Question
stringlengths 0
1.31k
| Option_A
stringlengths 0
220
| Option_B
stringlengths 0
265
| Option_C
stringlengths 0
589
| Option_D
stringlengths 0
220
| Explaination
stringlengths 0
7.94k
| Answer
stringclasses 4
values | Topic
stringclasses 480
values | Subject
stringclasses 12
values | prompt
stringlengths 165
8.89k
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Which of the following is/are the possible commercial/industrial applications of bacteria? Fermentation of sugars Production of vaccines Cleaning of oil spills Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 st statement is correct - A large number of bacteria are employed in the manufacture of various industrial products. Bacillus acetic converts sugar solution into vinegar (fermentation). 2 nd statement is correct - Different vaccines and serums are prepared from antitoxins (bacteria) and are used in the treatment of specific ailments like cholera vaccine. 3 rd statement is correct - An Oil spill is the release of a liquid petroleum hydrocarbon into sea and water bodies. Oil spills have serious negative impact on environment. One of the method employed to clean oil spill is Bioremediation i.e. use of microorganisms to break down oil. Bacteria Alcanivorax is one such example.
|
d
|
Biotech
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the possible commercial/industrial applications of bacteria? Fermentation of sugars Production of vaccines Cleaning of oil spills Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1 st statement is correct - A large number of bacteria are employed in the manufacture of various industrial products. Bacillus acetic converts sugar solution into vinegar (fermentation). 2 nd statement is correct - Different vaccines and serums are prepared from antitoxins (bacteria) and are used in the treatment of specific ailments like cholera vaccine. 3 rd statement is correct - An Oil spill is the release of a liquid petroleum hydrocarbon into sea and water bodies. Oil spills have serious negative impact on environment. One of the method employed to clean oil spill is Bioremediation i.e. use of microorganisms to break down oil. Bacteria Alcanivorax is one such example.##Topic:Biotech##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. World No-Tobacco Day (WNTD) is observed every year across the world on 31 May. 2. In 1988, a resolution was passed by the UN Assembly, calling for the celebration of World No Tobacco Day, every year on May 31. 3. Highlighting how the illicit trade of tobacco products is a means of amassing wealth to finance organised crime activities is one of the goals of WNTD. Which of the above are correct? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Every year, on 31 May, WHO and partners mark World No Tobacco Day (WNTD), highlighting the health risks associated with tobacco use and advocating for effective policies to reduce tobacco consumption. In 1988, Resolution WHA42.19 was passed by the World Health Assembly, calling for the celebration of World No Tobacco Day, every year on May 31. One of the goals of WNTD is highlighting how the illicit trade of tobacco products is a means of amassing great wealth for criminal groups to finance other organised crime activities, including drugs, human and arms trafficking, as well as terrorism.
|
c
|
Health , Health and Family Welfare
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. World No-Tobacco Day (WNTD) is observed every year across the world on 31 May. 2. In 1988, a resolution was passed by the UN Assembly, calling for the celebration of World No Tobacco Day, every year on May 31. 3. Highlighting how the illicit trade of tobacco products is a means of amassing wealth to finance organised crime activities is one of the goals of WNTD. Which of the above are correct? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:Every year, on 31 May, WHO and partners mark World No Tobacco Day (WNTD), highlighting the health risks associated with tobacco use and advocating for effective policies to reduce tobacco consumption. In 1988, Resolution WHA42.19 was passed by the World Health Assembly, calling for the celebration of World No Tobacco Day, every year on May 31. One of the goals of WNTD is highlighting how the illicit trade of tobacco products is a means of amassing great wealth for criminal groups to finance other organised crime activities, including drugs, human and arms trafficking, as well as terrorism.##Topic:Health , Health and Family Welfare##Subject:Botany##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Bibek Debroy Committee recommendations on Railway restructuring: The three building blocks are transformation in accounting, human resources issues or breaking down the silos and independent regulator The main recommendation of the committee was to rationalize the routes and to implement smart payment system to make the railways profitable. The committee has suggested to do away with Railway Budget. Which among the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Bibek Debroy Committee was set up to suggest ways to improve accountability and prepare a roadmap of railway restructuring. Committee's recommendations are based on three pillars: commercial accounting, changes in HR and an independent regulator. The committee does not talk about rationalising the routes and to implementing smart payment system to make the railways profitable. In its final report, committee has suggested to do away with the Railway Budget.
|
b
|
Public Policy : Making , Implementation , Evaluation and monitoring
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Bibek Debroy Committee recommendations on Railway restructuring: The three building blocks are transformation in accounting, human resources issues or breaking down the silos and independent regulator The main recommendation of the committee was to rationalize the routes and to implement smart payment system to make the railways profitable. The committee has suggested to do away with Railway Budget. Which among the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Bibek Debroy Committee was set up to suggest ways to improve accountability and prepare a roadmap of railway restructuring. Committee's recommendations are based on three pillars: commercial accounting, changes in HR and an independent regulator. The committee does not talk about rationalising the routes and to implementing smart payment system to make the railways profitable. In its final report, committee has suggested to do away with the Railway Budget.##Topic:Public Policy : Making , Implementation , Evaluation and monitoring##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following firms is/are eligible for refinancing under Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana? Partnership firm running a small manufacturing unit. Small firms engaged in service sector. Fruit/vegetable vendors in urban areas. Artisans in both urban and rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Non –Corporate Small Business Segment (NCSBS) comprising of millions of proprietorship / partnership firms running as small manufacturing units, service sector units, shopkeepers, fruits / vegetable vendors, truck operators, food-service units, repair shops, machine operators, small industries, artisans, food processors and others, in rural and urban areas.
|
a
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following firms is/are eligible for refinancing under Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana? Partnership firm running a small manufacturing unit. Small firms engaged in service sector. Fruit/vegetable vendors in urban areas. Artisans in both urban and rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4##Answer:a##Explaination:Non –Corporate Small Business Segment (NCSBS) comprising of millions of proprietorship / partnership firms running as small manufacturing units, service sector units, shopkeepers, fruits / vegetable vendors, truck operators, food-service units, repair shops, machine operators, small industries, artisans, food processors and others, in rural and urban areas.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about "Pushkaram": 1. It is a festival dedicated to worshipping rivers of South India. 2. The celebrations happen annually, once in 12 years along each river. 3. In 2015, the festival is happening along the banks of Kaveri river. Which among the above statements is/ are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Pushkaram is a festival dedicated to worshiping of rivers across India. It is celebrated at shrines along the banks of 12 sacred rivers in India, and this happens annually once in 12 years along each river. In 2015, the festival is going to happen on the banks of River Godavari from July 14th.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about "Pushkaram": 1. It is a festival dedicated to worshipping rivers of South India. 2. The celebrations happen annually, once in 12 years along each river. 3. In 2015, the festival is happening along the banks of Kaveri river. Which among the above statements is/ are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:Pushkaram is a festival dedicated to worshiping of rivers across India. It is celebrated at shrines along the banks of 12 sacred rivers in India, and this happens annually once in 12 years along each river. In 2015, the festival is going to happen on the banks of River Godavari from July 14th. ##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
In the context of the Indian physiography, which of the following is/are the characteristics of Western Ghats? Western Ghats are higher than Eastern Ghats. Western Ghats are more discontinuous and irregular. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from south to north. Shevroy and Javadi hills are located on Western Ghats. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills in Kerala. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats. Therefore statement (1) is correct and statement (2) is wrong. Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south. Therefore statement (3) is wrong. Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats. 'Anaimudi' (2,695 m), the highest peak of Peninsular plateau is located on the Anaimalai hills of the Western Ghats followed by Dodabetta (2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills. Important ranges of Eastern Ghats include the Javadi hills, the Palconda range, the Nallamala hills, the Mahendragiri hills, etc. Therefore statement (4) is wrong Therefore only statement (1) is correct rest are incorrect. Hence (a) is the right option.
|
a
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of the Indian physiography, which of the following is/are the characteristics of Western Ghats? Western Ghats are higher than Eastern Ghats. Western Ghats are more discontinuous and irregular. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from south to north. Shevroy and Javadi hills are located on Western Ghats. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills in Kerala. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats. Therefore statement (1) is correct and statement (2) is wrong. Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south. Therefore statement (3) is wrong. Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats. 'Anaimudi' (2,695 m), the highest peak of Peninsular plateau is located on the Anaimalai hills of the Western Ghats followed by Dodabetta (2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills. Important ranges of Eastern Ghats include the Javadi hills, the Palconda range, the Nallamala hills, the Mahendragiri hills, etc. Therefore statement (4) is wrong Therefore only statement (1) is correct rest are incorrect. Hence (a) is the right option.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
A rock system in India has following characteristics: It contained some Diamond bearing conglomerates, ornamental stones and other precious stones. It played important role in building of historical monuments such as Red fort, Agra Fort and Jama Masjid etc. In some parts rocks are buried under Deccan Lava. Which of the system given below has all of the above characteristics?
|
Dharwad System
|
Cuddapah System
|
Vindhyan System
|
Dharwad System
|
Vindhyan System has got following features: It has enormous sedimentary deposits and at places their depth is more than 4000 meters. In some tracts, the Vindhyan rocks are buried under Deccan lava. The Vindhyan system is well known for red-sandstone, sandstone, building material, ornamental stone, conglomerates, diamondiferous and raw materials for cement, lime, glass and chemical industries. The historical buildings of Qutab Minar, Humayun's Tomb, Fatehpur Sikri, Agra Fort, Red Fort, Jama-Masjid, Birla Mandir, the Buddhist Stupa of Sanchi, etc. have been constructed from the red-sandstone obtained from the Vindhyan Ranges. Hence, all characteristics indicates to Vindhyan Rock System.
|
c
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A rock system in India has following characteristics: It contained some Diamond bearing conglomerates, ornamental stones and other precious stones. It played important role in building of historical monuments such as Red fort, Agra Fort and Jama Masjid etc. In some parts rocks are buried under Deccan Lava. Which of the system given below has all of the above characteristics?##Option_A: Dharwad System###Option_B: Cuddapah System##Option_C: Vindhyan System##Option_D: Dharwad System##Answer:c##Explaination:Vindhyan System has got following features: It has enormous sedimentary deposits and at places their depth is more than 4000 meters. In some tracts, the Vindhyan rocks are buried under Deccan lava. The Vindhyan system is well known for red-sandstone, sandstone, building material, ornamental stone, conglomerates, diamondiferous and raw materials for cement, lime, glass and chemical industries. The historical buildings of Qutab Minar, Humayun's Tomb, Fatehpur Sikri, Agra Fort, Red Fort, Jama-Masjid, Birla Mandir, the Buddhist Stupa of Sanchi, etc. have been constructed from the red-sandstone obtained from the Vindhyan Ranges. Hence, all characteristics indicates to Vindhyan Rock System.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
In the context of the Indian physiography, which of the following statements represent the difference between Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains? The eastern coastal plain is broader than the western coastal plain. Western Coastal Plain is an example of Submergent coast whereas Eastern Coastal Plain is an example of emergent coast. Due to submergence Western Coast has less number of ports and harbours, whereas because of emergence Eastern Coast provides natural condition for development of ports and harbours. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain Because of this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast. As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbours. The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it difficult for the development of good ports and harbours. Clearly, Only (1) and (2) statements are correct. Hence (b) is the right option.
|
b
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of the Indian physiography, which of the following statements represent the difference between Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains? The eastern coastal plain is broader than the western coastal plain. Western Coastal Plain is an example of Submergent coast whereas Eastern Coastal Plain is an example of emergent coast. Due to submergence Western Coast has less number of ports and harbours, whereas because of emergence Eastern Coast provides natural condition for development of ports and harbours. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain Because of this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast. As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbours. The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it difficult for the development of good ports and harbours. Clearly, Only (1) and (2) statements are correct. Hence (b) is the right option.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Ordinance-making power of the President, consider the following statements: It is co-extensive with law making power of Parliament. President"s satisfaction that the circumstances exist for Ordinance can be questioned in a court. An ordinance can be retrospective, that is it may come into force from a back date. During emergency due to external aggression, President can promulgate ordinance on his discretion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1st statement is correct - It is co-extensive with law making power of Parliament in all respects, except the duration of the law. 2nd statement is correct - In Cooper case, 1970, Supreme Court held that President's satisfaction on whether the conditions exist for promulgating an ordinance can be questioned on grounds of malafide. 3rd statement is correct - An ordinance may have retrospective effect and may be modify repeal any act of Parliament or even another ordinance. It may also amend or alter a tax law but never can be used to amend the Constitution. 4th statement is incorrect - Ordinance making power is not a discretionary power.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Ordinance-making power of the President, consider the following statements: It is co-extensive with law making power of Parliament. President"s satisfaction that the circumstances exist for Ordinance can be questioned in a court. An ordinance can be retrospective, that is it may come into force from a back date. During emergency due to external aggression, President can promulgate ordinance on his discretion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1st statement is correct - It is co-extensive with law making power of Parliament in all respects, except the duration of the law. 2nd statement is correct - In Cooper case, 1970, Supreme Court held that President's satisfaction on whether the conditions exist for promulgating an ordinance can be questioned on grounds of malafide. 3rd statement is correct - An ordinance may have retrospective effect and may be modify repeal any act of Parliament or even another ordinance. It may also amend or alter a tax law but never can be used to amend the Constitution. 4th statement is incorrect - Ordinance making power is not a discretionary power.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Below given is a list of activities that India learned from different countries in the ancient times. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. The art of minting gold coins Greeks and Romans 2. The art of growing cotton China 3. The art of growing betel leaves Indonesia Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
India learned the art of growing silk from China, acquired the craft of minting gold coins from Greeks and Romans and art of growing betel leaves from Indonesia. The method of growing cotton spread from India to China and Central Asia.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Below given is a list of activities that India learned from different countries in the ancient times. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. The art of minting gold coins Greeks and Romans 2. The art of growing cotton China 3. The art of growing betel leaves Indonesia Select the correct answer using the codes given below. ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:India learned the art of growing silk from China, acquired the craft of minting gold coins from Greeks and Romans and art of growing betel leaves from Indonesia. The method of growing cotton spread from India to China and Central Asia. ##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the practice of land grants to the priestly class in the Gupta period of ancient India: Religious functionaries were granted land by the king, free of tax for ever. Priests were authorized to collect all the taxes from peasants, which could have otherwise gone to emperor. Maintenance of law and order in the donated area was the responsibility of the beneficiary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
In Gupta age, priests and officials were given land grants in lieu of salaries and remuneration. They were authorized to collect all the taxes from peasants, which could have otherwise gone to the emperor. They also had the responsibility of maintaining law and order in the donated areas. The advantages of this system are: Throwing the burden of collecting the taxes and maintaining law and order in the donated areas on the beneficiaries Bringing new lands under cultivation By implanting brahmanas in the conquered tribal areas, tribal people could be taught the need of obeying the king and paying taxes to him.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to the practice of land grants to the priestly class in the Gupta period of ancient India: Religious functionaries were granted land by the king, free of tax for ever. Priests were authorized to collect all the taxes from peasants, which could have otherwise gone to emperor. Maintenance of law and order in the donated area was the responsibility of the beneficiary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In Gupta age, priests and officials were given land grants in lieu of salaries and remuneration. They were authorized to collect all the taxes from peasants, which could have otherwise gone to the emperor. They also had the responsibility of maintaining law and order in the donated areas. The advantages of this system are: Throwing the burden of collecting the taxes and maintaining law and order in the donated areas on the beneficiaries Bringing new lands under cultivation By implanting brahmanas in the conquered tribal areas, tribal people could be taught the need of obeying the king and paying taxes to him.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
For which of the following activities, a constitutional amendment bill needs to be passed by parliament?
|
For the resolution of the un-demarcated segments of the land boundary by an agreement with a neighboring country.
|
For the transfer of territories to another country.
|
For altering the name of any State in the union of India
|
For the resolution of the un-demarcated segments of the land boundary by an agreement with a neighboring country.
|
§ No constitutional amendment is required for a resolution of the un-demarcated segments of the land boundary by an Agreement as this is within the competence of the Executive Wing of Government. However, the issue of exchange of enclaves and redrawing of boundaries to maintain status quo in areas of adverse possessions involves the transfer of territories from one State to another and therefore, requires a constitutional amendment.
§ The Constitution (119th) Amendment Bill will allow operationalisation of the 1974 India-Bangladesh Land Boundary agreement as it involves the exchange of adverse possessions and enclaves.
Under article 3, parliament may by law form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; increase the area of any State; diminish the area of any State; alter the boundaries of any State; alter the name of any State. Thus, no constitutional amendment bill is required for changing the name of a state in India.
|
c
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
For which of the following activities, a constitutional amendment bill needs to be passed by parliament?
##Option_A: For the resolution of the un-demarcated segments of the land boundary by an agreement with a neighboring country.
###Option_B: For the transfer of territories to another country.
##Option_C: For altering the name of any State in the union of India
##Option_D: For the resolution of the un-demarcated segments of the land boundary by an agreement with a neighboring country.
##Answer:c##Explaination:
§ No constitutional amendment is required for a resolution of the un-demarcated segments of the land boundary by an Agreement as this is within the competence of the Executive Wing of Government. However, the issue of exchange of enclaves and redrawing of boundaries to maintain status quo in areas of adverse possessions involves the transfer of territories from one State to another and therefore, requires a constitutional amendment.
§ The Constitution (119th) Amendment Bill will allow operationalisation of the 1974 India-Bangladesh Land Boundary agreement as it involves the exchange of adverse possessions and enclaves.
