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When we travel by bus or train, we notice that objects which are nearer to us move faster than the objects which are far. Which of the following explains the above observation?
|
Relative velocity decreases with increase in distance.
|
Relative angular velocity decreases with increase in distance.
|
Distant objects are difficult to observe by eyes compared to the nearer objects.
|
Relative velocity decreases with increase in distance.
|
Relative velocity remains same between the moving bus/train and the objects. However it is the angular velocity of the objects with respect to the moving vehicle that varies with distance. It decreases with increasing distance from the moving objects. That`s why objects at distance appear moving slow as compared to nearer objects. Here one can see that angular velocity is inversely proportional to distance(r).
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:When we travel by bus or train, we notice that objects which are nearer to us move faster than the objects which are far. Which of the following explains the above observation?##Option_A: Relative velocity decreases with increase in distance.###Option_B: Relative angular velocity decreases with increase in distance.##Option_C: Distant objects are difficult to observe by eyes compared to the nearer objects.##Option_D: Relative velocity decreases with increase in distance.##Answer:b##Explaination:Relative velocity remains same between the moving bus/train and the objects. However it is the angular velocity of the objects with respect to the moving vehicle that varies with distance. It decreases with increasing distance from the moving objects. That`s why objects at distance appear moving slow as compared to nearer objects. Here one can see that angular velocity is inversely proportional to distance(r).##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
With reference to Indian Social Conference, consider the following statements: It was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It aimed to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization. It started Pledge movement against child marriage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Indian Social Conference was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It focused attention on the social issues of importance. The conference advocated inter-caste marriages, opposed polygamy and kulinism. It launched the "Pledge Movement" to inspire people to take a pledge against child marriage. However it did not aim to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under on organisation.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Indian Social Conference, consider the following statements: It was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It aimed to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization. It started Pledge movement against child marriage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Indian Social Conference was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It focused attention on the social issues of importance. The conference advocated inter-caste marriages, opposed polygamy and kulinism. It launched the "Pledge Movement" to inspire people to take a pledge against child marriage. However it did not aim to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under on organisation.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which of the following can be considered as ultimate custodian of the popular will of people in India?
|
Parliament
|
Supreme Court
|
Council of Ministers
|
Parliament
|
Of the three organs of the government, executive is generally associated with the reason of the state, judiciary with the guardianship of the constitution and the parliament is the ultimate custodian of the popular will.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following can be considered as ultimate custodian of the popular will of people in India?##Option_A: Parliament###Option_B: Supreme Court##Option_C: Council of Ministers##Option_D: Parliament##Answer:a##Explaination:Of the three organs of the government, executive is generally associated with the reason of the state, judiciary with the guardianship of the constitution and the parliament is the ultimate custodian of the popular will.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Members of the Constituent Assembly of India were: Directly elected Indirectly elected Nominated Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The members from the princely stats were nominated and members from that of British Provinces were elected indirectly from the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, but not directly by the people. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Members of the Constituent Assembly of India were: Directly elected Indirectly elected Nominated Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The members from the princely stats were nominated and members from that of British Provinces were elected indirectly from the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, but not directly by the people. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following provisions were part of the Objectives Resolution passed by Jawaharlal Nehru in the constituent assembly? Fundamental Rights Safeguards to minorities, tribal, depressed and other backward classes Promotion of World peace and welfare of mankind Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1: Correct: It had provision that said, '……shall be guaranteed and secured to all people of India freedom of thought, expression, belief….' Statement 2: Correct: It had provision that said, 'wherein adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward class…..' Statement 3: Correct: It had provision that said, 'this ancient land attains its rightful and honoured place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind'.
|
d
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions were part of the Objectives Resolution passed by Jawaharlal Nehru in the constituent assembly? Fundamental Rights Safeguards to minorities, tribal, depressed and other backward classes Promotion of World peace and welfare of mankind Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1: Correct: It had provision that said, '……shall be guaranteed and secured to all people of India freedom of thought, expression, belief….' Statement 2: Correct: It had provision that said, 'wherein adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward class…..' Statement 3: Correct: It had provision that said, 'this ancient land attains its rightful and honoured place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind'.##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following functions were performed by the constituent assembly of India? Enactment of the ordinary laws Adoption of National Flag and National Anthem. Election of the First President of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constituent Assembly in addition to making of the constitution, it had performed the function of Legislative Assembly. It enacted the ordinary laws. It also adopted the National Anthem on January 24, 1950 and National Flag on July 22, 1947. I t elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. Hence, all the statements are correct. In all, the Constituent Assembly had 11 sessions over two years, 11 months and 18 days. The Constitution-makers had gone through the constitutions of about 60 countries, and the Draft Constitution was considered for 114 days. On January 24, 1950, the Constituent Assembly held its final session. It, however, did not end, and continued as the provisional parliament of India from January 26, 1950 till the formation of new Parliament after the first general elections in 1951–52.
|
d
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following functions were performed by the constituent assembly of India? Enactment of the ordinary laws Adoption of National Flag and National Anthem. Election of the First President of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Constituent Assembly in addition to making of the constitution, it had performed the function of Legislative Assembly. It enacted the ordinary laws. It also adopted the National Anthem on January 24, 1950 and National Flag on July 22, 1947. I t elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. Hence, all the statements are correct. In all, the Constituent Assembly had 11 sessions over two years, 11 months and 18 days. The Constitution-makers had gone through the constitutions of about 60 countries, and the Draft Constitution was considered for 114 days. On January 24, 1950, the Constituent Assembly held its final session. It, however, did not end, and continued as the provisional parliament of India from January 26, 1950 till the formation of new Parliament after the first general elections in 1951–52.##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with regard to enactment of the Constitution of India: On November 26, 1949, date of commencement of Constitution, the entire constitution came into force. With the commencement of Constitution, both the India Independence Act of 1947 and Government of India Act of 1935 were repealed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1: incorrect: Some provisions of the constitution pertaining to Citizenship, elections, provisional parliament etc., came to force on November 26, 1949 itself. January 26, 1950 was referred to as "Date of commencement of the constitution" as the remaining major provisions of the constitution came to force on this date. Statement 2: correct: With the commence of the constitution, India Independence Act of 1947 and Govt. of India Act of 1935 were repealed because India Independence Act of 1947 itself provided for repeal of any act of British Parliament including India Independence Act of 1947 itself.
|
b
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to enactment of the Constitution of India: On November 26, 1949, date of commencement of Constitution, the entire constitution came into force. With the commencement of Constitution, both the India Independence Act of 1947 and Government of India Act of 1935 were repealed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1: incorrect: Some provisions of the constitution pertaining to Citizenship, elections, provisional parliament etc., came to force on November 26, 1949 itself. January 26, 1950 was referred to as "Date of commencement of the constitution" as the remaining major provisions of the constitution came to force on this date. Statement 2: correct: With the commence of the constitution, India Independence Act of 1947 and Govt. of India Act of 1935 were repealed because India Independence Act of 1947 itself provided for repeal of any act of British Parliament including India Independence Act of 1947 itself.##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements,
1. Cripps mission provided for two independent states, with two seperate Constituent Assemblies.
2. For the first time Indian National congress had officially demanded the Constituent Assembly on January 26, 1930 by the Poorna Swaraj Resolution of Lahore Congress session.
Select the correct statements using the codes given below.
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Statement 1: Incorrect:This was not the proposal of Cripps mission but the proposals of Muslim Lague in rejection of Cripps proposals. It was the proposed scheme of Cabinet mission, based on which Constituent Assmbly was constituted.
Statement 2: incorrect: In 1935, The Indian National Congress, for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly, not through Poorna Swaraj Resolution of 1930.
|
d
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements,
1. Cripps mission provided for two independent states, with two seperate Constituent Assemblies.
2. For the first time Indian National congress had officially demanded the Constituent Assembly on January 26, 1930 by the Poorna Swaraj Resolution of Lahore Congress session.
Select the correct statements using the codes given below.
##Option_A: Only 1
###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: Only 1
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1: Incorrect:This was not the proposal of Cripps mission but the proposals of Muslim Lague in rejection of Cripps proposals. It was the proposed scheme of Cabinet mission, based on which Constituent Assmbly was constituted.
Statement 2: incorrect: In 1935, The Indian National Congress, for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly, not through Poorna Swaraj Resolution of 1930.
##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the India Independence Act, 1947? It provided that India can alter any law made by the British in relation to India, including the India Independence Act, 1947 itself. It abolished the office of the Governor-General in India. Though it declared India as independent, it did not proclaim the lapse of British Paramountcy over Indian Princely states. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: by this act, the constituent assembly made a fully sovereign body. This act also empowered the assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British in relation to India Statement 2 is not correct: The act abolished the office of the viceroy and provided for each dominion, a Governor-General. Statement 3 is not correct: This act ended British Rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947. It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over Indian Princely states and granted freedom to princely states to either to join two independent states (Pakistan or India)s or remain independent.
|
a
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the India Independence Act, 1947? It provided that India can alter any law made by the British in relation to India, including the India Independence Act, 1947 itself. It abolished the office of the Governor-General in India. Though it declared India as independent, it did not proclaim the lapse of British Paramountcy over Indian Princely states. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: by this act, the constituent assembly made a fully sovereign body. This act also empowered the assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British in relation to India Statement 2 is not correct: The act abolished the office of the viceroy and provided for each dominion, a Governor-General. Statement 3 is not correct: This act ended British Rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947. It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over Indian Princely states and granted freedom to princely states to either to join two independent states (Pakistan or India)s or remain independent.##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with respect to Fundamental Rights: They promote political and social democracy. These rights, being absolute in nature, can be enforced through the issue of Writs. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1: incorrect: The fundamental rights promote the political democracy only. It is the DPSPs which promote social and economic democracy in the country. Statement 2: incorrect:These rights are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions like public safety, morality, decency etc. For e.g. article 19(2) provides for limitations on article 19(1)(a).
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to Fundamental Rights: They promote political and social democracy. These rights, being absolute in nature, can be enforced through the issue of Writs. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1: incorrect: The fundamental rights promote the political democracy only. It is the DPSPs which promote social and economic democracy in the country. Statement 2: incorrect:These rights are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions like public safety, morality, decency etc. For e.g. article 19(2) provides for limitations on article 19(1)(a).##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following features of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) provided in Part IV of the Indian constitution.
1. DPSPs like Uniform civil code are aiming at promoting the political democracy.
2.Though they are not enforceable in a court of law, the real force behind their enforcement is public opinion.
3. Both the legislative and executive organs of the central and state governments are expected to follow the DPSPs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1: Incorrect:DPSPs are aiming at promoting social and economic democracy and not political democracy which is realized through Fundamental Rights. For e.g uniform civil code is aiming replacing the personal laws based on the scriptures and customs with a common set governing every citizen, which promotes social democracy.
Statement 2: correct: though constitution has declared DPSPs as the fundamental in the governance of the nation, it imposes moral obligation on the state for their application. But, if these are not applied, then people will decide, through election, which govt is to be elected for the enforcement of DPSPs.
Statement 3: correct: The definition of state for DPSPS includes the legislative and executive organs of the central and state governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the country .
|
b
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following features of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) provided in Part IV of the Indian constitution.
1. DPSPs like Uniform civil code are aiming at promoting the political democracy.
2.Though they are not enforceable in a court of law, the real force behind their enforcement is public opinion.
3. Both the legislative and executive organs of the central and state governments are expected to follow the DPSPs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1: Incorrect:DPSPs are aiming at promoting social and economic democracy and not political democracy which is realized through Fundamental Rights. For e.g uniform civil code is aiming replacing the personal laws based on the scriptures and customs with a common set governing every citizen, which promotes social democracy.
Statement 2: correct: though constitution has declared DPSPs as the fundamental in the governance of the nation, it imposes moral obligation on the state for their application. But, if these are not applied, then people will decide, through election, which govt is to be elected for the enforcement of DPSPs.
Statement 3: correct: The definition of state for DPSPS includes the legislative and executive organs of the central and state governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the country .
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Indian Constitution is said to be the synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy. Which among the following statements support(s) this argument? The powers to amend the Constitution provided under article 368 of the constitution. The power of judicial review provided under the Article 13(2). Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Both the statements are correct. Using the Constitution amending power, provided under article 368, parliament can amend any part of the constitution. But, this power is not unlimited as, according to article 13(2), parliament can not enact any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights. This power is basis of judicial review. This power limits the sovereignty of the Parliament. Article 21 provided for the phrase" procedure established by law", instead of "due process of law". However the SC in the Maneka Gandhi case declared that Indian judiciary follows 'due process of law' as well, where court can go beyond the letters of the law.
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Indian Constitution is said to be the synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy. Which among the following statements support(s) this argument? The powers to amend the Constitution provided under article 368 of the constitution. The power of judicial review provided under the Article 13(2). Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Both the statements are correct. Using the Constitution amending power, provided under article 368, parliament can amend any part of the constitution. But, this power is not unlimited as, according to article 13(2), parliament can not enact any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights. This power is basis of judicial review. This power limits the sovereignty of the Parliament. Article 21 provided for the phrase" procedure established by law", instead of "due process of law". However the SC in the Maneka Gandhi case declared that Indian judiciary follows 'due process of law' as well, where court can go beyond the letters of the law.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Indian judiciary is independent. Which of the following supports this statement?
