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A light year is a measure of:
|
time
|
distance
|
velocity
|
time
|
A light year is a measure of distance and not of time. Light travels at a speed of 300,000 km/second. Considering this, the distances the light will travel in one year is taken to be one light year. This equals to 9.4611012 km. The mean distance between the sun and the earth is 149,598,000 km. In terms of light years, it is 8.311 minutes.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A light year is a measure of:##Option_A:time###Option_B:distance##Option_C:velocity##Option_D:time##Answer:b##Explaination:A light year is a measure of distance and not of time. Light travels at a speed of 300,000 km/second. Considering this, the distances the light will travel in one year is taken to be one light year. This equals to 9.4611012 km. The mean distance between the sun and the earth is 149,598,000 km. In terms of light years, it is 8.311 minutes.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following countries opens out to Indian Ocean? Oman Ethiopia Vietnam Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Among the given countries only Oman opens out to Indian ocean. Oman shares its southern border with the Indian Ocean. Ethiopia is a landlocked country and does not share a border with Indian Ocean. Vietnam shares a border along Pacific Ocean and not Indian Ocean.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following countries opens out to Indian Ocean? Oman Ethiopia Vietnam Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Among the given countries only Oman opens out to Indian ocean. Oman shares its southern border with the Indian Ocean. Ethiopia is a landlocked country and does not share a border with Indian Ocean. Vietnam shares a border along Pacific Ocean and not Indian Ocean.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following islands are located in the Pacific Ocean? Galapagos Islands Marshall Islands Aleutian Islands Hawaii Island Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
All the given islands are located in Pacific Islands. Galapagos Islands - Situated in the Pacific Ocean some 1,000 km from the South American continent, these 19 islands and the surrounding marine reserve have been called a unique 'living museum and showcase of evolution'. Marshall Island - It is prominent coral island located in the Pacific Ocean. Aleutian Island - These are a chain of volcanic islands. They form part of the Aleutian Arc in the Northern Pacific Ocean. Hawaii Island - It is also a volcanic island located in the Pacific Ocean.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following islands are located in the Pacific Ocean? Galapagos Islands Marshall Islands Aleutian Islands Hawaii Island Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:All the given islands are located in Pacific Islands. Galapagos Islands - Situated in the Pacific Ocean some 1,000 km from the South American continent, these 19 islands and the surrounding marine reserve have been called a unique 'living museum and showcase of evolution'. Marshall Island - It is prominent coral island located in the Pacific Ocean. Aleutian Island - These are a chain of volcanic islands. They form part of the Aleutian Arc in the Northern Pacific Ocean. Hawaii Island - It is also a volcanic island located in the Pacific Ocean.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following lakes as one proceeds from North to South? Lake Baikal Lake Victoria Caspian Sea Lake Chad Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3-1-2-4
|
1-3-4-2
|
3-2-4-1
|
3-1-2-4
|
Lake Baikal - It is a rift lake in Russia. Lake Victoria - It is the largest lake in Africa and chief reservoir of the Nile, lying mainly in Tanzania and Uganda but bordering on Kenya. Caspian Sea - It is the largest lake on the planet located in western Asia on the eastern edges of Europe. Lake Chad - It is a freshwater lake located in the Sahelian zone of west-central Africa at the conjunction of Chad, Cameroon, Nigeria, and Niger. Therefore, the correct sequence is: Lake Baikal-Caspian Sea-Lake Chad-Lake Victoria
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following lakes as one proceeds from North to South? Lake Baikal Lake Victoria Caspian Sea Lake Chad Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 3-1-2-4 ###Option_B: 1-3-4-2 ##Option_C: 3-2-4-1 ##Option_D: 3-1-2-4 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Lake Baikal - It is a rift lake in Russia. Lake Victoria - It is the largest lake in Africa and chief reservoir of the Nile, lying mainly in Tanzania and Uganda but bordering on Kenya. Caspian Sea - It is the largest lake on the planet located in western Asia on the eastern edges of Europe. Lake Chad - It is a freshwater lake located in the Sahelian zone of west-central Africa at the conjunction of Chad, Cameroon, Nigeria, and Niger. Therefore, the correct sequence is: Lake Baikal-Caspian Sea-Lake Chad-Lake Victoria##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs:
Vedic Name Modern Name 1. Jhelum Vitasta 2. Chenab Asikini 3. Ravi Parushni 4. Beas Vipash
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
1, 2, and 4 only
|
2, 3, and 4 only
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
.
|
d
|
Vedic Age
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs:
Vedic Name Modern Name 1. Jhelum Vitasta 2. Chenab Asikini 3. Ravi Parushni 4. Beas Vipash
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1, 2, and 3 only###Option_B:1, 2, and 4 only##Option_C:2, 3, and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2, and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Vedic Age##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
With reference to Constitutionalism, which of the following statements is the most appropriate?
|
It is an ideology which promotes supremacy of a written Constitution.
|
It means Constitution is necessary in a democratic country.
|
It denotes the principle that the government derives its authority from a body of fundamental law and is limited by it.
|
It is an ideology which promotes supremacy of a written Constitution.
|
Constitutionalism is a concept which means that Government derives its authority from a fundamental body of law and is legally limited in its powers by the same. It does not have any relation to written or unwritten constitution or the political system of a country. Constitutionalism’ means limited government or limitation on government. Constitutionalism recognizes the need for government with powers but at the same time insists that limitation be placed on those powers. The antithesis of constitutionalism is despotism and arbitrary powers . A government which goes beyond its limits loses its authority and legitimacy. Therefore, to preserve the basic freedoms of the individual, and to maintain his dignity and personality, the Constitution should be permeated with ‘Constitutionalism’; it should have some inbuilt restrictions on the powers conferred by it on governmental organs. Constitutionalism is primarily based on the notion of people's sovereignty, which is to be exercised-in a limited manner-by a representative government. The only consensual and representative form of governance in existence today, is democratic government. In this way, there is a very important and basic link between democracy and constitutionalism. Genuine democracies rest on the sovereignty of the people, not the rulers. Elected representatives are to exercise authority on behalf of the people, based on the will of the people. Without genuine democracy, there can be no constitutionalism. Constitutionalism is safeguarded by the rule of law. Rule of law refers to the supremacy of law: that society is governed by law and this law applies equally to all persons, including government and state officials. Following basic principles of constitutionalism, common institutional provisions used to maintain the rule of law include the separation of powers, judicial review, the prohibition of retroactive legislation and habeas corpus. Only when the supremacy of the rule of law is established, can supremacy of the constitution exist. Constitutionalism additionally requires effective laws and their enforcement to provide structure to its framework.
|
c
|
Constitutionalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Constitutionalism, which of the following statements is the most appropriate?##Option_A:It is an ideology which promotes supremacy of a written Constitution.###Option_B:It means Constitution is necessary in a democratic country.##Option_C:It denotes the principle that the government derives its authority from a body of fundamental law and is limited by it.##Option_D:It is an ideology which promotes supremacy of a written Constitution.##Answer:c##Explaination:Constitutionalism is a concept which means that Government derives its authority from a fundamental body of law and is legally limited in its powers by the same. It does not have any relation to written or unwritten constitution or the political system of a country. Constitutionalism’ means limited government or limitation on government. Constitutionalism recognizes the need for government with powers but at the same time insists that limitation be placed on those powers. The antithesis of constitutionalism is despotism and arbitrary powers . A government which goes beyond its limits loses its authority and legitimacy. Therefore, to preserve the basic freedoms of the individual, and to maintain his dignity and personality, the Constitution should be permeated with ‘Constitutionalism’; it should have some inbuilt restrictions on the powers conferred by it on governmental organs. Constitutionalism is primarily based on the notion of people's sovereignty, which is to be exercised-in a limited manner-by a representative government. The only consensual and representative form of governance in existence today, is democratic government. In this way, there is a very important and basic link between democracy and constitutionalism. Genuine democracies rest on the sovereignty of the people, not the rulers. Elected representatives are to exercise authority on behalf of the people, based on the will of the people. Without genuine democracy, there can be no constitutionalism. Constitutionalism is safeguarded by the rule of law. Rule of law refers to the supremacy of law: that society is governed by law and this law applies equally to all persons, including government and state officials. Following basic principles of constitutionalism, common institutional provisions used to maintain the rule of law include the separation of powers, judicial review, the prohibition of retroactive legislation and habeas corpus. Only when the supremacy of the rule of law is established, can supremacy of the constitution exist. Constitutionalism additionally requires effective laws and their enforcement to provide structure to its framework. ##Topic:Constitutionalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Sedition Act of 1870, consider the following statements: 1. Under the act, any person protesting or criticising the government could be arrested without due trial. 2. Mahatma Gandhi was jailed in 1922 on sedition charges under this act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Sedition Act 1870. The Sedition Act, allowed the government to arrest or detain any person without a fair trial in the court who was seen protesting or criticizing the British authority. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The first case was registered, in 1891, when the editor of a newspaper called Bangobasi was booked for publishing an article criticising an “Age of Consent Bill.” Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a leading advocate of Indian self-rule, was charged with sedition on two occasions.Mahatma Gandhi, India’s most famous freedom fighter, was jailed for six years on sedition charges. Mahatma Gandhi was arrested by the British police on March 10 in 1922 for writing three 'politically sensitive' articles in his weekly journal Young India, However, Mr. Gandhi did not oppose the verdict, saying it was a “privilege” to be charged with sedition. Mr. Gandhi said people should be free to express their disaffection toward the government so long as they aren’t inciting violence. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Sedition Act of 1870, consider the following statements: 1. Under the act, any person protesting or criticising the government could be arrested without due trial. 2. Mahatma Gandhi was jailed in 1922 on sedition charges under this act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Sedition Act 1870. The Sedition Act, allowed the government to arrest or detain any person without a fair trial in the court who was seen protesting or criticizing the British authority. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The first case was registered, in 1891, when the editor of a newspaper called Bangobasi was booked for publishing an article criticising an “Age of Consent Bill.” Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a leading advocate of Indian self-rule, was charged with sedition on two occasions.Mahatma Gandhi, India’s most famous freedom fighter, was jailed for six years on sedition charges. Mahatma Gandhi was arrested by the British police on March 10 in 1922 for writing three 'politically sensitive' articles in his weekly journal Young India, However, Mr. Gandhi did not oppose the verdict, saying it was a “privilege” to be charged with sedition. Mr. Gandhi said people should be free to express their disaffection toward the government so long as they aren’t inciting violence. Hence, statement 2 is correct. ##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court is bound to give an opinion on all matters that the President may refer to.
2. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on matters referred to it by the President is binding on the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court is bound to give an opinion on all matters that the President may refer to.
2. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on matters referred to it by the President is binding on the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें -
1. सहायक संधि डूप्ले के दिमाग की उपज थी ।
2. वेलेजली द्वारा ने हैदराबाद , सिंधिया , तंजौर और मैसूर के साथ सहायक संधि की ।
3. सिंधिया नागपुर से तथा गायकवाड़ इंदौर से संबन्धित थे ।
उपरोक्त मे से कौन सा / से कथन सत्य है / हैं -
|
1 और 2
|
2 और 3
|
1 और 3
|
1 और 2
|
nan
|
a
|
India in the late Eighteenth Century
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें -
1. सहायक संधि डूप्ले के दिमाग की उपज थी ।
2. वेलेजली द्वारा ने हैदराबाद , सिंधिया , तंजौर और मैसूर के साथ सहायक संधि की ।
3. सिंधिया नागपुर से तथा गायकवाड़ इंदौर से संबन्धित थे ।
उपरोक्त मे से कौन सा / से कथन सत्य है / हैं -##Option_A:1 और 2 ###Option_B:2 और 3 ##Option_C:1 और 3 ##Option_D:1 और 2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:India in the late Eighteenth Century##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements: Unlike the speaker of Loksabha, the chairman of Rajyasabha does not have the power to suspend a member. The chairman can direct any member to withdraw from the House for the remainder of the day"s meeting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Unlike the Speaker, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a member. The Chairman may name a member who disregards the authority of the Chair. In such a situation, the House may adopt a motion suspending the member from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session. Statement 2 is correct. He can “direct any member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disorderly to withdraw immediately” from the House.
|
c
|
Working of the Rajya Sabha
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements: Unlike the speaker of Loksabha, the chairman of Rajyasabha does not have the power to suspend a member. The chairman can direct any member to withdraw from the House for the remainder of the day"s meeting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Unlike the Speaker, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a member. The Chairman may name a member who disregards the authority of the Chair. In such a situation, the House may adopt a motion suspending the member from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session. Statement 2 is correct. He can “direct any member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disorderly to withdraw immediately” from the House.##Topic:Working of the Rajya Sabha##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the statements given below is/are correct regarding the ordinance-making power of the President of India?
1. It may come into force from a previous date.
2. It can be issued even if one House is not in session.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: An ordinance can be retrospective. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance.
Statement 2 is correct: An ordinance can be issued even if one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the statements given below is/are correct regarding the ordinance-making power of the President of India?
1. It may come into force from a previous date.
2. It can be issued even if one House is not in session.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: An ordinance can be retrospective. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance.
Statement 2 is correct: An ordinance can be issued even if one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
In the context of the Indian Judiciary, which of the following factors provides for its independence? 1. Appointment and removal of judges are done as per the Constitutional Provisions. 2. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the consolidated fund of India. 3. Conduct of judges cannot be discussed in Parliament except during the removal of judges. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Independence in judiciary is secured by removing scope of undue interference by executive and legislature. All the given options ensure independence of judiciary with respect to legislative and executive.
Statement 1 is correct: The appointment and removal of judges as per the Constitutional Provisions ensures no interference by legislature and executive.
Statement 2 is correct: Charged expenditure ensures financial independence.
Statement 3 is correct: This provision ensures non-interference by legislature.
