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Consider the following statements regarding Dear Money Policy: RBI raises the Bank Rate. Commercial banks can get the money at the higher rate of interest. RBI starts raising the CRR and sells the securities to Commercial Banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
A situation in which money or loans are very difficult to obtain in a given country is called as dear money policy for that country this also known as "tight money". Here all the three statements are related to dear money policy.
|
c
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Dear Money Policy: RBI raises the Bank Rate. Commercial banks can get the money at the higher rate of interest. RBI starts raising the CRR and sells the securities to Commercial Banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:A situation in which money or loans are very difficult to obtain in a given country is called as dear money policy for that country this also known as "tight money". Here all the three statements are related to dear money policy.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: 1. M-Cap - It is the market value of shares of a company that are available for the sale and purchase in the market. 2. BULL- Those investors who sell shares at higher prices and after sometime buy the shares at low prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Market capitalization is calculated by multiplying a company's shares outstanding by the current market price of one share. The investment community uses this figure to determine a company's size, as opposed to sales or total asset figures, frequently referred to as market cap or M-Cap. In share market bulls and bears are in constant struggle, lets learn about these terms, The Bulls: A bull market is when everything in the economy is great, people are finding jobs, gross domestic product (GDP) is growing, and stocks are rising. Picking stocks during a bull market is easier because everything is going up. Bull markets cannot last forever though, and sometimes they can lead to dangerous situations if stocks become overvalued. If a person is optimistic and believes that stocks will go up, he or she is called a "bull" and is said to have a "bullish outlook". The Bears: A bear market is when the economy is bad, recession is looming and stock prices are falling. Bear markets make it tough for investors to pick profitable stocks. One solution to this is to make money when stocks are falling using a technique called short selling. Another strategy is to wait on the sidelines until you feel that the bear market is nearing its end, only starting to buy in anticipation of a bull market. If a person is pessimistic, believing that stocks are going to drop, he or she is called a "bear" and said to have a "bearish outlook".So here both the statements are wrong.
|
d
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. M-Cap - It is the market value of shares of a company that are available for the sale and purchase in the market. 2. BULL- Those investors who sell shares at higher prices and after sometime buy the shares at low prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Market capitalization is calculated by multiplying a company's shares outstanding by the current market price of one share. The investment community uses this figure to determine a company's size, as opposed to sales or total asset figures, frequently referred to as market cap or M-Cap. In share market bulls and bears are in constant struggle, lets learn about these terms, The Bulls: A bull market is when everything in the economy is great, people are finding jobs, gross domestic product (GDP) is growing, and stocks are rising. Picking stocks during a bull market is easier because everything is going up. Bull markets cannot last forever though, and sometimes they can lead to dangerous situations if stocks become overvalued. If a person is optimistic and believes that stocks will go up, he or she is called a "bull" and is said to have a "bullish outlook". The Bears: A bear market is when the economy is bad, recession is looming and stock prices are falling. Bear markets make it tough for investors to pick profitable stocks. One solution to this is to make money when stocks are falling using a technique called short selling. Another strategy is to wait on the sidelines until you feel that the bear market is nearing its end, only starting to buy in anticipation of a bull market. If a person is pessimistic, believing that stocks are going to drop, he or she is called a "bear" and said to have a "bearish outlook".So here both the statements are wrong.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following are correctly matched? 1. Zonal Council Constitutional body formed by the Sixth Amendment in 1956 2. NITI Ayog Statutory body 3. Cooperative Society Constitutional body 4. Administrative Tribunals Constitutional status under an Article of Constitution Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Zonal Councils are statutory body formed under the State Reorganization Act of 1956. NITI Ayog is an executive body formed by an executive order. Forming Cooperative society is a fundamental right under Article 19(1) (c) of constitution. Further 97th constitutional amendment provided for Part- IXB related to cooperative society.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are correctly matched? 1. Zonal Council Constitutional body formed by the Sixth Amendment in 1956 2. NITI Ayog Statutory body 3. Cooperative Society Constitutional body 4. Administrative Tribunals Constitutional status under an Article of Constitution Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Zonal Councils are statutory body formed under the State Reorganization Act of 1956. NITI Ayog is an executive body formed by an executive order. Forming Cooperative society is a fundamental right under Article 19(1) (c) of constitution. Further 97th constitutional amendment provided for Part- IXB related to cooperative society.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
Promotion of International peace and security is a part of the Directive Principle of State Policy.
Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties under Article-253 of Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Article 51, DPSP which talks about promotion of International Peace and Security. so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Promotion of International peace and security is a part of the Directive Principle of State Policy.
Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties under Article-253 of Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:Article 51, DPSP which talks about promotion of International Peace and Security. so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Penal Code of Jammu & Kashmir. IPC (Indian Penal code) is applicable in J&K while CrPC (Criminal Procedure Code) is not applicable. Any offence under Ranbir Panel code cannot be tried by a high court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The state of Jammu & Kashmir has its own Criminal code and civil code. IPC, CrPC and CPC are applicable to whole of India except J&K. On the lines of IPC, the state has Ranbir Panel code. It also has Jammu & Kashmir code of criminal procedure, 1989 and Jammu & Kashmir code of civil procedure,1977. In Mohan Singh Parihar vs commissioner of police and others, it was stated that any offence under the Ranbir Panel Code may be tried by High court, or by session court or by any other court by which such offence is shown to be triable.
|
d
|
Emergency Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Penal Code of Jammu & Kashmir. IPC (Indian Penal code) is applicable in J&K while CrPC (Criminal Procedure Code) is not applicable. Any offence under Ranbir Panel code cannot be tried by a high court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The state of Jammu & Kashmir has its own Criminal code and civil code. IPC, CrPC and CPC are applicable to whole of India except J&K. On the lines of IPC, the state has Ranbir Panel code. It also has Jammu & Kashmir code of criminal procedure, 1989 and Jammu & Kashmir code of civil procedure,1977. In Mohan Singh Parihar vs commissioner of police and others, it was stated that any offence under the Ranbir Panel Code may be tried by High court, or by session court or by any other court by which such offence is shown to be triable.##Topic:Emergency Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Brihadeshwara Temple:
It was built during the time of Pallava dynasty and is a Hindu temple dedicated to lord Vishnu.
It is a part of UNESCO World Heritage Site
Chariot (car) festival is held annually to commemorate the birth of lord Vishnu in this temple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Brihadeshwara temple is located in Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu. It was built by Raja Raja I of Chola dynasty. It is a hindu temple dedicated to lord Shiva. It is a marvelous example of Dravidian style of temple architecture.
The temple is a part of UNESCO world Heritage Site known as Great Living Chola Temples. It is currently 1005 yrs old.
After more than a century, Big temple car festival was organized in april 2005. In this festival, temple architecture was built on a chariot and the idols were mounted on it. The procession was taken out through whole of the city, in which thousands of devotees participated.
|
c
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Brihadeshwara Temple:
It was built during the time of Pallava dynasty and is a Hindu temple dedicated to lord Vishnu.
It is a part of UNESCO World Heritage Site
Chariot (car) festival is held annually to commemorate the birth of lord Vishnu in this temple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Brihadeshwara temple is located in Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu. It was built by Raja Raja I of Chola dynasty. It is a hindu temple dedicated to lord Shiva. It is a marvelous example of Dravidian style of temple architecture.
The temple is a part of UNESCO world Heritage Site known as Great Living Chola Temples. It is currently 1005 yrs old.
After more than a century, Big temple car festival was organized in april 2005. In this festival, temple architecture was built on a chariot and the idols were mounted on it. The procession was taken out through whole of the city, in which thousands of devotees participated.
##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Regarding the 'Basic Structure' doctrine of the Constitution pronounced by the Supreme Court, which of the following hold true:-
1. All Parliamentary laws should at least conform to it.
2. Fundamental Rights are one of its features.
3. It restricts constituent power of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer -
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Basic structure doctrine does not apply to ordinary laws. They must conform to the entire constitution, not just the basic features. It applies only to constitutional amendments, which should not alter the basic structure of the constitution while amending it.
Fundamental Rights can be abridged by the Parliament, and even the 'Golden Triangle' of Art 14, 19 and 21 could be amended if substantial public interest is being served. The balance between FRs and DPSPs is a basic feature, not FRs individually.
The basic structure doctrine restricts the Parliament to amend some sacrosanct features of the constitution, which are 'embedded' and cannot be diluted ( KB case ).
|
c
|
bills in news
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Regarding the 'Basic Structure' doctrine of the Constitution pronounced by the Supreme Court, which of the following hold true:-
1. All Parliamentary laws should at least conform to it.
2. Fundamental Rights are one of its features.
3. It restricts constituent power of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer -
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Basic structure doctrine does not apply to ordinary laws. They must conform to the entire constitution, not just the basic features. It applies only to constitutional amendments, which should not alter the basic structure of the constitution while amending it.
Fundamental Rights can be abridged by the Parliament, and even the 'Golden Triangle' of Art 14, 19 and 21 could be amended if substantial public interest is being served. The balance between FRs and DPSPs is a basic feature, not FRs individually.
The basic structure doctrine restricts the Parliament to amend some sacrosanct features of the constitution, which are 'embedded' and cannot be diluted ( KB case ).
##Topic:bills in news##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Type of Stupa Purpose 1. Vedika Commemorate Spots and events of religious significance. 2. Saririka Enshrine the Body Relics Of Buddha. 3. Paribhogika Enshrine the Personal effects of Buddha and Buddhist Saints. 4. Uddesika To spread the missionary activities of Buddhist monks. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Stupas were of three types and built either to enshrine the body-relics( saririka) or the personal effects ( paribhogika) of Buddha and Buddhist saints or to commemorate spots and events of religious significance (Uddesika)
Vedika is not a type of Stupa but instead it is term to describe the Railing surrounding the Stupa.
|
b
|
Religion and Philosophy
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Type of Stupa Purpose 1. Vedika Commemorate Spots and events of religious significance. 2. Saririka Enshrine the Body Relics Of Buddha. 3. Paribhogika Enshrine the Personal effects of Buddha and Buddhist Saints. 4. Uddesika To spread the missionary activities of Buddhist monks. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Stupas were of three types and built either to enshrine the body-relics( saririka) or the personal effects ( paribhogika) of Buddha and Buddhist saints or to commemorate spots and events of religious significance (Uddesika)
Vedika is not a type of Stupa but instead it is term to describe the Railing surrounding the Stupa.
##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements with respect to Barabar cut-caves is correct? They were excavated for the recluses of the Ajivika sect. All these caves bear the distinctive Mauryan polish and Mauryan Inscriptions. These caves are attributable to Ashoka and his son Mahendra. Remarkable examples of the Barabar caves are the Sudama and Lomas Rishi caves. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The earliest examples of rock cut caves are attributable to Ashoka and his Grandson Dasratha both of whom excavated a group of seven caves at the Barabar and Nagarjuna hills in Gaya district of Bihar. All of them bear the Mauryan polish. Mauryan Inscriptions are found in all except the Lomar Rishi caves. Remarkable examples of the Barabar cut caves are the Sudama and the Lomar Rishi Cave.
|
b
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements with respect to Barabar cut-caves is correct? They were excavated for the recluses of the Ajivika sect. All these caves bear the distinctive Mauryan polish and Mauryan Inscriptions. These caves are attributable to Ashoka and his son Mahendra. Remarkable examples of the Barabar caves are the Sudama and Lomas Rishi caves. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 4 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The earliest examples of rock cut caves are attributable to Ashoka and his Grandson Dasratha both of whom excavated a group of seven caves at the Barabar and Nagarjuna hills in Gaya district of Bihar. All of them bear the Mauryan polish. Mauryan Inscriptions are found in all except the Lomar Rishi caves. Remarkable examples of the Barabar cut caves are the Sudama and the Lomar Rishi Cave.##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
With reference to Fresco and Mural Paintings consider the following statements: Murals are pictures that have been painted directly onto the surface of a wall, while frescoes are pictures that are bound to the wall by applying pigments directly onto wet plaster. Frescos are easier and quicker to paint while Murals are quite hard to do. Details can be removed and added in Murals at any time whereas no changes can be made in a Fresco painting. Restoration in Murals is easier in comparison to Fresco Which of the above mentioned statements is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Murals are pictures that have been painted "directly" onto the surface of a wall, while frescoes are pictures that are "bound" to the wall by applying pigments - typically made from sand or ground-up stone - directly onto fresh or wet plaster. Murals are easier and quicker to paint, and the details can be removed or added at any time. Frescoes are quite hard to do.The major benefit of frescoes over murals is that it is possible to remove the artwork from the wall and convey it to another location - especially if you plan to relocate or remodel your home. Fresco paintings actually become a part of the wall, which makes very old fresco paintings easy to restore in comparison to murals. In India, the paintings at Ajanta are an example of Frescos.
|
c
|
Paintings
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Fresco and Mural Paintings consider the following statements: Murals are pictures that have been painted directly onto the surface of a wall, while frescoes are pictures that are bound to the wall by applying pigments directly onto wet plaster. Frescos are easier and quicker to paint while Murals are quite hard to do. Details can be removed and added in Murals at any time whereas no changes can be made in a Fresco painting. Restoration in Murals is easier in comparison to Fresco Which of the above mentioned statements is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Murals are pictures that have been painted "directly" onto the surface of a wall, while frescoes are pictures that are "bound" to the wall by applying pigments - typically made from sand or ground-up stone - directly onto fresh or wet plaster. Murals are easier and quicker to paint, and the details can be removed or added at any time. Frescoes are quite hard to do.The major benefit of frescoes over murals is that it is possible to remove the artwork from the wall and convey it to another location - especially if you plan to relocate or remodel your home. Fresco paintings actually become a part of the wall, which makes very old fresco paintings easy to restore in comparison to murals. In India, the paintings at Ajanta are an example of Frescos.##Topic:Paintings##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements in reference to Bhangas or dance poses in the Indian Classical dance is correct? Bhangas are derivations of the body from the central erect position. They are mentioned in the Abhinaya Darpana and the Natya Shastra. Bhangas are of four kinds, namely, Abhanga, Dvibhanga , Tribhanga and Chaturbhanga. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The ideal postures of the body in movement are based upon these Bhangas or bend which represent the change of the body from the central straight line. Bhanga is the basis of Bhangi (gait). Bhangas are not mentioned in either of the two authorities and encyclopedias of dancing viz, Abhinaya Darpana and Natya Shastra. The conception of bends is found in the Shilpa shastra. Bhangas are of 4 kinds: Abhanga (slight flexion): Standing gracefully with the weight of the body placed on one leg. Samabhanga (equipose): Gracious pose of standing or seating in equipose. Atibhanga (excessive flexion): Dramatic dance forms called Tandava. Tribhanga (three flexions): One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved a waist and neck.
|
a
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements in reference to Bhangas or dance poses in the Indian Classical dance is correct? Bhangas are derivations of the body from the central erect position. They are mentioned in the Abhinaya Darpana and the Natya Shastra. Bhangas are of four kinds, namely, Abhanga, Dvibhanga , Tribhanga and Chaturbhanga. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The ideal postures of the body in movement are based upon these Bhangas or bend which represent the change of the body from the central straight line. Bhanga is the basis of Bhangi (gait). Bhangas are not mentioned in either of the two authorities and encyclopedias of dancing viz, Abhinaya Darpana and Natya Shastra. The conception of bends is found in the Shilpa shastra. Bhangas are of 4 kinds: Abhanga (slight flexion): Standing gracefully with the weight of the body placed on one leg. Samabhanga (equipose): Gracious pose of standing or seating in equipose. Atibhanga (excessive flexion): Dramatic dance forms called Tandava. Tribhanga (three flexions): One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved a waist and neck.##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Match the following:
1. Samkhya
(a) Salvation through self realization
2. Yoga
(b) Salvation through meditation
3. Nyaya
(c) Salvation through acquisition of real knowledge
4. Vaisheshika
(d) Salvation through Vedic sacrifices
5. Mimamsa
(e) Propounded the Atom Theory
6. Vedanta
(f) Introduced systematic thinking and Reasoning
Select the correct code:
|
1-c, 2-b, 3-f, 4-e, 5-d, 6-a
|
1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
|
1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d, 5-f, 6-e
|
1-c, 2-b, 3-f, 4-e, 5-d, 6-a
|
Samkhya literally means count. According to the Samkhya philosophy a person can attain salvation through the acquisition of real knowledge and his misery can be ended forever. This knowledge can be acquired through perception inference and hearing.
Yoga: According to this school a person can attain salvation through meditation and physical application.Practice of control over pleasure, senses and bodily organs is central to this system.
