour of dark copper, or even dried blood. A lunar eclipse occurs when the Sun, the Earth and the Moon are so aligned that for a period of time, the full Moon passes through the shadow of Earth in space (called Earth’s Umbra). During a total lunar eclipse, though the Moon gets shadowed by the Earth, sunlight passing through the Earth’s atmosphere, break down in its constituent colours and the red part gets scattered by the atmosphere and falls on the Moon's surface, thereby making it take on a reddish copper hue. For this reason since antiquity, a totally eclipsed Moon is called a “ Blood Moon ”. It has no other special relevance other than the fact that the colour of the Moon looks blackish-red. When full Moon occurs twice in a calendar month it is termed a “ Blue Moon ”. The Moon does not turn blue but historically the second full Moon of an English calendar month is termed as a Blue Moon. Hence the oft-quoted phrase of a rare occurrence of any event as “once in a Blue Moon”. When the Moon is near its perigee it looks larger than an average full Moon, and is termed a Super Moon .##Topic:The Universe##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
If US Federal reserve hikes the interest rate, which of the following may be the consequences in developing countries- Currency depreciation Outflow of funds Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
If there will be hike in interest rate by US Federal Bank, investors from US will withdraw money from emerging markets such India, Brazil, Indonesia etc. hence the currency value of emerging market will depreciate and there will be outflow of the funds as well. Hence both events might occur. As a consequence, stock markets of the emerging economies will also fall. Hence Option C is correct.
|
c
|
India and IMF, WTO , WIPO
|
Commerce & Accountancy
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:If US Federal reserve hikes the interest rate, which of the following may be the consequences in developing countries- Currency depreciation Outflow of funds Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:If there will be hike in interest rate by US Federal Bank, investors from US will withdraw money from emerging markets such India, Brazil, Indonesia etc. hence the currency value of emerging market will depreciate and there will be outflow of the funds as well. Hence both events might occur. As a consequence, stock markets of the emerging economies will also fall. Hence Option C is correct.##Topic:India and IMF, WTO , WIPO##Subject:Commerce & Accountancy##Answer:c
|
Mekong river does not pass from which of the following countries?
1. Vietnam
2. Combodia
3. China
Options
A) 1 Only
B) 1 and 2 Only
C) 1 and 3 Only
D) None of the above
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Mekong river flows through all the countries mentioned in given options.
|
d
|
Also in News(Geo+Eco)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Mekong river does not pass from which of the following countries?
1. Vietnam
2. Combodia
3. China
Options
A) 1 Only
B) 1 and 2 Only
C) 1 and 3 Only
D) None of the above
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Mekong river flows through all the countries mentioned in given options.
##Topic:Also in News(Geo+Eco)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Bhakti Movement ? They opposed the institution of God. They condemned caste system. They did not advocate for abolishment of sati.
|
1, 2
|
2, 3
|
2 only
|
1, 2
|
The Bhakti saints stressed equality, disregarded the caste system and attacked institutionalised religion. The saints did not confine themselves to purely religious ideas. They advocated social reforms too. They opposed sati and female infanticide. Women were encouraged to join kirtans.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct about Bhakti Movement ? They opposed the institution of God. They condemned caste system. They did not advocate for abolishment of sati.##Option_A: 1, 2###Option_B: 2, 3##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2##Answer:c##Explaination:The Bhakti saints stressed equality, disregarded the caste system and attacked institutionalised religion. The saints did not confine themselves to purely religious ideas. They advocated social reforms too. They opposed sati and female infanticide. Women were encouraged to join kirtans.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Constitution empowers Parliament to admit new states into the Union of India. Settlement of boundary dispute between India and another country require a constitutional amendment under Article 368. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the constitution under Article 368. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Only 2 nd statement is incorrect rest all the statements are correct. Settlement of boundary dispute can be done by executive action as it doesn’t involve cession of Indian territory.
|
a
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Constitution empowers Parliament to admit new states into the Union of India. Settlement of boundary dispute between India and another country require a constitutional amendment under Article 368. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the constitution under Article 368. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Only 2 nd statement is incorrect rest all the statements are correct. Settlement of boundary dispute can be done by executive action as it doesn’t involve cession of Indian territory.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development (USTAAD) scheme?
1. The objective of the scheme is to preserve rich heritage of traditional arts and crafts of tribal people.
2. It will be administered by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs across the country.
3. The scheme will establish linkages of traditional arts/ crafts with the National and International market and generate demand.
Options:
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 3 Only
D) 1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
First statement is incorrect. The objective of the scheme is to preserve rich heritage of traditional arts and crafts of minorities not tribal people.
Second statement is also wrong as it will be administered by the Union Ministry of Minority Affairs across the country.
3rd statement is correct.
Detailed Explanation -
Recently, The Union Minister of State for Minority Affairs launched USTAAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development) Scheme in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
Objective-
• The objective of the scheme is to preserve rich heritage of traditional arts and crafts of minorities and build capacity of traditional artisans and craftsmen.
• Its objective is to set up linkages of conventional expressions and artworks with the national and international market and ensure dignity of labour to artisans and provide employment opportunities and a better future to the youths belonging to the minority community.
Funding-
It will be funded by the Central Government and will prepare skilled and unskilled artisans and craftsmen to compete with major companies in terms of quality of products. USTAD is a Rs 17-crore initiative to preserve and promote traditional skills and ensure wider market access.
Implementing Agency-
It will be administered by the Union Ministry of Minority Affairs across the country.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development (USTAAD) scheme?
1. The objective of the scheme is to preserve rich heritage of traditional arts and crafts of tribal people.
2. It will be administered by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs across the country.
3. The scheme will establish linkages of traditional arts/ crafts with the National and International market and generate demand.
Options:
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 3 Only
D) 1, 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
First statement is incorrect. The objective of the scheme is to preserve rich heritage of traditional arts and crafts of minorities not tribal people.
Second statement is also wrong as it will be administered by the Union Ministry of Minority Affairs across the country.
3rd statement is correct.
Detailed Explanation -
Recently, The Union Minister of State for Minority Affairs launched USTAAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development) Scheme in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
Objective-
• The objective of the scheme is to preserve rich heritage of traditional arts and crafts of minorities and build capacity of traditional artisans and craftsmen.
• Its objective is to set up linkages of conventional expressions and artworks with the national and international market and ensure dignity of labour to artisans and provide employment opportunities and a better future to the youths belonging to the minority community.