Under article 3, parliament may by law form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; increase the area of any State; diminish the area of any State; alter the boundaries of any State; alter the name of any State. Thus, no constitutional amendment bill is required for changing the name of a state in India.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Many of the advanced economies, mainly European countries and Japan, are struggling with problem of deflation. What are the ill effects of deflation? Reduces demand in the economy Increases the real debt-burden Reduces purchasing power of consumers Reduces export competitiveness Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
When there are falling prices, this often encourages people to delay purchases because they will be cheaper in the future and they could save money by waiting for it to be cheaper. Therefore, periods of deflation often leads to lower consumer spending and lower economic growth. Deflation increases the real value of debt. Deflation makes it more difficult for debtors to pay off their debts. Therefore, consumers and firms have to spend a bigger percentage of disposable income on meeting debt repayments. Europe has a big burden of government debt, deflation will make it more difficult to reduce debt to GDP ratios. Deflation increases the real value of money. Also, in a period of deflation, firms will be getting lower revenue, and consumers will likely to get lower wages. Therefore, this leaves less money for spending and investment. Therefore, its effect on the spending power of consumers is uncertain. If one country has deflation, and others have inflation, then that country will become more internationally competitive, leading to a rise in exports. During Japan's deflation, they saw strong exports - which helped offset the fall in consumer spending (though it still wasn't enough).
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Many of the advanced economies, mainly European countries and Japan, are struggling with problem of deflation. What are the ill effects of deflation? Reduces demand in the economy Increases the real debt-burden Reduces purchasing power of consumers Reduces export competitiveness Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:When there are falling prices, this often encourages people to delay purchases because they will be cheaper in the future and they could save money by waiting for it to be cheaper. Therefore, periods of deflation often leads to lower consumer spending and lower economic growth. Deflation increases the real value of debt. Deflation makes it more difficult for debtors to pay off their debts. Therefore, consumers and firms have to spend a bigger percentage of disposable income on meeting debt repayments. Europe has a big burden of government debt, deflation will make it more difficult to reduce debt to GDP ratios. Deflation increases the real value of money. Also, in a period of deflation, firms will be getting lower revenue, and consumers will likely to get lower wages. Therefore, this leaves less money for spending and investment. Therefore, its effect on the spending power of consumers is uncertain. If one country has deflation, and others have inflation, then that country will become more internationally competitive, leading to a rise in exports. During Japan's deflation, they saw strong exports - which helped offset the fall in consumer spending (though it still wasn't enough).##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to the MLA LADS fund, which of the above statement(s) is /are incorrect ?
1. It is use for “Strengthening and Augmentation of Infrastructure facilities in each Assembly Constituency”.
2. As the amount of fund is raised from Rs. 1 Cr. To 4 Cr. , Accountability and transparency has grown proportionally.
3. Under the MLA LADS guideline, fund can be utilized for both building new infrastructure and for upkeep and maintenance of existing assets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 & 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
· MLA LADS started for Strengthening and Augmentation of Infrastructure facilities in each Assembly Constituency ".
· CAG report stated that While the budget for the scheme gradually increased from Rs.1 crore to Rs.4 crore, consecutive revisions to its guidelines resulted in their “ gradual dilution ” leading to absence of clarity and transparency in the implementation of projects under it.
· Originally intended for creation of durable assets in the form of the Capital’s infrastructure, the CAG recently said as much as 60 per cent of the MLA-LADS funds were found to have been utilised for the upkeep and maintenance of existing assets, which is not permitted as per guidelines.
· MLA LADS has also been criticized for creating substandard assets.
· Second ARC led by Verappa Moily recommended abolition of MLA LADS.
|
b
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the MLA LADS fund, which of the above statement(s) is /are incorrect ?
1. It is use for “Strengthening and Augmentation of Infrastructure facilities in each Assembly Constituency”.
2. As the amount of fund is raised from Rs. 1 Cr. To 4 Cr. , Accountability and transparency has grown proportionally.
3. Under the MLA LADS guideline, fund can be utilized for both building new infrastructure and for upkeep and maintenance of existing assets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 & 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
· MLA LADS started for Strengthening and Augmentation of Infrastructure facilities in each Assembly Constituency ".
· CAG report stated that While the budget for the scheme gradually increased from Rs.1 crore to Rs.4 crore, consecutive revisions to its guidelines resulted in their “ gradual dilution ” leading to absence of clarity and transparency in the implementation of projects under it.
· Originally intended for creation of durable assets in the form of the Capital’s infrastructure, the CAG recently said as much as 60 per cent of the MLA-LADS funds were found to have been utilised for the upkeep and maintenance of existing assets, which is not permitted as per guidelines.
· MLA LADS has also been criticized for creating substandard assets.
· Second ARC led by Verappa Moily recommended abolition of MLA LADS.
##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Sumangali Scheme:
1. It is a scheme for providing employment and remuneration for marriage of the adolescent girls started by Tamil Nadu government.
2. Employment provided to the girls is mainly in the textile industry.
3. This scheme faced criticism because of informal nature of contract and low payment of wages to workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Sumangali is a form of child labour that is in practice in the textile industry in Tamil Nadu. It literally means happily married women. The scheme is run by factory owner, who hires adolescent girls aged 15-18 yrs in the manual labour in textile industry on contract basis. They are paid monthly wages and at the end of contract a lumpsum amount is given to them for their dowry.
Textile industry is human intensive thus huge human resource is required. These girls are paid low wages, have to work long shift hours per day, not allowed to meet their parents as they have to stay in industry complex. They are mentally, physically and sexually abused. They have to work in unhygienic conditions.
Sumangali scheme is said to be the effect of child labour laws in India. As it prevents children below 14 yrs of age to be employed, more and more children in the age group 15-18 yrs are employed.
|
b
|
Women and Child Development
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Sumangali Scheme:
1. It is a scheme for providing employment and remuneration for marriage of the adolescent girls started by Tamil Nadu government.
2. Employment provided to the girls is mainly in the textile industry.
3. This scheme faced criticism because of informal nature of contract and low payment of wages to workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Sumangali is a form of child labour that is in practice in the textile industry in Tamil Nadu. It literally means happily married women. The scheme is run by factory owner, who hires adolescent girls aged 15-18 yrs in the manual labour in textile industry on contract basis. They are paid monthly wages and at the end of contract a lumpsum amount is given to them for their dowry.
Textile industry is human intensive thus huge human resource is required. These girls are paid low wages, have to work long shift hours per day, not allowed to meet their parents as they have to stay in industry complex. They are mentally, physically and sexually abused. They have to work in unhygienic conditions.
Sumangali scheme is said to be the effect of child labour laws in India. As it prevents children below 14 yrs of age to be employed, more and more children in the age group 15-18 yrs are employed.
##Topic:Women and Child Development##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
Q. With reference to public offering methods approved by SEBI, consider the following statements: 1. Initial Public Offer is sale of stocks by private company for the first time to raise expansion capital without any obligation to repay the capital to its public investors. 2. For buying shares in Offer for Sale and Further Public Offer, one must have demat Account and PAN card. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
· Initial Public Offer (IPO): It is the process by which a private company can go public by sale of its stocks to general public. It could be any company which decides to be listed on an exchange, in order to raise capital for its expansion. However, a company offering its shares to the public is not obliged to repay the capital to public investors. · FPO (Further/Follow-on Public Offer) Vs OFS (Offer for Sale): FPO OFS Complicated process – requirement of Prospectus and SEBI approval Simple process – no complicated requirements Allowed to any listed company Allowed only to top 200 comapnies based on market capitalization Open for at least 3 days and upto 10 days Open for single trading session Bids are placed within certain price band and investors needs to buy shares in lots such as 5, 10 etc and only single bids allowed for same offer Though not mandatory to disclose, bids are placed at a floor price and investor is free to buy any number of shares, even a single and more importantly, multiple bids are allowed on same offer Common Features: - Both offers need investor to have Demat account and PAN card - Retail investors can bid at the cut-off price as this option allows them to be allotted shares at whatever price is decided upon, once the issue is closed. However, in case of oversubscription, shares will be allotted proportionately in FPO whereas same will be done based on price-priority basis (highest price first), in case of OFS. Note: OFS option is available for both IPO and FPO, provided they meet the SEBI guideline requirements.
|
a
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Q. With reference to public offering methods approved by SEBI, consider the following statements: 1. Initial Public Offer is sale of stocks by private company for the first time to raise expansion capital without any obligation to repay the capital to its public investors. 2. For buying shares in Offer for Sale and Further Public Offer, one must have demat Account and PAN card. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:· Initial Public Offer (IPO): It is the process by which a private company can go public by sale of its stocks to general public. It could be any company which decides to be listed on an exchange, in order to raise capital for its expansion. However, a company offering its shares to the public is not obliged to repay the capital to public investors. · FPO (Further/Follow-on Public Offer) Vs OFS (Offer for Sale): FPO OFS Complicated process – requirement of Prospectus and SEBI approval Simple process – no complicated requirements Allowed to any listed company Allowed only to top 200 comapnies based on market capitalization Open for at least 3 days and upto 10 days Open for single trading session Bids are placed within certain price band and investors needs to buy shares in lots such as 5, 10 etc and only single bids allowed for same offer Though not mandatory to disclose, bids are placed at a floor price and investor is free to buy any number of shares, even a single and more importantly, multiple bids are allowed on same offer Common Features: - Both offers need investor to have Demat account and PAN card - Retail investors can bid at the cut-off price as this option allows them to be allotted shares at whatever price is decided upon, once the issue is closed. However, in case of oversubscription, shares will be allotted proportionately in FPO whereas same will be done based on price-priority basis (highest price first), in case of OFS. Note: OFS option is available for both IPO and FPO, provided they meet the SEBI guideline requirements. ##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about "Seekho aur Kamao" scheme: 1. This scheme is aimed at enhancing skill development among minorities in India. 2. The scheme is 75% centrally funded scheme. 25% of the cost will be borne by the respective states. 3. The scheme will be rolled out in Bihar and Madhyapradesh in the first phase. Which among the above statemets is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only. c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The scheme is a Skill Development initiative for minorities and is 100% funded by Central Government. It will be implemented from the current financial year onwards in various centres, viz. Delhi, Kolkata, Shillong, Barnala and Bengaluru.
|
a
|
Youth
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about "Seekho aur Kamao" scheme: 1. This scheme is aimed at enhancing skill development among minorities in India. 2. The scheme is 75% centrally funded scheme. 25% of the cost will be borne by the respective states. 3. The scheme will be rolled out in Bihar and Madhyapradesh in the first phase. Which among the above statemets is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only. c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:The scheme is a Skill Development initiative for minorities and is 100% funded by Central Government. It will be implemented from the current financial year onwards in various centres, viz. Delhi, Kolkata, Shillong, Barnala and Bengaluru.##Topic:Youth##Subject:Botany##Answer:a
|
According to the Buddhism philosophy, which of the above statements is/are correct? Nirvana is achieved only after death. Happiness is intrinsic to human existence. It is not possible to prevent sorrow. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Important features of Buddhism philosophy are: The three gems of Buddhism are Buddha, Dhamma and Sangha. Four noble truths ; are Dukkha or "Sorrow" (The world is full of sorrow and everything from birth to death brings sorrows in life); Dukkha Samudaya or Cause of Sorrow (The cause of sorrows is desire. It is the un-fulfillment of human desires which leads him to the vicious cycle of births and rebirths.); Dukkha, Nirodha or Prevention of Sorrow (It is possible to prevent sorrow. Man can get rid of sorrow by triumphing over the desires.); Dukkha Nirodha Gamini Patipada or the path of Prevention of Sorrow (Man can avoid Dukkha by avoiding extremes of life and following middle path or Madhyam Patipada). The eight fold path was recommended to eliminate the human misery. Buddhism denied the concept of Moksha, however it defines Nirvana has to getting rid of Cycle of Death and birth. It is achieved in the lifetime itself and not after death. Hence all the statements given above are wrong.
|
d
|
Religious Reforms
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to the Buddhism philosophy, which of the above statements is/are correct? Nirvana is achieved only after death. Happiness is intrinsic to human existence. It is not possible to prevent sorrow. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:1 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Important features of Buddhism philosophy are: The three gems of Buddhism are Buddha, Dhamma and Sangha. Four noble truths ; are Dukkha or "Sorrow" (The world is full of sorrow and everything from birth to death brings sorrows in life); Dukkha Samudaya or Cause of Sorrow (The cause of sorrows is desire. It is the un-fulfillment of human desires which leads him to the vicious cycle of births and rebirths.); Dukkha, Nirodha or Prevention of Sorrow (It is possible to prevent sorrow. Man can get rid of sorrow by triumphing over the desires.); Dukkha Nirodha Gamini Patipada or the path of Prevention of Sorrow (Man can avoid Dukkha by avoiding extremes of life and following middle path or Madhyam Patipada). The eight fold path was recommended to eliminate the human misery. Buddhism denied the concept of Moksha, however it defines Nirvana has to getting rid of Cycle of Death and birth. It is achieved in the lifetime itself and not after death. Hence all the statements given above are wrong.##Topic:Religious Reforms##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Growing different crops one after the other on the same field during different crop seasons is called.
|
Mixed farming
|
Strip cropping
|
Inter croppin
|
Mixed farming
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Growing different crops one after the other on the same field during different crop seasons is called.
##Option_A:Mixed farming###Option_B:Strip cropping##Option_C:Inter croppin##Option_D:Mixed farming##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
The National Achievement Survey (NAS) a nationally representative large-scale survey of students' learning is released by
|
National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
|
Pratham NGO
|
NITI Aayog
|
National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
|
The Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education released the National Achievement Survey (NAS) 2021 report had released in May 2022. Hence, option (d) is correct.
National Achievement Survey (NAS) assesses the health of the school education system in the country by conducting a comprehensive evaluation survey of children’s learning competencies at classes III, V, VIII and X with a cycle period of three years.
NAS provides system-level feedback by administering the standardized survey to students and collecting information
on relevant background variables such as school environment, teaching processes, and student home and background factors.
NAS is not a school-based examination.
NAS does not provide individual school or student scores.
It provides a summary of performance at the District, State, and National levels, with the district as the unit for reporting.
|
d
|
Reports(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The National Achievement Survey (NAS) a nationally representative large-scale survey of students' learning is released by##Option_A:National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)###Option_B:Pratham NGO##Option_C:NITI Aayog##Option_D:National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education released the National Achievement Survey (NAS) 2021 report had released in May 2022. Hence, option (d) is correct.
National Achievement Survey (NAS) assesses the health of the school education system in the country by conducting a comprehensive evaluation survey of children’s learning competencies at classes III, V, VIII and X with a cycle period of three years.
NAS provides system-level feedback by administering the standardized survey to students and collecting information
on relevant background variables such as school environment, teaching processes, and student home and background factors.
NAS is not a school-based examination.
NAS does not provide individual school or student scores.
It provides a summary of performance at the District, State, and National levels, with the district as the unit for reporting.
##Topic:Reports(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following can be considered as social forestry?
1. Afforestation on privately owned lands in and around urban centres.
2. Afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in social development.
3. Raising of trees and agricultural crops on the same land inclusive of waste patches.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development. National Commission on Agriculture has classified social forestry into three categories: urban forestry, rural forestry (agroforestry and community forestry) and Farm forestry.
|
a
|
Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following can be considered as social forestry?
1. Afforestation on privately owned lands in and around urban centres.
2. Afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in social development.
3. Raising of trees and agricultural crops on the same land inclusive of waste patches.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development. National Commission on Agriculture has classified social forestry into three categories: urban forestry, rural forestry (agroforestry and community forestry) and Farm forestry.