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of the Indian Judiciary, which of the following factors provides for its independence? 1. Appointment and removal of judges are done as per the Constitutional Provisions. 2. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the consolidated fund of India. 3. Conduct of judges cannot be discussed in Parliament except during the removal of judges. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 3##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Independence in judiciary is secured by removing scope of undue interference by executive and legislature. All the given options ensure independence of judiciary with respect to legislative and executive.
Statement 1 is correct: The appointment and removal of judges as per the Constitutional Provisions ensures no interference by legislature and executive.
Statement 2 is correct: Charged expenditure ensures financial independence.
Statement 3 is correct: This provision ensures non-interference by legislature.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the President, consider the following statements:
1. He summons and presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. He decides on the disqualification of members of Parliament under the Tenth Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The joint session of both houses though summoned by President, is presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision on disqualification under Tenth Schedule is taken by Speaker in case of Lok Sabha and Chairman in case of Rajya Sabha. The President decides on disqualification under Representation of Peoples Act, in consultation with Election Commission.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the President, consider the following statements:
1. He summons and presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. He decides on the disqualification of members of Parliament under the Tenth Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The joint session of both houses though summoned by President, is presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision on disqualification under Tenth Schedule is taken by Speaker in case of Lok Sabha and Chairman in case of Rajya Sabha. The President decides on disqualification under Representation of Peoples Act, in consultation with Election Commission.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Centre-State relations, consider the following statements: Under Article 263 the Parliament can establish an Inter-state council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the centre and the states. A law on a concurrent subject though enacted by the Parliament is to be executed by the states except it is directed otherwise by the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not the parliament but it is the president who can establish an Inter-state council to investigate and discuss subject to common interest between the centre and the states under article 263. Statement 2 is correct. Though parliament enacts on a concurrent subject, state has to execute it.
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Centre-State relations, consider the following statements: Under Article 263 the Parliament can establish an Inter-state council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the centre and the states. A law on a concurrent subject though enacted by the Parliament is to be executed by the states except it is directed otherwise by the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not the parliament but it is the president who can establish an Inter-state council to investigate and discuss subject to common interest between the centre and the states under article 263. Statement 2 is correct. Though parliament enacts on a concurrent subject, state has to execute it.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the office of Governor in a state, consider the following statements:
1. The ordinance-making power of a Governor is a discretionary power.
2. The Governor cannot suspend or commute a death sentence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The ordinance making power of a Governor is not a discretionary power as he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of council of ministers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor though cannot pardon a death sentence, he can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
|
d
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the office of Governor in a state, consider the following statements:
1. The ordinance-making power of a Governor is a discretionary power.
2. The Governor cannot suspend or commute a death sentence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The ordinance making power of a Governor is not a discretionary power as he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of council of ministers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor though cannot pardon a death sentence, he can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to national emergency under article 352 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act replaced the term "armed rebellion" with "internal disturbance" as one of the grounds for prolamation of national emergency. Prior to 44th Amendment Act, the proclamation needed to be passed by only a simple majority. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act granted special power to Rajya sabha to discontinue national emergency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act replaced word "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion". Statement 2 is correct. 44th constitutional amendment amended simple majority with special majority to pass such resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act gave special power to Lok sabha to initiate proceeding for discontinuation of the emergency.
|
b
|
Emergency Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to national emergency under article 352 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act replaced the term "armed rebellion" with "internal disturbance" as one of the grounds for prolamation of national emergency. Prior to 44th Amendment Act, the proclamation needed to be passed by only a simple majority. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act granted special power to Rajya sabha to discontinue national emergency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act replaced word "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion". Statement 2 is correct. 44th constitutional amendment amended simple majority with special majority to pass such resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect. 44th constitutional amendment act gave special power to Lok sabha to initiate proceeding for discontinuation of the emergency.##Topic:Emergency Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Money Bill, consider the following statements: 1. Under Article 109, a money bill shall not be introduced in Rajya Sabha. 2. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a money bill and has to return it within 10 days with or without amendments. 3. Its defeat in the Lok Sabha may lead to the resignation of the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 109 states that a money shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajya Sabha has to return the money bill within 14 days, as per article 109
Statement 3 is correct: A defeat of Money bill in Lok Sabha is deemed political/parliamentary defeat of the government of the day and requires a confidence motion after that which may lead to resignation of the government.
|
b
|
Types of bills and Legislative procedure
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Money Bill, consider the following statements: 1. Under Article 109, a money bill shall not be introduced in Rajya Sabha. 2. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a money bill and has to return it within 10 days with or without amendments. 3. Its defeat in the Lok Sabha may lead to the resignation of the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 109 states that a money shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajya Sabha has to return the money bill within 14 days, as per article 109
Statement 3 is correct: A defeat of Money bill in Lok Sabha is deemed political/parliamentary defeat of the government of the day and requires a confidence motion after that which may lead to resignation of the government.
##Topic:Types of bills and Legislative procedure##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Article-262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of Inter-state water disputes. Which of the following provisions in this regard is/are correct? 1. Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint. 2. Parliament cannot restrict the Supreme Court or any other court to exercise jurisdiction in respect of such dispute. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or river valley
Statement 2 is incorrect : Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause ( 1 ) Co-ordination between States.
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Article-262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of Inter-state water disputes. Which of the following provisions in this regard is/are correct? 1. Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint. 2. Parliament cannot restrict the Supreme Court or any other court to exercise jurisdiction in respect of such dispute. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or river valley
Statement 2 is incorrect : Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause ( 1 ) Co-ordination between States.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following were constituted in pursuance of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts?
1. State Finance Commission
2. State Election Commission
3. District Planning Committees
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The governor of a state shall, after every five years, constitute a finance commission to review the financial position of the panchayats.
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. It consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by thegovernor. His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the governor.
Every state shall constitute at the district level, a district planning committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and muncipalities in the district.
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following were constituted in pursuance of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts?
1. State Finance Commission
2. State Election Commission
3. District Planning Committees
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The governor of a state shall, after every five years, constitute a finance commission to review the financial position of the panchayats.
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. It consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by thegovernor. His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the governor.
Every state shall constitute at the district level, a district planning committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and muncipalities in the district.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Cabinet Committees, consider the following statement:
The establishment of Cabinet Committees is provided under the Indian Constitution.
Non-cabinet members can become members of Cabinet Committees.
All Cabinet Committees are headed by Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect : Cabinet Committees are extra constitutional in origin.Mostly, the Prime Minister sets up different Cabinet Committees with select members of the Cabinet and assigns specific functions to such Cabinet Committees for smooth and convenient functioning of the Government.
Statement 2 is correct: On special invitation, non-cabinet members can become members of cabinet committees.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Cabinet committees are mostly headed by Prime Minister but not always, sometimes these committees may be headed by other cabinet ministers, such as Home or Finance minister.
|
b
|
Cabinet committees
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Cabinet Committees, consider the following statement:
The establishment of Cabinet Committees is provided under the Indian Constitution.
Non-cabinet members can become members of Cabinet Committees.
All Cabinet Committees are headed by Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect : Cabinet Committees are extra constitutional in origin.Mostly, the Prime Minister sets up different Cabinet Committees with select members of the Cabinet and assigns specific functions to such Cabinet Committees for smooth and convenient functioning of the Government.
Statement 2 is correct: On special invitation, non-cabinet members can become members of cabinet committees.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Cabinet committees are mostly headed by Prime Minister but not always, sometimes these committees may be headed by other cabinet ministers, such as Home or Finance minister.
##Topic:Cabinet committees##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the office of Governor, consider the following statements: 1. Governor can be removed prematurely by the president before the end of the term. 2. The Constitution prescribes that the President should consult the Chief Minister of the state while appointing the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 2 is incorrect: The consultation of the President with the Chief minister while appointing the Governor is not provided in the Indian Constitution but has developed out of conventions.
|
a
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the office of Governor, consider the following statements: 1. Governor can be removed prematurely by the president before the end of the term. 2. The Constitution prescribes that the President should consult the Chief Minister of the state while appointing the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 2 is incorrect: The consultation of the President with the Chief minister while appointing the Governor is not provided in the Indian Constitution but has developed out of conventions.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by?
|
Special majority of the Parliament and of the State Assemblies.
|
A simple majority of the Parliament.
|
Special majority of the Parliament.
|
Special majority of the Parliament and of the State Assemblies.
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by?##Option_A:Special majority of the Parliament and of the State Assemblies.###Option_B:A simple majority of the Parliament.##Option_C:Special majority of the Parliament.##Option_D:Special majority of the Parliament and of the State Assemblies.##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
In case of conflict among two or more judgements of the Supreme Court, which of the following judgement is followed or considered as final?
|
Latest judgment given by Supreme Court.
|
Judgment given by larger bench.
|
Any of the judgements as deemed fit by the court.
|
Latest judgment given by Supreme Court.
|
Option (b) is correct as in Pyare Mohan Lal v. state of Jharkhand, (2010) it has been clarified that in case of conflict of judgments of supreme court, the one given by larger bench would be followed. A smaller bench can not review opinion given by a larger bench.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In case of conflict among two or more judgements of the Supreme Court, which of the following judgement is followed or considered as final?##Option_A: Latest judgment given by Supreme Court.###Option_B: Judgment given by larger bench.##Option_C: Any of the judgements as deemed fit by the court.##Option_D: Latest judgment given by Supreme Court.##Answer:b##Explaination:Option (b) is correct as in Pyare Mohan Lal v. state of Jharkhand, (2010) it has been clarified that in case of conflict of judgments of supreme court, the one given by larger bench would be followed. A smaller bench can not review opinion given by a larger bench.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
For a citizen of India, the duty to pay taxes is a:
|
Fundamental Duty
|
Legal obligation
|
Constitutional obligation
|
Fundamental Duty
|
The Swaran Singh Committee suggested inclusion of duty to pay taxes under fundamental duties, but it was not agreed upon. As per the Direct taxation laws; income and other kinds of taxes are a legal obligation for an Indian citizen as he uses public services, receives social and political security from the state etc.
|
b
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:For a citizen of India, the duty to pay taxes is a:##Option_A:Fundamental Duty###Option_B:Legal obligation##Option_C:Constitutional obligation##Option_D:Fundamental Duty##Answer:b##Explaination:The Swaran Singh Committee suggested inclusion of duty to pay taxes under fundamental duties, but it was not agreed upon. As per the Direct taxation laws; income and other kinds of taxes are a legal obligation for an Indian citizen as he uses public services, receives social and political security from the state etc. ##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
He cannot preside over a joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament.
He is a member of the house but cannot vote in the first instance.
When a resolution for his removal is under consideration he can speak and take part in the proceedings, without voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two houses.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and he is not the member of the house.
Statement 3 is correct: When a resolution for his removal is under consideration he can speak and take part in the proceedings, without voting.
|
c
|
Working of the Rajya Sabha
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
He cannot preside over a joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament.
He is a member of the house but cannot vote in the first instance.
When a resolution for his removal is under consideration he can speak and take part in the proceedings, without voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct : The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two houses.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and he is not the member of the house.
Statement 3 is correct: When a resolution for his removal is under consideration he can speak and take part in the proceedings, without voting.
##Topic:Working of the Rajya Sabha##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The discussions with Congress in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government India Act 1935 though Congress later opposed it. 2. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for Provincial Autonomy and a separate legal identity for the provinces. 3. Separate electorates which were started from the Government of India Act 1909 and were also included in the Government of India Act 1919, were to be discontinued in the Government of India Act 1935.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
.
|
b
|
The Government of India Act, 1935
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. The discussions with Congress in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government India Act 1935 though Congress later opposed it. 2. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for Provincial Autonomy and a separate legal identity for the provinces. 3. Separate electorates which were started from the Government of India Act 1909 and were also included in the Government of India Act 1919, were to be discontinued in the Government of India Act 1935.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:The Government of India Act, 1935##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which of the following types of majority may have a variable threshold?
1. Simple Majority
2. Absolute Majority
3. Effective Majority
|
Only 1
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 & 3 only
|
Only 1
|
nan
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following types of majority may have a variable threshold?
1. Simple Majority
2. Absolute Majority
3. Effective Majority##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:1 & 3 only##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are NOT the functions of the Election Commission of India?
To conduct the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha.
To conduct the election of the Municipalities.
To decide on doubts and disputes arising out of the elections of the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
nan
|
d
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are NOT the functions of the Election Commission of India?
To conduct the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha.
To conduct the election of the Municipalities.
To decide on doubts and disputes arising out of the elections of the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is/are examined by which of the following committees?
1. Public Accounts Committees
2. Committee on Public Undertakings
3. Estimates Committees
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
nan
|
b
|
CAG
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is/are examined by which of the following committees?
1. Public Accounts Committees
2. Committee on Public Undertakings
3. Estimates Committees
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:CAG##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following bodies have the leader of the opposition in Lok Sabha, in their appointment committees? 1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. National Commission for SCs 3. National Human Rights Commission 4. Central Information Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
While the appointment committees of CVC, NHRC and CIC have the leader of opposition in Lok Sabha in their appointment committees, the chairperson and members of National commission for SCs are appointed the President.
|
b
|
CIC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following bodies have the leader of the opposition in Lok Sabha, in their appointment committees? 1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. National Commission for SCs 3. National Human Rights Commission 4. Central Information Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A:1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B:1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
While the appointment committees of CVC, NHRC and CIC have the leader of opposition in Lok Sabha in their appointment committees, the chairperson and members of National commission for SCs are appointed the President.
##Topic:CIC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Attorney general of India, which of the following is incorrect?
|
He is appointed by the President of India
|
His term of office is fixed for 5 years
|
Attorney general has the right of audience in all courts in India
|
He is appointed by the President of India
|
,
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Attorney general of India, which of the following is incorrect?##Option_A:He is appointed by the President of India###Option_B:His term of office is fixed for 5 years##Option_C:Attorney general has the right of audience in all courts in India##Option_D:He is appointed by the President of India##Answer:b##Explaination:,##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With regard to elections for local bodies, consider the following statements:
All the elections to rural and urban local bodies are compulsorily held on party lines.