Funding-
It will be funded by the Central Government and will prepare skilled and unskilled artisans and craftsmen to compete with major companies in terms of quality of products. USTAD is a Rs 17-crore initiative to preserve and promote traditional skills and ensure wider market access.
Implementing Agency-
It will be administered by the Union Ministry of Minority Affairs across the country.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote financial inclusion in the country? Opening of no-frills account Compulsorily Electronic Benefit Transfer Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana Backward Region Grant Fund India Development Foundation (IDF) Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
Financial inclusion is the delivery of financial services at affordable costs to sections of disadvantaged and low income segments of society. No frills account provides basic facilities of deposits and withdrawal to lower sections of society. Electronic Benefit Transfer paves the way for ‘human less’ transaction and an effective measure to prevent leakages through the various levels of bureaucracy. Once the benefits starts to reach masses, those who remain unbanked shall start looking to enter the financial sector. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services. India Development Foundation (IDF) serves as a credible single window to channel Indian Diaspora philanthropic capital into India’s social development. Backward Region Grant Fund is designed to address regional imbalances in development and is not related with financial inclusion.
|
c
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote financial inclusion in the country? Opening of no-frills account Compulsorily Electronic Benefit Transfer Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana Backward Region Grant Fund India Development Foundation (IDF) Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: 1, 2 and 5 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 5 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Financial inclusion is the delivery of financial services at affordable costs to sections of disadvantaged and low income segments of society. No frills account provides basic facilities of deposits and withdrawal to lower sections of society. Electronic Benefit Transfer paves the way for ‘human less’ transaction and an effective measure to prevent leakages through the various levels of bureaucracy. Once the benefits starts to reach masses, those who remain unbanked shall start looking to enter the financial sector. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services. India Development Foundation (IDF) serves as a credible single window to channel Indian Diaspora philanthropic capital into India’s social development. Backward Region Grant Fund is designed to address regional imbalances in development and is not related with financial inclusion.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are true regarding Money Bill in Indian Parliament? A Money Bill is always a Government bill. Money Bill is defined under Article 110. The President is the final authority to declare a bill as a Money Bill. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Since a Money Bill can only be introduced by a Minister thus, it is always a government Bill. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The Money Bill is one which contains only matters given in Article 110 of the Constitution. If any other matter is a part of a Bill, then that Bill can't be considered as a Money Bill. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. The final authority to decide on status of a Bill as Money Bill is the Lok Sabha Speaker, not the President.Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are true regarding Money Bill in Indian Parliament? A Money Bill is always a Government bill. Money Bill is defined under Article 110. The President is the final authority to declare a bill as a Money Bill. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Since a Money Bill can only be introduced by a Minister thus, it is always a government Bill. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The Money Bill is one which contains only matters given in Article 110 of the Constitution. If any other matter is a part of a Bill, then that Bill can't be considered as a Money Bill. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. The final authority to decide on status of a Bill as Money Bill is the Lok Sabha Speaker, not the President.Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
How does the Union have special relationship with respect to NCT of Delhi as compared to Indian states?
|
The Paliament can legislate on any matter concerning NCT of Delhi while its legislative power is restricted to Union and Concurrent Lists only with respect to States.
|
The Centre appoints Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi only after consultation with the Chief Minister of Delhi while the Governor of a State is appointed unilaterally.
|
The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi while the Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
|
The Paliament can legislate on any matter concerning NCT of Delhi while its legislative power is restricted to Union and Concurrent Lists only with respect to States.
|
The NCT of Delhi has a special status of being a UT with a Legislative Assembly and Government as per 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991. Statement a. is correct. While Parliament has the power to legislate on all matters, State Assembly has been given power to legislate on State List and Concurrent LIst except police, public order and land. In case of a dispute, the Central Law prevails. Statement b. is incorrect. The Centre appoints Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi unilaterally while Governor of a State is appointed only after consultation with the Chief Minister of the respective State. Statement c. is incorrect. CM of NCT (Delhi) is appointed by the President and not the LG. CM of State is appointed by the Governor.
|
a
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:How does the Union have special relationship with respect to NCT of Delhi as compared to Indian states?##Option_A: The Paliament can legislate on any matter concerning NCT of Delhi while its legislative power is restricted to Union and Concurrent Lists only with respect to States.###Option_B: The Centre appoints Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi only after consultation with the Chief Minister of Delhi while the Governor of a State is appointed unilaterally.##Option_C: The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi while the Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.##Option_D: The Paliament can legislate on any matter concerning NCT of Delhi while its legislative power is restricted to Union and Concurrent Lists only with respect to States.##Answer:a##Explaination:The NCT of Delhi has a special status of being a UT with a Legislative Assembly and Government as per 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991. Statement a. is correct. While Parliament has the power to legislate on all matters, State Assembly has been given power to legislate on State List and Concurrent LIst except police, public order and land. In case of a dispute, the Central Law prevails. Statement b. is incorrect. The Centre appoints Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi unilaterally while Governor of a State is appointed only after consultation with the Chief Minister of the respective State. Statement c. is incorrect. CM of NCT (Delhi) is appointed by the President and not the LG. CM of State is appointed by the Governor. ##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are correct about the Manufacturing Purchasing Manger Index (PMI)? An Index value above 100 shows expansion while below 100 shows contraction. It is based on 5 major indicators – New orders, Inventory Levels, Inflation Expectation, Supplier Deliveries and GDP growth. It is published on a monthly basis by Market Research and HSBC. It collects data only from the private sector. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) is an indicator of business activity -- both in the manufacturing and services sectors. It is a survey-based measures that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before. It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed. 1st statement is incorrect. A figure above 50 denotes expansion in business activity. Anything below 50 denotes contraction. 2nd statement is incorrect. It is a composite index based on five of the individual indexes with the following weights: New Orders - 0.3, Output - 0.25, Employment - 0.2, Suppliers' Delivery Times - 0.15, Stock of Items Purchased - 0.1. Hence, it is incorrect. 3rd statement is correct. It is published on a monthly basis by Market Research and HSBC. 4th statement is correct. It collects data only from the private sector.
|
c
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correct about the Manufacturing Purchasing Manger Index (PMI)? An Index value above 100 shows expansion while below 100 shows contraction. It is based on 5 major indicators – New orders, Inventory Levels, Inflation Expectation, Supplier Deliveries and GDP growth. It is published on a monthly basis by Market Research and HSBC. It collects data only from the private sector. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) is an indicator of business activity -- both in the manufacturing and services sectors. It is a survey-based measures that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before. It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed. 1st statement is incorrect. A figure above 50 denotes expansion in business activity. Anything below 50 denotes contraction. 2nd statement is incorrect. It is a composite index based on five of the individual indexes with the following weights: New Orders - 0.3, Output - 0.25, Employment - 0.2, Suppliers' Delivery Times - 0.15, Stock of Items Purchased - 0.1. Hence, it is incorrect. 3rd statement is correct. It is published on a monthly basis by Market Research and HSBC. 4th statement is correct. It collects data only from the private sector.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding disguised unemployment:
1. In India, the problem persists because the productivity of workers is low
2. Informal nature of work increases the prevalence of disguised unemployment.
3. Construction sector has the worst load of disguised unemployment
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Agriculture sector has the worst load of disguised unemployment which is rampant in the sector.
