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Which of the following are the objectives of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act,1996? To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the panchayats to the scheduled areas. To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers of panchayats at the lower level. To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make gram sabha a nucleus of all activities. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The objectives of the PESA Act are as follows: To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the scheduled areas with certain modifications. To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population. To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the gram sabha a nucleus of all activities. To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices. To safeguard and to preserve the traditional customs of tribal communities. To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements. To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the gram sabha.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the objectives of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act,1996? To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the panchayats to the scheduled areas. To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers of panchayats at the lower level. To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make gram sabha a nucleus of all activities. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The objectives of the PESA Act are as follows: To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the scheduled areas with certain modifications. To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population. To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the gram sabha a nucleus of all activities. To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices. To safeguard and to preserve the traditional customs of tribal communities. To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements. To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the gram sabha.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
During swadeshi movement of 1905, Corps of volunteers or ‘Samitis’ were organized. Which of the following functions were performed by them? Training in swadeshi craft Physical and moral training to masses Social work Settlement of disputes through arbitration committees. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
During swadeshi movement of 1905,corps of volunteers of samitis were used as an another medium of mass mobilization and building social awareness along with performing social work Swadesh Bandhab Samiti by Ashwini Kumar Duttin Barisal was the most famous samiti at that time The samiti took swadeshi message to rural villages through magic lantern lectures. It provided training in swadeshi craft ,physical and moral training along with social work during famines. They formed an arbitration committee which sorted out several disputes of the villagers.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:During swadeshi movement of 1905, Corps of volunteers or ‘Samitis’ were organized. Which of the following functions were performed by them? Training in swadeshi craft Physical and moral training to masses Social work Settlement of disputes through arbitration committees. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:During swadeshi movement of 1905,corps of volunteers of samitis were used as an another medium of mass mobilization and building social awareness along with performing social work Swadesh Bandhab Samiti by Ashwini Kumar Duttin Barisal was the most famous samiti at that time The samiti took swadeshi message to rural villages through magic lantern lectures. It provided training in swadeshi craft ,physical and moral training along with social work during famines. They formed an arbitration committee which sorted out several disputes of the villagers. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Majority of coal deposits in India are Gondwana deposits Anthracite type Coking grade Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits. Gondwana coal accounts for 98 per cent of the total reserves in India. About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of non-coking grade. Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Majority of coal deposits in India are Gondwana deposits Anthracite type Coking grade Which of the following statements is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits. Gondwana coal accounts for 98 per cent of the total reserves in India. About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of non-coking grade. Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to Congress–Khilafat Swaraj party, better known as Swaraj Party , consider the following statements: It was initially founded as a sub unit of Congress to recruit cadres for Khilafat movement. It advocated entry into the legislative councils. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru were associated with it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A new line of political activity was advocated by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru. They suggested that the nationalists should end the boycott of the legislative councils. This programme of action was proposed at the Gaya session of the congress in December, 1922. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru resigned from their offices and announced formation of Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party better known later as the Swaraj Party. The adherents of the council entry programme came to be popularly known as 'pro-changers' and those still advocating boycott of the councils as 'no-changers'. This party however had nothing to do with Khilafat movement.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Congress–Khilafat Swaraj party, better known as Swaraj Party , consider the following statements: It was initially founded as a sub unit of Congress to recruit cadres for Khilafat movement. It advocated entry into the legislative councils. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru were associated with it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:A new line of political activity was advocated by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru. They suggested that the nationalists should end the boycott of the legislative councils. This programme of action was proposed at the Gaya session of the congress in December, 1922. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru resigned from their offices and announced formation of Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party better known later as the Swaraj Party. The adherents of the council entry programme came to be popularly known as 'pro-changers' and those still advocating boycott of the councils as 'no-changers'. This party however had nothing to do with Khilafat movement.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Country Project 1. Iran : Chabahar Port 2. Bangladesh : Salma Dam 3. Myanmar : Kaladan Project 4. Afghanistan : Farkhor Air Base Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
Chabahar Port is a seaport in Chahbahar in southeastern Iran. India joined in the development of the port in 2003 and signed a trilateral agreement in 2016 for a sea-land route between India and Afghanistan via the Chabahar port. *Salma dam is a hydroelectric and irrigation project in Afghanistan built by India *The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a project that will connect the seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Myanmar by sea. It will then link Sittwe seaport to Paletwa via Kaladan river via boat and further to Mizoram by road transport. The project is being piloted and funded by the Ministry of External Affairs. Farkhor Air Base in Tajikistan operated by Indian Air Force. The air base was in dilapidated condition since 1980s and was later restored by efforts of Indian government in 2005
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Country Project 1. Iran : Chabahar Port 2. Bangladesh : Salma Dam 3. Myanmar : Kaladan Project 4. Afghanistan : Farkhor Air Base Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Chabahar Port is a seaport in Chahbahar in southeastern Iran. India joined in the development of the port in 2003 and signed a trilateral agreement in 2016 for a sea-land route between India and Afghanistan via the Chabahar port. *Salma dam is a hydroelectric and irrigation project in Afghanistan built by India *The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a project that will connect the seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Myanmar by sea. It will then link Sittwe seaport to Paletwa via Kaladan river via boat and further to Mizoram by road transport. The project is being piloted and funded by the Ministry of External Affairs. Farkhor Air Base in Tajikistan operated by Indian Air Force. The air base was in dilapidated condition since 1980s and was later restored by efforts of Indian government in 2005 ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
"Dun Formations" is a distinguishing feature of which of the following region ?
|
Kashmir Himalayas
|
Himachal and Uttrakhand Himalayas
|
Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas
|
Kashmir Himalayas
|
The two distinguishing features of Himachal and Uttrakhand Himalayas from the point of view of physiography are the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations’. Some important duns located in this region are the Chandigarh-Kalka dun, Nalagarh dun, Dehra Dun, Harike dun and the Kota dun, etc. Dehra Dun is the largest of all the duns with an approximate length of 35-45 km and a width of 22-25 km.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Dun Formations" is a distinguishing feature of which of the following region ?##Option_A: Kashmir Himalayas###Option_B: Himachal and Uttrakhand Himalayas##Option_C: Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas##Option_D: Kashmir Himalayas##Answer:b##Explaination:The two distinguishing features of Himachal and Uttrakhand Himalayas from the point of view of physiography are the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations’. Some important duns located in this region are the Chandigarh-Kalka dun, Nalagarh dun, Dehra Dun, Harike dun and the Kota dun, etc. Dehra Dun is the largest of all the duns with an approximate length of 35-45 km and a width of 22-25 km. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
"Originating from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Kailash Mountain Range, it cuts across the Ladakh range forming a spectacular gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir. In Tibet, it is known as "Singi Khamban"." Which of the following rivers is best desribed by the above passage?
|
Indus
|
Jhelum
|
Chenab
|
Indus
|
The Indus also known as the Sindhu, is the westernmost of the Himalayan rivers in India. It originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu (31°15' N latitude and 81°40' E longitude) in the Tibetan region at an altitude of 4,164 m in the Kailash Mountain range. In Tibet, it is known as ‘Singi Khamban; or Lion’s mouth. After flowing in the northwest direction between the Ladakh and Zaskar ranges, it passes through Ladakh and Baltistan. It cuts across the Ladakh range, forming a spectacular gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir. It enters into Pa kistan near Chillar in the Dardistan region.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Originating from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Kailash Mountain Range, it cuts across the Ladakh range forming a spectacular gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir. In Tibet, it is known as "Singi Khamban"." Which of the following rivers is best desribed by the above passage?##Option_A: Indus###Option_B: Jhelum##Option_C: Chenab##Option_D: Indus##Answer:a##Explaination:The Indus also known as the Sindhu, is the westernmost of the Himalayan rivers in India. It originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu (31°15' N latitude and 81°40' E longitude) in the Tibetan region at an altitude of 4,164 m in the Kailash Mountain range. In Tibet, it is known as ‘Singi Khamban; or Lion’s mouth. After flowing in the northwest direction between the Ladakh and Zaskar ranges, it passes through Ladakh and Baltistan. It cuts across the Ladakh range, forming a spectacular gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir. It enters into Pa kistan near Chillar in the Dardistan region.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
The “Seechewal model ” recently seen in news, is associated with which of the following?
|
A mechanism to convert Ocean water to potable water.
|
A model of river cleaning.
|
A type of rain water harvesting technique.
|
A mechanism to convert Ocean water to potable water.
|
Seechewal Model - A river cleaning model adopted in Punjab to clean river Kali Bein with public participation. The model was also selected to clean the Ganga under the Ganga rejuvenation project. It will now be adopted to clean river Yamuna in Delhi. It includes decentralised wastewater treatment, oxidation ponds and maintenance of river flow.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The “Seechewal model ” recently seen in news, is associated with which of the following?##Option_A: A mechanism to convert Ocean water to potable water.###Option_B: A model of river cleaning.##Option_C: A type of rain water harvesting technique.##Option_D: A mechanism to convert Ocean water to potable water.##Answer:b##Explaination:Seechewal Model - A river cleaning model adopted in Punjab to clean river Kali Bein with public participation. The model was also selected to clean the Ganga under the Ganga rejuvenation project. It will now be adopted to clean river Yamuna in Delhi. It includes decentralised wastewater treatment, oxidation ponds and maintenance of river flow.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following has launched Pandemic Emergency Finance Facility?
|
World Health Organisation
|
World Bank
|
Bill and Melinda Gates foundation
|
World Health Organisation
|
The World Bank Group has launched the much anticipated Pandemic Emergency Finance Facility (PEF) — a new financing mechanism to quickly mobilise funds to tackle global disease outbreaks and create a new insurance market for pandemic risk. Japan became the first donor to the PEF initiative and committed $ 50 million.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following has launched Pandemic Emergency Finance Facility?##Option_A: World Health Organisation###Option_B: World Bank##Option_C: Bill and Melinda Gates foundation##Option_D: World Health Organisation##Answer:b##Explaination:The World Bank Group has launched the much anticipated Pandemic Emergency Finance Facility (PEF) — a new financing mechanism to quickly mobilise funds to tackle global disease outbreaks and create a new insurance market for pandemic risk. Japan became the first donor to the PEF initiative and committed $ 50 million. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are part of Governor"s constitutional discretion? Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President Dismissal of the council of ministers when it cannot prove the confidence of the assembly Determining the amount payable to autonomous Tribal District Councils as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases: Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President. Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state. While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge). Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration. Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state. In addition to the above constitutional discretion (i.e., the express discretion mentioned in the Constitution), the governor, like the president, also has situational discretion (i.e., the hidden discretion derived from the exigencies of a prevailing political situation) in the following cases: Appointment of chief minister when no party has a clear-cut majority in the state legislative assembly or when the chief minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. Dismissal of the council of ministers when it cannot prove the confidence of the state legislative assembly. Dissolution of the state legislative assembly if the council of ministers has lost its majority.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are part of Governor"s constitutional discretion? Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President Dismissal of the council of ministers when it cannot prove the confidence of the assembly Determining the amount payable to autonomous Tribal District Councils as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases: Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President. Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state. While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge). Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration. Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state. In addition to the above constitutional discretion (i.e., the express discretion mentioned in the Constitution), the governor, like the president, also has situational discretion (i.e., the hidden discretion derived from the exigencies of a prevailing political situation) in the following cases: Appointment of chief minister when no party has a clear-cut majority in the state legislative assembly or when the chief minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. Dismissal of the council of ministers when it cannot prove the confidence of the state legislative assembly. Dissolution of the state legislative assembly if the council of ministers has lost its majority. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Even though Harappa was the first site to be discovered, Mohenjodaro provided the detailed information about Indus civilization. What is the reason behind this?
|
Harappa was a smaller than and not as developed as Mohenjodaro.
|
The remains of Harappan site were destroyed by natural disaster.
|
Harappa was destroyed by brick robbers damaging many ancient structures.
|
Harappa was a smaller than and not as developed as Mohenjodaro.
