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Which of the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy is/are correct ?
1. They resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ mentioned in the Govt of India Act, 1935.
2. It shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws as they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; Both 1 and 2
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as the Govt. of India Act, 1935 had enumerated the ‘’Instrument of Instructions’ which were issued to the Governor General of India and the Governors of provinces by the British Government .The difference is that the DPSP’s want to achieve a “welfare state” while the Instruments of Instructions wanted to establish a “police state”.
Statement 2 is correct because it has been clearly mentioned in Article 37 of the Constitution under which though the state is not bound to implement the DPSP's but it is duty bound to apply the principles laid down in them while making laws..
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy is/are correct ?
1. They resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ mentioned in the Govt of India Act, 1935.
2. It shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws as they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; Both 1 and 2
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as the Govt. of India Act, 1935 had enumerated the ‘’Instrument of Instructions’ which were issued to the Governor General of India and the Governors of provinces by the British Government .The difference is that the DPSP’s want to achieve a “welfare state” while the Instruments of Instructions wanted to establish a “police state”.
Statement 2 is correct because it has been clearly mentioned in Article 37 of the Constitution under which though the state is not bound to implement the DPSP's but it is duty bound to apply the principles laid down in them while making laws..
##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy? To promote voluntary formation and democratic control of co-operative societies. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life. To provide free medical facilities to all the citizens of the country. To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as expressed in the Article 43 B of the Constitution added after 97 th Amendment. Statement 2 is correct as expressed in Article 48 A of the Constitution added after the 42 nd Amendment. Statement 3 is not correct as the DPSP's talks of providing health and care for workers and children under Article 39 of the Constitution but do not mention of free medical facilities. Statement 4 is correct as expressed in Article 48 of the Constitution.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy? To promote voluntary formation and democratic control of co-operative societies. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life. To provide free medical facilities to all the citizens of the country. To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as expressed in the Article 43 B of the Constitution added after 97 th Amendment. Statement 2 is correct as expressed in Article 48 A of the Constitution added after the 42 nd Amendment. Statement 3 is not correct as the DPSP's talks of providing health and care for workers and children under Article 39 of the Constitution but do not mention of free medical facilities. Statement 4 is correct as expressed in Article 48 of the Constitution.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following constitutional bodies reports are tabled by the Governor before the state legislature for discussion? State Finance Commission State Public Service Commission State Election Commission CAG report pertaining to finances of state Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Governor of a state tabled the following reports before the state legislature for discussion State Finance Commission State Public Service Commission CAG report pertaining to finances of state No report of state election commission is being table by Governor before the state assembly.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following constitutional bodies reports are tabled by the Governor before the state legislature for discussion? State Finance Commission State Public Service Commission State Election Commission CAG report pertaining to finances of state Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Governor of a state tabled the following reports before the state legislature for discussion State Finance Commission State Public Service Commission CAG report pertaining to finances of state No report of state election commission is being table by Governor before the state assembly.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Constitution makers, refrained from giving legal enforceability to the Directive Principles of State Policy because:
|
They believed in an awakened public opinion as the ultimate sanction for the fulfillment of these principles.
|
The essential rights of the citizens had been guaranteed through the Fundamental Rights.
|
They knew that these were ideals that could never be implemented in such a diverse country.
|
They believed in an awakened public opinion as the ultimate sanction for the fulfillment of these principles.
|
Statement ( a ) is correct because the Constitution makers believed that a State which was elected by people can hardly ever ignore these ideals. Since there were difficulties owing to the lack of resources, vastness and diversity of the country, they left it on the wisdom of the people to get these ideals enforced as laws in due course of time. Statement ( b ) is not correct as the DPSP's tried to ensure a welfare state in addition to the Rights already guaranteed in the FR's. Statement ( c ) is not correct because they were aware that it was difficult to implement them at the time of independence. However, they believed that it will be possible in the future. Statement ( d ) is not correct as lack of resources was a problem at the time of independence but was never considered as a problem to be perpetual.
|
a
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Constitution makers, refrained from giving legal enforceability to the Directive Principles of State Policy because:##Option_A:They believed in an awakened public opinion as the ultimate sanction for the fulfillment of these principles.###Option_B:The essential rights of the citizens had been guaranteed through the Fundamental Rights.##Option_C:They knew that these were ideals that could never be implemented in such a diverse country.##Option_D:They believed in an awakened public opinion as the ultimate sanction for the fulfillment of these principles.##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement ( a ) is correct because the Constitution makers believed that a State which was elected by people can hardly ever ignore these ideals. Since there were difficulties owing to the lack of resources, vastness and diversity of the country, they left it on the wisdom of the people to get these ideals enforced as laws in due course of time. Statement ( b ) is not correct as the DPSP's tried to ensure a welfare state in addition to the Rights already guaranteed in the FR's. Statement ( c ) is not correct because they were aware that it was difficult to implement them at the time of independence. However, they believed that it will be possible in the future. Statement ( d ) is not correct as lack of resources was a problem at the time of independence but was never considered as a problem to be perpetual.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission.
1. It is a statutory body.
2. The members hold office at the pleasure of the President.
3. It presents its annual report to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Incorrect. CVC is a multi member body consisting of Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than 2 vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the President. They hold office for a term of 4 years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier. Hence they do not hold office at the pleasure of President.
Statement 2 is Correct. CVC presents annually to the President a report on its performance.
Statement 3 is Correct. Originally CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. In September, 2003, the parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
|
c
|
Central Vigilance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission.
1. It is a statutory body.
2. The members hold office at the pleasure of the President.
3. It presents its annual report to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Incorrect. CVC is a multi member body consisting of Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than 2 vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the President. They hold office for a term of 4 years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier. Hence they do not hold office at the pleasure of President.
Statement 2 is Correct. CVC presents annually to the President a report on its performance.
Statement 3 is Correct. Originally CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. In September, 2003, the parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
##Topic:Central Vigilance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The Directive Principles of State Policy have often been criticized by Constitutional experts because : They are not legally enforceable. They override the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution. They can create constitutional conflicts between the Centre and the states. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as the DPSP's are not legally enforceable since they do not bind the State. Statement 2 is not correct as the DPSP's can't override the Fundamental Rights. Statement 3 is correct. The Centre can give directions to the states with regard to the implementation of these principles, and in case of non-compliance, can dismiss the state government. This can lead to a constitutional conflict between the Centre and the states.
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Directive Principles of State Policy have often been criticized by Constitutional experts because : They are not legally enforceable. They override the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution. They can create constitutional conflicts between the Centre and the states. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as the DPSP's are not legally enforceable since they do not bind the State. Statement 2 is not correct as the DPSP's can't override the Fundamental Rights. Statement 3 is correct. The Centre can give directions to the states with regard to the implementation of these principles, and in case of non-compliance, can dismiss the state government. This can lead to a constitutional conflict between the Centre and the states. ##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission: It can suo-motu inquire into any violation of human rights. It has power to punish violators of human rights. It cannot award monetary relief to the victims. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. One of the functions of the commission is to inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo-motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of court. Statement 2 is Incorrect. The recommendations of the commission are mainly advisory in nature. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights. Statement 3 is correct. It has no power to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
|
b
|
NHRC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission: It can suo-motu inquire into any violation of human rights. It has power to punish violators of human rights. It cannot award monetary relief to the victims. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. One of the functions of the commission is to inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo-motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of court. Statement 2 is Incorrect. The recommendations of the commission are mainly advisory in nature. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights. Statement 3 is correct. It has no power to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.##Topic:NHRC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Q. With reference to union territories consider the following statements:
1. Union territories are not part of union of India.
2. Union territories represent clear departure from federalism in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
nbsp; Only 1
|
nbsp; Only 2
|
nbsp; Both 1 and 2
|
nbsp; Only 1
|
Statement 1 is correct as union of India included only states while territory of India includes not only states but also Union territories and also any territory that India may acquire in future.
Statement 2 is also correct as UTs are administered directly by centre not local government so it represents departure from federalism which envisages the decentralisation of power.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q. With reference to union territories consider the following statements:
1. Union territories are not part of union of India.
2. Union territories represent clear departure from federalism in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A:nbsp; Only 1
###Option_B:nbsp; Only 2
##Option_C:nbsp; Both 1 and 2
##Option_D:nbsp; Only 1
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as union of India included only states while territory of India includes not only states but also Union territories and also any territory that India may acquire in future.
Statement 2 is also correct as UTs are administered directly by centre not local government so it represents departure from federalism which envisages the decentralisation of power.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to union territories consider the following statements: Union territories are not part of union of India under Article 1 of the Constitution. Union territories are not part of federal system in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ which includes only states not Union Territories. However the territory of India includes not only states but also Union territories and also any territory that India may acquire in future. Statement 2 is also correct as states are member of federal system and share a distribution of power with centre. On the other hand Union territories are directly administered by centre.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to union territories consider the following statements: Union territories are not part of union of India under Article 1 of the Constitution. Union territories are not part of federal system in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ which includes only states not Union Territories. However the territory of India includes not only states but also Union territories and also any territory that India may acquire in future. Statement 2 is also correct as states are member of federal system and share a distribution of power with centre. On the other hand Union territories are directly administered by centre. ##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are the reasons for creating Union Territories in India? Cultural distinctiveness Strategic importance The interest of tribal people Administrative consideration Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Union Territories in India have been created for a variety of reasons. These are mentioned below: Political and administrative consideration-Delhi and Chandigarh. Cultural distinctiveness -Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu. Strategic importance- Andaman and the Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people-Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh which later became states. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the reasons for creating Union Territories in India? Cultural distinctiveness Strategic importance The interest of tribal people Administrative consideration Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:1 and 4 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Union Territories in India have been created for a variety of reasons. These are mentioned below: Political and administrative consideration-Delhi and Chandigarh. Cultural distinctiveness -Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu. Strategic importance- Andaman and the Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people-Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh which later became states. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with reference to administration of Union Territories in India. Unlike the Governor of a state, an administrator of a Union Territory is not a constitutional head. Governor of a state, who is also administrator of adjoining union territory, in that capacity has to act on advice of council of ministers. Constitutional provision for administration of union territory also applies to any acquired territories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. An administrator of a UT is considered as an agent of president not the constitutional head of the state like a Governor. Statement 2 is incorrect as governor who is also administrator of adjoining UT has to act independently of his council of minister in that capacity. Statement 3 is correct as constitution does not contain any specific provision for administration of acquired territories. But the constitution provision for the administration of UT also applies to any acquired territory.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to administration of Union Territories in India. Unlike the Governor of a state, an administrator of a Union Territory is not a constitutional head. Governor of a state, who is also administrator of adjoining union territory, in that capacity has to act on advice of council of ministers. Constitutional provision for administration of union territory also applies to any acquired territories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. An administrator of a UT is considered as an agent of president not the constitutional head of the state like a Governor. Statement 2 is incorrect as governor who is also administrator of adjoining UT has to act independently of his council of minister in that capacity. Statement 3 is correct as constitution does not contain any specific provision for administration of acquired territories. But the constitution provision for the administration of UT also applies to any acquired territory.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the teachings of Adi Sankaracharya? He proposed the doctrine of Dvaita Vedanta. On the subject of Atman (soul), his teachings are at variance with Buddhism. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Dvaita Vedanta sub-school was founded by the 13th-century scholar Madhvacharya. Adi Sankaracharya was a proponent of Advaita Vedanta. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. He explained the key difference between Hinduism and Buddhism, stating that Hinduism asserts "Atman (Soul, Self) exists", while Buddhist concept of Annata is at variance with it . Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the teachings of Adi Sankaracharya? He proposed the doctrine of Dvaita Vedanta. On the subject of Atman (soul), his teachings are at variance with Buddhism. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Dvaita Vedanta sub-school was founded by the 13th-century scholar Madhvacharya. Adi Sankaracharya was a proponent of Advaita Vedanta. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. He explained the key difference between Hinduism and Buddhism, stating that Hinduism asserts "Atman (Soul, Self) exists", while Buddhist concept of Annata is at variance with it . Hence, statement 2 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Satyagraha Leader 1. Mahad Satyagraha : Sarojini Naidu 2. Vedaranyam Satyagraha : C. Rajgopalachari 3. Bardoli Satyagraha : Vallabhai Patel Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Mahad Satyagraha was a satyagraha led by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on 20 March 1927 to allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad (currently in Kolba district), Maharasthra, India. The Vedaranyam March or Vedaranyam Satyagraha was organised to protest the salt tax imposed by the British Raj in India. The march took place in April 1930 and was the second of its kind following the Dandi March organised by Mahatma Gandhi, both in the framework of the Civil Disobedience Movement.The march was led by a group of 100 volunteers from the Indian National Congress (INC) under the leadership of C. Rajagopalachari-often referred to as "Rajaji". It began at Trichinopoly (now Tiruchirappalli) and ended in Vedaranyam, a small coastal town in Tanjore District The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, in the state of Gujarat, India during the period of the British Raj, was a major episode of civil disobedience and revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. The movement was eventually led by Vallabhbhai Patel, and its success gave rise to Patel becoming one of the main leaders of the independence movement.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Satyagraha Leader 1. Mahad Satyagraha : Sarojini Naidu 2. Vedaranyam Satyagraha : C. Rajgopalachari 3. Bardoli Satyagraha : Vallabhai Patel Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Mahad Satyagraha was a satyagraha led by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on 20 March 1927 to allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad (currently in Kolba district), Maharasthra, India. The Vedaranyam March or Vedaranyam Satyagraha was organised to protest the salt tax imposed by the British Raj in India. The march took place in April 1930 and was the second of its kind following the Dandi March organised by Mahatma Gandhi, both in the framework of the Civil Disobedience Movement.The march was led by a group of 100 volunteers from the Indian National Congress (INC) under the leadership of C. Rajagopalachari-often referred to as "Rajaji". It began at Trichinopoly (now Tiruchirappalli) and ended in Vedaranyam, a small coastal town in Tanjore District The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, in the state of Gujarat, India during the period of the British Raj, was a major episode of civil disobedience and revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. The movement was eventually led by Vallabhbhai Patel, and its success gave rise to Patel becoming one of the main leaders of the independence movement.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the Union Territory of Delhi: The chief minister is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor. The legislative assembly can make laws on all the matters of state list. The strength of the Council of Ministers is fixed at 15 per cent of the total strength of the assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as chief minister of Delhi is appointed by president not by lieutenant governor. Statement 2 is incorrect as Assembly can make laws on all matters of state and concurrent list except three matters of state list public order, police and land. Statement 3 is also incorrect as 69 th constitutional amendment act has fixed the strength of council of minister at 10% of total strength of legislative assembly