Disguised unemployment exists where part of the labor force is either left without work or is working in a redundant manner where worker productivity is essentially zero. An economy demonstrates disguised unemployment where productivity is low and where too many workers are filling too few jobs.
Indian workers fleeing disguised unemployment in agriculture for a better life in industry usually end up in the construction sector, which is the biggest source of jobs, or they join the informal manufacturing sector, both activities with low productivity. Thus informal nature of work increases the prevalence of disguised unemployment.
|
b
|
Poverty and Related Concepts- Definition, Causes, Poverty Line, etc.
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding disguised unemployment:
1. In India, the problem persists because the productivity of workers is low
2. Informal nature of work increases the prevalence of disguised unemployment.
3. Construction sector has the worst load of disguised unemployment
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ? ##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Agriculture sector has the worst load of disguised unemployment which is rampant in the sector.
Disguised unemployment exists where part of the labor force is either left without work or is working in a redundant manner where worker productivity is essentially zero. An economy demonstrates disguised unemployment where productivity is low and where too many workers are filling too few jobs.
Indian workers fleeing disguised unemployment in agriculture for a better life in industry usually end up in the construction sector, which is the biggest source of jobs, or they join the informal manufacturing sector, both activities with low productivity. Thus informal nature of work increases the prevalence of disguised unemployment.
##Topic:Poverty and Related Concepts- Definition, Causes, Poverty Line, etc.##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following satyagraha of Gandhiji was the first act of civil disobedience in India?
|
Rowlatt Satyagraha
|
Champaran Satyagraha
|
Kheda Satyagraha
|
Rowlatt Satyagraha
|
Champaran Satyagraha was Gandhiji's first act of Civil Disobedience in India. Gandhiji was requested by Rajkumar Shukla to look into the problems of indigo cultivators of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 of the total land (called tinkathia system). When towards the end of the nineteenth century German synthetic dyes replaced indigo, the European planters demanded high rents and illegal dues from the peasants in order to maximise their profits before the peasants could shift to other crops. Besides, the peasants were forced to sell the produce at prices fixed by the Europeans. Government appointed a committee to look into the matter and Gandhiji was nominated as a member. As a compromise with the planters, Gandhiji agreed that only 25 per cent of the money taken should be compensated. Within a decade, the planters left the area. Gandhiji had won the first battle of civil disobedience in India.
|
b
|
The Beginning of the Gandhian Era
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following satyagraha of Gandhiji was the first act of civil disobedience in India? ##Option_A:Rowlatt Satyagraha###Option_B:Champaran Satyagraha ##Option_C:Kheda Satyagraha ##Option_D:Rowlatt Satyagraha##Answer:b##Explaination:Champaran Satyagraha was Gandhiji's first act of Civil Disobedience in India. Gandhiji was requested by Rajkumar Shukla to look into the problems of indigo cultivators of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 of the total land (called tinkathia system). When towards the end of the nineteenth century German synthetic dyes replaced indigo, the European planters demanded high rents and illegal dues from the peasants in order to maximise their profits before the peasants could shift to other crops. Besides, the peasants were forced to sell the produce at prices fixed by the Europeans. Government appointed a committee to look into the matter and Gandhiji was nominated as a member. As a compromise with the planters, Gandhiji agreed that only 25 per cent of the money taken should be compensated. Within a decade, the planters left the area. Gandhiji had won the first battle of civil disobedience in India.##Topic:The Beginning of the Gandhian Era##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
What was the objective of setting up of United India Patriotic Association by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan?
|
To instil spirit of nationalism among masses.
|
To garner support against British rule from foreign nations.
|
To oppose propaganda of Indian National Congress.
|
To instil spirit of nationalism among masses.
|
The United India Patriotic Association was a political organisation founded by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan, the founder of the Aligarh Muslim University and Raja Shiv Prasad Singh of Benaras. Opposed to the Indian National Congress, the group aimed to develop close ties between the Muslim community and the British Raj.
|
c
|
Moderate Phase (1885 – 1905)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What was the objective of setting up of United India Patriotic Association by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan?##Option_A:To instil spirit of nationalism among masses.###Option_B:To garner support against British rule from foreign nations. ##Option_C:To oppose propaganda of Indian National Congress. ##Option_D:To instil spirit of nationalism among masses.##Answer:c##Explaination:The United India Patriotic Association was a political organisation founded by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan, the founder of the Aligarh Muslim University and Raja Shiv Prasad Singh of Benaras. Opposed to the Indian National Congress, the group aimed to develop close ties between the Muslim community and the British Raj.##Topic:Moderate Phase (1885 – 1905)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement about "Bani Thani": It is a famous painting from the Marwar School of Rajasthani painting style. This style of painting depicts Radha and Krishna as divine lovers, and beautifully portrays their mystical love. This style having highly exaggerated features like long necks, large, almond shaped eyes, and long fingers. It was painted by the artist Nihal Chand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Bani Thani is a famous painting from the Kishangarh School of Painting - of Rajasthani painting style.
It has been labeled as India's "Mona Lisa". The painting's subject, Bani Thani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of king Savant Singh (1748-1764).
It is a totally different style with highly exaggerated features like long necks, large, almond shaped eyes, and long fingers.
This style of painting essentially depicts Radha and Krishna as divine lovers, and beautifully portrays their mystical love.
Other themes of Bani Thani paintings include portraits, court scenes, dancing, hunting, music parties, nauka vihar (lovers travelling in a boat), Krishna Lila, Bhagavata Purana and various other festivals like Holi, Diwali, Durga puja, and Dussehra.
|
c
|
Difference between Architecture & Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement about "Bani Thani": It is a famous painting from the Marwar School of Rajasthani painting style. This style of painting depicts Radha and Krishna as divine lovers, and beautifully portrays their mystical love. This style having highly exaggerated features like long necks, large, almond shaped eyes, and long fingers. It was painted by the artist Nihal Chand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Bani Thani is a famous painting from the Kishangarh School of Painting - of Rajasthani painting style.