##Topic:Natural Vegetation, Plant and Animal Life##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Harshavardhana (AD 606-647): 1. The history of Harsha's reign can be reconstructed from the Allahabad pillar inscription. 2. Hsuan Tsang, a Chinese pilgrim visited India during Harsha’s reign. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The early history of Harsha’s reign is reconstructed from a study of Banabhatta , who was his court poet and who wrote a book called Harshacharita. Harisena was the court poet of Emperor Samudragupta. He wrote a famous poem praising the bravery of Samudragupta that is inscribed on the Allahabad Pillar. Statement 2 is correct: This can be supplemented by the account of the Chinese pilgrim Hsuan Tsang, who visited India in the Seventh Century A.D. Hsuan-Tsang (sometimes transcribed Xuan Tsang or Xuanzang) was a Chinese Buddhist monk who in 627 AD traveled overland from China to India to obtain Buddhist scriptures. Hsuan-Tsang left detailed accounts of his travels, and also wrote about the interaction between Chinese Buddhism and Indian Buddhism during the early Tang dynasty. Harshavardhana was one of the most important Indian emperors of the 7th Century. During the peak of his reign, Harshavardhana’s empire extended from north India to the Narmada River in central India. His rule was renowned for peace, stability, and prosperity, and attracted many artists and scholars from far and wide. Ruling from 606 to 647 CE, Harshavardhana became the most successful emperor of the Pushyabhuti dynasty until he was defeated by a South Indian ruler Pulakeshin II. The defeat of Harshavardhana marked the end of the Pushyabhuti dynasty or Vardhana Dynasty. Harshavardhana’s kingdom was one of the earliest Indian kingdoms where we can see the practice of feudalism. During the course of his rule, Harshavardhana built a strong army. Historical records suggest that he had 100,000 strong cavalries, 50,000 infantry, and 60,000 elephants during the peak of his reign. He was also a patron of literature and art.
|
b
|
Others
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Harshavardhana (AD 606-647): 1. The history of Harsha's reign can be reconstructed from the Allahabad pillar inscription. 2. Hsuan Tsang, a Chinese pilgrim visited India during Harsha’s reign. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The early history of Harsha’s reign is reconstructed from a study of Banabhatta , who was his court poet and who wrote a book called Harshacharita. Harisena was the court poet of Emperor Samudragupta. He wrote a famous poem praising the bravery of Samudragupta that is inscribed on the Allahabad Pillar. Statement 2 is correct: This can be supplemented by the account of the Chinese pilgrim Hsuan Tsang, who visited India in the Seventh Century A.D. Hsuan-Tsang (sometimes transcribed Xuan Tsang or Xuanzang) was a Chinese Buddhist monk who in 627 AD traveled overland from China to India to obtain Buddhist scriptures. Hsuan-Tsang left detailed accounts of his travels, and also wrote about the interaction between Chinese Buddhism and Indian Buddhism during the early Tang dynasty. Harshavardhana was one of the most important Indian emperors of the 7th Century. During the peak of his reign, Harshavardhana’s empire extended from north India to the Narmada River in central India. His rule was renowned for peace, stability, and prosperity, and attracted many artists and scholars from far and wide. Ruling from 606 to 647 CE, Harshavardhana became the most successful emperor of the Pushyabhuti dynasty until he was defeated by a South Indian ruler Pulakeshin II. The defeat of Harshavardhana marked the end of the Pushyabhuti dynasty or Vardhana Dynasty. Harshavardhana’s kingdom was one of the earliest Indian kingdoms where we can see the practice of feudalism. During the course of his rule, Harshavardhana built a strong army. Historical records suggest that he had 100,000 strong cavalries, 50,000 infantry, and 60,000 elephants during the peak of his reign. He was also a patron of literature and art.##Topic:Others##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Consider following statements regarding the seals of Harappa civilization:
They give us information about the script of Harappa people.
They provide us with information about the trade contacts of Harappa civilization.
They depict the religious beliefs of Hadappa people.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Over 2000 seals have been discovered in Hadappan cities. They were made of soapstone (steatite), terracotta and copper.
The seals give us important information about the culture and civilization of the Indus Valley people. In particular, they indicate:
Dresses, ornaments, hair-styles of people.
Skill of artists and sculptors.
Trade contacts and commercial relations.
Religious beliefs.
Script
|
d
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider following statements regarding the seals of Harappa civilization:
They give us information about the script of Harappa people.
They provide us with information about the trade contacts of Harappa civilization.
They depict the religious beliefs of Hadappa people.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A:
1 and 2 only
###Option_B:
2 and 3 only
##Option_C:
1 and 3 only
##Option_D:
1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Over 2000 seals have been discovered in Hadappan cities. They were made of soapstone (steatite), terracotta and copper.
The seals give us important information about the culture and civilization of the Indus Valley people. In particular, they indicate:
Dresses, ornaments, hair-styles of people.
Skill of artists and sculptors.
Trade contacts and commercial relations.
Religious beliefs.
Script
##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Q. Consider the following statements regarding status of lotteries in India:
(1) Under the constitution, lottery is a state subject and union government is not empowered to frame laws to regulate the conduct of lotteries.
(2) As per the article 19(1)(f) of the constitution, states are not empowered to ban the lotteries, they can only regulate the conduct of lotteries.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
As per item 40 on List I (Union List) and items 34 and 62 on List II (State List) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, the union government is empowered to frame laws to regulate the conduct of lotteries, while state governments have the responsibility of authorising/conducting lotteries. The Supreme Court has permitted states to ban lotteries, pointing out that the right to sell lottery tickets is not a fundamental right. The court has also ruled that lottery is not a free ‘trade’ like other “trades’, even when authorised by law.
The primary reason for ban on lotteries has been the social cost they are seen to extract, with earning members of families getting addicted to gambling. While many smaller states cite lotteries as a major source of revenue, the states that have banned them argue that the social costs are higher.
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q. Consider the following statements regarding status of lotteries in India:
(1) Under the constitution, lottery is a state subject and union government is not empowered to frame laws to regulate the conduct of lotteries.
(2) As per the article 19(1)(f) of the constitution, states are not empowered to ban the lotteries, they can only regulate the conduct of lotteries.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
##Option_A: Only 1
###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: Only 1
##Answer:d##Explaination:
As per item 40 on List I (Union List) and items 34 and 62 on List II (State List) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, the union government is empowered to frame laws to regulate the conduct of lotteries, while state governments have the responsibility of authorising/conducting lotteries. The Supreme Court has permitted states to ban lotteries, pointing out that the right to sell lottery tickets is not a fundamental right. The court has also ruled that lottery is not a free ‘trade’ like other “trades’, even when authorised by law.
The primary reason for ban on lotteries has been the social cost they are seen to extract, with earning members of families getting addicted to gambling. While many smaller states cite lotteries as a major source of revenue, the states that have banned them argue that the social costs are higher.
##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Q. Consider the following statement regarding RuPay debit card:
(1) Reserve Bank of India has launched RuPay card in India with the intention of integration of payment systems in the country.
(2) It has a lower processing fee compare to regular credit/debit cards as the processing happens domestically.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched RuPay card in India with the intention of integration of payment systems in the country. Since the transaction processing will happen domestically, it would lead to lower cost of clearing and settlement for each transaction. This will make the transaction cost affordable and will drive usage of cards in the industry. There are under-penetrated/untapped consumers segments in rural areas that do not have access to banking and financial services. Right pricing of RuPay products would make the RuPay cards more economically feasible for banks to offer to their customers. In addition, relevant product variants would ensure that banks can target the hitherto untapped consumer segments.
|
b
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q. Consider the following statement regarding RuPay debit card:
(1) Reserve Bank of India has launched RuPay card in India with the intention of integration of payment systems in the country.
(2) It has a lower processing fee compare to regular credit/debit cards as the processing happens domestically.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched RuPay card in India with the intention of integration of payment systems in the country. Since the transaction processing will happen domestically, it would lead to lower cost of clearing and settlement for each transaction. This will make the transaction cost affordable and will drive usage of cards in the industry. There are under-penetrated/untapped consumers segments in rural areas that do not have access to banking and financial services. Right pricing of RuPay products would make the RuPay cards more economically feasible for banks to offer to their customers. In addition, relevant product variants would ensure that banks can target the hitherto untapped consumer segments.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Q. Consider the following statement regarding Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages (CLND) Act:
(1) According to sec 17 of the act, the nuclear operator has right of recourse where a nuclear accident is the result of the supply of equipment or material with patent or latent defects or sub-standard services by the supplier.
(2) According to sec 46 of the act, victims have the right to sue the suppliers of a nuclear reactor in case of a nuclear accident as per the ‘tort’ law.
(3) Right of recourse is not a part of any other country’s nuclear liability laws.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 and 2
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
The provision of this Act which has so far stood in the way of reactor transfers from abroad. Section on Right of Recourse (Section 17 of the Act) and in particular Sec. 17(b) according to which,
“The operator of the nuclear installation, after paying the compensation for nuclear damage in accordance with section 6, shall have a right of recourse where-the nuclear incident has resulted is a consequence of an act of supplier or his employee, which includes supply of equipment or material with patent or latent defects or sub-standard services.”
This section has been held to be against the letter and spirit of the three major international conventions on nuclear liability- the Paris Convention, the Vienna Convention, and the Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC) in addition to being not part of any other country’s nuclear liability laws- as also against the provisions of the various bilateral agreements.
Section 46 refers to the right of victims to sue in case of a nuclear accident according to ‘tort’ law. The CLND Act channels all legal liability for nuclear damage exclusively to the operator. That this section applies exclusively to the operator and does not extend to the supplier is confirmed by the Parliamentary debates at the time of the adoption of this Act.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Q. Consider the following statement regarding Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages (CLND) Act:
(1) According to sec 17 of the act, the nuclear operator has right of recourse where a nuclear accident is the result of the supply of equipment or material with patent or latent defects or sub-standard services by the supplier.
(2) According to sec 46 of the act, victims have the right to sue the suppliers of a nuclear reactor in case of a nuclear accident as per the ‘tort’ law.
(3) Right of recourse is not a part of any other country’s nuclear liability laws.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2
###Option_B: 1 and 3
##Option_C: 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 and 2
##Answer:b##Explaination:The provision of this Act which has so far stood in the way of reactor transfers from abroad. Section on Right of Recourse (Section 17 of the Act) and in particular Sec. 17(b) according to which,
“The operator of the nuclear installation, after paying the compensation for nuclear damage in accordance with section 6, shall have a right of recourse where-the nuclear incident has resulted is a consequence of an act of supplier or his employee, which includes supply of equipment or material with patent or latent defects or sub-standard services.”
This section has been held to be against the letter and spirit of the three major international conventions on nuclear liability- the Paris Convention, the Vienna Convention, and the Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC) in addition to being not part of any other country’s nuclear liability laws- as also against the provisions of the various bilateral agreements.
Section 46 refers to the right of victims to sue in case of a nuclear accident according to ‘tort’ law. The CLND Act channels all legal liability for nuclear damage exclusively to the operator. That this section applies exclusively to the operator and does not extend to the supplier is confirmed by the Parliamentary debates at the time of the adoption of this Act.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Madden Julian oscillations (MJO): The MJO is a moving system of wind, cloud and pressure that circle around the equator. In the active phase, MJO results in more than average rainfall for that time of the year, while in the suppressed phase, the area receives less than average rainfall. Only one active MJO period is witnessed every year on average. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Both El Nino and MJO are ocean-atmosphere interactions that occur in the equatorial region. The MJO is a moving system of wind, cloud and pressure which moves eastward at a speed of 4-8 metres per second and goes around the globe in 30-60 days on average. Sometimes, it can take 90 days. As it moves, strong MJO activity often splits the planet in to two - one in which the MJO is in active phase and brings rainfall, and the other in which it suppresses rainfall. In the active phase, MJO results in more than average rainfall for that time of the year, while in the suppressed phase, the area receives less than average rainfall. An active phase is generally followed by a weak or suppressed phase, in which there is little MJO activity. Three active MJO periods are witnessed every year on average. The effect of the MJO is witnessed mainly in the tropical region, in the band between 30 degrees North and 30 degrees South of the equator, even though the mid-latitude regions in both hemispheres also feel its impact. India falls in this band. Because the MJO cycle lasts only 30-60 days, there can be multiple MJO events in a season. It causes one or two weeks of intense rainfall, as was witnessed in India in June. An active MJO was passing through the Indian Ocean during that time. It resulted in about 20 days of very good rainfall in most parts of the country. June has ended with more than 15 per cent excess rainfall, defying forecasts of a dry month. The MJO moved away from the region around June 25, and almost immediately, rainfall activity in many parts of the country subsided considerably.
|
a
|
Also in News(Geo+Eco)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Madden Julian oscillations (MJO): The MJO is a moving system of wind, cloud and pressure that circle around the equator. In the active phase, MJO results in more than average rainfall for that time of the year, while in the suppressed phase, the area receives less than average rainfall. Only one active MJO period is witnessed every year on average. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Both El Nino and MJO are ocean-atmosphere interactions that occur in the equatorial region. The MJO is a moving system of wind, cloud and pressure which moves eastward at a speed of 4-8 metres per second and goes around the globe in 30-60 days on average. Sometimes, it can take 90 days. As it moves, strong MJO activity often splits the planet in to two - one in which the MJO is in active phase and brings rainfall, and the other in which it suppresses rainfall. In the active phase, MJO results in more than average rainfall for that time of the year, while in the suppressed phase, the area receives less than average rainfall. An active phase is generally followed by a weak or suppressed phase, in which there is little MJO activity. Three active MJO periods are witnessed every year on average. The effect of the MJO is witnessed mainly in the tropical region, in the band between 30 degrees North and 30 degrees South of the equator, even though the mid-latitude regions in both hemispheres also feel its impact. India falls in this band. Because the MJO cycle lasts only 30-60 days, there can be multiple MJO events in a season. It causes one or two weeks of intense rainfall, as was witnessed in India in June. An active MJO was passing through the Indian Ocean during that time. It resulted in about 20 days of very good rainfall in most parts of the country. June has ended with more than 15 per cent excess rainfall, defying forecasts of a dry month. The MJO moved away from the region around June 25, and almost immediately, rainfall activity in many parts of the country subsided considerably.##Topic:Also in News(Geo+Eco)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Financial Action Task Force (FATF): FATF is a specialized UN agency with the objective of setting standards and promoting their effective implementation for combating money laundering and terrorist financing. FATF recommendations are mandatory on member countries. FATF monitors member countries" progress in implementing the FATF recommendations and promotes the adoption and implementation globally. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
In response to mounting concern over money laundering, the Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) was established by the G-7 Summit that was held in Paris in 1989. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body with the objectives of setting standards and promoting effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system. The FATF is therefore a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in these areas. Its recommendations are not mandatory. The FATF monitors the progress of its members in implementing necessary measures, reviews money laundering and terrorist financing techniques and counter-measures, and promotes the adoption and implementation of appropriate measures globally.
|
c
|
committees and Commissions
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Financial Action Task Force (FATF): FATF is a specialized UN agency with the objective of setting standards and promoting their effective implementation for combating money laundering and terrorist financing. FATF recommendations are mandatory on member countries. FATF monitors member countries" progress in implementing the FATF recommendations and promotes the adoption and implementation globally. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:In response to mounting concern over money laundering, the Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) was established by the G-7 Summit that was held in Paris in 1989. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body with the objectives of setting standards and promoting effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system. The FATF is therefore a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in these areas. Its recommendations are not mandatory. The FATF monitors the progress of its members in implementing necessary measures, reviews money laundering and terrorist financing techniques and counter-measures, and promotes the adoption and implementation of appropriate measures globally. ##Topic:committees and Commissions##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about “Nabakalebara Festival”
1. It is celebrated in every adhika masa (extra month) of the Hindu Calendar.
2. It is an ancient ritual associated with Jagannath Temple of Puri.
3. The Deities are made from a special type of Neem wood
Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Nabakalebara Festival is an ancient ritual associated with most of the Jagannath Temples when the Idols of Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra and Sudarshan are replaced by a new set of Idols. A year with an extra (Adhika masa) Ashadha masa(NOT every Ashika Masa) as per Hindu Calendar is considered auspicious for conducting the ceremony. This usually occurs every twelve to nineteen years. The Deities are made from a special type of Neem wood known as Daru Bramha.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about “Nabakalebara Festival”
1. It is celebrated in every adhika masa (extra month) of the Hindu Calendar.
2. It is an ancient ritual associated with Jagannath Temple of Puri.
3. The Deities are made from a special type of Neem wood
Which of the above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Nabakalebara Festival is an ancient ritual associated with most of the Jagannath Temples when the Idols of Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra and Sudarshan are replaced by a new set of Idols. A year with an extra (Adhika masa) Ashadha masa(NOT every Ashika Masa) as per Hindu Calendar is considered auspicious for conducting the ceremony. This usually occurs every twelve to nineteen years. The Deities are made from a special type of Neem wood known as Daru Bramha.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding "Nabakalebara": It is a festival celebrated in Odisha every year during Lord Jagannath Yatra. It is a festival marking demise and re-birth of Lord Jagannath. Nabakalebara means new body in Odia language. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
It is a key festival in the Odia Hindu calendar, marking the demise and re-birth of Lord Jagannath of Puri. Naba is New; Kalebara is Body. Nabakalebara becomes necessary as the neem wood from which the deities - Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra are made - decays over time. Nabakalebara happens when there are two Ashadhs in a year. The process begins with a few chosen servitors of the Lord going out in search of neem trees for the idols. The logs are ferried to the temple on bullock carts in an elaborate procession. After the deities are sculpted inside the temple, four servitors - Badagrahis or bodyguards - transfer the Brahmapadartha (soul) from the old idols to the new ones in the dead of night. The old deities are simultaneously buried inside the temple. The new idols make a public appearance a day before the Rath Yatra. The whole process takes around 2 months. The last Nabakalebara happened in 1996. This year, the Nabakalebara process began on March 29.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding "Nabakalebara": It is a festival celebrated in Odisha every year during Lord Jagannath Yatra. It is a festival marking demise and re-birth of Lord Jagannath. Nabakalebara means new body in Odia language. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:It is a key festival in the Odia Hindu calendar, marking the demise and re-birth of Lord Jagannath of Puri. Naba is New; Kalebara is Body. Nabakalebara becomes necessary as the neem wood from which the deities - Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra are made - decays over time. Nabakalebara happens when there are two Ashadhs in a year. The process begins with a few chosen servitors of the Lord going out in search of neem trees for the idols. The logs are ferried to the temple on bullock carts in an elaborate procession. After the deities are sculpted inside the temple, four servitors - Badagrahis or bodyguards - transfer the Brahmapadartha (soul) from the old idols to the new ones in the dead of night. The old deities are simultaneously buried inside the temple. The new idols make a public appearance a day before the Rath Yatra. The whole process takes around 2 months. The last Nabakalebara happened in 1996. This year, the Nabakalebara process began on March 29.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
In which of the following regions is Gondwana coal present?
1. Assam
2. Bokaro
3. Wardha valley
Select the correct option from the following :-
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. 2 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
tertiary coals occur in north east
|
b
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
In which of the following regions is Gondwana coal present?