|
Although Harappa was the first site to be discovered, it was badly destroyed by brick robbers. As early as 1875, Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), often called the father of Indian archaeology, noted that the amount of brick taken from the ancient site was enough to lay bricks for “about 100 miles” of the railway line between Lahore and Multan. Thus, many of the ancient structures at the site were damaged. In contrast, Mohenjodaro was far better preserved.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Even though Harappa was the first site to be discovered, Mohenjodaro provided the detailed information about Indus civilization. What is the reason behind this?##Option_A: Harappa was a smaller than and not as developed as Mohenjodaro.###Option_B: The remains of Harappan site were destroyed by natural disaster.##Option_C: Harappa was destroyed by brick robbers damaging many ancient structures.##Option_D: Harappa was a smaller than and not as developed as Mohenjodaro.##Answer:c##Explaination:Although Harappa was the first site to be discovered, it was badly destroyed by brick robbers. As early as 1875, Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), often called the father of Indian archaeology, noted that the amount of brick taken from the ancient site was enough to lay bricks for “about 100 miles” of the railway line between Lahore and Multan. Thus, many of the ancient structures at the site were damaged. In contrast, Mohenjodaro was far better preserved. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Fiscal deficit is always greater than Revenue Deficit. Fiscal deficit is always greater than Primary Deficit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment on past loans Fiscal Deficit can be less than Revenue deficit if the capital receipts are more than capital expenditure. Thus only statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Fiscal deficit is always greater than Revenue Deficit. Fiscal deficit is always greater than Primary Deficit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment on past loans Fiscal Deficit can be less than Revenue deficit if the capital receipts are more than capital expenditure. Thus only statement 2 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to coinage system in Gupta period, consider the following statements: The coins issued by Gupta kings were called dinaras. The coins indicated the religious affiliations of the kings. Large number of copper coins were issued by Gupta kings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Gupta kings issued well executed die-struck gold coins with metrical legends in Sanskrit. Known as dinaras, these coins have been mostly found in north India. The obverse depicts the reigning king in various poses, usually martial ones, but there are interesting instances of coins of Samudragupta and Kumaragupta I showing them playing the vina. The reverse of Gupta coins have religious symbols indicating the kings religious affiliations. The Guptas also issued silver coins, but their copper coins are rare.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to coinage system in Gupta period, consider the following statements: The coins issued by Gupta kings were called dinaras. The coins indicated the religious affiliations of the kings. Large number of copper coins were issued by Gupta kings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Gupta kings issued well executed die-struck gold coins with metrical legends in Sanskrit. Known as dinaras, these coins have been mostly found in north India. The obverse depicts the reigning king in various poses, usually martial ones, but there are interesting instances of coins of Samudragupta and Kumaragupta I showing them playing the vina. The reverse of Gupta coins have religious symbols indicating the kings religious affiliations. The Guptas also issued silver coins, but their copper coins are rare. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
In the context of modern scientific research consider the following statements about Sterile Neutrinos, a term often seen in news: It is a fourth type of Neutrino. It interacts only via gravity among fundamental interactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Scientists at Daya Bay neutrino detector, near Hong Kong in China, have seen possible evidence for a new type of neutrino which they call the sterile neutrino. Differing from the three known types of neutrino, namely, the electron neutrino, muon neutrino and the tau neutrino, this particle, known as the sterile neutrino, was detected due to a mismatch between theory and experiment. This particle carries no charge and only reacts to the gravitational force. However, since their finding does not have a high enough statistical significance, this does not yet constitute a discovery. The term sterile neutrino is used to distinguish them from the known active neutrinos in the Standard Model, which interact via weak interaction.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of modern scientific research consider the following statements about Sterile Neutrinos, a term often seen in news: It is a fourth type of Neutrino. It interacts only via gravity among fundamental interactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Scientists at Daya Bay neutrino detector, near Hong Kong in China, have seen possible evidence for a new type of neutrino which they call the sterile neutrino. Differing from the three known types of neutrino, namely, the electron neutrino, muon neutrino and the tau neutrino, this particle, known as the sterile neutrino, was detected due to a mismatch between theory and experiment. This particle carries no charge and only reacts to the gravitational force. However, since their finding does not have a high enough statistical significance, this does not yet constitute a discovery. The term sterile neutrino is used to distinguish them from the known active neutrinos in the Standard Model, which interact via weak interaction. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct about "Dabba trading"? It refers to trading at commodity exchange. It is regulated by SEBI. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A trading that is carried out illegally outside the purview of the market regulator is Dabba trading. Dabba means box and a dabba operator, in stock market terminology is the one who indulges in dabba trading. His office is like any other broker’s office having terminals linked to the stock exchange showing market rates of stocks. However, the difference is that the investor’s trades do not get executed on the stock exchange system but in the dabba operator’s books only. A dabba operator acts as a principal to all the trades and not as an agent of the client. Therefore it is not traded at the commodity exchange. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Recently, to counter the menace of the grey market being used to offload shares and thereby manipulating public offerings (popularly called dabba trading), securities market regulator SEBI is likely to come out with a campaign covering TV, radio, and print media besides cinema and digital media. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct about "Dabba trading"? It refers to trading at commodity exchange. It is regulated by SEBI. Select the correct answer from the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:A trading that is carried out illegally outside the purview of the market regulator is Dabba trading. Dabba means box and a dabba operator, in stock market terminology is the one who indulges in dabba trading. His office is like any other broker’s office having terminals linked to the stock exchange showing market rates of stocks. However, the difference is that the investor’s trades do not get executed on the stock exchange system but in the dabba operator’s books only. A dabba operator acts as a principal to all the trades and not as an agent of the client. Therefore it is not traded at the commodity exchange. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Recently, to counter the menace of the grey market being used to offload shares and thereby manipulating public offerings (popularly called dabba trading), securities market regulator SEBI is likely to come out with a campaign covering TV, radio, and print media besides cinema and digital media. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Lapis Lazuli, a precious a blue stone used for decoration is associated with which of the following? Indus Valley Civilization Indo-Islamic Architecture Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A rich blue semi-precious stone sometimes flecked with gold. The main source in the ancient world was the mountains of Badakshan, northern Afghanistan, from where it was traded widely. Lapis lazuli was used as inlay in ornaments, jewellery, seals. The Harappans procured materials for craft production in various ways. The bead industry seems to have been well developed as evident from the factories discovered at Chanhudaro and Lothal. Beads were made of cornelian, amethyst, jasper, crystal, quartz, steatite, turquoise, lapis lazuli, etc. Indo-Islamic Architecture is known for its decorative forms. These forms included designing on plaster through incision or stucco. The designs were either left plain or covered with colours. Subsequently the techniques of tessellation (mosaic designs) and pietra dura were made use of for surface decoration particularly in the dado panels of the walls. At times lapis lazuli was used in the interior walls or on canopies.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Lapis Lazuli, a precious a blue stone used for decoration is associated with which of the following? Indus Valley Civilization Indo-Islamic Architecture Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:A rich blue semi-precious stone sometimes flecked with gold. The main source in the ancient world was the mountains of Badakshan, northern Afghanistan, from where it was traded widely. Lapis lazuli was used as inlay in ornaments, jewellery, seals. The Harappans procured materials for craft production in various ways. The bead industry seems to have been well developed as evident from the factories discovered at Chanhudaro and Lothal. Beads were made of cornelian, amethyst, jasper, crystal, quartz, steatite, turquoise, lapis lazuli, etc. Indo-Islamic Architecture is known for its decorative forms. These forms included designing on plaster through incision or stucco. The designs were either left plain or covered with colours. Subsequently the techniques of tessellation (mosaic designs) and pietra dura were made use of for surface decoration particularly in the dado panels of the walls. At times lapis lazuli was used in the interior walls or on canopies.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Under the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution, forms of Oaths or Affirmations are given for which of the following? The Union Minister The Comptroller and Auditor General of India The Election Commissioner of India Chairman of Panchayat Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
THIRD SCHEDULE Form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union Form of oath of secrecy for a Minister for the Union Form of oath or affirmation to be made by a candidate for election to Parliament Form of oath or affirmation to be made by a member of Parliament Form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India Form of oath of office for a Minister for a State Form of oath of secrecy for a Minister for a State Form of oath or affirmation to be made by a candidate for election to the Legislature of a State Form of oath or affirmation to be made by a member of the Legislature of a State Form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of a High Court
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution, forms of Oaths or Affirmations are given for which of the following? The Union Minister The Comptroller and Auditor General of India The Election Commissioner of India Chairman of Panchayat Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:THIRD SCHEDULE Form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union Form of oath of secrecy for a Minister for the Union Form of oath or affirmation to be made by a candidate for election to Parliament Form of oath or affirmation to be made by a member of Parliament Form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India Form of oath of office for a Minister for a State Form of oath of secrecy for a Minister for a State Form of oath or affirmation to be made by a candidate for election to the Legislature of a State Form of oath or affirmation to be made by a member of the Legislature of a State Form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of a High Court##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Arrange the following Indian Ocean sea ports in the increasing order of their latitude: Chabahar Sittwe Chittagong Gwadar Kandla Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 2 1 5 4
|
2 3 5 1 4
|
2 3 5 4 1
|
3 2 1 5 4
|
The correct order is Sittwe Chittagong Kandla Gwadar Chabahar
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arrange the following Indian Ocean sea ports in the increasing order of their latitude: Chabahar Sittwe Chittagong Gwadar Kandla Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 3 2 1 5 4###Option_B: 2 3 5 1 4##Option_C: 2 3 5 4 1##Option_D: 3 2 1 5 4##Answer:c##Explaination:The correct order is Sittwe Chittagong Kandla Gwadar Chabahar##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regard to the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016: Under the scheme declared assets will be exempted from wealth tax. It will cover the foreign assets covered under Black Money Act 2015. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 incorporated as Chapter IX of the Finance Act 2016 provides an opportunity to all persons who have not declared income correctly in earlier years to come forward and declare such undisclosed income(s). Under the Scheme, such income as declared by the eligible persons, would be taxed at the rate of 30% plus a ‘Krishi Kalyan Cess’ of 25% on the taxes payable and a penalty at the rate of 25% of the taxes payable, thereby totalling to 45% of the income declared under the scheme. The scheme provides immunity from wealth tax, scrutiny and prosecution and from the Benami Transaction Act. It won’t be open to cases where information is received under an agreement with foreign countries regarding such income, cases covered under the Black Money Act, 2015, or persons notified under Special Court Act, 1992, or cases covered under Indian Penal Code, the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, and the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988."
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016: Under the scheme declared assets will be exempted from wealth tax. It will cover the foreign assets covered under Black Money Act 2015. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 incorporated as Chapter IX of the Finance Act 2016 provides an opportunity to all persons who have not declared income correctly in earlier years to come forward and declare such undisclosed income(s). Under the Scheme, such income as declared by the eligible persons, would be taxed at the rate of 30% plus a ‘Krishi Kalyan Cess’ of 25% on the taxes payable and a penalty at the rate of 25% of the taxes payable, thereby totalling to 45% of the income declared under the scheme. The scheme provides immunity from wealth tax, scrutiny and prosecution and from the Benami Transaction Act. It won’t be open to cases where information is received under an agreement with foreign countries regarding such income, cases covered under the Black Money Act, 2015, or persons notified under Special Court Act, 1992, or cases covered under Indian Penal Code, the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, and the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988."##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following: It is one of the few regions in the world where all the life zones from sub-tropical hot to Arctic cold exist. Brahm Kamal is its state flower Major tribes of this state include Bhotias, Rangs, Tharus, Buxas. The above features refers to which of the following states of India?
|
Himachal Pradesh
|
Jammu and Kashmir
|
Uttarakhand
|
Himachal Pradesh
|
Uttarakhand is possibly one of the few regions in the world where all the life zones from sub-tropical hot to Arctic cold exist within a telescopic distance of 100 Km, thus providing an astoundingly rich floral and faunal diversity. The State has 12 National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries that cover 13.8% of the total area of the state. Brahm Kamal or Saussurea obvallata is a species of flowering plant native to the Himalayas and , Northern Burma and South-West China. In the Himalayas, it is found at an altitude of around 4500 m. It is considered to be the state flower of Uttarakhand. The Uttaranchal of today brims with the lively hum of life with people from various communities and religions contributing to make it into a wonderful profusion of the festival called life. The original natives of the land of Uttarakhand belong to different tribes having their distinct and plentiful culture. Major tribes of Uttaranchal include Bhotias (or Shaukas), Rangs, Tharus, Buxas, Jaunsaris, Rajis (or Banrawats) apart from indigenous groups like Mahigeers and Vangujjars.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: It is one of the few regions in the world where all the life zones from sub-tropical hot to Arctic cold exist. Brahm Kamal is its state flower Major tribes of this state include Bhotias, Rangs, Tharus, Buxas. The above features refers to which of the following states of India?##Option_A: Himachal Pradesh###Option_B: Jammu and Kashmir##Option_C: Uttarakhand##Option_D: Himachal Pradesh##Answer:c##Explaination:Uttarakhand is possibly one of the few regions in the world where all the life zones from sub-tropical hot to Arctic cold exist within a telescopic distance of 100 Km, thus providing an astoundingly rich floral and faunal diversity. The State has 12 National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries that cover 13.8% of the total area of the state. Brahm Kamal or Saussurea obvallata is a species of flowering plant native to the Himalayas and , Northern Burma and South-West China. In the Himalayas, it is found at an altitude of around 4500 m. It is considered to be the state flower of Uttarakhand. The Uttaranchal of today brims with the lively hum of life with people from various communities and religions contributing to make it into a wonderful profusion of the festival called life. The original natives of the land of Uttarakhand belong to different tribes having their distinct and plentiful culture. Major tribes of Uttaranchal include Bhotias (or Shaukas), Rangs, Tharus, Buxas, Jaunsaris, Rajis (or Banrawats) apart from indigenous groups like Mahigeers and Vangujjars. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding recently approved National Capital Goods Policy : It is the first-ever policy for the country’s capital goods sector. It advocates adoption of a uniform Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime. The objectives of the policy will be met by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Union Cabinet recently approved the first-ever policy for the country’s capital goods sector. It has a clear objective of increasing production of capital goods from Rs.2,30,000 crore in 2014-15 to Rs.7,50,000 crore in 2025 and raising direct and indirect employment from the current 8.4 million to 30 million. The policy envisages increasing exports from the current 27 percent to 40 percent of production. It will increase the share of domestic production in India’s demand from 60 percent to 80 percent thus making India a net exporter of capital goods. The policy also aims to facilitate improvement in technology depth across sub-sectors, increase skill availability, ensure mandatory standards and promote growth and capacity building of MSMEs. It also advocates adoption of a uniform Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime ensuring effective GST rate across all capital goods sub-sectors competitive with import duty after set-off with a view to ensure a level-playing field. The objectives of the policy will be met by the Department of Heavy Industry in a time bound manner through obtaining approval for schemes as per the roadmap of policy interventions.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding recently approved National Capital Goods Policy : It is the first-ever policy for the country’s capital goods sector. It advocates adoption of a uniform Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime. The objectives of the policy will be met by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Union Cabinet recently approved the first-ever policy for the country’s capital goods sector. It has a clear objective of increasing production of capital goods from Rs.2,30,000 crore in 2014-15 to Rs.7,50,000 crore in 2025 and raising direct and indirect employment from the current 8.4 million to 30 million. The policy envisages increasing exports from the current 27 percent to 40 percent of production. It will increase the share of domestic production in India’s demand from 60 percent to 80 percent thus making India a net exporter of capital goods. The policy also aims to facilitate improvement in technology depth across sub-sectors, increase skill availability, ensure mandatory standards and promote growth and capacity building of MSMEs. It also advocates adoption of a uniform Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime ensuring effective GST rate across all capital goods sub-sectors competitive with import duty after set-off with a view to ensure a level-playing field. The objectives of the policy will be met by the Department of Heavy Industry in a time bound manner through obtaining approval for schemes as per the roadmap of policy interventions.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) : They function under the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, 2002. They have been established for expeditious adjudication and recovery of debts due to banks and financial institutions. They can also hear claims of damages or deficiency of services or criminal negligence on the part of the lenders. They are supposed to dispose of a matter referred to it within 180 days of the receipt of an application. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