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Union Territory of Delhi: The chief minister is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor. The legislative assembly can make laws on all the matters of state list. The strength of the Council of Ministers is fixed at 15 per cent of the total strength of the assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect as chief minister of Delhi is appointed by president not by lieutenant governor. Statement 2 is incorrect as Assembly can make laws on all matters of state and concurrent list except three matters of state list public order, police and land. Statement 3 is also incorrect as 69 th constitutional amendment act has fixed the strength of council of minister at 10% of total strength of legislative assembly##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with regard to Scheduled Areas under the fifth schedule: 1. President must take consent of Governor of concerned state before declaring a Scheduled Area in that state. 2. Centre can give directions to the states regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas. 3. Tribal Advisory Council cannot be established in a state which does not have Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as president is empowered to declare an area scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area. Although he it is done after consultation with the governor of concerned state. Statement 2 is correct as executive power of centre extends to giving direction to state regarding administration of scheduled areas. Statement 3 is incorrect as tribal advisory council can be established in a state having scheduled tribe but not scheduled areas if president direct for the same.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Scheduled Areas under the fifth schedule: 1. President must take consent of Governor of concerned state before declaring a Scheduled Area in that state. 2. Centre can give directions to the states regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas. 3. Tribal Advisory Council cannot be established in a state which does not have Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect as president is empowered to declare an area scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area. Although he it is done after consultation with the governor of concerned state. Statement 2 is correct as executive power of centre extends to giving direction to state regarding administration of scheduled areas. Statement 3 is incorrect as tribal advisory council can be established in a state having scheduled tribe but not scheduled areas if president direct for the same. ##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Fifth schedule deals with the administration and control of the scheduled areas of every state. States having scheduled areas have to establish a tribes advisory council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as fifth schedule provision extends to scheduled areas of any state except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Thus 6th schedule deals with the administration of Tribal areas in these 4 states. Statement 2 is correct as it is constitutional provision under the fifth schedule that after president declares an area schedule area, such state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of scheduled tribes.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Fifth schedule deals with the administration and control of the scheduled areas of every state. States having scheduled areas have to establish a tribes advisory council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect as fifth schedule provision extends to scheduled areas of any state except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Thus 6th schedule deals with the administration of Tribal areas in these 4 states. Statement 2 is correct as it is constitutional provision under the fifth schedule that after president declares an area schedule area, such state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of scheduled tribes.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policies is/are correct ?
1. They are enumerated in the Part V of the Indian Constitution.
2. They aim to establish a ‘welfare state’.
3. The idea of the Directive Principles has been borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as the Directive Principles are enumerated in Part IV of the constitution while Part V contains the provisions related to the union.
Statement 2 is correct as the DPSP’s are aimed at establishing a ‘Welfare State’ rather than a police state which existed in the colonial era.
Statement 3 is not correct as the idea of the DPSP’s was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937.The DPSP’s though are similar to the Instrument of Instructions in the Government of India Act, 1935.
|
a
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policies is/are correct ?
1. They are enumerated in the Part V of the Indian Constitution.
2. They aim to establish a ‘welfare state’.
3. The idea of the Directive Principles has been borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct as the Directive Principles are enumerated in Part IV of the constitution while Part V contains the provisions related to the union.
Statement 2 is correct as the DPSP’s are aimed at establishing a ‘Welfare State’ rather than a police state which existed in the colonial era.
Statement 3 is not correct as the idea of the DPSP’s was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937.The DPSP’s though are similar to the Instrument of Instructions in the Government of India Act, 1935.
##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following bodies/commission come under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions?
1. Central Information Commission
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. Central Bureau of Investigation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. CIC falls under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
Statement 2 is Correct. CVC falls under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
Statement 3 is Correct. CBI falls under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
|
d
|
Central Information Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following bodies/commission come under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions?
1. Central Information Commission
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. Central Bureau of Investigation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Correct. CIC falls under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
Statement 2 is Correct. CVC falls under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
Statement 3 is Correct. CBI falls under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
##Topic:Central Information Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The fundamental objective of the residuary power of the Indian Parliament is to ensure which among the following? Uniformity of legislation nationwide Supremacy of the Parliament over state legislatures Formulation of laws on any matters not mentioned in State List and Concurrent List. The Parliamentary system of government in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : For uniformity of legislation nationwide parliament make laws on matter present in Union list and concurrent list. Statement 2 is not correct : This is not the main objective as the constitution provides clear cut distribution of legislative powers between the centre and the states. Statement 3 is correct : Article 248 says that the parliament has exclusive power to make laws on matters not present in union list, State list and Concurrent list. Statement 4 is not correct : There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha. It has nothing to do with residuary power of the Parliament.
|
c
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The fundamental objective of the residuary power of the Indian Parliament is to ensure which among the following? Uniformity of legislation nationwide Supremacy of the Parliament over state legislatures Formulation of laws on any matters not mentioned in State List and Concurrent List. The Parliamentary system of government in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : For uniformity of legislation nationwide parliament make laws on matter present in Union list and concurrent list. Statement 2 is not correct : This is not the main objective as the constitution provides clear cut distribution of legislative powers between the centre and the states. Statement 3 is correct : Article 248 says that the parliament has exclusive power to make laws on matters not present in union list, State list and Concurrent list. Statement 4 is not correct : There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha. It has nothing to do with residuary power of the Parliament.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following bodies submit their annual report to the President? Central Information Commission (CIC) National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
Central Information Commission (CIC) submits an annual report to the Central Government which places the report before each houses of the parliament. National Human Rights Commission(NHRC) submits its annual or special report to the Central Government and to the State Government concerned. These reports are laid before respective legislatures, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any such recommendations. Among the given bodies, it is only the CVC which presents its annual report to the President. Hence only option 3 is correct.
|
a
|
Central Vigilance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following bodies submit their annual report to the President? Central Information Commission (CIC) National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Central Information Commission (CIC) submits an annual report to the Central Government which places the report before each houses of the parliament. National Human Rights Commission(NHRC) submits its annual or special report to the Central Government and to the State Government concerned. These reports are laid before respective legislatures, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any such recommendations. Among the given bodies, it is only the CVC which presents its annual report to the President. Hence only option 3 is correct.##Topic:Central Vigilance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): It was formed under the aegis of UN Human Rights Council. It has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigating into complaints. It can only look into matter of Human rights violation within 1 year of its occurrence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Incorrect. NHRC is a statutory body and not a constitutional body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the parliament, namely, the Prevention of Human Rights Act, 1993. Statement 2 is Correct. NHRC has its own nucleus of investigation staff for investigation into complaints of human rights violations. Statement 3 is Correct. The commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.
|
c
|
NHRC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): It was formed under the aegis of UN Human Rights Council. It has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigating into complaints. It can only look into matter of Human rights violation within 1 year of its occurrence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination: Statement 1 is Incorrect. NHRC is a statutory body and not a constitutional body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the parliament, namely, the Prevention of Human Rights Act, 1993. Statement 2 is Correct. NHRC has its own nucleus of investigation staff for investigation into complaints of human rights violations. Statement 3 is Correct. The commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.##Topic:NHRC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The Chairman or Members of State Human Rights Commission can be removed in which of the following manner?
|
By the Governor after referring the matter to the High Court for an inquiry.
|
By the President after consulting with the Governor and Chief Minister of the state.
|
By the President after referring the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry.
|
By the Governor after referring the matter to the High Court for an inquiry.
|
The Chairman and Members hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. After their tenure, the Chairman and Members are not eligible for further employment under the central or state government. The Chairman and members can be removed by the President if he is adjudged insolvent, if he is of unsound mind, takes up paid employment outside the duties of the office. In these cases the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the inquiry upholds the cause of removal and advices so, then the President can remove the Chairman or a Member.
|
c
|
State Human Rights Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Chairman or Members of State Human Rights Commission can be removed in which of the following manner?##Option_A: By the Governor after referring the matter to the High Court for an inquiry.###Option_B: By the President after consulting with the Governor and Chief Minister of the state.##Option_C: By the President after referring the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry.##Option_D: By the Governor after referring the matter to the High Court for an inquiry.##Answer:c##Explaination:The Chairman and Members hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. After their tenure, the Chairman and Members are not eligible for further employment under the central or state government. The Chairman and members can be removed by the President if he is adjudged insolvent, if he is of unsound mind, takes up paid employment outside the duties of the office. In these cases the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the inquiry upholds the cause of removal and advices so, then the President can remove the Chairman or a Member.##Topic:State Human Rights Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements, regarding SPSC:
1. Its member is appointed and removed by Governor.
2. Its member hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years .
3. Conditions of service of its member are determined by governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect : Its member is appointed by governor but removed by President.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Its member hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years. (65 years is for UPSC)
Statement 3 is correct : Conditions of service of its member are determined by governor.
|
a
|
SPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements, regarding SPSC:
1. Its member is appointed and removed by Governor.
2. Its member hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years .
3. Conditions of service of its member are determined by governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect : Its member is appointed by governor but removed by President.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Its member hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years. (65 years is for UPSC)
Statement 3 is correct : Conditions of service of its member are determined by governor.
##Topic:SPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements: Salary, allowance and pension of UPSC members are charged upon consolidated fund of India. The UPSC chairman can be removed on the grounds and in the manner similar to the judge of Supreme Court. The chairman or a member of UPSC is not eligible for second term. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Salary, allowance and pension of UPSC members are charged on consolidated fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect The UPSC chairman can be removed on the grounds and in the manner prescribed in the article 317 of the constitution of India. He/she shall be removed after the President refers the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. Statement 3 is correct: The chairman or a member of UPSC (after having completed his first term) is not eligible for reappointment to that office (i.e., not eligible for second term).
|
c
|
UPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements: Salary, allowance and pension of UPSC members are charged upon consolidated fund of India. The UPSC chairman can be removed on the grounds and in the manner similar to the judge of Supreme Court. The chairman or a member of UPSC is not eligible for second term. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Salary, allowance and pension of UPSC members are charged on consolidated fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect The UPSC chairman can be removed on the grounds and in the manner prescribed in the article 317 of the constitution of India. He/she shall be removed after the President refers the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. Statement 3 is correct: The chairman or a member of UPSC (after having completed his first term) is not eligible for reappointment to that office (i.e., not eligible for second term).##Topic:UPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statement:
1. Each state constitute State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to Panchayati Raj institutions.
2. It ensures transparency in financial administration.
3. Its chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Each state constitute State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to Panchayati Raj institutions
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has no power to ensure transparency in financial administration. It has a advisory role and its recommendations are not binding in nature. It has no jurisdiction over budgetary provisions also.
Statement 3 is correct: Its chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs.It has one chairman and four other members.