1. Assam
2. Bokaro
3. Wardha valley
Select the correct option from the following :-
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. 2 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
tertiary coals occur in north east
##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to Emergency provisions as mentioned in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Emergency can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament. A majority of the two-thirds of the membership of the house is required to approve the proclamation of emergency. President can revoke the proclamation of emergency after Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha passes a resolution for its discontinuation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. Special Majority is required to approve the proclamation of Emergency. Special majority means, (a) a majority of the total membership of the house, and (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting. A resolution of disapproval is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Emergency provisions as mentioned in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Emergency can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament. A majority of the two-thirds of the membership of the house is required to approve the proclamation of emergency. President can revoke the proclamation of emergency after Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha passes a resolution for its discontinuation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. Special Majority is required to approve the proclamation of Emergency. Special majority means, (a) a majority of the total membership of the house, and (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting. A resolution of disapproval is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Borexino experiment:
1. It was conducted to verify the existence of God’s particle (higgs boson).
2. With the confirmation of the particle from the sun it is concluded that Higgs boson exist in every substance (living or non living).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Borexino experiment is an experiment to study low energy solar neutrinos. The experiment is being conducted at L’Aquila Italy. The project is supported from international collaboration of researchers from Italy, US, Germany, France, Poland and Russia. Main objective of the experiment is to make precise measurement of Berylium-7neutrino flux from sun and compare it with standard model.
Recent result has shown neutrinos formed in the fusion reaction of two proton particles inside the sun, which act as energy generator for the star. Borexino has detected lowest energy neutrino branch which account of 90% of total solar flux.
|
d
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Borexino experiment:
1. It was conducted to verify the existence of God’s particle (higgs boson).
2. With the confirmation of the particle from the sun it is concluded that Higgs boson exist in every substance (living or non living).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Borexino experiment is an experiment to study low energy solar neutrinos. The experiment is being conducted at L’Aquila Italy. The project is supported from international collaboration of researchers from Italy, US, Germany, France, Poland and Russia. Main objective of the experiment is to make precise measurement of Berylium-7neutrino flux from sun and compare it with standard model.
Recent result has shown neutrinos formed in the fusion reaction of two proton particles inside the sun, which act as energy generator for the star. Borexino has detected lowest energy neutrino branch which account of 90% of total solar flux.
##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to Inter-State Councils as mentioned in the Indian Constitution? The orders of the Inter-State Councils cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws to define the duties of Inter-State Councils. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Inter-State council is for issues relating to inter-state, Centre-state and Centre-union territories relations. It is a recommendatory body i.e. its function is advisory only and not binding to any party.So,no question arises to challenge it in any court. President(and not the Parliament) is empowered to define the duties of an inter-state council.
|
a
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to Inter-State Councils as mentioned in the Indian Constitution? The orders of the Inter-State Councils cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws to define the duties of Inter-State Councils. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Inter-State council is for issues relating to inter-state, Centre-state and Centre-union territories relations. It is a recommendatory body i.e. its function is advisory only and not binding to any party.So,no question arises to challenge it in any court. President(and not the Parliament) is empowered to define the duties of an inter-state council.##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
In recent times, Indian Political System has witnessed dilution and decline in the level of Parliamentary debate. Which of the following factors could be said to be responsible for this downfall? Increased use of ‘guillotine’ in legislative procedures. The frequent promulgation of ordinances Increased use of ‘delegated legislation’ Anti Defection Law Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The growth of ‘delegated legislation’ has reduced the role of Parliament in making detailed legislation of laws and has increased the powers of bureaucracy. Use of ‘Guillotine Closure’ is to put to vote undiscussed clauses of a bill or resolution. It is used to save time (as the time allotted for discussion is over). It compromises on primary function of Parliament to have detailed discussion on every bills and resolutions. Promulgation of Ordinance is also an attempt to take away legislative role when recourse to it is too frequently. Anti Defection Law curbs the legislator’s right to dissent and freedom of conscience. So, it dilutes the standard of healthy discussion in the House.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In recent times, Indian Political System has witnessed dilution and decline in the level of Parliamentary debate. Which of the following factors could be said to be responsible for this downfall? Increased use of ‘guillotine’ in legislative procedures. The frequent promulgation of ordinances Increased use of ‘delegated legislation’ Anti Defection Law Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The growth of ‘delegated legislation’ has reduced the role of Parliament in making detailed legislation of laws and has increased the powers of bureaucracy. Use of ‘Guillotine Closure’ is to put to vote undiscussed clauses of a bill or resolution. It is used to save time (as the time allotted for discussion is over). It compromises on primary function of Parliament to have detailed discussion on every bills and resolutions. Promulgation of Ordinance is also an attempt to take away legislative role when recourse to it is too frequently. Anti Defection Law curbs the legislator’s right to dissent and freedom of conscience. So, it dilutes the standard of healthy discussion in the House.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about Alluvial Soil? 1. They are found in Rajasthan and Gujarat 2. They are present in Godavari delta 3. The soil particles become smaller as we move towards the river valley Select the correct options from above:-
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear bigger in size
|
a
|
Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true about Alluvial Soil? 1. They are found in Rajasthan and Gujarat 2. They are present in Godavari delta 3. The soil particles become smaller as we move towards the river valley Select the correct options from above:-##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear bigger in size
##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are correct about Forest Soils?
1. They are acidic in Himalayas
2. They are silty in valley sides
3. They are coarse in the upper slopes.
Select the correct code:-
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All are correct
These soil texture carries according to the mountain environment where they are formed
|
d
|
Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are correct about Forest Soils?
1. They are acidic in Himalayas
2. They are silty in valley sides
3. They are coarse in the upper slopes.
Select the correct code:-
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
All are correct
These soil texture carries according to the mountain environment where they are formed
##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
In what ways was the Raja (King) in Mahajanpadas different from Rajas of Vedic Age?
Raja in Vedic Age did not live in fortified cities.
Raja in Mahajanpadas did not maintain large standing army as bulk of the army was kept by feudatories.
Raja in Mahajanpadas began regular collection of taxes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
1st statement is correct - During Vedic Age, Rajas did not live in fortified cities. While most Mahajanapadas had a capital city, many of these were fortified. This means that huge walls of wood, brick or stone were built around them. 2nd statement is incorrect - Also, The new rajas now began maintaining big armies. Soldiers were paid regular salaries and maintained by the king throughout the year. 3rd statement is correct - As the rulers of the Mahajanapadas built huge forts and maintaining big armies, they needed more resources, thus they started levying taxes.
|
d
|
Mahajanapadas
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In what ways was the Raja (King) in Mahajanpadas different from Rajas of Vedic Age?
Raja in Vedic Age did not live in fortified cities.
Raja in Mahajanpadas did not maintain large standing army as bulk of the army was kept by feudatories.
Raja in Mahajanpadas began regular collection of taxes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:1st statement is correct - During Vedic Age, Rajas did not live in fortified cities. While most Mahajanapadas had a capital city, many of these were fortified. This means that huge walls of wood, brick or stone were built around them. 2nd statement is incorrect - Also, The new rajas now began maintaining big armies. Soldiers were paid regular salaries and maintained by the king throughout the year. 3rd statement is correct - As the rulers of the Mahajanapadas built huge forts and maintaining big armies, they needed more resources, thus they started levying taxes.##Topic:Mahajanapadas##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Gana in Vajji Mahajanpada: Gana referred to a Guild of master artisans having an elite membership. Gana referred to a form of Government consisting of an Assembly of people acting as supreme decision maker. Gana was a short-lived experiment in Vajji history but had great cultural significance. Both Buddha and Mahavira were associated with Ganas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Gana or Sangha was a form of government that was prevalent in Vajji in which there many rulers of the same land, each called Raja. These rajas performed rituals together. They also met in assemblies, and decided what had to be done and how, through discussion and debate. Thus, 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. Ganas or Sanghas lasted a long time. These were conquered only by Gupta Kings in 5th century AD. These have a high political significance for being close to democracy. Thus, 3 is incorrect. Both the Buddha and Mahavira belonged to ganas. In fact, Buddhist works are important source of information on them. Thus, 4 is correct.
|
b
|
Mahajanapadas
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Gana in Vajji Mahajanpada: Gana referred to a Guild of master artisans having an elite membership. Gana referred to a form of Government consisting of an Assembly of people acting as supreme decision maker. Gana was a short-lived experiment in Vajji history but had great cultural significance. Both Buddha and Mahavira were associated with Ganas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Gana or Sangha was a form of government that was prevalent in Vajji in which there many rulers of the same land, each called Raja. These rajas performed rituals together. They also met in assemblies, and decided what had to be done and how, through discussion and debate. Thus, 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. Ganas or Sanghas lasted a long time. These were conquered only by Gupta Kings in 5th century AD. These have a high political significance for being close to democracy. Thus, 3 is incorrect. Both the Buddha and Mahavira belonged to ganas. In fact, Buddhist works are important source of information on them. Thus, 4 is correct.##Topic:Mahajanapadas##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With regards to Tropical climates which of the following statements is/are correct?
Consistent day length and insolation input.
Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
brings rain as it shifts seasonally.
Warm ocean temperatures and unstable maritime air masses .
Upper-air westerly winds and undulating Jet Streams.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Tropical climates, the most extensive, occupy about 36% of Earth's surface, including both ocean and land areas. The tropical climates straddle the equator from about 20° N to
20° S
These cli- mates truly are winterless. Important causal elements include:
Consistent day length and insolation input, which produce consistently warm temperatures;
Effects of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ), which brings rains as it shifts seasonally with the high Sun; and
Warm ocean temperatures and unstable maritime air masses.
Tropical climates have three distinct regimes: tropical rain
forest (ITCZ present all year), tropical monsoon (ITCZ present 6 to 12 months), and tropical savanna (ITCZ present less than 6 months).
Presence of upper-air westerly winds and undulating Jet Streams are the characteristics of microthermal Climates (mid and high latitudes, cold winters)
|
b
|
Pressure and Pressure belts
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regards to Tropical climates which of the following statements is/are correct?
Consistent day length and insolation input.
Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
brings rain as it shifts seasonally.
Warm ocean temperatures and unstable maritime air masses .
Upper-air westerly winds and undulating Jet Streams.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:Tropical climates, the most extensive, occupy about 36% of Earth's surface, including both ocean and land areas. The tropical climates straddle the equator from about 20° N to
20° S
These cli- mates truly are winterless. Important causal elements include:
Consistent day length and insolation input, which produce consistently warm temperatures;
Effects of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ), which brings rains as it shifts seasonally with the high Sun; and
Warm ocean temperatures and unstable maritime air masses.
Tropical climates have three distinct regimes: tropical rain
forest (ITCZ present all year), tropical monsoon (ITCZ present 6 to 12 months), and tropical savanna (ITCZ present less than 6 months).
Presence of upper-air westerly winds and undulating Jet Streams are the characteristics of microthermal Climates (mid and high latitudes, cold winters)
##Topic:Pressure and Pressure belts##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Match Sites with significance
Dholavira Porting facility
Mohenjodaro Great Bath
Dancing Girl Bronze Sculpture
Rakhi Garhi
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
jdsvbjk
|
a
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Match Sites with significance
Dholavira Porting facility
Mohenjodaro Great Bath
Dancing Girl Bronze Sculpture
Rakhi Garhi
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
jdsvbjk
##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
With reference to Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP) and Command Area Development and Water Management (CADWM) Programme, consider the following statements:
Under AIBP, centre grants financial assistance to state governments for only those irrigation projects which are in advanced stage of completion, costing 1000 crore and above.
Main objective of CADWM is to bridge the gap between irrigation potential created and its utilization which involves construction of field drains, enforcement of warabandi etc.
During the 12th Five Year Plan, to achieve optimum resource utilization, AIBP was merged with CADWM due to their overlapping objectives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
On the eve of World Environment Day (June 5, 2015), Ministry of Water resources launched Jalkranti Abhiyan, 2015-16 at three places, namely Jaipur (Rajasthan), Jhansi (Uttar Pradesh) and Shimla (Himachal Pradesh). The main purpose of this campaign is to bring in the convergence of various schemes and AIBP and CADWM are very vital schemes.
AIBP:
The Programme was launched by centre in 1996-97 to provide assistance in the form of loan to State Government to complete those ongoing irrigation projects which were costing Rs.1000 crore or above and were in advanced stage of completion.
However, the criteria for inclusion of irrigation projects were changed from time to time so as to include all categories of projects i.e. major, medium and minor (surface irrigation) projects to bring regional balance.
From 2005-06 onwards, central assistance is provided in the form of grant. Hence, 1 st statement is incorrect.
CADWM Programme:
After independence, a large number of irrigation projects were constructed for increasing agricultural production in the country. Subsequently on analysis of irrigation potential created and utilized revealed that there was a substantial gap between them.
Therefore, based on the recommendations of the Irrigation Commission (1972) and Committee of Ministers (1973) set up by the Ministry of Irrigation and Power suggested that a broad based Area Development Authority should be set up for every major irrigation project to undertake the work of comprehensive area development.
Subsequently, the Government of India initiated a Centrally Sponsored Command Area Development Programme (CADP) in December 1974 to improve irrigation potential utilization and optimize agricultural production from irrigated land through integrated and coordinated approach of efficient water management. (renamed as CADWM Programme during 10 th FYP)
Major components of the programme:
Construction of field channels and field drains,
Enforcement of warabandi (method for equitable distribution of the available water in an irrigation system by turns fixed according to a predetermined schedule specifying year, day, time and duration of supply to each irrigator in proportion to the size of his landholding in the outlet command.)
Land leveling and shaping.
Realignment of field boundaries/consolidation of holdings,
Introduction of suitable cropping patterns,
Strengthening of extension services,
Promoting farmers’ participation,
Reclamation of waterlogged areas
Hence, 2 nd statement is correct.
During the 12 th FYP, the Scheme is implemented pari-passu (on equal footing or side by side) with AIBP. This is because their objectives are interlinked but not overlapping since AIBP focuses on creation of irrigation projects – dams, reservoirs through watershed development approach whereas CADWM programme focuses on efficient utilization of created irrigation facilities i.e. connecting them to fields and promoting efficient water use. Hence, 3 rd statement is incorrect.
|
c
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP) and Command Area Development and Water Management (CADWM) Programme, consider the following statements:
Under AIBP, centre grants financial assistance to state governments for only those irrigation projects which are in advanced stage of completion, costing 1000 crore and above.
Main objective of CADWM is to bridge the gap between irrigation potential created and its utilization which involves construction of field drains, enforcement of warabandi etc.
During the 12th Five Year Plan, to achieve optimum resource utilization, AIBP was merged with CADWM due to their overlapping objectives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:On the eve of World Environment Day (June 5, 2015), Ministry of Water resources launched Jalkranti Abhiyan, 2015-16 at three places, namely Jaipur (Rajasthan), Jhansi (Uttar Pradesh) and Shimla (Himachal Pradesh). The main purpose of this campaign is to bring in the convergence of various schemes and AIBP and CADWM are very vital schemes.
AIBP:
The Programme was launched by centre in 1996-97 to provide assistance in the form of loan to State Government to complete those ongoing irrigation projects which were costing Rs.1000 crore or above and were in advanced stage of completion.
However, the criteria for inclusion of irrigation projects were changed from time to time so as to include all categories of projects i.e. major, medium and minor (surface irrigation) projects to bring regional balance.
From 2005-06 onwards, central assistance is provided in the form of grant. Hence, 1 st statement is incorrect.
CADWM Programme:
After independence, a large number of irrigation projects were constructed for increasing agricultural production in the country. Subsequently on analysis of irrigation potential created and utilized revealed that there was a substantial gap between them.
Therefore, based on the recommendations of the Irrigation Commission (1972) and Committee of Ministers (1973) set up by the Ministry of Irrigation and Power suggested that a broad based Area Development Authority should be set up for every major irrigation project to undertake the work of comprehensive area development.
Subsequently, the Government of India initiated a Centrally Sponsored Command Area Development Programme (CADP) in December 1974 to improve irrigation potential utilization and optimize agricultural production from irrigated land through integrated and coordinated approach of efficient water management. (renamed as CADWM Programme during 10 th FYP)
Major components of the programme:
Construction of field channels and field drains,
Enforcement of warabandi (method for equitable distribution of the available water in an irrigation system by turns fixed according to a predetermined schedule specifying year, day, time and duration of supply to each irrigator in proportion to the size of his landholding in the outlet command.)
Land leveling and shaping.
Realignment of field boundaries/consolidation of holdings,
Introduction of suitable cropping patterns,
Strengthening of extension services,
Promoting farmers’ participation,
Reclamation of waterlogged areas
Hence, 2 nd statement is correct.
