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With reference to soils found in India, consider the following statements: Humus content of this soil is low because most of the micro organism get destroyed due to high temperature. This soil is found in the Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh. These soils are suitable for growing crops like cashew nut. These soils are rich in iron oxide and Aluminium. Which of the below soil type has the above mentioned features?
Regur Soil
Arid Soil
Red Soil
Regur Soil
The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus content of the soil is removed  fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterite are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashew nut. The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam. Therefore option d is correct.
d
Soils
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to soils found in India, consider the following statements: Humus content of this soil is low because most of the micro organism get destroyed due to high temperature. This soil is found in the Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh. These soils are suitable for growing crops like cashew nut. These soils are rich in iron oxide and Aluminium. Which of the below soil type has the above mentioned features?##Option_A: Regur Soil###Option_B: Arid Soil##Option_C: Red Soil##Option_D: Regur Soil##Answer:d##Explaination:The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus content of the soil is removed  fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterite are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashew nut. The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam. Therefore option d is correct.##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about the "Three-parent babies" IVF treatment? The procedure aims at preventing inherited mitochondrial diseases. The babies, born from genetically modified embryos, would have DNA from a mother, a father and from a male donor. The USA has become the first nation to legalize the Three-parent babies procedure. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1 and 2 only
A small number of children each year are born with faults in their mitochondrial DNA which can cause diseases. Mitochondria are small structures that sit inside our cells and provide them with energy. They have their own set of 37 genes which are separate from the 20,000 or so genes that shape who we are.Mitochondrial diseases tend to strike in childhood and get steadily worse. They often prove fatal before adulthood. The treatment, called mitochondrial transfer, is known as "three-parent" in vitro fertilization (IVF) because the babies, born from genetically modified embryos, would have DNA from a mother, a father and from a female donor. Mitochondrial transfer involves intervening in the fertilization process to remove faulty mitochondrial DNA, which can cause inherited conditions such as heart problems, liver failure, brain disorders, blindness and muscular dystrophy.  UK is the first country to legalize. So third statement is incorrect.
b
Health Technology
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about the "Three-parent babies" IVF treatment? The procedure aims at preventing inherited mitochondrial diseases. The babies, born from genetically modified embryos, would have DNA from a mother, a father and from a male donor. The USA has become the first nation to legalize the Three-parent babies procedure. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:A small number of children each year are born with faults in their mitochondrial DNA which can cause diseases. Mitochondria are small structures that sit inside our cells and provide them with energy. They have their own set of 37 genes which are separate from the 20,000 or so genes that shape who we are.Mitochondrial diseases tend to strike in childhood and get steadily worse. They often prove fatal before adulthood. The treatment, called mitochondrial transfer, is known as "three-parent" in vitro fertilization (IVF) because the babies, born from genetically modified embryos, would have DNA from a mother, a father and from a female donor. Mitochondrial transfer involves intervening in the fertilization process to remove faulty mitochondrial DNA, which can cause inherited conditions such as heart problems, liver failure, brain disorders, blindness and muscular dystrophy.  UK is the first country to legalize. So third statement is incorrect.##Topic:Health Technology##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
Which of the following steps have been introduced by the Finance Minstiry to avoid "march rush" towards the end of current financial year? 1. A restriction of 15 percent expenditure ceiling has been put for expenditure in the last quarter. 2. A further restriction of 33 percent expenditure ceiling has been for expenditure during the month of March. Which of the following statements are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
1 only
Logically, ceiling for one month cannot be greater than ceiling for whole quarter.  A restriction of 33 percent expenditure ceiling has been put for expenditure in the last quarter.  A further restriction of 15 percent expenditure ceiling has been for expenditure during the month of March.
d
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following steps have been introduced by the Finance Minstiry to avoid "march rush" towards the end of current financial year? 1. A restriction of 15 percent expenditure ceiling has been put for expenditure in the last quarter. 2. A further restriction of 33 percent expenditure ceiling has been for expenditure during the month of March. Which of the following statements are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination: Logically, ceiling for one month cannot be greater than ceiling for whole quarter.  A restriction of 33 percent expenditure ceiling has been put for expenditure in the last quarter.  A further restriction of 15 percent expenditure ceiling has been for expenditure during the month of March. ##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
Recently Government of India has been approved to become full member of SCO (Shanghai Corporation Organization), which of the following statements is/are correct regarding SCO? The SCO currently has China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan as members. The SCO is a Eurasian political and economic organization only, which was founded in 2001 in Shanghai. The Council of Heads of government is the top decision-making body and The Council of Heads of State is the second-highest council in the organization. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
1 and 2 only
 2 and 3 only
1 only
SCO has following features: The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation creation of which was proclaimed on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China). The main goals of the SCO are strengthening mutual confidence and good-neighborly relations among the member countries; promoting effective cooperation in politics, trade and economy, science and technology, culture as well as education, energy, transportation, tourism, environmental protection and other fields; making joint efforts to maintain and ensure peace, security and stability in the region, moving towards the establishment of a new, democratic, just and rational political and economic international order. Therefore apart from being a political and economic organization, it is also a military organization to maintain peace and stability in the region. The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the highest decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once every year to take decisions and give instructions on all important issues of SCO activity.  The Council of Heads of Government is the second-highest council in the organisation. This council also holds annual summits, at which time members discuss issues of multilateral cooperation. The council also approves the organization’s budget. Therefore (3) statement is wrong.
a
Non UN Institutions
Electrical Engineering
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently Government of India has been approved to become full member of SCO (Shanghai Corporation Organization), which of the following statements is/are correct regarding SCO? The SCO currently has China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan as members. The SCO is a Eurasian political and economic organization only, which was founded in 2001 in Shanghai. The Council of Heads of government is the top decision-making body and The Council of Heads of State is the second-highest council in the organization. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:SCO has following features: The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation creation of which was proclaimed on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China). The main goals of the SCO are strengthening mutual confidence and good-neighborly relations among the member countries; promoting effective cooperation in politics, trade and economy, science and technology, culture as well as education, energy, transportation, tourism, environmental protection and other fields; making joint efforts to maintain and ensure peace, security and stability in the region, moving towards the establishment of a new, democratic, just and rational political and economic international order. Therefore apart from being a political and economic organization, it is also a military organization to maintain peace and stability in the region. The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the highest decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once every year to take decisions and give instructions on all important issues of SCO activity.  The Council of Heads of Government is the second-highest council in the organisation. This council also holds annual summits, at which time members discuss issues of multilateral cooperation. The council also approves the organization’s budget. Therefore (3) statement is wrong.##Topic:Non UN Institutions##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:a
With reference to calculation of currency exchange rates, consider the following statements: 1. A decrease in the Nominal Exchange Rate in fixed rate regime is called depreciation, whereas the similar trend, if observed, in case of Real Exchange Rate is called devaluation. 2. The Nominal Exchange Rate multiplied by the weighted price indices, taking into account purchasing power parity of two trading nations is called Real Effective Exchange Rate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only                                
2 only
Both 1 and 2                     
1 only                                
Nominal Exchange Rate: The price of one currency in terms of number of units compared to the currency of other nation in terms of numerical exchange value. It does not take into consideration other aspects such as the purchasing power of that currency. In a floating rate regime (based on demand and supply in the market), an increase in the value of the domestic currency against other currencies is called an appreciation, while a decrease in value is called depreciation. In contrast, an increase in the exchange rate in a fixed rate regime (government authority) is called a revaluation and a decrease in the exchange value of the domestic currency is referred to as devaluation. Real Exchange Rate: This rate takes into account the purchasing power and competitiveness aspect, provides real exchange rate. So the real exchange rates are the nominal exchange rates multiplied by the price indices of the two countries. Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER): With each individual currency with which India trades, the rupee has a different nominal exchange value. The weight of the nominal exchange rate of the rupee against the currencies of these trading partners is used based on their share in India"s trade . Finally, the sum of the weighted exchange rates provides the NEER. It helps to track changes in the rupee"s value as percentage changes over the base year. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER): It is the weighted average of real exchange rates, weighted by the relative importance of each country in trade with the domestic economy. Therefore, it is also an index of a country"s real exchange rate, which gives some reference about how the currency is performing in relation to the rest of the world as a whole, rather than just individual countries. Based on these indices we can conclude that if the domestic currency becomes more expensive in terms of other currencies, then exports will become less valuable in terms of the domestic currency and imports will become cheaper. The converse is true if the domestic currency is depreciated / devalued.
d
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to calculation of currency exchange rates, consider the following statements: 1. A decrease in the Nominal Exchange Rate in fixed rate regime is called depreciation, whereas the similar trend, if observed, in case of Real Exchange Rate is called devaluation. 2. The Nominal Exchange Rate multiplied by the weighted price indices, taking into account purchasing power parity of two trading nations is called Real Effective Exchange Rate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only                                 ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2                      ##Option_D: 1 only                                 ##Answer:d##Explaination:Nominal Exchange Rate: The price of one currency in terms of number of units compared to the currency of other nation in terms of numerical exchange value. It does not take into consideration other aspects such as the purchasing power of that currency. In a floating rate regime (based on demand and supply in the market), an increase in the value of the domestic currency against other currencies is called an appreciation, while a decrease in value is called depreciation. In contrast, an increase in the exchange rate in a fixed rate regime (government authority) is called a revaluation and a decrease in the exchange value of the domestic currency is referred to as devaluation. Real Exchange Rate: This rate takes into account the purchasing power and competitiveness aspect, provides real exchange rate. So the real exchange rates are the nominal exchange rates multiplied by the price indices of the two countries. Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER): With each individual currency with which India trades, the rupee has a different nominal exchange value. The weight of the nominal exchange rate of the rupee against the currencies of these trading partners is used based on their share in India"s trade . Finally, the sum of the weighted exchange rates provides the NEER. It helps to track changes in the rupee"s value as percentage changes over the base year. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER): It is the weighted average of real exchange rates, weighted by the relative importance of each country in trade with the domestic economy. Therefore, it is also an index of a country"s real exchange rate, which gives some reference about how the currency is performing in relation to the rest of the world as a whole, rather than just individual countries. Based on these indices we can conclude that if the domestic currency becomes more expensive in terms of other currencies, then exports will become less valuable in terms of the domestic currency and imports will become cheaper. The converse is true if the domestic currency is depreciated / devalued.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
Which of the following statements are true about teachings of Jainism? It holds that the entire world including both living and non-living objects are animated.. It believes in the cycle of birth-rebirth being  shaped through "Karma". It holds that monastic existence is a necessary condition to attain salvation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1st statement is correct - The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated: even stones, rocks and water have life. Non-injury to living beings, especially to humans, animals, plants and insects, is central to Jaina philosophy. In fact the principle of ahimsa, emphasised within Jainism, has left its mark on Indian thinking as a whole.  2nd statement is correct - According to Jaina teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma. 3rd statement is correct - Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore, monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation.
d
Religion and Philosophy
Geography
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are true about teachings of Jainism? It holds that the entire world including both living and non-living objects are animated.. It believes in the cycle of birth-rebirth being  shaped through "Karma". It holds that monastic existence is a necessary condition to attain salvation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1st statement is correct - The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated: even stones, rocks and water have life. Non-injury to living beings, especially to humans, animals, plants and insects, is central to Jaina philosophy. In fact the principle of ahimsa, emphasised within Jainism, has left its mark on Indian thinking as a whole.  2nd statement is correct - According to Jaina teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma. 3rd statement is correct - Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore, monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation.##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
A state in India has following characteristics: 1. Its western part is known for Coffee cultivation. 2. Its eastern part is known for Ragi cultivation. 3. It has rocks contains one of the richest minerals deposits of India. Which of the following states is the correct answer?
  Tamilnadu
   Kerala
  Andhra Pradesh
  Tamilnadu
Explanation : Clearly in the western part of Karnataka Plateau there is upland known as Malnad which is famous for Coffee cultivation. Therefore Karnataka is the largest Coffee producing state in India. Whereas in the eastern section of Karnataka Plateau there lies a plain known as Maidan which is drained by Kaveri & Tungabhadra Rivers. Therefore Suitable for Ragi cultivation because of presence of Red Soil. Also, Karnataka plateau is home of Baba Bhudan Hills which is the part of Singhbhum orogenesis. Baba Bhudan Hills are known for containing one of the richest mineral deposits in India.  
d
Land Resources and Agriculture
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: A state in India has following characteristics: 1. Its western part is known for Coffee cultivation. 2. Its eastern part is known for Ragi cultivation. 3. It has rocks contains one of the richest minerals deposits of India. Which of the following states is the correct answer? ##Option_A:   Tamilnadu ###Option_B:   Kerala ##Option_C:   Andhra Pradesh ##Option_D:   Tamilnadu ##Answer:d##Explaination: Explanation : Clearly in the western part of Karnataka Plateau there is upland known as Malnad which is famous for Coffee cultivation. Therefore Karnataka is the largest Coffee producing state in India. Whereas in the eastern section of Karnataka Plateau there lies a plain known as Maidan which is drained by Kaveri & Tungabhadra Rivers. Therefore Suitable for Ragi cultivation because of presence of Red Soil. Also, Karnataka plateau is home of Baba Bhudan Hills which is the part of Singhbhum orogenesis. Baba Bhudan Hills are known for containing one of the richest mineral deposits in India.   ##Topic:Land Resources and Agriculture##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
With reference to Agricultural crops in India, consider the following statements: Crops like rice, sugarcane and chillies can bear the condition of frosts. Crops like Cocoa, Coffee, Spices and Rubber can only be found in tropical region. Apple orchards generally require tropical and subtropical climate and performs well if the region is 1000 meters above the sea level. Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct?
1 and 2 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Crops like rice, sugarcane, jute, chilli tomatoes are killed or damaged at occurrence of frosts. Therefore statement (1) is wrong. Further cocoas, coffee, spices, squash, rubber & tobacco are the tropical crops, which require temperature above 18 degree Celsius even in the coldest months. Orchards of coconuts are found at low altitudes preferably closer to sea level, but apple orchards performs well above 1500 meters above mean sea level in tropical and subtropical conditions.
c
Land Resources and Agriculture
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Agricultural crops in India, consider the following statements: Crops like rice, sugarcane and chillies can bear the condition of frosts. Crops like Cocoa, Coffee, Spices and Rubber can only be found in tropical region. Apple orchards generally require tropical and subtropical climate and performs well if the region is 1000 meters above the sea level. Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Crops like rice, sugarcane, jute, chilli tomatoes are killed or damaged at occurrence of frosts. Therefore statement (1) is wrong. Further cocoas, coffee, spices, squash, rubber & tobacco are the tropical crops, which require temperature above 18 degree Celsius even in the coldest months. Orchards of coconuts are found at low altitudes preferably closer to sea level, but apple orchards performs well above 1500 meters above mean sea level in tropical and subtropical conditions.##Topic:Land Resources and Agriculture##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
With reference to the recently launched "Housing For All 2022" (Urban)Scheme by the government, consider the following statements : The scheme is to be jointly implemented by Ministry of Urban Development and Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation. Its objective is to promote slum free cities. Houses allocation would be in the name of the women only. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Housing for All (Urban) Scheme is to be jointly implemented by Ministry of Urban Development and Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation- 1st statement is correct. It has following important features: Every urban poor household to be enabled to own a house; 2 crore houses to be built for urban poor Central assistance ranging from Rs. 1 Lakh to Rs. 2.30 Lakh per house; Promote slum free cities- 2nd statement is correct. House in the name of women or jointly with husband- 3rd statement is incorrect.
a
Also in News(Misc)
Chemistry
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the recently launched "Housing For All 2022" (Urban)Scheme by the government, consider the following statements : The scheme is to be jointly implemented by Ministry of Urban Development and Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation. Its objective is to promote slum free cities. Houses allocation would be in the name of the women only. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Housing for All (Urban) Scheme is to be jointly implemented by Ministry of Urban Development and Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation- 1st statement is correct. It has following important features: Every urban poor household to be enabled to own a house; 2 crore houses to be built for urban poor Central assistance ranging from Rs. 1 Lakh to Rs. 2.30 Lakh per house; Promote slum free cities- 2nd statement is correct. House in the name of women or jointly with husband- 3rd statement is incorrect.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
प्रोटेम स्पीकर के सम्बन्ध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये- वह राष्ट्रपति के द्वारा नियुक्त किया जाता है| संविधान के अनु.95 में प्रोटेम स्पीकर का उल्लेख मिलता है| प्रायः वह सदन का सबसे वरिष्ठ सदस्य होता है| उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सत्य है/हैं?