It has been labeled as India's "Mona Lisa". The painting's subject, Bani Thani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of king Savant Singh (1748-1764).
It is a totally different style with highly exaggerated features like long necks, large, almond shaped eyes, and long fingers.
This style of painting essentially depicts Radha and Krishna as divine lovers, and beautifully portrays their mystical love.
Other themes of Bani Thani paintings include portraits, court scenes, dancing, hunting, music parties, nauka vihar (lovers travelling in a boat), Krishna Lila, Bhagavata Purana and various other festivals like Holi, Diwali, Durga puja, and Dussehra.
##Topic:Difference between Architecture & Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regards to SONAR (Sound navigation and Ranging) and RADAR (Radio detection and Ranging): SONAR uses sound waves because sound waves have high penetration in water. If radio waves are used instead of sound waves, range of SONAR will decrease. If sound waves are used instead of radio waves, range of RADAR will increase. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Sonar and Radar work on the same principle of detecting an object through detection of reflected waves or generated waves (sound and radio respectively) from the object. SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) uses sound waves and being a mechanical wave travels further in the water. Moreso, in water radio waves are easily absorbed and hence RADAR could not be used for large distances. Futher, SONAR could be used both in active and passive mode. RADAR (Radio detection and ranging) are generally used for aerial detection as radio waves have high penetration in air whereas sound waves have low penetration in air. Further, the speed of radio waves is thousands of times faster than sound waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct as range of SONAR will decrease as radio waves are absorbed more easily. Statement 3 is incorrect as sound waves are readily absorbed in air.
|
c
|
Misc. Tech.
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regards to SONAR (Sound navigation and Ranging) and RADAR (Radio detection and Ranging): SONAR uses sound waves because sound waves have high penetration in water. If radio waves are used instead of sound waves, range of SONAR will decrease. If sound waves are used instead of radio waves, range of RADAR will increase. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Sonar and Radar work on the same principle of detecting an object through detection of reflected waves or generated waves (sound and radio respectively) from the object. SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) uses sound waves and being a mechanical wave travels further in the water. Moreso, in water radio waves are easily absorbed and hence RADAR could not be used for large distances. Futher, SONAR could be used both in active and passive mode. RADAR (Radio detection and ranging) are generally used for aerial detection as radio waves have high penetration in air whereas sound waves have low penetration in air. Further, the speed of radio waves is thousands of times faster than sound waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct as range of SONAR will decrease as radio waves are absorbed more easily. Statement 3 is incorrect as sound waves are readily absorbed in air.##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
With regard to Gandhi"s response to Communal Award , consider the following statements: It would help in eradicating untouchability. He did not object to the demand for larger number of reserved seats for the depressed classes. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Communal Award was announced by the British PM , Ramsay Macdonald, in August 1932. Gandhi saw the Communal Award as an attack on Indian unity and nationalism. He advocated that once the depressed classes were treated as a separate political entity, the question of abolishing untouchability would get undermined, while separate electorates would ensure that the untouchables would remain untouchables in perpetuity. Gandhi demanded that the depressed classes be elected through joint and if possible a wider electorate through universal franchise, while expressing no objection to the demand for a larger number of reserved seats. And to press his demands, he went on an indefinite fast on Sept. 1932.
|
b
|
Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Gandhi"s response to Communal Award , consider the following statements: It would help in eradicating untouchability. He did not object to the demand for larger number of reserved seats for the depressed classes. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:The Communal Award was announced by the British PM , Ramsay Macdonald, in August 1932. Gandhi saw the Communal Award as an attack on Indian unity and nationalism. He advocated that once the depressed classes were treated as a separate political entity, the question of abolishing untouchability would get undermined, while separate electorates would ensure that the untouchables would remain untouchables in perpetuity. Gandhi demanded that the depressed classes be elected through joint and if possible a wider electorate through universal franchise, while expressing no objection to the demand for a larger number of reserved seats. And to press his demands, he went on an indefinite fast on Sept. 1932.##Topic:Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
In April 2015, a new central scheme, namely Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) was unveiled as a part of five year plan for lifting India’s exports to the mark of $900 billion by 2019-20. MEIS is set to replace which of the following Schemes? Focus Product Scheme (FPS) Niryat Bandhu Scheme (NBS) Vishesh Krishi Gramin Udhyog Yojana (VKGUY) Focus Market Scheme (FMS) Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
The MEIS has replaced five existing schemes: Focus Products Scheme, Market-linked Focus Products Scheme, Focus Market Scheme, Agriculture Infrastructure Incentive Scrips and Vishesh Krishi Grameen Udyog Yojana (VKGUY).
|
a
|
GS_Economics_unclassified
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In April 2015, a new central scheme, namely Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) was unveiled as a part of five year plan for lifting India’s exports to the mark of $900 billion by 2019-20. MEIS is set to replace which of the following Schemes? Focus Product Scheme (FPS) Niryat Bandhu Scheme (NBS) Vishesh Krishi Gramin Udhyog Yojana (VKGUY) Focus Market Scheme (FMS) Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The MEIS has replaced five existing schemes: Focus Products Scheme, Market-linked Focus Products Scheme, Focus Market Scheme, Agriculture Infrastructure Incentive Scrips and Vishesh Krishi Grameen Udyog Yojana (VKGUY).##Topic:GS_Economics_unclassified##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT), consider the following statements:
1. It is a form of service tax levied on companies.
2. It is a step taken by the government towards companies that avoid paying taxes through various loopholes in the taxation system.
3. It is the biggest source of revenue collected from corporate and companies.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
1st statement is incorrect. Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) was introduced for the "zero tax" companies. It is a form of Direct tax while Service tax is Indirect tax.
|
b
|
Government Budgeting
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT), consider the following statements:
1. It is a form of service tax levied on companies.
2. It is a step taken by the government towards companies that avoid paying taxes through various loopholes in the taxation system.
3. It is the biggest source of revenue collected from corporate and companies.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
1st statement is incorrect. Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) was introduced for the "zero tax" companies. It is a form of Direct tax while Service tax is Indirect tax.
##Topic:Government Budgeting##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements concerning fiscal drag,
That situation where an increase in income gets nullified due to twin factors of inflation and entering into Tax slabs.