1. Higher judiciary can issue writ of Habeaus Corpus without the legislative support.
2. Retiring age of High court Judge is 62.
3. Discussing the conduct of any judge of higher judiciary only during his/her removal process.
Select the correct code from below.
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
These given statements ensure the independence of the judiciary. Statement 1 ensures independence by not interfering in the working of the judiciary, while statement 2 and 3 ensures security of tenure of judges, fixed service conditions.
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Indian judiciary is independent. Which of the following supports this statement?
1. Higher judiciary can issue writ of Habeaus Corpus without the legislative support.
2. Retiring age of High court Judge is 62.
3. Discussing the conduct of any judge of higher judiciary only during his/her removal process.
Select the correct code from below.
##Option_A: Only 1 and 2
###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: Only 1 and 2
##Answer:c##Explaination:
These given statements ensure the independence of the judiciary. Statement 1 ensures independence by not interfering in the working of the judiciary, while statement 2 and 3 ensures security of tenure of judges, fixed service conditions.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are the defining features of the parliamentary form of Government in India? Watertight separation of powers between the executive, legislature, and judiciary. The executive is responsible to the legislature. Division of powers between center and state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: In the parliamentary form of the government, there will not be a watertight separation of the powers. Here the executive will be part of the legislature. Statement 2 is correct : It is the most defining feature of the parliamentary form of the government, where executive is answerable to the legislature, unlike the presidential form of the government, where the executive is not answerable to the legislature. Statement 3 is not correct : Parliamentary form of government defines the governing mechanism of a state. Division of powers is nothing to do with the parliamentary form of government because division of powers is more to do with the decentralization and autonomy to the states rather than way of defining the governing mechanism itself.
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the defining features of the parliamentary form of Government in India? Watertight separation of powers between the executive, legislature, and judiciary. The executive is responsible to the legislature. Division of powers between center and state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: In the parliamentary form of the government, there will not be a watertight separation of the powers. Here the executive will be part of the legislature. Statement 2 is correct : It is the most defining feature of the parliamentary form of the government, where executive is answerable to the legislature, unlike the presidential form of the government, where the executive is not answerable to the legislature. Statement 3 is not correct : Parliamentary form of government defines the governing mechanism of a state. Division of powers is nothing to do with the parliamentary form of government because division of powers is more to do with the decentralization and autonomy to the states rather than way of defining the governing mechanism itself.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Constitutionalism is a philosophy of limited government. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution enforce this philosophy? Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental duties Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Constitutionalism is all about limited government. It means that powers given to the government are not unlimited but they are limited. Fundamental rights act as limitations on the government powers like state must respect citizens' right to express, speech, liberty. If the government did not respect these rights then the aggrieved citizen can approach the judiciary for their enforcement. In this context, they can act as constraints. But Directive Principles of state policy cannot act as constraints/limitations on the government because they are not enforceable and they are fundamental to the governance of a country. Fundamental duties are in fact constraints/limitations on the part of citizens not on the government. Hence fundamental duties do not limit the working of the government.
|
a
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Constitutionalism is a philosophy of limited government. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution enforce this philosophy? Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental duties Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Constitutionalism is all about limited government. It means that powers given to the government are not unlimited but they are limited. Fundamental rights act as limitations on the government powers like state must respect citizens' right to express, speech, liberty. If the government did not respect these rights then the aggrieved citizen can approach the judiciary for their enforcement. In this context, they can act as constraints. But Directive Principles of state policy cannot act as constraints/limitations on the government because they are not enforceable and they are fundamental to the governance of a country. Fundamental duties are in fact constraints/limitations on the part of citizens not on the government. Hence fundamental duties do not limit the working of the government.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Indian form of government is described as a federation with centralizing tendency. Which among the following provisions of the constitution supports this tendency? A single and flexible constitution Provision of All India Services Appointment of State Governor by the Center. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 correct: Unlike the USA, where it has two sets of constitutions for center and states, India has a single constitution for both states and center. The Indian constitution is also flexible unlike the case of a true federation where it will be rigid. This is a centralizing tendency as states boundaries can be altered by the center. Statement 2 correct: The candidates selected for All India services were recruited and trained by the center but are to be served in the states, which do not have the capacity to 'remove' them. Statement 3 correct: The governor having many discretionary powers at the state is appointed by the center. This is one of the major centralizing tendencies.
|
d
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Indian form of government is described as a federation with centralizing tendency. Which among the following provisions of the constitution supports this tendency? A single and flexible constitution Provision of All India Services Appointment of State Governor by the Center. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 correct: Unlike the USA, where it has two sets of constitutions for center and states, India has a single constitution for both states and center. The Indian constitution is also flexible unlike the case of a true federation where it will be rigid. This is a centralizing tendency as states boundaries can be altered by the center. Statement 2 correct: The candidates selected for All India services were recruited and trained by the center but are to be served in the states, which do not have the capacity to 'remove' them. Statement 3 correct: The governor having many discretionary powers at the state is appointed by the center. This is one of the major centralizing tendencies.##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Dr. Ambedkar called which of the following fundamental rights as the most important article of the constitution, without which the Indian constitution would be a nullity?
|
Right to Constitutional Remedies
|
Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
|
Right to Religious and Cultural freedom
|
Right to Constitutional Remedies
|
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the most important article of the constitution - an article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it. Supreme Court also held that Article 32 is a basic feature of the constit
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Dr. Ambedkar called which of the following fundamental rights as the most important article of the constitution, without which the Indian constitution would be a nullity? ##Option_A:Right to Constitutional Remedies ###Option_B:Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression ##Option_C:Right to Religious and Cultural freedom##Option_D:Right to Constitutional Remedies ##Answer:a##Explaination:Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the most important article of the constitution - an article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it. Supreme Court also held that Article 32 is a basic feature of the constit##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to Article 32 of the Indian Constitution: Right to move Supreme Court in case of infringement of Fundamental Rights can be curtailed in certain circumstances. Only Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32. Parliament can empower any other court to issue writs of all kinds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution provides that the right to move Supreme Court for enforcing Fundamental Rights can be curtailed in some circumstances. Therefore President can suspend right to move any court for the enforcement of the fundamental rights during national emergency. Statement 2 is also correct. Other rights like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights, can't be enforced under Article 32. Statement 3 is also correct. Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds. However this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Here any other court does not include High courts.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to Article 32 of the Indian Constitution: Right to move Supreme Court in case of infringement of Fundamental Rights can be curtailed in certain circumstances. Only Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32. Parliament can empower any other court to issue writs of all kinds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Constitution provides that the right to move Supreme Court for enforcing Fundamental Rights can be curtailed in some circumstances. Therefore President can suspend right to move any court for the enforcement of the fundamental rights during national emergency. Statement 2 is also correct. Other rights like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights, can't be enforced under Article 32. Statement 3 is also correct. Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds. However this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Here any other court does not include High courts. ##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following writs can be issued against the private individual as well as a public authority? Habeas Corpus Mandamus Prohibition Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against private individuals as well as a public authority. While other writs like Mandamus, Prohibition, and Certiorari can be issued only against public authorities. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following writs can be issued against the private individual as well as a public authority? Habeas Corpus Mandamus Prohibition Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against private individuals as well as a public authority. While other writs like Mandamus, Prohibition, and Certiorari can be issued only against public authorities. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs:
Writs
Scope
1. Prohibition
:
Against judicial as well as quasi- judicial authorities
2. Certiorari
:
Both preventive and curative in nature
3. Quo Warranto
:
For aggrieved as well as non-aggrieved person
Which of the pairs given above mentioned pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Prohibition means to forbid. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent latter from exceeding its jurisdiction. Unlike Mandamus which directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. It can be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
Certiorari means to be certified or to be informed. It is issued by higher court to lower court either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of latter in a case. Unlike prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is both preventive as well as curative.
Quo-Warranto enquires into the legality of claim to the office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs:
Writs
Scope
1. Prohibition
:
Against judicial as well as quasi- judicial authorities
2. Certiorari
:
Both preventive and curative in nature
3. Quo Warranto
:
For aggrieved as well as non-aggrieved person
Which of the pairs given above mentioned pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Prohibition means to forbid. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent latter from exceeding its jurisdiction. Unlike Mandamus which directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. It can be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
Certiorari means to be certified or to be informed. It is issued by higher court to lower court either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of latter in a case. Unlike prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is both preventive as well as curative.
Quo-Warranto enquires into the legality of claim to the office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Indian parliament, consider the following statements : It can only make laws on matters present in union list and concurrent list It can make laws for the Non Resident Indians The laws made by the parliament are applicable to all the areas of the states and union territories Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : The parliament also has residuary power. With the help of residuary power it can make laws on matters which are not mentioned in any of the three lists. Statement 2 is correct : The laws of the parliaments can also be applicable to NRI. For example, Foreign Exchange Management Act. Statement 3 is not correct : In the Scheduled areas and tribal areas the laws of the parliament face certain restriction whereby the Governors can direct that the laws are not be applied or applied with specified modifications. Hence, the correct code is b.
|
b
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Indian parliament, consider the following statements : It can only make laws on matters present in union list and concurrent list It can make laws for the Non Resident Indians The laws made by the parliament are applicable to all the areas of the states and union territories Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : The parliament also has residuary power. With the help of residuary power it can make laws on matters which are not mentioned in any of the three lists. Statement 2 is correct : The laws of the parliaments can also be applicable to NRI. For example, Foreign Exchange Management Act. Statement 3 is not correct : In the Scheduled areas and tribal areas the laws of the parliament face certain restriction whereby the Governors can direct that the laws are not be applied or applied with specified modifications. Hence, the correct code is b.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with reference to martial law in India: 1. The Indian constitution under Article 34 defines martial law. 2. Both Martial Law and National Emergency can be imposed in any part of the country. Which of the above-mentioned statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct . Martial law has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. It is implicit. Also, there is no specific or express provision in the Constitution that authorizes the executive to declare Martial Law. However, Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while Martial Law is in force in any area. Statement 2 is correct. Both Martial Law and National Emergency can be imposed in some specific area. However, the scope of National emergency is much more. It can be imposed in the whole country as well.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to martial law in India: 1. The Indian constitution under Article 34 defines martial law. 2. Both Martial Law and National Emergency can be imposed in any part of the country. Which of the above-mentioned statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct . Martial law has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. It is implicit. Also, there is no specific or express provision in the Constitution that authorizes the executive to declare Martial Law. However, Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while Martial Law is in force in any area. Statement 2 is correct. Both Martial Law and National Emergency can be imposed in some specific area. However, the scope of National emergency is much more. It can be imposed in the whole country as well.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Right to Property, consider the following statements: It is a constitutional right under Indian Constitution. The 42nd Amendment act abolished Right to Property as a fundamental right. It is protected against executive action but not legislative action. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The 44th amendment act of 1978 inserted a new Article 300A in part XII. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus the right to property remains a constitutional right. Statement 2 is incorrect . It was 44th Amendment Act not 42nd Amendment Act that abolished Right to Property as a fundamental right. Statement 3 is correct . According to 44th Amendment Act, 1978 no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Right to Property, consider the following statements: It is a constitutional right under Indian Constitution. The 42nd Amendment act abolished Right to Property as a fundamental right. It is protected against executive action but not legislative action. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The 44th amendment act of 1978 inserted a new Article 300A in part XII. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus the right to property remains a constitutional right. Statement 2 is incorrect . It was 44th Amendment Act not 42nd Amendment Act that abolished Right to Property as a fundamental right. Statement 3 is correct . According to 44th Amendment Act, 1978 no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. ##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs of statutes and their significance, often seen in news: Statutes Significance 1. Section 500 of Indian Penal Code : Deals with cyber crimes 2. Section 3(d) of Indian patents Act : Deals with disallowing ever greening of patents 3. Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act : Deals with disqualification of MLAs and MPs on conviction for certain offences. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Sections 499 and 500 deals with the criminal defamation. In India, defamation is both civil and criminal offence. The remedy for a civil defamation is covered under the Law of Torts. The Indian penal Code, 1860 provides an opportunity for the defamed person to file a criminal case against the accused. Under sections 499 and 500 of the IPC, a person guilty of criminal defamation can be sent to jail for two years. There are several petitions filed in Supreme Court of India challenging the constitutional validity of sections 499 and 500 of IPC. In a recent judgement SC validated criminal defamation. Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act: This section states that inventions that are mere "discovery" of a "new form" of a "known substance" and do not result in increased efficacy of that substance are not patentable. This implied that India did not support patents for inventions which were minor modifications and prevented undue monopoly during the extended period of patent protection by the company. Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act Deals with disqualification of MLAs and MPs on conviction for certain offences.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs of statutes and their significance, often seen in news: Statutes Significance 1. Section 500 of Indian Penal Code : Deals with cyber crimes 2. Section 3(d) of Indian patents Act : Deals with disallowing ever greening of patents 3. Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act : Deals with disqualification of MLAs and MPs on conviction for certain offences. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Sections 499 and 500 deals with the criminal defamation. In India, defamation is both civil and criminal offence. The remedy for a civil defamation is covered under the Law of Torts. The Indian penal Code, 1860 provides an opportunity for the defamed person to file a criminal case against the accused. Under sections 499 and 500 of the IPC, a person guilty of criminal defamation can be sent to jail for two years. There are several petitions filed in Supreme Court of India challenging the constitutional validity of sections 499 and 500 of IPC. In a recent judgement SC validated criminal defamation. Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act: This section states that inventions that are mere "discovery" of a "new form" of a "known substance" and do not result in increased efficacy of that substance are not patentable. This implied that India did not support patents for inventions which were minor modifications and prevented undue monopoly during the extended period of patent protection by the company. Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act Deals with disqualification of MLAs and MPs on conviction for certain offences.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements in the context of Preamble to the Constitution: 1. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the constituent assembly of India. 2. Indian constitution was the first constitution in the world, to begin with a Preamble. 3. Preamble is a part of the Constitution and gives clarity in interpretation of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: the constitution derives its authority from the people of India not from the constituent assembly, this is mentioned in the preamble part of the constitution. Statement 2 is not correct - the American constitution was the first to begin with a Preamble. Many countries, including India, followed the practice. Statement 3 is correct : In the Keshavananda Bharti case, SC has held that preamble is a part of the Constitution. And if there is any lack of clarity in the constitution, the judiciary turns to the Preamble in its interpretation of the relevant provisions.