The qualification of other four members are:
1. A judge of HC or one qualified to be appointed as one
2. A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
3. A person who has wide experiance in financial matters and in administration.
4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.
|
b
|
Finance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statement:
1. Each state constitute State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to Panchayati Raj institutions.
2. It ensures transparency in financial administration.
3. Its chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Each state constitute State Finance Commission to allocate revenue to Panchayati Raj institutions
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has no power to ensure transparency in financial administration. It has a advisory role and its recommendations are not binding in nature. It has no jurisdiction over budgetary provisions also.
Statement 3 is correct: Its chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs.It has one chairman and four other members.
The qualification of other four members are:
1. A judge of HC or one qualified to be appointed as one
2. A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
3. A person who has wide experiance in financial matters and in administration.
4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.
##Topic:Finance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. He is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of a selection committee.
2. He monitors and investigate all the matters pertaining to safeguarding the Linguistic Minorities under the constitution.
2. He works under the aegies of Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution provides that the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.
Statement 2 is correct : Article 350-B furthur provides that it is the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957. He is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities.At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence, he submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister.
|
c
|
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. He is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of a selection committee.
2. He monitors and investigate all the matters pertaining to safeguarding the Linguistic Minorities under the constitution.
2. He works under the aegies of Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution provides that the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.
Statement 2 is correct : Article 350-B furthur provides that it is the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957. He is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities.At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence, he submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister.
##Topic:Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Linguistic Minorities: The status of the Linguistic Minority is conferred by the Central Government. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional body. The Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities work under the aegis of Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Linguistic minority is defined on a state wise basis. It is a group of people whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority in the state or part of a state. Statement 2 is correct: It is a constitutional body. It was inserted as Art. 350-B in the constitution on the recommendation of State Reorganization Commission(1953-55). Statement 3 is incorrect: Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities work under the aegis of Ministry of Minority Affairs.
|
c
|
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Linguistic Minorities: The status of the Linguistic Minority is conferred by the Central Government. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional body. The Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities work under the aegis of Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Linguistic minority is defined on a state wise basis. It is a group of people whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority in the state or part of a state. Statement 2 is correct: It is a constitutional body. It was inserted as Art. 350-B in the constitution on the recommendation of State Reorganization Commission(1953-55). Statement 3 is incorrect: Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities work under the aegis of Ministry of Minority Affairs.##Topic:Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India: He must be qualified to be a judge of the Supreme court. Article 76 provides the procedure for his removal. He has to resign when the Council of Ministers is dissolved. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Statement 3 is incorrect: Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice. However, it is not mandatory for him.
|
a
|
Attorney General of India
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India: He must be qualified to be a judge of the Supreme court. Article 76 provides the procedure for his removal. He has to resign when the Council of Ministers is dissolved. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Statement 3 is incorrect: Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice. However, it is not mandatory for him.##Topic:Attorney General of India##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements: He has the right to audience in all the courts in India. He can be nominated as a member of any committees of the Parliament. He can attend the proceedings of Parliament and can vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: He has the right to audience in all courts in the territory of India. He appears on behalf of government of India in all cases in the Supreme Court in which the Government of India is concerned. Statement 2 is correct: He can be nominated as a member of a committee of the Parliament. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect: He has right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the houses of Parliament or their joint sitting -+but without a right to vote.
|
a
|
Attorney General of India
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements: He has the right to audience in all the courts in India. He can be nominated as a member of any committees of the Parliament. He can attend the proceedings of Parliament and can vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: He has the right to audience in all courts in the territory of India. He appears on behalf of government of India in all cases in the Supreme Court in which the Government of India is concerned. Statement 2 is correct: He can be nominated as a member of a committee of the Parliament. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect: He has right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the houses of Parliament or their joint sitting -+but without a right to vote.##Topic:Attorney General of India##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney general:
He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.
He is a full time counsel for the government and thus debarred from private legal practice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the houses of parliament or their joint sitting but without a right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect: He is not a full time counsel for the government. He does not fall in the category of government servants and is not debarred from private legal practice.
Limitations:
1. He should not defend criminal case without premission of government.
2. He should not accept appointment as a director in any company or corporation without permission of the government.
|
a
|
Attorney General of India
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney general:
He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.
He is a full time counsel for the government and thus debarred from private legal practice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the houses of parliament or their joint sitting but without a right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect: He is not a full time counsel for the government. He does not fall in the category of government servants and is not debarred from private legal practice.
Limitations:
1. He should not defend criminal case without premission of government.
2. He should not accept appointment as a director in any company or corporation without permission of the government.
##Topic:Attorney General of India##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Advocate general, consider the following statements: He is appointed by governor but removed by President. His term of office is not fixed by the constitution. He can become member of a committee of the state legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: He is appointed and removed by governor .He must be qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court.
Statement 2 is correct: His term is not fixed by the constitution.The constitution does not contain procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the governor.
Statement 3 is correct: He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the state legislature or any committee of the state legislature of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote.
|
b
|
Advocate General of the State
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Advocate general, consider the following statements: He is appointed by governor but removed by President. His term of office is not fixed by the constitution. He can become member of a committee of the state legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: He is appointed and removed by governor .He must be qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court.
Statement 2 is correct: His term is not fixed by the constitution.The constitution does not contain procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the governor.
Statement 3 is correct: He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the state legislature or any committee of the state legislature of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote.
##Topic:Advocate General of the State##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), consider the following statements: His salary and service conditions are determined by Parliament. Administrative expenses of the office of the CAG are charged upon the consolidated fund of India. He can be removed from the office only for violation of constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : His salary and other service conditions are determined by Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave absence, pension or age of retirement can be altered to his dis advantage after his appointment. Statement 2 is correct : Administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pension of persons serving in that office are charged upon the consolidated fund of India.Thus they are not subject to the vote of Parliament. Statement 3 is not correct : He can be removed by President on same grounds and in the same manner as ajudge of the Supreme Court, i.e. he can be removed by the President on the basis of the resolution passed to that effect by both the houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
|
a
|
CAG
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), consider the following statements: His salary and service conditions are determined by Parliament. Administrative expenses of the office of the CAG are charged upon the consolidated fund of India. He can be removed from the office only for violation of constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : His salary and other service conditions are determined by Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave absence, pension or age of retirement can be altered to his dis advantage after his appointment. Statement 2 is correct : Administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pension of persons serving in that office are charged upon the consolidated fund of India.Thus they are not subject to the vote of Parliament. Statement 3 is not correct : He can be removed by President on same grounds and in the same manner as ajudge of the Supreme Court, i.e. he can be removed by the President on the basis of the resolution passed to that effect by both the houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. ##Topic:CAG##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements: He submits his audit report to the President and the Governor of the concerned state. He compiles and maintain accounts of centre and states. He conducts audit of expenditure on behalf of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: He submits his audit report to the President and the Governor of the concerned state. (Art. 151) Statement 2 is incorrect: Earlier the CAG compiled and maintained the accounts of both centre and states. In 1976, he was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the Central Government due to the separation of accounts from audit, i.e. departmentalisation of accounts. Presently he compiles and maintains the accounts of states alone. For the centre it is done by accounts department. Statement 3 is correct: He conduct audit of expenditure on behalf of the Parliament.
|
b
|
CAG
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements: He submits his audit report to the President and the Governor of the concerned state. He compiles and maintain accounts of centre and states. He conducts audit of expenditure on behalf of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: He submits his audit report to the President and the Governor of the concerned state. (Art. 151) Statement 2 is incorrect: Earlier the CAG compiled and maintained the accounts of both centre and states. In 1976, he was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the Central Government due to the separation of accounts from audit, i.e. departmentalisation of accounts. Presently he compiles and maintains the accounts of states alone. For the centre it is done by accounts department. Statement 3 is correct: He conduct audit of expenditure on behalf of the Parliament.##Topic:CAG##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which among the following is/are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? Accounts and expenditure of Reserve Bank of India Accounts and expenditure of Food Corporation of India Secret Service expenditures Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited. Some corporations are totally subjected to private audit. Their audit is done exclusively by private professional auditors and the CAG does not come into the picture at all. They submit their annual reports and accounts directly to the Parliament. Examples of such corporations are Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of India, State Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, and others. The secret service expenditure is a limitation on the auditing role of the CAG. In this regard, the CAG cannot call for particulars of expenditure incurred by the executive agencies, but has to accept a certificate from the competent administrative authority that the expenditure has been so incurred under his authority.
|
d
|
CAG
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is/are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? Accounts and expenditure of Reserve Bank of India Accounts and expenditure of Food Corporation of India Secret Service expenditures Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited. Some corporations are totally subjected to private audit. Their audit is done exclusively by private professional auditors and the CAG does not come into the picture at all. They submit their annual reports and accounts directly to the Parliament. Examples of such corporations are Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of India, State Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, and others. The secret service expenditure is a limitation on the auditing role of the CAG. In this regard, the CAG cannot call for particulars of expenditure incurred by the executive agencies, but has to accept a certificate from the competent administrative authority that the expenditure has been so incurred under his authority.##Topic:CAG##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced which of the following provisions for the first time in India? Power to issue ordinances in Indian administration Nomination of Indians as non-official members to Viceroy"s council The new office of Secretary of State for India Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Indian Councils Act of 1861 empowered Viceroys to issue ordinances without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was 6 months. Statement 2 is correct. It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council-the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala, and Sir Dinkar Rao. Statement 3 is not correct. The office was created under the provisions of the Act of 1858 (Act for Good Governance of India)
|
b
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced which of the following provisions for the first time in India? Power to issue ordinances in Indian administration Nomination of Indians as non-official members to Viceroy"s council The new office of Secretary of State for India Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:1 and 2 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Indian Councils Act of 1861 empowered Viceroys to issue ordinances without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was 6 months. Statement 2 is correct. It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council-the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala, and Sir Dinkar Rao. Statement 3 is not correct. The office was created under the provisions of the Act of 1858 (Act for Good Governance of India)##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Government of India Act of 1919?
|
It divided the provincial subjects into reserved and transferred.
|
It introduced a bicameral legislature at the center with upper and Lower Houses.
|
This act authorized states to enact their own budget.
|
It divided the provincial subjects into reserved and transferred.
|
Option (a) is correct. This act divided the Provincial subjects into two parts- transferred and reserved. Transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the help of ministers while the reserved list was to be administered by a governor and his executive council. This was termed a dual system of governance or Diarchy. Option (b) is correct. It replaced Indian Legislative Council with a Bicameral legislature consisting of two houses. The elections to both the houses were largely by direct elections. Option (c) is correct . It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. Option (d) is not correct. The separate electorate for Muslims was introduced in the act of 1909 itself. This provision was extended to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, and Europeans.
|
d
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Government of India Act of 1919?##Option_A:It divided the provincial subjects into reserved and transferred.###Option_B:It introduced a bicameral legislature at the center with upper and Lower Houses.##Option_C:This act authorized states to enact their own budget. ##Option_D:It divided the provincial subjects into reserved and transferred.##Answer:d##Explaination:Option (a) is correct. This act divided the Provincial subjects into two parts- transferred and reserved. Transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the help of ministers while the reserved list was to be administered by a governor and his executive council. This was termed a dual system of governance or Diarchy. Option (b) is correct. It replaced Indian Legislative Council with a Bicameral legislature consisting of two houses. The elections to both the houses were largely by direct elections. Option (c) is correct . It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. Option (d) is not correct. The separate electorate for Muslims was introduced in the act of 1909 itself. This provision was extended to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, and Europeans.##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
(1) Government of India Act, 1919 abolished diarchy in provinces and introduced provincial autonomy.
(2) Government of India Act, 1935 provided for an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. It was GOI, Act 1935 that abolished diarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy ‘ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined sphere.
Statement 2 is correct. GOI, 1935 provided fro the establishment of an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. It divided the powers beween centre and units in terms of Federal List, Provinicial List and Concurrent List, But federation never came into being.
|
b
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
(1) Government of India Act, 1919 abolished diarchy in provinces and introduced provincial autonomy.
(2) Government of India Act, 1935 provided for an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. It was GOI, Act 1935 that abolished diarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy ‘ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined sphere.
Statement 2 is correct. GOI, 1935 provided fro the establishment of an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. It divided the powers beween centre and units in terms of Federal List, Provinicial List and Concurrent List, But federation never came into being.
##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Indian Independence Act of 1947, consider the following statements:
1. It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India based in London.
2. It provided for each dominion, a governor general to be appointed by respective constituent assemblies.
3. The right to veto bills was transferred from British Monarch to the Governor –General.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The office of High Commissioner for India was created by Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. The governor general was to be appointed by British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet.