1 एवं 2 
2 एवं 3 
1 एवं 3 
1 एवं 2 
nan
c
President
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:प्रोटेम स्पीकर के सम्बन्ध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये- वह राष्ट्रपति के द्वारा नियुक्त किया जाता है| संविधान के अनु.95 में प्रोटेम स्पीकर का उल्लेख मिलता है| प्रायः वह सदन का सबसे वरिष्ठ सदस्य होता है| उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सत्य है/हैं?##Option_A:1 एवं 2 ###Option_B:2 एवं 3 ##Option_C:1 एवं 3 ##Option_D:1 एवं 2 ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
In Medieval India, what is the meaning of sulh-i kul ? a. Emperor has right to tax people b. Emperor rule is hereditary c. Emperor derives power from God. d. Secularism must prevail in empire  
nan
nan
nan
nan
In Medieval India, Abu'l Fazl describes the ideal of sulh-i kul (absolute peace ) as the cornerstone of enlightened rule. In sulh-i kul all religions and schools of thought had freedom of expression but on condition that they did not undermine the authority of the state or fight among themselves. The ideal of sulh-i kul was implemented through state policies – the nobility under the Mughals was a composite one comprising Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs, Deccanis – all of whom were given positions and awards purely on the basis of their service and loyalty to the king. Further,Akbar abolished the tax on pilgrimage in 1563 and jizya in 1564 as the two were based on religious discrimination. Instructions were sent to officers of the empire to follow the precept of sulh-i kul in administration.
d
Mughal Period
Geography
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: In Medieval India, what is the meaning of sulh-i kul ? a. Emperor has right to tax people b. Emperor rule is hereditary c. Emperor derives power from God. d. Secularism must prevail in empire   ##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination: In Medieval India, Abu'l Fazl describes the ideal of sulh-i kul (absolute peace ) as the cornerstone of enlightened rule. In sulh-i kul all religions and schools of thought had freedom of expression but on condition that they did not undermine the authority of the state or fight among themselves. The ideal of sulh-i kul was implemented through state policies – the nobility under the Mughals was a composite one comprising Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs, Deccanis – all of whom were given positions and awards purely on the basis of their service and loyalty to the king. Further,Akbar abolished the tax on pilgrimage in 1563 and jizya in 1564 as the two were based on religious discrimination. Instructions were sent to officers of the empire to follow the precept of sulh-i kul in administration. ##Topic:Mughal Period##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
 Consider the following pairs :   National Park                                             Rivers flowing through the park   1. Bandipur National Park                    :   Damodar   2. Kaibul Lamjao Wild Life Sanctuary    :   Manas    3. Bhagwan Mahavir National Park       :    Mandovi   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Only 2 
Only 3 Only 
2 & 3 Only
Only 2 
Bandipur National Park is famous park located in the southern part of Karnataka, while Damodar drains the Bihar (Northern region)   hence statement (1) is incorrect.   Kaibul Lamjao Wild Life Sanctuary is located in Manipur while Manas river flows in the Arunachal Pradesh and Assam and hence   statement (2) is also incorrect.   Bhagwan Mahavir National Park (or Sanctuary and Mollem National Park) is located in the state of Goa. It contains the famous dudhsagar   falls, which is located over the Mandovi river, which passes through the national park. Hence only (3) is the correct answer  
b
Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:  Consider the following pairs :   National Park                                             Rivers flowing through the park   1. Bandipur National Park                    :   Damodar   2. Kaibul Lamjao Wild Life Sanctuary    :   Manas    3. Bhagwan Mahavir National Park       :    Mandovi   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? ##Option_A: Only 2  ###Option_B: Only 3 Only  ##Option_C: 2 & 3 Only ##Option_D: Only 2  ##Answer:b##Explaination: Bandipur National Park is famous park located in the southern part of Karnataka, while Damodar drains the Bihar (Northern region)   hence statement (1) is incorrect.   Kaibul Lamjao Wild Life Sanctuary is located in Manipur while Manas river flows in the Arunachal Pradesh and Assam and hence   statement (2) is also incorrect.   Bhagwan Mahavir National Park (or Sanctuary and Mollem National Park) is located in the state of Goa. It contains the famous dudhsagar   falls, which is located over the Mandovi river, which passes through the national park. Hence only (3) is the correct answer   ##Topic:Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
With reference to India"s art heritage, consider following statements: In Ajanta and Sittanavasal murals, stone powder, cow dung and rice straw was used to create rough surface with upper lime paste coating.  Warli cave paintings originated in medieval times, uniquely used white paint, made up of mixture of rice paste, water and gum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
1 only
Ajanta, Ellora, Sittanavasal etc are important sites of cave paintings in India. The technique employed in creation of murals and frescoes is referred to as Tempera. In this technique, the rock surface is first made rough by using stone powder, cow dung and rice straw and then smoothened with lime paste. The main purpose is that paint pigments should adhere to the surface for long time. Warli paintings are a popular tribal form of art in central India and its roots go back to the ancient times - cave paintings (murals) in rock shelters at Bhimbetka, Madhya Pradesh. The unique feature of these paintings is that mainly white color is used to paint. This colour is prepared by mixing rice paste and water with addition of gum for adhesiveness. The background is prepared by using mud and cow dung (if done on the walls of hut). The figures reflect the naturalism.
a
arts
Geology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to India"s art heritage, consider following statements: In Ajanta and Sittanavasal murals, stone powder, cow dung and rice straw was used to create rough surface with upper lime paste coating.  Warli cave paintings originated in medieval times, uniquely used white paint, made up of mixture of rice paste, water and gum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Ajanta, Ellora, Sittanavasal etc are important sites of cave paintings in India. The technique employed in creation of murals and frescoes is referred to as Tempera. In this technique, the rock surface is first made rough by using stone powder, cow dung and rice straw and then smoothened with lime paste. The main purpose is that paint pigments should adhere to the surface for long time. Warli paintings are a popular tribal form of art in central India and its roots go back to the ancient times - cave paintings (murals) in rock shelters at Bhimbetka, Madhya Pradesh. The unique feature of these paintings is that mainly white color is used to paint. This colour is prepared by mixing rice paste and water with addition of gum for adhesiveness. The background is prepared by using mud and cow dung (if done on the walls of hut). The figures reflect the naturalism.##Topic:arts##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
With reference to Aihole-Pattadakal-Badami temple complexes, which of the following statement(s)  is/are correct?
These temples were constructed during the reign of Rashtrakutas, representing the evolution of temple architecture in South India.
The Lad Khan temple at Aihole represents unique Malaprabha style whereas the Papanatha Temple at Pattadakal showcases the combination of Nagara and Dravidian style.
Badami complex has both Hindu and Buddhist temples having maha mandapa  and garbhagrha , with inscriptions in Kannada and Sanskrit language.
These temples were constructed during the reign of Rashtrakutas, representing the evolution of temple architecture in South India.
Statement (a) is incorrect-Temples and caves built by the Chalukyan Empire between the 5 th and 8 th centuries in the Aihole, Pattadakal and Badami, mainly during the reign of    Pulakesin I and Kirtivarman II in the state of Karnataka. These temple complexes actually represent the evolution of temple architectural styles from simple southern style to more complicated combination (not fusion) of Northern - Nagara style and Southern - Dravidian style. This eventually led to the evolution of altogether new style of temple architecture - Hoysala Style (with distinct impact of southern style - Mandapam, Vimana and sculptural improvements). Statement (b) is correct - Temples at Aihole represent the beginning of temple building which is evident from the Lad Khan temple which represents unique Malaprabha (named after river in the vicinity) style because of sloping roofs full of logs of stones that imitated a structure made of wood. On the other hand, the temples at Pattadakal such as Papanatha Temple, showcases the combination of Nagara (features: amlaka and shikhara) and Dravidian style which shows that artists from northern India were employed by the southern kings. Statement (c) is incorrect- Badami complex has both Hindu and Jain rock cut cave temples having maha mandapa  and garbhagrha , with inscriptions in Kannada and Sanskrit language. These represent the most evolved style of Archietcture during Chalukyan period. Out of 4 caves, one cave is devoted to Shiva, two - to Vishnu and the last cave is Jain temple. Thus Chalukyas, just like several other successful dynasties of Ancient India, demonstrated religious tolerance.
b
Architecture
Geology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Aihole-Pattadakal-Badami temple complexes, which of the following statement(s)  is/are correct?##Option_A:These temples were constructed during the reign of Rashtrakutas, representing the evolution of temple architecture in South India.###Option_B:The Lad Khan temple at Aihole represents unique Malaprabha style whereas the Papanatha Temple at Pattadakal showcases the combination of Nagara and Dravidian style.##Option_C:Badami complex has both Hindu and Buddhist temples having maha mandapa  and garbhagrha , with inscriptions in Kannada and Sanskrit language.##Option_D:These temples were constructed during the reign of Rashtrakutas, representing the evolution of temple architecture in South India.##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement (a) is incorrect-Temples and caves built by the Chalukyan Empire between the 5 th and 8 th centuries in the Aihole, Pattadakal and Badami, mainly during the reign of    Pulakesin I and Kirtivarman II in the state of Karnataka. These temple complexes actually represent the evolution of temple architectural styles from simple southern style to more complicated combination (not fusion) of Northern - Nagara style and Southern - Dravidian style. This eventually led to the evolution of altogether new style of temple architecture - Hoysala Style (with distinct impact of southern style - Mandapam, Vimana and sculptural improvements). Statement (b) is correct - Temples at Aihole represent the beginning of temple building which is evident from the Lad Khan temple which represents unique Malaprabha (named after river in the vicinity) style because of sloping roofs full of logs of stones that imitated a structure made of wood. On the other hand, the temples at Pattadakal such as Papanatha Temple, showcases the combination of Nagara (features: amlaka and shikhara) and Dravidian style which shows that artists from northern India were employed by the southern kings. Statement (c) is incorrect- Badami complex has both Hindu and Jain rock cut cave temples having maha mandapa  and garbhagrha , with inscriptions in Kannada and Sanskrit language. These represent the most evolved style of Archietcture during Chalukyan period. Out of 4 caves, one cave is devoted to Shiva, two - to Vishnu and the last cave is Jain temple. Thus Chalukyas, just like several other successful dynasties of Ancient India, demonstrated religious tolerance.##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
Consider the following statements: Teesta River originates from the Rathong Glaciers. Lepcha and Bhutias are the indigenous tribes of Sikkim which live in the Teesta valley. Teesta River passes through Sikkim, Bihar and West Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
1st statement is correct - Teesta River originates from Rathong glaciers in Sikkim. 2nd statement is correct - Lepacha and Bhutias are indigenous tribes to Sikkim and they depend on Teesta for their livelihood. 3rd statement is incorrect - It passes through three Indian states namely Sikkim and West Bengal.
d
Drainage System
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Teesta River originates from the Rathong Glaciers. Lepcha and Bhutias are the indigenous tribes of Sikkim which live in the Teesta valley. Teesta River passes through Sikkim, Bihar and West Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:1st statement is correct - Teesta River originates from Rathong glaciers in Sikkim. 2nd statement is correct - Lepacha and Bhutias are indigenous tribes to Sikkim and they depend on Teesta for their livelihood. 3rd statement is incorrect - It passes through three Indian states namely Sikkim and West Bengal.##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
Which of the following are advantages of LED over CFL (Compact fluorescent Lamp)? 1. LED has longer life than CFL 2. LED is more energy efficient than CFL 3. LED is cheaper as compared to CFL Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    1 and 2 only
   2 and 3 only
    1 and 3 only
    1 and 2 only
Light Emitting Diode bulb is more energy efficient than CFL. It has longer life (~8-10 times) than CFL. But the disadvantage of LED is that it costs more than a CFL bulb. Another disadvantage with the LED is that they are directional i.e. they are not much suitable as table lamp. This problem is resolved in the new LED which comes with a diffuser. CFL has a biggest disadvantage of containing mercury inside, which as such is not harmful but becomes hazardous in case of breaking or mishandling of bulbs.
a
New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following are advantages of LED over CFL (Compact fluorescent Lamp)? 1. LED has longer life than CFL 2. LED is more energy efficient than CFL 3. LED is cheaper as compared to CFL Select the correct answer using the codes given below: ##Option_A:    1 and 2 only ###Option_B:   2 and 3 only ##Option_C:    1 and 3 only ##Option_D:    1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination: Light Emitting Diode bulb is more energy efficient than CFL. It has longer life (~8-10 times) than CFL. But the disadvantage of LED is that it costs more than a CFL bulb. Another disadvantage with the LED is that they are directional i.e. they are not much suitable as table lamp. This problem is resolved in the new LED which comes with a diffuser. CFL has a biggest disadvantage of containing mercury inside, which as such is not harmful but becomes hazardous in case of breaking or mishandling of bulbs. ##Topic:New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
Consider the following statements regarding Altamura Man (whose fossils were found in Italy): 1. Altamura man belongs to genus Homo and species sapiens. 2. Significane of Altamura man is that it will establish the linkage between Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis. 3. Another significance of altamura man is that various segements of its bone are preserved unlike other fossils of same period. Which of the statements given above are incorrect ?
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Altamura man is verified to be Homo neanderthalensis, which the extinct cousin of Homo sapiens, found in the European, Central Asian region. It is identified as the oldest fossil of neanderthal. It was found in karst topography ie. limestone bed in Altamura, Italy in 1993, Altamura man is significant because: various segments of its bone are preserved unlike other neanderthal fossil. It will also help in better characterization of neanderthal features.  
a
Also in News(Misc)
Chemistry
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Consider the following statements regarding Altamura Man (whose fossils were found in Italy): 1. Altamura man belongs to genus Homo and species sapiens. 2. Significane of Altamura man is that it will establish the linkage between Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis. 3. Another significance of altamura man is that various segements of its bone are preserved unlike other fossils of same period. Which of the statements given above are incorrect ? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination: Altamura man is verified to be Homo neanderthalensis, which the extinct cousin of Homo sapiens, found in the European, Central Asian region. It is identified as the oldest fossil of neanderthal. It was found in karst topography ie. limestone bed in Altamura, Italy in 1993, Altamura man is significant because: various segments of its bone are preserved unlike other neanderthal fossil. It will also help in better characterization of neanderthal features.   ##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
Which of the following statemente regarding Kudumbashree is incorrect ?
It is poverty reduction scheme of government of kerala
It is female oriented by helping them form Self Help groups and promoting entrepreneurship skills
It provides skill training to women of below poverty line only.
It is poverty reduction scheme of government of kerala
Scheme was launched by kerala government in 1998 to wipe out absolute povery from the state through cooperative action. The scheme is wholisitic in nature i.e. it includes providing skills to women, basic eduction to children, health and nutrition for all, basic amenities like drinking water and sanitation to all. Lynch pin of this scheme is self entrepreneruship by women. It will help in promoting women empowerment. Neighbourhood groups of poor women are formed and these groups will be incharge of various activities in their region. Micro credtion, entrepreneurship and empowerment are three critical pillars of this scheme.
c
Women and Child Development
Botany
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following statemente regarding Kudumbashree is incorrect ? ##Option_A: It is poverty reduction scheme of government of kerala ###Option_B: It is female oriented by helping them form Self Help groups and promoting entrepreneurship skills ##Option_C: It provides skill training to women of below poverty line only. ##Option_D: It is poverty reduction scheme of government of kerala ##Answer:c##Explaination: Scheme was launched by kerala government in 1998 to wipe out absolute povery from the state through cooperative action. The scheme is wholisitic in nature i.e. it includes providing skills to women, basic eduction to children, health and nutrition for all, basic amenities like drinking water and sanitation to all. Lynch pin of this scheme is self entrepreneruship by women. It will help in promoting women empowerment. Neighbourhood groups of poor women are formed and these groups will be incharge of various activities in their region. Micro credtion, entrepreneurship and empowerment are three critical pillars of this scheme. ##Topic:Women and Child Development##Subject:Botany##Answer:c
Consider the following statements: A catchment of small rivulets and rills is called as watershed. The area drained by river and its tributaries is called as river basin. The catchments of large rivers is called as river basin. Which of the  statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
All the statements are correct. The catchments of large river are called as river basins and of small rivulets and rills is called as watershed. The area drained by river and its tributaries is called as river basin.
a
Drainage System
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: A catchment of small rivulets and rills is called as watershed. The area drained by river and its tributaries is called as river basin. The catchments of large rivers is called as river basin. Which of the  statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:a##Explaination: All the statements are correct. The catchments of large river are called as river basins and of small rivulets and rills is called as watershed. The area drained by river and its tributaries is called as river basin. ##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
Which of the following articles ensures civic equality?