|
b
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in the context of Preamble to the Constitution: 1. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the constituent assembly of India. 2. Indian constitution was the first constitution in the world, to begin with a Preamble. 3. Preamble is a part of the Constitution and gives clarity in interpretation of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: the constitution derives its authority from the people of India not from the constituent assembly, this is mentioned in the preamble part of the constitution. Statement 2 is not correct - the American constitution was the first to begin with a Preamble. Many countries, including India, followed the practice. Statement 3 is correct : In the Keshavananda Bharti case, SC has held that preamble is a part of the Constitution. And if there is any lack of clarity in the constitution, the judiciary turns to the Preamble in its interpretation of the relevant provisions.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Preamble declares India as sovereign. What does this imply? There is no authority above India and is free to conduct its own affair. India can acquire a foreign territory or it can cede a part of its territory in favor of a foreign state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - Sovereign means India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other state. There is no authority above it and it is free to conduct its own affairs. Statement 2 is correct - Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favor of a foreign state.
|
c
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Preamble declares India as sovereign. What does this imply? There is no authority above India and is free to conduct its own affair. India can acquire a foreign territory or it can cede a part of its territory in favor of a foreign state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct - Sovereign means India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other state. There is no authority above it and it is free to conduct its own affairs. Statement 2 is correct - Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favor of a foreign state.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Preamble states India as a democratic country, in this context consider the following statements: Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite are the four main devices of representative democracy. Preamble provides for political democracy only and not for the social and economic democracy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect - democracy is of two types - direct and indirect, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite are the four main devices of direct democracy. Representative democracy is also called indirect democracy. Statement 2 is incorrect - the term 'democratic' is used in the preamble in the broader sense embracing not only the political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Preamble states India as a democratic country, in this context consider the following statements: Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite are the four main devices of representative democracy. Preamble provides for political democracy only and not for the social and economic democracy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect - democracy is of two types - direct and indirect, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite are the four main devices of direct democracy. Representative democracy is also called indirect democracy. Statement 2 is incorrect - the term 'democratic' is used in the preamble in the broader sense embracing not only the political democracy but also social and economic democracy.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following words were added by 42nd Amendment Act to the Preamble? Socialist Secular Sovereign Integrity Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976 by the 42 nd Amendment Act, which has added three new words - Socialist, Secular and integrity - to the preamble.
|
c
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following words were added by 42nd Amendment Act to the Preamble? Socialist Secular Sovereign Integrity Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976 by the 42 nd Amendment Act, which has added three new words - Socialist, Secular and integrity - to the preamble.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
India recently became a member of the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD). With respect to EBRD, consider the following statements: It is a multilateral developmental investment bank. Its membership will contribute to an improved investment climate in India. Despite being its member, India will not be a recipient of the bank’s financing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
All the statements are correct. The London-headquartered EBRD is a multilateral developmental investment bank set up in 1991 after the fall of the Berlin wall to promote private and entrepreneurial initiative in emerging Europe. It invests in 38 emerging economies across three continents, according to a set of criteria that aim to make its countries more competitive, better governed, greener, more inclusive, more resilient and more integrated. Membership of EBRD would enhance India's international profile and promote its economic interests and access to EBRD's Countries of Operation and sector knowledge. India's investment opportunities would get a boost. It would increase the scope of cooperation between India and EBRD through co-financing opportunities in manufacturing, services, Information Technology, and Energy. EBRD's core operations pertain to private sector development in their countries of operation. The membership would help India leverage the technical assistance and sectoral knowledge of the bank for the benefit of development of private sector. This would contribute to an improved investment climate in the country. The membership of EBRD would enhance the competitive strength of the Indian firms, and provide an enhanced access to international markets in terms of business opportunities, procurement activities, consultancy assignments etc. While India will not be a recipient of EBRD financing, it will benefit from the banks expertise and support in the region.
|
d
|
Non UN Institutions
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India recently became a member of the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD). With respect to EBRD, consider the following statements: It is a multilateral developmental investment bank. Its membership will contribute to an improved investment climate in India. Despite being its member, India will not be a recipient of the bank’s financing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct. The London-headquartered EBRD is a multilateral developmental investment bank set up in 1991 after the fall of the Berlin wall to promote private and entrepreneurial initiative in emerging Europe. It invests in 38 emerging economies across three continents, according to a set of criteria that aim to make its countries more competitive, better governed, greener, more inclusive, more resilient and more integrated. Membership of EBRD would enhance India's international profile and promote its economic interests and access to EBRD's Countries of Operation and sector knowledge. India's investment opportunities would get a boost. It would increase the scope of cooperation between India and EBRD through co-financing opportunities in manufacturing, services, Information Technology, and Energy. EBRD's core operations pertain to private sector development in their countries of operation. The membership would help India leverage the technical assistance and sectoral knowledge of the bank for the benefit of development of private sector. This would contribute to an improved investment climate in the country. The membership of EBRD would enhance the competitive strength of the Indian firms, and provide an enhanced access to international markets in terms of business opportunities, procurement activities, consultancy assignments etc. While India will not be a recipient of EBRD financing, it will benefit from the banks expertise and support in the region.##Topic:Non UN Institutions##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:d
|
In the context of Indian federation, consider the following statements: 1. States have no right to secede from the federation. 2. It is the result of an agreement among the states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - In Indian federation, states have no right to secede from the federation. Statement 2 is incorrect - Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation
|
a
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of Indian federation, consider the following statements: 1. States have no right to secede from the federation. 2. It is the result of an agreement among the states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct - In Indian federation, states have no right to secede from the federation. Statement 2 is incorrect - Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following regarding administration of Union Territories (UTs): Their relationship with Centre is unitary and not federal in nature. Their executive head is an agent of the president. Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists in relation to the UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Their relationship with centre is unitary and are under the direct control and administration of the Centre. An administrator is an agent of the president and not a constitutional head of the state like a governor. Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists in relation to the union territories.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following regarding administration of Union Territories (UTs): Their relationship with Centre is unitary and not federal in nature. Their executive head is an agent of the president. Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists in relation to the UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Their relationship with centre is unitary and are under the direct control and administration of the Centre. An administrator is an agent of the president and not a constitutional head of the state like a governor. Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists in relation to the union territories.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The rights provided in Part III of the constitution are called Fundamental rights because:
|
They place limitations on the powers of the authority of the state.
|
They are part of Human Rights that are declared by United Nations.
|
They are guaranteed by the Fundamental law of the land.
|
They place limitations on the powers of the authority of the state.
|
The word fundamental suggests that Fundamental rights are so important that the Constitution has separately listed them and made special provision for their protection. They are guaranteed by the fundamental law of the land.
|
c
|
Values : Meaning, Types, Nature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The rights provided in Part III of the constitution are called Fundamental rights because:##Option_A:They place limitations on the powers of the authority of the state.###Option_B:They are part of Human Rights that are declared by United Nations.##Option_C:They are guaranteed by the Fundamental law of the land.##Option_D:They place limitations on the powers of the authority of the state.##Answer:c##Explaination:The word fundamental suggests that Fundamental rights are so important that the Constitution has separately listed them and made special provision for their protection. They are guaranteed by the fundamental law of the land.##Topic:Values : Meaning, Types, Nature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Arrange the following cases related with the basic structure doctrine of Indian constitution in chronological order:
1. Waman Rao Vs Union of India
2. Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
3. Minerva Mills Vs Union of India
4. Keshwananda Bharti vs State of Kerala
|
1-2-4-3
|
2-1-3-4
|
3-2-4-1
|
1-2-4-3
|
The "basic features" principle was first expounded in 1964, by Justice J.R. Mudholkar in his dissent, in the case of Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan . It was on the question about whether making a change in a basic feature of the Constitution can be regarded merely as an amendment or would it be, in effect, rewriting a part of the Constitution; and if the latter, would it be within the purview of Article 368.
In 1967, the Supreme Court reversed its earlier decisions in Golaknath v. State of Punjab . It held that Fundamental Rights included in Part III of the Constitution are given a "transcendental position" and are beyond the reach of Parliament. It also declared any amendment that "takes away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III as unconstitutional.
By 1973, the basic structure doctrine triumphed in Justice Hans Raj Khanna 's judgment in the landmark decision of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala . I n this landmark ruling, the Court adjudicated that while Parliament has "wide" powers, it did not have the power to destroy or emasculate the basic elements or fundamental features of the constitution.
In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution.
In Waman Rao vs. Union of India (AIR 1881 SC 271) The supreme court held that all amendment to the constitution which were made before April 24th, 1973 (i.e. the date on which the judgment of Keshvananda Bharti was delivered )including those by which the ninth schedule to the constitution was amended from time to time were valid and constitutional.
|
d
|
Basic Structure of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Arrange the following cases related with the basic structure doctrine of Indian constitution in chronological order:
1. Waman Rao Vs Union of India
2. Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
3. Minerva Mills Vs Union of India
4. Keshwananda Bharti vs State of Kerala
##Option_A: 1-2-4-3
###Option_B: 2-1-3-4
##Option_C: 3-2-4-1
##Option_D: 1-2-4-3
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The "basic features" principle was first expounded in 1964, by Justice J.R. Mudholkar in his dissent, in the case of Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan . It was on the question about whether making a change in a basic feature of the Constitution can be regarded merely as an amendment or would it be, in effect, rewriting a part of the Constitution; and if the latter, would it be within the purview of Article 368.
In 1967, the Supreme Court reversed its earlier decisions in Golaknath v. State of Punjab . It held that Fundamental Rights included in Part III of the Constitution are given a "transcendental position" and are beyond the reach of Parliament. It also declared any amendment that "takes away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III as unconstitutional.
By 1973, the basic structure doctrine triumphed in Justice Hans Raj Khanna 's judgment in the landmark decision of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala . I n this landmark ruling, the Court adjudicated that while Parliament has "wide" powers, it did not have the power to destroy or emasculate the basic elements or fundamental features of the constitution.
In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution.
In Waman Rao vs. Union of India (AIR 1881 SC 271) The supreme court held that all amendment to the constitution which were made before April 24th, 1973 (i.e. the date on which the judgment of Keshvananda Bharti was delivered )including those by which the ninth schedule to the constitution was amended from time to time were valid and constitutional.
##Topic:Basic Structure of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the basic structure doctrine?
|
A constitutional amendment is a law within the meaning of Article 13.
|
The doctrine applies to all the constitutional amendments made since the beginning of the constitution.
|
The preamble of the constitution cannot be altered as it represents the spirit of the constitution.
|
A constitutional amendment is a law within the meaning of Article 13.
|
The Court held that an amendment of the Constitution is a legislative process, and that an amendment under article 368 is "law" within the meaning of article 13 of the Constitution and therefore, if an amendment "takes away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III, it is void. Thus, option A is correct.
In the Waman Rao Vs Union of India case, the Supreme Court ruled that the basic structure doctrine is applicable to all constitutional amendments post 1973 i.e. post the Keshavanand Bharti case judgement. Thus, option B is incorrect.
The basic structure features of the Preamble cannot be altered as it represents the spirit of the constitution. Hence, option C is correct.
The Basic Structure doctrine applies only to the constitutionality of amendments and not to ordinary Acts of Parliament , which must conform to the entirety of the Constitution. Thus, option D is correct.
|
b
|
Basic Structure of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the basic structure doctrine?
##Option_A: A constitutional amendment is a law within the meaning of Article 13.
###Option_B: The doctrine applies to all the constitutional amendments made since the beginning of the constitution.
##Option_C: The preamble of the constitution cannot be altered as it represents the spirit of the constitution.
##Option_D: A constitutional amendment is a law within the meaning of Article 13.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Court held that an amendment of the Constitution is a legislative process, and that an amendment under article 368 is "law" within the meaning of article 13 of the Constitution and therefore, if an amendment "takes away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III, it is void. Thus, option A is correct.