Statement 3 is correct. This act depreived the British Monarch of his rights to veto bills or ask for reservation of certain bills for his approval. But this right was reserved for the Governor –General.
|
b
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Indian Independence Act of 1947, consider the following statements:
1. It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India based in London.
2. It provided for each dominion, a governor general to be appointed by respective constituent assemblies.
3. The right to veto bills was transferred from British Monarch to the Governor –General.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The office of High Commissioner for India was created by Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. The governor general was to be appointed by British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet.
Statement 3 is correct. This act depreived the British Monarch of his rights to veto bills or ask for reservation of certain bills for his approval. But this right was reserved for the Governor –General.
##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Charter Act of 1833, consider the following statements: It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. It recommended for the appointment of Macaulay Committee on Indian Civil Service. British government took over financial activities from East India Company. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Willim Bentick was the first Governor-General of India. Statement 2 is incorrect. Macaulay committee on Indian Civil services was based on the Charter Act of 1853. Statement 3 is correct. This act reduced East India Company to just a administrative body.
|
b
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Charter Act of 1833, consider the following statements: It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. It recommended for the appointment of Macaulay Committee on Indian Civil Service. British government took over financial activities from East India Company. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Willim Bentick was the first Governor-General of India. Statement 2 is incorrect. Macaulay committee on Indian Civil services was based on the Charter Act of 1853. Statement 3 is correct. This act reduced East India Company to just a administrative body.##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Forcible conversions impinge upon which of the following rights guaranteed under Article 25 of the constitution?
|
Freedom of Conscience
|
Right to Profess
|
Right to Practice
|
Freedom of Conscience
|
Article 25 accords the Right to propagate one's own religious belief. But it does not include a right to convert another person to one's own religion. Forcible conversions amounts to violation of one's freedom of conscience'.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Forcible conversions impinge upon which of the following rights guaranteed under Article 25 of the constitution?
##Option_A: Freedom of Conscience
###Option_B: Right to Profess
##Option_C: Right to Practice
##Option_D: Freedom of Conscience
##Answer:a##Explaination:Article 25 accords the Right to propagate one's own religious belief. But it does not include a right to convert another person to one's own religion. Forcible conversions amounts to violation of one's freedom of conscience'.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
A religious denomination must satisfy which of the following necessary conditions in order to exercise the freedom to manage religious affairs under Article 26? Group of individuals with a system of beliefs. A group with a common organization. Collective has a distinctive name. The group has a religious text of its own. A leader who preaches a distinct doctrine. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
3, 4, and 5 only
|
1, 2, and 5 only
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
The Supreme Court has held that a religious denomination must satisfy three conditions: It should be a collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs (doctrines), which they regard as conducive to their spiritual well-being. It should have a common organization It should be designated by a distinctive name. Hence only options 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A religious denomination must satisfy which of the following necessary conditions in order to exercise the freedom to manage religious affairs under Article 26? Group of individuals with a system of beliefs. A group with a common organization. Collective has a distinctive name. The group has a religious text of its own. A leader who preaches a distinct doctrine. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2, and 3 only###Option_B:3, 4, and 5 only##Option_C:1, 2, and 5 only##Option_D:1, 2, and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Supreme Court has held that a religious denomination must satisfy three conditions: It should be a collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs (doctrines), which they regard as conducive to their spiritual well-being. It should have a common organization It should be designated by a distinctive name. Hence only options 1, 2, and 3 are correct.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Welfare state
2.Unity and integrity of the nation
3.Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
4. Separation of judiciary from executive
Which of the above are among the features of the basic structure of the Constitution?
|
1,3 and 4 only
|
2,3 and 4 only
|
1,2 and 3 only
|
1,3 and 4 only
|
The basic features of the Constitution have been defined neither the Constitution nor the judiciary. However, various judges have enlisted what may be included in the basic features in subsequent judgements. Some of them are:
· Supremacy of the Constitution
· Republican and democratic form of government
· Secular character of the Constitution
· Separation of powers between the legislature, executive and the judiciary
· Federal character of the Constitution
· The mandate to build a welfare state contained in the Directive Principles of State Policy
· Unity and integrity of the nation
· Sovereignty of the country.
· Democratic character of the polity
· Unity of the country
· Essential features of the individual freedoms secured to the citizens
· Justice - social, economic and political
· Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
· Equality of status and the opportunity.
· Government of laws and not of men' i.e. the rule of law
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. Welfare state
2.Unity and integrity of the nation
3.Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
4. Separation of judiciary from executive
Which of the above are among the features of the basic structure of the Constitution?
##Option_A: 1,3 and 4 only
###Option_B: 2,3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1,2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1,3 and 4 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The basic features of the Constitution have been defined neither the Constitution nor the judiciary. However, various judges have enlisted what may be included in the basic features in subsequent judgements. Some of them are:
· Supremacy of the Constitution
· Republican and democratic form of government
· Secular character of the Constitution
· Separation of powers between the legislature, executive and the judiciary
· Federal character of the Constitution
· The mandate to build a welfare state contained in the Directive Principles of State Policy
· Unity and integrity of the nation
· Sovereignty of the country.
· Democratic character of the polity
· Unity of the country
· Essential features of the individual freedoms secured to the citizens
· Justice - social, economic and political
· Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
· Equality of status and the opportunity.
· Government of laws and not of men' i.e. the rule of law
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to constitutional provisions regarding freedom of religion, consider the following statements: State cannot spend the public money from taxation for the promotion of any particular religion. State can impose fees to control the secular administration of religious institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The constitution prohibits levying a tax for promotion or maintenance of any particular religion. But it does not prohibit putting a fee on any religious services. This is because the purpose of the fee is to control secular administration of religious institutions.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to constitutional provisions regarding freedom of religion, consider the following statements: State cannot spend the public money from taxation for the promotion of any particular religion. State can impose fees to control the secular administration of religious institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The constitution prohibits levying a tax for promotion or maintenance of any particular religion. But it does not prohibit putting a fee on any religious services. This is because the purpose of the fee is to control secular administration of religious institutions.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the salinity of the surface waters of the ocean, consider the following statements: Salinity in equatorial areas is lower than in the tropical areas. Salinity in polar areas is lower than in the temperate areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The warm, humid air along the equator rises (because of its low density) and cools, allowing water vapor to condense, which results in rainfall, causing precipitation to exceed evaporation in equatorial regions. Statement 2 is correct. Low salinity water lies in the polar and subpolar regions and near the equator. Toward the poles, fresh water from melting ice decreases the surface salinity.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the salinity of the surface waters of the ocean, consider the following statements: Salinity in equatorial areas is lower than in the tropical areas. Salinity in polar areas is lower than in the temperate areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The warm, humid air along the equator rises (because of its low density) and cools, allowing water vapor to condense, which results in rainfall, causing precipitation to exceed evaporation in equatorial regions. Statement 2 is correct. Low salinity water lies in the polar and subpolar regions and near the equator. Toward the poles, fresh water from melting ice decreases the surface salinity.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
The government, recently has given its nod to the ‘Comprehensive Integrated Border Management System‘ (CIBMS) for 24x7x365 surveillance through technology for which of the following borders?
|
China
|
Pakistan
|
Bangladesh
|
China
|
The government has given its nod to the 'Comprehensive Integrated Border Management System' (CIBMS) for 24x7x365 surveillance of the border(western border with Pakistan) through technology. It is a five-layer elaborate plan to completely stop infiltration on the 2,900-km western border with Pakistan. Five layers include: CCTV cameras. Thermal image and night-vision devices. Battlefield surveillance radar. Underground monitoring sensors. Laser barriers.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The government, recently has given its nod to the ‘Comprehensive Integrated Border Management System‘ (CIBMS) for 24x7x365 surveillance through technology for which of the following borders?##Option_A: China###Option_B: Pakistan##Option_C: Bangladesh##Option_D: China##Answer:b##Explaination:The government has given its nod to the 'Comprehensive Integrated Border Management System' (CIBMS) for 24x7x365 surveillance of the border(western border with Pakistan) through technology. It is a five-layer elaborate plan to completely stop infiltration on the 2,900-km western border with Pakistan. Five layers include: CCTV cameras. Thermal image and night-vision devices. Battlefield surveillance radar. Underground monitoring sensors. Laser barriers.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) is not correct?
|
These are mutual fund like institutions that enable investments into the infrastructure sector.
|
They are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
|
Listing on stock exchange is mandatory for both publicly offered and privately placed InvITs.
|
These are mutual fund like institutions that enable investments into the infrastructure sector.
|
Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are mutual fund like institutions that enable investments into the infrastructure sector by pooling small sums of money from multitude of individual investors for directly investing in infrastructure so as to return a portion of the income (after deducting expenditures) to unit holders of InvITs, who pooled in the money. InvITs are regulated by the securities market regulator in India- Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Listing on stock exchange is mandatory for both publicly offered and privately placed InvITs. Advantages of InvITs InvITs may help in attracting international finance into Indian infrastructure sector. InvITs will enable the investors to hold a diversified portfolio of infrastructure assets. InvITs are also proposed to bring higher standards of governance into infrastructure development and management and distribution of income from assets so as to attract investor interest.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) is not correct?##Option_A: These are mutual fund like institutions that enable investments into the infrastructure sector.###Option_B: They are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.##Option_C: Listing on stock exchange is mandatory for both publicly offered and privately placed InvITs.##Option_D: These are mutual fund like institutions that enable investments into the infrastructure sector.##Answer:b##Explaination:Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are mutual fund like institutions that enable investments into the infrastructure sector by pooling small sums of money from multitude of individual investors for directly investing in infrastructure so as to return a portion of the income (after deducting expenditures) to unit holders of InvITs, who pooled in the money. InvITs are regulated by the securities market regulator in India- Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Listing on stock exchange is mandatory for both publicly offered and privately placed InvITs. Advantages of InvITs InvITs may help in attracting international finance into Indian infrastructure sector. InvITs will enable the investors to hold a diversified portfolio of infrastructure assets. InvITs are also proposed to bring higher standards of governance into infrastructure development and management and distribution of income from assets so as to attract investor interest.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
In Cricket, fast bowlers often shine only one side of the cricket bowl to generate swing. Which of the following could be reason?
|
Air travels faster on shiny side and put lower pressure compared to rough side.
|
Air travels faster on rough side and put lower pressure compared to shiny side.
|
Air travels faster on rough side and put higher pressure compared to shiny side.
|
Air travels faster on shiny side and put lower pressure compared to rough side.
|
The rough side slows down the air due to friction whereas the smoother side allows the air to pass by at a greater speed. The greater the air speed, lesser the pressure. So there is a pressure differential that pushes the ball in the direction of the smoother side.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In Cricket, fast bowlers often shine only one side of the cricket bowl to generate swing. Which of the following could be reason?##Option_A: Air travels faster on shiny side and put lower pressure compared to rough side.###Option_B: Air travels faster on rough side and put lower pressure compared to shiny side.##Option_C: Air travels faster on rough side and put higher pressure compared to shiny side.##Option_D: Air travels faster on shiny side and put lower pressure compared to rough side.##Answer:a##Explaination:The rough side slows down the air due to friction whereas the smoother side allows the air to pass by at a greater speed. The greater the air speed, lesser the pressure. So there is a pressure differential that pushes the ball in the direction of the smoother side.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Africa and Eurasia touches at which of the following points/ interface ? Strait of Gibraltar Suez Canal Straits of Hormuz Bab-El-Mandeb Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Africa and Eurasia touches at three point i.e. Strait of Gibraltar, Suez Canal and Bab-El-Mandeb. The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf. It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world"s most strategically important choke points.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Africa and Eurasia touches at which of the following points/ interface ? Strait of Gibraltar Suez Canal Straits of Hormuz Bab-El-Mandeb Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Africa and Eurasia touches at three point i.e. Strait of Gibraltar, Suez Canal and Bab-El-Mandeb. The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf. It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world"s most strategically important choke points.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is the objective of Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) programme?
|
To dictate the price of a good or service in advance by governing agency so as to check price rise in essential goods and services.
|
Pre-determine the distribution of natural resources between the government and a resource extraction company.
|
Pre-determine the distribution of profits and losses between a government and a resource extraction company.
|
To dictate the price of a good or service in advance by governing agency so as to check price rise in essential goods and services.