The Debts Recovery Tribunals have been established by the Government of India under an Act of Parliament (Act 51 of 1993) for expeditious adjudication and recovery of debts due to banks and financial institutions. The DRTs function under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 and as per the Debts Recovery Tribunal (Procedure) Rules, 1993. DRTs deal with two different Acts: the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, and the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interests Act. While the aim of the both the Acts is one and the same, but their route is different. Under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions (RDDBFI) Act, 1993 banks approach the Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) whereas, under Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interests (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 borrowers, guarantors, and other any other person aggrieved by any action of the bank can approach the Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT). Appeals against orders passed by Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) lie before Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT). The Debts Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) are fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders and can travel beyond the Civil procedure Code to render complete justice. A Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) can hear cross suits, counter claims and allow set offs. They are supposed to dispose of a matter referred to it within 180 days of the receipt of an application. However, a Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) cannot hear claims of damages or deficiency of services or breach of contract or criminal negligence on the part of the lenders. Therefore, only 2 and 4 are correct statements.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) : They function under the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, 2002. They have been established for expeditious adjudication and recovery of debts due to banks and financial institutions. They can also hear claims of damages or deficiency of services or criminal negligence on the part of the lenders. They are supposed to dispose of a matter referred to it within 180 days of the receipt of an application. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Debts Recovery Tribunals have been established by the Government of India under an Act of Parliament (Act 51 of 1993) for expeditious adjudication and recovery of debts due to banks and financial institutions. The DRTs function under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 and as per the Debts Recovery Tribunal (Procedure) Rules, 1993. DRTs deal with two different Acts: the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, and the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interests Act. While the aim of the both the Acts is one and the same, but their route is different. Under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions (RDDBFI) Act, 1993 banks approach the Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) whereas, under Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interests (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 borrowers, guarantors, and other any other person aggrieved by any action of the bank can approach the Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT). Appeals against orders passed by Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) lie before Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT). The Debts Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) are fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders and can travel beyond the Civil procedure Code to render complete justice. A Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) can hear cross suits, counter claims and allow set offs. They are supposed to dispose of a matter referred to it within 180 days of the receipt of an application. However, a Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) cannot hear claims of damages or deficiency of services or breach of contract or criminal negligence on the part of the lenders. Therefore, only 2 and 4 are correct statements.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following may occur when an economy is suffering from ‘liquidity trap’? Speculation that interest rates will decrease Continuous increase in bond prices Speculative demand for money to become infinitely elastic. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Liquidity trap: interest rate can be thought of as an opportunity cost or ‘price’ of holding money balance. If supply of money in the economy increases and people purchase bonds with this extra money, demand for bonds will go up, bond prices will rise and rate of interest will decline. In other words, with an increased supply of money in the economy the price you have to pay for holding money balance, viz. the rate of interest, should come down. However, if the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds. Everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy it will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest below the floor r min. Such a situation is called a liquidity trap. The speculative money demand function is infinitely elastic here.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following may occur when an economy is suffering from ‘liquidity trap’? Speculation that interest rates will decrease Continuous increase in bond prices Speculative demand for money to become infinitely elastic. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Liquidity trap: interest rate can be thought of as an opportunity cost or ‘price’ of holding money balance. If supply of money in the economy increases and people purchase bonds with this extra money, demand for bonds will go up, bond prices will rise and rate of interest will decline. In other words, with an increased supply of money in the economy the price you have to pay for holding money balance, viz. the rate of interest, should come down. However, if the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds. Everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy it will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest below the floor r min. Such a situation is called a liquidity trap. The speculative money demand function is infinitely elastic here.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the North Eastern Council, consider the following statements: It is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region. It is a constitutional body. Sikkim is a part of the council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region which consists of the eight States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura. The North Eastern Council was constituted in 1971 by an Act of Parliament and is not a constitutional body. Prime Minister had recently hinted at the possibility of upgrading the North Eastern Council (NEC) as a state-of-the-art resource centre.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the North Eastern Council, consider the following statements: It is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region. It is a constitutional body. Sikkim is a part of the council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region which consists of the eight States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura. The North Eastern Council was constituted in 1971 by an Act of Parliament and is not a constitutional body. Prime Minister had recently hinted at the possibility of upgrading the North Eastern Council (NEC) as a state-of-the-art resource centre. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following Rivers does not pass through Tropic of Cancer?
|
Sabarmati
|
Mahi
|
Damodar
|
Sabarmati
|
Tropic of cancer passes through 8 states in India namely, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, chattisgarh, jharkhand, West bengal, Tripura, Mizoram. Rivers mentioned in the question namely Mahi cuts tropic of cancer twice. it traverses both Gujarat and MP. Damodar cuts tropic of cancer in West Bengal and originates in Chotanagpur plataeu. Sabarmati enters gulf of khambat after passing through Tropic of cancer in Gujarat state near mehsana district Luni is an example of inland drainage system and is not able to enter the sea thus traveling very short distance. it vanishes into Rann of kutch. This location is above tropic of cancer thus it do not touch tropic of cancer.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Rivers does not pass through Tropic of Cancer?##Option_A: Sabarmati###Option_B: Mahi##Option_C: Damodar##Option_D: Sabarmati##Answer:d##Explaination:Tropic of cancer passes through 8 states in India namely, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, chattisgarh, jharkhand, West bengal, Tripura, Mizoram. Rivers mentioned in the question namely Mahi cuts tropic of cancer twice. it traverses both Gujarat and MP. Damodar cuts tropic of cancer in West Bengal and originates in Chotanagpur plataeu. Sabarmati enters gulf of khambat after passing through Tropic of cancer in Gujarat state near mehsana district Luni is an example of inland drainage system and is not able to enter the sea thus traveling very short distance. it vanishes into Rann of kutch. This location is above tropic of cancer thus it do not touch tropic of cancer.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
India has been lauded for its "Red line campaign". What is it related to?
|
poverty alleviation
|
curbing the use of plastic
|
against child labour
|
poverty alleviation
|
India’s idea of putting a red line on antibiotic packages to curb their over-the-counter sale is now being cited as a model that can be used globally to counter the rising threat of superbugs. In its final report on tackling drug resistant infection released on May 19, the global Review on Antimicrobial Resistance — commissioned by UK Prime Minister David Cameron in 2014 — says India has led the way so far with its idea of a ‘Red Line Campaign’ for antibiotics packaging, launched earlier this year and should be considered as a starting point. It recommends that the labelling and symbols used can be improved if needed and then expanded globally.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India has been lauded for its "Red line campaign". What is it related to?##Option_A: poverty alleviation###Option_B: curbing the use of plastic##Option_C: against child labour##Option_D: poverty alleviation##Answer:d##Explaination:India’s idea of putting a red line on antibiotic packages to curb their over-the-counter sale is now being cited as a model that can be used globally to counter the rising threat of superbugs. In its final report on tackling drug resistant infection released on May 19, the global Review on Antimicrobial Resistance — commissioned by UK Prime Minister David Cameron in 2014 — says India has led the way so far with its idea of a ‘Red Line Campaign’ for antibiotics packaging, launched earlier this year and should be considered as a starting point. It recommends that the labelling and symbols used can be improved if needed and then expanded globally. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
The Constitution has made which of the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independence of Supreme Court? It has freedom to appoint its staff. Its jurisdiction cannot be curtailed by the Parliament. Retired judges are prohibited from practice after retirement. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court: Mode of Appointment Security of Tenure Fixed Service Conditions Expenses Charged on Consolidated Fund Conduct of Judges cannot be Discussed Ban on Practice after Retiremen t Power to Punish for its Contempt Freedom to Appoint its Staff Its Jurisdiction cannot be Curtailed Separation from Executive
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Constitution has made which of the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independence of Supreme Court? It has freedom to appoint its staff. Its jurisdiction cannot be curtailed by the Parliament. Retired judges are prohibited from practice after retirement. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court: Mode of Appointment Security of Tenure Fixed Service Conditions Expenses Charged on Consolidated Fund Conduct of Judges cannot be Discussed Ban on Practice after Retiremen t Power to Punish for its Contempt Freedom to Appoint its Staff Its Jurisdiction cannot be Curtailed Separation from Executive ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are correctly matched? Name of the desert Type of Desert 1. Gobi : Temperate Desert 2. Kalahari : Hot Desert 3. Atacama : Hot Desert Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The hot deserts occur between 15 to 45 degree latitudes in the Northern Hemosphere and between 15 to 30 latitudes in the Southern hemisphere.The major hot deserts are : Californian and Mohave desert, Atacama Desert, Sahara, Namib, Kalahari, Arabian desert, Iranian desert, Great Australian Desert and Thar desert. Temperate deserts occur in the contiental interiors of North America and Asia between 30 to 45 degree North latitudes. The Gobi desert, the deserts of the Tarim Basin and the Great Basin of Nevada (USA) are the major examples. The only remaining mid-latitude desert is the Patagonian desert in southern Argentina. It lies in the rain shadow of the Andes. Also a cold offshore current prevents local onshore winds from bringing rain.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correctly matched? Name of the desert Type of Desert 1. Gobi : Temperate Desert 2. Kalahari : Hot Desert 3. Atacama : Hot Desert Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The hot deserts occur between 15 to 45 degree latitudes in the Northern Hemosphere and between 15 to 30 latitudes in the Southern hemisphere.The major hot deserts are : Californian and Mohave desert, Atacama Desert, Sahara, Namib, Kalahari, Arabian desert, Iranian desert, Great Australian Desert and Thar desert. Temperate deserts occur in the contiental interiors of North America and Asia between 30 to 45 degree North latitudes. The Gobi desert, the deserts of the Tarim Basin and the Great Basin of Nevada (USA) are the major examples. The only remaining mid-latitude desert is the Patagonian desert in southern Argentina. It lies in the rain shadow of the Andes. Also a cold offshore current prevents local onshore winds from bringing rain. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to cultural traditions in India what do Pankhida, Alha and Chhakri refer to?
|
types of folk music
|
types of folk dances
|
types of folk paintings
|
types of folk music
|
Pankhida, Rajasthan: Sung by the peasants of Rajasthan while doing work in the fields, the peasants sing and speak while playing algoza and manjira. The literal meaning of the word ‘Pankhida’ is lover. Alha, Uttar Pradesh: Alha, typical ballad of Bundelkhand narrates the heroic deeds of Alha and Udal, the two warrior brothers who served Raja Parmal of Majoba. This is the most popular regional music of Bundelkhand which is popular elsewhere in the country as well. The Alha is full of tales of feudal chivalry, which have appeal to common men. It highlights the high principles of morality, chivalry and nobility prevalent in those times. Chhakri, Kashmir: Chhakri is a group song which is the most popular form of Kashmir’s folk music. It is sung to the accompaniment of the noot (earthen pot) rababs, sarangi and tumbaknari (an earthen pot with high neck).
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to cultural traditions in India what do Pankhida, Alha and Chhakri refer to?##Option_A: types of folk music###Option_B: types of folk dances##Option_C: types of folk paintings##Option_D: types of folk music##Answer:a##Explaination:Pankhida, Rajasthan: Sung by the peasants of Rajasthan while doing work in the fields, the peasants sing and speak while playing algoza and manjira. The literal meaning of the word ‘Pankhida’ is lover. Alha, Uttar Pradesh: Alha, typical ballad of Bundelkhand narrates the heroic deeds of Alha and Udal, the two warrior brothers who served Raja Parmal of Majoba. This is the most popular regional music of Bundelkhand which is popular elsewhere in the country as well. The Alha is full of tales of feudal chivalry, which have appeal to common men. It highlights the high principles of morality, chivalry and nobility prevalent in those times. Chhakri, Kashmir: Chhakri is a group song which is the most popular form of Kashmir’s folk music. It is sung to the accompaniment of the noot (earthen pot) rababs, sarangi and tumbaknari (an earthen pot with high neck). ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Credit Information Bureau (India) Ltd. (CIBIL) : It is a credit information company licensed by Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). It collects and maintains records of an individual’s payments which are provided to lenders to help evaluate and approve loan applications. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Credit Information Bureau (India) Ltd. (CIBIL) is a credit information company licensed by the Reserve Bank of India. It is governed by the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act of 2005. CIBIL collects and maintains records of an individual’s payments pertaining to loans and credit cards. These records are submitted to CIBIL by banks and other lenders, on a monthly basis. This information is then used to create Credit Information Reports (CIR) and credit scores which are provided to lenders to help evaluate and approve loan applications.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Credit Information Bureau (India) Ltd. (CIBIL) : It is a credit information company licensed by Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). It collects and maintains records of an individual’s payments which are provided to lenders to help evaluate and approve loan applications. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Credit Information Bureau (India) Ltd. (CIBIL) is a credit information company licensed by the Reserve Bank of India. It is governed by the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act of 2005. CIBIL collects and maintains records of an individual’s payments pertaining to loans and credit cards. These records are submitted to CIBIL by banks and other lenders, on a monthly basis. This information is then used to create Credit Information Reports (CIR) and credit scores which are provided to lenders to help evaluate and approve loan applications. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to the National Commission for Backward Classes, which of the following is/are correct? It is a quasi-judicial body. The lists of backward classes are prepared by the Commission. It is mandatory for the Government to accept the advice of the Commission. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Backward classes” means such backward classes of citizens other than the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes as may be specified by the Central Government in the lists. “lists” means lists prepared by the Government of India from time to time for purposes of making provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of backward classes of citizens which, in the opinion of that Government, are not adequately represented in the services under the Government of India. The Commission, consists of the following Members nominated by the Central Government:— a Chairperson, who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court; a social scientist; two persons, who have special knowledge in matters relating to backward classes; and a Member Secretary, who is or has been an officer of the Central Government in the rank of a Secretary to the Government of India. Functions of the Commission: The Commission examines the requests for inclusion of any class of citizens as a backward class in such lists and hear complaints of over-inclusion or under‑inclusion of any backward class in such lists and tender such advice to the Central Government as it deems appropriate. The Act mentions that the advice of the Commission shall ordinarily be binding, upon the Central Government. Quasi-judicial powers: all the power of a civil court trying a suit and in particular, in respect of the matters namely: summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person, requiring the discovery and production of any document, requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any court or office etc. The advice of the NCBC is ordinarily binding on the Government. Since in the Jat case, the Ministry has overturned the advice of the NCBC, Section 15 of the NCBC Act requires that MoSJE place the reasons for non-acceptance of the advice of the NCBC before the Parliament.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the National Commission for Backward Classes, which of the following is/are correct? It is a quasi-judicial body. The lists of backward classes are prepared by the Commission. It is mandatory for the Government to accept the advice of the Commission. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Backward classes” means such backward classes of citizens other than the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes as may be specified by the Central Government in the lists. “lists” means lists prepared by the Government of India from time to time for purposes of making provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of backward classes of citizens which, in the opinion of that Government, are not adequately represented in the services under the Government of India. The Commission, consists of the following Members nominated by the Central Government:— a Chairperson, who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court; a social scientist; two persons, who have special knowledge in matters relating to backward classes; and a Member Secretary, who is or has been an officer of the Central Government in the rank of a Secretary to the Government of India. Functions of the Commission: The Commission examines the requests for inclusion of any class of citizens as a backward class in such lists and hear complaints of over-inclusion or under‑inclusion of any backward class in such lists and tender such advice to the Central Government as it deems appropriate. The Act mentions that the advice of the Commission shall ordinarily be binding, upon the Central Government. Quasi-judicial powers: all the power of a civil court trying a suit and in particular, in respect of the matters namely: summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person, requiring the discovery and production of any document, requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any court or office etc. The advice of the NCBC is ordinarily binding on the Government. Since in the Jat case, the Ministry has overturned the advice of the NCBC, Section 15 of the NCBC Act requires that MoSJE place the reasons for non-acceptance of the advice of the NCBC before the Parliament.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
India and Mauritius have recently signed a protocol to amend the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) treaty. With reference to the amendment, consider the following statements: It allows India to tax capital gains arising out of Mauritius. It is expected to curb the flow of P-notes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1 is correct. The protocol gives India the right to tax capital gains arising from sale or transfer of shares of an Indian company acquired by a Mauritian tax resident. 2 is incorrect. P-notes is a separate decision, it is not linked to the treaty. There is no change in decision with regard to taxation of P-notes because of signing of the Mauritius treaty.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India and Mauritius have recently signed a protocol to amend the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) treaty. With reference to the amendment, consider the following statements: It allows India to tax capital gains arising out of Mauritius. It is expected to curb the flow of P-notes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:1 is correct. The protocol gives India the right to tax capital gains arising from sale or transfer of shares of an Indian company acquired by a Mauritian tax resident. 2 is incorrect. P-notes is a separate decision, it is not linked to the treaty. There is no change in decision with regard to taxation of P-notes because of signing of the Mauritius treaty.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Recently passed compensatory afforestation bill seeks to create a National compensatory afforestation fund under which of the following account?