In the Waman Rao Vs Union of India case, the Supreme Court ruled that the basic structure doctrine is applicable to all constitutional amendments post 1973 i.e. post the Keshavanand Bharti case judgement. Thus, option B is incorrect.
The basic structure features of the Preamble cannot be altered as it represents the spirit of the constitution. Hence, option C is correct.
The Basic Structure doctrine applies only to the constitutionality of amendments and not to ordinary Acts of Parliament , which must conform to the entirety of the Constitution. Thus, option D is correct.
##Topic:Basic Structure of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are correct about the basic structure of the Indian Constitution?
|
The basic structure of the Constitution has been defined under article 368.
|
The basic structure of the Constitution can be abrogated by a constitutional amendment.
|
Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32 is not a part of the basic structure.
|
The basic structure of the Constitution has been defined under article 368.
|
The basic structure doctrine is an evolving concept. It hasn't been defined in the Constitution. Thus, option (a) is incorrect. The Apex Court has held that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be abrogated by a constitutional amendment. Thus option (b) is incorrect. In the Keshavananda Bharti judgement in 1973, the Apex Court judges listed some of the basic features. It includes powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142. Thus, option (c) is incorrect.
|
d
|
Basic Structure of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correct about the basic structure of the Indian Constitution?##Option_A: The basic structure of the Constitution has been defined under article 368.###Option_B: The basic structure of the Constitution can be abrogated by a constitutional amendment.##Option_C: Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32 is not a part of the basic structure.##Option_D: The basic structure of the Constitution has been defined under article 368.##Answer:d##Explaination:The basic structure doctrine is an evolving concept. It hasn't been defined in the Constitution. Thus, option (a) is incorrect. The Apex Court has held that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be abrogated by a constitutional amendment. Thus option (b) is incorrect. In the Keshavananda Bharti judgement in 1973, the Apex Court judges listed some of the basic features. It includes powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142. Thus, option (c) is incorrect.##Topic:Basic Structure of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1.An amendment to the constitution cannot be initiated by a private member of the house.
2.If such an amendment seeks to make change in the federal structure of the constitution, the amendment is required to be ratified by the legislature of atleast 2/3 of the states of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Explanation: A constitution amendment bill can be introduced both as a government bill or a private member bill. However, if it’s a Private Member, then it has to be examined in the first instance and recommended for introduction by the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions before it is included for introduction in the List of Business. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
An amendment seeking to change the federal structure of the Constitution has to be ratified by atleast 50 percent of the states. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1.An amendment to the constitution cannot be initiated by a private member of the house.
2.If such an amendment seeks to make change in the federal structure of the constitution, the amendment is required to be ratified by the legislature of atleast 2/3 of the states of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Explanation: A constitution amendment bill can be introduced both as a government bill or a private member bill. However, if it’s a Private Member, then it has to be examined in the first instance and recommended for introduction by the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions before it is included for introduction in the List of Business. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
An amendment seeking to change the federal structure of the Constitution has to be ratified by atleast 50 percent of the states. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is the time frame prescribed by the constitution, within which the state legislatures are required to ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them?
|
3 months
|
6 months
|
1 month
|
3 months
|
No time-frame has been specified by the Constitution for ratifying or rejecting an amendment. Hence, option D is correct.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is the time frame prescribed by the constitution, within which the state legislatures are required to ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them?
##Option_A: 3 months
###Option_B: 6 months
##Option_C: 1 month
##Option_D: 3 months
##Answer:d##Explaination:
No time-frame has been specified by the Constitution for ratifying or rejecting an amendment. Hence, option D is correct.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. State legislatures have no power to initiate any amendment to the constitution.
2. With permission of president, joint sitting can be made in case of a constitutional amendment bill
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Answer: D
State legislatures cannot initiate any Bill or proposal for amendment of the Constitution. They are associated in the process of the amendment only through the ratification procedure laid down in article 368. However, the only other provision for constitutional changes by state legislatures is to initiate the process for creating or abolishing Legislative Councils in their respective legislatures, and to give their views on a proposed Parliamentary bill seeking to affect the area, boundaries or name of any State or States which has been referred to them under the proviso to Article 3. However, this referral does not restrict Parliament's power to make any further amendments of the Bill. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
A joint session is not allowed for passing a constitutional amendment.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. State legislatures have no power to initiate any amendment to the constitution.
2. With permission of president, joint sitting can be made in case of a constitutional amendment bill
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Answer: D
State legislatures cannot initiate any Bill or proposal for amendment of the Constitution. They are associated in the process of the amendment only through the ratification procedure laid down in article 368. However, the only other provision for constitutional changes by state legislatures is to initiate the process for creating or abolishing Legislative Councils in their respective legislatures, and to give their views on a proposed Parliamentary bill seeking to affect the area, boundaries or name of any State or States which has been referred to them under the proviso to Article 3. However, this referral does not restrict Parliament's power to make any further amendments of the Bill. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
A joint session is not allowed for passing a constitutional amendment.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following cannot be amended with a simple majority of the parliament?
|
Seventh schedule
|
Appointment of the judges and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
|
Both a and b
|
Seventh schedule
|
The following can be amended by a simple majority of the Parliament:
(i) Admission/ formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States.
(ii) Citizenship provision.
(iii) Provision regarding delimitation of constituencies.
(iv) Quorum of the two Houses of Parliament.
(v) Privileges and Salaries and allowances of the MPs.
(vi) Rules of procedure in each House of the Parliament.
(vii) English as a language of the Parliament.
(viii) Appointment of Judges and jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
(ix) Creation or abolition of Upper Houses in any state.
(x) Legislatures for Union Territories.
(xi) Elections in the country .
(xii) Official language of India.
(xiii) Second, fifth and sixth Schedules of the Constitution.
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following cannot be amended with a simple majority of the parliament?
##Option_A: Seventh schedule
###Option_B: Appointment of the judges and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
##Option_C: Both a and b
##Option_D: Seventh schedule
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The following can be amended by a simple majority of the Parliament:
(i) Admission/ formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States.
(ii) Citizenship provision.
(iii) Provision regarding delimitation of constituencies.
(iv) Quorum of the two Houses of Parliament.
(v) Privileges and Salaries and allowances of the MPs.
(vi) Rules of procedure in each House of the Parliament.
(vii) English as a language of the Parliament.
(viii) Appointment of Judges and jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
(ix) Creation or abolition of Upper Houses in any state.
(x) Legislatures for Union Territories.
(xi) Elections in the country .
(xii) Official language of India.
(xiii) Second, fifth and sixth Schedules of the Constitution.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following can be amended only with a special majority and ratification by half the states?
|
Election of President
|
Provisions of Article 368 itself
|
Extent of Executive Power of Union and States
|
Election of President
|
A special majority and ratification by half the states is required for the amending the following provisions of the Constitution:
a. The Election of the President.
b. The extent of the Executive Power of the Union and the States.
c. The Supreme Court and the High Courts.
d. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
e. The representation of States in Parliament.
f. The provisions of Article 368 itself
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following can be amended only with a special majority and ratification by half the states?
##Option_A: Election of President
###Option_B: Provisions of Article 368 itself
##Option_C: Extent of Executive Power of Union and States
##Option_D: Election of President
##Answer:d##Explaination:
A special majority and ratification by half the states is required for the amending the following provisions of the Constitution:
a. The Election of the President.
b. The extent of the Executive Power of the Union and the States.
c. The Supreme Court and the High Courts.
d. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
e. The representation of States in Parliament.
f. The provisions of Article 368 itself
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are the components of basic structure of the Constitution? Supremacy of the Constitution Welfare state Parliamentary system Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Some basic structures listed by judges in various judgements: Supremacy of the Constitution Sovereign, democratic and republican naive of the Indian polity Secular character of the Constitution Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary Federal character of the Constitution Unity and integrity orate nation Welfare state (socio-economic justice) Judicial review Freedom and dignity of the individual Parliamentary system Rule of law Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles Principle of equality Free and fair elections Independence of Judiciary Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution Effective access to justice Principle of reasonableness Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142
|
d
|
Basic Structure of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the components of basic structure of the Constitution? Supremacy of the Constitution Welfare state Parliamentary system Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Some basic structures listed by judges in various judgements: Supremacy of the Constitution Sovereign, democratic and republican naive of the Indian polity Secular character of the Constitution Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary Federal character of the Constitution Unity and integrity orate nation Welfare state (socio-economic justice) Judicial review Freedom and dignity of the individual Parliamentary system Rule of law Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles Principle of equality Free and fair elections Independence of Judiciary Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution Effective access to justice Principle of reasonableness Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142##Topic:Basic Structure of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider these statements. -
1. Union of India is a wider expression than territory of India.
2. Indian constitution doesn’t give authority to the Government of India to acquire foreign territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect – the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.
Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 1 categorically specifies three types of Indian territories in which one category is – the territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international law.
|
d
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider these statements. -
1. Union of India is a wider expression than territory of India.
2. Indian constitution doesn’t give authority to the Government of India to acquire foreign territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect – the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.
Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 1 categorically specifies three types of Indian territories in which one category is – the territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international law.
##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with regard to Parliament's power to reorganize the states: Any bill contemplating the changes can be introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Under article 3, the Parliament"s power to diminish the areas of a state includes the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state. Any bill aiming to reorganize the states shall be passed in the parliament by a special majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Any bill contemplating the changes with regard to the reorganization of states can be introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Statement 2 is not correct . Under article 3 of the Constitution, the parliament's power to diminish the areas of a state does not include the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Statement 3 is not correct. Any bill aiming to reorganize the states shall be passed in the parliament by a simple majority.
|
a
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Parliament's power to reorganize the states: Any bill contemplating the changes can be introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Under article 3, the Parliament"s power to diminish the areas of a state includes the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state. Any bill aiming to reorganize the states shall be passed in the parliament by a special majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Any bill contemplating the changes with regard to the reorganization of states can be introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Statement 2 is not correct . Under article 3 of the Constitution, the parliament's power to diminish the areas of a state does not include the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Statement 3 is not correct. Any bill aiming to reorganize the states shall be passed in the parliament by a simple majority.##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Indian constitution which of the following is an essential feature of federal constitution?
|
Representation of states at the Centre
|
Appointment of Governors in States
|
Seventh Schedule
|
Representation of states at the Centre
|
Option (a) is not correct: Though the statement is right in the context of India but it is not essential Option (b) is not correct: It is not the federal feature. Governor is the head of a state and at the same time agent of centre in the state. Option (c) is correct: Seventh schedule deals with the distribution of powers between centre and states which is an essential feature of federal constitution Option (d) is not correct: The Indian constitution provides certain distinct special powers to each of the chambers. So the statement is not correct.
|
c
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Indian constitution which of the following is an essential feature of federal constitution?##Option_A: Representation of states at the Centre###Option_B: Appointment of Governors in States##Option_C: Seventh Schedule##Option_D: Representation of states at the Centre##Answer:c##Explaination:Option (a) is not correct: Though the statement is right in the context of India but it is not essential Option (b) is not correct: It is not the federal feature. Governor is the head of a state and at the same time agent of centre in the state. Option (c) is correct: Seventh schedule deals with the distribution of powers between centre and states which is an essential feature of federal constitution Option (d) is not correct: The Indian constitution provides certain distinct special powers to each of the chambers. So the statement is not correct.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Commissions - Recommendations with regard to reorganisation of states 1. Dhar Commission : Administrative convenience criteria for state reorganisation 2. JVP committee : Linguistic criteria for state reorganisation 3. Fazl Ali Commission : Policy of one state - one language Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Pair 1 is correct - The Commission, rejected the linguistic basis of reorganization of States and recommended the reorganization of States on the basis of following criterias :
Geographical contiguity
Financial self-reliance
Administrative viability
Potential for development
Pair 2 is incorrect - This committee also rejected the linguistic factor of reorganization of the states. This committee recommended the reorganization of States on the basis of security, unity and economic prosperity of the nation.
Pair 3 is incorrect - It broadly accepted language as the criteria for reorganisation of states. However it rejected one language - one state policy. It suggested the reorganization of 27 states of various categories into 16 states and 3 Union Territories. The recommendations of the Fazl Ali Commission was accepted by the Indian Government with minor modifications. As a result, the State Reorganization Act of 1956 was passed by the Parliament to give effect to the recommendation of the commission. It led to the formation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories on 1st November, 1956.
|
a
|
Union and Its Territories
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Commissions - Recommendations with regard to reorganisation of states 1. Dhar Commission : Administrative convenience criteria for state reorganisation 2. JVP committee : Linguistic criteria for state reorganisation 3. Fazl Ali Commission : Policy of one state - one language Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Pair 1 is correct - The Commission, rejected the linguistic basis of reorganization of States and recommended the reorganization of States on the basis of following criterias :
Geographical contiguity
Financial self-reliance
Administrative viability
Potential for development
Pair 2 is incorrect - This committee also rejected the linguistic factor of reorganization of the states. This committee recommended the reorganization of States on the basis of security, unity and economic prosperity of the nation.