|
The Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) programme was introduced in India by the Finance Act, 2012. It seeks provide a predictable and non-adversarial tax regime and to reduce litigation in the Indian transfer pricing regime. The APAs cover a wide range of international transactions, including royalty, corporate guarantees, software development services, IT enabled services and trading. The agreements also pertain to different industrial sectors like media, telecom, automobiles, IT services, etc.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is the objective of Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) programme?##Option_A: To dictate the price of a good or service in advance by governing agency so as to check price rise in essential goods and services.###Option_B: Pre-determine the distribution of natural resources between the government and a resource extraction company.##Option_C: Pre-determine the distribution of profits and losses between a government and a resource extraction company.##Option_D: To dictate the price of a good or service in advance by governing agency so as to check price rise in essential goods and services.##Answer:d##Explaination:The Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) programme was introduced in India by the Finance Act, 2012. It seeks provide a predictable and non-adversarial tax regime and to reduce litigation in the Indian transfer pricing regime. The APAs cover a wide range of international transactions, including royalty, corporate guarantees, software development services, IT enabled services and trading. The agreements also pertain to different industrial sectors like media, telecom, automobiles, IT services, etc.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Safety Valve Theory of formation of Indian National Congress, consider the following statements: It suggests that Congress was founded with the objective of saving the British Empire in India. It was used by Lala Lajpat Rai to criticise the Moderates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Safety valve theory suggests that Indian National Congress, was started by A.O. Hume under the guidance of Lord Dufferin, t o provide a safe, mild, peaceful and constitutional outlet or safety valve for the rising discontent among the masses, which was inevitably leading towards a popular and violent revolution. In his Young India published in 1916, the Extremist leader Lala Lajpat Rai used the safety valve theory to attack the Moderates in the Congress. Having discussed the theory at length and suggested that the Congress was a product of Lord Dufferin's brain,' he argued that the Congress was started more with the object of saving the British empire from danger than with that of wining political liberty of India. Hence both the statements are correct.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Safety Valve Theory of formation of Indian National Congress, consider the following statements: It suggests that Congress was founded with the objective of saving the British Empire in India. It was used by Lala Lajpat Rai to criticise the Moderates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Safety valve theory suggests that Indian National Congress, was started by A.O. Hume under the guidance of Lord Dufferin, t o provide a safe, mild, peaceful and constitutional outlet or safety valve for the rising discontent among the masses, which was inevitably leading towards a popular and violent revolution. In his Young India published in 1916, the Extremist leader Lala Lajpat Rai used the safety valve theory to attack the Moderates in the Congress. Having discussed the theory at length and suggested that the Congress was a product of Lord Dufferin's brain,' he argued that the Congress was started more with the object of saving the British empire from danger than with that of wining political liberty of India. Hence both the statements are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding LED TVs: They utilize liquid crystal display technology. The screen is lit by fluorescent tubes. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
LCD stands for "liquid crystal display" and technically, both LED and LCD TVs are liquid crystal displays. The basic technology is the same in that both television types have two layers of polarized glass through which the liquid crystals both block and pass light. So really, LED TVs are a subset of LCD TVs. Hence statement 1 is correct. LED, which stands for "light emitting diodes," differs from general LCD TVs in that LCDs use fluorescent lights while LEDs use those light emitting diodes. Also, the placement of the lights on an LED TV can differ. The fluorescent lights in an LCD TV are always behind the screen. On an LED TV, the light emitting diodes can be placed either behind the screen or around its edges . Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The difference in lights and in lighting placement has generally meant that LED TVs can be thinner than LCDs, although this is starting to change. It has also meant that LED TVs run with greater energy efficiency and can provide a clearer, better picture than the general LCD TVs.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding LED TVs: They utilize liquid crystal display technology. The screen is lit by fluorescent tubes. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:LCD stands for "liquid crystal display" and technically, both LED and LCD TVs are liquid crystal displays. The basic technology is the same in that both television types have two layers of polarized glass through which the liquid crystals both block and pass light. So really, LED TVs are a subset of LCD TVs. Hence statement 1 is correct. LED, which stands for "light emitting diodes," differs from general LCD TVs in that LCDs use fluorescent lights while LEDs use those light emitting diodes. Also, the placement of the lights on an LED TV can differ. The fluorescent lights in an LCD TV are always behind the screen. On an LED TV, the light emitting diodes can be placed either behind the screen or around its edges . Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The difference in lights and in lighting placement has generally meant that LED TVs can be thinner than LCDs, although this is starting to change. It has also meant that LED TVs run with greater energy efficiency and can provide a clearer, better picture than the general LCD TVs.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Which among the following is the most comprehensive measure of price rise?
|
Wholesale Price Index
|
Producer Price Index
|
GDP Deflator
|
Wholesale Price Index
|
GDP deflator is a measure of inflation. It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that at prices prevailing during any other reference (base) year. It is also called implicit price deflator. Since the deflator covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the economy - as against the limited commodity baskets for the wholesale or consumer price indices or producer price index - it is seen as a more comprehensive measure of inflation.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is the most comprehensive measure of price rise?##Option_A: Wholesale Price Index###Option_B: Producer Price Index##Option_C: GDP Deflator##Option_D: Wholesale Price Index##Answer:c##Explaination:GDP deflator is a measure of inflation. It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that at prices prevailing during any other reference (base) year. It is also called implicit price deflator. Since the deflator covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the economy - as against the limited commodity baskets for the wholesale or consumer price indices or producer price index - it is seen as a more comprehensive measure of inflation.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which among the following deficits indicate how much government borrowing is going to meet expenses other than interest payments?
|
Budget Deficit
|
Fiscal Deficit
|
Primary Deficit
|
Budget Deficit
|
Fiscal Deficit: Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure - (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts) Primary Deficit: To obtain an estimate of borrowing on account of current expenditures exceeding revenues, we need to calculate what has been called the primary deficit. It is simply the fiscal deficit minus the interest payments Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit - net interest liabilities Net interest liabilities consist of interest payments minus interest receipts by the government on net domestic lending. Revenue Deficit: The revenue deficit refers to the excess of government's revenue expenditure over revenue receipts Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure - Revenue receipts
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following deficits indicate how much government borrowing is going to meet expenses other than interest payments?##Option_A: Budget Deficit###Option_B: Fiscal Deficit##Option_C: Primary Deficit##Option_D: Budget Deficit##Answer:c##Explaination:Fiscal Deficit: Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure - (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts) Primary Deficit: To obtain an estimate of borrowing on account of current expenditures exceeding revenues, we need to calculate what has been called the primary deficit. It is simply the fiscal deficit minus the interest payments Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit - net interest liabilities Net interest liabilities consist of interest payments minus interest receipts by the government on net domestic lending. Revenue Deficit: The revenue deficit refers to the excess of government's revenue expenditure over revenue receipts Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure - Revenue receipts##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
If Earth"s axis of rotation was 0 degree to the perpendicular to the plane of ecliptic instead of 23.5 degree, what would have been the probable consequences? There would have been no seasons on Earth. The length of day and night would have been same throughout the year. The length of day and night would have been the same all over the earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Effect of the inclined axis on the duration of day and night: The duration of day and night is not equal at all places. The time of the day at any place is determined by the height of the sun in the sky. If the axis of the earth was vertical instead of inclined, places on earth would have the same temperature throughout the year. If the earth did not revolve around the sun even then with its inclined axis there would be no seasons. Effect of the inclination of the axis of seasons: The path of the earth around the sun is known as elliptic. It passes through the centre of both the earth and the sun. The earth"s axis is not perpendicular to the plane of the elliptic, but it is titled at an angle is 66½ 0 to it. The axis is, therefore, inclined at an angle of 23½ 0 from the perpendicular to this plane. As a result of this, in the course of the earth"s movement around the sun, the North pole remains inclined towards the sun for a part of the year while the South Pole is titled away from it. For the remaining part of the year, the situation is reversed, the North Pole being titled away from the sun and the South Pole being inclined towards it. On earth this gives rise to the changing seasons and the varying lengths of day and night. If the earth"s axis were perpendicular to the plane of orbit, there would be equal nights and days at all places on the earth, at all times of the year and there would also be no seasons.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:If Earth"s axis of rotation was 0 degree to the perpendicular to the plane of ecliptic instead of 23.5 degree, what would have been the probable consequences? There would have been no seasons on Earth. The length of day and night would have been same throughout the year. The length of day and night would have been the same all over the earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Effect of the inclined axis on the duration of day and night: The duration of day and night is not equal at all places. The time of the day at any place is determined by the height of the sun in the sky. If the axis of the earth was vertical instead of inclined, places on earth would have the same temperature throughout the year. If the earth did not revolve around the sun even then with its inclined axis there would be no seasons. Effect of the inclination of the axis of seasons: The path of the earth around the sun is known as elliptic. It passes through the centre of both the earth and the sun. The earth"s axis is not perpendicular to the plane of the elliptic, but it is titled at an angle is 66½ 0 to it. The axis is, therefore, inclined at an angle of 23½ 0 from the perpendicular to this plane. As a result of this, in the course of the earth"s movement around the sun, the North pole remains inclined towards the sun for a part of the year while the South Pole is titled away from it. For the remaining part of the year, the situation is reversed, the North Pole being titled away from the sun and the South Pole being inclined towards it. On earth this gives rise to the changing seasons and the varying lengths of day and night. If the earth"s axis were perpendicular to the plane of orbit, there would be equal nights and days at all places on the earth, at all times of the year and there would also be no seasons.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding President’s Rule: It is proclaimed by the President only on the report of the Governor. Its revocation requires simple majority of both the Houses of Parliament. The laws made during President"s Rule continue to be in operation even after the President’s rule. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 356 empowers the president to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. Notably, the president can either act on a report of the governor of a state or otherwise too (even without governor's report). A proclamation of president's rule may be revoked by the president at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation doesn't require the parliamentary approval. A law made by Parliament or president or any other specified authority continues to be operative even after the president's rule.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding President’s Rule: It is proclaimed by the President only on the report of the Governor. Its revocation requires simple majority of both the Houses of Parliament. The laws made during President"s Rule continue to be in operation even after the President’s rule. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Article 356 empowers the president to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. Notably, the president can either act on a report of the governor of a state or otherwise too (even without governor's report). A proclamation of president's rule may be revoked by the president at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation doesn't require the parliamentary approval. A law made by Parliament or president or any other specified authority continues to be operative even after the president's rule.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following best describes Open Acreage License Policy (OALP)?
|
It is a hydrocarbon exploration policy which provides a company an opportunity to select the exploration blocks, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government.
|
It is a telecom spectrum distribution policy where government invites even non-telecom companies to bid for unused spectrums known as White-Fi.
|
It is a defence procurement policy in which government invites foreign companies to invest in India with mandated offset requirements.
|
It is a hydrocarbon exploration policy which provides a company an opportunity to select the exploration blocks, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government.
|
Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) gives an option to a company looking for exploring hydrocarbons to select the exploration blocks on its own, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government. Under Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP), a bidder intending to explore hydrocarbons like oil and gas, coal bed methane, gas hydrate etc., may apply to the Government seeking exploration of any new block (not already covered by exploration). The Government will examine the Expression of Interest and justification. If it is suitable for award, Govt. will call for competitive bids after obtaining necessary environmental and other clearances.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following best describes Open Acreage License Policy (OALP)?##Option_A: It is a hydrocarbon exploration policy which provides a company an opportunity to select the exploration blocks, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government.###Option_B: It is a telecom spectrum distribution policy where government invites even non-telecom companies to bid for unused spectrums known as White-Fi.##Option_C: It is a defence procurement policy in which government invites foreign companies to invest in India with mandated offset requirements.##Option_D: It is a hydrocarbon exploration policy which provides a company an opportunity to select the exploration blocks, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government.##Answer:a##Explaination:Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) gives an option to a company looking for exploring hydrocarbons to select the exploration blocks on its own, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government. Under Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP), a bidder intending to explore hydrocarbons like oil and gas, coal bed methane, gas hydrate etc., may apply to the Government seeking exploration of any new block (not already covered by exploration). The Government will examine the Expression of Interest and justification. If it is suitable for award, Govt. will call for competitive bids after obtaining necessary environmental and other clearances.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following bills lapse after dissolution of Lok Sabha? A bill introduced in the Lok Sabha and pending in Lok Sabha. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions and so on pending before it or its committees lapse. They (to be pursued further) must be reintroduced in the newly-constituted Lok Sabha. However, some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha). A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses. A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following bills lapse after dissolution of Lok Sabha? A bill introduced in the Lok Sabha and pending in Lok Sabha. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions and so on pending before it or its committees lapse. They (to be pursued further) must be reintroduced in the newly-constituted Lok Sabha. However, some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha). A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses. A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Tungbhadra doab was a resource rich region in southern India between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra. The region became a cause of conflict between which of the following dynasties? Vijayanagra empire and Bahamani kingdom Yadavas and Hoysalas Western Chalukyas and Cholas Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The interests of the Vijayanagar rulers and the Bahamani sultans clashed in three separate and distinct areas: in the Tungabhadra doab, in the Krishna-Godavari delta, and in the Marathwada country. The Tungabhadra doab was the region between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra. On account of its wealth and economic resources, it had been the bone of contention between the western Chalukyas and the Cholas in th earlier period and between the Yadvas and the Hoysalas later on.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Tungbhadra doab was a resource rich region in southern India between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra. The region became a cause of conflict between which of the following dynasties? Vijayanagra empire and Bahamani kingdom Yadavas and Hoysalas Western Chalukyas and Cholas Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The interests of the Vijayanagar rulers and the Bahamani sultans clashed in three separate and distinct areas: in the Tungabhadra doab, in the Krishna-Godavari delta, and in the Marathwada country. The Tungabhadra doab was the region between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra. On account of its wealth and economic resources, it had been the bone of contention between the western Chalukyas and the Cholas in th earlier period and between the Yadvas and the Hoysalas later on.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
Food grains stock in the Central Pool consists of: Stock held by Food Corporation of India (FCI) States participating in the Decentralised Procurement Scheme State government agencies (SGAs) for both buffer and operational requirements Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Food grains stock in the Central Pool consists of stock held by Food Corporation of India (FCI), states participating in the Decentralised Procurement Scheme and the state government agencies (SGAs) for both buffer and operational requirements. The total annual stock of foodgrains in the Central Pool is distributed over different quarters of the year depending upon off-take and procurement patterns. The seasonality of production and procurement is thus, a decisive factor in determining the minimum norm of food grains stocks required in a particular quarter of the year.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Food grains stock in the Central Pool consists of: Stock held by Food Corporation of India (FCI) States participating in the Decentralised Procurement Scheme State government agencies (SGAs) for both buffer and operational requirements Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Food grains stock in the Central Pool consists of stock held by Food Corporation of India (FCI), states participating in the Decentralised Procurement Scheme and the state government agencies (SGAs) for both buffer and operational requirements. The total annual stock of foodgrains in the Central Pool is distributed over different quarters of the year depending upon off-take and procurement patterns. The seasonality of production and procurement is thus, a decisive factor in determining the minimum norm of food grains stocks required in a particular quarter of the year.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Fiat Money, which of the following statements are correct?