This situation can be taken care of by changing income tax slabs
which of the given statements is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
d
|
Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements concerning fiscal drag,
That situation where an increase in income gets nullified due to twin factors of inflation and entering into Tax slabs.
This situation can be taken care of by changing income tax slabs
which of the given statements is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements in the context of national supercomputing mission are correct?
1. Two key departments of the Government of India, Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY) will be implementing the mission.
2. National Knowledge Network (NKN) will be used for connecting these supercomputers
3. The Mission supports the government’s vision of “Digital India” and “Make in India” initiatives.
4. Supercomputing capabilities will help our country in the discovery and extraction of new energy sources and in weather prediction.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, has approved the launch of the National Supercomputing Mission. This is a visionary program to enable India to leapfrog to the league of world class computing power nations. The Mission would be implemented and steered jointly by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information .Technology (DeitY)
The Mission envisages empowering our national academic and R&D institutions spread over the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising of more than 70 high-performance computing facilities. These supercomputers will also be networked on the National Supercomputing grid over the National Knowledge Network (NKN). The NKN is another programme of the government which connects academic institutions and R&D labs over a high speed network
To provide continuity in maintaining a lead in supercomputing, the Mission also includes advanced R&D. This will create requisite expertise to build state-of-the-art next generation supercomputing. The Mission supports the government’s vision of “Digital India” and “Make in India” initiatives.
World-wide supercomputing facilities have enabled countries in their S&T capabilities in areas such as designing vehicles, aeroplanes, massive structures like high rise buildings and bridges, infrastructure , discovery of new life saving drugs, discovery and extraction of new energy sources including oil, natural gas etc
|
d
|
GS_Science and Technology Unclassified
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements in the context of national supercomputing mission are correct?
1. Two key departments of the Government of India, Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY) will be implementing the mission.
2. National Knowledge Network (NKN) will be used for connecting these supercomputers
3. The Mission supports the government’s vision of “Digital India” and “Make in India” initiatives.
4. Supercomputing capabilities will help our country in the discovery and extraction of new energy sources and in weather prediction.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, has approved the launch of the National Supercomputing Mission. This is a visionary program to enable India to leapfrog to the league of world class computing power nations. The Mission would be implemented and steered jointly by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information .Technology (DeitY)
The Mission envisages empowering our national academic and R&D institutions spread over the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising of more than 70 high-performance computing facilities. These supercomputers will also be networked on the National Supercomputing grid over the National Knowledge Network (NKN). The NKN is another programme of the government which connects academic institutions and R&D labs over a high speed network
To provide continuity in maintaining a lead in supercomputing, the Mission also includes advanced R&D. This will create requisite expertise to build state-of-the-art next generation supercomputing. The Mission supports the government’s vision of “Digital India” and “Make in India” initiatives.
World-wide supercomputing facilities have enabled countries in their S&T capabilities in areas such as designing vehicles, aeroplanes, massive structures like high rise buildings and bridges, infrastructure , discovery of new life saving drugs, discovery and extraction of new energy sources including oil, natural gas etc
##Topic:GS_Science and Technology Unclassified##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
consider the following statements about Asokan inscriptions:
1.They were written in Brahmi,Khrosthi,Greek and Aramaic scripts.
2.They were discovered by James Princep in 1837
Which of the above is/are correct?
A only 1
B only 2
C both 1 and 2
D neither
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All the four scripts were employed for writing ashokan inscriptions.
|
c
|
Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
consider the following statements about Asokan inscriptions:
1.They were written in Brahmi,Khrosthi,Greek and Aramaic scripts.
2.They were discovered by James Princep in 1837
Which of the above is/are correct?
A only 1
B only 2
C both 1 and 2
D neither
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
All the four scripts were employed for writing ashokan inscriptions.
##Topic:Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Jainism: It didn"t recognise the existence of God. It condemned the Varna System. It prohibited the practice of agriculture. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
Jainism recognised the existence of god It didn't condemn varna system as Buddhism did It prohibited the practice of agriculture as it involved violence.
|
b
|
Religious Reforms
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Jainism: It didn"t recognise the existence of God. It condemned the Varna System. It prohibited the practice of agriculture. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Jainism recognised the existence of god It didn't condemn varna system as Buddhism did It prohibited the practice of agriculture as it involved violence.##Topic:Religious Reforms##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Ellora and Ajanta caves 1.Both of them are world heritage sites. 2.Ajanta caves are associated with HInduism,Buddhism and Jainism as well. 3.The ellora caves are associated with Buddhism only. Which of the above is/are correct? a.1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. all of them
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The ajanta caves are related to buddhist monuments only.
The ellora caves have monuments of all three major religion of the time- hinduism,buddhism,jainism
both of them are world heritage sites
|
a
|
Difference between Architecture & Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Ellora and Ajanta caves 1.Both of them are world heritage sites. 2.Ajanta caves are associated with HInduism,Buddhism and Jainism as well. 3.The ellora caves are associated with Buddhism only. Which of the above is/are correct? a.1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. all of them ##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
The ajanta caves are related to buddhist monuments only.
The ellora caves have monuments of all three major religion of the time- hinduism,buddhism,jainism
both of them are world heritage sites
##Topic:Difference between Architecture & Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution: It was added by First Amendment to the Constitution. It is immune to Judicial Review. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Originally , the 9th schedule was immune to Judical Review but in 2007 , the Supreme Court ruled that laws made after April 24,1973 are open to scrutiny/judicial review.
|
b
|
Schedules of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution: It was added by First Amendment to the Constitution. It is immune to Judicial Review. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Originally , the 9th schedule was immune to Judical Review but in 2007 , the Supreme Court ruled that laws made after April 24,1973 are open to scrutiny/judicial review.##Topic:Schedules of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the people of the Harappan culture: They knew art of spinning wool. They knew about cultivation of rice. They worshiped in temple. Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Discovery of many spindles and spindle whorls in the houses of Indus valley civilisation. W heat and barley was common to all Harappan areas but few sites like Lothal show traces of Rice cultivation as well. They did worship male deities and Mother goddess but temple worship was not practiced.
|
a
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the people of the Harappan culture: They knew art of spinning wool. They knew about cultivation of rice. They worshiped in temple. Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Discovery of many spindles and spindle whorls in the houses of Indus valley civilisation. W heat and barley was common to all Harappan areas but few sites like Lothal show traces of Rice cultivation as well. They did worship male deities and Mother goddess but temple worship was not practiced.##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Which of the follwing countries border does not touch Black Sea? 1. Georgia 2. Romania 3. Moldova Options are: A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) 3 Only D) 2 Only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Black sea borders six countries and they are - Turkey, Georgia, Russia, Ukraine, Romania and Bulgaria. Moldova does not touch Black sea hence option C is correct.