Article 14
Article 15
Article 16
Article 14
Equality before Law - Article 14 Prohibition of discrimination on ground of religion, race,caste,sex or place of birth - Article 15 Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment - Article 16 Abolition of untouchibility - Article 17 Abolition of titles - Article 18.
c
Fundamental Rights
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following articles ensures civic equality? ##Option_A:Article 14 ###Option_B:Article 15 ##Option_C:Article 16 ##Option_D:Article 14 ##Answer:c##Explaination: Equality before Law - Article 14 Prohibition of discrimination on ground of religion, race,caste,sex or place of birth - Article 15 Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment - Article 16 Abolition of untouchibility - Article 17 Abolition of titles - Article 18. ##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
Which of the following is/are true about Cabinet Mission? 1. Each province was allocated seats according to the population 2. Coorg was chief commisioner's province 3. Seats allocated in British province were decided among Hindu, Muslims and Sikhs Select the correct option from the above : - A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1 only D. 1,3
nan
nan
nan
nan
The provinces were divided on the basis of Muslims,Sikhs and General(Except Muslims and Sikhs).
a
Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following is/are true about Cabinet Mission? 1. Each province was allocated seats according to the population 2. Coorg was chief commisioner's province 3. Seats allocated in British province were decided among Hindu, Muslims and Sikhs Select the correct option from the above : - A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1 only D. 1,3 ##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination: The provinces were divided on the basis of Muslims,Sikhs and General(Except Muslims and Sikhs). ##Topic:Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
With reference  to the Ashokan Rule, which of the following statements is/are correct? In all of the Ashokan inscriptions Ashoka is referred as "Priyadarshi" or "Devanampriya" except one at Maski. Ashokan pillars were meant for architectural development in India. To bring social harmony, Ashoka promoted Buddhism over other religions as Buddhism is based on middle path philosophy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
In all of the Ashokan inscriptions Ashoka is referred as 'Priyadarshi' or 'Devanampriya' except one at Maski in Karnataka. Ashokan pillars were not meant for architectural development in India. Rather they were intended to spread Ashoka’s message to the people. To bring social harmony, Ashoka did not promote any particular religions rather spread the idea of equity.
a
Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan
Geography
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference  to the Ashokan Rule, which of the following statements is/are correct? In all of the Ashokan inscriptions Ashoka is referred as "Priyadarshi" or "Devanampriya" except one at Maski. Ashokan pillars were meant for architectural development in India. To bring social harmony, Ashoka promoted Buddhism over other religions as Buddhism is based on middle path philosophy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In all of the Ashokan inscriptions Ashoka is referred as 'Priyadarshi' or 'Devanampriya' except one at Maski in Karnataka. Ashokan pillars were not meant for architectural development in India. Rather they were intended to spread Ashoka’s message to the people. To bring social harmony, Ashoka did not promote any particular religions rather spread the idea of equity.##Topic:Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB); Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?         1. U.K. became first G7 nation to join the Bank, whereas Canada, a member of Commonwealth Nations is yet to join. 2. China, India and Japan are the 3 largest shareholders in AIIB. 3. In spite of the fact that there are non-Asian donor nations to Bank, fund can be credited for the infrastructural development of Asian region mainly. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 & 2 only
1 & 3 only
1 only
1 & 2 only
Important aspects of AIIB are ·         Most major countries outside Asia joined AIIB except USA, Japan (Dominated by ADB) and Canada. ·         U.K. became first G7 nation to join the Bank. ·         Purpose of multilateral development bank is to provide finances to infrastructural projects in Asia mainly. ·         It headquarter is in Beijing, China. ·         3 major shareholders in the AIIB are China (30.34%), India (8.52%) and Russia (6.66%). ·         China’s voting share is maximum i.e. 26% whereas India has 7.5% voting shares.
b
Non UN Institutions
Electrical Engineering
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB); Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?         1. U.K. became first G7 nation to join the Bank, whereas Canada, a member of Commonwealth Nations is yet to join. 2. China, India and Japan are the 3 largest shareholders in AIIB. 3. In spite of the fact that there are non-Asian donor nations to Bank, fund can be credited for the infrastructural development of Asian region mainly. Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 & 2 only ###Option_B: 1 & 3 only ##Option_C: 1 only ##Option_D: 1 & 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination: Important aspects of AIIB are ·         Most major countries outside Asia joined AIIB except USA, Japan (Dominated by ADB) and Canada. ·         U.K. became first G7 nation to join the Bank. ·         Purpose of multilateral development bank is to provide finances to infrastructural projects in Asia mainly. ·         It headquarter is in Beijing, China. ·         3 major shareholders in the AIIB are China (30.34%), India (8.52%) and Russia (6.66%). ·         China’s voting share is maximum i.e. 26% whereas India has 7.5% voting shares. ##Topic:Non UN Institutions##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:b
Which one of the following administers oath of office to the Parliamentary Secretary in the Parliament in India?
President
Prime Minister
Speaker 
President
Parliamentary Secretary is a Member of Parliament who is appointed to assist a Minister in his work. When appointed he is administered oath of office by Prime Minister.
b
Miscellaneous Polity
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which one of the following administers oath of office to the Parliamentary Secretary in the Parliament in India? ##Option_A: President ###Option_B: Prime Minister ##Option_C: Speaker  ##Option_D: President ##Answer:b##Explaination: Parliamentary Secretary is a Member of Parliament who is appointed to assist a Minister in his work. When appointed he is administered oath of office by Prime Minister. ##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
In which direction should all DTH antennas in India be pointed towards
North West
Either North East or North West
South East
North West
The DTH antennas receive signal from the Geo-Synchronous Satellites. All geo-synchronous satellites are located above the equator. As India lies in the northern hemisphere, all DTH antennas must be pointed towards South East or South West (depending on the exact location of the particular satellite)
d
Misc. Tech.
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: In which direction should all DTH antennas in India be pointed towards ##Option_A: North West ###Option_B: Either North East or North West ##Option_C: South East ##Option_D: North West ##Answer:d##Explaination: The DTH antennas receive signal from the Geo-Synchronous Satellites. All geo-synchronous satellites are located above the equator. As India lies in the northern hemisphere, all DTH antennas must be pointed towards South East or South West (depending on the exact location of the particular satellite) ##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
Which of the following components of the Indian Constitution ensure "Fraternity"? 1. Fundamental Duties Art 51A 2. Article 1 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct options from above :- A. 1,2 B. 2 only C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3  
nan
nan
nan
nan
Fraternity is brotherhood and dignity of individual Women dignity is mentioned in 51 A
d
Directive Principles
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following components of the Indian Constitution ensure "Fraternity"? 1. Fundamental Duties Art 51A 2. Article 1 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct options from above :- A. 1,2 B. 2 only C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3   ##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination: Fraternity is brotherhood and dignity of individual Women dignity is mentioned in 51 A ##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
Consider the following statements. 1. Dholavira site of Indus valley civilization was divided into two parts viz Citadel and Lower Town. 2. Koldihwa in Central India had evidence of rice cultivation. Which among the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
Unlike Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, the city was constructed to a pre-existing geometrical plan consisting of three divisions – the citadel, the middle town, and the lower town. This was one of the most important unique feature of Dholavira. 
b
Architecture
Geology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements. 1. Dholavira site of Indus valley civilization was divided into two parts viz Citadel and Lower Town. 2. Koldihwa in Central India had evidence of rice cultivation. Which among the above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Unlike Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, the city was constructed to a pre-existing geometrical plan consisting of three divisions – the citadel, the middle town, and the lower town. This was one of the most important unique feature of Dholavira. ##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
With reference to the Mimansa philosophy, which of the above statement(s) is /are correct? 1.    Principle objective of this philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. 2.    Knowledge of Vedas is sufficient for achieving salvation. 3.    It stressed on performance of Vedic Sacrifices for attainment of salvation.      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
     1 only
   1 and 2 only
    1 and 3 only
     1 only
·         Mimansa literally means the art of reasoning and interpretations. But reasoning was to provide justification for various Vedic rituals ·         The principal objective of this philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. ·         In order to attain salvation the Mimansa strongly recommended the performance of Vedic Sacrifices (Ritualism). ·         Only Knowledge of Vedas is not sufficient for achieving salvation rather it also requires actions or performance of Karmas.
c
GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified
Geography
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Mimansa philosophy, which of the above statement(s) is /are correct? 1.    Principle objective of this philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. 2.    Knowledge of Vedas is sufficient for achieving salvation. 3.    It stressed on performance of Vedic Sacrifices for attainment of salvation.      Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:     1 only###Option_B:   1 and 2 only##Option_C:    1 and 3 only##Option_D:     1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:·         Mimansa literally means the art of reasoning and interpretations. But reasoning was to provide justification for various Vedic rituals ·         The principal objective of this philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. ·         In order to attain salvation the Mimansa strongly recommended the performance of Vedic Sacrifices (Ritualism). ·         Only Knowledge of Vedas is not sufficient for achieving salvation rather it also requires actions or performance of Karmas.##Topic:GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
Consider the following statements: Decline in oil prices produces similar effects as those produced by tax cuts. Excise duties on petrol or diesel act as carbon tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
1 only
Decline in oil prices add spending power to households, thereby boosting consumption and growth, thus simulating the effects of tax cuts. Excise duty on petrol or diesel leads to greater tax paid for more buring of fuel. The more the fuel burns, the greater the emission. Thus, excise duty acts as a price signal to reduce fuel burnt, and hence to reduce CO 2 emmision. Thus, it acts as a carbon tax.
c
Economic Survey 2012-13
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Decline in oil prices produces similar effects as those produced by tax cuts. Excise duties on petrol or diesel act as carbon tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Decline in oil prices add spending power to households, thereby boosting consumption and growth, thus simulating the effects of tax cuts. Excise duty on petrol or diesel leads to greater tax paid for more buring of fuel. The more the fuel burns, the greater the emission. Thus, excise duty acts as a price signal to reduce fuel burnt, and hence to reduce CO 2 emmision. Thus, it acts as a carbon tax.##Topic:Economic Survey 2012-13##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
Based on the information given in the following statements, identify the Tribal community of India: They practice transhumance pastoralism. They depend on "Bugyals" for their livelihood. Languages they speak belong to Tibeto-Burman family. Which of the tribe given below has the characteristics given above?
Lepcha
Gaddis
Bhotiyas
Lepcha
The given information is about a tribe from Uttarakhand. Summer grasslands of  Himayaya are called as Bugyals. They practice transhumance and depend on these grasslands. 
c
GS_Geography_unclassified
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Based on the information given in the following statements, identify the Tribal community of India: They practice transhumance pastoralism. They depend on "Bugyals" for their livelihood. Languages they speak belong to Tibeto-Burman family. Which of the tribe given below has the characteristics given above?##Option_A: Lepcha###Option_B: Gaddis##Option_C: Bhotiyas##Option_D: Lepcha##Answer:c##Explaination:The given information is about a tribe from Uttarakhand. Summer grasslands of  Himayaya are called as Bugyals. They practice transhumance and depend on these grasslands. ##Topic:GS_Geography_unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
Consider the following statements regarding Staphefekt: It is a drug that will help fight against drug resistant infections like MRSA. It is the strongest antibiotic that would be more effective than the present lot of antibiotics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
1 only
1st statement is correct - Staphefekt is a newly invented drug that will help fight against drug resistant infections. As more and more bacteria are developing resistance towards number of drugs, a new technique is required for treating these bacteria without generating resistance. 2nd statement is incorrect - Staphefekt has been hailed as the first effective alternative to antibiotics. The drug is based on a naturally occurring enzyme produced by viruses and attacks infections differently to antibiotics.Unlike antibiotics, Staphefekt does not destroy the harmless bacteria that live in the body, which causes it to become drug resistant Staphefekt, works unlike conventional drugs, it doesn’t need to penetrate inside the cell. It uses designer endosylin which hold on to the cells from outside and tear them apart. Since endosylin target basic building blocks that are outside, it is unlikely that genetic make-up of bacteria will change.
a
Environment Technology
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Staphefekt: It is a drug that will help fight against drug resistant infections like MRSA. It is the strongest antibiotic that would be more effective than the present lot of antibiotics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:1st statement is correct - Staphefekt is a newly invented drug that will help fight against drug resistant infections. As more and more bacteria are developing resistance towards number of drugs, a new technique is required for treating these bacteria without generating resistance. 2nd statement is incorrect - Staphefekt has been hailed as the first effective alternative to antibiotics. The drug is based on a naturally occurring enzyme produced by viruses and attacks infections differently to antibiotics.Unlike antibiotics, Staphefekt does not destroy the harmless bacteria that live in the body, which causes it to become drug resistant Staphefekt, works unlike conventional drugs, it doesn’t need to penetrate inside the cell. It uses designer endosylin which hold on to the cells from outside and tear them apart. Since endosylin target basic building blocks that are outside, it is unlikely that genetic make-up of bacteria will change.##Topic:Environment Technology##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
With reference to World Development Report (WDR), which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 1. WDR is published by UNDP (United Nations Development Programme) since 1978. 2. WDR 2015 theme is "Risk and Opportunities". 3. WDR 2015 is looking into the psychological dimension of Poverty. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 & 2 only
2 & 3 only
2 only
1 & 2 only
·         World Development Report is an annual report published by since 1978 by World Bank ·         The theme for WDR 2015 is “ Mind, Society & Behavior ”.  “ Risk and Opportunities ” is the theme of WDR 2014. ·         WDR 2015 looked into the psychological aspects of the poverty. It stated that poverty is more than deprivation of material resources. It      further stated that poor are poor because their poverty prevents them from thinking and acting in a way that can take care of all of them. Therefore only statement (3) is true rest are false. Hence (d) is the right option.
d
Reports(International)
Chemistry
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: With reference to World Development Report (WDR), which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 1. WDR is published by UNDP (United Nations Development Programme) since 1978. 2. WDR 2015 theme is "Risk and Opportunities". 3. WDR 2015 is looking into the psychological dimension of Poverty. Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 & 2 only ###Option_B: 2 & 3 only ##Option_C: 2 only ##Option_D: 1 & 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination: ·         World Development Report is an annual report published by since 1978 by World Bank ·         The theme for WDR 2015 is “ Mind, Society & Behavior ”.  “ Risk and Opportunities ” is the theme of WDR 2014. ·         WDR 2015 looked into the psychological aspects of the poverty. It stated that poverty is more than deprivation of material resources. It      further stated that poor are poor because their poverty prevents them from thinking and acting in a way that can take care of all of them. Therefore only statement (3) is true rest are false. Hence (d) is the right option. ##Topic:Reports(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
The Extremist method of passive resistance included:
Refusal to co-operate with the government.
Sending petitions to the government.
Boycott of government service, courts, schools and colleges.
Refusal to co-operate with the government.
Sending petitions to the government is the method of Moderates which can best be described as Constitutional agitation. They confined themselves to meetings, speeches, resolutions and petitions.
b
Freedom Struggle : Extremist Phase (1905 – 17)
General Studies
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: The Extremist method of passive resistance included: ##Option_A:Refusal to co-operate with the government. ###Option_B:Sending petitions to the government. ##Option_C:Boycott of government service, courts, schools and colleges. ##Option_D:Refusal to co-operate with the government. ##Answer:b##Explaination: Sending petitions to the government is the method of Moderates which can best be described as Constitutional agitation. They confined themselves to meetings, speeches, resolutions and petitions. ##Topic:Freedom Struggle : Extremist Phase (1905 – 17)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
Humus forms an important part of soil. Which of the following statements are correct about humus? It holds sand, silt and clay in order to form aggregates and thus, binds the soil. It is the primary source of organic minerals for plant growth. Its basic pH allows for easy degradation by microorganisms. Humus content is greater in grassland soils compared to coniferous forest soils. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
Humus is dark, organic material that forms in soil when plant and animal matter decays. It may have acidic or basic pH. Since basic/neutral pH allows the microorganisms to degrade the matter easily, humus content is greater in grassland soils. Coniferous soils have acidic pH.
d
Soils
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Humus forms an important part of soil. Which of the following statements are correct about humus? It holds sand, silt and clay in order to form aggregates and thus, binds the soil. It is the primary source of organic minerals for plant growth. Its basic pH allows for easy degradation by microorganisms. Humus content is greater in grassland soils compared to coniferous forest soils. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Humus is dark, organic material that forms in soil when plant and animal matter decays. It may have acidic or basic pH. Since basic/neutral pH allows the microorganisms to degrade the matter easily, humus content is greater in grassland soils. Coniferous soils have acidic pH.##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
Consider the following statements with reference to alluvial soils in India: They are rich in potash but poor in phosphorous. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions. The sand content in this soil decreases from east to west. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Alluvial soils are depositional by nature. The sand content decreases from west to east. Alluvial soil is rich in potash, lime. However, they lack in nitrogenous and organic substance. Alluvial soils in the drier areas of India are more alkaline in nature.
b
Soils
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to alluvial soils in India: They are rich in potash but poor in phosphorous. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions. The sand content in this soil decreases from east to west. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:b##Explaination:Alluvial soils are depositional by nature. The sand content decreases from west to east. Alluvial soil is rich in potash, lime. However, they lack in nitrogenous and organic substance. Alluvial soils in the drier areas of India are more alkaline in nature.##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
Consider the following statements: 1. The President can dissolve, summon and prorogue the houses of Parliament. 2. The President’s Ordinance making power is now subject to judicial review. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
1 only
.
c
President
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The President can dissolve, summon and prorogue the houses of Parliament. 2. The President’s Ordinance making power is now subject to judicial review. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?
She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by a simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
.
d
Vice President
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?##Option_A:She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.###Option_B:A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.##Option_C:A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by a simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.##Option_D:She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
4. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was concluded on 5 March,1931.The Terms of the Agreement includes which among the following:
The Civil Disobedience Movement will be suspended.
A public inquiry into police excesses was accepted.
Commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades death sentence to Life Imprisonment was accepted.
The Civil Disobedience Movement will be suspended.