State Election Commissioner is appointed and removed by the Governor.
Seats are reserved for SCs, STs, and Other Backward Castes in local bodies based on the proportion of their population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
All the statements are incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not mandatory that all the elections to rural and urban bodies are held on party lines. Though it is being debated that it should be made compulsory but not done till now.
Statement 2 is incorrect :State Election Commissioner is appointed by Governor but removed in a manner as provided for removal of a judge of High Court i.e. by President only.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Seats are not compulsorily reserved for Other Backward Castes.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to elections for local bodies, consider the following statements:
All the elections to rural and urban local bodies are compulsorily held on party lines.
State Election Commissioner is appointed and removed by the Governor.
Seats are reserved for SCs, STs, and Other Backward Castes in local bodies based on the proportion of their population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only ##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
All the statements are incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not mandatory that all the elections to rural and urban bodies are held on party lines. Though it is being debated that it should be made compulsory but not done till now.
Statement 2 is incorrect :State Election Commissioner is appointed by Governor but removed in a manner as provided for removal of a judge of High Court i.e. by President only.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Seats are not compulsorily reserved for Other Backward Castes.
##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following provisions are covered under the Representation of People Act, of 1950?
1. Preparation of electoral rolls 2. Allocations of seats in Lok Sabha and state legislatures 3. Delimitations of constituencies 4. Conducting elections 5. Registration of political parties
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
RPA 1950 includes:
Preparation of electoral rolls
Allocations of seats in parliament and state legislatures
delimitations of constituencies
Qualification of Voters
Conducting elections, Registration of political parties are part of RPA 1951
RPA Act 1951 includes:
Actual conduct of elections.
Administrative machinery for conducting elections.
Poll
Election offences.
Election disputes.
By-elections.
Registration of political parties.
Hence only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
|
a
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions are covered under the Representation of People Act, of 1950?
1. Preparation of electoral rolls 2. Allocations of seats in Lok Sabha and state legislatures 3. Delimitations of constituencies 4. Conducting elections 5. Registration of political parties
Select the correct answer from the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:2, 4 and 5 only##Option_C:1, 3 and 5 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:RPA 1950 includes:
Preparation of electoral rolls
Allocations of seats in parliament and state legislatures
delimitations of constituencies
Qualification of Voters
Conducting elections, Registration of political parties are part of RPA 1951
RPA Act 1951 includes:
Actual conduct of elections.
Administrative machinery for conducting elections.
Poll
Election offences.
Election disputes.
By-elections.
Registration of political parties.
Hence only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched?
1. Green Box subsidy
:
Subsidies that distort trade.
2. Blue Box
subsidy
:
Subsidies that aims to limit production.
3. Amber Box subsidy:
:
Subsidies that don’t distort trade.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by "boxes" which are given the colours of traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down - i.e. be reduced), red (forbidden). In agriculture, things are, as usual, more complicated. The Agriculture Agreement has no red box, although domestic support exceeding the reduction commitment levels in the amber box is prohibited; and there is a blue box for subsidies that are tied to programmes that limit production.
The 'amber box': For agriculture, all domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade (with some exceptions) fall into the amber box.
The 'green box': In order to qualify for the "green box", a subsidy must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion. These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.
The 'blue box': The blue box is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal ("de minimis") levels. It covers payments directly linked to acreage or animal numbers, but under schemes which also limit production by imposing production quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their land. Countries using these subsidies - and there are only a handful - say they distort trade less than alternative amber box subsidies. Currently, the only members notifying the WTO that they are using or have used the blue box are: the EU, Iceland, Norway, Japan, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and the US (now no longer using the box).
|
b
|
Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched?
1. Green Box subsidy
:
Subsidies that distort trade.
2. Blue Box
subsidy
:
Subsidies that aims to limit production.
3. Amber Box subsidy:
:
Subsidies that don’t distort trade.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by "boxes" which are given the colours of traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down - i.e. be reduced), red (forbidden). In agriculture, things are, as usual, more complicated. The Agriculture Agreement has no red box, although domestic support exceeding the reduction commitment levels in the amber box is prohibited; and there is a blue box for subsidies that are tied to programmes that limit production.
The 'amber box': For agriculture, all domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade (with some exceptions) fall into the amber box.
The 'green box': In order to qualify for the "green box", a subsidy must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion. These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.
The 'blue box': The blue box is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal ("de minimis") levels. It covers payments directly linked to acreage or animal numbers, but under schemes which also limit production by imposing production quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their land. Countries using these subsidies - and there are only a handful - say they distort trade less than alternative amber box subsidies. Currently, the only members notifying the WTO that they are using or have used the blue box are: the EU, Iceland, Norway, Japan, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and the US (now no longer using the box).
##Topic:Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: While the purpose of disinvestment is only to raise resources, privatization involves transferring of management control along with raising resources. While in the case of disinvestment the shares are sold at discount, in case of privatization they are sold at premium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
If the buyers of the shares of a particular company are more than the sellers of the same, the traded value of the shares would be at a 'premium' or otherwise it would be at a 'discount'. Thus, in both the cases of disinvestment as well as privatization, selling of shares of public sector would be at a premium. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
|
a
|
Others
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: While the purpose of disinvestment is only to raise resources, privatization involves transferring of management control along with raising resources. While in the case of disinvestment the shares are sold at discount, in case of privatization they are sold at premium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:If the buyers of the shares of a particular company are more than the sellers of the same, the traded value of the shares would be at a 'premium' or otherwise it would be at a 'discount'. Thus, in both the cases of disinvestment as well as privatization, selling of shares of public sector would be at a premium. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.##Topic:Others##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following rivers passes through Mizoram? Dihang Barak Kaladan Subansiri Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
There are a number of rivers which flow through the state. Some of the rivers which are majorly part of the country of Bangladesh but passes through the state of Mizoram also are Thega River and the Surma-Meghna river system (Barak River). Tiau River, Tlawng, Barak, Kaladan, Karnaphuli are some major rivers of Mizoram. Other rivers and tributaries which flow through the state of Mizoram include Tuichong River, Chhimtuipui River, Ngengpui River, Chawngte River, Tuiphal River, Mat River and Kawrthingdeng River.The Subansiri River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River in the Indian states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. The Manas River is a transboundary river in the Himalayan foothills between southern Bhutan and India.
|
b
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rivers passes through Mizoram? Dihang Barak Kaladan Subansiri Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:There are a number of rivers which flow through the state. Some of the rivers which are majorly part of the country of Bangladesh but passes through the state of Mizoram also are Thega River and the Surma-Meghna river system (Barak River). Tiau River, Tlawng, Barak, Kaladan, Karnaphuli are some major rivers of Mizoram. Other rivers and tributaries which flow through the state of Mizoram include Tuichong River, Chhimtuipui River, Ngengpui River, Chawngte River, Tuiphal River, Mat River and Kawrthingdeng River.The Subansiri River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River in the Indian states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. The Manas River is a transboundary river in the Himalayan foothills between southern Bhutan and India.##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following crops of India: Rice Gram Rapeseeds Mustard Tur Cotton Which of the above are predominantly Rabi crop/crops?
|
1, 2, 3 and 6 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 6 only
|
There are three distinct crop seasons in the northern and interior parts of country, namely kharif, rabi and zaid. The kharif season largely coincides with Southwest Monsoon under which the cultivation of tropical crops such as rice, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra and tur is possible. The Rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and ends in March-April. Major crops of Rabi are Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds and Mustard, Barley.
|
b
|
Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following crops of India: Rice Gram Rapeseeds Mustard Tur Cotton Which of the above are predominantly Rabi crop/crops?##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 6 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 6 only##Answer:b##Explaination:There are three distinct crop seasons in the northern and interior parts of country, namely kharif, rabi and zaid. The kharif season largely coincides with Southwest Monsoon under which the cultivation of tropical crops such as rice, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra and tur is possible. The Rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and ends in March-April. Major crops of Rabi are Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds and Mustard, Barley.##Topic:Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following factor is primarily responsible for formation of Patagonian desert?
|
Off-shore planetary winds blowing in the mid-latitudes.
|
Rain shadow position on leeward side of the Andes.
|
Interior location in the continent.
|
Off-shore planetary winds blowing in the mid-latitudes.
|
The Patagonian Desert is a large, cold, mid-latitude winter desert. It is primarily a desert due to its rain-shadow position in the leeward side of lofty Andes than continentality. The Andes inhibit the westerly flow of moisture from the southern Pacific from reaching inland. Other mid-latitude deserts such as Gobi and Turkestan are formed due to their interior position in the continent away from the rain-bearing winds.
|
b
|
Climate, Vegetation and Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factor is primarily responsible for formation of Patagonian desert?##Option_A: Off-shore planetary winds blowing in the mid-latitudes.###Option_B: Rain shadow position on leeward side of the Andes.##Option_C: Interior location in the continent.##Option_D: Off-shore planetary winds blowing in the mid-latitudes.##Answer:b##Explaination:The Patagonian Desert is a large, cold, mid-latitude winter desert. It is primarily a desert due to its rain-shadow position in the leeward side of lofty Andes than continentality. The Andes inhibit the westerly flow of moisture from the southern Pacific from reaching inland. Other mid-latitude deserts such as Gobi and Turkestan are formed due to their interior position in the continent away from the rain-bearing winds.##Topic:Climate, Vegetation and Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs:
Dance
State
Krishanattam
:
Kerela
Koodiyaattam
:
Andhra Pradesh
Mohiniattam
:
Orissa
Which of the above pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
All the three belong to Kerela. Krishnattam, folk theatre of Kerala, came into existence in the middle of 17th century A.D. under the patronage of King Manavada of Calicut.
Krishnattam is a cycle of eight plays performed for eight consecutive days. The plays are Avataram, Kaliamandana, Rasa krida, kamasavadha, Swayamvaram, Bana Yudham, Vivida Vadham, and Swargarohana. The episodes are based on the theme of Lord Krishna - his birth, childhood pranks and various deeds depicting victory of good over evil.
Koodiyaattam, one of the oldest traditional theatre forms of Kerala, is based on Sanskrit theatre traditions. The characters of this theatre form are: Chakyaar or actor, Naambiyaar, the instrumentalists and Naangyaar, those taking on women's roles. The Sutradhar or narrator and the Vidushak or jesters are the protagonists.Emphasis on hand gestures and eye movements makes this dance and theatre form unique.
Mohiniyattam, is the classical solo dance form of Kerala. It is literally interpreted as the dance of ‘Mohini’, the celestial enchantress of the Hindu mythology. It is one of the 8 classical dance forms of India.
References of Mohiniyattam can be found in the texts Vyavaharamala written in 1709 by Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiri and in Ghoshayatra, written later by great poet Kunjan Nambiar. It traces its origin to the temples of Kerala.
|
a
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs:
Dance
State
Krishanattam
:
Kerela
Koodiyaattam
:
Andhra Pradesh
Mohiniattam
:
Orissa
Which of the above pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
All the three belong to Kerela. Krishnattam, folk theatre of Kerala, came into existence in the middle of 17th century A.D. under the patronage of King Manavada of Calicut.
Krishnattam is a cycle of eight plays performed for eight consecutive days. The plays are Avataram, Kaliamandana, Rasa krida, kamasavadha, Swayamvaram, Bana Yudham, Vivida Vadham, and Swargarohana. The episodes are based on the theme of Lord Krishna - his birth, childhood pranks and various deeds depicting victory of good over evil.
Koodiyaattam, one of the oldest traditional theatre forms of Kerala, is based on Sanskrit theatre traditions. The characters of this theatre form are: Chakyaar or actor, Naambiyaar, the instrumentalists and Naangyaar, those taking on women's roles. The Sutradhar or narrator and the Vidushak or jesters are the protagonists.Emphasis on hand gestures and eye movements makes this dance and theatre form unique.
Mohiniyattam, is the classical solo dance form of Kerala. It is literally interpreted as the dance of ‘Mohini’, the celestial enchantress of the Hindu mythology. It is one of the 8 classical dance forms of India.
References of Mohiniyattam can be found in the texts Vyavaharamala written in 1709 by Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiri and in Ghoshayatra, written later by great poet Kunjan Nambiar. It traces its origin to the temples of Kerala.
##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following towns: Poochampally Paithan Sanganer Kota Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabrics?