During the 12 th FYP, the Scheme is implemented pari-passu (on equal footing or side by side) with AIBP. This is because their objectives are interlinked but not overlapping since AIBP focuses on creation of irrigation projects – dams, reservoirs through watershed development approach whereas CADWM programme focuses on efficient utilization of created irrigation facilities i.e. connecting them to fields and promoting efficient water use. Hence, 3 rd statement is incorrect.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the above is/are the features of the federal system? Pooling of resources by Centre and States to provide maximum benefit to the people. Supreme Court to arbitrate any disputes between the Union and the States. All powers are vested with the Central Legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.
|
a
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the above is/are the features of the federal system? Pooling of resources by Centre and States to provide maximum benefit to the people. Supreme Court to arbitrate any disputes between the Union and the States. All powers are vested with the Central Legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company’s monopoly of Indian trade. Under the Government of India Act, 1858, the British Parliament abolished the dual system of control adopted under Pitt’s Act and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Charter Act 1813 abolished East India Company's monopoly of Indian trade. Under the Government of India Act, 1858, the British Parliament abolished the dual system of control adopted under pitt's act and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.
|
a
|
The British Administrative Structure, Reform , Impact and Organization of Government of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company’s monopoly of Indian trade. Under the Government of India Act, 1858, the British Parliament abolished the dual system of control adopted under Pitt’s Act and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:The Charter Act 1813 abolished East India Company's monopoly of Indian trade. Under the Government of India Act, 1858, the British Parliament abolished the dual system of control adopted under pitt's act and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.##Topic:The British Administrative Structure, Reform , Impact and Organization of Government of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Recently, New Development Bank (NDB) and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) were in news. In this respect, consider the following statements: Only BRICS nations are the member of NDB with unique contingency reserve arrangement to provide protection against global liquidity pressures. Only Asian nations are allowed to be founding members of AIIB promoted by China and its main focus is lending to the infrastructure projects in Asian region. Unlike the Brettonwoods institutions, in both banks, voting rights are based on the size of each member country’s economy without the veto power provision. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The New Development Bank BRICS (NDB BRICS): A multilateral development bank operated by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) as an alternative to the existing US-dominated World Bank and International Monetary Fund. The Bank is set up to foster greater financial and development cooperation among the five emerging markets, including lending for infrastructure projects. Contingency Reserve Arrangement is a framework for the provision of support through liquidity and precautionary instruments in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures and this will help to protect against global liquidity pressures. It will also provide assistance to other countries suffering from the economic volatility in the wake of the United States' exit from its expansionary monetary policy. Unlike the World Bank, which assigns votes based on capital share, in this Bank each participant country will be assigned one vote and none of the countries will have veto power. Though in future it is considering the acceptance of new members, at present only BRICS nations are its members. Even in future the share of BRICS nations in Bank will not fall below 55% of total capital. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): An international financial institution proposed by the government of China. The main objective of this bank is to provide finance to infrastructure projects in the Asia region. There are 33 Founding Members in the region and 17 Founding Members outside the region. So nations outside from the region are interested in this initiative. The voting shares are based on the size of each member country’s economy and not contribution to the Bank’s authorized capital (Total a million shares). China’s shareholding is 30.34 per cent and it has retained 26.06 per cent of the voting rights with veto powers for certain key decisions. Among other individual nations, India has second largest voting rights share (7.50%) Based on above discussion, it is clear that only first statement is correct.
|
a
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, New Development Bank (NDB) and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) were in news. In this respect, consider the following statements: Only BRICS nations are the member of NDB with unique contingency reserve arrangement to provide protection against global liquidity pressures. Only Asian nations are allowed to be founding members of AIIB promoted by China and its main focus is lending to the infrastructure projects in Asian region. Unlike the Brettonwoods institutions, in both banks, voting rights are based on the size of each member country’s economy without the veto power provision. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The New Development Bank BRICS (NDB BRICS): A multilateral development bank operated by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) as an alternative to the existing US-dominated World Bank and International Monetary Fund. The Bank is set up to foster greater financial and development cooperation among the five emerging markets, including lending for infrastructure projects. Contingency Reserve Arrangement is a framework for the provision of support through liquidity and precautionary instruments in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures and this will help to protect against global liquidity pressures. It will also provide assistance to other countries suffering from the economic volatility in the wake of the United States' exit from its expansionary monetary policy. Unlike the World Bank, which assigns votes based on capital share, in this Bank each participant country will be assigned one vote and none of the countries will have veto power. Though in future it is considering the acceptance of new members, at present only BRICS nations are its members. Even in future the share of BRICS nations in Bank will not fall below 55% of total capital. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): An international financial institution proposed by the government of China. The main objective of this bank is to provide finance to infrastructure projects in the Asia region. There are 33 Founding Members in the region and 17 Founding Members outside the region. So nations outside from the region are interested in this initiative. The voting shares are based on the size of each member country’s economy and not contribution to the Bank’s authorized capital (Total a million shares). China’s shareholding is 30.34 per cent and it has retained 26.06 per cent of the voting rights with veto powers for certain key decisions. Among other individual nations, India has second largest voting rights share (7.50%) Based on above discussion, it is clear that only first statement is correct.##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
jdsj
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
A changing environment
|
a
|
Prehistoric
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
jdsj
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
A changing environment
##Topic:Prehistoric##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
A new type of phenomenon called Equatorial Indian Ocean Oscillation (EQUINOO) and Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)is in news to understand the mechanism of monsoon. Which of the following statements is correct in this regard?
EQUINOO is the atmospheric component of phenomenon called ENSO (El Nino and Southern Oscillation).
During positive EQUINOO phase, there is enhanced cloud formation and rainfall in western part of the equatorial ocean near the African coast while such activity is suppressed near Sumatra.
Negative IOD counters the negative impact of El-nino on Indian monsoon.
During positive IOD (INDIAN OCEAN DIPOLE), the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes warmer than normal while the western tropical part of the ocean near the African coast becomes unusually colder.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 4
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. EQUINOO is the atmospheric component of phenomenon called IOD.
Statement 2 is Correct. During positive EQUINOO phase, there is enhanced cloud formation and rainfall in western part of the equatorial ocean near the African coast while such activity is suppressed near Sumatra
Statement 3 is in correct. positive IOD (INDIAN OCEAN DIPOLE) counters the negative impact of el-nino on indian monsoon.
Statement 4 is also correct. During positive IOD (INDIAN OCEAN DIPOLE), the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes colder than normal while the western tropical part of the ocean near the African coast becomes unusually warm.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A new type of phenomenon called Equatorial Indian Ocean Oscillation (EQUINOO) and Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)is in news to understand the mechanism of monsoon. Which of the following statements is correct in this regard?
EQUINOO is the atmospheric component of phenomenon called ENSO (El Nino and Southern Oscillation).
During positive EQUINOO phase, there is enhanced cloud formation and rainfall in western part of the equatorial ocean near the African coast while such activity is suppressed near Sumatra.
Negative IOD counters the negative impact of El-nino on Indian monsoon.
During positive IOD (INDIAN OCEAN DIPOLE), the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes warmer than normal while the western tropical part of the ocean near the African coast becomes unusually colder.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B: 2 and 4
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. EQUINOO is the atmospheric component of phenomenon called IOD.
Statement 2 is Correct. During positive EQUINOO phase, there is enhanced cloud formation and rainfall in western part of the equatorial ocean near the African coast while such activity is suppressed near Sumatra
Statement 3 is in correct. positive IOD (INDIAN OCEAN DIPOLE) counters the negative impact of el-nino on indian monsoon.
Statement 4 is also correct. During positive IOD (INDIAN OCEAN DIPOLE), the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes colder than normal while the western tropical part of the ocean near the African coast becomes unusually warm.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of following statements is / are incorrect regarding Yoga? Patanjali is known as the founder of Yoga. Yoga"s origin can be traced back to Indus Valley Civilisation. "Asthang yoga" philosophy is linked to sage Agastheya. Sankhaya philosophy believes in god but Yoga does not. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Patanjali is known as the one who codified various parts of Yoga in book called 'yog sutras' but he is not the founder of yoga. Mythological texts consider adiyogi shiva as founder of yoga. A number of seals and fossil remains of Indus Valley Civilisation with Yogic motifs and figures performing Yoga sādhana suggest the presence of Yoga in ancient India "Asthang yoga" philosophy is linked to patanjali. Yoga philosophy believes in god but Sankhaya does not.
|
d
|
GS_Art and Culture unclassified
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of following statements is / are incorrect regarding Yoga? Patanjali is known as the founder of Yoga. Yoga"s origin can be traced back to Indus Valley Civilisation. "Asthang yoga" philosophy is linked to sage Agastheya. Sankhaya philosophy believes in god but Yoga does not. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Patanjali is known as the one who codified various parts of Yoga in book called 'yog sutras' but he is not the founder of yoga. Mythological texts consider adiyogi shiva as founder of yoga. A number of seals and fossil remains of Indus Valley Civilisation with Yogic motifs and figures performing Yoga sādhana suggest the presence of Yoga in ancient India "Asthang yoga" philosophy is linked to patanjali. Yoga philosophy believes in god but Sankhaya does not.##Topic:GS_Art and Culture unclassified##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Which of following statements is correct regarding various religious traditions in India? Arihant is a Buddhism master (guru) while arhat is a jaina master (guru). Mahayaan Buddhism emphasises on enligtenment of single individual Ariykas are female renunciates in Buddhism religion. Bodhisattva is a guru in Mahayaan Buddhism. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4
|
1, 2 and 4
|
1, 3 and 4
|
1 and 4
|
Arihant is a jaina master (guru) while arhat is a master(guru) in Buddhism. Arihants is guru who after attaining Kevala Jnana (infinite knowledge), help others in attaining the same. Arihants are also called Jina (conqueror of inner enemies such as attachment, pride and greed). In Theravada Buddhism, an arhat is a perfected person who has attained nirvana. Theravada Buddhism emphasises on enligtenment of single individual and Mahayaan Buddhism emphasises on enligtenment of all sentinent individuals. Ariykas are female renunciates in Jainism religion. Bodhisattva is a guru in Mahayaan Buddhism.
|
d
|
GS_Art and Culture unclassified
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of following statements is correct regarding various religious traditions in India? Arihant is a Buddhism master (guru) while arhat is a jaina master (guru). Mahayaan Buddhism emphasises on enligtenment of single individual Ariykas are female renunciates in Buddhism religion. Bodhisattva is a guru in Mahayaan Buddhism. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 4###Option_B:1, 2 and 4##Option_C:1, 3 and 4##Option_D:1 and 4##Answer:d##Explaination:Arihant is a jaina master (guru) while arhat is a master(guru) in Buddhism. Arihants is guru who after attaining Kevala Jnana (infinite knowledge), help others in attaining the same. Arihants are also called Jina (conqueror of inner enemies such as attachment, pride and greed). In Theravada Buddhism, an arhat is a perfected person who has attained nirvana. Theravada Buddhism emphasises on enligtenment of single individual and Mahayaan Buddhism emphasises on enligtenment of all sentinent individuals. Ariykas are female renunciates in Jainism religion. Bodhisattva is a guru in Mahayaan Buddhism.##Topic:GS_Art and Culture unclassified##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Which of following is/are incorrect about Ajivika philosophy and sects? Ajivika school is known for its Niyati doctrine of absolute determinism. Ajivika school was founded in the 5th century BC by Makkhali Gosala. Barabar rock cut caves were used by Ajivika sect ascetics for habitation during Ashoka"s rule. Ajivika school believed that in every living being is an Atman (soul). Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
Ajivika school is known for its Niyati doctrine of absolute determinism which states that that there is no free will, that everything that has happened, is happening and will happen is entirely preordained and a function of cosmic principles Ajivika school was founded in the 5th century BCE by Makkhali Gosala, who was a contemporary of Mahavira. Barabar rock cut caves were used by Ajivika sect ascetics for habitation during Ashoka rule. Ajivika school believed that in every living being is an Atman (soul).
|
d
|
GS_Art and Culture unclassified
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of following is/are incorrect about Ajivika philosophy and sects? Ajivika school is known for its Niyati doctrine of absolute determinism. Ajivika school was founded in the 5th century BC by Makkhali Gosala. Barabar rock cut caves were used by Ajivika sect ascetics for habitation during Ashoka"s rule. Ajivika school believed that in every living being is an Atman (soul). Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Ajivika school is known for its Niyati doctrine of absolute determinism which states that that there is no free will, that everything that has happened, is happening and will happen is entirely preordained and a function of cosmic principles Ajivika school was founded in the 5th century BCE by Makkhali Gosala, who was a contemporary of Mahavira. Barabar rock cut caves were used by Ajivika sect ascetics for habitation during Ashoka rule. Ajivika school believed that in every living being is an Atman (soul).##Topic:GS_Art and Culture unclassified##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Food safety is in currently in news after ban on sale of maggi in many states.which of following statements is incorrect in this regard ?
1. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a quasi- judicial body under ministry of health
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
has been established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2008.
3. Beside setting standards for food safety, The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is also responsible for enforcing those standards.
4. Food adulteration comes under the Food Adulteration Act, which is administered entirely by the states .
|
1,2,4
|
1,3,4
|
1,2,3 and 4
|
1,2,4
|
1. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a statutory body under ministry of health affairs.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
has been established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
3. standards set by the FSSAI have to be enforced and implemented essentially by the state governments. Unlike other sectoral regulators, this is one such case where the regulator does not have enforcement powers and it has to rely on the states for the same.
4. Food adulteration comes under the Food Adulteration Act, which is administered entirely by the states and therefore the powers for seizure, for conducting inspections, for seizing samples, filing cases etc., lie with the state governments
|
d
|
Tribunals
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Food safety is in currently in news after ban on sale of maggi in many states.which of following statements is incorrect in this regard ?
1. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a quasi- judicial body under ministry of health
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
has been established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2008.
3. Beside setting standards for food safety, The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is also responsible for enforcing those standards.
4. Food adulteration comes under the Food Adulteration Act, which is administered entirely by the states .
##Option_A: 1,2,4
###Option_B:1,3,4
##Option_C:1,2,3 and 4
##Option_D: 1,2,4
##Answer:d##Explaination:
1. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a statutory body under ministry of health affairs.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
has been established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
3. standards set by the FSSAI have to be enforced and implemented essentially by the state governments. Unlike other sectoral regulators, this is one such case where the regulator does not have enforcement powers and it has to rely on the states for the same.
4. Food adulteration comes under the Food Adulteration Act, which is administered entirely by the states and therefore the powers for seizure, for conducting inspections, for seizing samples, filing cases etc., lie with the state governments
##Topic:Tribunals##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Year 2015 has witnessed lot of deaths due to heat waves. Which of following is/ are correct with respect to heat waves in India? IMD ( Indian Meteorological Department) defines that condition of heat waves should be declared when actual maximum temperature remains 45 degree centigrade or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature. Criterion for declaration of heat waves is same in hilly and plane areas. Only Global warming is responsible for increased instances of heat waves which are becoming more intense year by year. Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Stoke are the symptoms of a person affected due to heat wave. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4
|
1 and 4 only
|
According to IMD ,When actual maximum temperature remains 45 degree Centigrade or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared. According to IMD, Heat Wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches atleast 40 degree Centigrade for Plains and atleast 30 degree Centigrade for Hilly regions. Global warming is responsible for increased instances of heat waves which are becoming more intense year by year but is not the only factor. Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Stoke are the symptoms of a person affected due to heat wave.
|
a
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Year 2015 has witnessed lot of deaths due to heat waves. Which of following is/ are correct with respect to heat waves in India? IMD ( Indian Meteorological Department) defines that condition of heat waves should be declared when actual maximum temperature remains 45 degree centigrade or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature. Criterion for declaration of heat waves is same in hilly and plane areas. Only Global warming is responsible for increased instances of heat waves which are becoming more intense year by year. Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Stoke are the symptoms of a person affected due to heat wave. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4
##Option_D:1 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:According to IMD ,When actual maximum temperature remains 45 degree Centigrade or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared. According to IMD, Heat Wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches atleast 40 degree Centigrade for Plains and atleast 30 degree Centigrade for Hilly regions. Global warming is responsible for increased instances of heat waves which are becoming more intense year by year but is not the only factor. Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Stoke are the symptoms of a person affected due to heat wave.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to Overseas Direct Investment, consider the following statements, It is the reverse of Foreign Direct Investment. It is regulated by SEBI and FIPB in India. The limit of investment is up to 400 percent of net worth of company in wholly owned subsidies and/or joint ventures. Obliging above condition by a company, there is no limit further. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statements 1st and 3rd are right and 2nd is incorrect as ODI is regulated by RBI. Statement 4th is incorrect as there is limit of $1 billion US even if condition uner statement 3 is met by companies. Relaxing the recent curbs on the outward investments, Reserve Bank on Wednesday said that a company will be allowed to invest up to 400 per cent of its net worth provided it has raised the funds through external commercial borrowings (ECBs).
|
a
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Overseas Direct Investment, consider the following statements, It is the reverse of Foreign Direct Investment. It is regulated by SEBI and FIPB in India. The limit of investment is up to 400 percent of net worth of company in wholly owned subsidies and/or joint ventures. Obliging above condition by a company, there is no limit further. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statements 1st and 3rd are right and 2nd is incorrect as ODI is regulated by RBI. Statement 4th is incorrect as there is limit of $1 billion US even if condition uner statement 3 is met by companies. Relaxing the recent curbs on the outward investments, Reserve Bank on Wednesday said that a company will be allowed to invest up to 400 per cent of its net worth provided it has raised the funds through external commercial borrowings (ECBs).##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which viceroy’s tenure saw the following events:
1.formation of home rule league
2. appointment of saddler commission
3. The Rowlatt Act
4. Kheda Satyagraha
|
Lord Hardinge II
|
Lord Reading
|
Lord Chelmsford
|
Lord Hardinge II
|
Lord Chelmsford (1916-1921) rule saw these events.
1.formation of home rule league(1916)
2. appointment of saddler commission(1917)
3. The Rowlatt Act (1919)
4. Kheda Satyagraha (1918)
|
c
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which viceroy’s tenure saw the following events:
1.formation of home rule league
2. appointment of saddler commission
3. The Rowlatt Act
4. Kheda Satyagraha
##Option_A: Lord Hardinge II
###Option_B: Lord Reading
##Option_C: Lord Chelmsford
##Option_D: Lord Hardinge II
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Lord Chelmsford (1916-1921) rule saw these events.