It is the currency that a government has declared to be legal tender.
It risks becoming worthless due to hyperinflation.
It is convertible and can be redeemed.
Most modern currencies are fiat currencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Fiat money is currency that a government has declared to be legal tender, but is not backed by a physical commodity. The value of fiat money is derived from the relationship between supply and demand rather than the value of the material that the money is made of. Historically, most currencies were based on physical commodities such as gold or silver, but fiat money is based solely on faith.
Because fiat money is not linked to physical reserves, it risks becoming worthless due to hyperinflation. If people lose faith in a nation's paper currency, like the dollar bill, the money will no longer hold any value.
Most modern paper currencies are fiat currencies, have no intrinsic value and are used solely as a means of payment. Historically, governments would mint coins out of a physical commodity such as gold or silver, or would print paper money that could be redeemed for a set amount of physical commodity.
Fiat money is inconvertible and cannot be redeemed. Fiat money rose to prominence in the 20th century, specifically after the collapse of the Bretton Woods system in 1971, when the United States ceased to allow the conversion of the dollar into gold.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Fiat Money, which of the following statements are correct?
It is the currency that a government has declared to be legal tender.
It risks becoming worthless due to hyperinflation.
It is convertible and can be redeemed.
Most modern currencies are fiat currencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Fiat money is currency that a government has declared to be legal tender, but is not backed by a physical commodity. The value of fiat money is derived from the relationship between supply and demand rather than the value of the material that the money is made of. Historically, most currencies were based on physical commodities such as gold or silver, but fiat money is based solely on faith.
Because fiat money is not linked to physical reserves, it risks becoming worthless due to hyperinflation. If people lose faith in a nation's paper currency, like the dollar bill, the money will no longer hold any value.
Most modern paper currencies are fiat currencies, have no intrinsic value and are used solely as a means of payment. Historically, governments would mint coins out of a physical commodity such as gold or silver, or would print paper money that could be redeemed for a set amount of physical commodity.
Fiat money is inconvertible and cannot be redeemed. Fiat money rose to prominence in the 20th century, specifically after the collapse of the Bretton Woods system in 1971, when the United States ceased to allow the conversion of the dollar into gold.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the assembly. However, he also vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases: if he ceases to be a member of the assembly; if he resigns by writing to the speaker; and if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days' advance notice. The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker's office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of assembly. In both the cases, he has all the powers of the Speaker.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the assembly. However, he also vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases: if he ceases to be a member of the assembly; if he resigns by writing to the speaker; and if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days' advance notice. The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker's office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of assembly. In both the cases, he has all the powers of the Speaker.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Central Road Fund: It is a statutory non-lapsable fund. It is created out of cess imposed on the consumption of Petrol and High Speed Diesel. It is levied to develop and maintain National Highways and railway under/over bridges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Central Road Fund (CRF) is a non-lapsable fund created under Section 6 of the Central Road Fund Act, 2000 out of a cess/tax imposed by the Union Government on the consumption of Petrol and High Speed Diesel to develop and maintain National Highways, State roads (particularly those of economic importance and which provides inter-state connectivity), rural roads, railway under/over bridges etc.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Central Road Fund: It is a statutory non-lapsable fund. It is created out of cess imposed on the consumption of Petrol and High Speed Diesel. It is levied to develop and maintain National Highways and railway under/over bridges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Central Road Fund (CRF) is a non-lapsable fund created under Section 6 of the Central Road Fund Act, 2000 out of a cess/tax imposed by the Union Government on the consumption of Petrol and High Speed Diesel to develop and maintain National Highways, State roads (particularly those of economic importance and which provides inter-state connectivity), rural roads, railway under/over bridges etc.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following Committees is/are formed only in Lok Sabha? Committee of Privileges Committee on Absence of members Committee on Private Members" Bills and Resolutions Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Committee on Absence of Members: It considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House; and examines the cases of members who had been absent for a period of 60 days or more without permission. It is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members. There is no such committee in the Rajya Sabha and all such matters are dealt by the House itself. Committee of Privileges: Its functions are semi-judicial in nature. It examines the cases of breach of privileges of the House and its members and recommends appropriate action. The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions: This committee classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers). This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Committees is/are formed only in Lok Sabha? Committee of Privileges Committee on Absence of members Committee on Private Members" Bills and Resolutions Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Committee on Absence of Members: It considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House; and examines the cases of members who had been absent for a period of 60 days or more without permission. It is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members. There is no such committee in the Rajya Sabha and all such matters are dealt by the House itself. Committee of Privileges: Its functions are semi-judicial in nature. It examines the cases of breach of privileges of the House and its members and recommends appropriate action. The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions: This committee classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers). This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Economic growth is usually coupled with inflation. Which of the following factors may be responsible for this? Increased Aggregate Demand Increasing wages Higher employment Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Typically, higher inflation is caused by strong economic growth. If Aggregate Demand in an economy expanded faster than aggregate supply, we would expect to see a higher inflation rate. If demand is rising faster than supply this suggests that economic growth is higher than the long run sustainable rate of growth. With high growth, demand rises faster than firms can keep pace with supply; faced with supply constraints, firms push up prices. High growth leads to more employment. Unemployment falls, but this may cause labour shortages. This fall in unemployment puts upward pressure on wages which leads to higher inflation. Higher growth also leads to increasing wages leading to more aggregate demand due to increase in disposable income. This also contributes in inflation.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Economic growth is usually coupled with inflation. Which of the following factors may be responsible for this? Increased Aggregate Demand Increasing wages Higher employment Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Typically, higher inflation is caused by strong economic growth. If Aggregate Demand in an economy expanded faster than aggregate supply, we would expect to see a higher inflation rate. If demand is rising faster than supply this suggests that economic growth is higher than the long run sustainable rate of growth. With high growth, demand rises faster than firms can keep pace with supply; faced with supply constraints, firms push up prices. High growth leads to more employment. Unemployment falls, but this may cause labour shortages. This fall in unemployment puts upward pressure on wages which leads to higher inflation. Higher growth also leads to increasing wages leading to more aggregate demand due to increase in disposable income. This also contributes in inflation.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Xenotransplantation involves the transplantation of which of the following parts between different species? Organs Cells Tissues Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Xenotransplantation is when living cells, tissues or organs are transplanted between species. Uses of xenotransplantation Organ transplants - replacing diseased organs, such as hearts, lungs, livers, pancreases and kidneys. Cell transplants - replacing damaged or destroyed cells in diseases such as diabetes, Alzheimer's and Parkinson's disease. Tissue transplants - skin grafts, cornea transplants or bone transplants. Bridging transplants - providing organ function externally to patients with organ failure.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Xenotransplantation involves the transplantation of which of the following parts between different species? Organs Cells Tissues Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Xenotransplantation is when living cells, tissues or organs are transplanted between species. Uses of xenotransplantation Organ transplants - replacing diseased organs, such as hearts, lungs, livers, pancreases and kidneys. Cell transplants - replacing damaged or destroyed cells in diseases such as diabetes, Alzheimer's and Parkinson's disease. Tissue transplants - skin grafts, cornea transplants or bone transplants. Bridging transplants - providing organ function externally to patients with organ failure.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements related to the "LVM 3" launch vehicle being developed by Indian Space Research Orgaisation is/are correct? It uses an indigenously developed cryogenic engine It is capable of placing Geosynchronous satellites into orbit. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
LVM 3 is a heavy launch capability launcher being developed by ISRO. It will allow India to achieve complete self reliance in launching satellites as it will be capable of placing 4 tonne class Geosynchronous satellites into orbit. The LVM3 will have an India built cryogenic stage with higher capacity than GSLV. The powerful cryogenic stage of LVM3 enables it to place heavy payloads into Low Earth Orbits of 600 km altitude. The first experimental flight of LVM3, the LVM3-X/CARE mission lifted off from Sriharikota in December, 2014 and successfully tested the atmospheric phase of flight. The core stage of the launch is the L110 liquid stage which is powered by two Vikas engines designed and developed at the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre. Crew module Atmospheric Reentry Experiment was also carried out in this flight. The module reentered, deployed its parachutes as planned and splashed down in the Bay of Bengal.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements related to the "LVM 3" launch vehicle being developed by Indian Space Research Orgaisation is/are correct? It uses an indigenously developed cryogenic engine It is capable of placing Geosynchronous satellites into orbit. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:LVM 3 is a heavy launch capability launcher being developed by ISRO. It will allow India to achieve complete self reliance in launching satellites as it will be capable of placing 4 tonne class Geosynchronous satellites into orbit. The LVM3 will have an India built cryogenic stage with higher capacity than GSLV. The powerful cryogenic stage of LVM3 enables it to place heavy payloads into Low Earth Orbits of 600 km altitude. The first experimental flight of LVM3, the LVM3-X/CARE mission lifted off from Sriharikota in December, 2014 and successfully tested the atmospheric phase of flight. The core stage of the launch is the L110 liquid stage which is powered by two Vikas engines designed and developed at the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre. Crew module Atmospheric Reentry Experiment was also carried out in this flight. The module reentered, deployed its parachutes as planned and splashed down in the Bay of Bengal.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
In 5th century BC, Buddha was preaching in India. Who of the following was not a contemporary of Buddha?
|
Purana Kassapa
|
Rishabhdev
|
Ajita Kesakambalin
|
Purana Kassapa
|
Rishabhdev (Rishabhanatha) was the first Tirthankara of Jains. Mahavir the 24th Tirthankara was contemporary of Buddha. Purana Kassapa was an Indian ascetic teacher who lived around the 5th or 4th century BCE, contemporaneous with Mahavira and the Buddha. Purana taught a theory of "non-action" whereby the body acts independent of the soul, merit or demerit. In the Pali Canon, Purana ( is identified as an ahetuvadin, "denier of a cause". Ajita Kesakambali was an ancient Indian philosopher a contemporary of Buddha and Mahavira. It has frequently been noted that the doctrines of the Lokayata school were considerably drawn from Ajita's teachings. Makkhali Gosala or Manthaliputra Goshalak was an ascetic teacher of ancient India. He was a contemporary of Buddha and of Mahavira. He is considered as founder of Ajivika philosophy.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In 5th century BC, Buddha was preaching in India. Who of the following was not a contemporary of Buddha?##Option_A: Purana Kassapa###Option_B: Rishabhdev##Option_C: Ajita Kesakambalin##Option_D: Purana Kassapa##Answer:b##Explaination:Rishabhdev (Rishabhanatha) was the first Tirthankara of Jains. Mahavir the 24th Tirthankara was contemporary of Buddha. Purana Kassapa was an Indian ascetic teacher who lived around the 5th or 4th century BCE, contemporaneous with Mahavira and the Buddha. Purana taught a theory of "non-action" whereby the body acts independent of the soul, merit or demerit. In the Pali Canon, Purana ( is identified as an ahetuvadin, "denier of a cause". Ajita Kesakambali was an ancient Indian philosopher a contemporary of Buddha and Mahavira. It has frequently been noted that the doctrines of the Lokayata school were considerably drawn from Ajita's teachings. Makkhali Gosala or Manthaliputra Goshalak was an ascetic teacher of ancient India. He was a contemporary of Buddha and of Mahavira. He is considered as founder of Ajivika philosophy.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to modern India, Treaty of Sugauli was:
|
a treaty to end the first Anglo-Maratha war signed between British and Marathas.