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Poochampally: Pochampally Saree or Pochampalli Ikat is a saree made in Bhoodan Pochampally, Nalgonda district, Telangana State, India. They are popular for their traditional geometric patterns in Ikat style of dyeing. The Indian government's official air carrier, Air India air hostesses wear specially designed pochampally silk sarees.It has found place in UNESCO tentative list of world heritage sites as part of "iconic saree weaving clusters of India". Paithani: Paithani is a variety of sari, named after the Paithan town in Aurangabad Maharashtra state where they are woven by hand. Made from very fine silk, it is considered as one of the richest saris in India, it is a gold and silk saree( zari ). Paithani is characterised by borders of an oblique square design, and a pallu with a peacock design. Sanganer: a town near Jaipur, is famous for block and screen-printed cotton cloth. In the traditional Sanganeri prints, the ground is in white or pastel shades with floral cones and sprays scattered with in symmetrical borders. Sanganeri Hand block printing received the geographical indication (GI) tag in 2010. Kota: in Rajasthan, famous for Kota doria or Kota Saris. Sarees are made of pure cotton and silk and have square like patterns known as khats on them. The chequered weave of a Kota sari is very popular. They are very fine weaves and weigh very less.
|
a
|
Fairs, Festivals and Craft
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following towns: Poochampally Paithan Sanganer Kota Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabrics? ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Poochampally: Pochampally Saree or Pochampalli Ikat is a saree made in Bhoodan Pochampally, Nalgonda district, Telangana State, India. They are popular for their traditional geometric patterns in Ikat style of dyeing. The Indian government's official air carrier, Air India air hostesses wear specially designed pochampally silk sarees.It has found place in UNESCO tentative list of world heritage sites as part of "iconic saree weaving clusters of India". Paithani: Paithani is a variety of sari, named after the Paithan town in Aurangabad Maharashtra state where they are woven by hand. Made from very fine silk, it is considered as one of the richest saris in India, it is a gold and silk saree( zari ). Paithani is characterised by borders of an oblique square design, and a pallu with a peacock design. Sanganer: a town near Jaipur, is famous for block and screen-printed cotton cloth. In the traditional Sanganeri prints, the ground is in white or pastel shades with floral cones and sprays scattered with in symmetrical borders. Sanganeri Hand block printing received the geographical indication (GI) tag in 2010. Kota: in Rajasthan, famous for Kota doria or Kota Saris. Sarees are made of pure cotton and silk and have square like patterns known as khats on them. The chequered weave of a Kota sari is very popular. They are very fine weaves and weigh very less.##Topic:Fairs, Festivals and Craft##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following does not relate to the Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the Constitution? The right against tapping of telephonic conversation. Free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6-14 years. The right to obtain recognition for the associations and unions. Promotion of the educational and economic interests of the weaker section of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is a Fundamental Right: The right against tapping of telephonic conversation is provided under Art.19(a)as part of Freedom of Speech and Expression. Statement 2 is a Fundamental Right: Art 21-A- Free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6-14 years was inserted by 86th Amendment Act, 2002. Statement 3 is not a Fundamental Right: Although citizens have the right to form associations and unions under Art. 19(c). However,the right to obtain recognition for the association is not a fundamental right. Statement 4 is not a Fundamental Right: It is a part of Directive Principles of State Policy( Art. 46).
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following does not relate to the Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the Constitution? The right against tapping of telephonic conversation. Free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6-14 years. The right to obtain recognition for the associations and unions. Promotion of the educational and economic interests of the weaker section of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is a Fundamental Right: The right against tapping of telephonic conversation is provided under Art.19(a)as part of Freedom of Speech and Expression. Statement 2 is a Fundamental Right: Art 21-A- Free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6-14 years was inserted by 86th Amendment Act, 2002. Statement 3 is not a Fundamental Right: Although citizens have the right to form associations and unions under Art. 19(c). However,the right to obtain recognition for the association is not a fundamental right. Statement 4 is not a Fundamental Right: It is a part of Directive Principles of State Policy( Art. 46).##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Under Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, who approves the declaration of an area of a state as the scheduled area?
|
President in consultation with the Governor of the state.
|
The Union Cabinet
|
President in consultation with Union cabinet.
|
President in consultation with the Governor of the state.
|
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned. The Union Cabinet Chaired by Prime Minister gives approval to the declaration of Scheduled Areas. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, who approves the declaration of an area of a state as the scheduled area?##Option_A:President in consultation with the Governor of the state.###Option_B:The Union Cabinet##Option_C:President in consultation with Union cabinet.##Option_D:President in consultation with the Governor of the state.##Answer:b##Explaination:The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned. The Union Cabinet Chaired by Prime Minister gives approval to the declaration of Scheduled Areas. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. ##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements: 1. Election Commission of India is a non-permanent constitutional body. 2. The Secretariat of the Commission has an independent budget. 3. The decisions of the Election Commission can only be challenged in the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
b
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements: 1. Election Commission of India is a non-permanent constitutional body. 2. The Secretariat of the Commission has an independent budget. 3. The decisions of the Election Commission can only be challenged in the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1, 2 and 3###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), consider the following statements: In case of dissolution of panchayats before expiry of its term, it is mandatory to hold elections within 6 months of its dissolution. A panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue for full 5 years. All persons who have attained minimum 25 years are eligible for elections in panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: In case of dissolution of Panchayats before expiry of its term, it is mandatory to hold elections within 6 months of its dissolution. Statement 2 is incorrect : Every Panchayat shall continue for full term of 5 years. However, a Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue for only the reminder of the period. If the period is less than 6 months then it is not mandatory to held the elections. Statement 3 is incorrect : A person who is otherwise eligible for election to state legislature is eligible for Panchayats elections provided he has attained 21 yrs of age and not 25 years as applicable for State legislature.
|
a
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), consider the following statements: In case of dissolution of panchayats before expiry of its term, it is mandatory to hold elections within 6 months of its dissolution. A panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue for full 5 years. All persons who have attained minimum 25 years are eligible for elections in panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: In case of dissolution of Panchayats before expiry of its term, it is mandatory to hold elections within 6 months of its dissolution. Statement 2 is incorrect : Every Panchayat shall continue for full term of 5 years. However, a Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue for only the reminder of the period. If the period is less than 6 months then it is not mandatory to held the elections. Statement 3 is incorrect : A person who is otherwise eligible for election to state legislature is eligible for Panchayats elections provided he has attained 21 yrs of age and not 25 years as applicable for State legislature.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Who among the following was/were not an Extremist leader? Rash Behari Ghose Gopal Krishna Gokhale Rash Behari Bose Aurbindo Ghosh Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Moderate leaders: Rash Behari Ghose and Gopal Krishna Gokhale Extremist leaders: Rash Behari Bose and Aurbindo Ghosh
|
a
|
The rise of Extremism and Revolutionaries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following was/were not an Extremist leader? Rash Behari Ghose Gopal Krishna Gokhale Rash Behari Bose Aurbindo Ghosh Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Moderate leaders: Rash Behari Ghose and Gopal Krishna Gokhale Extremist leaders: Rash Behari Bose and Aurbindo Ghosh##Topic:The rise of Extremism and Revolutionaries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to Bhagvatism cult, consider the following statements: It originated during Post Mauryan period. It believed in the doctrine of reincarnation. It did not allow women and shudras to become part of the cult. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : It originated during Post Mauryan times. Statement 2 is correct: It believed in doctrine of reincarnation or 'avataras'. Statement 3 is incorrect: It was liberal enough to attract foreigners into its fold along with women,vaishyas and shudras .
|
a
|
Religious
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Bhagvatism cult, consider the following statements: It originated during Post Mauryan period. It believed in the doctrine of reincarnation. It did not allow women and shudras to become part of the cult. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : It originated during Post Mauryan times. Statement 2 is correct: It believed in doctrine of reincarnation or 'avataras'. Statement 3 is incorrect: It was liberal enough to attract foreigners into its fold along with women,vaishyas and shudras .##Topic:Religious##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
With reference to the "Mansabdari System" during the Mughals, consider the following statements: It was a system of giving rank/position only to the soldiers and officials of the Army. The "Mansabdars" received their salaries only in the form of jagirs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The whole nobility, the bureaucracy as well as the military hierarchy, held mansabs. They could be transferred from the civil side to the military department and vice versa. Statement 2 is incorrect: The mansabdars of the Mughal empire received their pay either in cash (naqd) or in the form of assignments of areas of land (jagir) from which they were entitled to collect the land revenue and all other taxes sanctioned by the emperor. The unique feature of Mansabdari was Tajwiz System', wherein a petition was by a nobleman to the Emperor to recommend an applicant to be recruited as a 'mansabdar'.
|
d
|
Mughal Period
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the "Mansabdari System" during the Mughals, consider the following statements: It was a system of giving rank/position only to the soldiers and officials of the Army. The "Mansabdars" received their salaries only in the form of jagirs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: The whole nobility, the bureaucracy as well as the military hierarchy, held mansabs. They could be transferred from the civil side to the military department and vice versa. Statement 2 is incorrect: The mansabdars of the Mughal empire received their pay either in cash (naqd) or in the form of assignments of areas of land (jagir) from which they were entitled to collect the land revenue and all other taxes sanctioned by the emperor. The unique feature of Mansabdari was Tajwiz System', wherein a petition was by a nobleman to the Emperor to recommend an applicant to be recruited as a 'mansabdar'.##Topic:Mughal Period##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
With reference to public debt of India, consider the following statements: It consists of internal debt, external debt and public account liabilities. In India, the share of internal debt forms a higher proportion of public debt in India than external debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
In India, total Central Government Liabilities constitutes the following three categories: Internal Debt External Debt Public Account Liabilities However, Public Debt in India includes only Internal and External Debt incurred by the Central Government. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Internal debt of the Central Government constituted 83.4 per cent of public debt for 2019. Hence statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to public debt of India, consider the following statements: It consists of internal debt, external debt and public account liabilities. In India, the share of internal debt forms a higher proportion of public debt in India than external debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:In India, total Central Government Liabilities constitutes the following three categories: Internal Debt External Debt Public Account Liabilities However, Public Debt in India includes only Internal and External Debt incurred by the Central Government. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Internal debt of the Central Government constituted 83.4 per cent of public debt for 2019. Hence statement 2 is correct.##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Lunar tides are about twice as strong as the solar tides The magnitude of tidal fluctuation is similar everywhere on earth On a given day, there is normally one high tide and one low tide Which of the above statements regarding tides is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The strength of the force of gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the two bodies. Therefore, the Sun being 93,000,000 miles away from Earth and the Moon 239,000, the lunar tides are about twice as strong as the solar tides. The magnitude of tidal fluctuation is quite variable in time and place, but the sequence of the cycle is generally similar everywhere. The tides rise and fall twice in the interval of 24 hours and 50 minutes. Therefore on all coastlines there are normally two high tides and two low tides.
|
a
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Lunar tides are about twice as strong as the solar tides The magnitude of tidal fluctuation is similar everywhere on earth On a given day, there is normally one high tide and one low tide Which of the above statements regarding tides is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The strength of the force of gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the two bodies. Therefore, the Sun being 93,000,000 miles away from Earth and the Moon 239,000, the lunar tides are about twice as strong as the solar tides. The magnitude of tidal fluctuation is quite variable in time and place, but the sequence of the cycle is generally similar everywhere. The tides rise and fall twice in the interval of 24 hours and 50 minutes. Therefore on all coastlines there are normally two high tides and two low tides.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following discretionary powers is/are provided to the President under the Indian Constitution? Ordinance making power Appointment of Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority Dissolution of the Lok Sabha if the council of ministers has lost its majority Pardoning power Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
The President has no constitutional discretion , he has some situational discretion. In other words, the President can act on his discretion (that is, without the advice of the ministers) under the following situations: Appointment of Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha or when the Prime Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. Dismissal ofthe council ofministers when it cannot prove the confidence ofthe Lok Sabha. Dissolution ofthe Lok Sabha ifthe council ofministers has lost its majority. Both ordinance making power and emergency powers are not discretionary powers as president acts upon the advice of the council of minister. Hence 'D' is the correct answer.
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following discretionary powers is/are provided to the President under the Indian Constitution? Ordinance making power Appointment of Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority Dissolution of the Lok Sabha if the council of ministers has lost its majority Pardoning power Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The President has no constitutional discretion , he has some situational discretion. In other words, the President can act on his discretion (that is, without the advice of the ministers) under the following situations: Appointment of Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha or when the Prime Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. Dismissal ofthe council ofministers when it cannot prove the confidence ofthe Lok Sabha. Dissolution ofthe Lok Sabha ifthe council ofministers has lost its majority. Both ordinance making power and emergency powers are not discretionary powers as president acts upon the advice of the council of minister. Hence 'D' is the correct answer.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Pitt"s India Act of 1784, consider the following statements: It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the "Governor-General of Bengal" It attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. Statement 2 is incorrect: Regulating Act of 1773 designated the Governor of Bengal as the 'Governor-General of Bengal'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants. Hence A is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Regulating Acts and Charter Acts
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Pitt"s India Act of 1784, consider the following statements: It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the "Governor-General of Bengal" It attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. Statement 2 is incorrect: Regulating Act of 1773 designated the Governor of Bengal as the 'Governor-General of Bengal'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants. Hence A is the correct answer.##Topic:Regulating Acts and Charter Acts##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs:
Original Rock
Metamorphic Rock
1. Sandstone
:
Schist
2. Limestone
:
Marble
3. Granite
:
Gneiss
4. Shale
:
Slate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as sandstone is converted into Quartzite after metamorphism and not schist. Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct as limestone is converted into marble while Granite into Gneiss and shale into slate after the process of metamorphism.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere Interior structure of the earth, Earth’s crust, Classification of rocks.
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs:
Original Rock
Metamorphic Rock
1. Sandstone
:
Schist
2. Limestone
:
Marble
3. Granite
:
Gneiss
4. Shale
:
Slate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as sandstone is converted into Quartzite after metamorphism and not schist. Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct as limestone is converted into marble while Granite into Gneiss and shale into slate after the process of metamorphism.
##Topic:The Lithosphere Interior structure of the earth, Earth’s crust, Classification of rocks.##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following seas does not border Russia?
|
Caspian Sea
|
Black Sea
|
Yellow Sea
|
Caspian Sea
|
Caspian Sea and Black Sea lie to the south west of Russia. Bering Sea lies at the North East of Russia. Yellow Sea is the name given to the northern part of the East China Sea, which is a marginal sea of the Pacific Ocean. It is located between mainland China and the Korean Peninsula and its name comes from the sand particles from Gobi Desert sand storms that turn the surface of the water golden yellow.
|
c
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following seas does not border Russia?
##Option_A: Caspian Sea
###Option_B: Black Sea
##Option_C: Yellow Sea
##Option_D: Caspian Sea
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Caspian Sea and Black Sea lie to the south west of Russia. Bering Sea lies at the North East of Russia. Yellow Sea is the name given to the northern part of the East China Sea, which is a marginal sea of the Pacific Ocean. It is located between mainland China and the Korean Peninsula and its name comes from the sand particles from Gobi Desert sand storms that turn the surface of the water golden yellow.
##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to Indigo revolt of 1859-60, consider the following statements:
There was unity among Hindu and Muslim peasants during the revolt.