1.formation of home rule league(1916)
2. appointment of saddler commission(1917)
3. The Rowlatt Act (1919)
4. Kheda Satyagraha (1918)
##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about The Index of Economic Freedom
1. It is compiled in association with the World Bank.
2. It rates the countries on a scale of 0 to 1.
3. The Index is based on 10 quantitative and qualitative factors.
4. India is placed higher than China consistently in the last 3 years.
Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Index of Economic Freedom is an annual index and ranking created by The Heritage Foundation and The Wall Street Journal. Economic freedom is measured based on 10 quantitative and qualitative factors, grouped into four broad categories - Rule of Law, Limited Government,
Regulatory Efficiency and Open Markets. Each of the ten economic freedoms within these categories is graded on a scale of 0 to 100. A country’s overall score is derived by averaging these ten economic freedoms, with equal weight being given to each. More information on the grading and methodology can be found in the appendix. India has been placed higher than China consistently in the last 3 years.
|
c
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about The Index of Economic Freedom
1. It is compiled in association with the World Bank.
2. It rates the countries on a scale of 0 to 1.
3. The Index is based on 10 quantitative and qualitative factors.
4. India is placed higher than China consistently in the last 3 years.
Which of the above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Index of Economic Freedom is an annual index and ranking created by The Heritage Foundation and The Wall Street Journal. Economic freedom is measured based on 10 quantitative and qualitative factors, grouped into four broad categories - Rule of Law, Limited Government,
Regulatory Efficiency and Open Markets. Each of the ten economic freedoms within these categories is graded on a scale of 0 to 100. A country’s overall score is derived by averaging these ten economic freedoms, with equal weight being given to each. More information on the grading and methodology can be found in the appendix. India has been placed higher than China consistently in the last 3 years.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank(AIIB) US did not join as a founding member whereas UK joined World Bank has not welcomed the setting up of AIIB China alone has veto power in certain matters. AIIB will focus on infrastructure projects in the Asia-Pacific Region. Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1. Correct. US, Canada and Japan are some major nations which did not join. EU, Germany, France, UK and others have joined
2. Incorrect. The President of the World Bank, Jim Yong Kim, has said that the need for infrastructure in developing countries is great so that the activities of new organizations would be welcome.
3. Correct. China would have 26.06 percent of the voting rights in the bank. This would effectively give the country a veto on votes requiring a "super majority", which need to be approved by 75 percent of votes and two-thirds of all member countries. A super majority vote is needed to choose the president of the bank, provide funding outside the region and allocating the bank's income, among other decisions.
4. Incorrect. The AIIB, a modern knowledge-based institution, will focus on the development of infrastructure and other productive sectors in Asia, including energy and power, transportation and telecommunications, rural infrastructure and agriculture development, water supply and sanitation, environmental protection, urban development and logistics, etc. The operational strategy and priority areas of engagement may be revised or further refined by its governing boards in the future as circumstances may warrant.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank(AIIB) US did not join as a founding member whereas UK joined World Bank has not welcomed the setting up of AIIB China alone has veto power in certain matters. AIIB will focus on infrastructure projects in the Asia-Pacific Region. Which of the above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
1. Correct. US, Canada and Japan are some major nations which did not join. EU, Germany, France, UK and others have joined
2. Incorrect. The President of the World Bank, Jim Yong Kim, has said that the need for infrastructure in developing countries is great so that the activities of new organizations would be welcome.
3. Correct. China would have 26.06 percent of the voting rights in the bank. This would effectively give the country a veto on votes requiring a "super majority", which need to be approved by 75 percent of votes and two-thirds of all member countries. A super majority vote is needed to choose the president of the bank, provide funding outside the region and allocating the bank's income, among other decisions.
4. Incorrect. The AIIB, a modern knowledge-based institution, will focus on the development of infrastructure and other productive sectors in Asia, including energy and power, transportation and telecommunications, rural infrastructure and agriculture development, water supply and sanitation, environmental protection, urban development and logistics, etc. The operational strategy and priority areas of engagement may be revised or further refined by its governing boards in the future as circumstances may warrant.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to the constitutional provisions for proclamation of emergency in the country, consider the following: National emergency can be imposed indefinitely, provided that Lok Sabha approves the proclamation every six months. Approval of Lok Sabha is mandatory for the President to revoke the proclamation of national emergency. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1st statement is incorrect - National emergency can be proclaimed indefinitely but with the approval of both houses of Parliament. 2nd statement is incorrect - Revocation of emergency does not require parliamentary approval. However, if Lok Sabha passes a resolution to that effect, President must revoke proclamation.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the constitutional provisions for proclamation of emergency in the country, consider the following: National emergency can be imposed indefinitely, provided that Lok Sabha approves the proclamation every six months. Approval of Lok Sabha is mandatory for the President to revoke the proclamation of national emergency. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1st statement is incorrect - National emergency can be proclaimed indefinitely but with the approval of both houses of Parliament. 2nd statement is incorrect - Revocation of emergency does not require parliamentary approval. However, if Lok Sabha passes a resolution to that effect, President must revoke proclamation.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with reference to Nepal:
1. Both Kosi and Bagmati rivers originate in Nepal and ultimately join the Ganges.
2. Sharda river originates in Nepal and forms the boundary between India and Nepal.
Select the correct statement(s) using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Sharda river originates in Uttarakhand. it forms the boundary between India and Nepal.
|
a
|
Places(International)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with reference to Nepal:
1. Both Kosi and Bagmati rivers originate in Nepal and ultimately join the Ganges.
2. Sharda river originates in Nepal and forms the boundary between India and Nepal.
Select the correct statement(s) using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Sharda river originates in Uttarakhand. it forms the boundary between India and Nepal.
##Topic:Places(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which amongst the following would be void, to the extent of contravention, if they contravene Fundamental Rights:
|
Laws duly enacted by the legislature.
|
Ordinance promulgated by the President.
|
Rules notified by the Government.
|
Laws duly enacted by the legislature.
|
Art 13(3)(a) states that 'Law' (as referenced in 13(2)) includes any Ordinance, bye-law, rules, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in territory of India the force of law.
This does not include Amendment to the constitution. Law is what the parliament does in its legislative capacity and amendment is what it does in its Constituent power. The latter is thus outside purview of article 13 and thus an amendment act can abridge FRs. This power, however is subject to limits laid down under the basic structure doctrine and sufficient 'public purpose' must be served before FRs are abridged through amendment.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which amongst the following would be void, to the extent of contravention, if they contravene Fundamental Rights:
##Option_A:Laws duly enacted by the legislature.
###Option_B:Ordinance promulgated by the President.
##Option_C:Rules notified by the Government.
##Option_D:Laws duly enacted by the legislature.
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Art 13(3)(a) states that 'Law' (as referenced in 13(2)) includes any Ordinance, bye-law, rules, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in territory of India the force of law.
This does not include Amendment to the constitution. Law is what the parliament does in its legislative capacity and amendment is what it does in its Constituent power. The latter is thus outside purview of article 13 and thus an amendment act can abridge FRs. This power, however is subject to limits laid down under the basic structure doctrine and sufficient 'public purpose' must be served before FRs are abridged through amendment.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following correctly describes Solar impulse?
|
It is a plane which uses solar energy to fly during the day time.
|
It refers to the solar flares which erupt 2-3 times in a year.
|
It refers to the alteration of sun's magnetic poles once in 11 years.
|
It is a plane which uses solar energy to fly during the day time.
|
Solar impulse is an airplane that is powered only by sun. Its 17000 solar cells charge batteries which store energy. This is used to run the plane at night.
|
d
|
New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following correctly describes Solar impulse?
##Option_A: It is a plane which uses solar energy to fly during the day time.
###Option_B: It refers to the solar flares which erupt 2-3 times in a year.
##Option_C: It refers to the alteration of sun's magnetic poles once in 11 years.
##Option_D: It is a plane which uses solar energy to fly during the day time.
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Solar impulse is an airplane that is powered only by sun. Its 17000 solar cells charge batteries which store energy. This is used to run the plane at night.
##Topic:New Technologies, Devices and Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding IndARC
1. It is India’s first mooring in the Arctic.
2. It was set up by The National Institute of Oceanography, Goa
3. India has partnered with Norway for setting up of IndARC
4. It will collect real-time data on seawater temperature, salinity and seismic activity.
Which of the above is are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1. Correct. IndARC, the country’s first multi-sensor moored observatory in the Kongsfjorden fjord of the Arctic
2. Incorrect. -National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) and the ESSO-National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)
3. Correct. It was deployed from the Norwegian Polar Institute's research vessel R.V. Lance
4. Incorrect. These sensors are programmed to collect real-time data on seawater temperature, salinity, current and other vital parameters of the fjord. In addition to providing for an increased understanding of the response of the Arctic to climatic variabilities, the data would also provide a good handle in our understanding of the Arctic processes and their influence on the Indian monsoon system through climate modelling studies. It does not involve study of seismic activity, as it is located in fjord.
|
a
|
Misc. Tech.
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding IndARC
1. It is India’s first mooring in the Arctic.
2. It was set up by The National Institute of Oceanography, Goa
3. India has partnered with Norway for setting up of IndARC
4. It will collect real-time data on seawater temperature, salinity and seismic activity.
Which of the above is are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
1. Correct. IndARC, the country’s first multi-sensor moored observatory in the Kongsfjorden fjord of the Arctic
2. Incorrect. -National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) and the ESSO-National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)
3. Correct. It was deployed from the Norwegian Polar Institute's research vessel R.V. Lance
4. Incorrect. These sensors are programmed to collect real-time data on seawater temperature, salinity, current and other vital parameters of the fjord. In addition to providing for an increased understanding of the response of the Arctic to climatic variabilities, the data would also provide a good handle in our understanding of the Arctic processes and their influence on the Indian monsoon system through climate modelling studies. It does not involve study of seismic activity, as it is located in fjord.
##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. It is the duty of Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs to provide information related to proposals for Bills to the President of India.
2. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs performs functions in the Parliament which are similar to those performed by Parliamentary Secretaries in UK.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Article 78(b) of the Constitution of India says that it is the duty of Prime Minister to furnish information related to proposals for legistation to the President.
Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs has been created under Government of India(Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 which performs roles similar to those of Parliamentary Secretaries along with other roles. Parliamentary Secretary is a Member of House who assists Minister in his official work,represent the Department/Ministry to which he belongs.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. It is the duty of Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs to provide information related to proposals for Bills to the President of India.
2. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs performs functions in the Parliament which are similar to those performed by Parliamentary Secretaries in UK.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Article 78(b) of the Constitution of India says that it is the duty of Prime Minister to furnish information related to proposals for legistation to the President.
Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs has been created under Government of India(Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 which performs roles similar to those of Parliamentary Secretaries along with other roles. Parliamentary Secretary is a Member of House who assists Minister in his official work,represent the Department/Ministry to which he belongs.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding DigiLocker launched by Government of India: It is a programmed launched under National e-governance platform. It is an online storage platform used to store only the government issued document. It can be accessed only by the persons having Aadhar number. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1st statement is incorrect - DigiLocker is an online storage platform just like dropbox, evernote or google's product. It is launched by government of India under Digital India program. Currently, it provides space of 10mb only for individual user which the government is planning to expand to 1GB. 2nd statement is correct - An individual can store government issued documents like passport, driving license, medical report etc. 3rd statement is correct - For having access to DigiLocker one must have Aadhar number as it provides unique identification and is required at the time of registration. The main aim of the program is to digitize the government documents and providing security as well as space for storage of these documents.
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding DigiLocker launched by Government of India: It is a programmed launched under National e-governance platform. It is an online storage platform used to store only the government issued document. It can be accessed only by the persons having Aadhar number. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:1st statement is incorrect - DigiLocker is an online storage platform just like dropbox, evernote or google's product. It is launched by government of India under Digital India program. Currently, it provides space of 10mb only for individual user which the government is planning to expand to 1GB. 2nd statement is correct - An individual can store government issued documents like passport, driving license, medical report etc. 3rd statement is correct - For having access to DigiLocker one must have Aadhar number as it provides unique identification and is required at the time of registration. The main aim of the program is to digitize the government documents and providing security as well as space for storage of these documents.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Polity:
The order of presiding officers over a joint sitting is Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Chairman (RS), Deputy Chairman(RS).
Salaries, allowances and pension of Chief Election Commissioner and members of Election Commision are charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1st statement is incorrect - Chairman (RS) is not a member of the house(RS) and hence is not eligible to preside over the joint sitting.
2nd statement is incorrect - It is one the unmet demands of the Election Commision that Expenses of Election Commission should be treated as "Charged" to make it more autonomous.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Indian Polity:
The order of presiding officers over a joint sitting is Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Chairman (RS), Deputy Chairman(RS).
Salaries, allowances and pension of Chief Election Commissioner and members of Election Commision are charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
1st statement is incorrect - Chairman (RS) is not a member of the house(RS) and hence is not eligible to preside over the joint sitting.
2nd statement is incorrect - It is one the unmet demands of the Election Commision that Expenses of Election Commission should be treated as "Charged" to make it more autonomous.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statement regarding Delphic games is correct?
|
It is an Annual Winter sports event organised for Physically Challenged and Differently Abled people.
|
It is a Competition of Arts and Culture held one year before every olympic games.
|
It is a Sports event in which the Armed forces of various countries participate and is held once in every four years.
|
It is an Annual Winter sports event organised for Physically Challenged and Differently Abled people.
|
The Delphic games is an competition of arts and culture held one year before the olympic games. It is also known as the twin sister of olympics.It is to art and culture what olympics is to sports. Started a 100 years after the modern edition of the Olympics, the youth edition of the Delphic Games will be hosted in India for the first time, from February 1 to 14, 2016, in Goa.The Youth Delphic Games are held every four years and are aimed at participants in the age group of 15 to 25. The motto of the 2016 Games is ‘Celebrating Arts and Cultures.’It will include competitions in six categories — musical arts & sounds, performing arts, language arts, visual arts, social arts and ecological arts & architecture.
|
b
|
Events.National
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement regarding Delphic games is correct?##Option_A: It is an Annual Winter sports event organised for Physically Challenged and Differently Abled people.###Option_B: It is a Competition of Arts and Culture held one year before every olympic games.##Option_C: It is a Sports event in which the Armed forces of various countries participate and is held once in every four years. ##Option_D: It is an Annual Winter sports event organised for Physically Challenged and Differently Abled people.##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Delphic games is an competition of arts and culture held one year before the olympic games. It is also known as the twin sister of olympics.It is to art and culture what olympics is to sports. Started a 100 years after the modern edition of the Olympics, the youth edition of the Delphic Games will be hosted in India for the first time, from February 1 to 14, 2016, in Goa.The Youth Delphic Games are held every four years and are aimed at participants in the age group of 15 to 25. The motto of the 2016 Games is ‘Celebrating Arts and Cultures.’It will include competitions in six categories — musical arts & sounds, performing arts, language arts, visual arts, social arts and ecological arts & architecture.
##Topic:Events.National##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding regarding $100 billion forex pool of BRICS:
1. The aim of pool is to protect member countries by providing financial assistance in case of Balance of payment crisis.
2. Every member country doesn’t have equal contribution in the forex pool.
3. Loans from the pool require the consent of all the members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
: The $100 billion forex pool also known as contingency reserve agreement was signed by the member countries in the BRICS meet 2015. The aim of fund is to protect the member states from currency volatility shocks i.e. balance of payment crisis.
China is the biggest contributor to the pool with $41 billion, India, Russian and Brazil will contribute $18 each and South Africa $5.
Emergency loans upto 30% can be decided by simple majority of members but bigger loans will require consent of all members.
|
a
|
Summits.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding regarding $100 billion forex pool of BRICS:
1. The aim of pool is to protect member countries by providing financial assistance in case of Balance of payment crisis.
2. Every member country doesn’t have equal contribution in the forex pool.
3. Loans from the pool require the consent of all the members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
: The $100 billion forex pool also known as contingency reserve agreement was signed by the member countries in the BRICS meet 2015. The aim of fund is to protect the member states from currency volatility shocks i.e. balance of payment crisis.
China is the biggest contributor to the pool with $41 billion, India, Russian and Brazil will contribute $18 each and South Africa $5.
Emergency loans upto 30% can be decided by simple majority of members but bigger loans will require consent of all members.