Pair 3 is incorrect - It broadly accepted language as the criteria for reorganisation of states. However it rejected one language - one state policy. It suggested the reorganization of 27 states of various categories into 16 states and 3 Union Territories. The recommendations of the Fazl Ali Commission was accepted by the Indian Government with minor modifications. As a result, the State Reorganization Act of 1956 was passed by the Parliament to give effect to the recommendation of the commission. It led to the formation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories on 1st November, 1956.
##Topic:Union and Its Territories##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to citizens of India: Citizens by birth as well as naturalized citizens are eligible for the office of the President of India. Fundamental Duties under the part of IVA to the Indian Constitution are applicable only to Citizens of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. in India both citizens by birth as well as naturalized citizens are eligible for the office of the President while in USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President. Statement 2 is correct. Fundamental Duties under the part of IVA to the Indian Constitution are applicable only to Citizens of India not for aliens.
|
c
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to citizens of India: Citizens by birth as well as naturalized citizens are eligible for the office of the President of India. Fundamental Duties under the part of IVA to the Indian Constitution are applicable only to Citizens of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. in India both citizens by birth as well as naturalized citizens are eligible for the office of the President while in USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President. Statement 2 is correct. Fundamental Duties under the part of IVA to the Indian Constitution are applicable only to Citizens of India not for aliens.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to provisions regarding citizenship in India, consider the following statements:
Indian Constitution identifies only the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement but not subsequent to that.
A person shall not be a citizen of India if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state.
Both Parliament and State legislature have the power to make provisions regarding citizenship.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct- Indian constitution identifies only the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
Statement 2 is correct- No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state.
Statement 3 is incorrect- Only parliament shall have the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all matter related to citizenship.
|
b
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to provisions regarding citizenship in India, consider the following statements:
Indian Constitution identifies only the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement but not subsequent to that.
A person shall not be a citizen of India if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state.
Both Parliament and State legislature have the power to make provisions regarding citizenship.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct- Indian constitution identifies only the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
Statement 2 is correct- No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state.
Statement 3 is incorrect- Only parliament shall have the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all matter related to citizenship.
##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to loss of citizenship under the Citizenship act, 1955, consider the following statements: If a person renounces his Indian citizenship, their minor children also loses their citizenship. The application for renunciation or termination of citizenship can be withheld if India is engaged in war. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - When a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship. Statement 2 is correct - Both in the case of 'Renunciation' and 'termination', if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration can be withheld by the Central Government.
|
c
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to loss of citizenship under the Citizenship act, 1955, consider the following statements: If a person renounces his Indian citizenship, their minor children also loses their citizenship. The application for renunciation or termination of citizenship can be withheld if India is engaged in war. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct - When a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship. Statement 2 is correct - Both in the case of 'Renunciation' and 'termination', if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration can be withheld by the Central Government.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: States can provide special benefits to its residents in the matter of the rights given by Indian constitution. As per the article 19 of the Constitution, all the Indian citizens have the freedom of movement and residence in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect - The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means that the state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens. For example, a state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. Statement 2 is incorrect - tribal people can reside anywhere in the country but outsiders cannot reside in tribal areas. Also in the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the state legislature is empowered to define the persons who are permanent residents of the state.
|
d
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: States can provide special benefits to its residents in the matter of the rights given by Indian constitution. As per the article 19 of the Constitution, all the Indian citizens have the freedom of movement and residence in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect - The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means that the state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens. For example, a state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. Statement 2 is incorrect - tribal people can reside anywhere in the country but outsiders cannot reside in tribal areas. Also in the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the state legislature is empowered to define the persons who are permanent residents of the state.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements :
1.The law made by two or more state legislatures on a subject mentioned in Concurrent List prevails over central law on that subject
2.The state law on a matter enumerated in concurrent list remains prevailed over the state if it has received the assent of the President of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : Generally the central law prevails over the state law on a matter enumerated in concurrent list. But there is an exception if the state law has received the assent of the President then the state law will prevail over in that state.
Statement 2 is not correct : Because the parliament is competent enough to make subsequently a law to override the state law even of the state law has earlier received the assent of the President.
Hence the correct code is d
|
d
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements :
1.The law made by two or more state legislatures on a subject mentioned in Concurrent List prevails over central law on that subject
2.The state law on a matter enumerated in concurrent list remains prevailed over the state if it has received the assent of the President of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct : Generally the central law prevails over the state law on a matter enumerated in concurrent list. But there is an exception if the state law has received the assent of the President then the state law will prevail over in that state.
Statement 2 is not correct : Because the parliament is competent enough to make subsequently a law to override the state law even of the state law has earlier received the assent of the President.
Hence the correct code is d
##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
1. Selection by the UPSC confers a right to the post upon the candidate.
2. Parliament can extend the jurisdiction of UPSC.
3. Government is answerable to parliament for not accepting the UPSC recommendations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Selection by the UPSC does not confers a right to the post upon the candidate. However, the government is to act fairly and without arbitrariness or malafides
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament can extend the jurisdiction of UPSC. The additional function related to the services of the Union can be conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC.
Statement 3 is correct: UPSC recommendations are not binding in nature but government is answerable to parliament for not accepting the UPSC recommendations.
|
b
|
UPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
1. Selection by the UPSC confers a right to the post upon the candidate.
2. Parliament can extend the jurisdiction of UPSC.
3. Government is answerable to parliament for not accepting the UPSC recommendations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Selection by the UPSC does not confers a right to the post upon the candidate. However, the government is to act fairly and without arbitrariness or malafides
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament can extend the jurisdiction of UPSC. The additional function related to the services of the Union can be conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC.
Statement 3 is correct: UPSC recommendations are not binding in nature but government is answerable to parliament for not accepting the UPSC recommendations.
##Topic:UPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Constitution Amendment bill, consider the following statements: It can be introduced in either house of the Parliament. There is no provision for joint sitting in case of deadlock. The president can withhold his assent to such a bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Statement 2 is correct: In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. Statement 3 is incorrect: The President must give his assent to a constitution amendment bill. He can neither reject nor return the bill for the reconsideration of the parliament.
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Constitution Amendment bill, consider the following statements: It can be introduced in either house of the Parliament. There is no provision for joint sitting in case of deadlock. The president can withhold his assent to such a bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Statement 2 is correct: In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. Statement 3 is incorrect: The President must give his assent to a constitution amendment bill. He can neither reject nor return the bill for the reconsideration of the parliament.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Recently, the workers of the Delhi Municipal Corporation were on strike and there was no collection or disposal of garbage by them. This led to a dangerous situation of spreading of communicable diseases. If an aggrieved person approaches SC, it may issue which of the following writs in this case?
|
Certiorari
|
Mandamus
|
Quo warranto
|
Certiorari
|
In the present case, the SC can issue writ of Mandamus. The writ of Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, the workers of the Delhi Municipal Corporation were on strike and there was no collection or disposal of garbage by them. This led to a dangerous situation of spreading of communicable diseases. If an aggrieved person approaches SC, it may issue which of the following writs in this case?##Option_A: Certiorari###Option_B: Mandamus##Option_C: Quo warranto##Option_D: Certiorari##Answer:b##Explaination:In the present case, the SC can issue writ of Mandamus. The writ of Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following commissions/committee accepted "language" as the criteria for the reorganization of states? 1. Dhar Commission 2. JVP Committee 3. Fazl Ali Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Both the Dhar commission and JVP committee rejected language as the basis for the reorganization of states. Fazl Ali's commission broadly accepted language as the criteria for the reorganization of states, however, it rejected one- language - state policy. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following commissions/committee accepted "language" as the criteria for the reorganization of states? 1. Dhar Commission 2. JVP Committee 3. Fazl Ali Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Both the Dhar commission and JVP committee rejected language as the basis for the reorganization of states. Fazl Ali's commission broadly accepted language as the criteria for the reorganization of states, however, it rejected one- language - state policy. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Why Indian federalism is termed asymmetric federalism?
|
Some states are given special status and privilege.
|
Indian Constitution has numerous unitary or non-federal features.
|
The Union enjoys unbridled power and authority.
|
Some states are given special status and privilege.
|
Unlike the constitutional symmetry of American federalism, Indian federalism has been asymmetric. By introducing the articles concerning Jammu and Kashmir ( Art. 370) and the North-East (Art. 371), the Indian Constitution anticipates the very important concept of asymmetric federalism.
|
a
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Why Indian federalism is termed asymmetric federalism?##Option_A: Some states are given special status and privilege.###Option_B: Indian Constitution has numerous unitary or non-federal features.##Option_C: The Union enjoys unbridled power and authority.##Option_D: Some states are given special status and privilege.##Answer:a##Explaination:Unlike the constitutional symmetry of American federalism, Indian federalism has been asymmetric. By introducing the articles concerning Jammu and Kashmir ( Art. 370) and the North-East (Art. 371), the Indian Constitution anticipates the very important concept of asymmetric federalism.##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the idea of Universal franchise in Indian context, consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution of India Bill, 1895 envisaged giving every citizen a right to take part in the affairs of the country.
2. Motilal Nehru Report , 1928 proposed that Universal franchise should not be an immediate goal of Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The idea of Universal Franchise lay securely within the heart of nationalism. The Constitution of India Bill (1895) - the first non-official attempt at drafting a constitution for India had declared that every citizen had a right to take part in the affairs of the country and be admitted to public office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Nehru report reaffirmed this conception of citizenship. This report declared that anyone above the age of 21 is entitled to vote for the House of Representatives or Parliament.
|
a
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the idea of Universal franchise in Indian context, consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution of India Bill, 1895 envisaged giving every citizen a right to take part in the affairs of the country.
2. Motilal Nehru Report , 1928 proposed that Universal franchise should not be an immediate goal of Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. The idea of Universal Franchise lay securely within the heart of nationalism. The Constitution of India Bill (1895) - the first non-official attempt at drafting a constitution for India had declared that every citizen had a right to take part in the affairs of the country and be admitted to public office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Nehru report reaffirmed this conception of citizenship. This report declared that anyone above the age of 21 is entitled to vote for the House of Representatives or Parliament.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Indian Constitution,consider the following statements: 1.Indian constitution safeguards liberal individualism. 2.The constitution is committed to group rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. In Indian context the individual liberty has been given a different form. It is very unlike western concept. Beginning from Raja Ram Mohun Roy, many other reformists fought for this liberty. For them right of a widow should be given primacy over the community sentiments of Sati. These ideals are reflected in the constitution where several rights including freedom expression in enshrined.
Statement 2 is also correct. In India individual right and group rights are not opposed to each other. Infact they are complementary. Both exist without compromising each other.
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Indian Constitution,consider the following statements: 1.Indian constitution safeguards liberal individualism. 2.The constitution is committed to group rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. In Indian context the individual liberty has been given a different form. It is very unlike western concept. Beginning from Raja Ram Mohun Roy, many other reformists fought for this liberty. For them right of a widow should be given primacy over the community sentiments of Sati. These ideals are reflected in the constitution where several rights including freedom expression in enshrined.
Statement 2 is also correct. In India individual right and group rights are not opposed to each other. Infact they are complementary. Both exist without compromising each other.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Indian constitution recognizes community-based rights while Western liberal constitutions do not recognize communities at all. What is/are the possible reason/reasons?
To ensure that no one community dominates the other community.
Indians have more openly acknowledged the value of communities.
Select the correct answers using code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. India has multiple communities. But communities do not always have a relationship of equality. To ensure that a communities remain liberal in approach and foster a sense of equal respect among, constitution recognized community based rights.
Statement 2 is also correct. No other country has as many types of communities as India has. Historically Indians have been more vocal about the value of the community. Gandhiji was one of the most prominent leader who emphasized on community work during national movement.
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Indian constitution recognizes community-based rights while Western liberal constitutions do not recognize communities at all. What is/are the possible reason/reasons?
To ensure that no one community dominates the other community.
Indians have more openly acknowledged the value of communities.
Select the correct answers using code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. India has multiple communities. But communities do not always have a relationship of equality. To ensure that a communities remain liberal in approach and foster a sense of equal respect among, constitution recognized community based rights.