|
Public accounts of India
|
Consolidated fund of India
|
Contingency fund of India
|
Public accounts of India
|
It seeks to establish the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state. The payments into the funds include compensatory afforestation, net present value of forest (NPV), and any project specific payments. The National Fund will get 10% of funds collected and the remaining 90% will go to respective State Fund. The collected funds will be utilised for afforestation, regeneration of forest ecosystem, wild life protection and forest related infrastructure development. The bill also seeks to establish National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the funds. The determination of NPV will be delegated to an expert committee constituted by the central government
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently passed compensatory afforestation bill seeks to create a National compensatory afforestation fund under which of the following account?##Option_A: Public accounts of India###Option_B: Consolidated fund of India##Option_C: Contingency fund of India##Option_D: Public accounts of India##Answer:a##Explaination:It seeks to establish the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state. The payments into the funds include compensatory afforestation, net present value of forest (NPV), and any project specific payments. The National Fund will get 10% of funds collected and the remaining 90% will go to respective State Fund. The collected funds will be utilised for afforestation, regeneration of forest ecosystem, wild life protection and forest related infrastructure development. The bill also seeks to establish National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the funds. The determination of NPV will be delegated to an expert committee constituted by the central government ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Writ of Mandamus can be issued against which of the following? A public official Governor of the state A tribunal Chief Justice of high court Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Mandamus literally means “we command”. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. The Writ of mandamus cannot be issued against: A private individual or body To enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force When the duty is discretionary and not mandatory To enforce contractual obligation Against president of India or state governors Against the chief justice of a high court
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Writ of Mandamus can be issued against which of the following? A public official Governor of the state A tribunal Chief Justice of high court Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Mandamus literally means “we command”. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. The Writ of mandamus cannot be issued against: A private individual or body To enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force When the duty is discretionary and not mandatory To enforce contractual obligation Against president of India or state governors Against the chief justice of a high court##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following majority has/have been provided by Article 368 for the amendment of the constitution? Simple Majority Special Majority Special Majority and ratification by half of the states Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Amendment to the constitution of India can be made through majority of houses through Simple majority Special majority Special majority and ratification by half of the states However, under article 368, an amendment to the constitution can be made through either special majority or special majority and ratification by half of the states Simple majority of the house can be used to amend certain part through ordinary legislation, but it does not falls under article 368
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following majority has/have been provided by Article 368 for the amendment of the constitution? Simple Majority Special Majority Special Majority and ratification by half of the states Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Amendment to the constitution of India can be made through majority of houses through Simple majority Special majority Special majority and ratification by half of the states However, under article 368, an amendment to the constitution can be made through either special majority or special majority and ratification by half of the states Simple majority of the house can be used to amend certain part through ordinary legislation, but it does not falls under article 368 ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are not a Monetary Union? European Union Eurasian Economic Union ASEAN Mercosur Southern African Customs Union Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
3, 4 and 5 only
|
1 only
|
The EEU is not a Monetary Union, at present. A currency union (also known as monetary union) involves two or more states sharing the same currency without their necessarily having any further integration (such as an economic and monetary union, which would have, in addition, a customs union and a single market). 2 is incorrect. India does not have a free trade agreement with EEU. The members of the EEU have agreed to set up expert groups to develop preferential trade regimes with Israel and India. The Chabahar project — and the port, rail network, and road systems that it will tap into — will give India access to economic opportunities in regions from which it has been cut off for centuries. India’s ongoing negotiations with the Eurasian Economic Union, made up of Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Russia, could help India expand trade and investment opportunities through the region.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are not a Monetary Union? European Union Eurasian Economic Union ASEAN Mercosur Southern African Customs Union Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The EEU is not a Monetary Union, at present. A currency union (also known as monetary union) involves two or more states sharing the same currency without their necessarily having any further integration (such as an economic and monetary union, which would have, in addition, a customs union and a single market). 2 is incorrect. India does not have a free trade agreement with EEU. The members of the EEU have agreed to set up expert groups to develop preferential trade regimes with Israel and India. The Chabahar project — and the port, rail network, and road systems that it will tap into — will give India access to economic opportunities in regions from which it has been cut off for centuries. India’s ongoing negotiations with the Eurasian Economic Union, made up of Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Russia, could help India expand trade and investment opportunities through the region.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following items falls within the purview of Panchayati Raj? Social and Farm forestry Watershed development Distribution of electricity Non-conventional energy sources Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The eleventh schedule of the constitution governs the items which are under the purview of the local self government like Social and farm forestry Watershed development Poverty alleviation Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity Non conventional energy sources
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following items falls within the purview of Panchayati Raj? Social and Farm forestry Watershed development Distribution of electricity Non-conventional energy sources Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The eleventh schedule of the constitution governs the items which are under the purview of the local self government like Social and farm forestry Watershed development Poverty alleviation Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity Non conventional energy sources##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
In which of the following cases the house gets dissolved? No Confidence Motion Censure Motion Privilege Motion Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Lower House gets dissolved only in the case of No-Confidence Motion whereas, in case of Censure Motion which is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. Also, in the case of Privilege Motion the purpose is to censure the concerned minister. Hence, Censure and Privilege motions don't lead to dissolution of Lower House.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In which of the following cases the house gets dissolved? No Confidence Motion Censure Motion Privilege Motion Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Lower House gets dissolved only in the case of No-Confidence Motion whereas, in case of Censure Motion which is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. Also, in the case of Privilege Motion the purpose is to censure the concerned minister. Hence, Censure and Privilege motions don't lead to dissolution of Lower House. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs: Forts Kingdom 1. Golkonda Fort : Kakatiya Dynasty 2. Gwalior Fort : Tomar Dynasty 3. Kumbhalgarh Fort : Khalji Dynasty Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Golkonda fort is listed as an archaeological treasure on the official 'List of Monuments' prepared by the Archaeological Survey of India. It was first built by the Kakatiya dynasty as part of their western defenses along the lines of the Kondapalli Fort. The city and the fortress were built on a granite hill that is 120 meters (480ft.) high, surrounded by massive battlements. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Gwalior Fort is an 8th-century hill fort near Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, central India. The fort consists of a defensive structure and two main palaces, Gurjari Mahal and Man Mandir, built by Man Singh Tomar. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Kumbhalgarh Fort is a Mewar fortress on the westerly range of Aravalli Hills, in the Rajsamand District of Rajasthan state in western India. It is a World Heritage Site included in Hill Forts of Rajasthan. Built during the course of the 15th century by Rana Kumbha and enlarged through the 19th century, Kumbhalgarh is also the birthplace of Maharana Pratap, the great king and warrior of Mewar. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
|
b
|
Early Medieval Period: North India and South India
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Forts Kingdom 1. Golkonda Fort : Kakatiya Dynasty 2. Gwalior Fort : Tomar Dynasty 3. Kumbhalgarh Fort : Khalji Dynasty Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Golkonda fort is listed as an archaeological treasure on the official 'List of Monuments' prepared by the Archaeological Survey of India. It was first built by the Kakatiya dynasty as part of their western defenses along the lines of the Kondapalli Fort. The city and the fortress were built on a granite hill that is 120 meters (480ft.) high, surrounded by massive battlements. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Gwalior Fort is an 8th-century hill fort near Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, central India. The fort consists of a defensive structure and two main palaces, Gurjari Mahal and Man Mandir, built by Man Singh Tomar. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Kumbhalgarh Fort is a Mewar fortress on the westerly range of Aravalli Hills, in the Rajsamand District of Rajasthan state in western India. It is a World Heritage Site included in Hill Forts of Rajasthan. Built during the course of the 15th century by Rana Kumbha and enlarged through the 19th century, Kumbhalgarh is also the birthplace of Maharana Pratap, the great king and warrior of Mewar. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.##Topic:Early Medieval Period: North India and South India##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Which of the following factors play an important role in deciding the value of a vote of a MLA during president election? Population of the state where he/she is elected. Total number of elected and nominated members. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Population of the state where MLA is elected affect the value of vote. Nominated members are not considered while considering the value of vote. This can be understood from following formula
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors play an important role in deciding the value of a vote of a MLA during president election? Population of the state where he/she is elected. Total number of elected and nominated members. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Population of the state where MLA is elected affect the value of vote. Nominated members are not considered while considering the value of vote. This can be understood from following formula##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: If one country has higher inflation than another, its currency should ideally be appreciating. If aggregate demand of a country grows faster than the rest of the world, its currency should ideally be depreciating. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the PPP theory, differences in the domestic inflation and foreign inflation are a major cause of adjustment in exchange rates. If one country has higher inflation than another, its exchange rate should be depreciating. For example, if a shirt costs $8 in the US and Rs 400 in India, the rupee-dollar exchange rate should be Rs 50. To see why, at any rate higher than Rs 50, say Rs 60, it costs Rs 480 per shirt in the US but only Rs 400 in India. In that case, all foreign customers would buy shirts from India. Statement 2 is correct. When income increases, consumer spending increases. Spending on imported goods is also likely to increase. When imports increase, there is a depreciation of the domestic currency. If there is an increase in income abroad as well, domestic exports will rise and the supply curve of foreign exchange shifts outward. On balance, the domestic currency may or may not depreciate. In general, other things remaining equal, a country whose aggregate demand grows faster than the rest of the world normally finds its currency depreciating because its imports grow faster than its exports.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: If one country has higher inflation than another, its currency should ideally be appreciating. If aggregate demand of a country grows faster than the rest of the world, its currency should ideally be depreciating. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the PPP theory, differences in the domestic inflation and foreign inflation are a major cause of adjustment in exchange rates. If one country has higher inflation than another, its exchange rate should be depreciating. For example, if a shirt costs $8 in the US and Rs 400 in India, the rupee-dollar exchange rate should be Rs 50. To see why, at any rate higher than Rs 50, say Rs 60, it costs Rs 480 per shirt in the US but only Rs 400 in India. In that case, all foreign customers would buy shirts from India. Statement 2 is correct. When income increases, consumer spending increases. Spending on imported goods is also likely to increase. When imports increase, there is a depreciation of the domestic currency. If there is an increase in income abroad as well, domestic exports will rise and the supply curve of foreign exchange shifts outward. On balance, the domestic currency may or may not depreciate. In general, other things remaining equal, a country whose aggregate demand grows faster than the rest of the world normally finds its currency depreciating because its imports grow faster than its exports. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following brings out the Index of Industrial Production"?
|
Central Statistical Office (CSO)
|
National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
|
The Labour Bureau
|
Central Statistical Office (CSO)
|
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) measures industrial performance compiled and released every month by the Central Statistical Office (CSO) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. It uses fixed weight and base. CSO revised the base year of IIP in June, 2011 from 1993-94 to 2004-05. The revised series has an enlarged and more representative basket of the industrial sector.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following brings out the Index of Industrial Production"?##Option_A: Central Statistical Office (CSO)###Option_B: National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)##Option_C: The Labour Bureau##Option_D: Central Statistical Office (CSO)##Answer:a##Explaination:The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) measures industrial performance compiled and released every month by the Central Statistical Office (CSO) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. It uses fixed weight and base. CSO revised the base year of IIP in June, 2011 from 1993-94 to 2004-05. The revised series has an enlarged and more representative basket of the industrial sector.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
test
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
test
|
a
|
The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
test
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
test
##Topic:The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Gotipua dance is/are correct ?