##Topic:Summits.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Currency Notes in India: RBI can issue currency notes of any denomination as specified by the Central Government. Under the Coinage Act, 2011 coins can be issued up to the denomination of Rs. 1000. India earlier used to have currency notes of denomination more than 1000 which were demonetized to curb unaccounted money. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Apart from existing currency notes, RBI can issue currency notes of five thousand and ten thousand denomination as specified by Central Government. But, as per the current provisions of RBI Act, 1934, RBI cannot issue notes of denomination more than ten thousand.Hence 1st statement is incorrect. 2nd Statement is correct - Coins can be issued up to the denomination of Rs. 1000 as per the Coinage Act, 2011. Coins are presently being issued in 50paise, 1 rupee, two rupee, five rupee and ten rupee. Pre independence India had currency of denomination 10,000 which was demonetized in 1946. It was again re-introduced in 1954 but were again demonetized in 1978 to curb unaccounted money.
|
b
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Currency Notes in India: RBI can issue currency notes of any denomination as specified by the Central Government. Under the Coinage Act, 2011 coins can be issued up to the denomination of Rs. 1000. India earlier used to have currency notes of denomination more than 1000 which were demonetized to curb unaccounted money. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Apart from existing currency notes, RBI can issue currency notes of five thousand and ten thousand denomination as specified by Central Government. But, as per the current provisions of RBI Act, 1934, RBI cannot issue notes of denomination more than ten thousand.Hence 1st statement is incorrect. 2nd Statement is correct - Coins can be issued up to the denomination of Rs. 1000 as per the Coinage Act, 2011. Coins are presently being issued in 50paise, 1 rupee, two rupee, five rupee and ten rupee. Pre independence India had currency of denomination 10,000 which was demonetized in 1946. It was again re-introduced in 1954 but were again demonetized in 1978 to curb unaccounted money.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
"Social Justice" as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in: The Preamble Fundamental Rights The Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Social Justice is directly mentioned in the Preamble. Under DPSPs, Article-38 says to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice-social, economic and political-and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. Also, many other provisions like equal justice (Article 39A), Article 42 etc. are related to securing just and humane condition of living. Article 14, 16, 17, 22 of Fundamental Rights are related to concept of 'social justice'.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Social Justice" as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in: The Preamble Fundamental Rights The Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Social Justice is directly mentioned in the Preamble. Under DPSPs, Article-38 says to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice-social, economic and political-and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. Also, many other provisions like equal justice (Article 39A), Article 42 etc. are related to securing just and humane condition of living. Article 14, 16, 17, 22 of Fundamental Rights are related to concept of 'social justice'.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding state legislative bodies in India: The Chairman of a legislative council of a state need not be a member of the council. Tribal welfare ministers appointed in some states are also the incharge of the welfare of Schedule caste or other Backward classes. The legislative council of a state can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of the legislative assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is Vice-President and not the member of the House but Chairman of legislative Council of a state necessarily should be a member of the House. Tribal welfare ministers are appointed in state of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha. They may also be in charge of the welfare of SCs and BCs or any other work. Existence of the legislative council depends on the will of the legislative assembly (it can be abolished by Parliament on the initiation of resolution by state legislative assembly).
|
a
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding state legislative bodies in India: The Chairman of a legislative council of a state need not be a member of the council. Tribal welfare ministers appointed in some states are also the incharge of the welfare of Schedule caste or other Backward classes. The legislative council of a state can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of the legislative assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is Vice-President and not the member of the House but Chairman of legislative Council of a state necessarily should be a member of the House. Tribal welfare ministers are appointed in state of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha. They may also be in charge of the welfare of SCs and BCs or any other work. Existence of the legislative council depends on the will of the legislative assembly (it can be abolished by Parliament on the initiation of resolution by state legislative assembly).##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Centre-state financial relations: All cess is levied and appropriated by Union but distributed between Union and State. All the duties and taxes mentioned in the union list are levied, collected and appropriated by the Union. Taxes on sale and purchase of in interstate trade and commerce forms part of Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
All the surcharges and cess can be levied by the Centre at any time. And the proceeds of such taxes belong exclusively to the Centre. (Article 271) All the duties and taxes mentioned in the Union list except surcharges, any cess, and taxes and duties mentioned in article 268, 268-A, 269 and 271 are taxes levied and collected by centre but distributed between centre and state. (article 270) Taxes on sale and purchase of in interstate trade and commerce do not form part of Consolidated Fund of India because these taxes are assigned to states after being appropriated by Centre (article 269)
|
d
|
Center-State Financial Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Centre-state financial relations: All cess is levied and appropriated by Union but distributed between Union and State. All the duties and taxes mentioned in the union list are levied, collected and appropriated by the Union. Taxes on sale and purchase of in interstate trade and commerce forms part of Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the surcharges and cess can be levied by the Centre at any time. And the proceeds of such taxes belong exclusively to the Centre. (Article 271) All the duties and taxes mentioned in the Union list except surcharges, any cess, and taxes and duties mentioned in article 268, 268-A, 269 and 271 are taxes levied and collected by centre but distributed between centre and state. (article 270) Taxes on sale and purchase of in interstate trade and commerce do not form part of Consolidated Fund of India because these taxes are assigned to states after being appropriated by Centre (article 269)##Topic:Center-State Financial Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding agricultural schemes of Government of India: A National Mission on Oilseed and Oil Palm (NMOOP), being implemented during the XII Five Year Plan, envisages in increasing the production and productivity and bridge the gap between oilseed production and consumption. National Livestock Mission provides financial assistance for adopting modern technology and provide for focused extension support to the Animal Husbandry sector. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) covers Premium subsidy for small and marginal farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
National Livestock Mission and national Dairy Mission aims to make India leading producer in Milk and other livestock products. National Livestock Mission is rolled out during 2014-15. The salient features of National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) are as under: The scheme is voluntary for the States/UTs; Coverage of all food crops (cereals, millets & pulses), oilseeds and annual commercial/horticultural crops in respect of which past yield data is available for adequate number of years; Premium subsidy for small & marginal farmers; Financial liability except where actuarial premium is charged is shared between the Central and State Governments on 50:50 basis.
|
d
|
India Year Book 2015
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding agricultural schemes of Government of India: A National Mission on Oilseed and Oil Palm (NMOOP), being implemented during the XII Five Year Plan, envisages in increasing the production and productivity and bridge the gap between oilseed production and consumption. National Livestock Mission provides financial assistance for adopting modern technology and provide for focused extension support to the Animal Husbandry sector. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) covers Premium subsidy for small and marginal farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:National Livestock Mission and national Dairy Mission aims to make India leading producer in Milk and other livestock products. National Livestock Mission is rolled out during 2014-15. The salient features of National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) are as under: The scheme is voluntary for the States/UTs; Coverage of all food crops (cereals, millets & pulses), oilseeds and annual commercial/horticultural crops in respect of which past yield data is available for adequate number of years; Premium subsidy for small & marginal farmers; Financial liability except where actuarial premium is charged is shared between the Central and State Governments on 50:50 basis.##Topic:India Year Book 2015##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
lkskdnl
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
ld
|
a
|
Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
lkskdnl
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
ld
##Topic:Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
kddsn
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
kjs
|
a
|
GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
kddsn
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
kjs
##Topic:GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
The factors which impact appreciation of US dollar in Indian economy are? Inflation Limit on Indian Companies to invest overseas Trade imbalances with foreign countries Outflow of hot money from Indian market Mismatch of demand/supply in domestic market Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 3, 4 and 5
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
|
1, 3, 4 and 5
|
Statements 1 and 5 are logically same and impact the liquidity in Indian market and also consumer pattern which in turn affect values of dollars. Statement 2 is correct as more Indian companies invest outside countries, the value of $s in Indian market decrease. Statement 3 is also correct as higher exports and lesser imports depreciates/appreciates rupees. As when rupee is deprecated it positively impacts export while hit imports. Statement 5 is correct as outflow/inflow of money impacts liquidity in Indian markets and thus impacts value of $s.
|
c
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The factors which impact appreciation of US dollar in Indian economy are? Inflation Limit on Indian Companies to invest overseas Trade imbalances with foreign countries Outflow of hot money from Indian market Mismatch of demand/supply in domestic market Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 3, 4 and 5###Option_B: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5##Option_D: 1, 3, 4 and 5##Answer:c##Explaination:Statements 1 and 5 are logically same and impact the liquidity in Indian market and also consumer pattern which in turn affect values of dollars. Statement 2 is correct as more Indian companies invest outside countries, the value of $s in Indian market decrease. Statement 3 is also correct as higher exports and lesser imports depreciates/appreciates rupees. As when rupee is deprecated it positively impacts export while hit imports. Statement 5 is correct as outflow/inflow of money impacts liquidity in Indian markets and thus impacts value of $s.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to impact on art and architecture by Jainism and Buddhism in India, consider the following statements: 1. Jainism is richer in Ancient India than Buddhist art. 2. Buddhism contributed substantially in Medieval India as compared to Jainism. Which of the above is/are not correct?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; Both 1 and 2
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
Jain art is not as richer in Ancient India as Buddhist but it contributed substantially to art and architecture in medieval times in India.
|
c
|
Religious Reforms
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to impact on art and architecture by Jainism and Buddhism in India, consider the following statements: 1. Jainism is richer in Ancient India than Buddhist art. 2. Buddhism contributed substantially in Medieval India as compared to Jainism. Which of the above is/are not correct?##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only##Option_C:nbsp; Both 1 and 2##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Jain art is not as richer in Ancient India as Buddhist but it contributed substantially to art and architecture in medieval times in India.
##Topic:Religious Reforms##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
With reference to residential centers of learning in case of Buddhist Monasteries, consider the following statements: 1. Nalanda was situated in Bihar, in middle Ganga planes of north-east India. 2. Vikramshils was located in Taxila, in between Indus and Jhelum rivers. Which of the above is/are not correct?
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; Both 1 and 2
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct whie statement 2 is incorrect as Vikramshila was located in Valabhi(Gujrat)
|
b
|
Religious Reforms
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to residential centers of learning in case of Buddhist Monasteries, consider the following statements: 1. Nalanda was situated in Bihar, in middle Ganga planes of north-east India. 2. Vikramshils was located in Taxila, in between Indus and Jhelum rivers. Which of the above is/are not correct?##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only##Option_C:nbsp; Both 1 and 2##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct whie statement 2 is incorrect as Vikramshila was located in Valabhi(Gujrat)
##Topic:Religious Reforms##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 20 prohibits the state from enacting any type of ex-post-facto legislation.
2. Protection in respect of conviction of offenses provided by Article 22 does not apply to any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Article 20 prohibits the state from enacting any type of ex-post-facto legislation.
2. Protection in respect of conviction of offenses provided by Article 22 does not apply to any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the recently published World Migration Report 2020, consider the following statements 1. Social unrest and violence have been the major factors for international migration. 2. The United States of America is the top destination for migrants. 3. India is the largest country of origin of international migrants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
‘The World Migration Report 2020’ was recently published by the International Organization for Migration (IOM). IOM is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It was established in 1951 and is a related organization to the United Nations. Highlights from the report: A total of approx 3.5 percent of the world population has migrated to date, making a 0.1 percent increase from the last report published in 2017. The Total Number of Migrants in the year 2019 is estimated to be 270 million. 52 percent of international migrants were male; 48 percent were female. The United States remained as the top destination of the migrants with 51 million out of total estimated 270 million. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Two-thirds (around 164 million people) of the migrants migrated in search of a job. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 141 million, almost half of the international migrants are living in North America and Europe. India with a strong 17.5 million diaspora across the world, continues to be the largest country of origin of international migrants, followed by Mexico with 11.8 million and China with 10.7 million making the top three. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
b
|
Population, Migration, Settlements
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the recently published World Migration Report 2020, consider the following statements 1. Social unrest and violence have been the major factors for international migration. 2. The United States of America is the top destination for migrants. 3. India is the largest country of origin of international migrants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:‘The World Migration Report 2020’ was recently published by the International Organization for Migration (IOM). IOM is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It was established in 1951 and is a related organization to the United Nations. Highlights from the report: A total of approx 3.5 percent of the world population has migrated to date, making a 0.1 percent increase from the last report published in 2017. The Total Number of Migrants in the year 2019 is estimated to be 270 million. 52 percent of international migrants were male; 48 percent were female. The United States remained as the top destination of the migrants with 51 million out of total estimated 270 million. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Two-thirds (around 164 million people) of the migrants migrated in search of a job. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 141 million, almost half of the international migrants are living in North America and Europe. India with a strong 17.5 million diaspora across the world, continues to be the largest country of origin of international migrants, followed by Mexico with 11.8 million and China with 10.7 million making the top three. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Population, Migration, Settlements##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding suspension of fundamental rights: (1) Under article 358, Right to freedom of speech and expression automatically suspend if national emergency is proclaimed. (2) Under article 359, President is empowered to suspend operation of any fundamental right by a separate proclamation if national emergency is in operation. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Under article 358, fundamental rights under article 19 automatically suspend if national emergency proclaimed is external emergency i.e. it is proclaimed on the grounds of war or external aggression.
Under article 359, president by a separate proclamation can suspend operation of any fundamental right in case of national emergency except fundamental rights under article 20 and 21.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding suspension of fundamental rights: (1) Under article 358, Right to freedom of speech and expression automatically suspend if national emergency is proclaimed. (2) Under article 359, President is empowered to suspend operation of any fundamental right by a separate proclamation if national emergency is in operation. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:
Under article 358, fundamental rights under article 19 automatically suspend if national emergency proclaimed is external emergency i.e. it is proclaimed on the grounds of war or external aggression.
Under article 359, president by a separate proclamation can suspend operation of any fundamental right in case of national emergency except fundamental rights under article 20 and 21.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following resolution does not require majority of the total strength of the house to pass?
|
Resolution seeking removal of vice president
|
Resolution seeking removal of Supreme Court judge
|
Resolution seeking to enforce national emergency
|
Resolution seeking removal of vice president
|
Vice President is removed by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of People. Thus it requires effective majority, i.e. majority of the total strength excluding vacancies, in the Council of States and simple majority in the House of People.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following resolution does not require majority of the total strength of the house to pass?
##Option_A: Resolution seeking removal of vice president
###Option_B: Resolution seeking removal of Supreme Court judge
##Option_C: Resolution seeking to enforce national emergency
##Option_D: Resolution seeking removal of vice president
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Vice President is removed by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of People. Thus it requires effective majority, i.e. majority of the total strength excluding vacancies, in the Council of States and simple majority in the House of People.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following constitutional amendment bill will require ratification by at least one-half the States to come into effect under article 368?
1. Changing the manner of election of President
2. Changing the manner of appointment of Governor
3. Changing the manner of selection of Supreme Court Judge
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Under article 368 following amendments needs to be ratified by one-half of the States:
(1) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 dealing with election of President, executive power of state and centre and HCs in union territory
(2) Chapter IV of part V, chapter V of part VI and chapter I of part XI dealing with the union judiciary, high courts in the states and legislative relations between centre and states
(3) Seventh schedule
(4) Representation of states in parliament
(5) Changes in the article 368 itself
|
b
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following constitutional amendment bill will require ratification by at least one-half the States to come into effect under article 368?
1. Changing the manner of election of President
2. Changing the manner of appointment of Governor
3. Changing the manner of selection of Supreme Court Judge
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:Under article 368 following amendments needs to be ratified by one-half of the States:
(1) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 dealing with election of President, executive power of state and centre and HCs in union territory
(2) Chapter IV of part V, chapter V of part VI and chapter I of part XI dealing with the union judiciary, high courts in the states and legislative relations between centre and states
(3) Seventh schedule
(4) Representation of states in parliament
(5) Changes in the article 368 itself##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statement regarding Kushan rule in ancient India: Kanishka, the most famous Kushan ruler, started an era in A.D. 78, which is now known as Shaka era and is used by Government of India. Kushans were the first rulers in India to issue gold coins on a wide scale. Kushans introduced turban, tunic, trousers and heavy long coat in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Kanishka, the most famous Kushan ruler, started an era in A.D. 78, which is now known as Shaka era and is used by Government of India. Kushans were the first rulers in India to issue gold coins on a wide scale. As a result of Central Asian contacts, India received a good deal of Gold from the Altai Mountains in Central Asia. Kushan also controlled the silk route and thus received gold through trade with Roman Empire. Kushans introduced turban, tunic, trousers and heavy long coat in India. Even now Afghans and Punjabis wear turbans, and the sherwani is a successor of the long coat.
|
d
|
Early Medieval Period: North India and South India
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement regarding Kushan rule in ancient India: Kanishka, the most famous Kushan ruler, started an era in A.D. 78, which is now known as Shaka era and is used by Government of India. Kushans were the first rulers in India to issue gold coins on a wide scale. Kushans introduced turban, tunic, trousers and heavy long coat in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Kanishka, the most famous Kushan ruler, started an era in A.D. 78, which is now known as Shaka era and is used by Government of India. Kushans were the first rulers in India to issue gold coins on a wide scale. As a result of Central Asian contacts, India received a good deal of Gold from the Altai Mountains in Central Asia. Kushan also controlled the silk route and thus received gold through trade with Roman Empire. Kushans introduced turban, tunic, trousers and heavy long coat in India. Even now Afghans and Punjabis wear turbans, and the sherwani is a successor of the long coat.##Topic:Early Medieval Period: North India and South India##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
The Macro-Vulnerability Index (MVI) is used for calculating the Macro-Economic performance of the Country. Which of the following factors are used to determine MVI? Current Account Deficit. Fiscal Deficit. Primary Deficit. Inflation. Exchange Rate. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
Macro-Vulnerability Index uses: Current Account Deficit Fiscal Deficit Inflation for calculation of Macro-economic performance of a country. Option C.