Nyaya: Also known as the school of analysis was developed as a system of logic.the stress laid on logic influenced Indian scholars who took to systematic thinking and reasoning.
Vaisheshika: This school propounded the Atom theory. According to it,material objects are made up of atoms.
Mimamsa: Literally means the art of reasoning and interpretation. According to this,the vedas contain the eterrnal truth. The princcipal objective of this philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. To attain salvation mimamsa strongly recommended the performance of vedic sacrifices.
Vedanta: According to it ,Brahma is real and everything else is unreal. Salvation is attained through self realization.
|
a
|
Religion and Philosophy
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match the following:
1. Samkhya
(a) Salvation through self realization
2. Yoga
(b) Salvation through meditation
3. Nyaya
(c) Salvation through acquisition of real knowledge
4. Vaisheshika
(d) Salvation through Vedic sacrifices
5. Mimamsa
(e) Propounded the Atom Theory
6. Vedanta
(f) Introduced systematic thinking and Reasoning
Select the correct code:
##Option_A: 1-c, 2-b, 3-f, 4-e, 5-d, 6-a
###Option_B: 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
##Option_C: 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d, 5-f, 6-e
##Option_D: 1-c, 2-b, 3-f, 4-e, 5-d, 6-a
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Samkhya literally means count. According to the Samkhya philosophy a person can attain salvation through the acquisition of real knowledge and his misery can be ended forever. This knowledge can be acquired through perception inference and hearing.
Yoga: According to this school a person can attain salvation through meditation and physical application.Practice of control over pleasure, senses and bodily organs is central to this system.
Nyaya: Also known as the school of analysis was developed as a system of logic.the stress laid on logic influenced Indian scholars who took to systematic thinking and reasoning.
Vaisheshika: This school propounded the Atom theory. According to it,material objects are made up of atoms.
Mimamsa: Literally means the art of reasoning and interpretation. According to this,the vedas contain the eterrnal truth. The princcipal objective of this philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. To attain salvation mimamsa strongly recommended the performance of vedic sacrifices.
Vedanta: According to it ,Brahma is real and everything else is unreal. Salvation is attained through self realization.
##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following dance poses are correctly matched? 1. Abhanga : Gracious pose of standing or seating in equipose. 2. Sambhanga : Standing gracefully with the weight of the body placed on one leg. 3. Tribhanga : One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved a waist and neck. 4. Atibhanga : Great bend with torso diagonally inclined and knees bent. Select the correct code:
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Bhangas are of 4 kinds: Abhanga (slight flexion): Standing gracefully with the weight of the body placed on one leg. Samabhanga (equipose): Gracious pose of standing or seating in equipose. Atibhanga (excessive flexion): Dramatic dance forms called Tandava. Tribhanga (three flexions): One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved a waist and neck.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following dance poses are correctly matched? 1. Abhanga : Gracious pose of standing or seating in equipose. 2. Sambhanga : Standing gracefully with the weight of the body placed on one leg. 3. Tribhanga : One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved a waist and neck. 4. Atibhanga : Great bend with torso diagonally inclined and knees bent. Select the correct code:##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Bhangas are of 4 kinds: Abhanga (slight flexion): Standing gracefully with the weight of the body placed on one leg. Samabhanga (equipose): Gracious pose of standing or seating in equipose. Atibhanga (excessive flexion): Dramatic dance forms called Tandava. Tribhanga (three flexions): One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved a waist and neck.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Jain Doctrine of Sallekhana: It is the practice of undertaking voluntarily death at the end of one"s life It is the practice of observing Celibacy and refraining from sensual desires. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Sallekhana is the Jain practice of undertaking voluntary death at the end of one's life.It is a highly respected practice among the members of the Jain community. Properly thinning out of the passions and the body is 'Sallekhana'. It is prescribed both for the householder (sravakas) and ascetics. Sallekhana is allowed only when a person is suffering from incurable disease or great disability or when a person is nearing his end.
|
a
|
Religion and Philosophy
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Jain Doctrine of Sallekhana: It is the practice of undertaking voluntarily death at the end of one"s life It is the practice of observing Celibacy and refraining from sensual desires. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Sallekhana is the Jain practice of undertaking voluntary death at the end of one's life.It is a highly respected practice among the members of the Jain community. Properly thinning out of the passions and the body is 'Sallekhana'. It is prescribed both for the householder (sravakas) and ascetics. Sallekhana is allowed only when a person is suffering from incurable disease or great disability or when a person is nearing his end.
##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which reference to Evolution of living organisms on earth, which of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
|
Spiders- Snakes-Termites-Corals
|
Snakes-Spiders- Termites-Corals
|
Corals- Spiders- Snakes-Termites
|
Spiders- Snakes-Termites-Corals
|
Different Phases of evolution are:
Precambrian- Soft bodied invertebrate animals in warm water, but land areas were devoid of animals.
Cambrian-Most of vertebrate animals including 1000 species were evolved in the seas but they are not found in present times. No land animals.
Silurian- corals evolved.
Devonian- Fern vegetation and vertebrate animals (mites, spiders etc.)
Carboniferous- Reptiles (Snakes etc.)
Permian- insects evolved.
Triassic- mammals evolved from reptiles, flies and termites also appeared on land.
Cretaceous- Flying reptiles, feathered and featherless birds.
Eocene: Modern mammals such as elephants, horses, rhinoceros.
|
c
|
Origin and evolution of Universe, Solar system, Geological History of the Earth, Geological Time scale
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which reference to Evolution of living organisms on earth, which of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
##Option_A: Spiders- Snakes-Termites-Corals
###Option_B: Snakes-Spiders- Termites-Corals
##Option_C: Corals- Spiders- Snakes-Termites
##Option_D: Spiders- Snakes-Termites-Corals
##Answer:c##Explaination:Different Phases of evolution are:
Precambrian- Soft bodied invertebrate animals in warm water, but land areas were devoid of animals.
Cambrian-Most of vertebrate animals including 1000 species were evolved in the seas but they are not found in present times. No land animals.
Silurian- corals evolved.
Devonian- Fern vegetation and vertebrate animals (mites, spiders etc.)
Carboniferous- Reptiles (Snakes etc.)
Permian- insects evolved.
Triassic- mammals evolved from reptiles, flies and termites also appeared on land.
Cretaceous- Flying reptiles, feathered and featherless birds.
Eocene: Modern mammals such as elephants, horses, rhinoceros.
##Topic:Origin and evolution of Universe, Solar system, Geological History of the Earth, Geological Time scale##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
In India, problem of declining soil fertility can be tackled with which of the following conservation measures?
Contour ploughing.
Construction of bunds along gullies.
Promoting shifting cultivation.
Application of cow dung and gypsum.
Formation of wind breaks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Methods of soil conservations:
Afforestation
Restrictions on felling of trees
Contour ploughing and strip cultivations
Control of floods
Restriction of shifting cultivations
Restoration of long fallows
Reclamations of Saline and Alkaline soil through application of Gypsum etc.
|
b
|
Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In India, problem of declining soil fertility can be tackled with which of the following conservation measures?
Contour ploughing.
Construction of bunds along gullies.
Promoting shifting cultivation.
Application of cow dung and gypsum.
Formation of wind breaks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
##Option_C: 2, 4 and 5 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:Methods of soil conservations:
Afforestation
Restrictions on felling of trees
Contour ploughing and strip cultivations
Control of floods
Restriction of shifting cultivations
Restoration of long fallows
Reclamations of Saline and Alkaline soil through application of Gypsum etc.
##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to the equatorial climates of world, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Afternoon thunder shower.
Large diurnal range of temperature.
Cold winter.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Equatorial Climate has following characteristics: Small Diurnal range of temperature. Cloudiness and heavy precipitations helps to moderate daily temperature. Uniform temperature throughout the year. Therefore there is no winter and summer. Afternoon thunder shower.
|
a
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the equatorial climates of world, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Afternoon thunder shower.
Large diurnal range of temperature.
Cold winter.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:Equatorial Climate has following characteristics: Small Diurnal range of temperature. Cloudiness and heavy precipitations helps to moderate daily temperature. Uniform temperature throughout the year. Therefore there is no winter and summer. Afternoon thunder shower.##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Aral Sea is located between:
|
Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan
|
Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan
|
Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
|
Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan
|
Clearly looking at the Central Asia Map Aral Sea is located between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan as shown in the map.
|
a
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Aral Sea is located between:##Option_A: Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan###Option_B: Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan##Option_C: Uzbekistan and Tajikistan##Option_D: Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan##Answer:a##Explaination:
Clearly looking at the Central Asia Map Aral Sea is located between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan as shown in the map.
##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
What is the correct sequence of occurrence of following capital cities as one proceeds from West to East?
|
Ankara- Baghdad-Riyadh-Tehran
|
Ankara-Riyadh-Baghdad-Tehran
|
Baghdad-Ankara -Tehran-Riyadh
|
Ankara- Baghdad-Riyadh-Tehran
|
Clearly looking at the West Asia Map correct sequence would be Ankara- Baghdad-Riyadh-Tehran.
|
a
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the correct sequence of occurrence of following capital cities as one proceeds from West to East?
##Option_A: Ankara- Baghdad-Riyadh-Tehran
###Option_B: Ankara-Riyadh-Baghdad-Tehran
##Option_C: Baghdad-Ankara -Tehran-Riyadh
##Option_D: Ankara- Baghdad-Riyadh-Tehran
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Clearly looking at the West Asia Map correct sequence would be Ankara- Baghdad-Riyadh-Tehran.
##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to Toda Tribes in India, Consider the following statements: They are pastoral nomads. Their name is derived from a sacred animal "Tandra". They are known for practicing polygamy. Located mainly in Nilgiri Hills. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Todas are a small tribe found mainly in the Nilgiri Hills. They are a classical example of pastoral nomadism. The 'Toda' is derived from the word 'Tandra' which is sacred tree for them. They practice fraternal polyandry. Their society is patriarchal but the women are highly respected.
|
a
|
Population, Migration, Settlements
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Toda Tribes in India, Consider the following statements: They are pastoral nomads. Their name is derived from a sacred animal "Tandra". They are known for practicing polygamy. Located mainly in Nilgiri Hills. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Todas are a small tribe found mainly in the Nilgiri Hills. They are a classical example of pastoral nomadism. The 'Toda' is derived from the word 'Tandra' which is sacred tree for them. They practice fraternal polyandry. Their society is patriarchal but the women are highly respected.##Topic:Population, Migration, Settlements##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by Duncan Passage?
|
Little Andaman and Nicobar
|
South Andaman and Little Andaman
|
Pavarotti and Minicoy Island
|
Little Andaman and Nicobar
|
Clearly looking at the Andaman and Nicobar Islands map Duncan Passage separates South Andaman and Little Andaman.
|
b
|
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by Duncan Passage?##Option_A: Little Andaman and Nicobar###Option_B: South Andaman and Little Andaman##Option_C: Pavarotti and Minicoy Island##Option_D: Little Andaman and Nicobar##Answer:b##Explaination: Clearly looking at the Andaman and Nicobar Islands map Duncan Passage separates South Andaman and Little Andaman.##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
A particular state in India has the following characteristics:
|
It lies on the same latitude which passes through Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
|
It has over 40% of its area under forest cover.
|
State Animal is Wild water Buffalo.
|
It lies on the same latitude which passes through Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
|
The tropic of cancer passes through Gujarat,Madhya Pradesh,Chhatisgarh,jharkhand,West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. The northern and southern parts of the state are hilly, while the central part is a fertile plain. Deciduous forests of the Eastern Highlands Forests cover roughly 44% of the state.. The state animal is the van bhainsa, or wild water buffalo. The Rihand River, a tributary of the Ganges, drains this State
|
a
|
Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A particular state in India has the following characteristics: ##Option_A:It lies on the same latitude which passes through Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.###Option_B:It has over 40% of its area under forest cover.##Option_C:State Animal is Wild water Buffalo.##Option_D:It lies on the same latitude which passes through Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.##Answer:a##Explaination:The tropic of cancer passes through Gujarat,Madhya Pradesh,Chhatisgarh,jharkhand,West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. The northern and southern parts of the state are hilly, while the central part is a fertile plain. Deciduous forests of the Eastern Highlands Forests cover roughly 44% of the state.. The state animal is the van bhainsa, or wild water buffalo. The Rihand River, a tributary of the Ganges, drains this State ##Topic:Introduction: Location, Area and Boundaries##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following have volcanic origin? Andaman and Nicobar Lakshadweep Deccan Trap Aravali ranges Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Bay of Bengal islands include the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are largely tectonic and volcanic in origin.
While the Islands of Arabian Sea including Lakshadweep are mainly coral formations.
Deccan trap is formed during cretaceous period due to intense volcanic activities.
Aravali ranges are nothing but the remains of old fold mountains.
|
c
|
Continents Major physical features
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following have volcanic origin? Andaman and Nicobar Lakshadweep Deccan Trap Aravali ranges Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Bay of Bengal islands include the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are largely tectonic and volcanic in origin.
While the Islands of Arabian Sea including Lakshadweep are mainly coral formations.
Deccan trap is formed during cretaceous period due to intense volcanic activities.
Aravali ranges are nothing but the remains of old fold mountains.
##Topic:Continents Major physical features##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following rivers.
Lakshamantirtha
Kabini
Arkavati
Amravati
Hemavati
Which of the above flow/flows as the as the right hand tributaries of Kaveri?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Left hand tributaries of Kaveri are : Herangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, and Akravati
Right hand tributaries of Kaveri are: Lakshamantirtha, Kabini, Amravati, Bhawani
|
b
|
Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following rivers.
Lakshamantirtha
Kabini
Arkavati
Amravati
Hemavati
Which of the above flow/flows as the as the right hand tributaries of Kaveri?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Left hand tributaries of Kaveri are : Herangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, and Akravati
Right hand tributaries of Kaveri are: Lakshamantirtha, Kabini, Amravati, Bhawani
##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
What is the correct sequence of occurrence of following mountains ranges of south India as one proceed from North and South?
Palconda ranges
Shevaroy hills
Javadi Hills
Palani Hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1-2-3-4
|
3-1-2-4
|
3-2-4-1
|
1-2-3-4
|
Clearly looking at the Southern India map Palconda Hills are in the north followed by Javadi, Shevaroy and Palani is located in transverse mode as southernmost hills.
|
d
|
Continents Major physical features
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the correct sequence of occurrence of following mountains ranges of south India as one proceed from North and South?
Palconda ranges
Shevaroy hills
Javadi Hills
Palani Hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1-2-3-4
###Option_B: 3-1-2-4
##Option_C: 3-2-4-1
##Option_D: 1-2-3-4
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Clearly looking at the Southern India map Palconda Hills are in the north followed by Javadi, Shevaroy and Palani is located in transverse mode as southernmost hills.
##Topic:Continents Major physical features##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding APMC Act and the Essential Commodities Act (ECA): While APMC act is applicable only on the first sale, ECA can be applicable on the entire supply chain. While APMC act is the exclusive domain of the states, both center and state governments have concurrent powers in case of ECA. Both APMC act and ECA deal exclusively with agricultural products only. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
ECA has a much broader scope than APMC act. APMC act considers only the first point of sale, i.e. from farmer to the buyer. Under ECA, entire supply chain - from production, supply and distribution, stocking and even pricing can be controlled. While APMC act is the exclusive domain of the states (a continuing irritant for central government has been to persuade the states to amend their APMCAs but to no avail), ECA is an act of parliament and empowers both the center and state governments to take necessary actions. While APMC act applies only to agricultural produce (including livestock and meat in some states), ECA is also applicable to other commodities like coal, textiles, drugs and fertilizers.
|
d
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding APMC Act and the Essential Commodities Act (ECA): While APMC act is applicable only on the first sale, ECA can be applicable on the entire supply chain. While APMC act is the exclusive domain of the states, both center and state governments have concurrent powers in case of ECA. Both APMC act and ECA deal exclusively with agricultural products only. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
ECA has a much broader scope than APMC act. APMC act considers only the first point of sale, i.e. from farmer to the buyer. Under ECA, entire supply chain - from production, supply and distribution, stocking and even pricing can be controlled. While APMC act is the exclusive domain of the states (a continuing irritant for central government has been to persuade the states to amend their APMCAs but to no avail), ECA is an act of parliament and empowers both the center and state governments to take necessary actions. While APMC act applies only to agricultural produce (including livestock and meat in some states), ECA is also applicable to other commodities like coal, textiles, drugs and fertilizers.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is /are correct regarding Money bill? It"s defeat in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the Government. Money bill cannot be returned for reconsideration by the President. It requires the certification of the speaker when transmitted to the Rajya Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Its defeat in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the Government.
Money bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha only on the recommendation of the President so it cannot be returned for reconsideration.