|
c
|
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the follwing countries border does not touch Black Sea? 1. Georgia 2. Romania 3. Moldova Options are: A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) 3 Only D) 2 Only ##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:Black sea borders six countries and they are - Turkey, Georgia, Russia, Ukraine, Romania and Bulgaria. Moldova does not touch Black sea hence option C is correct. ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which one of the following is correct order of countries countries from west to east - A) Honduras, Nicaraguna, Belize, Panama B) Belize, Honduras, Nicaraguna, Panama C) Belize, Nicaraguna, Honduras, Panama D) Honduras, Belize, Panama, Nicaraguna
|
Correct order of countries from west to east is Belize, Honduras, Nicaraguna, Panama. Refer the below map -
|
b
|
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following is correct order of countries countries from west to east - A) Honduras, Nicaraguna, Belize, Panama B) Belize, Honduras, Nicaraguna, Panama C) Belize, Nicaraguna, Honduras, Panama D) Honduras, Belize, Panama, Nicaraguna##Option_A:###Option_B:##Option_C:##Option_D:##Answer:b##Explaination:Correct order of countries from west to east is Belize, Honduras, Nicaraguna, Panama. Refer the below map - ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
||||
Which of the following is true about Aggregate Demand?
1. Employment depends upon aggregate demand.
2. Aggregate Demand is independent of credit availability.
A. 1 only
B 2 only
C 1,2
D None
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Aggregate demand depends upon income and credit availability
|
a
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is true about Aggregate Demand?
1. Employment depends upon aggregate demand.
2. Aggregate Demand is independent of credit availability.
A. 1 only
B 2 only
C 1,2
D None
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
Aggregate demand depends upon income and credit availability
##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following are paper taxes?
1. service tax
2. custom duty
3. corporation tax
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. None
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
paper taxes are wealth tax,gift tax.
|
d
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are paper taxes?
1. service tax
2. custom duty
3. corporation tax
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. None
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
paper taxes are wealth tax,gift tax.
##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements are true?
1. Tax proposals made in the Finance Bill are included in "the revenue receipts".
2. Cash in grants from WB are included in "revenue receipts"
3. Revenue expenditure does not result in Financial Assets
A. 1,2
B 1,3
C. 2,3
D. All
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All are correct.
Revenue Expenditure consists of all those expenditures of the government which do not result in creation of physical and financial assets
|
d
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements are true?
1. Tax proposals made in the Finance Bill are included in "the revenue receipts".
2. Cash in grants from WB are included in "revenue receipts"
3. Revenue expenditure does not result in Financial Assets
A. 1,2
B 1,3
C. 2,3
D. All
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
All are correct.
Revenue Expenditure consists of all those expenditures of the government which do not result in creation of physical and financial assets
##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the measures given below is/are part of Directive Principles mentioned in Indian Constitution? The Minimum Wages Act, child labor Prohibition Act, the Factories Act etc. are statutory provisions to give effect to Directive Principles. The Maternity Benefit Act and the Equal Remuneration Act are there to protect the interest of Women workers. Aggrieved person can approach court for implementation of Directive Principles. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Grievances based on non implementation of the Directive Principles cannot be challenged in the Court as the DPSPs are non justiciable in nature. All these different Acts are to give effect to different DPSPs mentioned in constitution like right to work,equal pay for equal work, protection of interests of workers etc.
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the measures given below is/are part of Directive Principles mentioned in Indian Constitution? The Minimum Wages Act, child labor Prohibition Act, the Factories Act etc. are statutory provisions to give effect to Directive Principles. The Maternity Benefit Act and the Equal Remuneration Act are there to protect the interest of Women workers. Aggrieved person can approach court for implementation of Directive Principles. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Grievances based on non implementation of the Directive Principles cannot be challenged in the Court as the DPSPs are non justiciable in nature. All these different Acts are to give effect to different DPSPs mentioned in constitution like right to work,equal pay for equal work, protection of interests of workers etc.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Largest river basin in peninsular India is of: -
|
Cauvery
|
Godavari
|
Krishna
|
Cauvery
|
,
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Largest river basin in peninsular India is of: -##Option_A:Cauvery###Option_B:Godavari##Option_C:Krishna##Option_D:Cauvery##Answer:b##Explaination:,##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are not the tributaries of the Ganga?