The Viceroy however, turned down two of Gandhi’s demands - A public inquiry into police excesses was not accepted - Commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades death sentence to Life Imprisonment - Gandhi on behalf of the Congress agreed to - To discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement; and - participate in the next Round Table Conference.  
b
GS_History_unclassified
General Studies
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: 4. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was concluded on 5 March,1931.The Terms of the Agreement includes which among the following: ##Option_A:The Civil Disobedience Movement will be suspended. ###Option_B:A public inquiry into police excesses was accepted. ##Option_C:Commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades death sentence to Life Imprisonment was accepted. ##Option_D:The Civil Disobedience Movement will be suspended. ##Answer:b##Explaination: The Viceroy however, turned down two of Gandhi’s demands - A public inquiry into police excesses was not accepted - Commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades death sentence to Life Imprisonment - Gandhi on behalf of the Congress agreed to - To discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement; and - participate in the next Round Table Conference.   ##Topic:GS_History_unclassified##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
3. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement during the Indian freedom struggle,which one of the following statements is not correct? a. The Theme song of the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal was Rabindranath’s  Amar Sonar Bangla. b. Syed Haider Raza led the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi c. The Ganapati and Shivaji festivals became a medium of propaganda in Bengal too. d. The Surat split of the Congress in 1907 weakened the Swadeshi Movement.  
nan
nan
nan
nan
Explanation: The Ganapati and Shivaji festivals never became a medium of propaganda in Bengal too. They were limited to Bombay only.
c
GS_History_unclassified
General Studies
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: 3. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement during the Indian freedom struggle,which one of the following statements is not correct? a. The Theme song of the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal was Rabindranath’s  Amar Sonar Bangla. b. Syed Haider Raza led the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi c. The Ganapati and Shivaji festivals became a medium of propaganda in Bengal too. d. The Surat split of the Congress in 1907 weakened the Swadeshi Movement.   ##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination: Explanation: The Ganapati and Shivaji festivals never became a medium of propaganda in Bengal too. They were limited to Bombay only. ##Topic:GS_History_unclassified##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
2. Which of the following revolts is/are not correctly matched with its respective area?
Kuki revolt  - Tripura
Kuka revolt – Punjab
Pabna peasant revolt – Bihar
Kuki revolt  - Tripura
Explanation: Pabna peasant revolt – Bengal, Birsa Munda’s Revolt – Bihar
c
GS_History_unclassified
General Studies
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: 2. Which of the following revolts is/are not correctly matched with its respective area? ##Option_A:Kuki revolt  - Tripura ###Option_B:Kuka revolt – Punjab ##Option_C:Pabna peasant revolt – Bihar ##Option_D:Kuki revolt  - Tripura ##Answer:c##Explaination: Explanation: Pabna peasant revolt – Bengal, Birsa Munda’s Revolt – Bihar ##Topic:GS_History_unclassified##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
Quit India Resolution is also called as ‘August Revolution’. Why was it necessary to launch a movement in these difficult conditions? Gandhi’s Eleven-point demands was rejected. Failure of Cripps Mission in April 1942 made clear that Britain was determined to continue India’s unwilling partnership in the War effort. Popular discontent, a product of rising prices and war-time shortages was mounting The news of Allied reverses and British withdrawals from South-East Asia and Burma affirmed an imminent British collapse. Select  the correct answer using   the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1and 3  only
2, 3 and  4 only
1 and 2 only
Gandhi’s Eleven-point demands was not concerned with Quit India Movement. In January 1930, Gandhiji issued an eleven point ultimatum to Lord Irwin, combining some general and specific demands. With no positive response forthcoming from the Government on Gandhi’s Eleven-point demands, the Congress Working Committee invested Gandhi with full powers to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement (CDM) at a time and place of his choice.
c
GS_History_unclassified
General Studies
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Quit India Resolution is also called as ‘August Revolution’. Why was it necessary to launch a movement in these difficult conditions? Gandhi’s Eleven-point demands was rejected. Failure of Cripps Mission in April 1942 made clear that Britain was determined to continue India’s unwilling partnership in the War effort. Popular discontent, a product of rising prices and war-time shortages was mounting The news of Allied reverses and British withdrawals from South-East Asia and Burma affirmed an imminent British collapse. Select  the correct answer using   the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1and 3  only##Option_C: 2, 3 and  4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Gandhi’s Eleven-point demands was not concerned with Quit India Movement. In January 1930, Gandhiji issued an eleven point ultimatum to Lord Irwin, combining some general and specific demands. With no positive response forthcoming from the Government on Gandhi’s Eleven-point demands, the Congress Working Committee invested Gandhi with full powers to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement (CDM) at a time and place of his choice.##Topic:GS_History_unclassified##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
Q. With reference to Derivatives, a commonly used financial instrument in equity market, consider the following statements: 1. The only purpose of this instrument is to hedge against rising interest rates. 2. Stocks, bonds, currency and commodities form the underlying assets for derivatives. 3. The interest rate derivatives market is the largest derivatives market in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only                      
2 only
2 and 3 only                      
1 and 2 only                      
It is a financial instrument which derives its value/price from the underlying assets (stocks, bonds, currency, commodities and interest rates). In the beginning, underlying corpus is first created which can consist of one security or a combination of different securities. The value of the underlying asset is bound to change as the value of the underlying assets keep changing continuously. Some of the more common derivatives include forwards, futures, options, swaps, and variations of these such as interest rate derivatives and credit default swaps. Most derivatives are traded Over - the - Counter (OTC). Derivatives are generally used to hedge risks by institutional investors such as banks to combat the changes in market interest rates. However, individual investors also use these as a speculative tool in order to profit from their guesses about in which direction market interest rates will move. The Bank for International Settlements estimated that the notional amount outstanding in June 2012 was US$494 trillion for OTC interest rate contracts, and US$342 trillion for OTC interest rate swaps. According to the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, 80% of the world's top 500 companies used interest rate derivatives to control their cash flows (2003). Therefore, the interest rate derivatives market is the largest derivatives market in the world.
c
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Q. With reference to Derivatives, a commonly used financial instrument in equity market, consider the following statements: 1. The only purpose of this instrument is to hedge against rising interest rates. 2. Stocks, bonds, currency and commodities form the underlying assets for derivatives. 3. The interest rate derivatives market is the largest derivatives market in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only                       ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only                       ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only                       ##Answer:c##Explaination:It is a financial instrument which derives its value/price from the underlying assets (stocks, bonds, currency, commodities and interest rates). In the beginning, underlying corpus is first created which can consist of one security or a combination of different securities. The value of the underlying asset is bound to change as the value of the underlying assets keep changing continuously. Some of the more common derivatives include forwards, futures, options, swaps, and variations of these such as interest rate derivatives and credit default swaps. Most derivatives are traded Over - the - Counter (OTC). Derivatives are generally used to hedge risks by institutional investors such as banks to combat the changes in market interest rates. However, individual investors also use these as a speculative tool in order to profit from their guesses about in which direction market interest rates will move. The Bank for International Settlements estimated that the notional amount outstanding in June 2012 was US$494 trillion for OTC interest rate contracts, and US$342 trillion for OTC interest rate swaps. According to the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, 80% of the world's top 500 companies used interest rate derivatives to control their cash flows (2003). Therefore, the interest rate derivatives market is the largest derivatives market in the world.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
Which of the following were the proposals of Cripps Mission? It promised to give Dominion status after the war. Constitution of Constituent Assembly through partly elected members from provinces and partly nominated members by the princess. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
1 only
Both the statements are correct. The proposal of the Cripps mission was that: "India would be a dominion associated with the United kingdom". It promised that immediately after the war is stopped, steps would be taken up to set up an partly elected body charged with the task of making the constitution for India and provisions would be made so that the Indian states could participate in the framing of the constitution. Through the Cripps mission for the first time, British government recognized the "Right of Dominion" for India. Indians were given promise of liberty to frame their own constitution.
c
Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)
General Studies
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following were the proposals of Cripps Mission? It promised to give Dominion status after the war. Constitution of Constituent Assembly through partly elected members from provinces and partly nominated members by the princess. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Both the statements are correct. The proposal of the Cripps mission was that: "India would be a dominion associated with the United kingdom". It promised that immediately after the war is stopped, steps would be taken up to set up an partly elected body charged with the task of making the constitution for India and provisions would be made so that the Indian states could participate in the framing of the constitution. Through the Cripps mission for the first time, British government recognized the "Right of Dominion" for India. Indians were given promise of liberty to frame their own constitution.##Topic:Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
Consider the following statements with reference to Coal in India. A coal with less sulphur and moisture content and high carbon content is generally considered of better quality fuel. Lignite is considered as a better fuel for power generation than higher grade coal. Anthracite coal can be regarded as an metamorphic rock and in India it is found in parts of Jammu and Kashmir. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 2 only
High carbon content and low sulphur and moisture content  leads to better calorific value of coal, hence better fuel. Lignite has lower ash content than higher grading coals and also because of its low energy density and higher moisture content it is not traded extensively on the world market compared with higher grade coals. Hence, it is burned in nearby power stations. Anthracite coal is regarded as metamorphic rock because of its exposure to elevated temperature and pressure.
d
Industry
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to Coal in India. A coal with less sulphur and moisture content and high carbon content is generally considered of better quality fuel. Lignite is considered as a better fuel for power generation than higher grade coal. Anthracite coal can be regarded as an metamorphic rock and in India it is found in parts of Jammu and Kashmir. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:High carbon content and low sulphur and moisture content  leads to better calorific value of coal, hence better fuel. Lignite has lower ash content than higher grading coals and also because of its low energy density and higher moisture content it is not traded extensively on the world market compared with higher grade coals. Hence, it is burned in nearby power stations. Anthracite coal is regarded as metamorphic rock because of its exposure to elevated temperature and pressure.##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
What are the effects Solar cycle can have on Earth? The harmful rays so emitted can cause skin cancer among humans. The magnetic flares can influence cloudiness and climate on earth. The geomagnetic storms can disrupt communication signals from satellites. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
Solar flares are powerful bursts of radiation. Harmful radiation from a flare cannot pass through Earth’s atmosphere to physically affect humans on the ground. These can also disturb the atmosphere in the layer where GPS and communications signals travel. It also releases cosmic rays which may influence climate on earth.
b
Misc. Tech.
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What are the effects Solar cycle can have on Earth? The harmful rays so emitted can cause skin cancer among humans. The magnetic flares can influence cloudiness and climate on earth. The geomagnetic storms can disrupt communication signals from satellites. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:b##Explaination:Solar flares are powerful bursts of radiation. Harmful radiation from a flare cannot pass through Earth’s atmosphere to physically affect humans on the ground. These can also disturb the atmosphere in the layer where GPS and communications signals travel. It also releases cosmic rays which may influence climate on earth.##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
The Prime Minister of India can be chosen from which of the following group of statements given below? Any person who is a member of Gram Sabha of any panchayat in India. A citizen of India who is not a member of either house of Parliament. A Civil servant holding office under the Central Government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1st statement is correct - There is no condition mentioned in the Constitution regarding selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. But for being appointed as PM, a person has be member of any of the house of the parliament or become the member of either house within 6 months of appointment. Thus, any citizen may be appointed as PM provided he attains membership of parliament within 6 months. 2nd statement is correct - Gram Sabha includes all the voters registered in the electoral rolls of the village. These will include person below 25yrs of age. Minimum qualification of being member of Lok Sabha is 25 yrs and Rajya Sabha is 30yrs. Thus, he can't become Member of Parliament and hence can't be appointed as PM. A civil servant has to resign to be appointed as PM, provided he attains membership of any of the house of parliament.
b
Prime minister
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Prime Minister of India can be chosen from which of the following group of statements given below? Any person who is a member of Gram Sabha of any panchayat in India. A citizen of India who is not a member of either house of Parliament. A Civil servant holding office under the Central Government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination: 1st statement is correct - There is no condition mentioned in the Constitution regarding selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. But for being appointed as PM, a person has be member of any of the house of the parliament or become the member of either house within 6 months of appointment. Thus, any citizen may be appointed as PM provided he attains membership of parliament within 6 months. 2nd statement is correct - Gram Sabha includes all the voters registered in the electoral rolls of the village. These will include person below 25yrs of age. Minimum qualification of being member of Lok Sabha is 25 yrs and Rajya Sabha is 30yrs. Thus, he can't become Member of Parliament and hence can't be appointed as PM. A civil servant has to resign to be appointed as PM, provided he attains membership of any of the house of parliament. ##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
With reference to the Gupta period, which of the above statement(s) is /are incorrect? In plays and dramas Women and men of 3 higher varnas spoke in Sanskrit whereas Shudras spoke in Prakrit language. Silver coins minted by Gupta rulers were known as "Dinaras" . Gupta rulers expanded feudal systems. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
 1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
 1 only
In plays/ dramas, male of upper 3 varnas spoke Sanskrit, whereas lower Varna i.e. Shudras and women of all varnas spoke in Prakrit. This indicates lower status of women in the society during Gupta Reign. Silver coins although less in numbers minted by Gupta rulers were called 'Rupakas' whereas gold coins were called as 'Dinaras'. Gupta rulers expanded Feudal system in their rules in India. Temple at Deogarh constructed during reign of Gupta rulers. Trade of India with South East Asia flourished during Gupta period.
b
Guptas & Post Guptas / Vardhana
Geography
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Gupta period, which of the above statement(s) is /are incorrect? In plays and dramas Women and men of 3 higher varnas spoke in Sanskrit whereas Shudras spoke in Prakrit language. Silver coins minted by Gupta rulers were known as "Dinaras" . Gupta rulers expanded feudal systems. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:In plays/ dramas, male of upper 3 varnas spoke Sanskrit, whereas lower Varna i.e. Shudras and women of all varnas spoke in Prakrit. This indicates lower status of women in the society during Gupta Reign. Silver coins although less in numbers minted by Gupta rulers were called 'Rupakas' whereas gold coins were called as 'Dinaras'. Gupta rulers expanded Feudal system in their rules in India. Temple at Deogarh constructed during reign of Gupta rulers. Trade of India with South East Asia flourished during Gupta period.##Topic:Guptas & Post Guptas / Vardhana##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
With reference to the state of Rajasthan, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Thar desert is the largest desert of the country, located in the state.   2.  Alwar - Jhunjhunu - Churu is famous for its copper belt in the state.   3. Keoladeo Ghana National Park is  in ramsar site as well as UNSECO heritage sites.   4. Santhals are tribal people of the state.   Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
2, 3 and 4  Only  
1, 2  and  4 Only  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
All the statementa are correct except (4)    1.  Thar desert is the largest desert of the country, located in the state.   2.  Alwar - Jhunjhunu - Churu is famous for its copper belt in the state.   3. Keoladeo Ghana National Park is  in ramsar site as well as UNSECO heritage sites.   Statement (4) is incorrect,  Meenas are tribal people of the state of Rajasthan. Santhals are tribals of Odisha.  
a
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Rajasthan, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Thar desert is the largest desert of the country, located in the state.   2.  Alwar - Jhunjhunu - Churu is famous for its copper belt in the state.   3. Keoladeo Ghana National Park is  in ramsar site as well as UNSECO heritage sites.   4. Santhals are tribal people of the state.   Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 1, 2  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ##Answer:a##Explaination:All the statementa are correct except (4)    1.  Thar desert is the largest desert of the country, located in the state.   2.  Alwar - Jhunjhunu - Churu is famous for its copper belt in the state.   3. Keoladeo Ghana National Park is  in ramsar site as well as UNSECO heritage sites.   Statement (4) is incorrect,  Meenas are tribal people of the state of Rajasthan. Santhals are tribals of Odisha.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
With reference to the state of Rajasthan, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Rwatbhata, nuclear power plant is located in the state.   2. Tanot is known for its coal fields while Marpalana is known for its gas deposits.   3. Rana Pratap Sagar dam is in the state over the river chambal.     Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1 and  2   Only   
1 and 3  Only  
2  and 3 Only  
1 and  2   Only   
Statement (1) and (3) are correct  1.  Rwatbhata, nuclear power plant is located in the state.   3. Rana Pratap Sagar dam is in the state over the river chambal.   Statement (2) is incorrect because Tanot is known for its gas fields while Marpalana is known for its coal deposits.  