1. It is a folk dance practiced in the temples of Odisha.
2. It is essentially performed by female dancers.
3. The dance is performed in order to praise Lord Shiva.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
1,2 only
|
2,3 only
|
1 only
|
1 is correct.
2 is not correct as gotipua means a single boy.
3 is not correct as it is dedicated to Lord Jagannath
|
a
|
GS_Art and Culture unclassified
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the Gotipua dance is/are correct ?
1. It is a folk dance practiced in the temples of Odisha.
2. It is essentially performed by female dancers.
3. The dance is performed in order to praise Lord Shiva.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A:1 only
###Option_B:1,2 only
##Option_C:2,3 only
##Option_D:1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
1 is correct.
2 is not correct as gotipua means a single boy.
3 is not correct as it is dedicated to Lord Jagannath
##Topic:GS_Art and Culture unclassified##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Manganiars is/are correct ?
1. They are a tribe native mainly to western Rajasthan.
2. Their folk songs describe the history of the desert and get passed orally from generation to generation.
3. Their main instrument is a bowed instrument Kamaicha made locally.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1,3 only
|
1 only
|
All the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Indian Music
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the Manganiars is/are correct ?
1. They are a tribe native mainly to western Rajasthan.
2. Their folk songs describe the history of the desert and get passed orally from generation to generation.
3. Their main instrument is a bowed instrument Kamaicha made locally.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A:1 only
###Option_B:2 only
##Option_C:1,3 only
##Option_D:1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
All the statements are correct.
##Topic:Indian Music##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding Kalamkari is/are correct ?
1. It is a painting form evolved in Andhra Pradesh.
2. It involves paintings on clothes to decorate temples.
3. The paintings are essentially hand made and often use organic colours.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
1,2 only
|
2,3 only
|
1 only
|
c) is not correct because the paintings are both hand printed or used block printings .
|
b
|
Paintings
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding Kalamkari is/are correct ?
1. It is a painting form evolved in Andhra Pradesh.
2. It involves paintings on clothes to decorate temples.
3. The paintings are essentially hand made and often use organic colours.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A:1 only
###Option_B:1,2 only
##Option_C:2,3 only
##Option_D:1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
c) is not correct because the paintings are both hand printed or used block printings .
##Topic:Paintings##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding Mallakhamb is/are correct ?
1. It is form of wrestling game performed in Maharashtra .
2. It can be performed only on a fixed pole called Khamb around which the players perform.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1 is correct
2 is not correct because it can be performed on rope or a hanging pole also.
|
a
|
GS_Art and Culture unclassified
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding Mallakhamb is/are correct ?
1. It is form of wrestling game performed in Maharashtra .
2. It can be performed only on a fixed pole called Khamb around which the players perform.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A:1 only
###Option_B:2 only
##Option_C:Both 1 and 2
##Option_D:1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
1 is correct
2 is not correct because it can be performed on rope or a hanging pole also.
##Topic:GS_Art and Culture unclassified##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Nyishi tribe is/are correct ?
1. They are the most populous tribe of Mizoram.
2. They practice slash and burn agriculture with hunting and fishing.
3. Nyishi men wear a cane helmet with Hornbill beak as a headgear.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1,2 only
|
1,3 only
|
2,3 only
|
1,2 only
|
1 is not correct because Nyishis are a tribe of Arunachal.
2 is correct.
3 is correct.
|
c
|
Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the Nyishi tribe is/are correct ?
1. They are the most populous tribe of Mizoram.
2. They practice slash and burn agriculture with hunting and fishing.
3. Nyishi men wear a cane helmet with Hornbill beak as a headgear.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A:1,2 only
###Option_B:1,3 only
##Option_C:2,3 only
##Option_D:1,2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
1 is not correct because Nyishis are a tribe of Arunachal.
2 is correct.
3 is correct.
##Topic:Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are correctly matched ?
Festival : State
1. Wangala Festival : Meghalaya
2. Nabakalebar Festival : West Bengal
3. Losar Festival : Sikkim
4 Jalikattu : Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1,2 only
|
1,4 only
|
2,3 only
|
1,2 only
|
Nabakalebar is a festival of Odisha dedicated to Lord Jagannath.
Losar is a festival of Ladakh.
|
b
|
Fairs, Festivals and Craft
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are correctly matched ?
Festival : State
1. Wangala Festival : Meghalaya
2. Nabakalebar Festival : West Bengal
3. Losar Festival : Sikkim
4 Jalikattu : Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A:1,2 only
###Option_B:1,4 only
##Option_C:2,3 only
##Option_D:1,2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Nabakalebar is a festival of Odisha dedicated to Lord Jagannath.
Losar is a festival of Ladakh.
##Topic:Fairs, Festivals and Craft##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The combined weight of eight core industries in the index of industrial production is slightly more than 40 percent.
2. The base year for calculating IIP is 2004-05.
3. Out of eight core industries, electricity has the maximum and the natural gas has the minimum wieght in the IIP.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
|
1 and 3
|
Only 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) with base 2004-05. Though electricity has maximum weightage but its fertilisers which has minimum weight and not natural gas.
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. The combined weight of eight core industries in the index of industrial production is slightly more than 40 percent.
2. The base year for calculating IIP is 2004-05.
3. Out of eight core industries, electricity has the maximum and the natural gas has the minimum wieght in the IIP.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3
###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 and 3
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) with base 2004-05. Though electricity has maximum weightage but its fertilisers which has minimum weight and not natural gas.
##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Election Commission, consider the following statements: Parliament determines the conditions for service and tenure of office of the Chief Election Commissioner. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed on the grounds and in the manner similar to the judge of Supreme Court. The Model code of conduct is determined by the Parliament and enforced by Election Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: President determines the conditions for service and tenure of office of the Chief Election Commissioner. Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed on the grounds and in the manner similar to the judge of High Court or Supreme court as both are same. Statement 3 is incorrect: Election commission determines the model code of conduct to be observed by the political parties and the candidate at the time of election.
|
c
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Election Commission, consider the following statements: Parliament determines the conditions for service and tenure of office of the Chief Election Commissioner. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed on the grounds and in the manner similar to the judge of Supreme Court. The Model code of conduct is determined by the Parliament and enforced by Election Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: President determines the conditions for service and tenure of office of the Chief Election Commissioner. Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed on the grounds and in the manner similar to the judge of High Court or Supreme court as both are same. Statement 3 is incorrect: Election commission determines the model code of conduct to be observed by the political parties and the candidate at the time of election.##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Election Commission, consider the following statements: Article 324 enumerates the required qualifications for Election Commissioner. State Election Commission regulates elections to the Legislative councils. The Chief Election Commissioner can override the decisions of other election commissioners. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitution has not prescribed the qualification of the members of Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect: State Election Commission controls election to panchayats and municipalties. Election Commission deals with the elections of state legislature and council. Statement 3 is incorrect: The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
|
d
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Election Commission, consider the following statements: Article 324 enumerates the required qualifications for Election Commissioner. State Election Commission regulates elections to the Legislative councils. The Chief Election Commissioner can override the decisions of other election commissioners. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitution has not prescribed the qualification of the members of Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect: State Election Commission controls election to panchayats and municipalties. Election Commission deals with the elections of state legislature and council. Statement 3 is incorrect: The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which one of the following statement regarding the Election Commission is correct?
|
It advises the President on matters relating to the disqualification of member of Parliament.
|
It has administrative and advisory powers but no quasi-judicial powers
|
Chief Election commissioner holds the office till the pleasure of president.
|
It advises the President on matters relating to the disqualification of member of Parliament.
|
Option (a) is correct: It advise the president on matters relating to the disqualification of member of Parliament. Option (b) is incorrect: It has administrative power e.g. prepare and periodically revise electoral roll and to register all eligible voters, advisory powers e.g. advise president on matters relating to the disqualification of the members of Parliament and quasi-judicial powers e.g. settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. Option (c) is incorrect: Chief Election commissioner does not holds the office till the pleasure of president. He can not be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Option (d) is incorrect: The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President/Governor.
|
a
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following statement regarding the Election Commission is correct? ##Option_A: It advises the President on matters relating to the disqualification of member of Parliament. ###Option_B: It has administrative and advisory powers but no quasi-judicial powers ##Option_C: Chief Election commissioner holds the office till the pleasure of president. ##Option_D: It advises the President on matters relating to the disqualification of member of Parliament. ##Answer:a##Explaination:Option (a) is correct: It advise the president on matters relating to the disqualification of member of Parliament. Option (b) is incorrect: It has administrative power e.g. prepare and periodically revise electoral roll and to register all eligible voters, advisory powers e.g. advise president on matters relating to the disqualification of the members of Parliament and quasi-judicial powers e.g. settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. Option (c) is incorrect: Chief Election commissioner does not holds the office till the pleasure of president. He can not be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Option (d) is incorrect: The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President/Governor.##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency: The legislative power of the state is suspended. Laws made by the Parliament on the State list become inoperative immediately after the national emergency is withdrawn. President can modify the distribution of revenues between Centre and States. Which of statements is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect.The State legislative assembly is not suspended although the Parliament assumes the power to make laws on any subject on the State List. Laws made by the Parliament become inoperative after 6 months of revocation of National emergency. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct. While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states. This means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency: The legislative power of the state is suspended. Laws made by the Parliament on the State list become inoperative immediately after the national emergency is withdrawn. President can modify the distribution of revenues between Centre and States. Which of statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect.The State legislative assembly is not suspended although the Parliament assumes the power to make laws on any subject on the State List. Laws made by the Parliament become inoperative after 6 months of revocation of National emergency. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct. While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states. This means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1.During the imposition of National Emergency in a particular State,Centre's control extends to any state of India.
2.The 42 nd amendment Act facilitated the proclamation of National Emergency in a part of territory of India.
3.During National Emergency,the Parliament can impose duties upon the Centre in respect of matters outside the Union List.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statements 1 is correct.During National Emergency,the Centre can assume legislative and executive powers of any State.
Statement 2 is correct.The application of National Emergency to a specific part of India was added by the 42 nd amendment Act.
Statement 3 is also correct.The Parliament can impose powers and duties upon the Centre in respect of matters outside the Union list.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1.During the imposition of National Emergency in a particular State,Centre's control extends to any state of India.
2.The 42 nd amendment Act facilitated the proclamation of National Emergency in a part of territory of India.
3.During National Emergency,the Parliament can impose duties upon the Centre in respect of matters outside the Union List.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 and 3 only
##Option_C:1 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statements 1 is correct.During National Emergency,the Centre can assume legislative and executive powers of any State.
Statement 2 is correct.The application of National Emergency to a specific part of India was added by the 42 nd amendment Act.
Statement 3 is also correct.The Parliament can impose powers and duties upon the Centre in respect of matters outside the Union list.
##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Financial Emergency: The President may issue directions for reduction of the salaries of all class of persons serving the Union except the judges of Supreme Court. The resolutions for its proclamation and revocation shall be passed by either House of the Parliament with a simple majority. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect.The President may issue directions for reduction of the salaries of all class of persons serving the Union including the judges of Supreme court and High Court. Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliamentary approval with a simple majority is required only for the proclamation of Financial emergency.Parliamentary approval is not required for the revocation.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Financial Emergency: The President may issue directions for reduction of the salaries of all class of persons serving the Union except the judges of Supreme Court. The resolutions for its proclamation and revocation shall be passed by either House of the Parliament with a simple majority. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect.The President may issue directions for reduction of the salaries of all class of persons serving the Union including the judges of Supreme court and High Court. Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliamentary approval with a simple majority is required only for the proclamation of Financial emergency.Parliamentary approval is not required for the revocation.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following circumstances are suitable for the imposition of President"s Rule? No party has secured majority in a State assembly after General Elections or in the case of hung assembly. Allegations of maladministration against the state government. When the State government pursues policies that are anti-secular. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Hung assembly is a sound reason for the imposition of President's rule.This was a reccomendation of Supreme Court in the S R Bommai guidelines Statement 2 is incorrect.This is not a valid ground for imposing Article 356,according to Bommai guidelines of SC. Statement 3 is correct. Supreme Court ruled that Secularism is a basic feature of the constitution. Hence,it validated the imposition of Article 356 in case a State government pursues anti-secular policies.
|
b
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following circumstances are suitable for the imposition of President"s Rule? No party has secured majority in a State assembly after General Elections or in the case of hung assembly. Allegations of maladministration against the state government. When the State government pursues policies that are anti-secular. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Hung assembly is a sound reason for the imposition of President's rule.This was a reccomendation of Supreme Court in the S R Bommai guidelines Statement 2 is incorrect.This is not a valid ground for imposing Article 356,according to Bommai guidelines of SC. Statement 3 is correct. Supreme Court ruled that Secularism is a basic feature of the constitution. Hence,it validated the imposition of Article 356 in case a State government pursues anti-secular policies.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to National Emergency in India: 1. When it is proclaimed, the state government is suspended automatically and Centre assumes complete control over the state government. 2. It"s proclamation and continuation requires the approval of Parliament with a special majority. 3.The President can revoke a National emergency on his own without the need for Parliamentary approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
During the operation of National Emergency, the Centre assumes complete control over the state government although the state government is not suspended. Statement 1 is incorrect. A National Emergency once proclaimed,has to be approved by both the houses of the Parliament by a Special majority. Statement 2 is correct. The President can revoke a National Emergency without the Parliament's approval.However,the President must revoke, if the Loksabha passes a resolution by a simple majority.Hence,Statement 3 is correct.