The revolt was successful in spite of violent suppression by British.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Indigo revolt not only saw unity among Hindu and Muslim peasants, there was also immense role played by intelligentsia of Bengal. Newspaper campaigns, mass meetings, support in legal battles etc. was provided to the peasants by intelligentsia of Bengal, for e.g. Hindoo Patriot published regular reports on planter's oppression. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Indigo revolt was largely successful with government issuing notification in 1860 that ryots cannot be compelled to sow indigo. However, the revolt did not see violent repression by the government. The government's response to the revolt was rather restrained, influenced by the support extended to the revolt by the intelligentsia and missionaries. Also, the government has just undergone harrowing experience of Santhal uprising and the revolt of 1857. Hence, Statement 2 is wrong.
|
a
|
Peasants Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Indigo revolt of 1859-60, consider the following statements:
There was unity among Hindu and Muslim peasants during the revolt.
The revolt was successful in spite of violent suppression by British.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Indigo revolt not only saw unity among Hindu and Muslim peasants, there was also immense role played by intelligentsia of Bengal. Newspaper campaigns, mass meetings, support in legal battles etc. was provided to the peasants by intelligentsia of Bengal, for e.g. Hindoo Patriot published regular reports on planter's oppression. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Indigo revolt was largely successful with government issuing notification in 1860 that ryots cannot be compelled to sow indigo. However, the revolt did not see violent repression by the government. The government's response to the revolt was rather restrained, influenced by the support extended to the revolt by the intelligentsia and missionaries. Also, the government has just undergone harrowing experience of Santhal uprising and the revolt of 1857. Hence, Statement 2 is wrong.
##Topic:Peasants Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following states: Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Rajasthan Madhya Pradesh Arrange the above states in descending order according to their wind energy potential.
|
2 - 1 - 3 - 4
|
2 - 3 - 1 - 4
|
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
|
2 - 1 - 3 - 4
|
The National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE) has recently launched Wind Energy Resource Map of India at 100 meter above ground level (AGL) on online Geographic Information System platform. Applying the logic of relation between coastline and wind potential the correct answer may be arrived at. Gujarat has the longest coastline and thus the highest potential and Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh has none in the given options, thus these two states will come in last among the four states. Only option 'A' satisfies these conditions. The State-wise wind energy potential is given below: State Potential (MW@100m) Gujarat 84431 Karnataka 55857 Maharashtra 45394 Andhra Pradesh 44229 Tamil Nadu 33800 Rajasthan 18770 Madhya Pradesh 10484
|
a
|
Energy Resourcesconventional and nonconventional resources
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following states: Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Rajasthan Madhya Pradesh Arrange the above states in descending order according to their wind energy potential. ##Option_A: 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 ###Option_B: 2 - 3 - 1 - 4 ##Option_C: 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 ##Option_D: 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 ##Answer:a##Explaination:The National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE) has recently launched Wind Energy Resource Map of India at 100 meter above ground level (AGL) on online Geographic Information System platform. Applying the logic of relation between coastline and wind potential the correct answer may be arrived at. Gujarat has the longest coastline and thus the highest potential and Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh has none in the given options, thus these two states will come in last among the four states. Only option 'A' satisfies these conditions. The State-wise wind energy potential is given below: State Potential (MW@100m) Gujarat 84431 Karnataka 55857 Maharashtra 45394 Andhra Pradesh 44229 Tamil Nadu 33800 Rajasthan 18770 Madhya Pradesh 10484 ##Topic:Energy Resourcesconventional and nonconventional resources##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: A long summer night with clear skies and still air is ideal for temperature inversion. Gravitational force plays a major role for temperature inversion to occur in hilly and mountaneous areas. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the situations is reversed and it is called Inversion of temperature. Statement 1 is incorrect: A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the above air. Statement 2 is correct: Temperature inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air at the hills and mountains, prdoduced during night, flows under the influence of gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage.
|
b
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: A long summer night with clear skies and still air is ideal for temperature inversion. Gravitational force plays a major role for temperature inversion to occur in hilly and mountaneous areas. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the situations is reversed and it is called Inversion of temperature. Statement 1 is incorrect: A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the above air. Statement 2 is correct: Temperature inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air at the hills and mountains, prdoduced during night, flows under the influence of gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following phenomena may cause the rising of air? Convection currents Convergence of winds on land Eddies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The wind circulation at the earth's surface around the low and high-pressure regions on many occasions is closely related to the wind circulation at higher level. Generally, over low-pressure areas, the air will converge and rise. Over high-pressure area, the air will subside from above and diverge at the surface. Apart from convergence , some eddies, convection currents, orographic uplift, and uplift along fronts cause the rising of air, which is essential for the formation of clouds and precipitation. An eddy is a circulation that develops when the winds flow over or adjacent to rough terrain, building, mountain or other obstruction. It usually forms over the lee (downwind or sheltered) side of the obstruction. Eddies may have horizontal or vertical circulations that can be either cyclonic or anticyclonic.
|
d
|
Pressure and Pressure belts
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following phenomena may cause the rising of air? Convection currents Convergence of winds on land Eddies Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The wind circulation at the earth's surface around the low and high-pressure regions on many occasions is closely related to the wind circulation at higher level. Generally, over low-pressure areas, the air will converge and rise. Over high-pressure area, the air will subside from above and diverge at the surface. Apart from convergence , some eddies, convection currents, orographic uplift, and uplift along fronts cause the rising of air, which is essential for the formation of clouds and precipitation. An eddy is a circulation that develops when the winds flow over or adjacent to rough terrain, building, mountain or other obstruction. It usually forms over the lee (downwind or sheltered) side of the obstruction. Eddies may have horizontal or vertical circulations that can be either cyclonic or anticyclonic. ##Topic:Pressure and Pressure belts##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Ganga Gram Yojana, consider the following statements: It is a scheme launched to develop villages in West Bengal situated along the banks of River Ganga. The programme makes it mandatory for every household in selected villages to have a functional toilet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Union Government has launched Ganga Gram Yojana to develop 1600 villages in Uttar Pradesh (UP) situated along the banks of Ganga River. Statement 2 is correct: In these selected villages open drains discharging waste directly into river Ganga will be diverted to sewage treatment facility. It would be mandatory for every household in selected villages to have functional toilets. Under this programme, these selected villages will be developed under the Sichewal model (Village in Punjab) which is based on cooperation of the villagers for water management and waste disposal.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Ganga Gram Yojana, consider the following statements: It is a scheme launched to develop villages in West Bengal situated along the banks of River Ganga. The programme makes it mandatory for every household in selected villages to have a functional toilet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: The Union Government has launched Ganga Gram Yojana to develop 1600 villages in Uttar Pradesh (UP) situated along the banks of Ganga River. Statement 2 is correct: In these selected villages open drains discharging waste directly into river Ganga will be diverted to sewage treatment facility. It would be mandatory for every household in selected villages to have functional toilets. Under this programme, these selected villages will be developed under the Sichewal model (Village in Punjab) which is based on cooperation of the villagers for water management and waste disposal.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
India is not a member of which among the following? G8+5 G-20 G4 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
G8+5 member countries: U.S., U.K., France, Japan, Germany, Canada, Japan, Russia(now suspended) + China, India, Brazil, South Africa, Mexico. G-20 member countries: The G20 is made up of the finance ministers and central bank governors of 19 countries: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States of America. The remaining seat is held by the European Union, which is represented by the rotating Council presidency and the European Central Bank. G4 nations: Informal group of countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. It consists of India, Germany, Japan and Brazil. Other important International Organisations that India is a part of: South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), BRICS, Commonwealth of Nations, United Nations, Mekong–Ganga Cooperation, Asia Cooperation Dialogue: (A pan-Asian organisation which integrates other organisations like SAARC, ASEAN and GCC), Indian-Ocean Rim Association: Organisation of countries which have a coastline on the Indian Ocean, IBSA, East Asia Summit, Shanghai Cooperation Organisation, BIMSTEC.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India is not a member of which among the following? G8+5 G-20 G4 Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:G8+5 member countries: U.S., U.K., France, Japan, Germany, Canada, Japan, Russia(now suspended) + China, India, Brazil, South Africa, Mexico. G-20 member countries: The G20 is made up of the finance ministers and central bank governors of 19 countries: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States of America. The remaining seat is held by the European Union, which is represented by the rotating Council presidency and the European Central Bank. G4 nations: Informal group of countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. It consists of India, Germany, Japan and Brazil. Other important International Organisations that India is a part of: South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), BRICS, Commonwealth of Nations, United Nations, Mekong–Ganga Cooperation, Asia Cooperation Dialogue: (A pan-Asian organisation which integrates other organisations like SAARC, ASEAN and GCC), Indian-Ocean Rim Association: Organisation of countries which have a coastline on the Indian Ocean, IBSA, East Asia Summit, Shanghai Cooperation Organisation, BIMSTEC.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are correct about National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority? It decides the ceiling prices of essential medicines. It works under the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) under the Union Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizer decides the ceiling prices essential medicines under The Drug (Prices Control) Order. Thus both statements are correct. Hence C is the correct answer.
|
c
|
Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correct about National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority? It decides the ceiling prices of essential medicines. It works under the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) under the Union Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizer decides the ceiling prices essential medicines under The Drug (Prices Control) Order. Thus both statements are correct. Hence C is the correct answer.##Topic:Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are the typical characteristics of Mediterranean Climate? Seasonal shifting of tropical wind and pressure belts. Precipitation falls in vigorous convective showers that are localized and brief. The modest annual precipitation falls in winter, summers being virtually rainless. Clear skies and abundant sunshine are typical, especially in summer. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Seasonal shifting of tropical wind and pressure belts, especially ITCZ is characteristic of Tropical savanna. Precipitation falls in vigorous convective showers that are localized and of short duration is typical characteristic of Subtropical desert. Mediterranean Climate having modest annual precipitation falls in winter; summers being virtually rainless and clear skies and abundant sunshine are typical, especially in summer.
|
c
|
Pressure and Pressure belts
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the typical characteristics of Mediterranean Climate? Seasonal shifting of tropical wind and pressure belts. Precipitation falls in vigorous convective showers that are localized and brief. The modest annual precipitation falls in winter, summers being virtually rainless. Clear skies and abundant sunshine are typical, especially in summer. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Seasonal shifting of tropical wind and pressure belts, especially ITCZ is characteristic of Tropical savanna. Precipitation falls in vigorous convective showers that are localized and of short duration is typical characteristic of Subtropical desert. Mediterranean Climate having modest annual precipitation falls in winter; summers being virtually rainless and clear skies and abundant sunshine are typical, especially in summer.##Topic:Pressure and Pressure belts##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
When RBI follows expansionary monetary policy, which of the following is/are likely to happen? Increased interest rates in the market Increase in inflation rates Reduction in employment levels Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Option 1 is incorrect. When RBI follows expansionary monetary policy, it tries to infuse money into market. Thus it will reduce the interest rates in the market. Option 2 is correct. Increased money supply is likely to cause increase in inflation rates. Option 3 is incorrect. Increase in money supply may induce growth and cause higher employment levels.
|
b
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:When RBI follows expansionary monetary policy, which of the following is/are likely to happen? Increased interest rates in the market Increase in inflation rates Reduction in employment levels Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Option 1 is incorrect. When RBI follows expansionary monetary policy, it tries to infuse money into market. Thus it will reduce the interest rates in the market. Option 2 is correct. Increased money supply is likely to cause increase in inflation rates. Option 3 is incorrect. Increase in money supply may induce growth and cause higher employment levels.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Balance of Trade is concerned with transactions on account of exports and imports of goods and services. The responsibility of maintaining Balance of Payment account in India lies with the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Balance of trade account records all transactions of foreign currencies on account of export and import of goods only.The imports and exports of services are maintained in Balance of Invisibles account. Hence, statement 1 is wrong. The responsibility of maintaining BOP in India lies with Reserve Bank of India. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
|
d
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Balance of Trade is concerned with transactions on account of exports and imports of goods and services. The responsibility of maintaining Balance of Payment account in India lies with the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Balance of trade account records all transactions of foreign currencies on account of export and import of goods only.The imports and exports of services are maintained in Balance of Invisibles account. Hence, statement 1 is wrong. The responsibility of maintaining BOP in India lies with Reserve Bank of India. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Panchayat Empowerment & Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS), consider the following statements:
It seeks to empower Panchayats and put in place accountability systems to make their functioning transparent and efficient.
It was launched during 11th Five Year Plan by the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The scheme aims at encouraging States to adequately empower Panchayats and put in place systems for bringing about accountability to PRIs.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS) is a Central Sector plan Scheme being implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) since 2005-06.
Extra information: Incentive grants are provided to States under the scheme for undertaking legislative and administrative measures for effective devolution of 3Fs (Function, Fund and Functionaries) to PRIs. PRIs are a part of eleventh schedule of the Indian constitution and not twelfth schedule.
|
a
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Panchayat Empowerment & Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS), consider the following statements:
It seeks to empower Panchayats and put in place accountability systems to make their functioning transparent and efficient.
It was launched during 11th Five Year Plan by the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: The scheme aims at encouraging States to adequately empower Panchayats and put in place systems for bringing about accountability to PRIs.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS) is a Central Sector plan Scheme being implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) since 2005-06.
Extra information: Incentive grants are provided to States under the scheme for undertaking legislative and administrative measures for effective devolution of 3Fs (Function, Fund and Functionaries) to PRIs. PRIs are a part of eleventh schedule of the Indian constitution and not twelfth schedule.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following: Right to education Right to property Right to freedom of peaceful assembly and association. Which of the above Human Right/s under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights" is/are part of Fundamental Rights under Indian Constitution?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Right to property was earlier a Fundamental Right dealt by Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 but 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished it and inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading Right to Property. Therefore, it is now a legal/constitutional right and not a Fundamental Right but it is a Human Right under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights". Rest are Fundamental Rights in India as well as Human Rights under the "Universal Declaration of Human Rights .