|
Ramganga
|
Kosi
|
Mahananda
|
Ramganga
|
,
|
d
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are not the tributaries of the Ganga?##Option_A:Ramganga###Option_B:Kosi##Option_C:Mahananda##Option_D:Ramganga##Answer:d##Explaination:,##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following rivers: - 1. Jhelum 2. Sutlej 3. Chenab Which of the following are left bank tributaries of river Indus?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
,
|
d
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following rivers: - 1. Jhelum 2. Sutlej 3. Chenab Which of the following are left bank tributaries of river Indus?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:,##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Raja Ram Mohan Roy, consider the following statements: 1. He suggested Indianization of Superior Services by including more Indians in the civil services. 2. His promoted the idea of monotheism. 3. He stood for the reform of Hinduism and opposed its supersession by Christianity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Raj Ram Mohan Roy was attracted to Islamic monotheism and was convinced that Monotheism is also the fundamental message of Vedanta. Since Indian society was marred in religious sectarianism his idea of monotheism was an idea to reconcile the sectarian differences of society. He believed that monotheism supported one universal order for humanity while polytheism justified sectarian moralities. Hence, statement 2 is correct . As a political activist Raja Ram Mohan Roy condemned oppressive practices of Bengali Zamindars and demanded fixation of maximum rents. He did not demand its abolition. His other demands included: Abolition of tax on tax free lands; Reduction of export duties on Indian goods abroad; Abolition of East India company's trading rights; Indianization of superior Services; Separation of executive from the judiciary; Judicial equality between Indians and Europeans and that trial be held by jury. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As far as he was concerned there was to be no blind reliance on India’s own past or blind aping of the West. He put forward the idea that new India, guided by reason, should acquire and treasure all that was best in the East and the West. Thus he wanted India to learn from the West; but this learning was to be an intellectual and creative process through which Indian culture and thought were to be renovated; it was not to be an imposition of Western culture on India- He, therefore stood for the reform of Hinduism and opposed its supersession by Christianity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
a
|
Prsonality Based Questions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Raja Ram Mohan Roy, consider the following statements: 1. He suggested Indianization of Superior Services by including more Indians in the civil services. 2. His promoted the idea of monotheism. 3. He stood for the reform of Hinduism and opposed its supersession by Christianity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1, 2 and 3###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3##Answer:a##Explaination:Raj Ram Mohan Roy was attracted to Islamic monotheism and was convinced that Monotheism is also the fundamental message of Vedanta. Since Indian society was marred in religious sectarianism his idea of monotheism was an idea to reconcile the sectarian differences of society. He believed that monotheism supported one universal order for humanity while polytheism justified sectarian moralities. Hence, statement 2 is correct . As a political activist Raja Ram Mohan Roy condemned oppressive practices of Bengali Zamindars and demanded fixation of maximum rents. He did not demand its abolition. His other demands included: Abolition of tax on tax free lands; Reduction of export duties on Indian goods abroad; Abolition of East India company's trading rights; Indianization of superior Services; Separation of executive from the judiciary; Judicial equality between Indians and Europeans and that trial be held by jury. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As far as he was concerned there was to be no blind reliance on India’s own past or blind aping of the West. He put forward the idea that new India, guided by reason, should acquire and treasure all that was best in the East and the West. Thus he wanted India to learn from the West; but this learning was to be an intellectual and creative process through which Indian culture and thought were to be renovated; it was not to be an imposition of Western culture on India- He, therefore stood for the reform of Hinduism and opposed its supersession by Christianity. Hence, statement 3 is correct. ##Topic:Prsonality Based Questions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is the specialized agency of the United Nations to promote the protection of intellectual property. In India, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is concerned with legislation related to Patents, Trade Marks, Designs and Geographical Indications. Compulsory Licensing is a safeguard provided in the TRIPS agreement which allows companies to bypass licensing and other legislative requirements. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are i ncorrect ?
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Compulsory Licensing is provided in the TRIPS agreement which allows a government to temporarily override a patent to meet a public health crisis. Parallel Importation is another safeguard which allows importation of drugs from another country where they are sold at a lower price to meet a public health crisis. DIPP deals with following legislations: The Patent Act, 1970(finally amended in 2005) through the patent Offices at Kolkata Head Quarter at Mumbai, Chennai and Delhi. The Designs Act, 2000 through the patents Offices at Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai and Delhi. The Trade Marks Act, 1999 through the Trade Marks Registry at Mumbai (HQ) Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Ahmadabad. The Geographical Indications Of Goods (Registration and protection) Act, 1999 through the Geographical Indications Registry at Chennai.
|
b
|
Bodies of UN
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is the specialized agency of the United Nations to promote the protection of intellectual property. In India, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is concerned with legislation related to Patents, Trade Marks, Designs and Geographical Indications. Compulsory Licensing is a safeguard provided in the TRIPS agreement which allows companies to bypass licensing and other legislative requirements. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are i ncorrect ?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Compulsory Licensing is provided in the TRIPS agreement which allows a government to temporarily override a patent to meet a public health crisis. Parallel Importation is another safeguard which allows importation of drugs from another country where they are sold at a lower price to meet a public health crisis. DIPP deals with following legislations: The Patent Act, 1970(finally amended in 2005) through the patent Offices at Kolkata Head Quarter at Mumbai, Chennai and Delhi. The Designs Act, 2000 through the patents Offices at Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai and Delhi. The Trade Marks Act, 1999 through the Trade Marks Registry at Mumbai (HQ) Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Ahmadabad. The Geographical Indications Of Goods (Registration and protection) Act, 1999 through the Geographical Indications Registry at Chennai.##Topic:Bodies of UN##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:b
|
In the context of International Trade, Protectionism is the economic policy of restricting trade and economic relations between countries. Consider the following with regard to Protectionism: Imposing Import Quotas Administrative Barriers Direct Subsidies by Government Export Subsidies TRIPS agreement Which of the measures given above is/are used for Protectionism?
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
Import Quotas are imposed to reduce the quantity and thus protect the domestic producers. Administrative Barriers means countries use administrative rules regarding food safety, environmental standards etc. as a way to introduce barriers to imports. Government’s subsidies are given to local firms that cannot compete against foreign imports. These subsidies aim to protect local jobs, and to help local firms to adjust to the world markets. Export subsidies are used by governments to increase exports. Exporters are paid a percentage of the value of their exports. It increases the amount of trade and help local producers.
|
c
|
Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of International Trade, Protectionism is the economic policy of restricting trade and economic relations between countries. Consider the following with regard to Protectionism: Imposing Import Quotas Administrative Barriers Direct Subsidies by Government Export Subsidies TRIPS agreement Which of the measures given above is/are used for Protectionism?##Option_A: 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Import Quotas are imposed to reduce the quantity and thus protect the domestic producers. Administrative Barriers means countries use administrative rules regarding food safety, environmental standards etc. as a way to introduce barriers to imports. Government’s subsidies are given to local firms that cannot compete against foreign imports. These subsidies aim to protect local jobs, and to help local firms to adjust to the world markets. Export subsidies are used by governments to increase exports. Exporters are paid a percentage of the value of their exports. It increases the amount of trade and help local producers.##Topic:Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the amount (percentage by volume) of below mentioned gases in atmosphere: Carbon dioxide, hydrogen, helium, argon which of the following represents the correct order of average amount(percentage by volume) of gases at an altitude of 25 Km in atmosphere:
|
carbon dioxide>hydrogen>helium>argon
|
carbon dioxide>argon>helium>hydrogen
|
argon>carbon dioxide>helium>hydrogen
|
carbon dioxide>hydrogen>helium>argon
|
The average composition of gases by volume is according to the chart Component Symbol Volume Nitrogen N2 78.084% 99.998% Oxygen O2 20.947% Argon Ar 0.934% Carbon Dioxide CO2 0.033% Neon Ne 18.2 parts per million Helium He 5.2 parts per million Krypton Kr 1.1 parts per million Sulfur dioxide SO2 1.0 parts per million Methane CH4 2.0 parts per million Hydrogen H2 0.5 parts per million Of these the composition of CO 2 , water vapour, Methane, Nitogen oxide, etc. have variable concentration.