|
a treaty for establishing boundary of Nepal signed between British and Nepal.
|
a treaty to end Second Anglo Mysore war signed between British and Tipu Sultan.
|
a treaty to end the first Anglo-Maratha war signed between British and Marathas.
|
The border treaty signed between the then government of East India Company and Nepal on March 4, 1816 is known as the Sugauli Treaty. There are both direct and indirect consequences of the treaty on Nepal. Direct consequences: The treaty reduced the average east-west length to 885 kilometres and the total area of Nepal is confined to 147,181 square kilometers between the Mechi and the Mahakali Rivers. This way the treaty cut-off the wings on the east and west and receded its area on the south, losing almost one-third of its total area. Nepal was forced to give up not only its western front but also the Mechi to Teesta area (Tarai area)on the east, where there was no war. What was more spiteful of the British was that it entered into Titaliya Treaty with Sikkim on February 10, 1817 (11 months after Sugauli Treaty), and gave the land it had snatched away from Nepal to Sikkim. Nepal also lost the right to deploy any American or European employee in its service. The British representative in Kathmandu was to be posted after the treaty. Treaty of Salbai, 1782- was a treaty to end the first Anglo- Maratha war signed between British and Marathas. Treaty of Allahabad, 1765- was signed between Robert Clive and Shah Alam II allowing British the Diwan rights in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. Treaty of Mangalore, 1784- was signed to end second Anglo Mysore war.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to modern India, Treaty of Sugauli was:##Option_A: a treaty to end the first Anglo-Maratha war signed between British and Marathas.###Option_B: a treaty for establishing boundary of Nepal signed between British and Nepal.##Option_C: a treaty to end Second Anglo Mysore war signed between British and Tipu Sultan.##Option_D: a treaty to end the first Anglo-Maratha war signed between British and Marathas.##Answer:b##Explaination:The border treaty signed between the then government of East India Company and Nepal on March 4, 1816 is known as the Sugauli Treaty. There are both direct and indirect consequences of the treaty on Nepal. Direct consequences: The treaty reduced the average east-west length to 885 kilometres and the total area of Nepal is confined to 147,181 square kilometers between the Mechi and the Mahakali Rivers. This way the treaty cut-off the wings on the east and west and receded its area on the south, losing almost one-third of its total area. Nepal was forced to give up not only its western front but also the Mechi to Teesta area (Tarai area)on the east, where there was no war. What was more spiteful of the British was that it entered into Titaliya Treaty with Sikkim on February 10, 1817 (11 months after Sugauli Treaty), and gave the land it had snatched away from Nepal to Sikkim. Nepal also lost the right to deploy any American or European employee in its service. The British representative in Kathmandu was to be posted after the treaty. Treaty of Salbai, 1782- was a treaty to end the first Anglo- Maratha war signed between British and Marathas. Treaty of Allahabad, 1765- was signed between Robert Clive and Shah Alam II allowing British the Diwan rights in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. Treaty of Mangalore, 1784- was signed to end second Anglo Mysore war.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
CTBT के संदर्भ मे निम्न मे से कौन से कथन सत्य है | यह एक ऐसा समझौता है जिसके जरिए परमाणु परीक्षण को प्रतिबंधित किया गया है। यह संधि 1996 को अस्तित्व में आयी।
|
केवल 1
|
केवल 2
|
1 और 2 दोनों
|
केवल 1
|
nan
|
c
|
Miscellaneous World
|
Civil Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:CTBT के संदर्भ मे निम्न मे से कौन से कथन सत्य है | यह एक ऐसा समझौता है जिसके जरिए परमाणु परीक्षण को प्रतिबंधित किया गया है। यह संधि 1996 को अस्तित्व में आयी। ##Option_A:केवल 1 ###Option_B:केवल 2 ##Option_C:1 और 2 दोनों ##Option_D:केवल 1 ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Miscellaneous World##Subject:Civil Engineering##Answer:c
|
Which of the following regions were a part of the erstwhile Gondwanaland? India Brazil South Africa Australia Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
Peninsular part of India was a part of the Gondwana land. The Gondwanaland included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single land mass. The convectional currents split the crust into a number of pieces, thus leading to the drifting of the Indo-Australian plate after being separated from the Gondwana land, towards north.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following regions were a part of the erstwhile Gondwanaland? India Brazil South Africa Australia Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Peninsular part of India was a part of the Gondwana land. The Gondwanaland included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single land mass. The convectional currents split the crust into a number of pieces, thus leading to the drifting of the Indo-Australian plate after being separated from the Gondwana land, towards north.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Sangam literature, consider the following statements: It is a religious literature. It consist of poems composed in praise of warriors. It provides information regarding long distance trade during the period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Sangam literature was produced over a period of three to four centuries by poets who assembled in college patronised by chiefs and kings. Such colleges were called Sangam. The Sangam texts are different from the Vedic texts, particularly the Rig Vedic texts. They do not constitute religious literature. The short and long poems were composed by numerous poets in praise of numerous heroes and heroines. They are secular in nature. The Sangam texts refer to many settlements including Kaveripattanam. They also speak of the Yavanas coming in their own vessels purchasing pepper with gold and supplying wine to the natives.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Sangam literature, consider the following statements: It is a religious literature. It consist of poems composed in praise of warriors. It provides information regarding long distance trade during the period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Sangam literature was produced over a period of three to four centuries by poets who assembled in college patronised by chiefs and kings. Such colleges were called Sangam. The Sangam texts are different from the Vedic texts, particularly the Rig Vedic texts. They do not constitute religious literature. The short and long poems were composed by numerous poets in praise of numerous heroes and heroines. They are secular in nature. The Sangam texts refer to many settlements including Kaveripattanam. They also speak of the Yavanas coming in their own vessels purchasing pepper with gold and supplying wine to the natives.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Democratically elected governments are essentially the will of majority. In this context, which of the following prevents the tyranny of majority in India? Rule of law Fundamental rights Separation of power Directive Principles Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines or principles to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies .The DPSP are non-justiciable in nature or not enforceable by courts & therefore does not restrict the power of the Parliament. Rest all the other options restricts the power of the Parliament.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Democratically elected governments are essentially the will of majority. In this context, which of the following prevents the tyranny of majority in India? Rule of law Fundamental rights Separation of power Directive Principles Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines or principles to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies .The DPSP are non-justiciable in nature or not enforceable by courts & therefore does not restrict the power of the Parliament. Rest all the other options restricts the power of the Parliament.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Overseas citizen of India (OCI), consider the following statements: A person is registered as an OCI under Citizenship Act, 1955. An OCI has to register with local police if his stay in India exceeds 180 days. OCI enjoy parity with non-resident Indians in all matters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
A person is registered as Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) under the Citizenship Act, 1955. Following benefits are available to OCIs: A multiple entry, multi-purpose life long visa for visiting India. Exemption from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in India. Parity with NRIs in respect of economic, financial and educational fields except in relation to the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Overseas citizen of India (OCI), consider the following statements: A person is registered as an OCI under Citizenship Act, 1955. An OCI has to register with local police if his stay in India exceeds 180 days. OCI enjoy parity with non-resident Indians in all matters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:A person is registered as Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) under the Citizenship Act, 1955. Following benefits are available to OCIs: A multiple entry, multi-purpose life long visa for visiting India. Exemption from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in India. Parity with NRIs in respect of economic, financial and educational fields except in relation to the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission, consider the following statements: It is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. Appointment and removal of its members is done by President. It has to present annually to the Central government a report on its performance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption1 (1962-64). Originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Recently, in September 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. The President can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner from the office under the following circumstances: If he is adjudged an insolvent; or If he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Central government) involves a moral turpitude; or If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or If he is (in the opinion of the president), unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions. In addition to these, the president can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission, consider the following statements: It is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. Appointment and removal of its members is done by President. It has to present annually to the Central government a report on its performance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption1 (1962-64). Originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Recently, in September 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. The President can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner from the office under the following circumstances: If he is adjudged an insolvent; or If he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Central government) involves a moral turpitude; or If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or If he is (in the opinion of the president), unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions. In addition to these, the president can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following has been adopted from Westminster system of government in Indian Constitution? Parliamentary form of Government Fundamental Rights Federal Structure Judicial Independence Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
The Westminster system is a parliamentary system of government modelled after that which developed in the United Kingdom. From Westminster system , India has adopted Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism. US Constitution: Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Sup-reme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president. Canadian Constitution: Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following has been adopted from Westminster system of government in Indian Constitution? Parliamentary form of Government Fundamental Rights Federal Structure Judicial Independence Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Westminster system is a parliamentary system of government modelled after that which developed in the United Kingdom. From Westminster system , India has adopted Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism. US Constitution: Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Sup-reme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president. Canadian Constitution: Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following leaders was/were not associated with Non-cooperation movement? Subhash Chandra Bose Bal Gangadhar Tilak Chittranjan Das Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The NCM was great success in Bengal, especially in Calcutta. The educational boycott was particularly very successful. Subhas Bose became the principal of the National Congress in Calcutta. Bal Gangadhar Tilak died long before the idea of NCM was conceived by Congress. On 4 September 1920, Congress met at Calcutta in a special session. This special session was presided by Lala Lajpat Rai. In this session Gandhi projected that if the Non-cooperation movement gets successful, Swaraj could be attained in One year. This was something immediately repudiated by CR Das. In December 1920, Congress met once again in the Nagpur Session. This time the differences of CR das had melted away. He moved the main resolution of Non-cooperation. CR Das was an important personality in Bengal during the time of the non-cooperation movement from 1919 to 1922.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following leaders was/were not associated with Non-cooperation movement? Subhash Chandra Bose Bal Gangadhar Tilak Chittranjan Das Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The NCM was great success in Bengal, especially in Calcutta. The educational boycott was particularly very successful. Subhas Bose became the principal of the National Congress in Calcutta. Bal Gangadhar Tilak died long before the idea of NCM was conceived by Congress. On 4 September 1920, Congress met at Calcutta in a special session. This special session was presided by Lala Lajpat Rai. In this session Gandhi projected that if the Non-cooperation movement gets successful, Swaraj could be attained in One year. This was something immediately repudiated by CR Das. In December 1920, Congress met once again in the Nagpur Session. This time the differences of CR das had melted away. He moved the main resolution of Non-cooperation. CR Das was an important personality in Bengal during the time of the non-cooperation movement from 1919 to 1922.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: While Type 1 diabetes affects children, Type 2 is usually discovered in adulthood. While Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease, Type 2 is believed to be a lifestyle disease. Type 1 diabetes is more prevalent in India than Type 2. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
In general, people with diabetes either have a total lack of insulin (type 1 diabetes) or they have too little insulin or cannot use insulin effectively (type 2 diabetes). Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease which is believed to be congenital and affects children and young people unlike Type 2, a late onset disease that afflicts 90 per cent of diabetics and is thought to be caused by improper nutrition and other lifestyle factors. India also is in the grip of a Type 2 diabetes epidemic, with more rural than urban populations diagnosed with the condition. There is also a marked rise in Type 1 afflictions.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: While Type 1 diabetes affects children, Type 2 is usually discovered in adulthood. While Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease, Type 2 is believed to be a lifestyle disease. Type 1 diabetes is more prevalent in India than Type 2. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In general, people with diabetes either have a total lack of insulin (type 1 diabetes) or they have too little insulin or cannot use insulin effectively (type 2 diabetes). Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease which is believed to be congenital and affects children and young people unlike Type 2, a late onset disease that afflicts 90 per cent of diabetics and is thought to be caused by improper nutrition and other lifestyle factors. India also is in the grip of a Type 2 diabetes epidemic, with more rural than urban populations diagnosed with the condition. There is also a marked rise in Type 1 afflictions.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Which of the following describes "Skewflation"?
|
across-the-board price increase over a sustained period of time.
|
an episodic price rise pertaining to one or a small group of commodities.