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: Right to education Right to property Right to freedom of peaceful assembly and association. Which of the above Human Right/s under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights" is/are part of Fundamental Rights under Indian Constitution?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Right to property was earlier a Fundamental Right dealt by Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 but 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished it and inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading Right to Property. Therefore, it is now a legal/constitutional right and not a Fundamental Right but it is a Human Right under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights". Rest are Fundamental Rights in India as well as Human Rights under the "Universal Declaration of Human Rights .##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The sales tax you pay while purchasing a newspaper is a
|
tax levied, collected and retained by the centre.
|
tax levied by the centre but collected and appropriated by the states.
|
tax levied and collected by the centre but assigned to the states.
|
tax levied, collected and retained by the centre.
|
Following taxes are levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the States: (a) duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land; (b) estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land; (c) terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air; (d) taxes on railway fares and freights; (e) taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets; (f) taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers and on advertisements published therein; (g) taxes on the sale or purchase of goods other than newspapers, where such sale or purchase takes place in the course of inter State trade or commerce; (h) taxes on the consignment of goods (whether the consignment is to the person making it or to any other person), where such consignment takes place in the course of inter State trade or commerce
|
c
|
Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The sales tax you pay while purchasing a newspaper is a##Option_A: tax levied, collected and retained by the centre.###Option_B: tax levied by the centre but collected and appropriated by the states.##Option_C: tax levied and collected by the centre but assigned to the states.##Option_D: tax levied, collected and retained by the centre.##Answer:c##Explaination:Following taxes are levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the States: (a) duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land; (b) estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land; (c) terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air; (d) taxes on railway fares and freights; (e) taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets; (f) taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers and on advertisements published therein; (g) taxes on the sale or purchase of goods other than newspapers, where such sale or purchase takes place in the course of inter State trade or commerce; (h) taxes on the consignment of goods (whether the consignment is to the person making it or to any other person), where such consignment takes place in the course of inter State trade or commerce##Topic:Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
The special provisions in Article 371-B of the Constitution of India relate to
|
Assam
|
Nagaland
|
Manipur
|
Assam
|
Article 371 to 371-J of the constitution contain special provisions for eleven states: Article 371 : Maharshtra and Gujarat Article 371-A: Nagaland Article 371-B: Assam Article 371-C: Manipur Article 371-D and Article 371-E: Andhra Pradesh Article 371-F: Sikkim Article 371-G: Mizoram Article 371-H: Arunachal Pradesh Article 371-I: Goa Article 371-J: Karnataka
|
a
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The special provisions in Article 371-B of the Constitution of India relate to ##Option_A: Assam###Option_B: Nagaland##Option_C: Manipur##Option_D: Assam##Answer:a##Explaination:Article 371 to 371-J of the constitution contain special provisions for eleven states: Article 371 : Maharshtra and Gujarat Article 371-A: Nagaland Article 371-B: Assam Article 371-C: Manipur Article 371-D and Article 371-E: Andhra Pradesh Article 371-F: Sikkim Article 371-G: Mizoram Article 371-H: Arunachal Pradesh Article 371-I: Goa Article 371-J: Karnataka##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following rivers: Manas Subansiri Teesta Which of the above tributaries merge with Brahmaputra in India?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Only Manas and Subansiri are the tributaries of Brahmaputra meeting with it in India. Teesta is a tributary of Brahmaputra draining into it in Bangladesh. Barak is not a direct tributary of Brahmaputra. It merges with Padma in Bangaldesh.
|
a
|
Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following rivers: Manas Subansiri Teesta Which of the above tributaries merge with Brahmaputra in India? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Only Manas and Subansiri are the tributaries of Brahmaputra meeting with it in India. Teesta is a tributary of Brahmaputra draining into it in Bangladesh. Barak is not a direct tributary of Brahmaputra. It merges with Padma in Bangaldesh.##Topic:Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
Drainage Pattern
Example
1. Dendritic
:
Rivers of Indo gangetic plains
2. Radial
:
Rivers originating from Amarkantak Hills
3. Annular
:
Rivers of the Chhotanagpur Plateau region
4. Parallel
:
Rivers of western coastal plains draining into Arabian Sea
Select the correct answer using the code give below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Rivers of the Chhotanagpur Plateau region have a drainage of trellis pattern.
Dendritic Pattern - This is a tree-shaped drainage pattern. This is associated with areas of uniform lithology where faulting and jointing are insignificant. Rivers of Indo-Gangetic Plains are of dendritic type.
Radial - It is pattern characterised by outflowing rivers, away from a central point. Flanks of a dome or a volcanic cone favour the development of ideal radial pattern. Rivers originating from Amarkantak Hills is a good example.
Parallel - Rivers flow almost parallel to each other and follow the regional slope. Rivers of western coastal plains draining into Arabian Sea is a good example.
Annular - This is formed when the tributaries of the master consequent streams are developed in the form of a circle. Here, streams follow curving or arcuate courses prior to joining the consequent stream. Nilgiri Hills in Tamil Nadu and Kerala is an example.
Trellis - Here, the rivers form a net like system and the tributaries flow roughly parallel to each other. Rivers of the Chhotanagpur Plateau region have a drainage of trellis pattern.
|
c
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
Drainage Pattern
Example
1. Dendritic
:
Rivers of Indo gangetic plains
2. Radial
:
Rivers originating from Amarkantak Hills
3. Annular
:
Rivers of the Chhotanagpur Plateau region
4. Parallel
:
Rivers of western coastal plains draining into Arabian Sea
Select the correct answer using the code give below.
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Rivers of the Chhotanagpur Plateau region have a drainage of trellis pattern.
Dendritic Pattern - This is a tree-shaped drainage pattern. This is associated with areas of uniform lithology where faulting and jointing are insignificant. Rivers of Indo-Gangetic Plains are of dendritic type.
Radial - It is pattern characterised by outflowing rivers, away from a central point. Flanks of a dome or a volcanic cone favour the development of ideal radial pattern. Rivers originating from Amarkantak Hills is a good example.
Parallel - Rivers flow almost parallel to each other and follow the regional slope. Rivers of western coastal plains draining into Arabian Sea is a good example.
Annular - This is formed when the tributaries of the master consequent streams are developed in the form of a circle. Here, streams follow curving or arcuate courses prior to joining the consequent stream. Nilgiri Hills in Tamil Nadu and Kerala is an example.
Trellis - Here, the rivers form a net like system and the tributaries flow roughly parallel to each other. Rivers of the Chhotanagpur Plateau region have a drainage of trellis pattern.
##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following states: Madhya Pradesh Tamil Nadu Odisha Which of the above states has/have "Tropical Dry Evergreen Forest" cover?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Tropical dry evergreen forests occur in India only in Tamil Nadu, patches of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. These forests are found in the areas of relatively high temperature and small rainfall available only during particular period.
|
b
|
Climate, Vegetation and Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following states: Madhya Pradesh Tamil Nadu Odisha Which of the above states has/have "Tropical Dry Evergreen Forest" cover? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Tropical dry evergreen forests occur in India only in Tamil Nadu, patches of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. These forests are found in the areas of relatively high temperature and small rainfall available only during particular period.##Topic:Climate, Vegetation and Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to 'Project Loon' consider the following statements:
It proposes to provide internet connectivity to remote areas using balloons floating in troposphere.
It aims to tap unused TV spectrum to provide internet access.
The project is being implemented by Google Inc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Project Loon is a research and development project being developed by Google X with the mission of providing Internet access to rural and remote areas. The project uses high-altitude balloons placed in the stratosphere at an altitude of about 18 km (11 mi) to create an aerial wireless network with up to 4G-LTE speeds.
Statement 2 is incorrect: By partnering with Telecommunications companies to share cellular spectrum Google is trying to enable people to connect to the balloon network directly from their phones and other LTE-enabled devices. Microsoft is planning to use unused TV spectrum to provide internet access in remote areas.
Statement 3 is correct.
Hence D is the correct answer.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to 'Project Loon' consider the following statements:
It proposes to provide internet connectivity to remote areas using balloons floating in troposphere.
It aims to tap unused TV spectrum to provide internet access.
The project is being implemented by Google Inc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Project Loon is a research and development project being developed by Google X with the mission of providing Internet access to rural and remote areas. The project uses high-altitude balloons placed in the stratosphere at an altitude of about 18 km (11 mi) to create an aerial wireless network with up to 4G-LTE speeds.
Statement 2 is incorrect: By partnering with Telecommunications companies to share cellular spectrum Google is trying to enable people to connect to the balloon network directly from their phones and other LTE-enabled devices. Microsoft is planning to use unused TV spectrum to provide internet access in remote areas.
Statement 3 is correct.
Hence D is the correct answer.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following properties of Carbon Nanofibers: Graphene layers are used in Carbon Nanofibres. Carbon dioxide (CO2) can be used to make Nanofibres They are used in electronic components and batteries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Carbon nanofibers (CNFs): It is cylindric nanostructures with graphene layers arranged as stacked cones, cups or plates structure. It has high tensile strength, less distortions with changes in temperature and high electromagnetic shielding. Graphene layers of CNFs wrapped into perfect cylinders are called carbon nanotubes. Applications of CFNs: They are already used in high-end applications such as electronic components and batteries. They are used as lightweight carbon composites materials in aircraft and car components. Recently, scientists in the US have found a way to take carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air and make carbon nanofibres. It could offer a cheaper way of making carbon nanofibres than existing costly methods which are too expensive for many applications. Therefore all statements are correct. Hence, D is the correct answer.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following properties of Carbon Nanofibers: Graphene layers are used in Carbon Nanofibres. Carbon dioxide (CO2) can be used to make Nanofibres They are used in electronic components and batteries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Carbon nanofibers (CNFs): It is cylindric nanostructures with graphene layers arranged as stacked cones, cups or plates structure. It has high tensile strength, less distortions with changes in temperature and high electromagnetic shielding. Graphene layers of CNFs wrapped into perfect cylinders are called carbon nanotubes. Applications of CFNs: They are already used in high-end applications such as electronic components and batteries. They are used as lightweight carbon composites materials in aircraft and car components. Recently, scientists in the US have found a way to take carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air and make carbon nanofibres. It could offer a cheaper way of making carbon nanofibres than existing costly methods which are too expensive for many applications. Therefore all statements are correct. Hence, D is the correct answer.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
|
After the expiry of the term of Governor he may be reappointed in the same state or any other state.
|
The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned state high court.
|
The Governor does not possess diplomatic, military or emergency powers like the President.
|
After the expiry of the term of Governor he may be reappointed in the same state or any other state.
|
The Governor though appoints the chairman and members of State Public Service Commission but they are removed only by the President.
|
d
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following statements is not correct?##Option_A: After the expiry of the term of Governor he may be reappointed in the same state or any other state.###Option_B: The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned state high court.##Option_C: The Governor does not possess diplomatic, military or emergency powers like the President.##Option_D: After the expiry of the term of Governor he may be reappointed in the same state or any other state.##Answer:d##Explaination:The Governor though appoints the chairman and members of State Public Service Commission but they are removed only by the President.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
In case of Inter-State Water Disputes, Parliament may provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction.
Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Parliament to set up an ad-hoc tribunal for adjudication of dispute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Article 262 of the constitution provides for the adjudication of the Inter-state water disputes.
Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river.
Parliament may also provide that neither the SC nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
The Inter-State Water Disputes (ISWD) Act empowers the central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states.
SC have jurisdiction to decide any dispute between states in connection with water supplies, if legal rights are concerned.
|
c
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
In case of Inter-State Water Disputes, Parliament may provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction.
Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Parliament to set up an ad-hoc tribunal for adjudication of dispute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Article 262 of the constitution provides for the adjudication of the Inter-state water disputes.
Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river.
Parliament may also provide that neither the SC nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
The Inter-State Water Disputes (ISWD) Act empowers the central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states.
SC have jurisdiction to decide any dispute between states in connection with water supplies, if legal rights are concerned.