b
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Rajasthan, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Rwatbhata, nuclear power plant is located in the state.   2. Tanot is known for its coal fields while Marpalana is known for its gas deposits.   3. Rana Pratap Sagar dam is in the state over the river chambal.     Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1 and  2   Only    ###Option_B: 1 and 3  Only   ##Option_C: 2  and 3 Only   ##Option_D: 1 and  2   Only    ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement (1) and (3) are correct  1.  Rwatbhata, nuclear power plant is located in the state.   3. Rana Pratap Sagar dam is in the state over the river chambal.   Statement (2) is incorrect because Tanot is known for its gas fields while Marpalana is known for its coal deposits.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
With reference to the state of Gujarat, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  It borders with three other states - Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.   2.  The black soil of deccan pleateau help in cultivation of cotton.   3.  Narmada and Tapi river are the only two river which are flowing from east to west.     Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1 and  2   Only   
1 and 3  Only  
2  and 3 Only  
1 and  2   Only   
All the statements are correct  
d
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Gujarat, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  It borders with three other states - Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.   2.  The black soil of deccan pleateau help in cultivation of cotton.   3.  Narmada and Tapi river are the only two river which are flowing from east to west.     Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1 and  2   Only    ###Option_B: 1 and 3  Only   ##Option_C: 2  and 3 Only   ##Option_D: 1 and  2   Only    ##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
With reference to the state of Gujarat, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Sarkala, located between the Girnar hills and Gir hills is known for its lignite coal.   2.  The Narayan Sarovar Bird Sanctuary has recently been added into Ramsar sites.   3.  Mandvi and Lamba are famous wind power projects in the state.   4. Kakrapara is the famous nuclear power project in the state.     Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
1, 2 and 4  Only  
1, 3  and  4 Only  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
All the statements are correcte except (2)   1.  Sarkala, located between the Girnar hills and Gir hills is known for its lignite coal.   3.  Mandvi and Lamba are famous wind power projects in the state.   4. Kakrapara is the famous nuclear power project in the state.   Statement (2) is incorrect because  The Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary (not Narayan Sarovar) has recently been added into Ramsar sites.  
c
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Gujarat, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Sarkala, located between the Girnar hills and Gir hills is known for its lignite coal.   2.  The Narayan Sarovar Bird Sanctuary has recently been added into Ramsar sites.   3.  Mandvi and Lamba are famous wind power projects in the state.   4. Kakrapara is the famous nuclear power project in the state.     Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 1, 3  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ##Answer:c##Explaination:All the statements are correcte except (2)   1.  Sarkala, located between the Girnar hills and Gir hills is known for its lignite coal.   3.  Mandvi and Lamba are famous wind power projects in the state.   4. Kakrapara is the famous nuclear power project in the state.   Statement (2) is incorrect because  The Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary (not Narayan Sarovar) has recently been added into Ramsar sites.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
Consider the following pairs :   Hills/RangesState   Mandav HillsGujarat   Mishmi HillsAasam    Lusai HillsTripura   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Only 1 
Only 2 
Only 3
Only 1 
1. Mandav Hills is located in Gujarat. Statement (1) is correct.   2. Mishmi Hills is located in Arunachal Pradesh, hence statement (2) is incorrect.    3. Lusai Hills is located in Mizoram not in Tripura (Tripura Hills) is located in Tripura, hence statement (3) is incorrect   Only 1 is the answer.  
a
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs :   Hills/RangesState   Mandav HillsGujarat   Mishmi HillsAasam    Lusai HillsTripura   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? ##Option_A: Only 1  ###Option_B: Only 2  ##Option_C: Only 3 ##Option_D: Only 1  ##Answer:a##Explaination:1. Mandav Hills is located in Gujarat. Statement (1) is correct.   2. Mishmi Hills is located in Arunachal Pradesh, hence statement (2) is incorrect.    3. Lusai Hills is located in Mizoram not in Tripura (Tripura Hills) is located in Tripura, hence statement (3) is incorrect   Only 1 is the answer.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
Under the Right To Information Act 2005, which of the following is/are eligible to file an application seeking information? 1. A citizen of India. 2. A Non-Resident Indian. 3. A person holding Person of Indian Origin card. 4. A person holding Overseas Citizen of India card. 5. A citizen of any country. Select the correct answer using codes given below.
1, 2 and 3 only                                    
1 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only                                
1, 2 and 3 only                                    
The RTI application can be filed only by Citizen of India. However, with the amendment in 2013, now NRIs can file RTI application. As PIO and OCI have parity with NRIs except political rights, they are entitled to file RTI application. So answer is C
c
Miscellaneous Polity
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Under the Right To Information Act 2005, which of the following is/are eligible to file an application seeking information? 1. A citizen of India. 2. A Non-Resident Indian. 3. A person holding Person of Indian Origin card. 4. A person holding Overseas Citizen of India card. 5. A citizen of any country. Select the correct answer using codes given below. ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only                                    ###Option_B: 1 only ##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only                                 ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only                                    ##Answer:c##Explaination: The RTI application can be filed only by Citizen of India. However, with the amendment in 2013, now NRIs can file RTI application. As PIO and OCI have parity with NRIs except political rights, they are entitled to file RTI application. So answer is C ##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
Consider the following statements :   1. Puducherry is located in the state of Andhra Pradhesh. 2. Puducherry is located in the state of Tamil Nanu. 3. Puducherry is located in the state of Kerala.   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :  
1 and 2  Only   
1 and 3  Only  
2  and 3 Only  
1 and 2  Only   
Puducherry is a union teritorry which is located accross three states of A.P, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.    Mahe is located in Kerala. Kariakal is located in Tamil Nadu while Yanam is located in A.P     Hence answer is (d - 1,2 and 3 all are correct)  
d
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements :   1. Puducherry is located in the state of Andhra Pradhesh. 2. Puducherry is located in the state of Tamil Nanu. 3. Puducherry is located in the state of Kerala.   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1 and 2  Only    ###Option_B: 1 and 3  Only   ##Option_C: 2  and 3 Only   ##Option_D: 1 and 2  Only    ##Answer:d##Explaination:Puducherry is a union teritorry which is located accross three states of A.P, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.    Mahe is located in Kerala. Kariakal is located in Tamil Nadu while Yanam is located in A.P     Hence answer is (d - 1,2 and 3 all are correct)  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
Consider the following statements Union Council of Ministers: 1. They are collectively responsible to the parliament. 2. They are individually responsible to the president, who work on the advice of Prime Minister Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1 only
   2 only
    Both 1 and 2
    1 only
Article 75 of the constitution states that Central Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that they hold joint accountability for all their acts of commission or omission. This means that they have to stand by and defend any decision taken by the cabinet even if they disagreed with it in the meeting. Individually Council of Ministers is responsible to the President, who in turn works on the advice of Prime Minister. Prime Minister can ask a minister to resign or can advice President to dismiss the minister.
b
Central Council of Minister
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements Union Council of Ministers: 1. They are collectively responsible to the parliament. 2. They are individually responsible to the president, who work on the advice of Prime Minister Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:    1 only###Option_B:   2 only##Option_C:    Both 1 and 2##Option_D:    1 only##Answer:b##Explaination: Article 75 of the constitution states that Central Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that they hold joint accountability for all their acts of commission or omission. This means that they have to stand by and defend any decision taken by the cabinet even if they disagreed with it in the meeting. Individually Council of Ministers is responsible to the President, who in turn works on the advice of Prime Minister. Prime Minister can ask a minister to resign or can advice President to dismiss the minister. ##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
Consider the following pairs :   National ParkRivers flowing through the park   1.Bandipur National Park Damodar   2.Kaibul Lamjao Wild Life SanctuaryManas    3.Bhagwan Mahavir National ParkMandovi   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Only 2 
Only 3 Only 
2 & 3 Only
Only 2 
Bandipur National Park is famous park located in the southern part of Karnataka, while Damodar drains the Bihar (Northern region) hence statement (1) is incorrect. The Bandipur National park is flanked by the Kabini river in the north and the Moyar river in the south.   Kaibul Lamjao Wild Life Sanctuary is located in Manipur while Manas river flows in the Arunachal Pradesh and Assam and hence statement (2) is also incorrect.   Bhagwan Mahavir National Park (or Sanctuary and Mollem National Park) is located in the state of Goa. It contains the famous dudhsagar falls, which is located over the Mandovi river, which passes through the national park. Hence only (3) is the correct answer  
b
Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs :   National ParkRivers flowing through the park   1.Bandipur National Park Damodar   2.Kaibul Lamjao Wild Life SanctuaryManas    3.Bhagwan Mahavir National ParkMandovi   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? ##Option_A: Only 2  ###Option_B: Only 3 Only  ##Option_C: 2 & 3 Only ##Option_D: Only 2  ##Answer:b##Explaination:Bandipur National Park is famous park located in the southern part of Karnataka, while Damodar drains the Bihar (Northern region) hence statement (1) is incorrect. The Bandipur National park is flanked by the Kabini river in the north and the Moyar river in the south.   Kaibul Lamjao Wild Life Sanctuary is located in Manipur while Manas river flows in the Arunachal Pradesh and Assam and hence statement (2) is also incorrect.   Bhagwan Mahavir National Park (or Sanctuary and Mollem National Park) is located in the state of Goa. It contains the famous dudhsagar falls, which is located over the Mandovi river, which passes through the national park. Hence only (3) is the correct answer  ##Topic:Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
Consider the following statements :   1. Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is known for its good quality peat coal.   2. Nine degree channel separates the Kavaratti islands from minicoy islands.   3.  Saddle peak is the highest peak of A&N, and located in the middle Andaman.     Select the correct answer using the codes given below :  
1  Only   
2 Only  
1 &  3 Only  
1  Only   
Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is known for its good Lignite coal. Peat is poor quality of coal. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.   Nine degree channel separates the Kavaratti islands from minicoy islands. Hence statement (2) is correct.   Saddle peak is the highest peak of A&N, and located in the north Andaman. Hence statement (2) is also incorrect Thus answer is (b) Only 2  
b
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements :   1. Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is known for its good quality peat coal.   2. Nine degree channel separates the Kavaratti islands from minicoy islands.   3.  Saddle peak is the highest peak of A&N, and located in the middle Andaman.     Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1  Only    ###Option_B: 2 Only   ##Option_C: 1 &  3 Only   ##Option_D: 1  Only    ##Answer:b##Explaination:Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is known for its good Lignite coal. Peat is poor quality of coal. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.   Nine degree channel separates the Kavaratti islands from minicoy islands. Hence statement (2) is correct.   Saddle peak is the highest peak of A&N, and located in the north Andaman. Hence statement (2) is also incorrect Thus answer is (b) Only 2  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
 Consider the following statements :   1. A&N islands is considered to be continuation of Arkan & Pegu Yoma mountains of Myanmar     2. Nilgiri hills is the meeting point of Western and Eastern Ghats.     3. Kerala borders with the state of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu only.     4.  The high court for all the cases of Lakshwadeep, is located in Trivandrum.     Select the correct answer using the codes given below :  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
2, 3 and 4  Only  
1, 2  and  4 Only  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
Statement (1) A&N islands is considered to be continuation of Arkan & Pegu Yoma mountains of Myanmar. It is true. Statement (2) Nilgiri hills is the meeting point of Western and Eastern Ghats is also true. Statement (3) Kerala borders with the state of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu only. Statement (4) is incorrect .  The high court for all the cases of Lakshwadeep and Kerala is located in Ernakulam and not Trivandrum. Hence a (1,2 and 3 is correct answer)  
a
Structure and Physiography
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Consider the following statements :   1. A&N islands is considered to be continuation of Arkan & Pegu Yoma mountains of Myanmar     2. Nilgiri hills is the meeting point of Western and Eastern Ghats.     3. Kerala borders with the state of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu only.     4.  The high court for all the cases of Lakshwadeep, is located in Trivandrum.     Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 1, 2  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement (1) A&N islands is considered to be continuation of Arkan & Pegu Yoma mountains of Myanmar. It is true. Statement (2) Nilgiri hills is the meeting point of Western and Eastern Ghats is also true. Statement (3) Kerala borders with the state of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu only. Statement (4) is incorrect .  The high court for all the cases of Lakshwadeep and Kerala is located in Ernakulam and not Trivandrum. Hence a (1,2 and 3 is correct answer)  ##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
With reference to the state of Uttar Pradesh, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Lucknow is situated at the banks of River Gomti.   2.  Moradabad is situated at the banks of river Ramganga, known for its Brassware.   3.  Jim Corbett National Park is located in the state.   4. Gobind Sagar power is located on the rihand river in Renukoot.     Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1 and 2  Only   
1 and 4  Only  
2  and  4 Only  
1 and 2  Only   
Only Statement (1 and 2) are correct.   1.  Lucknow is situated at the banks of River Gomti.   2.  Moradabad is situated at the banks of river Ramganga, known for its Brassware.   Statement (3) is incorrect because Jim Corbett National Park is located in the state of Uttaranchal.   Statement (4) is incorrect because  Gobind Sagar power plant is located on the Satlej river, while Govind Vallabh Pant Sagar power plant is located over Rihand river in Renukoot.  
a
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Uttar Pradesh, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Lucknow is situated at the banks of River Gomti.   2.  Moradabad is situated at the banks of river Ramganga, known for its Brassware.   3.  Jim Corbett National Park is located in the state.   4. Gobind Sagar power is located on the rihand river in Renukoot.     Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1 and 2  Only    ###Option_B: 1 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 2  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1 and 2  Only    ##Answer:a##Explaination:Only Statement (1 and 2) are correct.   1.  Lucknow is situated at the banks of River Gomti.   2.  Moradabad is situated at the banks of river Ramganga, known for its Brassware.   Statement (3) is incorrect because Jim Corbett National Park is located in the state of Uttaranchal.   Statement (4) is incorrect because  Gobind Sagar power plant is located on the Satlej river, while Govind Vallabh Pant Sagar power plant is located over Rihand river in Renukoot.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
Consider the following pairs :   Rivers meet                                  Location   1.Chambal & Yamuna                 : Etawah   2. Ganga, Yamuna & Saraswati  : Allahabad   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Only 1 
Only 2 
Both 1 & 2
Only 1 
Both the statements are correct  
c
Drainage System
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs :   Rivers meet                                  Location   1.Chambal & Yamuna                 : Etawah   2. Ganga, Yamuna & Saraswati  : Allahabad   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? ##Option_A: Only 1  ###Option_B: Only 2  ##Option_C: Both 1 & 2 ##Option_D: Only 1  ##Answer:c##Explaination:Both the statements are correct  ##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
With reference to the state of Bihar, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Madhubani is the geographical indictaor and also famous madhubani paintings belong to the state.   2.  Gandak is called the sorrow of Bihar.   3.  Bhagalpur, Samastipur and Darbhanga are known for its sericulture.   4. Son , Phalgu and Punpunare some of the tributaries of Ganga.     Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
2, 3 and 4  Only  
1, 3  and  4 Only  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
All the statements are correct except (2)    1.  Madhubani is the geographical indictaor and also famous madhubani paintings belong to the state.   2.  Gandak is called the sorrow of Bihar.   3.  Bhagalpur, Samastipur and Darbhanga are known for its sericulture.   4. Son , Phalgu and Punpunare some of the tributaries of Ganga.   Statement (2) is incorrect because Kosi is called the sorrow of Bihar.  
c
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Bihar, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Madhubani is the geographical indictaor and also famous madhubani paintings belong to the state.   2.  Gandak is called the sorrow of Bihar.   3.  Bhagalpur, Samastipur and Darbhanga are known for its sericulture.   4. Son , Phalgu and Punpunare some of the tributaries of Ganga.     Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 1, 3  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ##Answer:c##Explaination:All the statements are correct except (2)    1.  Madhubani is the geographical indictaor and also famous madhubani paintings belong to the state.   2.  Gandak is called the sorrow of Bihar.   3.  Bhagalpur, Samastipur and Darbhanga are known for its sericulture.   4. Son , Phalgu and Punpunare some of the tributaries of Ganga.   Statement (2) is incorrect because Kosi is called the sorrow of Bihar.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
With reference to the state of Jharkhand, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Jharkhand is known for its mineral deposits due to Chotanagpur plateau.   2.  Daltenganj is known for its magnetite iron ore deposits.   3.  Tilaiya is one of the UMPP project being setup in the state.   4.  Maithon reservoir is on Damodar river.     Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
2, 3 and 4  Only  
1, 3  and  4 Only  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
All the statements are correct  
d
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Jharkhand, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Jharkhand is known for its mineral deposits due to Chotanagpur plateau.   2.  Daltenganj is known for its magnetite iron ore deposits.   3.  Tilaiya is one of the UMPP project being setup in the state.   4.  Maithon reservoir is on Damodar river.     Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 1, 3  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
Consider the following statements: 1. The International Seabed Authority grants permission for mining in open oceans. 2. United Nations Convention on Laws of the Sea governs the deep ocean mining activity by individual nation. 3. A part of the Central Indian Ocean Basin is allotted to India for mining nodules. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3                                                   
3 only
2 and 3 only                                               
1, 2 and 3                                                   
All the statements are correct. International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an organization established to look after the mining activity in open oceans under the United Nations Convention on laws of Sea (UNCLOS). So in result permission is granted by ISA. But the convention that governs this is ultimately UNCLOS. India has taken permission to develop mining technology on the part of Central Indian Ocean bed.
a
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The International Seabed Authority grants permission for mining in open oceans. 2. United Nations Convention on Laws of the Sea governs the deep ocean mining activity by individual nation. 3. A part of the Central Indian Ocean Basin is allotted to India for mining nodules. Which of the above statements is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3                                                    ###Option_B: 3 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only                                                ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3                                                    ##Answer:a##Explaination:All the statements are correct. International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an organization established to look after the mining activity in open oceans under the United Nations Convention on laws of Sea (UNCLOS). So in result permission is granted by ISA. But the convention that governs this is ultimately UNCLOS. India has taken permission to develop mining technology on the part of Central Indian Ocean bed. ##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
With reference to the state of Uttaranchal, which of the following statement is/are correct? Alaknanda, an antecedent river flows through the state over which Tehri dam is located. River Kali border the state and the country of Bhutan. Valley of Flowers National Park is also located in the state. Nandadevi Biosphere reserves is located in the state. Select the answer using the codes given below.