Statement 2 is also correct. No other country has as many types of communities as India has. Historically Indians have been more vocal about the value of the community. Gandhiji was one of the most prominent leader who emphasized on community work during national movement.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the idea of liberalism in the context of the Indian Constitution: Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the rights of the community. Reservations for SC/ST community in the constitution are an example of Indian liberalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Indian liberalism is different from classical or western liberalism. Classical liberalism is more concerned with individual freedom. While in India, an individual identifies himself with the community to which he/she belongs. So Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the demands of social justice and community values. Statement 2 is correct: The reservation to deprived classes to meet their demands for social justice signifies the idea of Indian liberalism.
|
b
|
Constitutionalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to the idea of liberalism in the context of the Indian Constitution: Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the rights of the community. Reservations for SC/ST community in the constitution are an example of Indian liberalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Indian liberalism is different from classical or western liberalism. Classical liberalism is more concerned with individual freedom. While in India, an individual identifies himself with the community to which he/she belongs. So Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the demands of social justice and community values. Statement 2 is correct: The reservation to deprived classes to meet their demands for social justice signifies the idea of Indian liberalism.##Topic:Constitutionalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following functions is/are performed by Constitution in a democracy? It restricts the exercise of power by the state. It empowers and as well as restricts the freedom of the people. It represents a collective demand for political self determination. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The most important function of the constitution is to restrict the exercise of power by the state. Modern states are excessively powerful. They have a monopoly over force and coercion. If the power falls in the wrong hands, state can work against few sections of the society. Statement 2 is also correct. Constitutions work not only to limit people in power but to empower those who traditionally have been deprived of it. Reasonable restrictions under Article 19.(2) to 19(6) restricts the freedom of the people. Statement 3 is correct. Nehru during the debates in constituent assembly emphasized on the role of constitution to represent a collective demand for full self -determination.
|
d
|
Constitutionalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following functions is/are performed by Constitution in a democracy? It restricts the exercise of power by the state. It empowers and as well as restricts the freedom of the people. It represents a collective demand for political self determination. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The most important function of the constitution is to restrict the exercise of power by the state. Modern states are excessively powerful. They have a monopoly over force and coercion. If the power falls in the wrong hands, state can work against few sections of the society. Statement 2 is also correct. Constitutions work not only to limit people in power but to empower those who traditionally have been deprived of it. Reasonable restrictions under Article 19.(2) to 19(6) restricts the freedom of the people. Statement 3 is correct. Nehru during the debates in constituent assembly emphasized on the role of constitution to represent a collective demand for full self -determination.##Topic:Constitutionalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
The Basic Structure Doctrine nowhere mention in the constitution.
Judiciary in Kesavananda ruling emphasized that the spirit of the constitution should be given primacy over the letter in it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Nowhere in the constitution there is mention of 'Basic Structure' doctrine. It was invented by Judiciary in the Kesavananda case. In the same case court came to the conclusion that in reading a text or document, we must respect the intent behind that document. A mere text is less important than social circumstances and aspirations that have produced that law or document. So statement 2 is correct.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
The Basic Structure Doctrine nowhere mention in the constitution.
Judiciary in Kesavananda ruling emphasized that the spirit of the constitution should be given primacy over the letter in it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Nowhere in the constitution there is mention of 'Basic Structure' doctrine. It was invented by Judiciary in the Kesavananda case. In the same case court came to the conclusion that in reading a text or document, we must respect the intent behind that document. A mere text is less important than social circumstances and aspirations that have produced that law or document. So statement 2 is correct.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regard to 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act: It made changes in the Preamble and Seventh Schedule of the constitution. It also imposed restrictions on the review powers of the judiciary overriding the ruling under Minerva Mills Case. The Act gave primacy to the Directive Principles of State Policy over the Fundamental Rights. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) brought a number of changes in the Constitution. It established the supremacy of Parliament and curtailed the powers of Judiciary. The Act was first of its kind. It was the most comprehensive Act and touched almost all the sensitive areas of the Constitution. The Amendment was meant to enhance enormously the strength of the Government. Statement 1 is correct. This amendment act made changes in the Preamble, Seventh Schedule and 53 articles of the constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. This act was an attack on the powers of the judiciary. It tried to restrict review power of judiciary. However it tried to override the Supreme Court ruling in the Kesavananda case not the Minerva Mills Case. Statement 3 is correct. The Act inter-alia gave preponderance to the Directive Principles of State Policy over the Fundamental Rights.
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act: It made changes in the Preamble and Seventh Schedule of the constitution. It also imposed restrictions on the review powers of the judiciary overriding the ruling under Minerva Mills Case. The Act gave primacy to the Directive Principles of State Policy over the Fundamental Rights. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) brought a number of changes in the Constitution. It established the supremacy of Parliament and curtailed the powers of Judiciary. The Act was first of its kind. It was the most comprehensive Act and touched almost all the sensitive areas of the Constitution. The Amendment was meant to enhance enormously the strength of the Government. Statement 1 is correct. This amendment act made changes in the Preamble, Seventh Schedule and 53 articles of the constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. This act was an attack on the powers of the judiciary. It tried to restrict review power of judiciary. However it tried to override the Supreme Court ruling in the Kesavananda case not the Minerva Mills Case. Statement 3 is correct. The Act inter-alia gave preponderance to the Directive Principles of State Policy over the Fundamental Rights.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the constitutional amendments:
All constitutional amendments are meant to reverse or make difference to the original provision.
Amendments depends upon the interpretation of the constitution by judiciary and the government.
Amendments are the result of consensus among the political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. There are broadly 3 types of amendments. There is a type of amendments which have not made any difference to the original provision. Eg - Amendments to extend the period of reserved seats in the legislatures for SCs/STs. These amendments have not made any changes. They have merely extended the period of reservation.
Statement 2 is correct. Over the period of time judiciary and the political dispensation of the day have put constitutional provisions to multiple and differing interpretations. This necessitated for underlining one particular interpretation as the authentic one. Eg - CA on relationship between FR and DPSP.
Statement 2 is correct as well. A large number of amendments are made due to political consensus, especially during coalition government. Eg - Anti Defection amendment.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with reference to the constitutional amendments:
All constitutional amendments are meant to reverse or make difference to the original provision.
Amendments depends upon the interpretation of the constitution by judiciary and the government.
Amendments are the result of consensus among the political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. There are broadly 3 types of amendments. There is a type of amendments which have not made any difference to the original provision. Eg - Amendments to extend the period of reserved seats in the legislatures for SCs/STs. These amendments have not made any changes. They have merely extended the period of reservation.
Statement 2 is correct. Over the period of time judiciary and the political dispensation of the day have put constitutional provisions to multiple and differing interpretations. This necessitated for underlining one particular interpretation as the authentic one. Eg - CA on relationship between FR and DPSP.
Statement 2 is correct as well. A large number of amendments are made due to political consensus, especially during coalition government. Eg - Anti Defection amendment.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Indian Constitution is marked with numerous and regular amendments. Consider the following reasons for the same:
High incidence of amendments depends only on the nature of ruling party.
Amendments are required irrespective of the nature of politics and the party in power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The pattern of incidence of amendments suggest that nature of ruling party is one of many factors for high constitutional amendments in India. Two periods in India's political history is important in this regard. In the first period from 1974 -76, ten amendments were made. This period was dominated by Congress. While again in 2001 to 2003, 10 amendments were made. This was the period of coalition politics. So regardless of coalition politics or one party dominance, amendments are made as per need of the time. So statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Indian Constitution is marked with numerous and regular amendments. Consider the following reasons for the same:
High incidence of amendments depends only on the nature of ruling party.
Amendments are required irrespective of the nature of politics and the party in power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The pattern of incidence of amendments suggest that nature of ruling party is one of many factors for high constitutional amendments in India. Two periods in India's political history is important in this regard. In the first period from 1974 -76, ten amendments were made. This period was dominated by Congress. While again in 2001 to 2003, 10 amendments were made. This was the period of coalition politics. So regardless of coalition politics or one party dominance, amendments are made as per need of the time. So statement 2 is correct.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
There is no provision for a joint session of both houses for passing an amendment bill.
For amendment process at state level, even a simple majority of the state legislature is sufficient.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Both the houses of the Parliament must pass the amendment bill separately. This is done to prevent the popular house ( The Lok Sabha) override the consensus and will of Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is also correct. To make amendment process simple and flexible, it is provision of simple majority at state legislature is included in the constitution.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
There is no provision for a joint session of both houses for passing an amendment bill.
For amendment process at state level, even a simple majority of the state legislature is sufficient.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Both the houses of the Parliament must pass the amendment bill separately. This is done to prevent the popular house ( The Lok Sabha) override the consensus and will of Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is also correct. To make amendment process simple and flexible, it is provision of simple majority at state legislature is included in the constitution.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be brought only in parliament.
Constitutional Amendment Bills related to some North Eastern States require referendum before ratification.
Parliamentary sovereignty is the basis of the Constitutional amendment procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. All amendments to the constitution can be brought only in the Parliament.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. After the passage in the Parliament and in some cases, in the state legislature, no referendum is required for ratification of the amendment. Referendum for a state policy is done is some other democracies like Switzerland, not in Indian.
Statement 3 is correct. The framers of the Constitution were neither in favour of the traditional theory of federalism, which entrusts the task of constitutional amendment to a body other than the Legislature, nor did they favour a rigid special procedure for such amendments. They also never wanted to have a British-style system where Parliament is supreme. The framers, instead, adopted a combination of the "theory of fundamental law", which underlies the written Constitution of the United States with the "theory of parliamentary sovereignty" as existing in the United Kingdom. The Constitution of India vests constituent power upon the Parliament subject to the special procedure laid down therein
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be brought only in parliament.
Constitutional Amendment Bills related to some North Eastern States require referendum before ratification.
Parliamentary sovereignty is the basis of the Constitutional amendment procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. All amendments to the constitution can be brought only in the Parliament.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. After the passage in the Parliament and in some cases, in the state legislature, no referendum is required for ratification of the amendment. Referendum for a state policy is done is some other democracies like Switzerland, not in Indian.
Statement 3 is correct. The framers of the Constitution were neither in favour of the traditional theory of federalism, which entrusts the task of constitutional amendment to a body other than the Legislature, nor did they favour a rigid special procedure for such amendments. They also never wanted to have a British-style system where Parliament is supreme. The framers, instead, adopted a combination of the "theory of fundamental law", which underlies the written Constitution of the United States with the "theory of parliamentary sovereignty" as existing in the United Kingdom. The Constitution of India vests constituent power upon the Parliament subject to the special procedure laid down therein
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: Articles in the Constitution which mentions changes 'by law' needs special majority under Article 368 for modifications. For increasing the area of any state or admitting new states in the union, the constitutional amendment act is required. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct. The wording 'by law' indicates that these articles can be modified by the parliament without recourse to the procedure laid down in Article 368. Statement 2 is not correct. For the increasing area of any state (Art. 3) or admitting new state in the union (Art. 2), an ordinary law is needed. Art.368 is about Constitutional Amendment Act.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Articles in the Constitution which mentions changes 'by law' needs special majority under Article 368 for modifications. For increasing the area of any state or admitting new states in the union, the constitutional amendment act is required. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct. The wording 'by law' indicates that these articles can be modified by the parliament without recourse to the procedure laid down in Article 368. Statement 2 is not correct. For the increasing area of any state (Art. 3) or admitting new state in the union (Art. 2), an ordinary law is needed. Art.368 is about Constitutional Amendment Act.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Indian Constitution is called a living document because Indian Constitution is open to changes as per the changing needs of society. The constitution provides enough flexibility of interpretation for both the political class and the Judiciary. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Indian constitution is a sacred document but not a static one. It allows changes if the demand is made by society. After independence, several amendments/provisions and laws were made as the needs of the society. Statement 2 is correct. Ever since the constitution came into being, the political class and the judiciary subjected it to multiple interpretations. Judicial pronouncements/judgments have led to the establishment of several doctrines which was not mentioned in the original constitution. Eg - Basic Structure Doctrine.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Indian Constitution is called a living document because Indian Constitution is open to changes as per the changing needs of society. The constitution provides enough flexibility of interpretation for both the political class and the Judiciary. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Indian constitution is a sacred document but not a static one. It allows changes if the demand is made by society. After independence, several amendments/provisions and laws were made as the needs of the society. Statement 2 is correct. Ever since the constitution came into being, the political class and the judiciary subjected it to multiple interpretations. Judicial pronouncements/judgments have led to the establishment of several doctrines which was not mentioned in the original constitution. Eg - Basic Structure Doctrine.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to implementation of 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment act which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
It created formity in the structure of local bodies across the country.
It has helped in women empowerment at grass root level.
In many states local bodies are not functioning in effective manner as states have not transferred subjects to local bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as The 73rd and 74th amendments have created uniformity in the structures of Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalika institutions across the country.
Statement 2 is correct as these amendments with provision for reservation for women at the Panchayats and Nagarpalikas has ensured the presence of a significant number of women in local bodies. Also women have gained more power and confidence by asserting control over resources.
Statement 3 is also correct as due to reluctance of states in transferring subjects to local bodies they are not able to function in effective manner.
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to implementation of 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment act which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
It created formity in the structure of local bodies across the country.
It has helped in women empowerment at grass root level.
In many states local bodies are not functioning in effective manner as states have not transferred subjects to local bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as The 73rd and 74th amendments have created uniformity in the structures of Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalika institutions across the country.
Statement 2 is correct as these amendments with provision for reservation for women at the Panchayats and Nagarpalikas has ensured the presence of a significant number of women in local bodies. Also women have gained more power and confidence by asserting control over resources.
Statement 3 is also correct as due to reluctance of states in transferring subjects to local bodies they are not able to function in effective manner.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statement is correct with reference to transfer of subject to local bodies in 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment:
Subjects from concurrent list has been demarcated to be transferred to local bodies.
State legislature has been given discretionary power to decide on transfer of subjects to local bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c ) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as subject from state lists are identified and listed in eleventh and twelfth schedule not from concurrent list.
Statement 2 is correct as under 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment respectively under article 243G and 243W has provided discretionary power to state legislatures to decide on transferring the subjects to local bodies.
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statement is correct with reference to transfer of subject to local bodies in 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment:
Subjects from concurrent list has been demarcated to be transferred to local bodies.