When a money bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, the speaker endorses it as a money bill.
|
d
|
Types of bills and Legislative procedure
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is /are correct regarding Money bill? It"s defeat in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the Government. Money bill cannot be returned for reconsideration by the President. It requires the certification of the speaker when transmitted to the Rajya Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Its defeat in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the Government.
Money bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha only on the recommendation of the President so it cannot be returned for reconsideration.
When a money bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, the speaker endorses it as a money bill.
##Topic:Types of bills and Legislative procedure##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996. Which of the following statements is/are correct? It applies to the areas which are not covered in the 73 rd amendment or Panchayati Raj. Every village shall contain a Gram Sabha. Management of water bodies are entrusted to Panchayats under this act. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
PESA Act Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 or PESA is a law enacted by the Government of India to cover the "Scheduled areas", which are not covered in the 73rd amendment or Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian Constitution. It was enacted on 24 December 1996 to enable Gram Sabhas to self-govern their natural resources. It is an Act to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats and the Scheduled Areas.
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996. Which of the following statements is/are correct? It applies to the areas which are not covered in the 73 rd amendment or Panchayati Raj. Every village shall contain a Gram Sabha. Management of water bodies are entrusted to Panchayats under this act. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:PESA Act Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 or PESA is a law enacted by the Government of India to cover the "Scheduled areas", which are not covered in the 73rd amendment or Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian Constitution. It was enacted on 24 December 1996 to enable Gram Sabhas to self-govern their natural resources. It is an Act to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats and the Scheduled Areas.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The mandate of National Development Council in India is:
To resolve interstate disputes.
To prescribes guidelines for preparation of national Plan.
To review the working of the National Plan at regular intervals of time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
NDC mandates constitute of the following:
To secure cooperation of the states in the execution of the Plan(and not the resolution of the disputes)
To prescribe guidelines for the formulation of the National Plan, including the assessment of resources for the Plan.
To make an assessment of the resources that are required for implementing the Plan and to suggest measures for augmenting them.
To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting national development; and
To review the working of the Plan from time to time and to recommend such measures as are necessary for achieving the aims and targets set out in the National Plan.
|
c
|
NDC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The mandate of National Development Council in India is:
To resolve interstate disputes.
To prescribes guidelines for preparation of national Plan.
To review the working of the National Plan at regular intervals of time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:NDC mandates constitute of the following:
To secure cooperation of the states in the execution of the Plan(and not the resolution of the disputes)
To prescribe guidelines for the formulation of the National Plan, including the assessment of resources for the Plan.
To make an assessment of the resources that are required for implementing the Plan and to suggest measures for augmenting them.
To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting national development; and
To review the working of the Plan from time to time and to recommend such measures as are necessary for achieving the aims and targets set out in the National Plan.
##Topic:NDC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true with reference to National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)?
It is a constitutional body.
Its mandate is to secure free legal services to the eligible persons.
Lok Adalats are organized under it.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all. Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. But NALSA is not a constitutional body.
Following are the main functions on regular basis:
To Provide Free and Competent Legal Services to the eligible persons;
To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes; and
To organize legal awareness camps in the rural areas.
|
b
|
District Courts, Gram Nyayalayas, NALSA etc
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true with reference to National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)?
It is a constitutional body.
Its mandate is to secure free legal services to the eligible persons.
Lok Adalats are organized under it.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all. Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. But NALSA is not a constitutional body.
Following are the main functions on regular basis:
To Provide Free and Competent Legal Services to the eligible persons;
To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes; and
To organize legal awareness camps in the rural areas.
##Topic:District Courts, Gram Nyayalayas, NALSA etc##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the legislative assemblies. Nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament cannot be appointed as ministers. There is provision of reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha and MLAs do not participate in its election.
There is no such obligatory provision which stops nominated members from being appointed as ministers.
There is no direct provision of reservation for SCs and STs in Raya Sabha, as election to Rajya Sabha is indirectly by MLAs and not directly by people.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the legislative assemblies. Nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament cannot be appointed as ministers. There is provision of reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha and MLAs do not participate in its election.
There is no such obligatory provision which stops nominated members from being appointed as ministers.
There is no direct provision of reservation for SCs and STs in Raya Sabha, as election to Rajya Sabha is indirectly by MLAs and not directly by people.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
National Development Council is now an integral part of NITI Ayog.
There are provisions in the Indian Constitution for securing Economic and Social justice to the citizens.
The constitution provides for Panchayats to be the planning unit for economic development of villages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
NDC is not an integral part of NITI Ayog.
Many of the provisions mentioned under the head of Fundamental Rights and DPSPs contains provision related to securing Economic and Social justice to the citizens(Article 16, 23, 24, 39A, 41, 42 etc.).
Panchayats (from Article 243 to Article 243-O).
|
c
|
NITI Aayog
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
National Development Council is now an integral part of NITI Ayog.
There are provisions in the Indian Constitution for securing Economic and Social justice to the citizens.
The constitution provides for Panchayats to be the planning unit for economic development of villages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
NDC is not an integral part of NITI Ayog.
Many of the provisions mentioned under the head of Fundamental Rights and DPSPs contains provision related to securing Economic and Social justice to the citizens(Article 16, 23, 24, 39A, 41, 42 etc.).
Panchayats (from Article 243 to Article 243-O).
##Topic:NITI Aayog##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
The Council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Only the members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha can be appointed as ministers.
A minster can be dismissed from the office on the basis of dissatisfaction with her/his performance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
Anyone can be appointed as minister but within six months of her/his appointment, obtaining membership of any House is mandatory to continue as minister.
It is also mentioned that in case of a difference of opinion or dissatisfaction with the performance of a minister, the PM can ask her/ him to resign or advice the President to dismiss her/him.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
The Council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Only the members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha can be appointed as ministers.
A minster can be dismissed from the office on the basis of dissatisfaction with her/his performance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
Anyone can be appointed as minister but within six months of her/his appointment, obtaining membership of any House is mandatory to continue as minister.
It is also mentioned that in case of a difference of opinion or dissatisfaction with the performance of a minister, the PM can ask her/ him to resign or advice the President to dismiss her/him.
##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
The Estimates Committee of Parliament:
consists of 30 members and all the members are from the Lok Sabha.
examines the estimates included in the budget.
examines whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30.All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
The function of the committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest 'economies' in public expenditure. It has also been described as 'a continuous economy committee'.
|
d
|
Committees of Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Estimates Committee of Parliament:
consists of 30 members and all the members are from the Lok Sabha.
examines the estimates included in the budget.
examines whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30.All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
The function of the committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest 'economies' in public expenditure. It has also been described as 'a continuous economy committee'.
##Topic:Committees of Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements in relation to Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006: It gives the ownership rights of lands to tribal or forest dwellers. It provides for forest management rights to original forest dwellers. It gives right of access to biodiversity, intellectual property and traditional knowledge. This act has been used by government as a land distribution scheme. Which of statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,concerns the rights of forest-dwelling communities to land and other resources, denied to them over decades as a result of the continuance of colonial forest laws in India. The misconception is that the purpose of the law is to distribute forest land to forest dwellers or tribal, often claimed to be at the rate of 4 hectares per family. But the Act is intended to recognize lands that are already under cultivation as on 13 December 2005, not to grant title rights of any new lands to any one.
|
a
|
Rights Issues etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in relation to Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006: It gives the ownership rights of lands to tribal or forest dwellers. It provides for forest management rights to original forest dwellers. It gives right of access to biodiversity, intellectual property and traditional knowledge. This act has been used by government as a land distribution scheme. Which of statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C:3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,concerns the rights of forest-dwelling communities to land and other resources, denied to them over decades as a result of the continuance of colonial forest laws in India. The misconception is that the purpose of the law is to distribute forest land to forest dwellers or tribal, often claimed to be at the rate of 4 hectares per family. But the Act is intended to recognize lands that are already under cultivation as on 13 December 2005, not to grant title rights of any new lands to any one.##Topic:Rights Issues etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
"Social Justice" as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in: The Preamble The Directive Principles of State Policy Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Social Justice is directly mentioned in the Preamble. Under DPSPs, Article-38 says to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice-social, economic and political-and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. Also, many other provisions like equal justice (Article 39A), Article 42 etc. are related to securing just and humane condition of living.
|
c
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Social Justice" as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in: The Preamble The Directive Principles of State Policy Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Social Justice is directly mentioned in the Preamble. Under DPSPs, Article-38 says to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice-social, economic and political-and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. Also, many other provisions like equal justice (Article 39A), Article 42 etc. are related to securing just and humane condition of living.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statements: It recommends regarding the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states. The divisible pool consists of all taxes including surcharges and cess levied for specific purpose. The FFC (Fourteenth Finance Commission) has radically enhanced the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 percent to 42 per cent which is the biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It is mentioned under Article 280(3). Statement 2 is incorrect : The divisible pool consists of all taxes except surcharges and cess levied for specific purpose. Statement 3 is correct : FFC has increased the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 percent to 42, which is the biggest devolution ever.
|
c
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statements: It recommends regarding the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states. The divisible pool consists of all taxes including surcharges and cess levied for specific purpose. The FFC (Fourteenth Finance Commission) has radically enhanced the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 percent to 42 per cent which is the biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:2 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It is mentioned under Article 280(3). Statement 2 is incorrect : The divisible pool consists of all taxes except surcharges and cess levied for specific purpose. Statement 3 is correct : FFC has increased the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 percent to 42, which is the biggest devolution ever.##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of Tundra biome? Devoid of trees except stunted shrubs. In Fauna, reptile and amphibians are most abundant. In southern part of Tundra biome, lichens mosses are found. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Tundra biome has following characteristics:
Devoid of trees except stunted shrubs.
In southern part of Tundra biome, lichens, mosses and sedges prevail.
Animals - Reindeer, Polar Bear, Arctic fox, snowy owl etc.
Reptiles and amphibians are absent.
|
c
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of Tundra biome? Devoid of trees except stunted shrubs. In Fauna, reptile and amphibians are most abundant. In southern part of Tundra biome, lichens mosses are found. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Tundra biome has following characteristics:
Devoid of trees except stunted shrubs.
In southern part of Tundra biome, lichens, mosses and sedges prevail.
Animals - Reindeer, Polar Bear, Arctic fox, snowy owl etc.
Reptiles and amphibians are absent.
##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Q. Consider the following statement regarding multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle (MIRV) technology:
(1) Only Inter-Continental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) are equipped with MIRV technology.
(2) They reduce the effectiveness of an anti-ballistic missile system deployed by enemy country.
(3) Agni-5 has MIRV capability and can launch multiple warheads.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
MIRV technology is ability to launch multiple warheads from a single ballistics missile. It acts as force multiplier for a country. It reduces the effectiveness of an anti-ballistic missile system deployed by enemy country as it becomes very difficult to track multiple independent warheads released. Agni-5 has the MIRV capability. Its range is nearly 5000 km.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q. Consider the following statement regarding multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle (MIRV) technology:
(1) Only Inter-Continental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) are equipped with MIRV technology.
(2) They reduce the effectiveness of an anti-ballistic missile system deployed by enemy country.
(3) Agni-5 has MIRV capability and can launch multiple warheads.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
MIRV technology is ability to launch multiple warheads from a single ballistics missile. It acts as force multiplier for a country. It reduces the effectiveness of an anti-ballistic missile system deployed by enemy country as it becomes very difficult to track multiple independent warheads released. Agni-5 has the MIRV capability. Its range is nearly 5000 km.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The reasons for subsidence of air at sub-tropical areas causing the formation of sub-tropical high-pressure belt are: Coriolis force Cooling of air aloft Existence of low-pressure belt at equator Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Without the Coriolis force, there should be a gradual increase in pressure from equator to poles. But due to Coriolis force, rising air near the equator turns eastward in Northern hemisphere and starts piling up which helps in the formation of sub-tropical pressure belt. One more reason is the cooling of air as it rises which increases its density and cause it to subside.
|
a
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The reasons for subsidence of air at sub-tropical areas causing the formation of sub-tropical high-pressure belt are: Coriolis force Cooling of air aloft Existence of low-pressure belt at equator Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Without the Coriolis force, there should be a gradual increase in pressure from equator to poles. But due to Coriolis force, rising air near the equator turns eastward in Northern hemisphere and starts piling up which helps in the formation of sub-tropical pressure belt. One more reason is the cooling of air as it rises which increases its density and cause it to subside.##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Q. Which of the following conditions is likely to cause inversion of temperature?
(1) Clear sky on a cold winter night
(2) Cold air mass moving over warm surface
(3) Formation of an anti-cyclone
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Temperature inversion means increase in temperature with height. It is usually seen on a cold winter night with clear sky. Clear sky leads to quick cooling of the ground by emitting of heat. This leads to cooling of air near the ground while the air above remains warm. Thus, leading to inversion of temperature. It is also observed when a warm air mass moves over a cold surface.
|
a
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q. Which of the following conditions is likely to cause inversion of temperature?
(1) Clear sky on a cold winter night
(2) Cold air mass moving over warm surface
(3) Formation of an anti-cyclone
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Temperature inversion means increase in temperature with height. It is usually seen on a cold winter night with clear sky. Clear sky leads to quick cooling of the ground by emitting of heat. This leads to cooling of air near the ground while the air above remains warm. Thus, leading to inversion of temperature. It is also observed when a warm air mass moves over a cold surface.
##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
The function of control rods in a nuclear reactor is to:
|
Slow down the speed of neutrons
|
Increase the availability of neutrons
|
Decrease the availability neutrons
|
Slow down the speed of neutrons
|
nan
|
c
|
Nuclear Energy
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The function of control rods in a nuclear reactor is to:##Option_A:Slow down the speed of neutrons###Option_B:Increase the availability of neutrons##Option_C:Decrease the availability neutrons##Option_D:Slow down the speed of neutrons##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Nuclear Energy##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to the newly launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana? Under the scheme, Centre will provide Rs. 10 crore each for every State and Union Territory of the country for the development of various facilities for the tribals. The scheme mainly focuses on bridging infrastructural gaps and gap in human development indices between Scheduled Tribes and other Social Groups. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Vanbandhu kalyan Yojana has been launched by the central government of India for the holistic development and welfare of tribal population of India. The scheme will be implemented in 10 states. These are Andhra pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Telangana, Orissa, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Gujarat. 100 crore has been allotted for this scheme. The scheme proposes to bring tribal population at par with other social groups and include them in the overall progress of the nation.
|
b
|
GS_Economics_unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to the newly launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana? Under the scheme, Centre will provide Rs. 10 crore each for every State and Union Territory of the country for the development of various facilities for the tribals. The scheme mainly focuses on bridging infrastructural gaps and gap in human development indices between Scheduled Tribes and other Social Groups. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Vanbandhu kalyan Yojana has been launched by the central government of India for the holistic development and welfare of tribal population of India. The scheme will be implemented in 10 states. These are Andhra pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Telangana, Orissa, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Gujarat. 100 crore has been allotted for this scheme. The scheme proposes to bring tribal population at par with other social groups and include them in the overall progress of the nation.##Topic:GS_Economics_unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) It commits States to undertake measures to end discrimination in their legal system. India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legally bound to put its provisions into practice. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
India signed the convention and ratified it on 9 th july 1993. CEDAW was adopted in 1979 by the UN general assembly and is often described as an international bill of right for women. It consists of a preamble and 30 articles and defines what constitutes discrimination against women and sets up an agenda for national action to end such discrimination. BY accepting the convention,States commit themselves to undertake a series of measures to end discrimination against women in all forms.
|
a
|
GS_IR_unclassified
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) It commits States to undertake measures to end discrimination in their legal system. India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legally bound to put its provisions into practice. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:India signed the convention and ratified it on 9 th july 1993. CEDAW was adopted in 1979 by the UN general assembly and is often described as an international bill of right for women. It consists of a preamble and 30 articles and defines what constitutes discrimination against women and sets up an agenda for national action to end such discrimination. BY accepting the convention,States commit themselves to undertake a series of measures to end discrimination against women in all forms.##Topic:GS_IR_unclassified##Subject:Botany##Answer:a
|
What was the common element among? G.D. Birla Ambalal Sarabhai and Walchand Hirachand?
|
They were leading members of the socialist movement in India
|
They were Indian industrialists
|
They were nationalist leaders
|
They were leading members of the socialist movement in India
|
GD Birla was an Indian Businessman and a close associate and steady supporter of Gandhiji. Gandhiji was staying at Birla's home in New Delhi when he was assassinated. Ambalal Sarabhai was a leading industrialist of Ahmedabad and also played an important role in India's freedom struggle. Walchand Hirachand was also an Indian industrialist. However, like the other two he was not involved in the nationalist movement.