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All statements are correct except (2) Alaknanda, an antecedent river flows through the state over which Tehri dam is located. Valley of Flowers National Park is also located in the state. Nandadevi Biosphere reserves is located in the state. Statement (2) is incorrect because River Kali borders the state and the country of Nepal not Bhutan.
c
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Uttaranchal, which of the following statement is/are correct? Alaknanda, an antecedent river flows through the state over which Tehri dam is located. River Kali border the state and the country of Bhutan. Valley of Flowers National Park is also located in the state. Nandadevi Biosphere reserves is located in the state. Select the answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:All statements are correct except (2) Alaknanda, an antecedent river flows through the state over which Tehri dam is located. Valley of Flowers National Park is also located in the state. Nandadevi Biosphere reserves is located in the state. Statement (2) is incorrect because River Kali borders the state and the country of Nepal not Bhutan.##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
Consider the following statements regarding World Investment Report, 2015: The Report is published annually by the IMF. Annual FDI inflows into India have continuously declined from 2011 to 2014 due to poor global investment climate. India has the second highest FDI inflows in the World after China. India has improved its global ranking in annual FDI outflows in 2014 as investment is shifting outside India. Which of the statements given above is/are  incorrect ?
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
World Investment Report is released by UNCTAD. Thus, 1 is incorrect. As per World Investment Report, 2015, India saw a 22% rise in FDI inflows to $34 billion.  Thus, 2 is incorrect. India jumped to the ninth rank in 2014. India was at the 15th position in the previous two years. Thus, 3 is incorrect. India dropped out of the top 20 countries in the outward FDI flows in 2015 Report. Thus, 4 is also incorrect.
d
FDI/FII etc
Commerce & Accountancy
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding World Investment Report, 2015: The Report is published annually by the IMF. Annual FDI inflows into India have continuously declined from 2011 to 2014 due to poor global investment climate. India has the second highest FDI inflows in the World after China. India has improved its global ranking in annual FDI outflows in 2014 as investment is shifting outside India. Which of the statements given above is/are  incorrect ?##Option_A: 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:World Investment Report is released by UNCTAD. Thus, 1 is incorrect. As per World Investment Report, 2015, India saw a 22% rise in FDI inflows to $34 billion.  Thus, 2 is incorrect. India jumped to the ninth rank in 2014. India was at the 15th position in the previous two years. Thus, 3 is incorrect. India dropped out of the top 20 countries in the outward FDI flows in 2015 Report. Thus, 4 is also incorrect.##Topic:FDI/FII etc##Subject:Commerce & Accountancy##Answer:d
Consider the following statements regarding Nabakalebar festival: It is associated with changing clothes of idols in Jagannath Temple, Puri. This is an annual festival taking place at all Jagannath Temples. The festival has been promoted under Incredible India Campaign for its international branding. The government released for the first time a commemorative coin related to a temple. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1 st statement is incorrect - The Nabakalebara is an ancient ritual when the idols of Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra and Sudarshan are replaced by a new set ofidols. 2 nd statement is incorrect - Nabakalebar festival will be celebrated on 10th July, 2015 after a gap of 19 years. 3 rd statement is correct - Union Tourism Ministry will promote the Nabakalebar festival under the Incredible India Campaign for its international branding. The Union Culture Ministry will release a postal stamp & coin to mark the festival. however,In 2010 goverment released coins on event of 1000 Years of Brihadeshwara Temple Thanjavur.
c
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
Geology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Nabakalebar festival: It is associated with changing clothes of idols in Jagannath Temple, Puri. This is an annual festival taking place at all Jagannath Temples. The festival has been promoted under Incredible India Campaign for its international branding. The government released for the first time a commemorative coin related to a temple. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:1 st statement is incorrect - The Nabakalebara is an ancient ritual when the idols of Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra and Sudarshan are replaced by a new set ofidols. 2 nd statement is incorrect - Nabakalebar festival will be celebrated on 10th July, 2015 after a gap of 19 years. 3 rd statement is correct - Union Tourism Ministry will promote the Nabakalebar festival under the Incredible India Campaign for its international branding. The Union Culture Ministry will release a postal stamp & coin to mark the festival. however,In 2010 goverment released coins on event of 1000 Years of Brihadeshwara Temple Thanjavur.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
 With reference to the state of Karnataka, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1. Ranganthittoo wildlife sanctuary is located in the state.   2. The Melangiris range are also located in the northern Karnataka   3. Hampi, one of the world heritage site is located in the state.    Select the answer using the codes given below :
1 and 3 Only 
2 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
1 and 3 Only 
Statement (1) and (3) are correct    1. Ranganthittoo wildlife sanctuary is located in the state.   3. Hampi, one of the world heritage site is located in the state.    Statement (2) is incorrect because The Melangiris range are located in the southern region of the state of  Karnataka.  
a
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: With reference to the state of Karnataka, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1. Ranganthittoo wildlife sanctuary is located in the state.   2. The Melangiris range are also located in the northern Karnataka   3. Hampi, one of the world heritage site is located in the state.    Select the answer using the codes given below : ##Option_A: 1 and 3 Only  ###Option_B: 2 and 3 Only ##Option_C: 1 and 2 Only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 Only  ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement (1) and (3) are correct    1. Ranganthittoo wildlife sanctuary is located in the state.   3. Hampi, one of the world heritage site is located in the state.    Statement (2) is incorrect because The Melangiris range are located in the southern region of the state of  Karnataka.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
 With reference to the state of Goa, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1. Dudhsagar falls are located over Mandovi River.   2. Mandovi, Rachel and Chapora are three main rivers of Goa.   3. Dr. Salim Ali National Park is located in the state.   Select the answer using the codes given below :
1 and 3 Only 
2 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
1 and 3 Only 
Statement (1) & (2) are correct. Statement (3) is incorrect because Salim Ali wild life sanctuary is located over Mandovi river in Goa but Dr. Sali Ali National Park is located in the state of Jammu & Kashmir.  
c
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: With reference to the state of Goa, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1. Dudhsagar falls are located over Mandovi River.   2. Mandovi, Rachel and Chapora are three main rivers of Goa.   3. Dr. Salim Ali National Park is located in the state.   Select the answer using the codes given below : ##Option_A: 1 and 3 Only  ###Option_B: 2 and 3 Only ##Option_C: 1 and 2 Only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 Only  ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement (1) & (2) are correct. Statement (3) is incorrect because Salim Ali wild life sanctuary is located over Mandovi river in Goa but Dr. Sali Ali National Park is located in the state of Jammu & Kashmir.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
With reference to the state of Kerala, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1. Ashtamudi is the freshwater lake in the state.   2. Kariakal (part of Puducherry) is also located within  the boundaries of the state.   3. The state is known for its rubber.   4. The state is one of the six states which form part of western ghats.   Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
2, 3 and 4  Only  
1, 3  and  4 Only  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
Statement (1, 3 and 4) are correct 1. Ashtamudi is the freshwater lake in the state.   3. The state is known for its rubber.   4. The state is one of the six states which form part of western ghats.     2. Mahe not Kariakal is part of Puducherry, which  is also located within  the boundaries of the state. Karaikal is located within the state of Tamil Nadu.  
c
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Kerala, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1. Ashtamudi is the freshwater lake in the state.   2. Kariakal (part of Puducherry) is also located within  the boundaries of the state.   3. The state is known for its rubber.   4. The state is one of the six states which form part of western ghats.   Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 1, 3  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement (1, 3 and 4) are correct 1. Ashtamudi is the freshwater lake in the state.   3. The state is known for its rubber.   4. The state is one of the six states which form part of western ghats.     2. Mahe not Kariakal is part of Puducherry, which  is also located within  the boundaries of the state. Karaikal is located within the state of Tamil Nadu.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
With reference to the state of Tamil Nadu, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Pulicat Lake borders with the state of A.P and Tamil Nadu.   2.  The state consits of Javadi Hills, Shevoroy hills, Panchaimalai hills.   3. The state receives rainfall from South West monsoon.   4. Palk Strait separate the point calimere and the country of Sri Lanka.   Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
2, 3 and 4  Only  
1, 2  and  4 Only  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
All statements are correct except statement (3)   1.  Pulicat Lake borders with the state of A.P and Tamil Nadu.   2.  The state consits of Javadi Hills, Shevoroy hills, Panchaimalai hills.   3. The state receives rainfall mainly from SW monsoon.   4. Palk Strait separate the point calimere and the country of Sri Lanka.   Tamil Nadu in the state which does not receive mainly from SW monsoon but North East or retreating monsoon.  
c
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the state of Tamil Nadu, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  Pulicat Lake borders with the state of A.P and Tamil Nadu.   2.  The state consits of Javadi Hills, Shevoroy hills, Panchaimalai hills.   3. The state receives rainfall from South West monsoon.   4. Palk Strait separate the point calimere and the country of Sri Lanka.   Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 1, 2  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ##Answer:c##Explaination:All statements are correct except statement (3)   1.  Pulicat Lake borders with the state of A.P and Tamil Nadu.   2.  The state consits of Javadi Hills, Shevoroy hills, Panchaimalai hills.   3. The state receives rainfall mainly from SW monsoon.   4. Palk Strait separate the point calimere and the country of Sri Lanka.   Tamil Nadu in the state which does not receive mainly from SW monsoon but North East or retreating monsoon.  ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
With reference to the Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar Island, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  It has a direct control of central government over its territories through the governor and does not have an elected Chief Minister (like that of Delhi).   2.  Onges, Jarawas and Senthelenese are tribes of the region.   3.  Narcondam islands is extinct volcano, and has endemic species called hornbill.   4.  Mt. Harriet is the largest national park located within the entrie A&N.   Select the answer using the codes given below :  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
2, 3 and 4  Only  
1, 2  and  4 Only  
1, 2 and 3  Only   
All the statements are correct.
d
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar Island, which of the following statement is/are correct?   1.  It has a direct control of central government over its territories through the governor and does not have an elected Chief Minister (like that of Delhi).   2.  Onges, Jarawas and Senthelenese are tribes of the region.   3.  Narcondam islands is extinct volcano, and has endemic species called hornbill.   4.  Mt. Harriet is the largest national park located within the entrie A&N.   Select the answer using the codes given below :   ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4  Only   ##Option_C: 1, 2  and  4 Only   ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3  Only    ##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct.##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
With reference to the practice of Sallekhana prevalent in India, which of the following statement is true?
It is the practice systematic fasting to death practiced in Jainism.
It is the practice of seeking religious advice in Islamic traditions.
It is the practice of worship done at Dargahs by followers of Sufi traditions.
It is the practice systematic fasting to death practiced in Jainism.
Sallekhana is a practice that is believed to lead one to spiritual liberation. Its purpose is to purge old karmas and prevent the creation of new ones. It resembles the Hindu practice of Prayopavesa (suicide by fasting), and the Buddhist practice of Sokushinbutsu (self-mummification). The vow of Sallekhana (or Santhara) is taken when a person has no responsibilities remaining in life and when they feel their life has served its purpose and they wish to go on to another existence. Option A is the correct answer. 
a
GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified
Geography
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the practice of Sallekhana prevalent in India, which of the following statement is true?##Option_A:It is the practice systematic fasting to death practiced in Jainism.###Option_B:It is the practice of seeking religious advice in Islamic traditions.##Option_C:It is the practice of worship done at Dargahs by followers of Sufi traditions.##Option_D:It is the practice systematic fasting to death practiced in Jainism.##Answer:a##Explaination:Sallekhana is a practice that is believed to lead one to spiritual liberation. Its purpose is to purge old karmas and prevent the creation of new ones. It resembles the Hindu practice of Prayopavesa (suicide by fasting), and the Buddhist practice of Sokushinbutsu (self-mummification). The vow of Sallekhana (or Santhara) is taken when a person has no responsibilities remaining in life and when they feel their life has served its purpose and they wish to go on to another existence. Option A is the correct answer. ##Topic:GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
Consider the following statements regarding National program for LED based home and street lighting: 1. This program is a sub mission under National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency. 2. LED bulb in Delhi will be provided at subsidized cost and the remaining amount will be deducted from customer’s bill. 3.  This scheme is limited to urban centers only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1 and 2 only
   2 only
    1 only
    1 and 2 only
: PM launched a scheme for LED bulb distribution under domestic efficient lighting in Delhi and National program for LED based home and street lighting. PM emphasized on energy conservation measures which are more important than energy generation measures. The national level program has to have district level goals and to prioritize the scheme in all the towns having population of more than one lakh. In Delhi, a web based portal is launched to enable consumer to register for LED online. They will be initially charged Rs. 10 followed by Rs. 10 per month in their electricity bill for an year.
b
National Unclassified
Chemistry
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Consider the following statements regarding National program for LED based home and street lighting: 1. This program is a sub mission under National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency. 2. LED bulb in Delhi will be provided at subsidized cost and the remaining amount will be deducted from customer’s bill. 3.  This scheme is limited to urban centers only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:    1 and 2 only ###Option_B:   2 only ##Option_C:    1 only ##Option_D:    1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination: : PM launched a scheme for LED bulb distribution under domestic efficient lighting in Delhi and National program for LED based home and street lighting. PM emphasized on energy conservation measures which are more important than energy generation measures. The national level program has to have district level goals and to prioritize the scheme in all the towns having population of more than one lakh. In Delhi, a web based portal is launched to enable consumer to register for LED online. They will be initially charged Rs. 10 followed by Rs. 10 per month in their electricity bill for an year. ##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
Which of the following plants can be used to generate biofuels? Miscanthus Jojoba Poplar Soy Sugarbeet Canola Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Corn (maize), sugarcane, switch grass Miscanthus, poplar, sugar beets, Jatropha, soy, and canola are all energy plants or plants from which biofuels are derived.
b
Non Conventional Engergy
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following plants can be used to generate biofuels? Miscanthus Jojoba Poplar Soy Sugarbeet Canola Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6###Option_B: 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6##Answer:b##Explaination:Corn (maize), sugarcane, switch grass Miscanthus, poplar, sugar beets, Jatropha, soy, and canola are all energy plants or plants from which biofuels are derived.##Topic:Non Conventional Engergy##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
Consider the following statements: The magnetic pole of the earth drifts every day. The variation in the flow molten iron in the mantle is responsible for shifting of magnetic poles. The magnetic field is influenced by the rotation of the earth. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1 and 2 only
The magnetic pole drifts on everyday basis because of the variation in the flow of the molten iron in the outer core of the earth. Wegner had proposed that earth rotation has effect on the magnetic field around earth. It is scientifically proven fact that both phenomena are unrelated. Option D correct.
d
Land Resources and Agriculture
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The magnetic pole of the earth drifts every day. The variation in the flow molten iron in the mantle is responsible for shifting of magnetic poles. The magnetic field is influenced by the rotation of the earth. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination: The magnetic pole drifts on everyday basis because of the variation in the flow of the molten iron in the outer core of the earth. Wegner had proposed that earth rotation has effect on the magnetic field around earth. It is scientifically proven fact that both phenomena are unrelated. Option D correct. ##Topic:Land Resources and Agriculture##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
A: Oceans in the Northern Hemisphere receive more heat than oceans in Southern Hemisphere R: Northern Hemisphere oceans are in contact with land   A. A is correct and R is the explanation B. A is correct, R is correct but not the explanation C. A is true, R is false D. A is false, R is true
Temperature distribution is dependent on contact of land and sea
a
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A: Oceans in the Northern Hemisphere receive more heat than oceans in Southern Hemisphere R: Northern Hemisphere oceans are in contact with land   A. A is correct and R is the explanation B. A is correct, R is correct but not the explanation C. A is true, R is false D. A is false, R is true##Option_A:###Option_B:##Option_C:##Option_D:##Answer:a##Explaination:Temperature distribution is dependent on contact of land and sea##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
A: The North Sea experiences low salinity R: It lies in the high latitude region A: A is correct and R is the explanation B. A is correct and R is not the explanation C. A is correct , R is wrong D. A is false, R is correct  
nan
nan
nan
nan
The North Sea inspite of its location in high latitude experiences high salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift.
d
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A: The North Sea experiences low salinity R: It lies in the high latitude region A: A is correct and R is the explanation B. A is correct and R is not the explanation C. A is correct , R is wrong D. A is false, R is correct  ##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:The North Sea inspite of its location in high latitude experiences high salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
Which of the following statements about catch crops is not correct?
Catch crops are the crops which usually attracts pests away from nearby crops.
Catch crops are fast-growing crops that are grown between successive plantings of a main crop.
Catch cropping is a type of succession planting.
Catch crops are the crops which usually attracts pests away from nearby crops.