State legislature has been given discretionary power to decide on transfer of subjects to local bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c ) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as subject from state lists are identified and listed in eleventh and twelfth schedule not from concurrent list.
Statement 2 is correct as under 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment respectively under article 243G and 243W has provided discretionary power to state legislatures to decide on transferring the subjects to local bodies.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act which of the following statements is/are correct? It provides mandatory three tier Panchayati raj structure for all the states. While village Panchayat members are elected directly, intermediate and district panchayat members are elected indirectly. Exclusively one third seats are reserved for women excluding the seats reserved for SC/ST. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as smaller states need not to establish intermediate level body. Smaller states with population below 20 Lakhs will have option not to have intermediate level panchayat. Statement 2 is incorrect as all the members at all three tiers of panchyati raj structure are elected directly. Statement 3 is incorrect The seats reserved for women is not exclusive of seats reserved for SC/STs. The reservation of one-third of the seats for women is not merely in the general category of seats but also within the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and backward castes.
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act which of the following statements is/are correct? It provides mandatory three tier Panchayati raj structure for all the states. While village Panchayat members are elected directly, intermediate and district panchayat members are elected indirectly. Exclusively one third seats are reserved for women excluding the seats reserved for SC/ST. Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect as smaller states need not to establish intermediate level body. Smaller states with population below 20 Lakhs will have option not to have intermediate level panchayat. Statement 2 is incorrect as all the members at all three tiers of panchyati raj structure are elected directly. Statement 3 is incorrect The seats reserved for women is not exclusive of seats reserved for SC/STs. The reservation of one-third of the seats for women is not merely in the general category of seats but also within the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and backward castes.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to circumstances that led to need of providing constitutional status to local bodies, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct:
In many cases local bodies were dissolved and local government was handed over to government officers.
Many states had indirect election to local bodies.
Only two tier Panchayati raj system existed in local bodies before 73rd amendment act.
Local bodies did not have enough powers and functions to look after local development.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c ) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
In absence of constitutional obligation states have discretionary power so local bodies were not taken seriously by state governments. In this context.
Statement 1 is correct as instanced of local bodies being dissolved was many and their tasks were assigned to government officials.
Statement 2 is also correct many states had indirect election procedure for local bodies. While democracy is about meaningful participation. It is also about accountability. Strong and vibrant local governments ensure both active participation and purposeful accountability. so there was need to make constitutional obligation for state governments to establish elected local bodies.
Statement 3 is incorrect as there was three tier panchayati raj system also for example state of Maharashtra and Gujarat before 73rd amendment act had three tier panchayati raj system. Statement 4 is correct as state governments have not provided power and functions to local bodies to function in an effective manner.
|
c
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to circumstances that led to need of providing constitutional status to local bodies, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct:
In many cases local bodies were dissolved and local government was handed over to government officers.
Many states had indirect election to local bodies.
Only two tier Panchayati raj system existed in local bodies before 73rd amendment act.
Local bodies did not have enough powers and functions to look after local development.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c ) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
In absence of constitutional obligation states have discretionary power so local bodies were not taken seriously by state governments. In this context.
Statement 1 is correct as instanced of local bodies being dissolved was many and their tasks were assigned to government officials.
Statement 2 is also correct many states had indirect election procedure for local bodies. While democracy is about meaningful participation. It is also about accountability. Strong and vibrant local governments ensure both active participation and purposeful accountability. so there was need to make constitutional obligation for state governments to establish elected local bodies.
Statement 3 is incorrect as there was three tier panchayati raj system also for example state of Maharashtra and Gujarat before 73rd amendment act had three tier panchayati raj system. Statement 4 is correct as state governments have not provided power and functions to local bodies to function in an effective manner.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Local government was not given constitutional status during the preparation of constitution. In this regards which of the following statement(s) represent(s) reason/s behind it?
Disturbance created by partition led to inclination towards strong unitary structure.
Many members of constituent assembly were against such decentralization because of faction and caste ridden nature of rural society.
Literacy rate in India was very low at the time of Independence.
Constituent assembly did not want to make Village Panchayats basis of democracy at all.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c ) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement 1 is correct as partition has led to fear in the mind of national leaders for further faction of country so any such move was not supported.
Statement 2 is correct as there was a powerful voice in the Constituent Assembly led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar which felt that the faction and caste-ridden nature of rural society would defeat the noble purpose of local government at the rural level.
Statement 3 is incorrect in this context because literacy rate was not a reason at all. As universal franchise has been provided to all.
Statement 4 is incorrect as constituent assembly had discussed this matter at length and there were many members who wanted village Panchayats to be basis of democracy but due to powerful voices of B. R. Ambedkar and Nehru village Panchayats were not given constitutional status. because they were afraid that caste ridden Indian society may in fact defeat the aim of local governments.
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Local government was not given constitutional status during the preparation of constitution. In this regards which of the following statement(s) represent(s) reason/s behind it?
Disturbance created by partition led to inclination towards strong unitary structure.
Many members of constituent assembly were against such decentralization because of faction and caste ridden nature of rural society.
Literacy rate in India was very low at the time of Independence.
Constituent assembly did not want to make Village Panchayats basis of democracy at all.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c ) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as partition has led to fear in the mind of national leaders for further faction of country so any such move was not supported.
Statement 2 is correct as there was a powerful voice in the Constituent Assembly led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar which felt that the faction and caste-ridden nature of rural society would defeat the noble purpose of local government at the rural level.
Statement 3 is incorrect in this context because literacy rate was not a reason at all. As universal franchise has been provided to all.
Statement 4 is incorrect as constituent assembly had discussed this matter at length and there were many members who wanted village Panchayats to be basis of democracy but due to powerful voices of B. R. Ambedkar and Nehru village Panchayats were not given constitutional status. because they were afraid that caste ridden Indian society may in fact defeat the aim of local governments.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to State Finance Commission, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
It reviews the distribution of revenue between state government and local bodies only.
It has responsibility to examine the financial position of the local governments in the State.
Select the answer using the correct code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Because State finance commission would review the distribution of revenues between the State and local Governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other.
Statement 2 is correct as the state finance commission has been given the responsibility to examine the financial position of the local governments in the State.
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to State Finance Commission, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
It reviews the distribution of revenue between state government and local bodies only.
It has responsibility to examine the financial position of the local governments in the State.
Select the answer using the correct code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Because State finance commission would review the distribution of revenues between the State and local Governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other.
Statement 2 is correct as the state finance commission has been given the responsibility to examine the financial position of the local governments in the State.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to growth of local governments in India which of the following statements is/are correct.
Government of India act 1919 established village Panchayats in provinces.
Indian National Congress did not supported strengthening of early local bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c ) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement one is incorrect as local bodies were established by Lord Ripon after 1882.
Statement 1 is correct as In 1919; Government of India act incorporated the need of the resolution and the powers of democratically elected government.
Statement 2 is incorrect as Indian National Congress due to slow progress in regards to local bodies after 1882 asked British government to take steps to make them effective.
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to growth of local governments in India which of the following statements is/are correct.
Government of India act 1919 established village Panchayats in provinces.
Indian National Congress did not supported strengthening of early local bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c ) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement one is incorrect as local bodies were established by Lord Ripon after 1882.
Statement 1 is correct as In 1919; Government of India act incorporated the need of the resolution and the powers of democratically elected government.
Statement 2 is incorrect as Indian National Congress due to slow progress in regards to local bodies after 1882 asked British government to take steps to make them effective.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements represents the rationale behind having the local government in India?
They are necessary for efficient and people centric administration.
It is necessary for empowerment of women.
It ensures active participation and purposeful accountability.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c ) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement 1 is correct as democracy is about giving power to people. People of village and urban localities should be given power to take decision on the matters of their interest.
Statement 2 is incorrect in this context as women empowerment is very broad term which refers to increasing and improving the social, economic, political and legal strength of the women, to ensure equal-right to women, and to make them confident enough to claim their rights. So local government can be one way to help women in political aspect but it was not rationale behind local government establishment in India.
Statement 3 is correct as local governments provide a platform for people to participate and also to held official accountable for the assigned work for them by social audit etc. mechanisms.
|
c
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements represents the rationale behind having the local government in India?
They are necessary for efficient and people centric administration.
It is necessary for empowerment of women.
It ensures active participation and purposeful accountability.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c ) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as democracy is about giving power to people. People of village and urban localities should be given power to take decision on the matters of their interest.
Statement 2 is incorrect in this context as women empowerment is very broad term which refers to increasing and improving the social, economic, political and legal strength of the women, to ensure equal-right to women, and to make them confident enough to claim their rights. So local government can be one way to help women in political aspect but it was not rationale behind local government establishment in India.
Statement 3 is correct as local governments provide a platform for people to participate and also to held official accountable for the assigned work for them by social audit etc. mechanisms.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with respect to State Election Commissioners:
It works under the control of the Election Commission of India.
It is responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions, Urban Local Bodies and State Legislative Councils.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The State Election Commissioner is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under the control of the Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. State Election Commissioner is responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions and Urban Local Bodies, but not to State Legislative Councils.
|
d
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with respect to State Election Commissioners:
It works under the control of the Election Commission of India.
It is responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions, Urban Local Bodies and State Legislative Councils.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The State Election Commissioner is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under the control of the Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. State Election Commissioner is responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions and Urban Local Bodies, but not to State Legislative Councils.
##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is NOT a provision of the 73rd amendment?
|
Creation of Gram Sabha
|
Reservation of not less than one-third of the positions in all panchayat institutions for women.
|
Reservation of not less than one-third of the positions in all panchayat institutions for SC/ST.
|
Creation of Gram Sabha
|
Statement (c) is incorrect as 73rd amendment provides for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are provided for at all the three levels, in proportion to their population. Remaining statements are correct.
|
c
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is NOT a provision of the 73rd amendment?
##Option_A: Creation of Gram Sabha
###Option_B: Reservation of not less than one-third of the positions in all panchayat institutions for women.
##Option_C: Reservation of not less than one-third of the positions in all panchayat institutions for SC/ST.
##Option_D: Creation of Gram Sabha
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement (c) is incorrect as 73rd amendment provides for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are provided for at all the three levels, in proportion to their population. Remaining statements are correct.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Panchayati raj Institutions in India:
Local government comes under the Union List.
42nd amendment added local government as one of the policy directives under DPSP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Local government comes under the State List. Statement 2 is also incorrect as the original constitution mentioned local government in the Directive Principles as one of the policy directives to all governments in the country.
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about Panchayati raj Institutions in India:
Local government comes under the Union List.
42nd amendment added local government as one of the policy directives under DPSP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Local government comes under the State List. Statement 2 is also incorrect as the original constitution mentioned local government in the Directive Principles as one of the policy directives to all governments in the country.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the evolution of Panchayati raj institutions in India: Elected local government bodies in India were initiated at the time of Lord Minto. Government of India act 1919 established village Panchayats in provinces. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as elected local government bodies in India were initiated at the time of Lord Rippon.
Statement 2 is correct. Following the Government of India Act 1919, village panchayats were established in a number of provinces. This trend continued after the Government of India Act of 1935.
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the evolution of Panchayati raj institutions in India: Elected local government bodies in India were initiated at the time of Lord Minto. Government of India act 1919 established village Panchayats in provinces. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as elected local government bodies in India were initiated at the time of Lord Rippon.
Statement 2 is correct. Following the Government of India Act 1919, village panchayats were established in a number of provinces. This trend continued after the Government of India Act of 1935.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with reference to interstate water related issues: It is in the Concurrent list. Parliament can provide that no court shall exercise jurisdiction over any such dispute. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect - In the Indian Constitution, water related issues within a State have been listed in the State List, while the issues related to the inter-State water have been kept in the Union List. Statement 2 is correct - Article 262 says Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause.
|
b
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to interstate water related issues: It is in the Concurrent list. Parliament can provide that no court shall exercise jurisdiction over any such dispute. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect - In the Indian Constitution, water related issues within a State have been listed in the State List, while the issues related to the inter-State water have been kept in the Union List. Statement 2 is correct - Article 262 says Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause. ##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
In the context of Indian federalism, consider the following statements: Parliament can change the area, boundary and name of any state by special majority. During National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on state list. States cannot remove officers of All India Services from their service. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect - Parliament can change the area, boundary and name of any state by simple majority not with the special majority. Statement 2 is correct - During National Emergency, the Parliament assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States. Statement 3 is correct - Officers serves in the administration of the States, are under the control of the central government. State cannot remove these officers from service.
|
c
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of Indian federalism, consider the following statements: Parliament can change the area, boundary and name of any state by special majority. During National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on state list. States cannot remove officers of All India Services from their service. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect - Parliament can change the area, boundary and name of any state by simple majority not with the special majority. Statement 2 is correct - During National Emergency, the Parliament assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States. Statement 3 is correct - Officers serves in the administration of the States, are under the control of the central government. State cannot remove these officers from service.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
In the context of special status given to Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements: The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was drafted by the Constituent Assembly of India. Article 370 provides permanent special status to the state. The right to property is still a fundamental right in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect - State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own constitution but a separate constituent assembly prepared it. The people of the State elected a sovereign Constituent Assembly which met for the first time on October 31, 1951. Statement 2 is incorrect - Article 370 deals with the special provision with the state of Jammu and Kashmir but this status is temporary not permanent. Statement 3 is correct - fundamental right to property is still granted to in this state.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of special status given to Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements: The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was drafted by the Constituent Assembly of India. Article 370 provides permanent special status to the state. The right to property is still a fundamental right in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect - State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own constitution but a separate constituent assembly prepared it. The people of the State elected a sovereign Constituent Assembly which met for the first time on October 31, 1951. Statement 2 is incorrect - Article 370 deals with the special provision with the state of Jammu and Kashmir but this status is temporary not permanent. Statement 3 is correct - fundamental right to property is still granted to in this state.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the federal features of Indian Constitution,Consider the following statements regarding Post of Governor In Indian constitution:
In federal system head of state is an elected one.