|
b
|
Prsonality Based Questions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What was the common element among? G.D. Birla Ambalal Sarabhai and Walchand Hirachand?##Option_A: They were leading members of the socialist movement in India###Option_B: They were Indian industrialists##Option_C: They were nationalist leaders##Option_D: They were leading members of the socialist movement in India##Answer:b##Explaination:GD Birla was an Indian Businessman and a close associate and steady supporter of Gandhiji. Gandhiji was staying at Birla's home in New Delhi when he was assassinated. Ambalal Sarabhai was a leading industrialist of Ahmedabad and also played an important role in India's freedom struggle. Walchand Hirachand was also an Indian industrialist. However, like the other two he was not involved in the nationalist movement.##Topic:Prsonality Based Questions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The interest of the British Government of India in Afghanistan in the nineteenth century came about in order to:
|
Make use of the natural resources of Afghanistan.
|
Ensure that the Russian empire did not have an influence over Afghanistan.
|
Increase the reach of the British Empire.
|
Make use of the natural resources of Afghanistan.
|
The British Indian Government fought two wars with Afghanistan. Russian designs in central Asia and the fear of Napoleon are the key factors which describe the nature and character of Anglo Afghan relations. The British feared a Russian attack on India through Persia and Afghanistan.This fear of the British is also known as Russophobia.
|
b
|
Other Dimensions of freedom struggle
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The interest of the British Government of India in Afghanistan in the nineteenth century came about in order to:##Option_A: Make use of the natural resources of Afghanistan.###Option_B: Ensure that the Russian empire did not have an influence over Afghanistan.##Option_C: Increase the reach of the British Empire.##Option_D: Make use of the natural resources of Afghanistan.##Answer:b##Explaination:The British Indian Government fought two wars with Afghanistan. Russian designs in central Asia and the fear of Napoleon are the key factors which describe the nature and character of Anglo Afghan relations. The British feared a Russian attack on India through Persia and Afghanistan.This fear of the British is also known as Russophobia.##Topic:Other Dimensions of freedom struggle##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is restructured into the Swachh Bharat Mission. The Swachh Bharat Mission has two sub-Missions – Union Territories and States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan has been restructured into Swachh Bharat Mission. The Swachh Bharat Mission will be structured under two sub missions. A) Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) and Swachh Bharat Mission ( Urban) Budgetary provisions for the two mission will be provided separately.
|
a
|
GS_Economics_unclassified
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is restructured into the Swachh Bharat Mission. The Swachh Bharat Mission has two sub-Missions – Union Territories and States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan has been restructured into Swachh Bharat Mission. The Swachh Bharat Mission will be structured under two sub missions. A) Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) and Swachh Bharat Mission ( Urban) Budgetary provisions for the two mission will be provided separately.##Topic:GS_Economics_unclassified##Subject:Botany##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is not true?
|
The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) had regulated global trade since 1947.
|
GATT was replaced by the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1995.
|
The Most Favoured Nation principle under GATT provided that preferential trading agreements reached with one country should be extended to other countries.
|
The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) had regulated global trade since 1947.
|
The Policy of Non alignment is no more being followed, instead a new policy called Non Alignment 2.0 has been developed as an alternative. Since the world in no longer bifurcated between two dominant powers, non alignment today will require managing complicated coalitions and opportunities in an environment that is not structurally settled. This policy also focuses domestic economic growth,social inclusion and democracy. Although India’s competitors ill put roadblock in its path,”the foundation of India’s success will depend on its developmental model.”
SAARC as a geopolitical organisation has been given a renewed interest after the coming of the new government into power.
Panchsheel are a set of principles which form the foundation of our foreign policy. It governs our relation with other states.
Look east policy of India represents its efforts to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the nations of South East Asia.
|
a
|
Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is not true?
##Option_A: The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) had regulated global trade since 1947.
###Option_B: GATT was replaced by the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1995.
##Option_C: The Most Favoured Nation principle under GATT provided that preferential trading agreements reached with one country should be extended to other countries.
##Option_D: The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) had regulated global trade since 1947.
##Answer:a##Explaination:The Policy of Non alignment is no more being followed, instead a new policy called Non Alignment 2.0 has been developed as an alternative. Since the world in no longer bifurcated between two dominant powers, non alignment today will require managing complicated coalitions and opportunities in an environment that is not structurally settled. This policy also focuses domestic economic growth,social inclusion and democracy. Although India’s competitors ill put roadblock in its path,”the foundation of India’s success will depend on its developmental model.”
SAARC as a geopolitical organisation has been given a renewed interest after the coming of the new government into power.
Panchsheel are a set of principles which form the foundation of our foreign policy. It governs our relation with other states.
Look east policy of India represents its efforts to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the nations of South East Asia.##Topic:Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Gender Mainstreaming (GM): Gender Mainstreaming is a globally accepted strategy for promoting gender equality. It was adopted by Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) It requires assessing the different implications for men and women of any planned policy action. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Gender Mainstreaming is the public policy concept of assessing the different implications for men and women of any planned policy action, including legislation and programmes, in all areas and levels. This Idea was formally featured in 1995 at the fourth World Conference on women in Beijing. And was cited in the document that resulted from the conference, that is, the Being Platform for Action. CEDAW was adopted in 1979 much before the concept of Gender Mainstreaming came to be known hence statement 2 is wrong.
|
b
|
GS_IR_unclassified
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Gender Mainstreaming (GM): Gender Mainstreaming is a globally accepted strategy for promoting gender equality. It was adopted by Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) It requires assessing the different implications for men and women of any planned policy action. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Gender Mainstreaming is the public policy concept of assessing the different implications for men and women of any planned policy action, including legislation and programmes, in all areas and levels. This Idea was formally featured in 1995 at the fourth World Conference on women in Beijing. And was cited in the document that resulted from the conference, that is, the Being Platform for Action. CEDAW was adopted in 1979 much before the concept of Gender Mainstreaming came to be known hence statement 2 is wrong.##Topic:GS_IR_unclassified##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are the characteristics of the First Past The Post System (FPTP)? It promotes the inclusion of regional and smaller parties in the Parliament. It allows voters to choose between people rather than just between parties. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
FPTP system is also known as Single Member plurality, simple Majority voting or Plurality voting. Statement 1 is incorrect: The principal criticism leveled against the FPTP system is that it leads to the exclusion of small or regional parties from the Parliament. There is commonly a discrepancy in the vote share and seat share in results, where votes given to smaller parties are 'wasted' since they do not gain a voice in the legislature. Statement 2 is correct: It provides clear-cut choice for voters between two main parties. It allows voters to choose between people rather than just between parties. Thus, voters can assess the performance of individual candidates rather than just having to accept a list of candidates presented by a party. It gives a chance for popular independent candidates to be elected.
|
b
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the characteristics of the First Past The Post System (FPTP)? It promotes the inclusion of regional and smaller parties in the Parliament. It allows voters to choose between people rather than just between parties. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:FPTP system is also known as Single Member plurality, simple Majority voting or Plurality voting. Statement 1 is incorrect: The principal criticism leveled against the FPTP system is that it leads to the exclusion of small or regional parties from the Parliament. There is commonly a discrepancy in the vote share and seat share in results, where votes given to smaller parties are 'wasted' since they do not gain a voice in the legislature. Statement 2 is correct: It provides clear-cut choice for voters between two main parties. It allows voters to choose between people rather than just between parties. Thus, voters can assess the performance of individual candidates rather than just having to accept a list of candidates presented by a party. It gives a chance for popular independent candidates to be elected.##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements about the musical culture in 18 th and 19 th century North India is/are not correct? The period was marked by the growing eminence of Sadarang Niyamat Khan who introduced the khayal form. A large number of musicians moved out of regional centres to Delhi where they hoped they would receive more employment and patronage. The period was marked by the formation of specific region based Gharanas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The central Mughal power weakened after the death of Aurangzeb, there was a quick succession of emperors. One of them was Muhammadshah Rangile. It was in his court that Nyamat Khan Sadarang invented a new genre, the Khayal. Th Gharana concept gained currency only in the 19 th century when the royal patronage enjoyed by performers weakened. To retain their respective identities they fell back on the names of the region they hailed from. Therefore, even today, The name of many gharanas refer to places.
|
c
|
Indian Music
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements about the musical culture in 18 th and 19 th century North India is/are not correct? The period was marked by the growing eminence of Sadarang Niyamat Khan who introduced the khayal form. A large number of musicians moved out of regional centres to Delhi where they hoped they would receive more employment and patronage. The period was marked by the formation of specific region based Gharanas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The central Mughal power weakened after the death of Aurangzeb, there was a quick succession of emperors. One of them was Muhammadshah Rangile. It was in his court that Nyamat Khan Sadarang invented a new genre, the Khayal. Th Gharana concept gained currency only in the 19 th century when the royal patronage enjoyed by performers weakened. To retain their respective identities they fell back on the names of the region they hailed from. Therefore, even today, The name of many gharanas refer to places.##Topic:Indian Music##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Upari refers to which one of the following?
|
A form of Marathi poetry that emerged during the Maratha period.
|
A category of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha regime.
|
A court official during Maratha rule.
|
A form of Marathi poetry that emerged during the Maratha period.
|
Upari was a kind of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha regime. The Upari rented some land from a village which had more than it needed. This was a contract freely entered into, where both sides stood to benefit, the village by getting help in meeting the revenue demand and the Upari by getting a piece of land to cultivate.
|
b
|
Others
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Upari refers to which one of the following?##Option_A: A form of Marathi poetry that emerged during the Maratha period.###Option_B: A category of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha regime.##Option_C: A court official during Maratha rule.##Option_D: A form of Marathi poetry that emerged during the Maratha period.##Answer:b##Explaination:Upari was a kind of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha regime. The Upari rented some land from a village which had more than it needed. This was a contract freely entered into, where both sides stood to benefit, the village by getting help in meeting the revenue demand and the Upari by getting a piece of land to cultivate.##Topic:Others##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi’s South African experiences (1893-1914): Muslim merchants were actively involved in Gandhian political movements in South Africa. In 1906 Gandhi led a campaign in Cape Town against the ordinance on compulsory registration and passes for Indians. Gandhi began his political career with struggles against the imposition of excessive taxes on Indian in Cape Town Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
In 1906,Gandhi led a campaign against registration certificate in Johannesburg and not in Cape Town. So statement 2 is wrong. He began his political career by protesting against the racial discrimination and the disabilities faced by indian immigrants such as they were denied the right to vote, they could reside in only prescribed locations and could not stay out of doors after 9 pm.
|
d
|
The Beginning of the Gandhian Era
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi’s South African experiences (1893-1914): Muslim merchants were actively involved in Gandhian political movements in South Africa. In 1906 Gandhi led a campaign in Cape Town against the ordinance on compulsory registration and passes for Indians. Gandhi began his political career with struggles against the imposition of excessive taxes on Indian in Cape Town Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In 1906,Gandhi led a campaign against registration certificate in Johannesburg and not in Cape Town. So statement 2 is wrong. He began his political career by protesting against the racial discrimination and the disabilities faced by indian immigrants such as they were denied the right to vote, they could reside in only prescribed locations and could not stay out of doors after 9 pm.##Topic:The Beginning of the Gandhian Era##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: In the Golaknath case Supreme court laid down a new doctrine of basic structure of the constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case Supreme Court ruled that parliament cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
In the Golaknath case Supreme court ruled that the Fundamental rights are given a transcendental and immutable position and hence the parliament cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. In the Kesavananda Bharati case the Supreme court overruled its judgement in the Golaknath case and stated that the Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. At the same time, it laid down a new doctrine of basic structure of the constitution.
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: In the Golaknath case Supreme court laid down a new doctrine of basic structure of the constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case Supreme Court ruled that parliament cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In the Golaknath case Supreme court ruled that the Fundamental rights are given a transcendental and immutable position and hence the parliament cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. In the Kesavananda Bharati case the Supreme court overruled its judgement in the Golaknath case and stated that the Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. At the same time, it laid down a new doctrine of basic structure of the constitution.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rig Veda? Rig Vedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism. There are striking similarities between the Rig Vedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds those conducted by the householder and those that required ritual specialists. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
During Rig Vedic period there were two manners of performing sacrifice either the Shrauta rite that was done by Vedic priests according to the shruti rules or grihya rite performed by a householder man in many cases assisted by his wife.However, the Srauta rite is much elaborated, it aims extend far beyond the purpose of a household. There are similarities between Iranian Avesta( Also known as Zoroastrianism). In India, Upnayana is a ritual by which a boy becomes a full member of his class. Zoroastrians have a similar ceremony called Navjot. The Rig Veda refers to the drink soma which was drunk at sacrifices. Similarly the Avesta gives physical descriptions of the plant Haoma which causes similar effects. The Religion of Rig Veda is characterized as polytheism, Naturalism and sacrificialism.
|
d
|
Vedic Age
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rig Veda? Rig Vedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism. There are striking similarities between the Rig Vedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds those conducted by the householder and those that required ritual specialists. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:During Rig Vedic period there were two manners of performing sacrifice either the Shrauta rite that was done by Vedic priests according to the shruti rules or grihya rite performed by a householder man in many cases assisted by his wife.However, the Srauta rite is much elaborated, it aims extend far beyond the purpose of a household. There are similarities between Iranian Avesta( Also known as Zoroastrianism). In India, Upnayana is a ritual by which a boy becomes a full member of his class. Zoroastrians have a similar ceremony called Navjot. The Rig Veda refers to the drink soma which was drunk at sacrifices. Similarly the Avesta gives physical descriptions of the plant Haoma which causes similar effects. The Religion of Rig Veda is characterized as polytheism, Naturalism and sacrificialism.##Topic:Vedic Age##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
The horizontal wind circulation near the Earth"s surface is due to the: pressure gradient frictional force. coriolis force. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Horizontally at the earth surface wind always blows from areas of high pressure to areas to low pressure. Pressure change over a distance s called pressure gradient force. Greater this force the faster winds will blow. The rotation of earth creates the Coriolis force which acts upon the wind. Frictional force reduces the wind speed near the earth surface.
|
d
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The horizontal wind circulation near the Earth"s surface is due to the: pressure gradient frictional force. coriolis force. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Horizontally at the earth surface wind always blows from areas of high pressure to areas to low pressure. Pressure change over a distance s called pressure gradient force. Greater this force the faster winds will blow. The rotation of earth creates the Coriolis force which acts upon the wind. Frictional force reduces the wind speed near the earth surface.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which one of the following statements regarding hydraulically connected system is correct? Exchange of water is controlled by the difference in elevation. Rainfall does not contribute to maintenance of underground water table. Underground water may also be connected to surface water. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
Ground water and surface water are essentially one resource, physically connected by the hydrological cycle. Although surface water and groundwater are considered as separate resources they are functionally inter dependent. If ground water is in physical contact with the surface water it is called a hydraulically connected system. And if it is not in contact it is called hydraulically disconnected systems. exchange of water between the groundwater system and a stream is controlled by the difference in elevation between groundwater table and the water level in the stream.
|
d
|
Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following statements regarding hydraulically connected system is correct? Exchange of water is controlled by the difference in elevation. Rainfall does not contribute to maintenance of underground water table. Underground water may also be connected to surface water. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Ground water and surface water are essentially one resource, physically connected by the hydrological cycle. Although surface water and groundwater are considered as separate resources they are functionally inter dependent. If ground water is in physical contact with the surface water it is called a hydraulically connected system. And if it is not in contact it is called hydraulically disconnected systems. exchange of water between the groundwater system and a stream is controlled by the difference in elevation between groundwater table and the water level in the stream.##Topic:Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following types of chemical weathering are correctly matched with the descriptions they are associated with? Oxidation - occurs where there is ready access to oxygenated water and atmosphere. Carbonation - rainwater mixes with CO2 in air to produce carbonic acid that reacts with minerals Hydration - minerals react with water to form hydrates. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
There are four types of chemical weathering processes: Solution: Soluble rock forming minerals like nitrates, sulphates and potassium are affected by this process. Carbonation: Reaction of carbonates and bicarbonates with minerals is a common process which helps in the break down of feldspar and carbonate minerals( cave formation is a result of this process), rainwater mixes with CO2 in air to produce carbonic acid that reacts with minerals. Hydration: it is chemical addition of water. Minerals take up water and expand.This causes an increase in volume and the repetition of this process causes fatigue in the rocks and leads to their disintegration. the hydration of anhydrite forms gypsum . Oxidation: Combination of minerals with oxygen to form oxides or hydroxides. Occurs where there is ready access to oxygenated water and atmosphere.