|
c
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the amount (percentage by volume) of below mentioned gases in atmosphere: Carbon dioxide, hydrogen, helium, argon which of the following represents the correct order of average amount(percentage by volume) of gases at an altitude of 25 Km in atmosphere:##Option_A: carbon dioxide>hydrogen>helium>argon###Option_B: carbon dioxide>argon>helium>hydrogen##Option_C: argon>carbon dioxide>helium>hydrogen##Option_D: carbon dioxide>hydrogen>helium>argon##Answer:c##Explaination:The average composition of gases by volume is according to the chart Component Symbol Volume Nitrogen N2 78.084% 99.998% Oxygen O2 20.947% Argon Ar 0.934% Carbon Dioxide CO2 0.033% Neon Ne 18.2 parts per million Helium He 5.2 parts per million Krypton Kr 1.1 parts per million Sulfur dioxide SO2 1.0 parts per million Methane CH4 2.0 parts per million Hydrogen H2 0.5 parts per million Of these the composition of CO 2 , water vapour, Methane, Nitogen oxide, etc. have variable concentration.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following factors: the rotation of earth on its axis the angle of inclination of the sun"s rays the length of the day the transparency of the atmosphere Which of above factors affect/affects the intensity of solar insolation?
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1,2 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
All of the above factor affect the solar insolation. Apart from options given,configuration of land also affects it.
|
d
|
The Earth : Solar System , Latitude &Longitude , Motions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following factors: the rotation of earth on its axis the angle of inclination of the sun"s rays the length of the day the transparency of the atmosphere Which of above factors affect/affects the intensity of solar insolation?##Option_A: 1 and 2###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 1,2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2##Answer:d##Explaination:All of the above factor affect the solar insolation. Apart from options given,configuration of land also affects it.##Topic:The Earth : Solar System , Latitude &Longitude , Motions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider following statements with reference to Arya Samaj Movement.
|
Swami Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan- " Back to the Vedas".
|
Swami Dayanand believed in 'Chaturvarna System' i.e., a person by birth belongs to one of the four castes from Brahmin, vaishya, Kshatriya and Shdra.
|
He supported the principles of Niyati (Destiny) and Karma (Deeds).
|
Swami Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan- " Back to the Vedas".
|
Arya Samaj endorsed the Karma based caste system. So, statement 2 is wrong.
They opposed the principles of niyati and karma. So, statement 4 is wrong.
|
a
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider following statements with reference to Arya Samaj Movement.
##Option_A:Swami Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan- " Back to the Vedas".
###Option_B:Swami Dayanand believed in 'Chaturvarna System' i.e., a person by birth belongs to one of the four castes from Brahmin, vaishya, Kshatriya and Shdra.
##Option_C:He supported the principles of Niyati (Destiny) and Karma (Deeds).
##Option_D:Swami Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan- " Back to the Vedas".
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Arya Samaj endorsed the Karma based caste system. So, statement 2 is wrong.
They opposed the principles of niyati and karma. So, statement 4 is wrong.
##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to Indian Social Conference: Indian Social Conference was founded by M. G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It met annually from its first sessions in Madras in 1887 at the same time and same venue as the Indian National Congress. It launched "Pledge Movement" to inspire people to take pledge against the Dowry system. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
Pair 1 is incorrect as: Jyotiba Phule stated a girl’s school in Poona. Bethune schools for girl’s education are associated with Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
|
a
|
Moderate Phase (1885 – 1905)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Indian Social Conference: Indian Social Conference was founded by M. G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It met annually from its first sessions in Madras in 1887 at the same time and same venue as the Indian National Congress. It launched "Pledge Movement" to inspire people to take pledge against the Dowry system. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2###Option_B: 1 and 3##Option_C: 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2##Answer:a##Explaination:Pair 1 is incorrect as: Jyotiba Phule stated a girl’s school in Poona. Bethune schools for girl’s education are associated with Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.##Topic:Moderate Phase (1885 – 1905)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Wahabi and Ahmadiya movements are two important Muslim reform movements in 19 th century. With respect to these movements, which of the statements given below is/ are correct? Both Wahabi and Ahmadiya movements were revivalist movements. Wahabi movement opposed Jihad and its objective was to spread western liberal education among Muslims. Ahmadiya movement was initially directed at the Sikhs but after British annexation of Punjab it was directed against British. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
A revivalist movement is one which desires or inclines to revive practices from an earlier times whereas a Reform movement seeks to bring gradual change in certain aspects of the society. Wahabi movement sought to undo western influences and the perceived degeneration in Indian muslims as per them. Ahmadiya movement on the other hand was a reformist movement in the sense that it based itself on the universal religion of all humanity and spread western liberal education among the Indian Muslims. It was Ahmadiya movement that opposed Jihad while the Wahabis considered India to be dar-ul-Harb(land of tha kafirs ) and it needed to be converted to dar-ul-Islam(land of Islam). Wahabi movement and not Ahmadiya movement was directed against Sikhs and later against British while the Ahmadiya movement was based liberal principles.
|
d
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Wahabi and Ahmadiya movements are two important Muslim reform movements in 19 th century. With respect to these movements, which of the statements given below is/ are correct? Both Wahabi and Ahmadiya movements were revivalist movements. Wahabi movement opposed Jihad and its objective was to spread western liberal education among Muslims. Ahmadiya movement was initially directed at the Sikhs but after British annexation of Punjab it was directed against British. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:A revivalist movement is one which desires or inclines to revive practices from an earlier times whereas a Reform movement seeks to bring gradual change in certain aspects of the society. Wahabi movement sought to undo western influences and the perceived degeneration in Indian muslims as per them. Ahmadiya movement on the other hand was a reformist movement in the sense that it based itself on the universal religion of all humanity and spread western liberal education among the Indian Muslims. It was Ahmadiya movement that opposed Jihad while the Wahabis considered India to be dar-ul-Harb(land of tha kafirs ) and it needed to be converted to dar-ul-Islam(land of Islam). Wahabi movement and not Ahmadiya movement was directed against Sikhs and later against British while the Ahmadiya movement was based liberal principles.##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following tectonic plate boundaries between: Eurasian and India-Australia-New Zealand plate Pacific plate and North American plate African plate and South American plate Which of the above boundary(s) is/are divergent?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
African plate and South American plate boundary is a divergent boundary , rest two are convergent ones.
|
c
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following tectonic plate boundaries between: Eurasian and India-Australia-New Zealand plate Pacific plate and North American plate African plate and South American plate Which of the above boundary(s) is/are divergent?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:African plate and South American plate boundary is a divergent boundary , rest two are convergent ones.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
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