Catch crops are not grown with the intention of driving the pests away. Catch cropping is a type of succession planting. It makes more efficient use of growing space. It is a fast growing crop that is grown between successive plantings of a main crop. They are sown to prevent minerals being flushed away from the soil.
a
Land Resources and Agriculture
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements about catch crops is not correct?##Option_A: Catch crops are the crops which usually attracts pests away from nearby crops.###Option_B: Catch crops are fast-growing crops that are grown between successive plantings of a main crop.##Option_C: Catch cropping is a type of succession planting.##Option_D: Catch crops are the crops which usually attracts pests away from nearby crops.##Answer:a##Explaination:Catch crops are not grown with the intention of driving the pests away. Catch cropping is a type of succession planting. It makes more efficient use of growing space. It is a fast growing crop that is grown between successive plantings of a main crop. They are sown to prevent minerals being flushed away from the soil.##Topic:Land Resources and Agriculture##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
Consider the following statements regarding the economic term Dutch Disease: It is the apparent relationship between the increase in the economic development of natural resources and a decline in the manufacturing sector. It is the neglect of manufacturing sector caused by increasing favourable conditions for the growth of service sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
1 only
Dutch disease is the apparent relationship between the increase in the economic development of natural resources and a decline in the manufacturing sector (or agriculture). The mechanism is that an increase in revenues from natural resources (or inflows of foreign aid) will make a given nation's currency stronger (appreciate) compared to that of other nations (manifest in an exchange rate), resulting in the nation's other exports becoming more expensive for other countries to buy, and imports becoming cheaper, making the manufacturing sector less competitive.
a
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the economic term Dutch Disease: It is the apparent relationship between the increase in the economic development of natural resources and a decline in the manufacturing sector. It is the neglect of manufacturing sector caused by increasing favourable conditions for the growth of service sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Dutch disease is the apparent relationship between the increase in the economic development of natural resources and a decline in the manufacturing sector (or agriculture). The mechanism is that an increase in revenues from natural resources (or inflows of foreign aid) will make a given nation's currency stronger (appreciate) compared to that of other nations (manifest in an exchange rate), resulting in the nation's other exports becoming more expensive for other countries to buy, and imports becoming cheaper, making the manufacturing sector less competitive.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
Consider the following statements about a festival in India "Bhagoria" festival: 1. It is celebrated by Gond tribes. 2. The festival is famous in Jharkhand. 3. It is a harvest festival of the tribals. Which among the above are correct? a. 1 only. b. 2 and 3 only. c. 1, 2 and 3. d. None of the above.
nan
nan
nan
nan
The Bhagoria festival is celebrated mainly by Bhils of Madhya Pradesh. The festival is celebrated prior to Holi. It is a market festival in which items for Holi Pujan is bought. The festival is also considered as the one in which boys and girls choose their life partners.
d
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
Geology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about a festival in India "Bhagoria" festival: 1. It is celebrated by Gond tribes. 2. The festival is famous in Jharkhand. 3. It is a harvest festival of the tribals. Which among the above are correct? a. 1 only. b. 2 and 3 only. c. 1, 2 and 3. d. None of the above.##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:The Bhagoria festival is celebrated mainly by Bhils of Madhya Pradesh. The festival is celebrated prior to Holi. It is a market festival in which items for Holi Pujan is bought. The festival is also considered as the one in which boys and girls choose their life partners. ##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
Consider the following statements regarding Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs): DTAAs are Bilateral treaties that promote cross-border economic activity. Under the revised India  Mauritius Treaty, India shall have the right to tax capital gains arising from selling of shares by a Mauritius investor acquired before or after April 01, 2017 in a company resident in India . DTAAs provide mechanism for exchange of information that could help unearth all of India's black money.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
DTAA also referred as Tax Treaty is a bilateral economic agreement between two nations that aims to avoid or eliminate double taxation of the same income in two countries. This clarification of tax jurisdiction promotes cross-border economic activity. Thus, statement 1 is correct. The provision is not applcable on share investments before April 01, 2017. Such investments have been grandfathered that is exempted from new amendment.  Thus, statement 2 is incorrect. DTAA is not an agreement to share information on black money. However the information exchanged under the agreement might lead to discovery of black money. However, this would not include domestically parked black money in real estate, gold, etc. Thus, statement 3 is also incorrect.
b
Also in News(Economy)
Chemistry
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs): DTAAs are Bilateral treaties that promote cross-border economic activity. Under the revised India  Mauritius Treaty, India shall have the right to tax capital gains arising from selling of shares by a Mauritius investor acquired before or after April 01, 2017 in a company resident in India . DTAAs provide mechanism for exchange of information that could help unearth all of India's black money.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:3 only###Option_B:1 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:DTAA also referred as Tax Treaty is a bilateral economic agreement between two nations that aims to avoid or eliminate double taxation of the same income in two countries. This clarification of tax jurisdiction promotes cross-border economic activity. Thus, statement 1 is correct. The provision is not applcable on share investments before April 01, 2017. Such investments have been grandfathered that is exempted from new amendment.  Thus, statement 2 is incorrect. DTAA is not an agreement to share information on black money. However the information exchanged under the agreement might lead to discovery of black money. However, this would not include domestically parked black money in real estate, gold, etc. Thus, statement 3 is also incorrect.##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
Testing
Testing
Testing
Testing
Testing
Testing
b
Industry
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Testing##Option_A:Testing###Option_B:Testing##Option_C:Testing##Option_D:Testing##Answer:b##Explaination:Testing##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
India has started to build a Neutrino observatory. Which among the following is/are correct regarding neutrinos 1. These are most abundant particle in the universe 2. Neutrinos occur in three different types 3. Different types of neutrinos have same mass Select the correct answers using code given below
1 & 3 only
2 only
2 & 3 only
1 & 3 only
Neutrinos, first proposed by Swiss scientist Wolfgang Pauli in 1930, are the second most widely occurring particle in the universe, only second to photons, the particle which makes up light. In fact, neutrinos are so abundant among us that every second, there are more than 100 trillion of them passing right through each of us — we never even notice them. This is the reason why INO needs to be built deep into the earth — 1,300 metres into the earth. At this depth, it would be able to keep itself away from all the trillions of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere and which would otherwise choke an over-the-ground neutrino detector. Neutrinos occur in three different types, or flavours – v e , v μ  and v τ . These are separated in terms of different masses. From experiments so far, we know that neutrinos have a tiny mass, but the ordering of the neutrino mass states is not known and is one of the key questions that remain unanswered till today. 
b
Misc. Tech.
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India has started to build a Neutrino observatory. Which among the following is/are correct regarding neutrinos 1. These are most abundant particle in the universe 2. Neutrinos occur in three different types 3. Different types of neutrinos have same mass Select the correct answers using code given below ##Option_A: 1 & 3 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: 2 & 3 only ##Option_D: 1 & 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Neutrinos, first proposed by Swiss scientist Wolfgang Pauli in 1930, are the second most widely occurring particle in the universe, only second to photons, the particle which makes up light. In fact, neutrinos are so abundant among us that every second, there are more than 100 trillion of them passing right through each of us — we never even notice them. This is the reason why INO needs to be built deep into the earth — 1,300 metres into the earth. At this depth, it would be able to keep itself away from all the trillions of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere and which would otherwise choke an over-the-ground neutrino detector. Neutrinos occur in three different types, or flavours – v e , v μ  and v τ . These are separated in terms of different masses. From experiments so far, we know that neutrinos have a tiny mass, but the ordering of the neutrino mass states is not known and is one of the key questions that remain unanswered till today. ##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
Consider the following statements regarding AMRUT and PM Awas Yojana (Housing for All): AMRUT aims at laying foundation for smaller cities to later become Smart Cities. AMRUT follows project based approach where Central funds would be allotted for each project based upon appraisal by Central Government. Housing for All involves slum rehabilitation, promotion of affordable housing and subsidising individual household construction. Housing for All scheme makes it mandatory to use modern, innovative, disaster resistant and green technologies and building material for houselhold construction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
AMRUT, which seeks to lay a foundation to enable cities and towns to eventually grow into smart cities, will be implemented in 500 locations with a population of one lakh and above. Thus, 1 is correct. AMRUT is the new avatar of JNNURM. But, in a significant departure from the earlier mission, the Centre will not appraise individual projects.States will only submit state annual action Plans to the centre for broad concurrence based on which funds will be released. Thus, 2 is incorrect. Housing for All has 4 components: Slum rehabilitation Promotion of affordable housing through credit-linked subsidy Affordable housing in partnership with Public & Private sectors and Subsidy for beneficiary-led individual house construction or enhancement Thus, 3 is correct. Housing for All seeks to promote and to facilitate adoption of modern, innovative, disaster resistant and green technologies and building material. It is not mandatory. Thus, 4 is incorrect.
b
Also in News(Economy)
Chemistry
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding AMRUT and PM Awas Yojana (Housing for All): AMRUT aims at laying foundation for smaller cities to later become Smart Cities. AMRUT follows project based approach where Central funds would be allotted for each project based upon appraisal by Central Government. Housing for All involves slum rehabilitation, promotion of affordable housing and subsidising individual household construction. Housing for All scheme makes it mandatory to use modern, innovative, disaster resistant and green technologies and building material for houselhold construction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only ##Option_C: 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:AMRUT, which seeks to lay a foundation to enable cities and towns to eventually grow into smart cities, will be implemented in 500 locations with a population of one lakh and above. Thus, 1 is correct. AMRUT is the new avatar of JNNURM. But, in a significant departure from the earlier mission, the Centre will not appraise individual projects.States will only submit state annual action Plans to the centre for broad concurrence based on which funds will be released. Thus, 2 is incorrect. Housing for All has 4 components: Slum rehabilitation Promotion of affordable housing through credit-linked subsidy Affordable housing in partnership with Public & Private sectors and Subsidy for beneficiary-led individual house construction or enhancement Thus, 3 is correct. Housing for All seeks to promote and to facilitate adoption of modern, innovative, disaster resistant and green technologies and building material. It is not mandatory. Thus, 4 is incorrect.##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
With reference to insolation received by earth which of the following statement are incorrect: The amount of insolation received depends only on the angle of inclination of the sun's rays and the rotation of earth on its axis. Equator receive maximum insolation and polar areas receive minimum insolation. Insolation reaches the earth’s surface in short waves and heat is radiated from the earth in long waves. Generally, at the same latitude, the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans.  Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  1 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
  1 only
The factors that cause these variations in insolation are: (i) the rotation of earth on its axis; (ii) the angle of inclination of the sun’s rays; (iii) the length of the day; (iv) the transparency of the atmosphere; (v) the configuration of land in terms of its aspect. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. And generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. Temperature of an object determines the wave's length of radiation. Temperature and wave length are inversely related. Hotter the object shorter is the length of the wave. Therefore, Insolation reaches the earth's surface in short waves and heat is radiated from the earth in long waves.
b
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to insolation received by earth which of the following statement are incorrect: The amount of insolation received depends only on the angle of inclination of the sun's rays and the rotation of earth on its axis. Equator receive maximum insolation and polar areas receive minimum insolation. Insolation reaches the earth’s surface in short waves and heat is radiated from the earth in long waves. Generally, at the same latitude, the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans.  Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:  1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D:  1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The factors that cause these variations in insolation are: (i) the rotation of earth on its axis; (ii) the angle of inclination of the sun’s rays; (iii) the length of the day; (iv) the transparency of the atmosphere; (v) the configuration of land in terms of its aspect. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. And generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. Temperature of an object determines the wave's length of radiation. Temperature and wave length are inversely related. Hotter the object shorter is the length of the wave. Therefore, Insolation reaches the earth's surface in short waves and heat is radiated from the earth in long waves.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
Consider the following statements regarding different types of soils: Regur soil swell and become sticky while wet and has kind of self-ploughing property. Regur soil does not retain moisture for very long time and thus need good irrigation facility for the growth of crop. Laterite soil develop in area with high temperature and high rainfall. Laterite soil is not good for cultivation but cashewnut is cultivated in Kerala and Tamilnadu with the application of manures and fertilisers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 st Statement is correct - Regur soil also known as black cotton soil swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of 'self-ploughing'. 2 nd Statement is incorrect -Because of the 'self-ploughing' character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.  3 rd Statement is correct - The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.  4 th Statement is correct- These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation. Laterite soil is also used for brick making. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashewnut.
b
Classification of Soils
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding different types of soils: Regur soil swell and become sticky while wet and has kind of self-ploughing property. Regur soil does not retain moisture for very long time and thus need good irrigation facility for the growth of crop. Laterite soil develop in area with high temperature and high rainfall. Laterite soil is not good for cultivation but cashewnut is cultivated in Kerala and Tamilnadu with the application of manures and fertilisers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:1 st Statement is correct - Regur soil also known as black cotton soil swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of 'self-ploughing'. 2 nd Statement is incorrect -Because of the 'self-ploughing' character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.  3 rd Statement is correct - The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.  4 th Statement is correct- These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation. Laterite soil is also used for brick making. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashewnut.##Topic:Classification of Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
Consider the following statements regarding Cantonment Board: It provides municipal administration for the civil population in cantonment area and have the power to levy taxes for provision of basic amenities. It is administered by the respective state government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 1 only
 2 only
 Both 1 and 2
 1 only
1 st statement is correct - Cantonment board is set up for municipal administration of civilian population residing in cantonment area. It is set up under the provision of Cantonment act, 2006. The executive officer of cantonment board is appointed by president of India. He is the implementing authority of all the decisions of the board. 2 nd statement is incorrect-  Cantonment board works under administrative control of defence ministry of central government unlike other urban local bodies which are administered by the state government.
a
Local Urban government
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Cantonment Board: It provides municipal administration for the civil population in cantonment area and have the power to levy taxes for provision of basic amenities. It is administered by the respective state government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:1 st statement is correct - Cantonment board is set up for municipal administration of civilian population residing in cantonment area. It is set up under the provision of Cantonment act, 2006. The executive officer of cantonment board is appointed by president of India. He is the implementing authority of all the decisions of the board. 2 nd statement is incorrect-  Cantonment board works under administrative control of defence ministry of central government unlike other urban local bodies which are administered by the state government.##Topic:Local Urban government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
Which of the following statements regarding Municipal Corporation is not correct?
They are created for administration of big cities.
They work under direct control and supervision of state governments.
They are established by an order of Chief Administrator in Union territories.
They are created for administration of big cities.
They are created for administration of big cities like Mumbai, Delhi, Bengaluru etc. They work under direct control and supervision of state governments and are established by the act of concerned state. They are established by an act of Parliament in Union territories. They have different deliberative and executive functions.
c
Local Urban government
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Municipal Corporation is not correct?##Option_A: They are created for administration of big cities.###Option_B: They work under direct control and supervision of state governments.##Option_C: They are established by an order of Chief Administrator in Union territories.##Option_D: They are created for administration of big cities.##Answer:c##Explaination:They are created for administration of big cities like Mumbai, Delhi, Bengaluru etc. They work under direct control and supervision of state governments and are established by the act of concerned state. They are established by an act of Parliament in Union territories. They have different deliberative and executive functions.##Topic:Local Urban government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
Consider the following statements: The discussions with the Congress in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of Government India Act 1935 though Congress later opposed it. The Government of India Act 1935 provided for the Provincial Autonomy and separate legal identity for the provinces. Separate electorates which was started from Government of India Act 1909 and was also included in Government of India Act 1919, was to be discontinued in Government of India Act 1935. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect as Congress did not participated in RTC 3rd and 1st. It participated only in RTC 2nd which Congress has promised to attend under Gandhi-Irwin Pact (Delhi Pact). Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect as separate electorate was the part of all 3 Government of India Acts mentioned above.
b
The British Administrative Structure, Reform , Impact and Organization of Government of India
General Studies
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The discussions with the Congress in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of Government India Act 1935 though Congress later opposed it. The Government of India Act 1935 provided for the Provincial Autonomy and separate legal identity for the provinces. Separate electorates which was started from Government of India Act 1909 and was also included in Government of India Act 1919, was to be discontinued in Government of India Act 1935. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect as Congress did not participated in RTC 3rd and 1st. It participated only in RTC 2nd which Congress has promised to attend under Gandhi-Irwin Pact (Delhi Pact). Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect as separate electorate was the part of all 3 Government of India Acts mentioned above.##Topic:The British Administrative Structure, Reform , Impact and Organization of Government of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
With regard to the advantages of the "First past the post" system over "Proportional representation system", consider the following statements: It provides a stable government as compared to the other system. It promotes two-party system rather than multi-party system. It is easier to understand by a common citizen who may or may not be literate. It ensures representation of all sections of heterogeneous Indian society. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
First past the post system of election is a procedure used in election of a member from particular constituency based on his receiving majority of votes i.e. majority of votes of the entire contestant. This means that candidate doesn't have to get majority of votes i.e. 50% of the total votes polled. We adopted this system as it was simple to understand by all people, most of whom were illiterate at the time of independence. Only 4th statement is incorrect - Ours is a heterogeneous society, proportional representation would mean creation of multiple parties, which will work for their self serving interest. Although first past the post system represents majority and doesn't represent all sections, it was the need of the hour at the time of independence when our country was seeing separatist tendencies.