|
b
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to National Emergency in India: 1. When it is proclaimed, the state government is suspended automatically and Centre assumes complete control over the state government. 2. It"s proclamation and continuation requires the approval of Parliament with a special majority. 3.The President can revoke a National emergency on his own without the need for Parliamentary approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:During the operation of National Emergency, the Centre assumes complete control over the state government although the state government is not suspended. Statement 1 is incorrect. A National Emergency once proclaimed,has to be approved by both the houses of the Parliament by a Special majority. Statement 2 is correct. The President can revoke a National Emergency without the Parliament's approval.However,the President must revoke, if the Loksabha passes a resolution by a simple majority.Hence,Statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: The Centre has a duty to ensure that State government is carried on accordance with the constitutional provisions. President"s rule can be imposed in a state only after the Governor of the state sends a report to the President. The President has to obtain the written consent of the Lok Sabha for imposing National emergency. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Article 355 imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Govt of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. Under Article 356, the President can impose President's rule with or without receiving a report from the governor of the concerned state. Statement 3 is incorrect. The President can impose the National emergency only after receiving the written consent of the Cabinet ,not the Loksabha. This was added by 44 th amendment Act.
|
c
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The Centre has a duty to ensure that State government is carried on accordance with the constitutional provisions. President"s rule can be imposed in a state only after the Governor of the state sends a report to the President. The President has to obtain the written consent of the Lok Sabha for imposing National emergency. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Article 355 imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Govt of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. Under Article 356, the President can impose President's rule with or without receiving a report from the governor of the concerned state. Statement 3 is incorrect. The President can impose the National emergency only after receiving the written consent of the Cabinet ,not the Loksabha. This was added by 44 th amendment Act.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regard to National Emergency: National emergency can be imposed by the President when the security of India is threatened by war or external aggression or internal disturbance. During the National Emergency, fundamental rights under Articles 19 and 20 are suspended automatically. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect.The Constitution originally provided for internal disturbance as a ground for declaration of National Emergency. Later, the 44th Amendment Act replaced the words "internal disturbance" by armed rebellion. During National Emergency, Article 19 is automatically suspended. However, the other rights are not suspended. Only the enforcement of all other rights mentioned in the Presidential Order for suspension (except 20 and 21 are suspended) Enforcement of Article 20 and 21 can never be suspended. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to National Emergency: National emergency can be imposed by the President when the security of India is threatened by war or external aggression or internal disturbance. During the National Emergency, fundamental rights under Articles 19 and 20 are suspended automatically. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect.The Constitution originally provided for internal disturbance as a ground for declaration of National Emergency. Later, the 44th Amendment Act replaced the words "internal disturbance" by armed rebellion. During National Emergency, Article 19 is automatically suspended. However, the other rights are not suspended. Only the enforcement of all other rights mentioned in the Presidential Order for suspension (except 20 and 21 are suspended) Enforcement of Article 20 and 21 can never be suspended. So, statement 2 is incorrect.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Emergency Provisions: All types of emergency proclaimed by the President has to be approved by the Parliament. In the case of National emergency, Parliamentary approval must be given within 2 months from the date of proclamation. The proclamation of Financial emergency remain in operation for 6 months . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. All the 3 kinds of emergency require the approval of Parliament once it is proclaimed. Statement 2 is incorrect.The period of approval for Parliament is 1 month for National Emergency and 2 months for both President's Rule and Financial Emergency. Statement 3 is incorrect.National emergency remains in operation for 6 months at a time. President's rule is in operation for one year at a time.Financial emergency is in operation indefnitely till the President revokes it.
|
a
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Emergency Provisions: All types of emergency proclaimed by the President has to be approved by the Parliament. In the case of National emergency, Parliamentary approval must be given within 2 months from the date of proclamation. The proclamation of Financial emergency remain in operation for 6 months . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. All the 3 kinds of emergency require the approval of Parliament once it is proclaimed. Statement 2 is incorrect.The period of approval for Parliament is 1 month for National Emergency and 2 months for both President's Rule and Financial Emergency. Statement 3 is incorrect.National emergency remains in operation for 6 months at a time. President's rule is in operation for one year at a time.Financial emergency is in operation indefnitely till the President revokes it.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to grants-in-aid to the states, consider the following statements: 1. The constitution empowers the Finance Commission to make grants to the states. 2. The grants are given to the states based on a principle made by the parliament. 3. The grants given to the state governments are treated as capital expenditure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The constitution empowers the parliament to make grants to states which need financial aid. Statement 2 is not correct: The parliament has no role in this regard. The Finance Commission make recommendations to the President on the principles which govern the grants-in-aid to the states. Statement 3 is not correct: Even though some of the grants given to states are used in creation of assets in states but these are included under revenue expenditures.
|
d
|
Financial Relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to grants-in-aid to the states, consider the following statements: 1. The constitution empowers the Finance Commission to make grants to the states. 2. The grants are given to the states based on a principle made by the parliament. 3. The grants given to the state governments are treated as capital expenditure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The constitution empowers the parliament to make grants to states which need financial aid. Statement 2 is not correct: The parliament has no role in this regard. The Finance Commission make recommendations to the President on the principles which govern the grants-in-aid to the states. Statement 3 is not correct: Even though some of the grants given to states are used in creation of assets in states but these are included under revenue expenditures. ##Topic:Financial Relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statement:
1. Parliament determines the qualification, selection procedure and tenure of its members
2. Its members are eligible for reappointment.
3. It submit its report to the Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect Parliament determines the qualification and selection procedure for the members of Finance Commission whereas tenure of its members is decided by President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Its members are eligible for reappointment.
Statement 3 is correct: It submit its report to the President. He lays it before both the houses of Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken o its recommendations.
|
c
|
Finance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statement:
1. Parliament determines the qualification, selection procedure and tenure of its members
2. Its members are eligible for reappointment.
3. It submit its report to the Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect Parliament determines the qualification and selection procedure for the members of Finance Commission whereas tenure of its members is decided by President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Its members are eligible for reappointment.
Statement 3 is correct: It submit its report to the President. He lays it before both the houses of Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken o its recommendations.
##Topic:Finance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are mandated/permitted under Article 14 (Equality before Law and equal Protection of Laws) of Indian Constitution ? 1. Absence of any special privileges in favour of any person. 2. Equality of treatment for all irrespective of their situation. 3. Class legislations Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Article 14 : The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
1 : Absence of special privileges to any person comes under condept of "Equality before Law"
2: Equality of treatment is for people under equal circumstances else it would be violation of "Equal Protection of Law"
3: Class legslation is not allowed but reasonable classification of persons, objects etc is allowed
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are mandated/permitted under Article 14 (Equality before Law and equal Protection of Laws) of Indian Constitution ? 1. Absence of any special privileges in favour of any person. 2. Equality of treatment for all irrespective of their situation. 3. Class legislations Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Article 14 : The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
1 : Absence of special privileges to any person comes under condept of "Equality before Law"
2: Equality of treatment is for people under equal circumstances else it would be violation of "Equal Protection of Law"
3: Class legslation is not allowed but reasonable classification of persons, objects etc is allowed
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following measures can be taken by the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)? Prevention of alienation of tribal people from land. Reduction of the practice of shifting cultivation. Implementation of the provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The National Commission for the STs can take the following measures: To prevent alienation of tribal people from land and to effectively rehabilitate such people in whose case alienation has already taken place. To take measure to reduce and ultimately eliminate the practice of shifting cultivation by tribals that lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land and the environment. To take measure to ensure full implementation of the provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.
|
d
|
National Commision for STs
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following measures can be taken by the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)? Prevention of alienation of tribal people from land. Reduction of the practice of shifting cultivation. Implementation of the provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The National Commission for the STs can take the following measures: To prevent alienation of tribal people from land and to effectively rehabilitate such people in whose case alienation has already taken place. To take measure to reduce and ultimately eliminate the practice of shifting cultivation by tribals that lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land and the environment. To take measure to ensure full implementation of the provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.##Topic:National Commision for STs##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Right to equality in the Indian Constitution ? There shall be no discrimination by state against any citizen on any ground. Any law prescribing residence within a state for employment can be enacted only by that state legislature or the Parliament. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect : Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. The two crucial words in this provision are 'discrimination' and 'only'. The word 'discrimination' means 'to make an adverse distinction with regard to' or 'to distinguish unfavourably from others'. The use of the word 'only' connotes that discrimination on other grounds is not prohibited.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Such a law can only be passed by parliament and not by any state (Article 16(3))
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Right to equality in the Indian Constitution ? There shall be no discrimination by state against any citizen on any ground. Any law prescribing residence within a state for employment can be enacted only by that state legislature or the Parliament. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect : Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. The two crucial words in this provision are 'discrimination' and 'only'. The word 'discrimination' means 'to make an adverse distinction with regard to' or 'to distinguish unfavourably from others'. The use of the word 'only' connotes that discrimination on other grounds is not prohibited.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Such a law can only be passed by parliament and not by any state (Article 16(3))
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability)? It abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form. "Untouchability" has been defined under Article 17. It is available only against the state. It is implemented by the "Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955". Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 17 states that "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. Statement 2 is not correct: Untouchability has not been defined by the constitution but various court judgments have expanded its meaning. Statement 3 is not correct: It is available against both the state and private individuals. Protection of Civil Rights Act,1955 contains many provisions for this. Statement 4 is correct: Article 17 only states that the enforcement of any disability arising out of "Untouchability" shall be an offense punishable in accordance with the law. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 contains the detailed provisions for this.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability)? It abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form. "Untouchability" has been defined under Article 17. It is available only against the state. It is implemented by the "Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955". Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 4 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Article 17 states that "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. Statement 2 is not correct: Untouchability has not been defined by the constitution but various court judgments have expanded its meaning. Statement 3 is not correct: It is available against both the state and private individuals. Protection of Civil Rights Act,1955 contains many provisions for this. Statement 4 is correct: Article 17 only states that the enforcement of any disability arising out of "Untouchability" shall be an offense punishable in accordance with the law. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 contains the detailed provisions for this.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following rights are implicit under the Right to Freedom of Speech and expression?
Right against pre-censorship on newspapers and movies
Freedom of the Press
Freedom of silence
Right to demonstration or picketing and strike
Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 is incorrect: It covers Right against pre-censorship on newspapers but not movies as movies has to pass through pre-screening and get certificate from CBFC.
2 is correct: Freedom of Press is covered under Freedom of Speech and Expression.
3 is correct: Freedom of speech also means Freedom to remain silent
4 is incorrect: While Right to demonstration and picketing is covered but Right to strike does not come under this right
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following rights are implicit under the Right to Freedom of Speech and expression?
Right against pre-censorship on newspapers and movies
Freedom of the Press
Freedom of silence
Right to demonstration or picketing and strike
Select the correct answer using code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only
###Option_B: 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
1 is incorrect: It covers Right against pre-censorship on newspapers but not movies as movies has to pass through pre-screening and get certificate from CBFC.
2 is correct: Freedom of Press is covered under Freedom of Speech and Expression.
3 is correct: Freedom of speech also means Freedom to remain silent
4 is incorrect: While Right to demonstration and picketing is covered but Right to strike does not come under this right
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following are constitutional bodies? Law Commission of India National Commission for Minorities National Commission for Backward Classes Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body. National Commission for minority and National Commission for Backward Classes are statutory bodies. Constitutional Bodies in India are: Election Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General, Union Public Service Commission State Publice Service Commission Finance Commission Atorney General Advocate General, National Commission for SCs National Commission for STs, National Commission for Linguistic Minority
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following are constitutional bodies? Law Commission of India National Commission for Minorities National Commission for Backward Classes Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body. National Commission for minority and National Commission for Backward Classes are statutory bodies. Constitutional Bodies in India are: Election Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General, Union Public Service Commission State Publice Service Commission Finance Commission Atorney General Advocate General, National Commission for SCs National Commission for STs, National Commission for Linguistic Minority##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following could come under 'reasonable restrictions' provided by the constitution on exercise of Freedom of Speech and expression (Article 19(2))? Leaking classified material by Intelligence officer. Giving speech to take up arms. Speech which can hamper stability of government in Lok Sabha Contempt of Court. Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Article 19(2) provides that reasonable restrictions can be imposed on exercise of Freedom of Speech and expression under the following conditions: the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence. Leaking classified material by Intelligence officer. - can compromise security of state Giving speech to take up arms - public order Speech which can hamper stability of government in Lok Sabha - it does not fall under any criteria and hence would not be a reasonable restriction Contempt of Court.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following could come under 'reasonable restrictions' provided by the constitution on exercise of Freedom of Speech and expression (Article 19(2))? Leaking classified material by Intelligence officer. Giving speech to take up arms. Speech which can hamper stability of government in Lok Sabha Contempt of Court. Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A:1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Article 19(2) provides that reasonable restrictions can be imposed on exercise of Freedom of Speech and expression under the following conditions: the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence. Leaking classified material by Intelligence officer. - can compromise security of state Giving speech to take up arms - public order Speech which can hamper stability of government in Lok Sabha - it does not fall under any criteria and hence would not be a reasonable restriction Contempt of Court.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Block Mountains are created by tectonic and localized stresses in the Earth"s crust. 2. In Block Mountain, most motion between blocks is horizontal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
,
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Block Mountains are created by tectonic and localized stresses in the Earth"s crust. 2. In Block Mountain, most motion between blocks is horizontal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:,##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to Orogenesis, consider the following statements:
1. Orogenesis is a process that leads to large structural deformation of the Earth"s Lithosphere. 2. A fold mountain is an example of Orogenesis. 3. A fault mountain is not an example of orogenesis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
,Both fold and fault mountains are examples of Orogenesis.
|
b
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Orogenesis, consider the following statements:
1. Orogenesis is a process that leads to large structural deformation of the Earth"s Lithosphere. 2. A fold mountain is an example of Orogenesis. 3. A fault mountain is not an example of orogenesis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:,Both fold and fault mountains are examples of Orogenesis.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the functions of Finance Commission: Parliament determines the qualification, selection procedure and tenure of its members. It provides the guidelines for distribution of share of taxes among centre, state and Public Sector Undertakings. Each state has to constitute a State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to Panchayati Raj institutions. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament determines the qualification and selection procedure for the members of Finance Commission whereas tenure of its members is decided by President. Statement 2 is incorrect: It provides guidelines for distribution of share of taxes among centre and states only, not for Public Sector Undertakings. Statement 3 is correct: Each state has to constitute State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to Panchayati Raj institutions.