|
d
|
External forces & their impact Weathering, Erosion & landforms thus developed
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following types of chemical weathering are correctly matched with the descriptions they are associated with? Oxidation - occurs where there is ready access to oxygenated water and atmosphere. Carbonation - rainwater mixes with CO2 in air to produce carbonic acid that reacts with minerals Hydration - minerals react with water to form hydrates. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:There are four types of chemical weathering processes: Solution: Soluble rock forming minerals like nitrates, sulphates and potassium are affected by this process. Carbonation: Reaction of carbonates and bicarbonates with minerals is a common process which helps in the break down of feldspar and carbonate minerals( cave formation is a result of this process), rainwater mixes with CO2 in air to produce carbonic acid that reacts with minerals. Hydration: it is chemical addition of water. Minerals take up water and expand.This causes an increase in volume and the repetition of this process causes fatigue in the rocks and leads to their disintegration. the hydration of anhydrite forms gypsum . Oxidation: Combination of minerals with oxygen to form oxides or hydroxides. Occurs where there is ready access to oxygenated water and atmosphere.##Topic:External forces & their impact Weathering, Erosion & landforms thus developed##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
A State of India is having the following characteristics: Long length of coastline. Long duration of hot and dry conditions. Wet in the southern districts and Arid in the north-west region. Deserts, scrublands, grasslands, deciduous forests, and wetlands to mangroves, coral reefs and estuaries are found. Which of the State given below is referred to in the above statements?
|
Tamil Nadu
|
Oddisa
|
Gujarat
|
Tamil Nadu
|
All the statements are correct with respect to Gujarat State.
|
c
|
Climate, Vegetation and Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A State of India is having the following characteristics: Long length of coastline. Long duration of hot and dry conditions. Wet in the southern districts and Arid in the north-west region. Deserts, scrublands, grasslands, deciduous forests, and wetlands to mangroves, coral reefs and estuaries are found. Which of the State given below is referred to in the above statements?##Option_A: Tamil Nadu###Option_B: Oddisa##Option_C: Gujarat##Option_D: Tamil Nadu##Answer:c##Explaination:All the statements are correct with respect to Gujarat State.##Topic:Climate, Vegetation and Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding a region in India: The relief is undulating. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock structure. Rivers in this region are seasonal and dry up in summer season. Which type of irrigation should be followed in such a region?
|
Tank
|
Canal
|
Well
|
Tank
|
Tank irrigation is practiced (esp in south central India) due to the following reasons: The undulating relief and hard rock make it difficult to dig canals and wells. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock structure and ground water is not available in large quantity. Most of the rivers in this region are seasonal and dry up in summer season. There are several streams which become torrential rainy season and the only way to make use of this water is to impound them by constructing bunds and building tanks. The scattered nature of population and agricultural fields also favour tank irrigation.
|
a
|
Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding a region in India: The relief is undulating. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock structure. Rivers in this region are seasonal and dry up in summer season. Which type of irrigation should be followed in such a region?##Option_A: Tank###Option_B: Canal##Option_C: Well ##Option_D: Tank##Answer:a##Explaination:Tank irrigation is practiced (esp in south central India) due to the following reasons: The undulating relief and hard rock make it difficult to dig canals and wells. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock structure and ground water is not available in large quantity. Most of the rivers in this region are seasonal and dry up in summer season. There are several streams which become torrential rainy season and the only way to make use of this water is to impound them by constructing bunds and building tanks. The scattered nature of population and agricultural fields also favour tank irrigation.##Topic:Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Lithium is the most prominently used metal in mobile phone batteries. Which among the following could be the reasons for the same? High energy density Relatively low self-discharge Cheaper to manufacture Low Maintenance Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Lithium Ion and Lithium polymer are most commonly used types of rechargeable mobile batteries.Though Nickel Cadmium batteries were used earlier they are not much in use today. Similarly Nickel metal hybrid batteries are relatively new technology and not in common use. So Lithium is the metal which is the most prominently used in batteries. Advantages High energy density - potential for yet higher capacities. Does not need prolonged priming when new. One regular charge is all that's needed. Relatively low self-discharge - self-discharge is less than half that of nickel-based batteries. Low Maintenance - no periodic discharge is needed; there is no memory. Specialty cells can provide very high current to applications such as power tools. Limitations Requires protection circuit to maintain voltage and current within safe limits. Subject to aging, even if not in use - storage in a cool place at 40% charge reduces the aging effect. Transportation restrictions - shipment of larger quantities may be subject to regulatory control. This restriction does not apply to personal carry-on batteries. Expensive to manufacture - about 40 percent higher in cost than nickel-cadmium. Not fully mature - metals and chemicals are changing on a continuing basis.
|
a
|
GS_Science and Technology Unclassified
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Lithium is the most prominently used metal in mobile phone batteries. Which among the following could be the reasons for the same? High energy density Relatively low self-discharge Cheaper to manufacture Low Maintenance Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Lithium Ion and Lithium polymer are most commonly used types of rechargeable mobile batteries.Though Nickel Cadmium batteries were used earlier they are not much in use today. Similarly Nickel metal hybrid batteries are relatively new technology and not in common use. So Lithium is the metal which is the most prominently used in batteries. Advantages High energy density - potential for yet higher capacities. Does not need prolonged priming when new. One regular charge is all that's needed. Relatively low self-discharge - self-discharge is less than half that of nickel-based batteries. Low Maintenance - no periodic discharge is needed; there is no memory. Specialty cells can provide very high current to applications such as power tools. Limitations Requires protection circuit to maintain voltage and current within safe limits. Subject to aging, even if not in use - storage in a cool place at 40% charge reduces the aging effect. Transportation restrictions - shipment of larger quantities may be subject to regulatory control. This restriction does not apply to personal carry-on batteries. Expensive to manufacture - about 40 percent higher in cost than nickel-cadmium. Not fully mature - metals and chemicals are changing on a continuing basis.##Topic:GS_Science and Technology Unclassified##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Labrador current: It is a warm ocean current. In its absence North-West Atlantic fishing grounds would not be possible. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Labrador current is a cold current in the north Atlantic ocean which flows from the Arctic ocean south along the coast of Labrador and passes around Newfoundland continuing south along the east coast of Nova Scotia. It meets the warm Gulf stream and the grand banks southeast of Newfoundland. The combination of these two produce the richest fishing grounds in the world.
|
a
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Labrador current: It is a warm ocean current. In its absence North-West Atlantic fishing grounds would not be possible. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Labrador current is a cold current in the north Atlantic ocean which flows from the Arctic ocean south along the coast of Labrador and passes around Newfoundland continuing south along the east coast of Nova Scotia. It meets the warm Gulf stream and the grand banks southeast of Newfoundland. The combination of these two produce the richest fishing grounds in the world.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Micro-nutrients are essential for plant growth and play an important role in balanced crop nutrition. Which among the following is a micro-nutrient? Copper Iron Chlorine Sulphur Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Micronutrients of soil: Chlorine, Iron, Boron, Manganese, Zinc, Copper, Molybdenum, Nickel. Macronutrients of soil: Nitrogen, Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphorous and Sulphur. Micro-nutrients are as important to plant nutrition as primary and secondary nutrients, though plants don't require as much of them. A lack of any one of the micronutrients in the soil can limit growth, even when all other nutrients are present in adequate amounts.
|
b
|
Problems of Soil and Conservation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Micro-nutrients are essential for plant growth and play an important role in balanced crop nutrition. Which among the following is a micro-nutrient? Copper Iron Chlorine Sulphur Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Micronutrients of soil: Chlorine, Iron, Boron, Manganese, Zinc, Copper, Molybdenum, Nickel. Macronutrients of soil: Nitrogen, Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphorous and Sulphur. Micro-nutrients are as important to plant nutrition as primary and secondary nutrients, though plants don't require as much of them. A lack of any one of the micronutrients in the soil can limit growth, even when all other nutrients are present in adequate amounts.##Topic:Problems of Soil and Conservation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Generally airplanes and jets fly in the stratosphere or upper troposphere. What could be the possible reasons behind it? The amount of air turbulence that flights experience is very less in this region. Vertical flow of winds is less in this region. More stability of the plane as wind speed is very low. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Most of the airplanes and even military jets fly in the stratosphere or atleast in the tropopause. The reason being that the amount of air turbulence flights receive are very less. The winds will flow at high velocities and this can be advantageous to save fuel. Also, these layers are "Stratified", meaning, they do not mix. If they mix, they are separated rather quickly. Hence the vertical flow of winds are less in this region. This is beneficial for the stability of the plane during flight.
|
a
|
The Atmosphere Structure, Composition
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Generally airplanes and jets fly in the stratosphere or upper troposphere. What could be the possible reasons behind it? The amount of air turbulence that flights experience is very less in this region. Vertical flow of winds is less in this region. More stability of the plane as wind speed is very low. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Most of the airplanes and even military jets fly in the stratosphere or atleast in the tropopause. The reason being that the amount of air turbulence flights receive are very less. The winds will flow at high velocities and this can be advantageous to save fuel. Also, these layers are "Stratified", meaning, they do not mix. If they mix, they are separated rather quickly. Hence the vertical flow of winds are less in this region. This is beneficial for the stability of the plane during flight.##Topic:The Atmosphere Structure, Composition##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following tribes are correctly matched with the regions they are associated with? Maldhari tribe - Gir Sanctuary Jenu Kuruba tribe - Nagarhole Sanctuary Baiga tribe - Indira Gandhi Sanctuary Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Baiga villages were relocated from the Achanakmar Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh. they are a central Indian tribe. Indira Gandhi Sanctuary is located near Anamalai in Tamil Nadu. Maldhari tribes live in and around Gir sanctuary and Banni Grasslands, both in Gujarat. Jenu Kuruba tribe lives in Nagarhole Sanctuary region apart from other regions of Western Ghats.
|
a
|
World: Population , Distribution & Density , Races & Tribes , Settlement & Migration
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following tribes are correctly matched with the regions they are associated with? Maldhari tribe - Gir Sanctuary Jenu Kuruba tribe - Nagarhole Sanctuary Baiga tribe - Indira Gandhi Sanctuary Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Baiga villages were relocated from the Achanakmar Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh. they are a central Indian tribe. Indira Gandhi Sanctuary is located near Anamalai in Tamil Nadu. Maldhari tribes live in and around Gir sanctuary and Banni Grasslands, both in Gujarat. Jenu Kuruba tribe lives in Nagarhole Sanctuary region apart from other regions of Western Ghats.##Topic:World: Population , Distribution & Density , Races & Tribes , Settlement & Migration##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement in reference to the special benefits attached to’ PradhanMantri Jan DhanYojana’ scheme: 1.Overdraft facility of Rs.5000/- is available to each account holder. 2. A premium free Accidental insurance Cover of Rs. 1 lakh for each account holder. 3.Life Insurance cover of Rs 30,000/- for every account holder. Select the correct code:
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Special Benefits attached to PMJDY include:
A premium free Accidental insurance Cover of Rs. 1 lakh for each account holder.
Life Insurance cover of Rs 30,000/- for each account holder
Overdraft facility is available only for one account per household preferably the lady of the house.
Access to pension,Insurance products
Beneficiaries of government schemes will get Direct Benefit Transfer in these accounts.
No minimum balance required.
|
d
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement in reference to the special benefits attached to’ PradhanMantri Jan DhanYojana’ scheme: 1.Overdraft facility of Rs.5000/- is available to each account holder. 2. A premium free Accidental insurance Cover of Rs. 1 lakh for each account holder. 3.Life Insurance cover of Rs 30,000/- for every account holder. Select the correct code:##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Special Benefits attached to PMJDY include:
A premium free Accidental insurance Cover of Rs. 1 lakh for each account holder.
Life Insurance cover of Rs 30,000/- for each account holder
Overdraft facility is available only for one account per household preferably the lady of the house.
Access to pension,Insurance products
Beneficiaries of government schemes will get Direct Benefit Transfer in these accounts.
No minimum balance required.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
With reference to pesticides, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Basic difference between first and fourth generation chemical pesticides is that the later ones target the critical life stages of the pest.
(b) Main problems associated with the chemical control lie in resurgence of stronger pests and their bioaccumulation.
(c) Praying mantis feeding on Lady Beetle larva is an example of biological control of pests.
(d) All the alternatives
|
,
|
and
|
nan
|
,
|
1. Generations of Chemical Pesticides:
i. 1 st Generation: They were inorganic in nature and toxic to humans and plants. Ex: Arsenic, Copper and Lead.
ii. 2 nd Generation: Mainly Organochlorines – Dieldrin, DDT – came in use after WW II (still in use in developing nations). They were also harmful to humans and plants. Pests developed resistance and problem of bioconcentration and biomagnification.
iii. 3 rd Generation: Include Organophosphates (Parathion, Malathion) and carbamates (Aldicarb, Carbofuran). They are less persistent in environment but are acutely potent nerve toxins, therefore, more lethal in low dose than Organochlorines.
iv. 4 th Generation: includes chemicals derived from plants and other biopesticides. Ex: Pyrethrins (from Chrysanthemum flowers), Nicotine (from Tobacco) and Azadirachtin (from Neem Plant). They target critical life stages of the insect pest and hence are less harmful to environment and human health. However, there is problem of development of resistance in target insects.
2. Based on above discussion it is clear that the chemical pesticides develop resistance among the pest population and it necessitates the use of higher dosage, subsequently, which is harmful to environment and human health. However, bioaccumation (term represents combined impact of the bioconcentaration – pesticide accumulation in pests and biomagnification – across the food chain) has been the major issue dreading ecological balance ( note that it is the accumulation of residues of pesticides and not pests). Hence, 2 nd statement is incorrect.
3. Bio - control measures to check the pest infestation involve use of natural enemies of pests. Given example is incorrect as both Praying Mantis and Lady Beetle Larvae are used as bio-control agents to eradicate the infestation of garden grasshoppers and Aphids, respectively.
|
a
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to pesticides, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Basic difference between first and fourth generation chemical pesticides is that the later ones target the critical life stages of the pest.
(b) Main problems associated with the chemical control lie in resurgence of stronger pests and their bioaccumulation.
(c) Praying mantis feeding on Lady Beetle larva is an example of biological control of pests.
(d) All the alternatives ##Option_A:, ###Option_B: and ##Option_C:nan##Option_D:, ##Answer:a##Explaination:1. Generations of Chemical Pesticides:
i. 1 st Generation: They were inorganic in nature and toxic to humans and plants. Ex: Arsenic, Copper and Lead.
ii. 2 nd Generation: Mainly Organochlorines – Dieldrin, DDT – came in use after WW II (still in use in developing nations). They were also harmful to humans and plants. Pests developed resistance and problem of bioconcentration and biomagnification.
iii. 3 rd Generation: Include Organophosphates (Parathion, Malathion) and carbamates (Aldicarb, Carbofuran). They are less persistent in environment but are acutely potent nerve toxins, therefore, more lethal in low dose than Organochlorines.
iv. 4 th Generation: includes chemicals derived from plants and other biopesticides. Ex: Pyrethrins (from Chrysanthemum flowers), Nicotine (from Tobacco) and Azadirachtin (from Neem Plant). They target critical life stages of the insect pest and hence are less harmful to environment and human health. However, there is problem of development of resistance in target insects.
2. Based on above discussion it is clear that the chemical pesticides develop resistance among the pest population and it necessitates the use of higher dosage, subsequently, which is harmful to environment and human health. However, bioaccumation (term represents combined impact of the bioconcentaration – pesticide accumulation in pests and biomagnification – across the food chain) has been the major issue dreading ecological balance ( note that it is the accumulation of residues of pesticides and not pests). Hence, 2 nd statement is incorrect.