##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in the Centre and the States is/are correct? The Constitution does not restrict the Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The Parliament alone can make laws applicable on Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. The laws made by the state legislature are not applicable outside the state in any condition. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. However, the Constitution places certain restrictions on the plenary territorial jurisdiction of the Parliament i.e. the laws of the Parliament are not applicable in the following areas: (i) The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the four Union Territories—the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament. It may also repeal or amend any act of Parliament in relation to these union territories. (ii) The Governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. (iii) The Governor of Assam may likewise direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area (autonomours district) in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. The President enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament alone can make 'extra-territorial legislation'. Thus, the laws made by the Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. Statement 3 is incorrect: Although the state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. However, the laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.
|
c
|
Legislative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in the Centre and the States is/are correct? The Constitution does not restrict the Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The Parliament alone can make laws applicable on Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. The laws made by the state legislature are not applicable outside the state in any condition. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. However, the Constitution places certain restrictions on the plenary territorial jurisdiction of the Parliament i.e. the laws of the Parliament are not applicable in the following areas: (i) The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the four Union Territories—the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament. It may also repeal or amend any act of Parliament in relation to these union territories. (ii) The Governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. (iii) The Governor of Assam may likewise direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area (autonomours district) in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. The President enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament alone can make 'extra-territorial legislation'. Thus, the laws made by the Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. Statement 3 is incorrect: Although the state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. However, the laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.##Topic:Legislative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following negatively affects the exchange rate of a domestic currency? Increase in exports Increase in imports Lower interest rate Higher inflation rate Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Increase in exports positively affects the exchange rate . Increase in exports of a country will lead to an increase in demand for the currency and thus its value rises. Hence option 1 is not correct. Increase in imports will lead to higher demand for foreign currency and hence the demand for domestic currency reduces. This will negatively affect the exchange rate. Hence option 2 is correct. Lower interest rate will attract less foreign investors to invest in the country and thus the demand for currency will decrease , resulting in depreciation in value of the currency. Hence option 3 is correct. Higher inflation rate will make the country uncompetitive in the international market. The exports will fall resulting in decreased demand for the currency and hence lower value. Hence option 4 is correct.
|
b
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following negatively affects the exchange rate of a domestic currency? Increase in exports Increase in imports Lower interest rate Higher inflation rate Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 4 only###Option_B:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Increase in exports positively affects the exchange rate . Increase in exports of a country will lead to an increase in demand for the currency and thus its value rises. Hence option 1 is not correct. Increase in imports will lead to higher demand for foreign currency and hence the demand for domestic currency reduces. This will negatively affect the exchange rate. Hence option 2 is correct. Lower interest rate will attract less foreign investors to invest in the country and thus the demand for currency will decrease , resulting in depreciation in value of the currency. Hence option 3 is correct. Higher inflation rate will make the country uncompetitive in the international market. The exports will fall resulting in decreased demand for the currency and hence lower value. Hence option 4 is correct.##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following measures is/are likely to reduce inflation in the economy? Remove levy obligations in respect of imported materials. Ban export of constrained materials. Increasing wages Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Option 1 is correct. Removing levy obligations in respect of imported materials encourages more imports and reduces the demand for constrained materials. This reduces demand pull factors of inflation. Option 2 is correct. Ban export of constrained materials also provides for more domestic availability. Option 3 is incorrect. Rising wages provide for more money in the market and thus increases the inflation.
|
b
|
Inflation: Definition, Inflationary Gap and Inflationary Process, Inflation Cycles: Demand Pull Inflation, Cost Push Inflation, Causes of Inflation, Inflation Control measures
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following measures is/are likely to reduce inflation in the economy? Remove levy obligations in respect of imported materials. Ban export of constrained materials. Increasing wages Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Option 1 is correct. Removing levy obligations in respect of imported materials encourages more imports and reduces the demand for constrained materials. This reduces demand pull factors of inflation. Option 2 is correct. Ban export of constrained materials also provides for more domestic availability. Option 3 is incorrect. Rising wages provide for more money in the market and thus increases the inflation.##Topic:Inflation: Definition, Inflationary Gap and Inflationary Process, Inflation Cycles: Demand Pull Inflation, Cost Push Inflation, Causes of Inflation, Inflation Control measures##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following components is/are used in calculating Human Development Index (HDI) by UNDP? Life expectancy at birth Mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling GNP per capita Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Human Development Index (HDI) by UNDP uses the following components: Life expectancy at birth Mean of years of schooling for adults aged 25 years Expected years of schooling for children of school entering age GNI per capita (PPP$)
|
b
|
Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following components is/are used in calculating Human Development Index (HDI) by UNDP? Life expectancy at birth Mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling GNP per capita Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Human Development Index (HDI) by UNDP uses the following components: Life expectancy at birth Mean of years of schooling for adults aged 25 years Expected years of schooling for children of school entering age GNI per capita (PPP$)##Topic:Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs of foreign travellers in India: 1. Fahien – visited India during the reign of Harshavardhan 2. Megasthenes – visited India during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya 3. Hieun Tsang – visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
,
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs of foreign travellers in India: 1. Fahien – visited India during the reign of Harshavardhan 2. Megasthenes – visited India during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya 3. Hieun Tsang – visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II Which of the above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:,##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
With regard to taxation, consider the following statements: Progressive taxes reduce the incidence of taxes on people with lower incomes. In case of proportional taxation, the tax rate increases with income. Sales tax on food items is an example of regressive tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Progressive tax is a tax in which the tax rate increases as the tax base increases. Here the rate of taxation increases as the income increases. Progressive taxes reduce the incidence of taxes on people with lower incomes. Thus people with lower ability-to-pay, actually pay less. Statement 2 is incorrect. Proportional taxation is a tax where the rate of taxation is fixed. The amount of the tax is a fixed proportion of one's income. It is also called as flat tax. Statement 3 is correct. Sales tax on food items is an example of regressive tax. Sales taxes on food items tend to make up a higher percentage of a lower income consumer's overall budget. However it makes up a very low percentage of income in a higher income consumer’s budget. In this case, even though the tax may be uniform, lower income consumers are more affected by it because they are less able to afford it.
|
d
|
Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to taxation, consider the following statements: Progressive taxes reduce the incidence of taxes on people with lower incomes. In case of proportional taxation, the tax rate increases with income. Sales tax on food items is an example of regressive tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Progressive tax is a tax in which the tax rate increases as the tax base increases. Here the rate of taxation increases as the income increases. Progressive taxes reduce the incidence of taxes on people with lower incomes. Thus people with lower ability-to-pay, actually pay less. Statement 2 is incorrect. Proportional taxation is a tax where the rate of taxation is fixed. The amount of the tax is a fixed proportion of one's income. It is also called as flat tax. Statement 3 is correct. Sales tax on food items is an example of regressive tax. Sales taxes on food items tend to make up a higher percentage of a lower income consumer's overall budget. However it makes up a very low percentage of income in a higher income consumer’s budget. In this case, even though the tax may be uniform, lower income consumers are more affected by it because they are less able to afford it.##Topic:Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs of departments and related matters with reference to administration in Delhi Sultanate:
Diwan-i-Arz - Military Affairs.
Diwan-i-Risalat - Religious Affairs
Diwan-i-Wizarat - Agriculture Affairs.
Which of the above is/are correctly matched pairs?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
,
|
c
|
The Delhi Sultanate
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs of departments and related matters with reference to administration in Delhi Sultanate:
Diwan-i-Arz - Military Affairs.
Diwan-i-Risalat - Religious Affairs
Diwan-i-Wizarat - Agriculture Affairs.
Which of the above is/are correctly matched pairs?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:,##Topic:The Delhi Sultanate##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider the following battles:
Battle of Karnal: Nadir Shah and Mughals
First Battle of Panipat: Mughals and Delhi Sultanate.
Thirds Battle of Panipat: Akbar and Maharana Pratap
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
,
|
c
|
Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following battles:
Battle of Karnal: Nadir Shah and Mughals
First Battle of Panipat: Mughals and Delhi Sultanate.
Thirds Battle of Panipat: Akbar and Maharana Pratap
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:,##Topic:Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With reference to administration during the Mughals, consider the following statements:
1. Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system in his administration under which every officer was assigned a rank (Mansab). 2. Sawar rank indicated the number of cavalrymen of a person was required to maintain. 3. The land revenue system was called Zabti or Bandobast system or Dahsala System
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
,
|
d
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to administration during the Mughals, consider the following statements:
1. Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system in his administration under which every officer was assigned a rank (Mansab). 2. Sawar rank indicated the number of cavalrymen of a person was required to maintain. 3. The land revenue system was called Zabti or Bandobast system or Dahsala System
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:,##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
With regard to convertibility of currency, consider the following statements: If the capital account is fully convertible, importers and exporters are allowed free conversion of rupee. Capital account of India is fully convertible. India is planning to achieve fully convertible current account in the next 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Importers and exporters are allowed free conversion of rupee in case of current account convertibility. Statement 2 is incorrect. India has partial Capital Account Convertibility (CAC). Capital Account Convertibility means that rupee can now be freely convertible into any foreign currencies for acquisition of assets like shares, properties and assets abroad. At present, there are limits on investment by foreign financial investors and also caps on FDI ceiling in most sectors. Statement 3 is incorrect. India's current account is today fully convertible (operationalized on August 19, 1994).
|
d
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to convertibility of currency, consider the following statements: If the capital account is fully convertible, importers and exporters are allowed free conversion of rupee. Capital account of India is fully convertible. India is planning to achieve fully convertible current account in the next 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. Importers and exporters are allowed free conversion of rupee in case of current account convertibility. Statement 2 is incorrect. India has partial Capital Account Convertibility (CAC). Capital Account Convertibility means that rupee can now be freely convertible into any foreign currencies for acquisition of assets like shares, properties and assets abroad. At present, there are limits on investment by foreign financial investors and also caps on FDI ceiling in most sectors. Statement 3 is incorrect. India's current account is today fully convertible (operationalized on August 19, 1994).##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
You are walking along the McMohan Line from west to east If you jump back to the Indian side, you will find yourself in Sikkim. The latitude passing from your location will cut through Nagaland and Rajasthan. At the end of your journey along the line, you may end up in Myanmar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The McMohan Line runs from the tri-junction of India, Bhutan, and China to the tri-junction of India, China, and Myanmar. It's an eastern sector of the international border between India and China along the state of Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 1 is not correct: If you jump back to the Indian side, you will find yourself in Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 2 is not correct: The latitude passing from your location will cut through Rajasthan but not Nagaland. Statement 3 is correct: At the end of the line, there is a tri-junction of India, China, and Myanmar.
|
d
|
Map based Questins from Indian Geography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:You are walking along the McMohan Line from west to east If you jump back to the Indian side, you will find yourself in Sikkim. The latitude passing from your location will cut through Nagaland and Rajasthan. At the end of your journey along the line, you may end up in Myanmar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The McMohan Line runs from the tri-junction of India, Bhutan, and China to the tri-junction of India, China, and Myanmar. It's an eastern sector of the international border between India and China along the state of Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 1 is not correct: If you jump back to the Indian side, you will find yourself in Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 2 is not correct: The latitude passing from your location will cut through Rajasthan but not Nagaland. Statement 3 is correct: At the end of the line, there is a tri-junction of India, China, and Myanmar.##Topic:Map based Questins from Indian Geography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to the depth of the earthquakes, consider the following statements: Shallow focus earthquakes are caused along the constructive plate boundaries. Deep focus earthquakes are caused along the mid-oceanic ridges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Constructive plate boundaries represent the trailing ends of divergent plates and shallow focus earthquakes are associated with divergent plates. So, the first statement is correct. Mid-oceanic ridges are associated with divergent plates. These are regions of shallow focus earthquakes and not deep focus earthquakes. Therefore, this statement is not correct.
|
a
|
Earthquakes, Folding, Faulting, Isostasy
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the depth of the earthquakes, consider the following statements: Shallow focus earthquakes are caused along the constructive plate boundaries. Deep focus earthquakes are caused along the mid-oceanic ridges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Constructive plate boundaries represent the trailing ends of divergent plates and shallow focus earthquakes are associated with divergent plates. So, the first statement is correct. Mid-oceanic ridges are associated with divergent plates. These are regions of shallow focus earthquakes and not deep focus earthquakes. Therefore, this statement is not correct. ##Topic:Earthquakes, Folding, Faulting, Isostasy##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj? It opposed priesthood. It opposed the worship of idols, images or statues. It opposed the doctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy. He criticised idolatory and re-interpreted Hindu doctrines. There was no place for preisthood in the Samaj building. Brahmo Samaj started a campaign for the abolition of Sati, condemned polygamy, denounced casteism. Brahmo Samaj took no definite stand on the doctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul and left it to individual Brahmos to believe either ways.
|
b
|
Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj? It opposed priesthood. It opposed the worship of idols, images or statues. It opposed the doctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy. He criticised idolatory and re-interpreted Hindu doctrines. There was no place for preisthood in the Samaj building. Brahmo Samaj started a campaign for the abolition of Sati, condemned polygamy, denounced casteism. Brahmo Samaj took no definite stand on the doctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul and left it to individual Brahmos to believe either ways. ##Topic:Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With reference to India"s culture and tradition, what is "Pavakoothu"?
|
It is a religious offering given at Sabarimala temple.
|
It is a religious festival celebrated on a grand scale in some parts of South Andhra Pradesh.
|
It is an ancient form of puppet play performed in Kerala.
|
It is a religious offering given at Sabarimala temple.
|
In Kerala, the traditional glove puppet play is called Pavakoothu. It came into existence during the 18th century due to the influence of Kathakali, the famous classical dance-drama of Kerala, on puppet performances.The theme for Glove puppet plays in Kerala is based on the episodes from either the Ramayana or the Mahabharata. In Pavakoothu, the height of a puppet varies from one foot to two feet. The head and the arms are carved of wood and joined together with thick cloth, cut and stitched into a small bag. The musical instruments used during the performance are Chenda, Chengiloa, Ilathalam and Shankhathe conch.