|
b
|
Finance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the functions of Finance Commission: Parliament determines the qualification, selection procedure and tenure of its members. It provides the guidelines for distribution of share of taxes among centre, state and Public Sector Undertakings. Each state has to constitute a State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to Panchayati Raj institutions. Which of the statements given above are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament determines the qualification and selection procedure for the members of Finance Commission whereas tenure of its members is decided by President. Statement 2 is incorrect: It provides guidelines for distribution of share of taxes among centre and states only, not for Public Sector Undertakings. Statement 3 is correct: Each state has to constitute State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to Panchayati Raj institutions. ##Topic:Finance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty)?
|
It is available against only arbitrary executive action but not against arbitrary legislative action.
|
It can be suspended only during the operation of a National Emergency.
|
Right to life under this article provides for both active and passive euthanasia.
|
It is available against only arbitrary executive action but not against arbitrary legislative action.
|
Option (a) is not correct: After the Menaka case, SC ruled that the Right to Life and Liberty can be deprived by law provided the procedure prescribed by law is reasonable, fair, and just. It is similar to "due process of law" as enshrined under the American Constitution. Option (b) is not correct: Articles 20 and 21 can not be suspended even during a National emergency. Option (c) is not correct: Right to Life under Article 21 does not provide for euthanasia. It is the Supreme Court that has permitted passive euthanasia in India that too after the matter is referred to High Court.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is correct regarding Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty)?##Option_A:It is available against only arbitrary executive action but not against arbitrary legislative action.###Option_B:It can be suspended only during the operation of a National Emergency.##Option_C:Right to life under this article provides for both active and passive euthanasia. ##Option_D:It is available against only arbitrary executive action but not against arbitrary legislative action.##Answer:d##Explaination:Option (a) is not correct: After the Menaka case, SC ruled that the Right to Life and Liberty can be deprived by law provided the procedure prescribed by law is reasonable, fair, and just. It is similar to "due process of law" as enshrined under the American Constitution. Option (b) is not correct: Articles 20 and 21 can not be suspended even during a National emergency. Option (c) is not correct: Right to Life under Article 21 does not provide for euthanasia. It is the Supreme Court that has permitted passive euthanasia in India that too after the matter is referred to High Court.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction of offenses)? No ex-post-facto law shall be enacted whether in civil or criminal matters. Protection against self-incrimination covers protection against giving thumb impressions and blood specimens. In case of corruption charges against a public servant, either the court or department should take action to avoid double jeopardy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: This limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws. In other words, civil liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively. Statement 2 is not correct: Protection against self-incrimination does not extend to (i) compulsory production of material objects, (ii) compulsion to give thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, and (iii) compulsory exhibition of the body. Statement 3 is not correct : Protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction of offenses)? No ex-post-facto law shall be enacted whether in civil or criminal matters. Protection against self-incrimination covers protection against giving thumb impressions and blood specimens. In case of corruption charges against a public servant, either the court or department should take action to avoid double jeopardy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: This limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws. In other words, civil liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively. Statement 2 is not correct: Protection against self-incrimination does not extend to (i) compulsory production of material objects, (ii) compulsion to give thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, and (iii) compulsory exhibition of the body. Statement 3 is not correct : Protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Directive Principles of State policy have been useful to India because: They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. They help courts in exercising judicial review. They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Directive Principles, although confer no legal rights and creates no legal remedies, are significant and useful in the following ways: They are like an 'Instrument of Instructions' or general recommendations addressed to all authorities in the Indian Union. They remind them of the basic principles of the new social and economic order, which the Constitution aims at the building. They have served as useful beacon-lights to the courts. They have helped the courts in exercising their power of judicial review, that is, the power to determine the constitutional validity of a law. They form the dominating background to all State action, legislative or executive, and also a guide to the courts in some respects. They amplify the Preamble, which solemnly resolves to secure to all citizens of India justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in political, economic, and social spheres in spite of the changes of the party in power. They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. Their implementation creates a favorable atmosphere for the full and proper enjoyment of the fundamental rights of the citizens. Political democracy, without economic democracy, has no meaning. They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government. The Opposition can blame the ruling party on the ground that its activities are opposed to the Directives. They serve as a crucial test for the performance of the government. The people can examine the policies and programs of the government in light of these constitutional declarations.
|
d
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Directive Principles of State policy have been useful to India because: They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. They help courts in exercising judicial review. They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Directive Principles, although confer no legal rights and creates no legal remedies, are significant and useful in the following ways: They are like an 'Instrument of Instructions' or general recommendations addressed to all authorities in the Indian Union. They remind them of the basic principles of the new social and economic order, which the Constitution aims at the building. They have served as useful beacon-lights to the courts. They have helped the courts in exercising their power of judicial review, that is, the power to determine the constitutional validity of a law. They form the dominating background to all State action, legislative or executive, and also a guide to the courts in some respects. They amplify the Preamble, which solemnly resolves to secure to all citizens of India justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in political, economic, and social spheres in spite of the changes of the party in power. They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. Their implementation creates a favorable atmosphere for the full and proper enjoyment of the fundamental rights of the citizens. Political democracy, without economic democracy, has no meaning. They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government. The Opposition can blame the ruling party on the ground that its activities are opposed to the Directives. They serve as a crucial test for the performance of the government. The people can examine the policies and programs of the government in light of these constitutional declarations.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee. Who among the following are the members of that committee? Prime Minister Speaker of Lok Sabha Union Minister of Home Affairs Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
CVC and 2 other vigilance commissioners are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as its head, Union Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha).
|
d
|
Central Vigilance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee. Who among the following are the members of that committee? Prime Minister Speaker of Lok Sabha Union Minister of Home Affairs Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only##Answer:d##Explaination:CVC and 2 other vigilance commissioners are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as its head, Union Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha).##Topic:Central Vigilance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: DPSPs require legislation for their implementation while the Fundamental Rights are automatically enforced. Unlike the case of Fundamental Rights, the courts cannot declare a law violative of any of the Directive Principles as unconstitutional and void. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as the DPSP's are guiding principles for the state to follow. They cannot be implemented without legislation unlike the Fundamental Rights. Statement 2 is correct because the courts can only uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to give effect to a directive principle. They cannot declare a law invalid for violation of DPSPs.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: DPSPs require legislation for their implementation while the Fundamental Rights are automatically enforced. Unlike the case of Fundamental Rights, the courts cannot declare a law violative of any of the Directive Principles as unconstitutional and void. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as the DPSP's are guiding principles for the state to follow. They cannot be implemented without legislation unlike the Fundamental Rights. Statement 2 is correct because the courts can only uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to give effect to a directive principle. They cannot declare a law invalid for violation of DPSPs.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the decline of the Swadeshi movement? Repression by the government Split in the Congress Lack of effective organisation Inability of mass movement to be sustained for long periods. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Following were the reasons: The government seeing the revolutionary potential of the movement, came down with a heavy hand. The, internal squabbles, and especially, the split, in 1907 in the Congress weakened the movement. The Swadeshi Movement lacked an effective organisation and party structure. The movement had thrown up programmatically almost the entire gamut of Gandhian techniques such as passive resistance, non-violent non-cooperation, social reform etc. The movement declined partially because of the very logic of mass movement itself- they cannot be sustained endlessly at the same pitch of militancy and self sacrifice.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the decline of the Swadeshi movement? Repression by the government Split in the Congress Lack of effective organisation Inability of mass movement to be sustained for long periods. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Following were the reasons: The government seeing the revolutionary potential of the movement, came down with a heavy hand. The, internal squabbles, and especially, the split, in 1907 in the Congress weakened the movement. The Swadeshi Movement lacked an effective organisation and party structure. The movement had thrown up programmatically almost the entire gamut of Gandhian techniques such as passive resistance, non-violent non-cooperation, social reform etc. The movement declined partially because of the very logic of mass movement itself- they cannot be sustained endlessly at the same pitch of militancy and self sacrifice.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Which of the following laws is/are enacted to implement the Directive Principles of State policy?
1. Protection of Civil Rights Act,1976
2. The Legal Services Act, 1987
3. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
4. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as it was introduced to abolish untouchability, first as the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, which was renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976. It is aimed to implement Art. 38.
Statement 2 is correct as it was aimed to implement Art 39A which is to provide free legal aid.
Statement 3 is correct as this is aimed to implement the Article 48A under the DPSP which aims to protect the environment and wildlife of the country.
Statement 4 is correct as it aims to implement Article 42 under the DPSP which calls for the provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
|
d
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following laws is/are enacted to implement the Directive Principles of State policy?
1. Protection of Civil Rights Act,1976
2. The Legal Services Act, 1987
3. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
4. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as it was introduced to abolish untouchability, first as the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, which was renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976. It is aimed to implement Art. 38.
Statement 2 is correct as it was aimed to implement Art 39A which is to provide free legal aid.
Statement 3 is correct as this is aimed to implement the Article 48A under the DPSP which aims to protect the environment and wildlife of the country.
Statement 4 is correct as it aims to implement Article 42 under the DPSP which calls for the provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following initiatives of the Government is/are said to be giving effect to the Directive Principles of State Policies? Old age pension schemes for people above 65 years. Adoption of Criminal Procedure Code (1973). The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Seenchayi Yojana The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Program. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
The government has made many policies and laws to implement the DPSP's. Option 1 is correct as article 41 talks about securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. Option 2 is correct: as it is aimed to implement Article 50 which explicitly calls for the separation of judiciary and the executive. The Criminal Procedure Code (1973) separated the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state. Thus, the judicial powers vested with the district authorities like Collectors,Tehsildars etc was taken away. Option 3 is correct: as it is aimed to implement Article 48 under the DPSP’s which calls for the modernization of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry. Option 4 is correct: as it is aimed to provide living wages and work opportunities. Article 41 calls for providing Right to work while Article 43 calls for provision of living wages to all workers.
|
d
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following initiatives of the Government is/are said to be giving effect to the Directive Principles of State Policies? Old age pension schemes for people above 65 years. Adoption of Criminal Procedure Code (1973). The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Seenchayi Yojana The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Program. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 4 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The government has made many policies and laws to implement the DPSP's. Option 1 is correct as article 41 talks about securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. Option 2 is correct: as it is aimed to implement Article 50 which explicitly calls for the separation of judiciary and the executive. The Criminal Procedure Code (1973) separated the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state. Thus, the judicial powers vested with the district authorities like Collectors,Tehsildars etc was taken away. Option 3 is correct: as it is aimed to implement Article 48 under the DPSP’s which calls for the modernization of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry. Option 4 is correct: as it is aimed to provide living wages and work opportunities. Article 41 calls for providing Right to work while Article 43 calls for provision of living wages to all workers.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following Directive Principles is/are not under part IV of the Constitution? Instruction in mother tongue. Claims of SC"s and ST"s to services and posts of the State. Participation of workers in management of industries. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
|
3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
Apart from the DPSP's mentioned in Part IV of the Constitution, there are certain other provisions of the Constitution which are in the form of Directive Principles for the state. These directives are the related to the claims of SC's, ST's to services, instruction in mother tongue and development of Hindi language. They are also not justiciable as Part IV. 1 is correct as this is under Article 350A, in Part XVII of the Constitution. 2 is correct as this is under Article 335, in Part XVI of the Constitution. 3 is not correct as it is under Article 43A, in Part IV of the Constitution.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Directive Principles is/are not under part IV of the Constitution? Instruction in mother tongue. Claims of SC"s and ST"s to services and posts of the State. Participation of workers in management of industries. Select the correct answer from the code given below.##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Apart from the DPSP's mentioned in Part IV of the Constitution, there are certain other provisions of the Constitution which are in the form of Directive Principles for the state. These directives are the related to the claims of SC's, ST's to services, instruction in mother tongue and development of Hindi language. They are also not justiciable as Part IV. 1 is correct as this is under Article 350A, in Part XVII of the Constitution. 2 is correct as this is under Article 335, in Part XVI of the Constitution. 3 is not correct as it is under Article 43A, in Part IV of the Constitution.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation: It was established on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. It drives its powers from the Central Reserve Police Force Act, 1949. It can investigate cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962 -1964). Statement 2 is incorrect. CBI derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946. Statement 3 is correct. CBI can investigate cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws, that is, breach of laws concerning export and import control, customs and central excise, income tax etc.
|
a
|
Central Bureau of Investigation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation: It was established on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. It drives its powers from the Central Reserve Police Force Act, 1949. It can investigate cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962 -1964). Statement 2 is incorrect. CBI derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946. Statement 3 is correct. CBI can investigate cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws, that is, breach of laws concerning export and import control, customs and central excise, income tax etc.##Topic:Central Bureau of Investigation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following bodies is/are investigating agencies ?
1. Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Lokpal
3. Central Vigilance Commission
4. National Human Rights Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 2011 on receiving a complaint against a public servant, the Lokpal shall either itself or direct its investigation wing to conduct a preliminary investigation within 30 days. The CVC is not an investigating agency. The CVC either get the investigation done through the CBI or through the Departmental Chief Vigilance Officers. NHRC has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigation into complaints of human rights violations. Besides, it is empowered to utilise the services of any officer or investigation agency of the Central government or any state government for the purpose.
|
a
|
Lokpal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following bodies is/are investigating agencies ?
1. Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Lokpal
3. Central Vigilance Commission
4. National Human Rights Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2, 3 and 5 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 2011 on receiving a complaint against a public servant, the Lokpal shall either itself or direct its investigation wing to conduct a preliminary investigation within 30 days. The CVC is not an investigating agency. The CVC either get the investigation done through the CBI or through the Departmental Chief Vigilance Officers. NHRC has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigation into complaints of human rights violations. Besides, it is empowered to utilise the services of any officer or investigation agency of the Central government or any state government for the purpose.##Topic:Lokpal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Fundamental Rights? They are sacrosanct in nature and cannot be amended. They are available against the actions of both State and private individuals. They operate as checks on the tyranny of both executive and the Legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Fundamental rights can be amended by constitution amendment till they do not violate the basic structure of the constitution and thus they are not sacrosanct. Statement 2 is correct: are available against the actions of both State and private individuals. Few Rights like Abolition of Untouchability etc are available against private citizens also. Statement 3 is correct: These rights limit the power of the Executive and legislature and thus prevent tyranny of the executive and legislature.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Fundamental Rights? They are sacrosanct in nature and cannot be amended. They are available against the actions of both State and private individuals. They operate as checks on the tyranny of both executive and the Legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Fundamental rights can be amended by constitution amendment till they do not violate the basic structure of the constitution and thus they are not sacrosanct. Statement 2 is correct: are available against the actions of both State and private individuals. Few Rights like Abolition of Untouchability etc are available against private citizens also. Statement 3 is correct: These rights limit the power of the Executive and legislature and thus prevent tyranny of the executive and legislature.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following would fall under the definition of State as defined in Article 12 of the Constitution? Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Unique Identification Authority of India NITI Aayog RBI Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The state has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the 'State' under Article 12. DMRC has equal equity participation from GOI and GNCTD. RBI, UID Authority are statutory bodies. NITI Aayog performs important public functions like recommending the poverty line. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following would fall under the definition of State as defined in Article 12 of the Constitution? Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Unique Identification Authority of India NITI Aayog RBI Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 4 only##Option_C:1, 2, and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The state has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the 'State' under Article 12. DMRC has equal equity participation from GOI and GNCTD. RBI, UID Authority are statutory bodies. NITI Aayog performs important public functions like recommending the poverty line. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Central Sales Tax, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1.It is charged only on inter-state transactions 2.It is levied by the state governments involved in the course of inter-state trade 3.It is distributed between the centre and the states according to the principle laid down by the parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It is imposed on the sale or purchase taking place in the course of inter-state trade and commerce. Statement 2 is not correct: It is levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the states. Statement 3 is not correct: It is assigned to the concerned states according principle laid down by the parliament.
|
c
|
Financial Relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Central Sales Tax, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1.It is charged only on inter-state transactions 2.It is levied by the state governments involved in the course of inter-state trade 3.It is distributed between the centre and the states according to the principle laid down by the parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It is imposed on the sale or purchase taking place in the course of inter-state trade and commerce. Statement 2 is not correct: It is levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the states. Statement 3 is not correct: It is assigned to the concerned states according principle laid down by the parliament. ##Topic:Financial Relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the National Commission for Schedule Castes, consider the following statements: The members and chairperson of the commission are appointed by the President. It submits annual report to the parliament. It has the powers of a civil court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It is a five member body whose appointment is done by President. It constitutes one chairman, one vice chairman and three other members. Statement 2 is incorrect: It submits annual report to President who place it in parliament along with the memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendation made by the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non acceptance of any of such recommendation. The President also forwards any report of the Commission pertaining to a state government to the state governor. Statement 3 is correct: It has the powers of civil court. It can summon and enforce the attendance of any person from any part of India and examine him on oath. It can request any public record from any court or office.
|
c
|
National Commision for SCs
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the National Commission for Schedule Castes, consider the following statements: The members and chairperson of the commission are appointed by the President. It submits annual report to the parliament. It has the powers of a civil court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It is a five member body whose appointment is done by President. It constitutes one chairman, one vice chairman and three other members. Statement 2 is incorrect: It submits annual report to President who place it in parliament along with the memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendation made by the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non acceptance of any of such recommendation. The President also forwards any report of the Commission pertaining to a state government to the state governor. Statement 3 is correct: It has the powers of civil court. It can summon and enforce the attendance of any person from any part of India and examine him on oath. It can request any public record from any court or office.##Topic:National Commision for SCs##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following Fundamental Rights are also available to foreign nationals? Equality before law and Equal Protection of law Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of race, religion, caste, sex or place of birth Right to elementary education Protection of language, script and culture of minorities Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Except the Fundamental Rights under the articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 all the Fundamental Rights are available to both citizens and foreign nationals.
Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India
This is so because any modern progressive state cannot violate rule of Law for foreigners
Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Foreigners are deemed to be discriminated in matters of voting rights, property, employment etc. on factors like place of birth and thus this right cannot be given to foreigners.
Article 21(A): The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
Article 29: Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Fundamental Rights are also available to foreign nationals? Equality before law and Equal Protection of law Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of race, religion, caste, sex or place of birth Right to elementary education Protection of language, script and culture of minorities Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Except the Fundamental Rights under the articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 all the Fundamental Rights are available to both citizens and foreign nationals.
Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India
This is so because any modern progressive state cannot violate rule of Law for foreigners
Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Foreigners are deemed to be discriminated in matters of voting rights, property, employment etc. on factors like place of birth and thus this right cannot be given to foreigners.
Article 21(A): The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
Article 29: Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to sixth schedule, which of the following statements is correct?
|
Autonomous districts created under sixth schedule fall outside the executive authority of state.
|
Only president can increase or decrease the area of autonomous districts under sixth schedule.
|
The district and regional councils in these regions are empowered to assess and collect land revenue.
|
Autonomous districts created under sixth schedule fall outside the executive authority of state.
|
Option (a) is incorrect as autonomous district created under sixth schedule fall under the executive authority of state. Option (b) is incorrect as governor is empowered to increase or decrease area of autonomous district. Option (c) is correct. The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to sixth schedule, which of the following statements is correct?##Option_A: Autonomous districts created under sixth schedule fall outside the executive authority of state.###Option_B: Only president can increase or decrease the area of autonomous districts under sixth schedule.##Option_C: The district and regional councils in these regions are empowered to assess and collect land revenue.##Option_D: Autonomous districts created under sixth schedule fall outside the executive authority of state.##Answer:c##Explaination:Option (a) is incorrect as autonomous district created under sixth schedule fall under the executive authority of state. Option (b) is incorrect as governor is empowered to increase or decrease area of autonomous district. Option (c) is correct. The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
In which of the following states/UT has the decadal population growth rate (2001-2011) been negative? Dadra and Nagar Haveli Kerala Nagaland Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Decadal population growth rate (2001-2011): Dadra and Nagar Haveli : 55.50 per cent (highest in India) Kerala : 4.86 per cent (second lowest but growth rate is positive) Nagaland : -0.47 per cent All India Average : 17.64 per cent
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In which of the following states/UT has the decadal population growth rate (2001-2011) been negative? Dadra and Nagar Haveli Kerala Nagaland Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Decadal population growth rate (2001-2011): Dadra and Nagar Haveli : 55.50 per cent (highest in India) Kerala : 4.86 per cent (second lowest but growth rate is positive) Nagaland : -0.47 per cent All India Average : 17.64 per cent##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
During the financial emergency which of following the directions can be given by the Centre to the states? To reduce the salary of all class of persons excluding the high court judges. To reserve all money bills for the consideration of the President. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
While the proclamation of financial emergency (Article 360) is in operation, the Centre can give directions to the states: To observe the specified canons of financial propriety To reduce the salary of all class of persons including the high court judges. To reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:During the financial emergency which of following the directions can be given by the Centre to the states? To reduce the salary of all class of persons excluding the high court judges. To reserve all money bills for the consideration of the President. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:While the proclamation of financial emergency (Article 360) is in operation, the Centre can give directions to the states: To observe the specified canons of financial propriety To reduce the salary of all class of persons including the high court judges. To reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
"123 Agreement" signed between the United States of America and India is associated with which of the following?
|
Climate Change and Global Warming
|
Civil Nuclear Cooperation
|
Anti-terrorism Cooperation
|
Climate Change and Global Warming
|
The 123 Agreement signed between the United States of America and the India is known as the U.S.-India Civil Nuclear Cooperation or Indo-US nuclear deal.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"123 Agreement" signed between the United States of America and India is associated with which of the following?##Option_A: Climate Change and Global Warming###Option_B: Civil Nuclear Cooperation##Option_C: Anti-terrorism Cooperation##Option_D: Climate Change and Global Warming##Answer:b##Explaination:The 123 Agreement signed between the United States of America and the India is known as the U.S.-India Civil Nuclear Cooperation or Indo-US nuclear deal.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Government initiative ePACE, INFRACON and INAMPRO are associated with which of the following?
|
Road transport sector
|
Aviation sector
|
Railways
|
Road transport sector
|
ePACE, INFRACON and an updated version of INAMPRO, three innovative IT initiatives of the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways, developed in house by NHIDCL (National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd.) ePACE (Projects Appraisal & Continuing Enhancements) is an online integrated Management Information System that brings projects from all wings of the Ministry under a common platform, ensuring their effective and real time tracking. INFRACON is the National Portal for Infrastructure Consultancy Firms and Key Personnel. This portal acts as a kind of bridge between consultancy firms working in the road engineering and construction sector. NAM PRO has been developed as a web-based application (www.inampro.nic.in) for Infrastructure and Material Providers.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Government initiative ePACE, INFRACON and INAMPRO are associated with which of the following?##Option_A: Road transport sector###Option_B: Aviation sector##Option_C: Railways##Option_D: Road transport sector##Answer:a##Explaination:ePACE, INFRACON and an updated version of INAMPRO, three innovative IT initiatives of the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways, developed in house by NHIDCL (National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd.) ePACE (Projects Appraisal & Continuing Enhancements) is an online integrated Management Information System that brings projects from all wings of the Ministry under a common platform, ensuring their effective and real time tracking. INFRACON is the National Portal for Infrastructure Consultancy Firms and Key Personnel. This portal acts as a kind of bridge between consultancy firms working in the road engineering and construction sector. NAM PRO has been developed as a web-based application (www.inampro.nic.in) for Infrastructure and Material Providers.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following steps have been taken up to promote renewable energy? Raising money through Infrastructure Debt Funds to finance green projects Inclusion of renewable energy in Priority Sector lending Setting up of National clean energy fund Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
IDFs are investment vehicles which can be sponsored by commercial banks and NBFCs in India in which domestic/offshore institutional investors, specially insurance and pension funds can invest through units and bonds issued by the IDFs. State-owned India Infrastructure Finance Co. Ltd (IIFCL) in the process of raising Rs.1,000 crore from second tranche of infrastructure debt fund (IDF) to finance renewal energy projects. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revamped priority sector lending (PSL) norms. Now, loans to sectors such as social infrastructure, renewable energy and medium enterprises will also be treated as PSL. The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11 using the carbon tax - clean energy cess - for funding research and innovative projects in clean energy technologies of public sector or private sector entities, upto the extent of 40% of the total project cost. The Fund is designed as a non lapsable fund under Public Accounts.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following steps have been taken up to promote renewable energy? Raising money through Infrastructure Debt Funds to finance green projects Inclusion of renewable energy in Priority Sector lending Setting up of National clean energy fund Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:IDFs are investment vehicles which can be sponsored by commercial banks and NBFCs in India in which domestic/offshore institutional investors, specially insurance and pension funds can invest through units and bonds issued by the IDFs. State-owned India Infrastructure Finance Co. Ltd (IIFCL) in the process of raising Rs.1,000 crore from second tranche of infrastructure debt fund (IDF) to finance renewal energy projects. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revamped priority sector lending (PSL) norms. Now, loans to sectors such as social infrastructure, renewable energy and medium enterprises will also be treated as PSL. The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11 using the carbon tax - clean energy cess - for funding research and innovative projects in clean energy technologies of public sector or private sector entities, upto the extent of 40% of the total project cost. The Fund is designed as a non lapsable fund under Public Accounts.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following are headed by Prime Minister? Inter-state Council Zonal Council National Integration Council Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
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1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Inter-state Council - The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India through a Presidential Order dated 28 May 1990. The council is chaired by the Prime Minister. Zonal Council - The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council 'to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these States. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils. National Integration Council - National Integration Council set up in June 1962 by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to address the problems of communalism and regionalism in India. It is chaired by Prime Minister of India.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are headed by Prime Minister? Inter-state Council Zonal Council National Integration Council Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Inter-state Council - The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India through a Presidential Order dated 28 May 1990. The council is chaired by the Prime Minister. Zonal Council - The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council 'to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these States. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils. National Integration Council - National Integration Council set up in June 1962 by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to address the problems of communalism and regionalism in India. It is chaired by Prime Minister of India.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
||
With reference to religious and cultural freedom granted under the Constitution, consider the following statements: Any kind of religious instruction is completely prohibited in all the schools administered by the state. It is compulsory for an individual from a minority group to attend to religious instructions in schools maintained by same minority group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. In institutions administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust, religious instruction is permitted. (Article 28) Statement 2 is incorrect. No person attending any educational institution recognized by that state or receiving aid out of the State funds shall be required to attend any religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consent. (Article 28)
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to religious and cultural freedom granted under the Constitution, consider the following statements: Any kind of religious instruction is completely prohibited in all the schools administered by the state. It is compulsory for an individual from a minority group to attend to religious instructions in schools maintained by same minority group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. In institutions administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust, religious instruction is permitted. (Article 28) Statement 2 is incorrect. No person attending any educational institution recognized by that state or receiving aid out of the State funds shall be required to attend any religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consent. (Article 28)##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following directive principles is/are based on the Gandhian Principles? To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health. To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as it is a part of the Socialist principles but not Gandhian principles. Statement 2 is not correct as it is also a part of Socialist principles. Statement 3 is correct as Gandhiji had always advocated the self-governance model through village Panchayats.
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following directive principles is/are based on the Gandhian Principles? To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health. To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:2 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct as it is a part of the Socialist principles but not Gandhian principles. Statement 2 is not correct as it is also a part of Socialist principles. Statement 3 is correct as Gandhiji had always advocated the self-governance model through village Panchayats.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following Directive Principles was/were added to the Constitution through amendments? To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children. Equal pay for equal work for men and women. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as it was added to Article 39 of DPSP's through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Statement 2 is not correct as it was a part of Article 39 of the original Constitution. Statement 3 is correct as it was added to the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act,1976, thus putting a new Article 39A.
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Directive Principles was/were added to the Constitution through amendments? To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children. Equal pay for equal work for men and women. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as it was added to Article 39 of DPSP's through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Statement 2 is not correct as it was a part of Article 39 of the original Constitution. Statement 3 is correct as it was added to the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act,1976, thus putting a new Article 39A.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
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