3. Bio - control measures to check the pest infestation involve use of natural enemies of pests. Given example is incorrect as both Praying Mantis and Lady Beetle Larvae are used as bio-control agents to eradicate the infestation of garden grasshoppers and Aphids, respectively. ##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to India’s Polar and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicles (SLVs), consider the following statements: 1. PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle whereas GSLV has three stages. 2. PSLV is utilized to launch only earth observation satellites in circular orbits whereas GSLV is mainly used to launch communication satellites in highly elliptical orbits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Stages PSLV GSLV Strap-on Boosters – to augment thrust in 1 st stage 6 in case of variants – PSLV-G or PSLV-XL but not for Core Alone (PSLV-CA) 4 liquid engines 1 st Stage S139 solid rocket motor; Fuel: HTBP (Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene) Same as PSLV. 2 nd Stage Vikas engine ( Liquid ); Oxidizer: Nitrogen Tetraoxide (N 2 O 4 ) Fuel: Unsymmetrical dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) Same as PSLV. 3 rd Stage S139 solid rocket motor; Fuel: HTBP (Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene) CE-7.5 - India's first cryogenic engine Oxidizer: Liquid Oxygen (LOX) Fuel: Liquid Hydrogen (LH 2 ) 4 th Stage PS-4 Engine ( Liquid ); Oxidizer: Oxides of Nitrogen (MON) Fuel: Monomethylhydrazine (MMH) Absent (Note: Last stage of PSLV – 4 th and GSLV – 3 rd ) Statement 2nd is not correct: PSLV is utilized to launch mainly earth observation satellites/Remote Sensing Satellites in Sun-Synchronous/Pole to Pole circular orbits, also known as Low Earth Orbits. However, PSLV was also used to launch communication satellites with lower lift-off mass (up to 1400 kg) to place in the elliptical Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) – Gsat-12 (telemedicine and tele-education services and support for disaster management) in 2011. On the other hand, GSLV is mainly used to launch communication satellites in highly elliptical orbits.
|
a
|
India's Space Programme
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to India’s Polar and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicles (SLVs), consider the following statements: 1. PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle whereas GSLV has three stages. 2. PSLV is utilized to launch only earth observation satellites in circular orbits whereas GSLV is mainly used to launch communication satellites in highly elliptical orbits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B:2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Stages PSLV GSLV Strap-on Boosters – to augment thrust in 1 st stage 6 in case of variants – PSLV-G or PSLV-XL but not for Core Alone (PSLV-CA) 4 liquid engines 1 st Stage S139 solid rocket motor; Fuel: HTBP (Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene) Same as PSLV. 2 nd Stage Vikas engine ( Liquid ); Oxidizer: Nitrogen Tetraoxide (N 2 O 4 ) Fuel: Unsymmetrical dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) Same as PSLV. 3 rd Stage S139 solid rocket motor; Fuel: HTBP (Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene) CE-7.5 - India's first cryogenic engine Oxidizer: Liquid Oxygen (LOX) Fuel: Liquid Hydrogen (LH 2 ) 4 th Stage PS-4 Engine ( Liquid ); Oxidizer: Oxides of Nitrogen (MON) Fuel: Monomethylhydrazine (MMH) Absent (Note: Last stage of PSLV – 4 th and GSLV – 3 rd ) Statement 2nd is not correct: PSLV is utilized to launch mainly earth observation satellites/Remote Sensing Satellites in Sun-Synchronous/Pole to Pole circular orbits, also known as Low Earth Orbits. However, PSLV was also used to launch communication satellites with lower lift-off mass (up to 1400 kg) to place in the elliptical Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) – Gsat-12 (telemedicine and tele-education services and support for disaster management) in 2011. On the other hand, GSLV is mainly used to launch communication satellites in highly elliptical orbits.##Topic:India's Space Programme##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
With reference to Bharat Ratna Award, consider the following statements:
1. As per Indian order of Precedence, award holder has an equal status to that of Lok Sabha Speaker and leaders of opposition of both Parliament Houses.
2. Bharat Ratna Sachin Ramesh Tendulkar is the first sportsperson and the youngest recipient of this honour.
3. Till date, five Presidents and seven Prime Ministers of India were honoured with this prestigious award.
4. Khan Abdul Gafar Khan, Nelson Mandela and Anjezë Gonxhe Bojaxhiu (Mother Teresa) were the foreign nationals, conferred with this civilian award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 2 only
|
As per Indian order of Precedence in ceremonial functions, a Bharat Ratna Awardee has an equal status to that of Union Cabinet Minister, State Chief Ministers (within respective state) and leaders of opposition of both Parliament Houses (7 th position whereas Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of India are having equal status at the ceremonial functions at 6 th position). Note that this precedence has no legal backing or doesn’t reflect the Presidential line of succession.
Though the information provided in the statement is correct, use of prefix Bharat Ratna before the name of Sachin Tendulkar, made this statement incorrect as according to the official document, Article 18 (1) of the Constitution, the award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient's name. Also, this award doesn’t carry any monetary grant.
Third statement is correct as till date five Presidents - Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan; Rajendra Prasad; Zakir Hussain; V. V. Giri and A. P. J. Abdul Kalam and seven Prime Ministers - Jawaharlal Nehru; Lal Bahadur Shastri; Indira Gandhi; Rajiv Gandhi; Morarji Desai; Gulzarilal Nanda and Atal Bihari Vajpayee – were honoured with this prestigious award.
Khan Abdul Gafar Khan and Nelson Mandela were the foreign nationals but Anjezë Gonxhe Bojaxhiu (Mother Teresa) was the first naturalized Indian when conferred with this civilian award. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
|
b
|
Nationally Acclaimed
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Bharat Ratna Award, consider the following statements:
1. As per Indian order of Precedence, award holder has an equal status to that of Lok Sabha Speaker and leaders of opposition of both Parliament Houses.
2. Bharat Ratna Sachin Ramesh Tendulkar is the first sportsperson and the youngest recipient of this honour.
3. Till date, five Presidents and seven Prime Ministers of India were honoured with this prestigious award.
4. Khan Abdul Gafar Khan, Nelson Mandela and Anjezë Gonxhe Bojaxhiu (Mother Teresa) were the foreign nationals, conferred with this civilian award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
As per Indian order of Precedence in ceremonial functions, a Bharat Ratna Awardee has an equal status to that of Union Cabinet Minister, State Chief Ministers (within respective state) and leaders of opposition of both Parliament Houses (7 th position whereas Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of India are having equal status at the ceremonial functions at 6 th position). Note that this precedence has no legal backing or doesn’t reflect the Presidential line of succession.
Though the information provided in the statement is correct, use of prefix Bharat Ratna before the name of Sachin Tendulkar, made this statement incorrect as according to the official document, Article 18 (1) of the Constitution, the award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient's name. Also, this award doesn’t carry any monetary grant.
Third statement is correct as till date five Presidents - Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan; Rajendra Prasad; Zakir Hussain; V. V. Giri and A. P. J. Abdul Kalam and seven Prime Ministers - Jawaharlal Nehru; Lal Bahadur Shastri; Indira Gandhi; Rajiv Gandhi; Morarji Desai; Gulzarilal Nanda and Atal Bihari Vajpayee – were honoured with this prestigious award.
Khan Abdul Gafar Khan and Nelson Mandela were the foreign nationals but Anjezë Gonxhe Bojaxhiu (Mother Teresa) was the first naturalized Indian when conferred with this civilian award. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
##Topic:Nationally Acclaimed##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
In case of Balance of Payments crisis, which of the following steps could be useful? Adjustments of exchange rates Adjustments of imports and exports Control on Fiscal Deficit Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Unprecedented imbalances between imports and exports is one of the prime reason for BoP crisis. Adjustment of Exchange rates is done to manage BoP crisis.
|
b
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In case of Balance of Payments crisis, which of the following steps could be useful? Adjustments of exchange rates Adjustments of imports and exports Control on Fiscal Deficit Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Unprecedented imbalances between imports and exports is one of the prime reason for BoP crisis. Adjustment of Exchange rates is done to manage BoP crisis.##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the followings are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India? Scheduled banks Non-banking financial Companies Regional Rural Banks State Cooperative Banks Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
Under the RBI Act, 1939, banks were classified as scheduled banks and nonscheduled banks. The scheduled banks are those which are entered in the second schedule. All Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks, State Cooperative Banks are scheduled banks. The Reserve Bank of India is entrusted with the responsibility of regulating and supervising the Non-Banking Financial Companies by virtue of powers vested in Chapter III B of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
|
d
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the followings are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India? Scheduled banks Non-banking financial Companies Regional Rural Banks State Cooperative Banks Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Under the RBI Act, 1939, banks were classified as scheduled banks and nonscheduled banks. The scheduled banks are those which are entered in the second schedule. All Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks, State Cooperative Banks are scheduled banks. The Reserve Bank of India is entrusted with the responsibility of regulating and supervising the Non-Banking Financial Companies by virtue of powers vested in Chapter III B of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to India’s rich heritage of alternative medicine systems, consider the following statements:
1. Both Ayurveda and Siddha systems of medication give top priority to the conjunctive use of plants and minerals.
2. Homeopathic treatment is based on the law of similars whereas the Unani medication is based on natural power of body and mind.
3. National AYUSH Mission has two mandatory components viz. AYUSH Services and AYUSH educational institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
· Ayurveda gives topmost priority to herbal treatment – use of medicinal plants (though on rare occasions use other minerals for treatment) but Siddha medicine gives importance to the conjunctive use of plants and minerals – meaning both are commonly used. The Siddha system is based on a combination of ancient medicinal practices and spiritual disciplines as well as alchemy and mysticism.
· One of the main principles of Homeopathy (Founder – Dr. Samuel Hahnemann) is the law of similars meaning Like Cures Like, in general parlance; we can use the analogy of working mechanism of vaccines where weak strain of causal agent of disease is injected in the human body to produce antibodies for certain toxins (antigens) which in turn develops immunity to fight against the certain infections. In Homeopathy also drugs in diluted form are created to create the similar symptoms as the disease which helps body to develop defense mechanism and heal itself.
· In Unani medicine, the health of the human body is maintained by the harmonious arrangement of al-umoor al-tabiyah, the seven basic physiological principles of the Unani doctrine - (1) arkan, or elements, (2) mizaj, or temperament, (3) akhlat, or bodily humours, (4) aaza, or organs and systems, (5) arwah, or vital spirit, (6) quw a, or faculties or powers, and (7) afaal, or functions. Each individual’s constitution (mind and body) has a self-regulating capacity called tabiyat to keep the seven components in equilibrium.
· National AYUSH Mission (NAM) was launched by AYUSH department under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) in September, 2014. The mandatory components of this mission are four:
1. AYUSH Services
2. AYUSH Educational Institutions
3. Quality Control of ASU &H Drugs and
4. Medicinal Plants (sustained supply of AYUSH raw-materials)
Whereas, the flexible components include AYUSH Wellness Centres including Yoga & Naturopathy; Tele-medicine; Sports Medicine through AYUSH; Crop Insurance for Medicinal Plants etc
|
b
|
Health , Health and Family Welfare
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to India’s rich heritage of alternative medicine systems, consider the following statements:
1. Both Ayurveda and Siddha systems of medication give top priority to the conjunctive use of plants and minerals.
2. Homeopathic treatment is based on the law of similars whereas the Unani medication is based on natural power of body and mind.
3. National AYUSH Mission has two mandatory components viz. AYUSH Services and AYUSH educational institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
· Ayurveda gives topmost priority to herbal treatment – use of medicinal plants (though on rare occasions use other minerals for treatment) but Siddha medicine gives importance to the conjunctive use of plants and minerals – meaning both are commonly used. The Siddha system is based on a combination of ancient medicinal practices and spiritual disciplines as well as alchemy and mysticism.
· One of the main principles of Homeopathy (Founder – Dr. Samuel Hahnemann) is the law of similars meaning Like Cures Like, in general parlance; we can use the analogy of working mechanism of vaccines where weak strain of causal agent of disease is injected in the human body to produce antibodies for certain toxins (antigens) which in turn develops immunity to fight against the certain infections. In Homeopathy also drugs in diluted form are created to create the similar symptoms as the disease which helps body to develop defense mechanism and heal itself.
· In Unani medicine, the health of the human body is maintained by the harmonious arrangement of al-umoor al-tabiyah, the seven basic physiological principles of the Unani doctrine - (1) arkan, or elements, (2) mizaj, or temperament, (3) akhlat, or bodily humours, (4) aaza, or organs and systems, (5) arwah, or vital spirit, (6) quw a, or faculties or powers, and (7) afaal, or functions. Each individual’s constitution (mind and body) has a self-regulating capacity called tabiyat to keep the seven components in equilibrium.
· National AYUSH Mission (NAM) was launched by AYUSH department under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) in September, 2014. The mandatory components of this mission are four:
1. AYUSH Services
2. AYUSH Educational Institutions
3. Quality Control of ASU &H Drugs and
4. Medicinal Plants (sustained supply of AYUSH raw-materials)
Whereas, the flexible components include AYUSH Wellness Centres including Yoga & Naturopathy; Tele-medicine; Sports Medicine through AYUSH; Crop Insurance for Medicinal Plants etc
##Topic:Health , Health and Family Welfare##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
With reference to India"s Integrated Watershed Development Programme (IWDP), consider the following statements: Hariyali guidelines pertain to the compensatory afforestation and its management in culturable command area under watershed development project. Neeranchal project, partially funded by World Bank, intends to support ongoing initiatives related to water management and strengthen community participation.. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Hariyali Guidelines (2003): To simplify procedures and involve the Panchayat Raj Institutions (PRIs) more meaningfully in planning, implementation and management of economic development activities in rural areas, especially, regarding the area development programmes – Integrated Wastelands Development Programme (IWDP), Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP) and Desert Development Programme (DDP). The main objectives of these guidelines involve efficient water harvesting measures and better water use management, along with improving livelihood resources for rural people. (Nodal agency - Dept of Land Resources under Ministry of Rural Development) Whereas Compensatory afforestation management falls under MoEF&CC, which involves, compensating the deforestation done for certain necessary project by afforestation of the wasteland or taking measures to improve degraded forest area. Neeranchal Watershed Development Project has been approved for the period of six years from 2014-15 to 2019-20 across 8 Indian states – pilot basis (Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan) covering 60% of IWDP area (2 nd largest watershed development project after China) with GoI and World Bank, each sharing 50% burden of the project. Aims and Objectives: To strengthen the capacity of key national and state level institutions currently implementing watershed programs such as the IWMP, including the central Department of Land Resources (DoLR) and the State Level Nodal Agencies (SLNAs) for more effective planning, implementation, monitoring and evaluation of their programs. To support the preparation of integrated science-based, participatory watershed plans with a greater focus on water management - improving more efficient use of water for agriculture, recharge local groundwater etc. To help farmers to adopt new soil, water and crop management techniques to increase vegetative cover, reduce soil erosion, and improve agricultural yields by facilitating access to real time weather forecasts and help them adopt climate smart agricultural practices to mitigate against climate change impacts. To improve rural livelihoods through training, better extension services, and strengthened forward linkages to markets.
|
b
|
Ecology_and_Environment_Unclassified
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to India"s Integrated Watershed Development Programme (IWDP), consider the following statements: Hariyali guidelines pertain to the compensatory afforestation and its management in culturable command area under watershed development project. Neeranchal project, partially funded by World Bank, intends to support ongoing initiatives related to water management and strengthen community participation.. Select the correct answer from the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Hariyali Guidelines (2003): To simplify procedures and involve the Panchayat Raj Institutions (PRIs) more meaningfully in planning, implementation and management of economic development activities in rural areas, especially, regarding the area development programmes – Integrated Wastelands Development Programme (IWDP), Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP) and Desert Development Programme (DDP). The main objectives of these guidelines involve efficient water harvesting measures and better water use management, along with improving livelihood resources for rural people. (Nodal agency - Dept of Land Resources under Ministry of Rural Development) Whereas Compensatory afforestation management falls under MoEF&CC, which involves, compensating the deforestation done for certain necessary project by afforestation of the wasteland or taking measures to improve degraded forest area. Neeranchal Watershed Development Project has been approved for the period of six years from 2014-15 to 2019-20 across 8 Indian states – pilot basis (Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan) covering 60% of IWDP area (2 nd largest watershed development project after China) with GoI and World Bank, each sharing 50% burden of the project. Aims and Objectives: To strengthen the capacity of key national and state level institutions currently implementing watershed programs such as the IWMP, including the central Department of Land Resources (DoLR) and the State Level Nodal Agencies (SLNAs) for more effective planning, implementation, monitoring and evaluation of their programs. To support the preparation of integrated science-based, participatory watershed plans with a greater focus on water management - improving more efficient use of water for agriculture, recharge local groundwater etc. To help farmers to adopt new soil, water and crop management techniques to increase vegetative cover, reduce soil erosion, and improve agricultural yields by facilitating access to real time weather forecasts and help them adopt climate smart agricultural practices to mitigate against climate change impacts. To improve rural livelihoods through training, better extension services, and strengthened forward linkages to markets.##Topic:Ecology_and_Environment_Unclassified##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Year 2015, marks 40 th anniversary of end of Vietnam War which is still in the news due to devastating impact of ‘Agent Orange’. In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. America’s Operation Ranch Hand used a combination of Di - and Tri - chlorophenoxyacetic acid – Agent Orange – commonly used to control broadleaf weeds.
2. Exposure to Dioxins, used in Agent Orange has resulted in cancers and birth defects in the victims of the war.
3. United Nations Environmental Modification Convention prohibits military use of techniques modifying natural processes on large scale.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Agent Orange is the mixture of 2,4-D (Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) and 2,4,5-T (Trichlorophenoxy acetic acid), in equal amounts which are commonly used to control the Broadleaf weeds in the crop fields. It was one of the major herbicidal agents used in Operation Ranch Hand program of USA.