|
c
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Macro-Vulnerability Index (MVI) is used for calculating the Macro-Economic performance of the Country. Which of the following factors are used to determine MVI? Current Account Deficit. Fiscal Deficit. Primary Deficit. Inflation. Exchange Rate. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 2, 4 and 5 only###Option_B: 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 2, 4 and 5 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Macro-Vulnerability Index uses: Current Account Deficit Fiscal Deficit Inflation for calculation of Macro-economic performance of a country. Option C.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Mitochondria and nucleus are the two organelles in the human cell which contain DNA. 2. In Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT), fertilization of the cell takes place only after the transfer of a nucleus from mother cell to donor cell Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Mitochondria and nucleus contain the DNA. Although mitochondria constitute very small % of the total genes i.e. only 37 genes but mutation in these genes can cause blindness, dementia or mental impairment. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Mitochondrial replacement therapy is the replacement of mitochondria in one or more cells to prevent or ameliorate disease. MRT originated as a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which some or all of the future baby's mitochondrial DNA comes from a third party. In Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT) the nucleus of the mother cell is transferred to the donor cell. The fertilization of the cell can take place before or after the transfer. This will help remove the mutated/ defective mitochondria of the mother and will replace it by the healthy one of the donor. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. This technique has run into troubled waters because of genes coming from 3 parents which might later lead to paternity law suit or demand in the property. Also, some orthodox religious factions are opposing such move as it is considered against the laws of nature. Also, the future effects of this procedure can’t be predicted. Testing on animals has been completed but the clinical trials on humans have not been given a green flag.
|
a
|
Health Technology
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Mitochondria and nucleus are the two organelles in the human cell which contain DNA. 2. In Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT), fertilization of the cell takes place only after the transfer of a nucleus from mother cell to donor cell Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Mitochondria and nucleus contain the DNA. Although mitochondria constitute very small % of the total genes i.e. only 37 genes but mutation in these genes can cause blindness, dementia or mental impairment. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Mitochondrial replacement therapy is the replacement of mitochondria in one or more cells to prevent or ameliorate disease. MRT originated as a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which some or all of the future baby's mitochondrial DNA comes from a third party. In Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT) the nucleus of the mother cell is transferred to the donor cell. The fertilization of the cell can take place before or after the transfer. This will help remove the mutated/ defective mitochondria of the mother and will replace it by the healthy one of the donor. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. This technique has run into troubled waters because of genes coming from 3 parents which might later lead to paternity law suit or demand in the property. Also, some orthodox religious factions are opposing such move as it is considered against the laws of nature. Also, the future effects of this procedure can’t be predicted. Testing on animals has been completed but the clinical trials on humans have not been given a green flag. ##Topic:Health Technology##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
The working class of India had to face the imperialist political rule and economic exploitation from both, foreign and native capital classes. The Indian Nationalist did support them but this support took its own course. The reasons for this could have been: The early moderates were indifferent to labour"s cause. They did not want a division in the national movement on the basis of classes. They did support the Factory Acts of 1881 and 1891for above reasons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 3 is incorrect as moderates did support factories acts. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
|
a
|
GS_History_unclassified
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The working class of India had to face the imperialist political rule and economic exploitation from both, foreign and native capital classes. The Indian Nationalist did support them but this support took its own course. The reasons for this could have been: The early moderates were indifferent to labour"s cause. They did not want a division in the national movement on the basis of classes. They did support the Factory Acts of 1881 and 1891for above reasons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 3 is incorrect as moderates did support factories acts. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.##Topic:GS_History_unclassified##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of the following factors affect the growth and development?
Incremental Capital Output Ratio.
Investment.
Marketable surplus of agriculture.
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) is a concept that assesses the marginal amount of investment capital necessary for an entity to generate the next unit of production.
Investment is directly related to growth and investment and Surplus is the amount of product that a company manufactures or produces in excess of what is necessary to continue operations. Marketable surplus is a term that agriculturalists use to refer to a specific type of surplus that farmers deal with. Increasing agricultural production loses its significance in relation national economy unless it is accompanied by an increase in marketable surplus of agricultural production. So all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following factors affect the growth and development?
Incremental Capital Output Ratio.
Investment.
Marketable surplus of agriculture.
##Option_A: Only 1 and 2
###Option_B: Only 1 and 3
##Option_C: Only 2 and 3
##Option_D: Only 1 and 2
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) is a concept that assesses the marginal amount of investment capital necessary for an entity to generate the next unit of production.
Investment is directly related to growth and investment and Surplus is the amount of product that a company manufactures or produces in excess of what is necessary to continue operations. Marketable surplus is a term that agriculturalists use to refer to a specific type of surplus that farmers deal with. Increasing agricultural production loses its significance in relation national economy unless it is accompanied by an increase in marketable surplus of agricultural production. So all the statements are correct.
##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Q18: Consider the following statements about the Estimates Committee of Parliament,
|
nbsp; Consists of 30 members of Lok Sabha
|
nbsp; Members of the committee are elected from lok sabha by the method of single transferable vote system of proportional representation.
|
nbsp; Its term is of 1 year
|
nbsp; Consists of 30 members of Lok Sabha
|
Statement 4 is incorrect as authorisation is done only by Parliament.
All others are correct statements.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q18: Consider the following statements about the Estimates Committee of Parliament,
##Option_A:nbsp; Consists of 30 members of Lok Sabha
###Option_B:nbsp; Members of the committee are elected from lok sabha by the method of single transferable vote system of proportional representation.
##Option_C:nbsp; Its term is of 1 year
##Option_D:nbsp; Consists of 30 members of Lok Sabha
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 4 is incorrect as authorisation is done only by Parliament.
All others are correct statements.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
It is headed by the Union Law minister.
To organize Lok Adalats for speedy resolution of the cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Neither 1 nor 2
|
1 only
|
NALSA is headed by Chief Justice of India.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
It is headed by the Union Law minister.
To organize Lok Adalats for speedy resolution of the cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
NALSA is headed by Chief Justice of India.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Q20: In the case of Union Territory of Delhi, having a legislative setup, consider the following statements:
1. The assembly can make laws on all the matters of State List and Concurrent List except the three matters of State List, that is, public order, police and land.
2. The strength of the council of ministers is fixed which is 10% of total strength of the assembly.
3. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of Lieutenant Governor.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1,2 and 3
|
nbsp; 2 and 3
|
nbsp; 1 and 2
|
nbsp; 1,2 and 3
|
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect as ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q20: In the case of Union Territory of Delhi, having a legislative setup, consider the following statements:
1. The assembly can make laws on all the matters of State List and Concurrent List except the three matters of State List, that is, public order, police and land.
2. The strength of the council of ministers is fixed which is 10% of total strength of the assembly.
3. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of Lieutenant Governor.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1,2 and 3
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 and 3
##Option_C:nbsp; 1 and 2
##Option_D:nbsp; 1,2 and 3
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect as ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements. 1. The phrase ‘due process of law’ means that Judges can question the fairness and validity of the law passed by the legislatures. 2. The phrase ‘procedure established by law’ means that Judges can question the validity of law only if it violates the provisions of law. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
both the statements are correct
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Consider the following statements. 1. The phrase ‘due process of law’ means that Judges can question the fairness and validity of the law passed by the legislatures. 2. The phrase ‘procedure established by law’ means that Judges can question the validity of law only if it violates the provisions of law. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
both the statements are correct
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Nehru"s report:
It rejected separate electorates.
It demanded Dominion status for India
Muslim league rejected the report
Hindu Mahasabha accepted the report
Which of the above statements is true?
|
1 and 2
|
1,2 and 3
|
1,3 and 4
|
1 and 2
|
Muslim league wanted more (as seen in Delhi proposal) and Hindu mahasabha vehemently opposed to propsal of reservation of seats
|
b
|
Nehru Report, 1928
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Nehru"s report:
It rejected separate electorates.
It demanded Dominion status for India
Muslim league rejected the report
Hindu Mahasabha accepted the report
Which of the above statements is true?##Option_A:1 and 2###Option_B: 1,2 and 3##Option_C:1,3 and 4##Option_D:1 and 2##Answer:b##Explaination:Muslim league wanted more (as seen in Delhi proposal) and Hindu mahasabha vehemently opposed to propsal of reservation of seats##Topic:Nehru Report, 1928##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The union territory of Puducherry has enclaves in which of the following states of India? 1. Karnataka 2. Andhra pradesh 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Kerala Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Puducherry is the only Union Terrirtory spread in three states. Puducherry and karaikal is situated in Tamil Nadu , Yanam is situated in Andhra Pradesh and Mahe is situated in Kerala
|
c
|
Location: Latitude, Longitude
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The union territory of Puducherry has enclaves in which of the following states of India? 1. Karnataka 2. Andhra pradesh 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Kerala Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 4 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Puducherry is the only Union Terrirtory spread in three states. Puducherry and karaikal is situated in Tamil Nadu , Yanam is situated in Andhra Pradesh and Mahe is situated in Kerala##Topic:Location: Latitude, Longitude##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Standard Meridian of India and Indian Standard Time(IST): 1. Standard Meridian of India passes through six states. 2. The IST is also shared by neighboring Sri Lanka. 3. Recently the Government has formally accepted the Chaibagaan Time only for Assam which is an hour ahead of IST. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Standard Meridian of India which is 82°30′ East longitude passes through five states- Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh . Hence statement 1 is not correct. The standard meridian of India is 82.5 degrees east of the Greenwich Meridian. This meridian passes through the city of Allahabad . In 1905, this longitude was selected as the meridian to create the Indian Standard Time. After India became independent in August 1947, there were three separate time zones in India until 1955. As of 2014, the whole of India follows the time set on 82.5 degrees east. The Sri Lanka Time reverted on 15 April 2006 to match Indian Standard Time calculated from the Allahabad Observatory in India 82.5 ° longitude East of Greenwich, the reference point for GMT. Hence statement 2 is correct Chai Bagaan time or tea time is a reference to an informal practice followed in tea gardens in Assam which is an hour ahead of IST. It has not been accepted formally by the Government till time. Hence statement 3 is not correct. In 2017 the Gauhati High Court dismissed a public interest litigation filed by Rita Mozumder seeking a direction from the Central government to notify a separate time zone for the Northeast.
|
b
|
Location: Latitude, Longitude
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Standard Meridian of India and Indian Standard Time(IST): 1. Standard Meridian of India passes through six states. 2. The IST is also shared by neighboring Sri Lanka. 3. Recently the Government has formally accepted the Chaibagaan Time only for Assam which is an hour ahead of IST. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Standard Meridian of India which is 82°30′ East longitude passes through five states- Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh . Hence statement 1 is not correct. The standard meridian of India is 82.5 degrees east of the Greenwich Meridian. This meridian passes through the city of Allahabad . In 1905, this longitude was selected as the meridian to create the Indian Standard Time. After India became independent in August 1947, there were three separate time zones in India until 1955. As of 2014, the whole of India follows the time set on 82.5 degrees east. The Sri Lanka Time reverted on 15 April 2006 to match Indian Standard Time calculated from the Allahabad Observatory in India 82.5 ° longitude East of Greenwich, the reference point for GMT. Hence statement 2 is correct Chai Bagaan time or tea time is a reference to an informal practice followed in tea gardens in Assam which is an hour ahead of IST. It has not been accepted formally by the Government till time. Hence statement 3 is not correct. In 2017 the Gauhati High Court dismissed a public interest litigation filed by Rita Mozumder seeking a direction from the Central government to notify a separate time zone for the Northeast. ##Topic:Location: Latitude, Longitude##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: In a normal fault, hanging wall is above the foot wall. In a reverse fault, hanging wall is below the foot wall. Which of the following is true?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Normal fault See the block farthest to the right that is shaped kind of like a foot? That"s the foot wall . Now look at the block on the other side of the fault. See how it"s resting or hanging on top of the foot wall block? That"s the hanging wall . Now, consider this: if we hold the foot wall stationary, gravity will normally want to pull the hanging wall down, right? Faults that move the way you would expect gravity to move them normally are called normal faults ! A reverse fault. Click on diagram to see labels. Reverse fault Compare this image with the normal fault above. Along a reverse fault one rocky block is pushed up relative to rock on the other side. See the foot-shaped foot wall and the hanging wall resting or hanging above it. Think about this: if we hold the foot wall stationary, where would the hanging wall go if we reversed gravity? The hanging wall will slide upwards, right? When movement along a fault is the reverse of what you would expect with normal gravity we call them reverse faults !
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: In a normal fault, hanging wall is above the foot wall. In a reverse fault, hanging wall is below the foot wall. Which of the following is true?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Normal fault See the block farthest to the right that is shaped kind of like a foot? That"s the foot wall . Now look at the block on the other side of the fault. See how it"s resting or hanging on top of the foot wall block? That"s the hanging wall . Now, consider this: if we hold the foot wall stationary, gravity will normally want to pull the hanging wall down, right? Faults that move the way you would expect gravity to move them normally are called normal faults ! A reverse fault. Click on diagram to see labels. Reverse fault Compare this image with the normal fault above. Along a reverse fault one rocky block is pushed up relative to rock on the other side. See the foot-shaped foot wall and the hanging wall resting or hanging above it. Think about this: if we hold the foot wall stationary, where would the hanging wall go if we reversed gravity? The hanging wall will slide upwards, right? When movement along a fault is the reverse of what you would expect with normal gravity we call them reverse faults ! ##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Trade winds and Westerlies are the surface winds that originate from
|
Equatorial low belt
|
Sub-tropical high belt
|
Sub-polar low belt
|
Equatorial low belt
|
nan
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Trade winds and Westerlies are the surface winds that originate from##Option_A: Equatorial low belt###Option_B: Sub-tropical high belt##Option_C: Sub-polar low belt##Option_D: Equatorial low belt##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
This year Bharat Ratna was awarded to former PM AB Bajpayee. Consider the following facts about Bharat Ratna.
1. The award does not carry any monetary grant.
2. The award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name.
Which of the following is true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. none
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Both statements are facts.
|
c
|
Nationally Acclaimed
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
This year Bharat Ratna was awarded to former PM AB Bajpayee. Consider the following facts about Bharat Ratna.
1. The award does not carry any monetary grant.
2. The award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name.
Which of the following is true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. none
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Both statements are facts.
##Topic:Nationally Acclaimed##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched?
1. GREEN BOX subsidy
Subsidies that disturb Trade balance.
2. BLUE BOX subsidy
Subsidies that aims to limit production.
3. AMBER BOX subsidy
Subsidies that don’t disturb Trade balance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by "boxes" which are given the colours of traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down - i.e be reduced), red (forbidden). In agriculture, things are, as usual, more complicated. The Agriculture Agreement has no red box, although domestic support exceeding the reduction commitment levels in the amber box is prohibited; and there is a blue box for subsidies that are tied to programmes that limit production. The 'amber box' For agriculture, all domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade (with some exceptions) fall into the amber box. The 'green box' In order to qualify for the "green box", a subsidy must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion . These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support. The 'blue box' The blue box is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal ("de minimis") levels. It covers payments directly linked to acreage or animal numbers, but under schemes which also limit production by imposing production quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their land. Countries using these subsidies - and there are only a handful - say they distort trade less than alternative amber box subsidies. Currently, the only members notifying the WTO that they are using or have used the blue box are: the EU, Iceland, Norway, Japan, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and the US (now no longer using the box).
|
c
|
Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched?
1. GREEN BOX subsidy
Subsidies that disturb Trade balance.
2. BLUE BOX subsidy
Subsidies that aims to limit production.
3. AMBER BOX subsidy
Subsidies that don’t disturb Trade balance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by "boxes" which are given the colours of traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down - i.e be reduced), red (forbidden). In agriculture, things are, as usual, more complicated. The Agriculture Agreement has no red box, although domestic support exceeding the reduction commitment levels in the amber box is prohibited; and there is a blue box for subsidies that are tied to programmes that limit production. The 'amber box' For agriculture, all domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade (with some exceptions) fall into the amber box. The 'green box' In order to qualify for the "green box", a subsidy must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion . These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support. The 'blue box' The blue box is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal ("de minimis") levels. It covers payments directly linked to acreage or animal numbers, but under schemes which also limit production by imposing production quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their land. Countries using these subsidies - and there are only a handful - say they distort trade less than alternative amber box subsidies. Currently, the only members notifying the WTO that they are using or have used the blue box are: the EU, Iceland, Norway, Japan, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and the US (now no longer using the box).##Topic:Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following provisions of the constitution has a bearing on the rights of Disabled persons:
|
Fundamental Rights
|
undamental Duties.
|
Directive Principles of state policy
|
Fundamental Rights
|
The mandate of the constitution is to ensure equality, freedom ,justics and dignity of all individuals,which implies an inclusive society especially for the disadvantaged.
Article 41( DPSP) is particularly relevant with regard to disabled persons. It states that the state shall within the limits of its economic capacity and development,make effective provisions for securing Right to Work,to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement.
The subject of relief of the disabled and unemployable is specified in List 2 of the seventh Schedule.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions of the constitution has a bearing on the rights of Disabled persons:##Option_A:Fundamental Rights###Option_B:undamental Duties.##Option_C:Directive Principles of state policy##Option_D:Fundamental Rights##Answer:c##Explaination:
The mandate of the constitution is to ensure equality, freedom ,justics and dignity of all individuals,which implies an inclusive society especially for the disadvantaged.
Article 41( DPSP) is particularly relevant with regard to disabled persons. It states that the state shall within the limits of its economic capacity and development,make effective provisions for securing Right to Work,to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement.
The subject of relief of the disabled and unemployable is specified in List 2 of the seventh Schedule.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
GDP of a country is measured by:
|
Taking into account all final expenditures in the economy
|
Sum of factor income
|
Sum of all the final goods and services produced by factors of production located in the country
|
Taking into account all final expenditures in the economy
|
By all the measures we can count the GDP of a country.
|
d
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:GDP of a country is measured by:##Option_A: Taking into account all final expenditures in the economy###Option_B: Sum of factor income##Option_C: Sum of all the final goods and services produced by factors of production located in the country##Option_D: Taking into account all final expenditures in the economy##Answer:d##Explaination:By all the measures we can count the GDP of a country.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.