a
Working of the political system
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the advantages of the "First past the post" system over "Proportional representation system", consider the following statements: It provides a stable government as compared to the other system. It promotes two-party system rather than multi-party system. It is easier to understand by a common citizen who may or may not be literate. It ensures representation of all sections of heterogeneous Indian society. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:First past the post system of election is a procedure used in election of a member from particular constituency based on his receiving majority of votes i.e. majority of votes of the entire contestant. This means that candidate doesn't have to get majority of votes i.e. 50% of the total votes polled. We adopted this system as it was simple to understand by all people, most of whom were illiterate at the time of independence. Only 4th statement is incorrect - Ours is a heterogeneous society, proportional representation would mean creation of multiple parties, which will work for their self serving interest. Although first past the post system represents majority and doesn't represent all sections, it was the need of the hour at the time of independence when our country was seeing separatist tendencies.##Topic:Working of the political system##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
Q. What does the vulture investing means?
Buying securities in distressed investments
Investing in start-ups by new entrepreneurs
Large stake investing in high profit companies
Buying securities in distressed investments
Vulture investing is buying securities in distressed investments, such as high-yield bonds in or near default, or equities that are in or near bankruptcy. As the name implies, these funds are like circling vultures patiently waiting to pick over the remains of a rapidly weakening company. The goal is high returns at bargain prices.
a
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Q. What does the vulture investing means? ##Option_A: Buying securities in distressed investments ###Option_B: Investing in start-ups by new entrepreneurs ##Option_C: Large stake investing in high profit companies ##Option_D: Buying securities in distressed investments ##Answer:a##Explaination: Vulture investing is buying securities in distressed investments, such as high-yield bonds in or near default, or equities that are in or near bankruptcy. As the name implies, these funds are like circling vultures patiently waiting to pick over the remains of a rapidly weakening company. The goal is high returns at bargain prices. ##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
Consider the following statements regarding recently introduced, Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs): (1) The aim of these bonds is to monetize the idle gold and turn it into a financial asset from being a physical asset. (2) They will help investors earn an interest on the gold they own. (3) They will help in reducing the import of gold and thus will help in containing the current account deficit. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
 1 and 2 only
Sovereign gold bonds are a financial instrument which provide alternative to purchasing gold. They plan to shift 300 tonnes of physical gold bars purchased every year to the demat gold bond format. They will increase the availability of gold in the country for investment purposes and thus will help in reducing the import of gold . Capital gain tax treatment on the bonds will be same as that of physical gold to ensure that investor do not differentiate between these bonds and physical gold. It is not a gold monetization scheme which incentivizes people to deposit their gold with financial institutions and earn interest on them while still possessing the gold. The deposited gold will be lent by banks to jewellers at an interest rate little higher than the interest paid to customer. Both principal and interest to be paid to the depositors of gold, will be ‘valued’ in gold. For example if a customer deposits 100 gm of gold and gets one per cent interest, then, on maturity he has a credit of 101 gram. Stocks of gold in India were estimated to be over 20,000 tonnes but mostly this gold was neither traded, nor monetised.
c
Also in News(Economy)
Chemistry
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding recently introduced, Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs): (1) The aim of these bonds is to monetize the idle gold and turn it into a financial asset from being a physical asset. (2) They will help investors earn an interest on the gold they own. (3) They will help in reducing the import of gold and thus will help in containing the current account deficit. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:  1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D:  1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination: Sovereign gold bonds are a financial instrument which provide alternative to purchasing gold. They plan to shift 300 tonnes of physical gold bars purchased every year to the demat gold bond format. They will increase the availability of gold in the country for investment purposes and thus will help in reducing the import of gold . Capital gain tax treatment on the bonds will be same as that of physical gold to ensure that investor do not differentiate between these bonds and physical gold. It is not a gold monetization scheme which incentivizes people to deposit their gold with financial institutions and earn interest on them while still possessing the gold. The deposited gold will be lent by banks to jewellers at an interest rate little higher than the interest paid to customer. Both principal and interest to be paid to the depositors of gold, will be ‘valued’ in gold. For example if a customer deposits 100 gm of gold and gets one per cent interest, then, on maturity he has a credit of 101 gram. Stocks of gold in India were estimated to be over 20,000 tonnes but mostly this gold was neither traded, nor monetised. ##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
Consider the following statements regarding alluvial soil:   (1) Alluvial soil is depositional fertile soil generally found in river valley and river delta region. (2) Alluvial soil is rich in phosphorous and it lacks potash. (3) Khadar represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains. (4) Bhangar is the new alluvium and is deposited by flood annually and is intensively cultivated. (5) Alluvial soil is found in northern plains and peninsular region but not in Rajasthan. Select the correct code:
Only 1
only 1, 2 and 5
only 1,3 and 4
Only 1
Alluvial soil is depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams.   Alluvial soil is rich in potash and it lacks phosphorus.   Khaddar is the new alluvium deposited near flood plains and Bhangar is older alluvium deposited away from flood plain.   Alluvial soil is found in northern plains and extend into the Rajasthan through narrow corridor and it is also found in delta region and river valley in peninsular India.  
a
GS_Geography_unclassified
Agriculture
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding alluvial soil:   (1) Alluvial soil is depositional fertile soil generally found in river valley and river delta region. (2) Alluvial soil is rich in phosphorous and it lacks potash. (3) Khadar represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains. (4) Bhangar is the new alluvium and is deposited by flood annually and is intensively cultivated. (5) Alluvial soil is found in northern plains and peninsular region but not in Rajasthan. Select the correct code:##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:only 1, 2 and 5##Option_C:only 1,3 and 4##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:Alluvial soil is depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams.   Alluvial soil is rich in potash and it lacks phosphorus.   Khaddar is the new alluvium deposited near flood plains and Bhangar is older alluvium deposited away from flood plain.   Alluvial soil is found in northern plains and extend into the Rajasthan through narrow corridor and it is also found in delta region and river valley in peninsular India.  ##Topic:GS_Geography_unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
Consider the following statements: 1. Funded by World Bank, it will traverse six states. 2. It will have two distinct segments of electrified double track and single track. 3. Power house coal will be a major commodity that will be catered to. Identify the project referred to in the above statements:
Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor
Western Dedicated Freight Corridor
Amritsar Kolkata Industrial Corridor
Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor
The Eastern Corridor will traverse 6 states and is projected to cater to a number of traffic streams - coal for the power plants in the northern region of U.P., Delhi, Harayana, Punjab and parts of Rajasthan from the Eastern coal fields, finished steel, food grains, cement, fertilizers, lime stone from Rajasthan to steel plants in the east and general goods.
d
Energy , Infrastructure and Communication
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Consider the following statements: 1. Funded by World Bank, it will traverse six states. 2. It will have two distinct segments of electrified double track and single track. 3. Power house coal will be a major commodity that will be catered to. Identify the project referred to in the above statements: ##Option_A: Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor ###Option_B: Western Dedicated Freight Corridor ##Option_C: Amritsar Kolkata Industrial Corridor ##Option_D: Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor ##Answer:d##Explaination: The Eastern Corridor will traverse 6 states and is projected to cater to a number of traffic streams - coal for the power plants in the northern region of U.P., Delhi, Harayana, Punjab and parts of Rajasthan from the Eastern coal fields, finished steel, food grains, cement, fertilizers, lime stone from Rajasthan to steel plants in the east and general goods. ##Topic:Energy , Infrastructure and Communication##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
What among the following is "Direct Action Day" in the context of Modern Indian History?
The day declared by the Muslim League as the one for the purpose of  showing the strength of Muslim feelings to the British and Congress, which led to communal riots of 1946-47.
Dandi march day, the direct action campaign of tax resistence which triggered the widespread Civil Disobedience Movement.
Individual satyagraha day, which was aimed at affirming Right of Speech, which led to the Quit India Movement of 1942.
The day declared by the Muslim League as the one for the purpose of  showing the strength of Muslim feelings to the British and Congress, which led to communal riots of 1946-47.
The 'Direct Action' was announced by the Muslim League Council to show the strength of Muslim feelings both to British and Congress because Muslims feared that if the British left, Muslims would surely suffer at the hands of overwhelming Hindu majority, which resulted in the worst communal riots that British India had ever seen. Jinnah had announced 16th August 1946 to be the 'Direct Action Day' for the purpose of winning the separate Muslim state.
a
Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)
General Studies
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What among the following is "Direct Action Day" in the context of Modern Indian History?##Option_A: The day declared by the Muslim League as the one for the purpose of  showing the strength of Muslim feelings to the British and Congress, which led to communal riots of 1946-47.###Option_B: Dandi march day, the direct action campaign of tax resistence which triggered the widespread Civil Disobedience Movement.##Option_C: Individual satyagraha day, which was aimed at affirming Right of Speech, which led to the Quit India Movement of 1942.##Option_D: The day declared by the Muslim League as the one for the purpose of  showing the strength of Muslim feelings to the British and Congress, which led to communal riots of 1946-47.##Answer:a##Explaination:The 'Direct Action' was announced by the Muslim League Council to show the strength of Muslim feelings both to British and Congress because Muslims feared that if the British left, Muslims would surely suffer at the hands of overwhelming Hindu majority, which resulted in the worst communal riots that British India had ever seen. Jinnah had announced 16th August 1946 to be the 'Direct Action Day' for the purpose of winning the separate Muslim state.##Topic:Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
Li Fi is seen as an alternative to Wi Fi to provide internet services. Which among the following is/are correct Li Fi technology 1. Li-Fi device circulates data via LEDs 2. It is more secure than Wi Fi 3. Li Fi signals don’t interfere with electromagnetic signals Select the correct answers using code given below
1 & 2 only
2 & 3 only
1 & 3 only
1 & 2 only
Li-Fi or light fidelity, is presented as an alternative to Wi-Fi because it will maximise the original provided speed of the internet to offer safer data transfer and a transfer rate of up to 10 gigabytes per second. The Li-Fi device circulates data via LEDs that emit an intermittent flicker at a speed imperceptible to the human eye. It is wireless and uses visible light communication or infra-red and near ultraviolet (instead of radio frequency waves) spectrum, part of Optical wireless communications technology, which carries much more information. Another advantage in comparison to Wi-Fi is that there is no way to hack the signal since the internet is transmitted by light, there is no way to “steal it.” Li-Fi emits no electromagnetic interference and so does not interfere with medical instruments, nor is it interfered with by MRI scanners. Li-Fi provides a safe alternative to electromagnetic interference from radio frequency communications in environments such as mines and petrochemical plants.
d
New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Li Fi is seen as an alternative to Wi Fi to provide internet services. Which among the following is/are correct Li Fi technology 1. Li-Fi device circulates data via LEDs 2. It is more secure than Wi Fi 3. Li Fi signals don’t interfere with electromagnetic signals Select the correct answers using code given below ##Option_A: 1 & 2 only ###Option_B: 2 & 3 only ##Option_C: 1 & 3 only ##Option_D: 1 & 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination: Li-Fi or light fidelity, is presented as an alternative to Wi-Fi because it will maximise the original provided speed of the internet to offer safer data transfer and a transfer rate of up to 10 gigabytes per second. The Li-Fi device circulates data via LEDs that emit an intermittent flicker at a speed imperceptible to the human eye. It is wireless and uses visible light communication or infra-red and near ultraviolet (instead of radio frequency waves) spectrum, part of Optical wireless communications technology, which carries much more information. Another advantage in comparison to Wi-Fi is that there is no way to hack the signal since the internet is transmitted by light, there is no way to “steal it.” Li-Fi emits no electromagnetic interference and so does not interfere with medical instruments, nor is it interfered with by MRI scanners. Li-Fi provides a safe alternative to electromagnetic interference from radio frequency communications in environments such as mines and petrochemical plants. ##Topic:New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
Disinvestment of Public Sector Undertakings is considered an important step towards adoption of Economic Reforms. Which of the following are possible advantages of Disinvestment? To raise finances for the government To make enterprises more efficient Reducing public debt Labour welfare and to create employment. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Disinvestment increases autonomy in the management of enterprises,and thus, it increases efficiency and overall work culture. It also exposes the enterprises to market discipline and new technologies and professionalism increases. Labour Welfare and employment is not concerned with Disinvestment rather it is achieved when more PSUs are setup.
c
Economic Reforms since 1991
Anthropology
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Disinvestment of Public Sector Undertakings is considered an important step towards adoption of Economic Reforms. Which of the following are possible advantages of Disinvestment? To raise finances for the government To make enterprises more efficient Reducing public debt Labour welfare and to create employment. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: ##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:3 and 4 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination: Disinvestment increases autonomy in the management of enterprises,and thus, it increases efficiency and overall work culture. It also exposes the enterprises to market discipline and new technologies and professionalism increases. Labour Welfare and employment is not concerned with Disinvestment rather it is achieved when more PSUs are setup. ##Topic:Economic Reforms since 1991##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
Which among the following countries have achieved successful Mars Missions 1. United States of America 2. Russia 3. China 4. Japan 5. India Select the correct answers using code given below
1, 4 & 5 only
1, 2 & 5 only
1, 2, 3 & 5 only
1, 4 & 5 only
Last year, India has launched a successful orbitor mission to Mars. Before India, various countries have launched Mars missions, but out of the 51 attempts, only 21 were successful. India now has joined the Martian club that comprises the US, Russia and the European Space Agency. Only the European Space Agency has got its orbiter right in the first attempt (Mars Express in 2003), but India can claim a first since the agency is a conglomeration of several countries. In most aspects of space technology, China is way ahead of India. It has larger rockets, bigger satellites and several rocket ports. It even launched its first astronaut in space way back in 2003 and has a space laboratory in the making. But in this Martian marathon, India has reached the finish line ahead of China. This now puts India in the pole position as far as Asian Martian exploration goes. In 2012, the first Chinese probe to Mars Yinghuo-1 failed. It was riding atop a Russian satellite called Phobos-Grunt. But the Chinese probe failed to even leave earth. Earlier in 1998, a Japanese probe to Mars ran out of fuel.
b
India's Space Programme
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which among the following countries have achieved successful Mars Missions 1. United States of America 2. Russia 3. China 4. Japan 5. India Select the correct answers using code given below ##Option_A: 1, 4 & 5 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 & 5 only ##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 & 5 only ##Option_D: 1, 4 & 5 only ##Answer:b##Explaination: Last year, India has launched a successful orbitor mission to Mars. Before India, various countries have launched Mars missions, but out of the 51 attempts, only 21 were successful. India now has joined the Martian club that comprises the US, Russia and the European Space Agency. Only the European Space Agency has got its orbiter right in the first attempt (Mars Express in 2003), but India can claim a first since the agency is a conglomeration of several countries. In most aspects of space technology, China is way ahead of India. It has larger rockets, bigger satellites and several rocket ports. It even launched its first astronaut in space way back in 2003 and has a space laboratory in the making. But in this Martian marathon, India has reached the finish line ahead of China. This now puts India in the pole position as far as Asian Martian exploration goes. In 2012, the first Chinese probe to Mars Yinghuo-1 failed. It was riding atop a Russian satellite called Phobos-Grunt. But the Chinese probe failed to even leave earth. Earlier in 1998, a Japanese probe to Mars ran out of fuel. ##Topic:India's Space Programme##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
Consider the following statements regarding the office of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): It  is a multi- member body. It  presents its annual report to the Parliament. The term of office of members of CVC is five years or sixty five years of age. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
1 only
2 only
  1and 3 only
1 only
Central Vigilance Commission members (three members) hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years. The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance.
d
GS_Polity_unclassified
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the office of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): It  is a multi- member body. It  presents its annual report to the Parliament. The term of office of members of CVC is five years or sixty five years of age. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C:  1and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Central Vigilance Commission members (three members) hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years. The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
Consider the following statements with reference to Fuel Cell: It uses organic fuel like petrol and coal to produce electricity. It requires electrical recharging. It does not produce air pollutants. It provides a Direct Current voltage. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
1 st statement is incorrect - A fuel cell produces electricity through a chemical reaction, but without combustion. It converts hydrogen and oxygen into water and in the process also creates electricity. 2 nd statement is incorrect - Fuel cell receives the chemicals it uses from the outside; therefore, it never goes dead. They do not require electrical recharging. Fuel cells can generate power almost indefinitely, as long as they have fuel to use. 3 rd statement is correct - Fuel cell produces water due to combustion of oxygen with hydrogen and do not produce any polluting gas like CO 2, Methane etc. 4 th statement is correct - Fuel cells produces a Direct Current.
a
New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries
Economics
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to Fuel Cell: It uses organic fuel like petrol and coal to produce electricity. It requires electrical recharging. It does not produce air pollutants. It provides a Direct Current voltage. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:1 st statement is incorrect - A fuel cell produces electricity through a chemical reaction, but without combustion. It converts hydrogen and oxygen into water and in the process also creates electricity. 2 nd statement is incorrect - Fuel cell receives the chemicals it uses from the outside; therefore, it never goes dead. They do not require electrical recharging. Fuel cells can generate power almost indefinitely, as long as they have fuel to use. 3 rd statement is correct - Fuel cell produces water due to combustion of oxygen with hydrogen and do not produce any polluting gas like CO 2, Methane etc. 4 th statement is correct - Fuel cells produces a Direct Current.##Topic:New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:a