This agent was manufactured for the U.S. Department of Defense primarily by Monsanto Corporation and Dow Chemical. One of the herbicides 2,4,5-T, used to produce Agent Orange was contaminated with 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzodioxin (TCDD), an extremely toxic dioxin compound (not essential compound to produce this agent). The long lasting health effects are visible in victims in the form of cancers and birth defects due to exposure.
In the aftermath of this chemical or environment altering warfare, UN General Assembly brought Convention on the Prohibition of Military or Any Other Hostile Use of Environmental Modification Techniques for ratification by the members which entered into the force in October, 1978. This convention also prohibits the weather warfare. Essentially, the convention prohibits any use of technology to alter the normal functioning of natural processes pertaining to lithosphere, biosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere, harming environmental balance.
|
b
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Year 2015, marks 40 th anniversary of end of Vietnam War which is still in the news due to devastating impact of ‘Agent Orange’. In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. America’s Operation Ranch Hand used a combination of Di - and Tri - chlorophenoxyacetic acid – Agent Orange – commonly used to control broadleaf weeds.
2. Exposure to Dioxins, used in Agent Orange has resulted in cancers and birth defects in the victims of the war.
3. United Nations Environmental Modification Convention prohibits military use of techniques modifying natural processes on large scale.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Agent Orange is the mixture of 2,4-D (Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) and 2,4,5-T (Trichlorophenoxy acetic acid), in equal amounts which are commonly used to control the Broadleaf weeds in the crop fields. It was one of the major herbicidal agents used in Operation Ranch Hand program of USA.
This agent was manufactured for the U.S. Department of Defense primarily by Monsanto Corporation and Dow Chemical. One of the herbicides 2,4,5-T, used to produce Agent Orange was contaminated with 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzodioxin (TCDD), an extremely toxic dioxin compound (not essential compound to produce this agent). The long lasting health effects are visible in victims in the form of cancers and birth defects due to exposure.
In the aftermath of this chemical or environment altering warfare, UN General Assembly brought Convention on the Prohibition of Military or Any Other Hostile Use of Environmental Modification Techniques for ratification by the members which entered into the force in October, 1978. This convention also prohibits the weather warfare. Essentially, the convention prohibits any use of technology to alter the normal functioning of natural processes pertaining to lithosphere, biosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere, harming environmental balance.
##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following factors affects the movement of Ocean Currents? Winds Temperature Salinity Pressure Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Factors causing movement of Ocean currents are: The Planetary winds: they are the dominant influence on the ocean current. The Trade winds in the tropics and the westerlies in the temperate areas strongly influence the movement of ocean currents. Temperature: As warm water is lighter and rises, and cold water is denser and sinks, warm equatorial waters move slowly along the surface polewards, while the heavier cold waters of the polar regions creep slowly along the bottom of the sea equator wards. Salinity: waters of high salinity are denser than waters of low salinity.hence waters of low salinity flow on the surface of waters of high salinity while waters of high salinity flow at the bottom towards water of low salinity. The Earths rotation: Deflects freely moving objects,including ocean currents towards the right. In the Northern Hemisphere it is in clockwise direction and in the southern hemisphere it is in the anti clock wise direction. Land: A land mass obstructs and diverts the ocean currents.
|
d
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors affects the movement of Ocean Currents? Winds Temperature Salinity Pressure Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Factors causing movement of Ocean currents are: The Planetary winds: they are the dominant influence on the ocean current. The Trade winds in the tropics and the westerlies in the temperate areas strongly influence the movement of ocean currents. Temperature: As warm water is lighter and rises, and cold water is denser and sinks, warm equatorial waters move slowly along the surface polewards, while the heavier cold waters of the polar regions creep slowly along the bottom of the sea equator wards. Salinity: waters of high salinity are denser than waters of low salinity.hence waters of low salinity flow on the surface of waters of high salinity while waters of high salinity flow at the bottom towards water of low salinity. The Earths rotation: Deflects freely moving objects,including ocean currents towards the right. In the Northern Hemisphere it is in clockwise direction and in the southern hemisphere it is in the anti clock wise direction. Land: A land mass obstructs and diverts the ocean currents.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following functions performed by Guilds (Sreni) of ancient India is/are correct? Guilds were organizations of people of same caste following the same profession. They performed banking functions and lent loans to Artisans and Merchants. They could prosecute their member for breaking the state and guild laws. They were engaged in charity works as well. Select the correct answers from the codes given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Guilds were organizations of people following the same profession. Guild were economic institutions and caste are social groups. The guilds loaned money to artisans and merchants and epigraphical evidence shows that even the royalty deposited money with them. Guild worked to alleviate distress and undertook works of piety and charity as a matter of duty. Guilds could try their member for offenses in accordance with their own customs. A guild member has to abide by to both state and guild laws. However the jurisdiction of guild courts was confined to civil cases alone.
|
c
|
Others
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following functions performed by Guilds (Sreni) of ancient India is/are correct? Guilds were organizations of people of same caste following the same profession. They performed banking functions and lent loans to Artisans and Merchants. They could prosecute their member for breaking the state and guild laws. They were engaged in charity works as well. Select the correct answers from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Guilds were organizations of people following the same profession. Guild were economic institutions and caste are social groups. The guilds loaned money to artisans and merchants and epigraphical evidence shows that even the royalty deposited money with them. Guild worked to alleviate distress and undertook works of piety and charity as a matter of duty. Guilds could try their member for offenses in accordance with their own customs. A guild member has to abide by to both state and guild laws. However the jurisdiction of guild courts was confined to civil cases alone.##Topic:Others##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are correctly matched: 1. Dyarchy In Provinces: Government of India Act,1919 2. Bicameralism in provinces: Government of India Act.1935 3. Power of discussing budget: Indian councils Act,186
|
nan
|
Bicameralism in provinces: Government of India Act.1935
|
Power of discussing budget: Indian councils Act,1861.
|
nan
|
Power of discussing budget: Indian councils Act,1892
Open competition for Civil Service: Government of India Act, 1853.
|
b
|
Laws in News
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following is/are correctly matched: 1. Dyarchy In Provinces: Government of India Act,1919 2. Bicameralism in provinces: Government of India Act.1935 3. Power of discussing budget: Indian councils Act,186##Option_A:nan###Option_B:Bicameralism in provinces: Government of India Act.1935##Option_C:Power of discussing budget: Indian councils Act,1861.##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Power of discussing budget: Indian councils Act,1892
Open competition for Civil Service: Government of India Act, 1853.
##Topic:Laws in News##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements in reference to Aajeevika:
|
It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
|
It aims at creating self managed Self Help Groups.
|
It provides Finances, Tools and Skill Development.
|
It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
|
Aajeevika - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India in June 2011. Aided in part through investment support by the World Bank, the Mission aims at creating efficient and effective institutional platforms of the rural poor enabling them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood enhancements and improved access to financial services.
NRLM has set out with an agenda to cover 7 Crore rural poor households, across 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats and 6 lakh villages in the country through self-managed Self Help Groups (SHGs) and federated institutions and support them for livelihoods collectives in a period of 8-10 years.
In addition, the poor would be facilitated to achieve increased access to their rights, entitlements and public services, diversified risk and better social indicators of empowerment. NRLM believes in harnessing the innate capabilities of the poor and complements them with capacities (information, knowledge, skills, tools, finance and collectivization) to participate in the growing economy of the country.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in reference to Aajeevika:##Option_A:It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.###Option_B:It aims at creating self managed Self Help Groups.##Option_C:It provides Finances, Tools and Skill Development.##Option_D:It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.##Answer:c##Explaination:
Aajeevika - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India in June 2011. Aided in part through investment support by the World Bank, the Mission aims at creating efficient and effective institutional platforms of the rural poor enabling them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood enhancements and improved access to financial services.
NRLM has set out with an agenda to cover 7 Crore rural poor households, across 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats and 6 lakh villages in the country through self-managed Self Help Groups (SHGs) and federated institutions and support them for livelihoods collectives in a period of 8-10 years.
In addition, the poor would be facilitated to achieve increased access to their rights, entitlements and public services, diversified risk and better social indicators of empowerment. NRLM believes in harnessing the innate capabilities of the poor and complements them with capacities (information, knowledge, skills, tools, finance and collectivization) to participate in the growing economy of the country.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Q) In which of the following case/cases is the constitutional position of Rajya Sabha equal with Lok Sabha?
|
Discontinuance of Emergency.
|
Enlargement of the Jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Court.
|
Introduction of Financial bills involving expenditure from Consolidated fund of India.
|
Discontinuance of Emergency.
|
The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal status with the Lok Sabha in the following matters:
1.Introduction and passage of ordinary bills, Constitutional amendment bills and financial bills involving expenditure from consolidated fund of India.
2.Election and Impeachment of President and Vice President. However, in case of removal of vice president only Rajya can initiate the removal of Vice President. Lok Sabha cannot initiate the removal of Vice President.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q) In which of the following case/cases is the constitutional position of Rajya Sabha equal with Lok Sabha?
##Option_A:Discontinuance of Emergency.
###Option_B:Enlargement of the Jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Court.
##Option_C:Introduction of Financial bills involving expenditure from Consolidated fund of India.
##Option_D:Discontinuance of Emergency.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal status with the Lok Sabha in the following matters:
1.Introduction and passage of ordinary bills, Constitutional amendment bills and financial bills involving expenditure from consolidated fund of India.
2.Election and Impeachment of President and Vice President. However, in case of removal of vice president only Rajya can initiate the removal of Vice President. Lok Sabha cannot initiate the removal of Vice President.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Fourteenth Finance Commission?
|
ncreased share of the states in the central divisible pool.
|
rants to Rural and Urban Local Bodies.
|
ector Specific grants to boost manufacturing.
|
ncreased share of the states in the central divisible pool.
|
Some of the major recommendationsare as follows:
• The FFC has radically enhanced the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 percent to 42 per cent which is the biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution.
• The FFC has also proposed a new horizontal formula for the distribution of the states’ share in divisible pool among the states. There are changes both in the variables included/excluded as well as the weights assigned t to them. Relative to the Thirteenth Finance Commission, the FFC has incorporated two new variables: 2011 population and Forest cover and it has excluded Fiscal Discipline variable.
• Several other types of transfers have been proposed including grants to rural and urban local bodies, a performance grant along with grants for disaster relief and revenue deficit.
• The FFC has not made any recommendation concerning sector specific-grants unlike the Thirteenth Finance Commission
|
b
|
Economic survey 2014-15
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Fourteenth Finance Commission?##Option_A:ncreased share of the states in the central divisible pool.###Option_B:rants to Rural and Urban Local Bodies.##Option_C:ector Specific grants to boost manufacturing.##Option_D:ncreased share of the states in the central divisible pool.##Answer:b##Explaination:
Some of the major recommendationsare as follows:
• The FFC has radically enhanced the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 percent to 42 per cent which is the biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution.
• The FFC has also proposed a new horizontal formula for the distribution of the states’ share in divisible pool among the states. There are changes both in the variables included/excluded as well as the weights assigned t to them. Relative to the Thirteenth Finance Commission, the FFC has incorporated two new variables: 2011 population and Forest cover and it has excluded Fiscal Discipline variable.
• Several other types of transfers have been proposed including grants to rural and urban local bodies, a performance grant along with grants for disaster relief and revenue deficit.
• The FFC has not made any recommendation concerning sector specific-grants unlike the Thirteenth Finance Commission
##Topic:Economic survey 2014-15##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statement in reference to ‘Make in India’ Initiative of the government is/are correct:
|
It targets an increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP from 16% to 35% by 2022.
|
Aims to create 100 million jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector.
|
The process of applying for industrial license has been made online 24*7.
|
It targets an increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP from 16% to 35% by 2022.
|
Targets of Make In India are as follows:
1.Increase in manufacturing sector growth to 12-14% per annum over the medium term.
2. An increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s Gross Domestic Product from 16% to 25% by 2022.
3. To create 100 million additional jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector.
4.Creation of appropriate skill sets among rural migrants and the urban poor for inclusive growth.
The following measures have been taken:
1.The process of applying for Industrial License and Industrial Entrepreneur Memorandum has been made online on the e-Biz website 24*7;
2.A vast number of Defence items have been de-licensed;
3.The validity of Industrial license has been extended to three years;
4.With a view to providing flexibility in working hours and increased intake of apprentices for on the job training, the Government has decided to amend a number of labour laws
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement in reference to ‘Make in India’ Initiative of the government is/are correct:##Option_A:It targets an increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP from 16% to 35% by 2022.###Option_B:Aims to create 100 million jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector.##Option_C:The process of applying for industrial license has been made online 24*7.##Option_D:It targets an increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP from 16% to 35% by 2022.##Answer:d##Explaination:
Targets of Make In India are as follows:
1.Increase in manufacturing sector growth to 12-14% per annum over the medium term.
2. An increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s Gross Domestic Product from 16% to 25% by 2022.
3. To create 100 million additional jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector.
4.Creation of appropriate skill sets among rural migrants and the urban poor for inclusive growth.
The following measures have been taken:
1.The process of applying for Industrial License and Industrial Entrepreneur Memorandum has been made online on the e-Biz website 24*7;
2.A vast number of Defence items have been de-licensed;
3.The validity of Industrial license has been extended to three years;
4.With a view to providing flexibility in working hours and increased intake of apprentices for on the job training, the Government has decided to amend a number of labour laws
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statement in reference to ‘Make in India’ Initiative of the government is/are correct:
|
It targets an increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP from 16% to 35% by 2022.
|
Aims to create 100 million jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector.
|
The process of applying for industrial license has been made online 24*7.
|
It targets an increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP from 16% to 35% by 2022.
|
Targets of Make In India are as follows:
1.Increase in manufacturing sector growth to 12-14% per annum over the medium term.
2. An increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s Gross Domestic Product from 16% to 25% by 2022.
3. To create 100 million additional jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector.
4.Creation of appropriate skill sets among rural migrants and the urban poor for inclusive growth.
The following measures have been taken:
1.The process of applying for Industrial License and Industrial Entrepreneur Memorandum has been made online on the e-Biz website 24*7;
2.A vast number of Defence items have been de-licensed;
3.The validity of Industrial license has been extended to three years;
4.With a view to providing flexibility in working hours and increased intake of apprentices for on the job training, the Government has decided to amend a number of labour laws
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement in reference to ‘Make in India’ Initiative of the government is/are correct:##Option_A:It targets an increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP from 16% to 35% by 2022.###Option_B:Aims to create 100 million jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector.##Option_C:The process of applying for industrial license has been made online 24*7.##Option_D:It targets an increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP from 16% to 35% by 2022.##Answer:d##Explaination:
Targets of Make In India are as follows:
1.Increase in manufacturing sector growth to 12-14% per annum over the medium term.
2. An increase in the share of manufacturing in the country’s Gross Domestic Product from 16% to 25% by 2022.
3. To create 100 million additional jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector.
4.Creation of appropriate skill sets among rural migrants and the urban poor for inclusive growth.