|
c
|
Puppetry, Theatres and Circus
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to India"s culture and tradition, what is "Pavakoothu"?##Option_A: It is a religious offering given at Sabarimala temple.###Option_B: It is a religious festival celebrated on a grand scale in some parts of South Andhra Pradesh.##Option_C: It is an ancient form of puppet play performed in Kerala.##Option_D: It is a religious offering given at Sabarimala temple.##Answer:c##Explaination:In Kerala, the traditional glove puppet play is called Pavakoothu. It came into existence during the 18th century due to the influence of Kathakali, the famous classical dance-drama of Kerala, on puppet performances.The theme for Glove puppet plays in Kerala is based on the episodes from either the Ramayana or the Mahabharata. In Pavakoothu, the height of a puppet varies from one foot to two feet. The head and the arms are carved of wood and joined together with thick cloth, cut and stitched into a small bag. The musical instruments used during the performance are Chenda, Chengiloa, Ilathalam and Shankhathe conch.##Topic:Puppetry, Theatres and Circus##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Madan Mohan Malviya was associated with which of the following: Banaras Hindu University Hindustan Times Hindu Mahasabha Indian National Congress Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Malaviya is most remembered as the founder of Banaras Hindu University. He was the President of the Indian National Congress on two occasions (1909, 1918). He left Congress in 1934. He was a member of the Hindu Mahasabha. He was a president of the special session of Hindu Mahasabha in Gaya in 1922 and in Kashi in 1923. He was the Chairman of Hindustan Times from 1924 to 1946. His efforts resulted in the launch of its Hindi edition named Hindustan Dainik in 1936. He was also awarded Bharat Ratna recently. Hence D is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Prsonality Based Questions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Madan Mohan Malviya was associated with which of the following: Banaras Hindu University Hindustan Times Hindu Mahasabha Indian National Congress Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Malaviya is most remembered as the founder of Banaras Hindu University. He was the President of the Indian National Congress on two occasions (1909, 1918). He left Congress in 1934. He was a member of the Hindu Mahasabha. He was a president of the special session of Hindu Mahasabha in Gaya in 1922 and in Kashi in 1923. He was the Chairman of Hindustan Times from 1924 to 1946. His efforts resulted in the launch of its Hindi edition named Hindustan Dainik in 1936. He was also awarded Bharat Ratna recently. Hence D is the correct answer.##Topic:Prsonality Based Questions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Temple Architectural Style 1. Kailasanath of Kanchipuram : Chalukyan 2. Hoysaleswara : Vesara 3. Brihadeshwara : Dravida Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Kanchi Kailasanathar temple is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram Located in Tamil Nadu, India, it is a Hindu temple in the Dravidian architectural style. Hoysala temples are of hybrid or vesara style as their unique architecture seems neither completely dravida nor nagara, but somewhere in between. Brihadeshwara temple is an architectural example showcasing the pure form of the Dravida type of temple architecture and representative of the Chola Empire ideology and the Tamil civilisation in Southern India. Hence B is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Temple Architectural Style 1. Kailasanath of Kanchipuram : Chalukyan 2. Hoysaleswara : Vesara 3. Brihadeshwara : Dravida Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Kanchi Kailasanathar temple is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram Located in Tamil Nadu, India, it is a Hindu temple in the Dravidian architectural style. Hoysala temples are of hybrid or vesara style as their unique architecture seems neither completely dravida nor nagara, but somewhere in between. Brihadeshwara temple is an architectural example showcasing the pure form of the Dravida type of temple architecture and representative of the Chola Empire ideology and the Tamil civilisation in Southern India. Hence B is the correct answer.##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Cabinet Mission sent to India by the British Government, consider the following statements: It upheld the unity of India and rejected the demand for separate Pakistan. It recommended to set up a directly elected Constituent Assembly to frame a constitution for the Indian Union. It provided for a strong centre dealing with the subjects of Foreign Affairs, Defence and Communications . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 most importantly it rejected the demand of Muslim league for Pakistan and recommended for a Union of India. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Cabinet Mission Plan even though gave the right to draft constitution , but the Constituent Assembly was to be elected indirectly. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Plan greatly restricted the powers of the Centre by allocating to it only three subjects i.e. Foreign Affairs , Defence and Communications. The Centre was deprived of control over such important subjects needing uniformity viz. Currency and Coinage, Customs and Tariffs, Weights and Measures, Planning and Development and Inter-State Commerce. Generally, these subjects are assigned to the Centre in federations in the interest of integrated economic development of the country.
|
a
|
The Constituent Assembly
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Cabinet Mission sent to India by the British Government, consider the following statements: It upheld the unity of India and rejected the demand for separate Pakistan. It recommended to set up a directly elected Constituent Assembly to frame a constitution for the Indian Union. It provided for a strong centre dealing with the subjects of Foreign Affairs, Defence and Communications . Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 most importantly it rejected the demand of Muslim league for Pakistan and recommended for a Union of India. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Cabinet Mission Plan even though gave the right to draft constitution , but the Constituent Assembly was to be elected indirectly. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Plan greatly restricted the powers of the Centre by allocating to it only three subjects i.e. Foreign Affairs , Defence and Communications. The Centre was deprived of control over such important subjects needing uniformity viz. Currency and Coinage, Customs and Tariffs, Weights and Measures, Planning and Development and Inter-State Commerce. Generally, these subjects are assigned to the Centre in federations in the interest of integrated economic development of the country.##Topic:The Constituent Assembly##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
It believes that liberation can be obtained through full knowledge and action.
It does not recognize the existence of the Gods.
It condemned the Varna system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Jainism mainly aims at the attainment of freedom from worldly bonds. It believes that liberation can be obtained through full knowledge and action and it is not necessary to use any ritual for acquiring such liberation. Full knowledge, action and liberation are considered to be the three gems or 'ratnas' of Jainism.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It recognized the existence of gods but placed them lower than the jina.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It did not condemn the Varna system unlike Buddhism.
Hence A is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Religion and Philosophy
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
It believes that liberation can be obtained through full knowledge and action.
It does not recognize the existence of the Gods.
It condemned the Varna system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Jainism mainly aims at the attainment of freedom from worldly bonds. It believes that liberation can be obtained through full knowledge and action and it is not necessary to use any ritual for acquiring such liberation. Full knowledge, action and liberation are considered to be the three gems or 'ratnas' of Jainism.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It recognized the existence of gods but placed them lower than the jina.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It did not condemn the Varna system unlike Buddhism.
Hence A is the correct answer.
##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following inscriptions was installed in the westernmost part of Ashoka"s territory?
|
Kandahar pillar edicts
|
Dhauli major rock edicts
|
Girnar major rock edicts
|
Kandahar pillar edicts
|
Kandahar pillar edicts- Afghanistan Dhauli major rock edicts- Bhubaneshwar, Orissa( easternmost) Girnar major rock edicts- Junagarh, Gujarat Lauriya Araraj pillar edicts- Champaran, Bihar By recalling the map also this question can be answered.
|
a
|
Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following inscriptions was installed in the westernmost part of Ashoka"s territory?##Option_A: Kandahar pillar edicts###Option_B: Dhauli major rock edicts##Option_C: Girnar major rock edicts##Option_D: Kandahar pillar edicts##Answer:a##Explaination:Kandahar pillar edicts- Afghanistan Dhauli major rock edicts- Bhubaneshwar, Orissa( easternmost) Girnar major rock edicts- Junagarh, Gujarat Lauriya Araraj pillar edicts- Champaran, Bihar By recalling the map also this question can be answered.##Topic:Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following: Sankirtana Bihu dance Kalbelia dance Ramlila Which of the above from India are part of UNESCO"s Intangible Cultural Heritage list?
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Except Bihu dance, rest all forms part of UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list. UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list: Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India Chhau dance a genre of Indian tribal martial dance which is popular in the Indian states of Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal. Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala Novruz, Nowrouz, Nooruz, Navruz, Nauroz, Nevruz Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India Kutiyattam, Sanskrit theatre Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana Tradition of Vedic chanting
|
c
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: Sankirtana Bihu dance Kalbelia dance Ramlila Which of the above from India are part of UNESCO"s Intangible Cultural Heritage list? ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Except Bihu dance, rest all forms part of UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list. UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list: Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India Chhau dance a genre of Indian tribal martial dance which is popular in the Indian states of Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal. Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala Novruz, Nowrouz, Nooruz, Navruz, Nauroz, Nevruz Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India Kutiyattam, Sanskrit theatre Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana Tradition of Vedic chanting##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
What was the reason for drafting Nehru Report by the nationalists?
|
to raise demands to boycott Simon agitations.
|
it came as a reaction to the defeat of the Public Safety Bill in 1928 in the Central Legislative Assembly.
|
it was brought to popularize the adoption of "Purna Swaraj" at the Lahore Congress Session.
|
to raise demands to boycott Simon agitations.
|
As an answer to Lord Birkenhead's challenge given to Indian politicians to produce an agreed constitution, an All Parties Conference met in Feb.1928 and appointed a sub-committee under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to draft a Constitution, and thus Nehru Report came up .
|
d
|
Nehru Report, 1928
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What was the reason for drafting Nehru Report by the nationalists?##Option_A: to raise demands to boycott Simon agitations.###Option_B: it came as a reaction to the defeat of the Public Safety Bill in 1928 in the Central Legislative Assembly.##Option_C: it was brought to popularize the adoption of "Purna Swaraj" at the Lahore Congress Session. ##Option_D: to raise demands to boycott Simon agitations.##Answer:d##Explaination:As an answer to Lord Birkenhead's challenge given to Indian politicians to produce an agreed constitution, an All Parties Conference met in Feb.1928 and appointed a sub-committee under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to draft a Constitution, and thus Nehru Report came up .##Topic:Nehru Report, 1928##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Satyagraha Sabha was set up by Gandhiji to
|
create nation-wide campaign during Quit India movement
|
create nation-wide propaganda against Rowlatt Act
|
promote constructive work in villages for upliftment of Harijans and to popularize the use of Khadi
|
create nation-wide campaign during Quit India movement
|
To protest against the Rowlatt Act (this act authorized the government to imprison for a maximum period of two years, without trial, any person suspected of terrorism), in February 1919 Gandhiji founded Satyagraha Sabha whose members took a pledge to disobey the Act and thus to court arrest and imprisonment. He organized a mass protest at all India level. By March 23, 1919, the volunteers started courting arrests. The three organizations viz, the Home Rule league, Muslim league and the Satyagraha Sabha along with some other small organizations coordinated and organized the biggest Satyagraha ever.
|
b
|
The Beginning of the Gandhian Era
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Satyagraha Sabha was set up by Gandhiji to##Option_A: create nation-wide campaign during Quit India movement###Option_B: create nation-wide propaganda against Rowlatt Act##Option_C: promote constructive work in villages for upliftment of Harijans and to popularize the use of Khadi##Option_D: create nation-wide campaign during Quit India movement##Answer:b##Explaination:To protest against the Rowlatt Act (this act authorized the government to imprison for a maximum period of two years, without trial, any person suspected of terrorism), in February 1919 Gandhiji founded Satyagraha Sabha whose members took a pledge to disobey the Act and thus to court arrest and imprisonment. He organized a mass protest at all India level. By March 23, 1919, the volunteers started courting arrests. The three organizations viz, the Home Rule league, Muslim league and the Satyagraha Sabha along with some other small organizations coordinated and organized the biggest Satyagraha ever. ##Topic:The Beginning of the Gandhian Era##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which of the following countries of Latin America open out to both Atlantic and Pacific Oceans? Panama Ecuador Venezuela Colombia Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Of the given countries, only Panama and Colombia open out to both Atlantic and Pacific oceans. Ecuador open out to only Pacific Ocean Venezuela open out to only Atlantic Ocean. Other countries which open to both Atlantic and Pacific ocean: Canada, USA, Mexico, Gautemala, Honduras, Nicaragua, Costa Rica and Chille.
|
c
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following countries of Latin America open out to both Atlantic and Pacific Oceans? Panama Ecuador Venezuela Colombia Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 4 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Of the given countries, only Panama and Colombia open out to both Atlantic and Pacific oceans. Ecuador open out to only Pacific Ocean Venezuela open out to only Atlantic Ocean. Other countries which open to both Atlantic and Pacific ocean: Canada, USA, Mexico, Gautemala, Honduras, Nicaragua, Costa Rica and Chille. ##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT), consider the following statements. It seeks to ban nuclear explosions for both military and civilian purposes. India has signed the treaty but not ratified it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty by which states agree to ban all nuclear explosions in all environments, for military or civilian purposes. It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 10 September 1996 but has not entered into force. India has neither signed the treaty nor ratified it. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT), consider the following statements. It seeks to ban nuclear explosions for both military and civilian purposes. India has signed the treaty but not ratified it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty by which states agree to ban all nuclear explosions in all environments, for military or civilian purposes. It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 10 September 1996 but has not entered into force. India has neither signed the treaty nor ratified it. Hence only statement 1 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:a
|
In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about 'LISA Pathfinder', a spacecraft which was recently in news:
Its objective is to detect the dark matter.
It is placed in space because Earth’s gravity may hamper the test results.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
LISA Pathfinder is paving the way for future missions by testing in flight the very concept of gravitational wave detection: it will put two test masses in a near-perfect gravitational free-fall and control and measure their motion with unprecedented accuracy. Hence Statement 1 is wrong. It's objective is to detect the gravitational waves and not the dark matter.
LISA Pathfinder is an ESA mission, which also carries a NASA payload. Only feasible in space LISA pathfinder is a pioneer mission. Not only are these technologies new, they cannot be properly verified on the ground. This is because Earth's gravity and environment would hamper the test rsults. Thus only Statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about 'LISA Pathfinder', a spacecraft which was recently in news:
Its objective is to detect the dark matter.
It is placed in space because Earth’s gravity may hamper the test results.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
LISA Pathfinder is paving the way for future missions by testing in flight the very concept of gravitational wave detection: it will put two test masses in a near-perfect gravitational free-fall and control and measure their motion with unprecedented accuracy. Hence Statement 1 is wrong. It's objective is to detect the gravitational waves and not the dark matter.
LISA Pathfinder is an ESA mission, which also carries a NASA payload. Only feasible in space LISA pathfinder is a pioneer mission. Not only are these technologies new, they cannot be properly verified on the ground. This is because Earth's gravity and environment would hamper the test rsults. Thus only Statement 2 is correct.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs:
Region often
in news
Country
1. Raqqa
:
Syria
2. Mosul
:
Iraq
3. Gwoza
:
Nigeria
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Al-Raqqah, also called Raqqa, is a city in Syria located on the north bank of the Euphrates River. During the Syrian Civil War, in 2013, the city was captured by the Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant, which made it its headquarters in Syria.
Mosul, is a city of northern Iraq, occupied since 10 June 2014 by the Islamic State salafi-jihadi militant group and therefore a major city in its self-declared caliphate.
Gwoza is a Local Government Area of Borno State, Nigeria. Gwoza has been called "a notorious hide out for the Boko Haram insurgents. In March 2015, Boko Haram, announced its allegiance to the Islamic State.
|
c
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs:
Region often
in news
Country
1. Raqqa
:
Syria
2. Mosul
:
Iraq
3. Gwoza
:
Nigeria
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Al-Raqqah, also called Raqqa, is a city in Syria located on the north bank of the Euphrates River. During the Syrian Civil War, in 2013, the city was captured by the Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant, which made it its headquarters in Syria.
Mosul, is a city of northern Iraq, occupied since 10 June 2014 by the Islamic State salafi-jihadi militant group and therefore a major city in its self-declared caliphate.
Gwoza is a Local Government Area of Borno State, Nigeria. Gwoza has been called "a notorious hide out for the Boko Haram insurgents. In March 2015, Boko Haram, announced its allegiance to the Islamic State.
##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
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