Article 356 shifts power from head of the government to the head of the state.
In Indian constitution, The Governor is appointed for the period of 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - in Federal system head of the state (President or Governor) is elected, India adopted the Canadian system.
Statement 2 is correct - The state comes under the direct control of the Central government and the authority shifts from the Chief Minister and the council of ministers to the Governor.
Statement 3 is incorrect - in Indian constitution there is no fixed tenure for the Governor, he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
|
c
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the federal features of Indian Constitution,Consider the following statements regarding Post of Governor In Indian constitution:
In federal system head of state is an elected one.
Article 356 shifts power from head of the government to the head of the state.
In Indian constitution, The Governor is appointed for the period of 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct - in Federal system head of the state (President or Governor) is elected, India adopted the Canadian system.
Statement 2 is correct - The state comes under the direct control of the Central government and the authority shifts from the Chief Minister and the council of ministers to the Governor.
Statement 3 is incorrect - in Indian constitution there is no fixed tenure for the Governor, he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
In the context of division of power consider the following statements: In India economic and financial power is equally distributed between centre and states. No matter what is the condition, centre cannot legislate on the matter of state list. Union legislature alone has the power to legislate on Concurrent list. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect - in India economic and financial power is not equally distributed between centre and the state, it is more centralised in the hands of the central government. Statement 2 is incorrect - if the move is ratified by the Rajya sabha, central government can legislate on the matter of state list. Statement 3 is incorrect – Residuary powers goes with centre alone but on Concurrent list both centre and the state can legislate.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of division of power consider the following statements: In India economic and financial power is equally distributed between centre and states. No matter what is the condition, centre cannot legislate on the matter of state list. Union legislature alone has the power to legislate on Concurrent list. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 3##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect - in India economic and financial power is not equally distributed between centre and the state, it is more centralised in the hands of the central government. Statement 2 is incorrect - if the move is ratified by the Rajya sabha, central government can legislate on the matter of state list. Statement 3 is incorrect – Residuary powers goes with centre alone but on Concurrent list both centre and the state can legislate.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following ideas and concepts in the context of Federalism:
Dual system of governance is one of the concepts of Federalism.
The Parliament of India has the power to resolve dispute between centre and states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - dual system of governance exist in it, one at the regional level and the other at national level.
Statement 2 is incorrect - Judiciary has the power to resolve disputes between the central government and the States on the legal matter.
|
a
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following ideas and concepts in the context of Federalism:
Dual system of governance is one of the concepts of Federalism.
The Parliament of India has the power to resolve dispute between centre and states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct - dual system of governance exist in it, one at the regional level and the other at national level.
Statement 2 is incorrect - Judiciary has the power to resolve disputes between the central government and the States on the legal matter.
##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
In the context of federalism in our Indian perspective, consider the following statements:
Our constitution explicitly mentions the term federal in preamble.
Federalism becomes more important if a wide diversity exist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 both
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: the constitution o f India does not even mention the word federalism.
Statement 2 is correct :diversity needed recognition .our Indian federalism recognize our diversity.
|
b
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
In the context of federalism in our Indian perspective, consider the following statements:
Our constitution explicitly mentions the term federal in preamble.
Federalism becomes more important if a wide diversity exist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 both
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: the constitution o f India does not even mention the word federalism.
Statement 2 is correct :diversity needed recognition .our Indian federalism recognize our diversity.
##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
In the context of federalism consider these statements:
Federalism consist of a set of fixed principles all over the world.
Centralisation of power is the basic feature of Federal state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect - Federalism does not consist of a set of fixed principles, which are applied, to different historical situations. Federalism has evolved differently in different situations.
Statement 2 is incorrect - federalism do believe in decentralization and division of power.
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
In the context of federalism consider these statements:
Federalism consist of a set of fixed principles all over the world.
Centralisation of power is the basic feature of Federal state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect - Federalism does not consist of a set of fixed principles, which are applied, to different historical situations. Federalism has evolved differently in different situations.
Statement 2 is incorrect - federalism do believe in decentralization and division of power.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the special powers to J&K consider the following statements: Only state can make laws on subjects in concurrent list. Constitutional amendments (under Art. 368) can only apply in concurrence with J&K government. The union government cannot impose a financial emergency in the State. Which of the statements given above is/are correc t?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists.
Statement 2 is correct: Amendments to the Indian Constitution (under Art. 368) can only apply in concurrence with the government of J&K.
Statement 3 is correct: The union government cannot impose a financial emergency in the State.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the special powers to J&K consider the following statements: Only state can make laws on subjects in concurrent list. Constitutional amendments (under Art. 368) can only apply in concurrence with J&K government. The union government cannot impose a financial emergency in the State. Which of the statements given above is/are correc t?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists.
Statement 2 is correct: Amendments to the Indian Constitution (under Art. 368) can only apply in concurrence with the government of J&K.
Statement 3 is correct: The union government cannot impose a financial emergency in the State.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the President rule.
The President's proclamation has to be ratified by Lok Sabha only.
Decision to impose President's rule can't be examined by the judiciary.
The Governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the State government and suspension or dissolution of State assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The President's proclamation has to be ratified by the Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Decision to impose President's rule can be examined by the judiciary.
Statement 3 is correct: The Governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the State government and suspension or dissolution of State assembly.
|
a
|
Emergency Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with reference to the President rule.
The President's proclamation has to be ratified by Lok Sabha only.
Decision to impose President's rule can't be examined by the judiciary.
The Governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the State government and suspension or dissolution of State assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The President's proclamation has to be ratified by the Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Decision to impose President's rule can be examined by the judiciary.
Statement 3 is correct: The Governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the State government and suspension or dissolution of State assembly.
##Topic:Emergency Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the executive powers of government as per the constitution:
Centre can give direction to the states on their executive functioning.
States can only take disciplinary action but can't remove all-India services officers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 257 (1): The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose.
Statement 2 is incorrect: all-India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of the States. Thus, an IAS officer who becomes the collector or an IPS officer who serves as the Commissioner of Police, are under the control of the central government. States can neither take disciplinary action nor can they remove these officers from service.
|
a
|
Center-State Administrative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the executive powers of government as per the constitution:
Centre can give direction to the states on their executive functioning.
States can only take disciplinary action but can't remove all-India services officers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 257 (1): The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose.
Statement 2 is incorrect: all-India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of the States. Thus, an IAS officer who becomes the collector or an IPS officer who serves as the Commissioner of Police, are under the control of the central government. States can neither take disciplinary action nor can they remove these officers from service.
##Topic:Center-State Administrative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding distribution of power in India:
Centre cannot change the boundary of any state without its prior permission.
Constitution provides sufficient revenue resource to states for its independent functioning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The very existence of a State including its territorial integrity is in the hands of Parliament. The Parliament is empowered to 'form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States…'. It can also alter the boundary of any State or even its name. The Constitution provides for some safeguards by way of securing the view of the concerned State legislature.
Statement 2 is incorrect: One of the important aspects of this division of powers is that economic and financial powers are centralised in the hands of the central government by the Constitution. The States have immense responsibilities but very meagre revenue sources Even during normal circumstances, the central government has very effective financial powers and responsibilities. In the first place, items generating revenue are under the control of the central government. Thus, the central government has many revenue sources and the States are mostly dependent on the grants and financial assistance from the centre.
|
d
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding distribution of power in India:
Centre cannot change the boundary of any state without its prior permission.
Constitution provides sufficient revenue resource to states for its independent functioning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The very existence of a State including its territorial integrity is in the hands of Parliament. The Parliament is empowered to 'form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States…'. It can also alter the boundary of any State or even its name. The Constitution provides for some safeguards by way of securing the view of the concerned State legislature.
Statement 2 is incorrect: One of the important aspects of this division of powers is that economic and financial powers are centralised in the hands of the central government by the Constitution. The States have immense responsibilities but very meagre revenue sources Even during normal circumstances, the central government has very effective financial powers and responsibilities. In the first place, items generating revenue are under the control of the central government. Thus, the central government has many revenue sources and the States are mostly dependent on the grants and financial assistance from the centre.
##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Indian federalism:
Indian constitution defines India as a federation of states.
According to constitution, the centre and states have equal right over residuary power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian constitution under article 1 defines India as a union of states.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Indian constitution, the centre has the complete authority over residuary power.
|
d
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Indian federalism:
Indian constitution defines India as a federation of states.
According to constitution, the centre and states have equal right over residuary power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian constitution under article 1 defines India as a union of states.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Indian constitution, the centre has the complete authority over residuary power.
##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are the necessary features of federation? Dual system of government Written constitution Independent judiciary Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 is correct: It provides for the dual system of government, one at the centre and one at the state level. 2 is correct: It requires written constitution, to clearly demarcate the power of centre and state. 3 is correct: It establishes independent judiciary, so as to resolve the disputes between the centre and state government.
|
d
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the necessary features of federation? Dual system of government Written constitution Independent judiciary Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1 is correct: It provides for the dual system of government, one at the centre and one at the state level. 2 is correct: It requires written constitution, to clearly demarcate the power of centre and state. 3 is correct: It establishes independent judiciary, so as to resolve the disputes between the centre and state government.##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding federation:
States in the federation can't disintegrate from the country.
Dual citizenship is the essential component of federation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: States in the federation may or may not cede from the country depending upon the type of federal structure the country has adopted. USSR was a federation but it got divided, Indian federal structure does not allow separation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Dual citizenship is not the essential component of federation. e.g in India we have single citizenship whereas USA has dual citizenship.
|
d
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding federation:
States in the federation can't disintegrate from the country.
Dual citizenship is the essential component of federation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: States in the federation may or may not cede from the country depending upon the type of federal structure the country has adopted. USSR was a federation but it got divided, Indian federal structure does not allow separation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Dual citizenship is not the essential component of federation. e.g in India we have single citizenship whereas USA has dual citizenship.
##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to basic structure of the Constitution, which of the following statements is/are correct?
It can be amended only through constitutional amendment.
Right to property is not a part of Basic Structure of the constitution.
The Supreme Court can change the matters included under basic structure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court ruled in Kesavananda Bharati case that there is a basic structure of the Constitution and nobody, not even the Parliament (through amendment), can violate the basic structure.
Statement 2 is correct. The Court also ruled that right to property is not part of basic structure and therefore can be suitably abridged.
Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme Court has reserved to itself the right to decide whether various matters are part of the basic structure of the Constitution. It shall be decided on case by case basis. Thus it can change the matters through subsequent judgements.
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to basic structure of the Constitution, which of the following statements is/are correct?
It can be amended only through constitutional amendment.
Right to property is not a part of Basic Structure of the constitution.
The Supreme Court can change the matters included under basic structure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court ruled in Kesavananda Bharati case that there is a basic structure of the Constitution and nobody, not even the Parliament (through amendment), can violate the basic structure.
Statement 2 is correct. The Court also ruled that right to property is not part of basic structure and therefore can be suitably abridged.
Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme Court has reserved to itself the right to decide whether various matters are part of the basic structure of the Constitution. It shall be decided on case by case basis. Thus it can change the matters through subsequent judgements.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Judicial Review, consider the following statements:
Only Supreme Court has power of Judicial Review in India.
The Supreme Court can review any judgement by any High Court.
The term Judicial Review is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Both Supreme Court and High Courts have power of Judicial Review in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. This is called Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Judicial Review means the power of the Supreme Court (or High Courts) to examine the constitutionality of any law. If the Court arrives at the conclusion that the law is inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution, such a law is declared as unconstitutional and inapplicable.
Statement 3 is correct. The term judicial review is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. However, the fact that India has a written constitution and the Supreme Court or High Courts can strike down a law that goes against fundamental rights, implicitly gives Higher Judiciary the power of judicial review.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Judicial Review, consider the following statements:
Only Supreme Court has power of Judicial Review in India.
The Supreme Court can review any judgement by any High Court.
The term Judicial Review is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Both Supreme Court and High Courts have power of Judicial Review in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. This is called Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Judicial Review means the power of the Supreme Court (or High Courts) to examine the constitutionality of any law. If the Court arrives at the conclusion that the law is inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution, such a law is declared as unconstitutional and inapplicable.
Statement 3 is correct. The term judicial review is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. However, the fact that India has a written constitution and the Supreme Court or High Courts can strike down a law that goes against fundamental rights, implicitly gives Higher Judiciary the power of judicial review.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
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