The following measures have been taken:
1.The process of applying for Industrial License and Industrial Entrepreneur Memorandum has been made online on the e-Biz website 24*7;
2.A vast number of Defence items have been de-licensed;
3.The validity of Industrial license has been extended to three years;
4.With a view to providing flexibility in working hours and increased intake of apprentices for on the job training, the Government has decided to amend a number of labour laws
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements in reference to the Communal Award announced by Ramsay Mcdonald in 1932. It declared the depressed classes as minorities and entitled them to separate electorates. Mahatma Gandhiji went on an indefinite fast to oppose the award. The Congress rejected it and proposed an alternative scheme of reservation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Though opposed to separate electorates, the Congress was not in favour of changing the communal award without the consent of minorities. Thus,while strongly disagreeing with the communal award the congress decided neither to accept or reject it. Alternative scheme of reservation was provided by Gandhiji, which was accepted by Dr Ambedkar. This resulted in signing the Poona pact.
|
b
|
Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in reference to the Communal Award announced by Ramsay Mcdonald in 1932. It declared the depressed classes as minorities and entitled them to separate electorates. Mahatma Gandhiji went on an indefinite fast to oppose the award. The Congress rejected it and proposed an alternative scheme of reservation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Though opposed to separate electorates, the Congress was not in favour of changing the communal award without the consent of minorities. Thus,while strongly disagreeing with the communal award the congress decided neither to accept or reject it. Alternative scheme of reservation was provided by Gandhiji, which was accepted by Dr Ambedkar. This resulted in signing the Poona pact.##Topic:Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Match the Following: 1. Zamindari system : (a) Bombay and Madras 2. Mahalwari system : (b) Bengal and Orissa 3. Ryotwari system : (c) Gangetic Valley and Punjab Select the correct code:
|
1-b, 2-c, 3-a
|
1-b, 2-a, 3-c
|
1-a, 2-b, 3-c
|
1-b, 2-c, 3-a
|
The Zamindari system: Bengal,Bihar,Orissa,northern Carnatic,Benares division ( roughly 19% of the total area of British India The Mahalwari System: Major portion of United provinces,the Gangetic plain,the Central provinces and The Punjab( roughly 30% of total British India. The Ryotwari system: Major portions of Bombay and Madras. (roughy 51% of British India)
|
a
|
Economic policies and their impact, Education Policies
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match the Following: 1. Zamindari system : (a) Bombay and Madras 2. Mahalwari system : (b) Bengal and Orissa 3. Ryotwari system : (c) Gangetic Valley and Punjab Select the correct code: ##Option_A:1-b, 2-c, 3-a ###Option_B:1-b, 2-a, 3-c ##Option_C:1-a, 2-b, 3-c ##Option_D:1-b, 2-c, 3-a ##Answer:a##Explaination:The Zamindari system: Bengal,Bihar,Orissa,northern Carnatic,Benares division ( roughly 19% of the total area of British India The Mahalwari System: Major portion of United provinces,the Gangetic plain,the Central provinces and The Punjab( roughly 30% of total British India. The Ryotwari system: Major portions of Bombay and Madras. (roughy 51% of British India)##Topic:Economic policies and their impact, Education Policies##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of following is /are the method pf parliamentary control over Public Finance in India ? Demands for grants Supplementary ,Additional or Excess grants Vote on Account Vote on Credit Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 4 only.
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
The specific methods available to the parliament for control over public finances are: Annual financial statement: Article 112 Consolidated Fund: Article 112(3) MoneyBill: Article 110 Demands for Grants: Under article 113 the lok sabha has the power to assent to or reject any demand. Supplementary, Additional r Excess Grants: Article 115 lays down that statements showing the estimates of expenditure for the supplementary,additional or excess grants have to be presented to the Lok Sabha. Appropriation Bill. Vote on Credit:Article 116 of the constitution also provides that the Parliament may make a grant for meeting and unexpected demand. Vote on Account: As per article 116 of the constitution, a vote on account is a grant approved by the Parliament in advance.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of following is /are the method pf parliamentary control over Public Finance in India ? Demands for grants Supplementary ,Additional or Excess grants Vote on Account Vote on Credit Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only.##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The specific methods available to the parliament for control over public finances are: Annual financial statement: Article 112 Consolidated Fund: Article 112(3) MoneyBill: Article 110 Demands for Grants: Under article 113 the lok sabha has the power to assent to or reject any demand. Supplementary, Additional r Excess Grants: Article 115 lays down that statements showing the estimates of expenditure for the supplementary,additional or excess grants have to be presented to the Lok Sabha. Appropriation Bill. Vote on Credit:Article 116 of the constitution also provides that the Parliament may make a grant for meeting and unexpected demand. Vote on Account: As per article 116 of the constitution, a vote on account is a grant approved by the Parliament in advance.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements with respect to Index of Industrial Production is/are correct? It is an index for India which details out the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing. It measures the long-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period The Base year is 2004-05 It is released by the Office of Economic Advisor Under the Ministry of Commerce. Select the correct code:
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only.
|
1,2 and 4 only.
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index for India which details out the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing. The all India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) six weeks after the reference month ends. The level of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an abstract number, the magnitude of which represents the status of production in the industrial sector for a given period of time as compared to a reference period of time. The base year was at one time fixed at 1993-94 so that year was assigned an index level of 100. The current base year is 2004-2005.
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements with respect to Index of Industrial Production is/are correct? It is an index for India which details out the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing. It measures the long-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period The Base year is 2004-05 It is released by the Office of Economic Advisor Under the Ministry of Commerce. Select the correct code:##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only.##Option_C: 1,2 and 4 only.##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index for India which details out the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing. The all India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) six weeks after the reference month ends. The level of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an abstract number, the magnitude of which represents the status of production in the industrial sector for a given period of time as compared to a reference period of time. The base year was at one time fixed at 1993-94 so that year was assigned an index level of 100. The current base year is 2004-2005.##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Konkan Railways took some environment friendly initiatives recently. Which of the methods of energy efficiency are included in this initiative? Phasing out of incandescent bulbs Use of Electronic Fan Regulator T8 Fittings in place of T5 fittings Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
All statements are correct. T12, T8 and T5 are naming convention for tubelights where "12" is the thickest and "5" is the slimmest tubelight. T12s were quite popular in the past (some 10-15 years back). They were replaced with slimmer T8 version, which are the most popular and easily available version today. But T5 is the most efficient (energy saving) option that is available in the market today. It is approximately as thick as a thumb. As this is a relatively new technology, you may find it difficult to get them in the market.
|
d
|
GS_current_unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Konkan Railways took some environment friendly initiatives recently. Which of the methods of energy efficiency are included in this initiative? Phasing out of incandescent bulbs Use of Electronic Fan Regulator T8 Fittings in place of T5 fittings Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All statements are correct. T12, T8 and T5 are naming convention for tubelights where "12" is the thickest and "5" is the slimmest tubelight. T12s were quite popular in the past (some 10-15 years back). They were replaced with slimmer T8 version, which are the most popular and easily available version today. But T5 is the most efficient (energy saving) option that is available in the market today. It is approximately as thick as a thumb. As this is a relatively new technology, you may find it difficult to get them in the market.##Topic:GS_current_unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is true about the role of parliament in formation of new States and alteration of areas?
|
Increase the area of any State
|
Diminish the area of any State
|
Alter the boundaries of any State
|
Increase the area of any State
|
Parliament may by law: form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; increase the area of any State; diminish the area of any State; alter the boundaries of any State; alter the name of any State;
|
d
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is true about the role of parliament in formation of new States and alteration of areas?
##Option_A:Increase the area of any State###Option_B:Diminish the area of any State##Option_C:Alter the boundaries of any State##Option_D:Increase the area of any State##Answer:d##Explaination:Parliament may by law: form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; increase the area of any State; diminish the area of any State; alter the boundaries of any State; alter the name of any State;##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: The territories of the States The Union territories specified in First Schedule Other territories that are acquired Which of the above is the part of territory of India according to article 1(3)?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The territories of the States The Union territories specified in First Schedule Other territories that are acquired Which of the above is the part of territory of India according to article 1(3)?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: A multiple entry Multi-purpose life long visa to India. Exemption from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in India. Acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties. Which of the above benefits is/are available for Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Following are the benefits entitled to Overseas citizen of India: Multiple entry lifelong visa for visiting India for any purpose (However OCI Cardholders will require a special permission to undertake research work in India for which they may submit the application to the Indian Mission/ Post/ FRRO concerned). Exemption from registration with Foreigners Regional Registration Officer (FRRO) or Foreigners Registration Officer (FRO) for any length of stay in India. OCI have parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in respect of all facilities available to them in economic, financial, and educational fields except in matters relating to the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties .
|
a
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: A multiple entry Multi-purpose life long visa to India. Exemption from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in India. Acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties. Which of the above benefits is/are available for Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Following are the benefits entitled to Overseas citizen of India: Multiple entry lifelong visa for visiting India for any purpose (However OCI Cardholders will require a special permission to undertake research work in India for which they may submit the application to the Indian Mission/ Post/ FRRO concerned). Exemption from registration with Foreigners Regional Registration Officer (FRRO) or Foreigners Registration Officer (FRO) for any length of stay in India. OCI have parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in respect of all facilities available to them in economic, financial, and educational fields except in matters relating to the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties .##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: A Non-Resident Indian is an Indian citizen who is ordinarily residing outside India and holds an Indian Passport. A person who, or any of his ancestors, was an Indian national is a P I O. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: NRI - an Indian citizen who is ordinarily residing outside India and holds an Indian Passport Statement 2 is also correct: PIO - A person who or whose any of ancestors was an Indian national and who is presently holding another country’s citizenship/ nationality i.e. he/she is holding foreign passport
|
c
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: A Non-Resident Indian is an Indian citizen who is ordinarily residing outside India and holds an Indian Passport. A person who, or any of his ancestors, was an Indian national is a P I O. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: NRI - an Indian citizen who is ordinarily residing outside India and holds an Indian Passport Statement 2 is also correct: PIO - A person who or whose any of ancestors was an Indian national and who is presently holding another country’s citizenship/ nationality i.e. he/she is holding foreign passport##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Article 20:
1. No person can be inflicted with a punishment greater than what the offense provided for on the day of the commission of a crime.
2. The protection against double jeopardy is available in both the proceedings i.e before a court of law and administrative authorities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
Both1 and 2
|
1 Only
|
The protection against double jeopardy is available only in the proceedings before a court
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Article 20:
1. No person can be inflicted with a punishment greater than what the offense provided for on the day of the commission of a crime.
2. The protection against double jeopardy is available in both the proceedings i.e before a court of law and administrative authorities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 Only###Option_B: 2 Only##Option_C:Both1 and 2##Option_D: 1 Only##Answer:a##Explaination: The protection against double jeopardy is available only in the proceedings before a court##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Geography_unclassified
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Geography_unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about the Earth"s Revolution around the Sun: The seasons arise from the Earth"s revolution around the Sun and the tilt of the Earth"s axis. At the winter solstice, the northern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. At the summer solstice, the southern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. On the day of equinox day and night are of equal length everywhere on the globe. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
At equinox, the circle of illumination passes through the North and South Poles. One important feature of the equinox is that day and night are of equal length everywhere on the globe. The seasons arise from the Earth's revolution around the Sun and the tilt of the Earth's axis. At the summer (June) solstice, the northern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. At the winter (December) solstice, the southern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. At the equinoxes, day and night are of equal length.
|
b
|
Motions and Inclinations of the Earth and their effects
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Earth"s Revolution around the Sun: The seasons arise from the Earth"s revolution around the Sun and the tilt of the Earth"s axis. At the winter solstice, the northern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. At the summer solstice, the southern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. On the day of equinox day and night are of equal length everywhere on the globe. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:At equinox, the circle of illumination passes through the North and South Poles. One important feature of the equinox is that day and night are of equal length everywhere on the globe. The seasons arise from the Earth's revolution around the Sun and the tilt of the Earth's axis. At the summer (June) solstice, the northern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. At the winter (December) solstice, the southern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. At the equinoxes, day and night are of equal length.##Topic:Motions and Inclinations of the Earth and their effects##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are the environmental effects of the Earth"s rotation on its axis? Day and Night Planetary Winds Tides Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
The directions of large motions of the atmosphere and oceans are also affected, as the turning planet makes their paths curve. Our weather systems respond to this phenomenon, which is known as the Coriolis effect. The Earth's rotation combined with the Moon's gravitational pull on the planet creates the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean surface i.e. tides.
|
d
|
Motions and Inclinations of the Earth and their effects
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the environmental effects of the Earth"s rotation on its axis? Day and Night Planetary Winds Tides Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The directions of large motions of the atmosphere and oceans are also affected, as the turning planet makes their paths curve. Our weather systems respond to this phenomenon, which is known as the Coriolis effect. The Earth's rotation combined with the Moon's gravitational pull on the planet creates the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean surface i.e. tides.##Topic:Motions and Inclinations of the Earth and their effects##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding soils is/are correct? High soil acidity is typical of cold and humid climate. Alkaline soil is typical of warm and humid climate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Soils in cold, humid climates typically have high acidity, while in arid climates, soils are typically alkaline. Acidity can be corrected by applying lime, a compound of calcium, carbon, and oxygen (CaCO3), which removes acid ions and replaces them with the base calcium.
|
a
|
Soils Classification, distribution, erosion & Conservation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding soils is/are correct? High soil acidity is typical of cold and humid climate. Alkaline soil is typical of warm and humid climate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Soils in cold, humid climates typically have high acidity, while in arid climates, soils are typically alkaline. Acidity can be corrected by applying lime, a compound of calcium, carbon, and oxygen (CaCO3), which removes acid ions and replaces them with the base calcium.##Topic:Soils Classification, distribution, erosion & Conservation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following soil forming processes: Podsolization is associated with humid cold mid-latitude climates. Presence of acid producing vegetation e.g. coniferous pines is essential for Podsolization. Laterization is common to soils found in tropical & subtropical environments. Laterite soils are heavily leached that causes these soils to have acidic pH value. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
nbsp; 1, 2 and 3 only
|
nbsp; 1, 3 and 4 only
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
All the statements are correct regarding Podsolization and Laterization. Specific soil-forming processes keyed to climatic regions (not a basis for classification) are called pedogenic regimes: Laterization (leaching in warm and humid climates), salinization (collection of salt residues in surface horizons in hot, dry cli- mates), calcification (accumulation of carbonates in the B and C horizons in drier continental climates), Podsolization (soil acidification in forest soils in cool climates), and gleization (humus and clay accumulation in cold, wet climates with poor drainage).
|
d
|
GS_Geography_unclassified
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following soil forming processes: Podsolization is associated with humid cold mid-latitude climates. Presence of acid producing vegetation e.g. coniferous pines is essential for Podsolization. Laterization is common to soils found in tropical & subtropical environments. Laterite soils are heavily leached that causes these soils to have acidic pH value. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:nbsp; 1 and 2 only###Option_B:nbsp; 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C:nbsp; 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:nbsp; 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct regarding Podsolization and Laterization. Specific soil-forming processes keyed to climatic regions (not a basis for classification) are called pedogenic regimes: Laterization (leaching in warm and humid climates), salinization (collection of salt residues in surface horizons in hot, dry cli- mates), calcification (accumulation of carbonates in the B and C horizons in drier continental climates), Podsolization (soil acidification in forest soils in cool climates), and gleization (humus and clay accumulation in cold, wet climates with poor drainage).##Topic:GS_Geography_unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are the characteristics of commercial farming? Farm mechanization Crop specialization Surplus production Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Farm mechanization, Crop specialization and Surplus production are the determinants of commercial farming.
|
b
|
Land Resources and Agriculture
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the characteristics of commercial farming? Farm mechanization Crop specialization Surplus production Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Farm mechanization, Crop specialization and Surplus production are the determinants of commercial farming.##Topic:Land Resources and Agriculture##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the given factors determines the choice of crop of an area? Climate Soil Market demand Government policies Level of innovation Level of economic development Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
nbsp; 1,2,4, and 5 only
|
nbsp; 1,2,3,4and 5 only
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
Climate conditions are the main determinants of the crop selection whereas Market demand, Government policies, Level of innovation and Level of economic development also determines the choice of crop. Countries with low economic development and low Level of innovation generally, prefer food crops.
|
a
|
GS_Geography_unclassified
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the given factors determines the choice of crop of an area? Climate Soil Market demand Government policies Level of innovation Level of economic development Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A:nbsp; 1 and 2 only###Option_B:nbsp; 1,2,4, and 5 only##Option_C:nbsp; 1,2,3,4and 5 only##Option_D:nbsp; 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Climate conditions are the main determinants of the crop selection whereas Market demand, Government policies, Level of innovation and Level of economic development also determines the choice of crop. Countries with low economic development and low Level of innovation generally, prefer food crops. ##Topic:GS_Geography_unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following conditions is/are favourable to tea plantation? High rainfall Warm temperature Well drained acidic soil Sloping land Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Climatic conditions for growing tea: Temperature: 21°C to 29°C is ideal for the production of tea. High temperature is required in summer. The lowest temperature for the growth of tea is 16°C. Rainfall: 150-250 cm of rainfall is required for tea cultivation. Soil: Tea shrubs require fertile mountain soil mixed with lime and iron. The soil should be rich in humus. Land: Tea cultivation needs well drained land. Stagnation of water is not good for tea plants. Heavy rainfall but no stagnancy of water, such mountain slopes are good for tea cultivation.
|
d
|
Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following conditions is/are favourable to tea plantation? High rainfall Warm temperature Well drained acidic soil Sloping land Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Climatic conditions for growing tea: Temperature: 21°C to 29°C is ideal for the production of tea. High temperature is required in summer. The lowest temperature for the growth of tea is 16°C. Rainfall: 150-250 cm of rainfall is required for tea cultivation. Soil: Tea shrubs require fertile mountain soil mixed with lime and iron. The soil should be rich in humus. Land: Tea cultivation needs well drained land. Stagnation of water is not good for tea plants. Heavy rainfall but no stagnancy of water, such mountain slopes are good for tea cultivation.##Topic:Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
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