|
a price rise of one or a small group of commodities over a sustained period of time.
|
across-the-board price increase over a sustained period of time.
|
'Inflation' refers to a sustained, across-the-board price increase, whereas 'a relative price increase' is a reference to an episodic price rise pertaining to one or a small group of commodities. This leaves a third phenomenon, namely one in which there is a price rise of one or a small group of commodities over a sustained period of time, without a traditional designation. 'Skewflation' is a relatively new term to describe this third category of price rise. The distinction between these different kinds of inflation is important because they call for different kinds of policy response from the government.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following describes "Skewflation"?##Option_A: across-the-board price increase over a sustained period of time.###Option_B: an episodic price rise pertaining to one or a small group of commodities.##Option_C: a price rise of one or a small group of commodities over a sustained period of time.##Option_D: across-the-board price increase over a sustained period of time.##Answer:c##Explaination:'Inflation' refers to a sustained, across-the-board price increase, whereas 'a relative price increase' is a reference to an episodic price rise pertaining to one or a small group of commodities. This leaves a third phenomenon, namely one in which there is a price rise of one or a small group of commodities over a sustained period of time, without a traditional designation. 'Skewflation' is a relatively new term to describe this third category of price rise. The distinction between these different kinds of inflation is important because they call for different kinds of policy response from the government.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following best describes "Barchans"?
|
thick deposits of glacial clay
|
crescent-shaped sand dune
|
calcareous deposits in soil
|
thick deposits of glacial clay
|
The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes. Barchans, which are crescent shaped dunes, cover larger areas but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan boundary.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following best describes "Barchans"?##Option_A: thick deposits of glacial clay###Option_B: crescent-shaped sand dune##Option_C: calcareous deposits in soil##Option_D: thick deposits of glacial clay##Answer:b##Explaination:The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes. Barchans, which are crescent shaped dunes, cover larger areas but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan boundary.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
A citizen of United Kingdom is staying in India with his family. During his stay he faces following issues: He is denied to work in a PSU on the grounds of him being not from India. Being a Catholic, he wants to open a Catholic School but is denied the permission. His wife writes a blog criticizing other religions and is arrested for it. For which of the above he can directly go to the Supreme Court as a matter of violation of Fundamental Rights?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Except Article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 all other fundamental rights are available to both citizens and foreigners. Thus a foreigner doesn't enjoy- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16), Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession (Article 19), Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30). Thus he can't claim Fundamental Right for any of the given issues.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A citizen of United Kingdom is staying in India with his family. During his stay he faces following issues: He is denied to work in a PSU on the grounds of him being not from India. Being a Catholic, he wants to open a Catholic School but is denied the permission. His wife writes a blog criticizing other religions and is arrested for it. For which of the above he can directly go to the Supreme Court as a matter of violation of Fundamental Rights?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Except Article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 all other fundamental rights are available to both citizens and foreigners. Thus a foreigner doesn't enjoy- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16), Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession (Article 19), Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30). Thus he can't claim Fundamental Right for any of the given issues.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Milankovitch Cycles are related to which of the following?
|
Sunspot cycle
|
Variations in the Earth's eccentricity, axial tilt, and precession
|
Period of continental drift
|
Sunspot cycle
|
The episodic nature of the Earth's glacial and interglacial periods within the present Ice Age (the last couple of million years) have been caused primarily by cyclical changes in the Earth's circumnavigation of the Sun. Variations in the Earth's eccentricity, axial tilt, and precession comprise the three dominant cycles, collectively known as the Milankovitch Cycles. It is of primary importance to explain that climate change, and subsequent periods of glaciation, resulting from the following three variables is not due to the total amount of solar energy reaching Earth. The three Milankovitch Cycles impact the seasonality and location of solar energy around the Earth, thus impacting contrasts between the seasons.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Milankovitch Cycles are related to which of the following?##Option_A:Sunspot cycle###Option_B:Variations in the Earth's eccentricity, axial tilt, and precession##Option_C:Period of continental drift##Option_D:Sunspot cycle##Answer:b##Explaination:The episodic nature of the Earth's glacial and interglacial periods within the present Ice Age (the last couple of million years) have been caused primarily by cyclical changes in the Earth's circumnavigation of the Sun. Variations in the Earth's eccentricity, axial tilt, and precession comprise the three dominant cycles, collectively known as the Milankovitch Cycles. It is of primary importance to explain that climate change, and subsequent periods of glaciation, resulting from the following three variables is not due to the total amount of solar energy reaching Earth. The three Milankovitch Cycles impact the seasonality and location of solar energy around the Earth, thus impacting contrasts between the seasons.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is correct regarding the recently launched "Setu Bharatam Project"?
|
It aims to make all national highways free of railway crossings.
|
It aims to ensure railway connectivity with all the major ports.
|
It aims to create a shipping route in the shallow straits between India and Sri Lanka.
|
It aims to make all national highways free of railway crossings.
|
Union Government has launched Setu Bharatam Project to make all national highways free of railway crossings by 2019. This project will be implemented by the Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Under this project 208 places have been identified for construction of rail over-bridges (ROB) or underpasses under the project. Around 1,500 bridges that are over 50 to 60 years old or of the British era will be overhauled and will be rebuilt.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is correct regarding the recently launched "Setu Bharatam Project"?##Option_A: It aims to make all national highways free of railway crossings.###Option_B: It aims to ensure railway connectivity with all the major ports.##Option_C: It aims to create a shipping route in the shallow straits between India and Sri Lanka.##Option_D: It aims to make all national highways free of railway crossings.##Answer:a##Explaination:Union Government has launched Setu Bharatam Project to make all national highways free of railway crossings by 2019. This project will be implemented by the Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Under this project 208 places have been identified for construction of rail over-bridges (ROB) or underpasses under the project. Around 1,500 bridges that are over 50 to 60 years old or of the British era will be overhauled and will be rebuilt.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to Kalighat paintings, consider the following statements: It originated in West Bengal. It depicts figures in three-dimensional form. Social changes introduced by British were used as its theme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Kalighat Painting: In the nineteenth century a new world of popular art developed in many of the cities of India. In Bengal, around the pilgrimage centre of the temple of Kalighat, local village scroll painters (called patuas) and potters (called kumors in eastern India and kumhars in north India) began developing a new style of art. Before the nineteenth century, the village patuas and kumors had worked on mythological themes and produced images of gods and goddesses. After the 1840s, we see a new trend within the Kalighat artists. Living in a society where values, tastes, social norms and customs were undergoing rapid changes, Kalighat artists responded to the world around, and produced paintings on social and political themes. Many of the late-nineteenth-century Kalighat paintings depict social life under British rule. Often the artists mocked at the changes they saw around, ridiculing the new tastes of those who spoke in English and adopted Western habits, dressed like sahibs, smoked cigarettes, or sat on chairs. Kalighat painters began to use shading to give them a rounded form, to make the images look three-dimensional.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Kalighat paintings, consider the following statements: It originated in West Bengal. It depicts figures in three-dimensional form. Social changes introduced by British were used as its theme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Kalighat Painting: In the nineteenth century a new world of popular art developed in many of the cities of India. In Bengal, around the pilgrimage centre of the temple of Kalighat, local village scroll painters (called patuas) and potters (called kumors in eastern India and kumhars in north India) began developing a new style of art. Before the nineteenth century, the village patuas and kumors had worked on mythological themes and produced images of gods and goddesses. After the 1840s, we see a new trend within the Kalighat artists. Living in a society where values, tastes, social norms and customs were undergoing rapid changes, Kalighat artists responded to the world around, and produced paintings on social and political themes. Many of the late-nineteenth-century Kalighat paintings depict social life under British rule. Often the artists mocked at the changes they saw around, ridiculing the new tastes of those who spoke in English and adopted Western habits, dressed like sahibs, smoked cigarettes, or sat on chairs. Kalighat painters began to use shading to give them a rounded form, to make the images look three-dimensional.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
With reference finance emergency consider the following statements: 1. Article 360 also empowers the governor to proclaim a Financial Emergency. 2. A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
b
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference finance emergency consider the following statements: 1. Article 360 also empowers the governor to proclaim a Financial Emergency. 2. A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
India’s first indigenous rotavirus vaccine named Rotavac is launched to combat infant mortality caused due to which of the following diseases?
|
Pneumonia
|
Diarrhea
|
Measles
|
Pneumonia
|
The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched India's first indigenous rotavirus vaccine named Rotavac to combat infant mortality due to diarrhea. The Rotavirus vaccine has been developed indigenously under a public-private partnership between the Union Ministry of Science Technology, Union Health Ministry, institutions of the US Government and NGOs in India supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation. The vaccine is administered orally to infants in three dose course at ages of six, ten and fourteen weeks as part of Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP). Diarrhea is caused by virus which spreads from person to person due to bacterial and parasiting agents that are primarily transmitted through contaminated food or water. It causes gastroenteritis after it damages the cells that line the small intestine and causes gastroenteritis. In some cases in causes malnutrition, delayed physical and mental development among children.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India’s first indigenous rotavirus vaccine named Rotavac is launched to combat infant mortality caused due to which of the following diseases?##Option_A: Pneumonia###Option_B: Diarrhea##Option_C: Measles##Option_D: Pneumonia##Answer:b##Explaination:The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched India's first indigenous rotavirus vaccine named Rotavac to combat infant mortality due to diarrhea. The Rotavirus vaccine has been developed indigenously under a public-private partnership between the Union Ministry of Science Technology, Union Health Ministry, institutions of the US Government and NGOs in India supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation. The vaccine is administered orally to infants in three dose course at ages of six, ten and fourteen weeks as part of Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP). Diarrhea is caused by virus which spreads from person to person due to bacterial and parasiting agents that are primarily transmitted through contaminated food or water. It causes gastroenteritis after it damages the cells that line the small intestine and causes gastroenteritis. In some cases in causes malnutrition, delayed physical and mental development among children.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The followers of this school of philosophy are described as fatalists as they believed that everything is pre-determined in this world and human beings have no free will. The exact nature of doctrine of this philosophy is not very clear because the sect"s own texts have not survived. Which is the school of philosophy?
|
Lokayata
|
Ajivika
|
Advaita Vedanta
|
Lokayata
|
Ajivika is one of the nastika or "heterodox" schools of Indian philosophy. Founded in the 5th century BCE by Makkhali Gosala, it was a śramaṇa movement and a major rival of early Buddhism and Jainism. Ajivika were organised renunciates who formed discrete communities. Original scriptures of the Ajivika school of philosophy once existed, but these are unavailable and probably lost. Their theories are extracted from mentions of Ajivikas in the secondary sources of ancient Indian literature. The Ajivika school is known for its Niyati doctrine of absolute determinism, the premise that there is no free will, that everything that has happened, is happening and will happen is entirely preordained and a function of cosmic principles. Ajivika considered the karma doctrine as a fallacy.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The followers of this school of philosophy are described as fatalists as they believed that everything is pre-determined in this world and human beings have no free will. The exact nature of doctrine of this philosophy is not very clear because the sect"s own texts have not survived. Which is the school of philosophy?##Option_A: Lokayata###Option_B: Ajivika##Option_C: Advaita Vedanta##Option_D: Lokayata##Answer:b##Explaination:Ajivika is one of the nastika or "heterodox" schools of Indian philosophy. Founded in the 5th century BCE by Makkhali Gosala, it was a śramaṇa movement and a major rival of early Buddhism and Jainism. Ajivika were organised renunciates who formed discrete communities. Original scriptures of the Ajivika school of philosophy once existed, but these are unavailable and probably lost. Their theories are extracted from mentions of Ajivikas in the secondary sources of ancient Indian literature. The Ajivika school is known for its Niyati doctrine of absolute determinism, the premise that there is no free will, that everything that has happened, is happening and will happen is entirely preordained and a function of cosmic principles. Ajivika considered the karma doctrine as a fallacy.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are part of our State emblem? Three visible lions A galloping horse A bull A Chakra (Wheel) A bell Shaped Lotus Ahimsa Paramo Dharma written in Devanagari Select the correct option using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
5 and 6 only
|
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra). In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible, the fourth being hidden from view. The wheel appears in relief in the centre of the abacus with a bull on right and a horse on left and the outlines of other wheels on extreme right and left. The bell-shaped lotus has been omitted. The words Satyameva Jayate from Mundaka Upanishad, meaning 'Truth Alone Triumphs', are inscribed below the abacus in Devanagari script. Hence A is the correct answer.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are part of our State emblem? Three visible lions A galloping horse A bull A Chakra (Wheel) A bell Shaped Lotus Ahimsa Paramo Dharma written in Devanagari Select the correct option using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 5 and 6 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra). In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible, the fourth being hidden from view. The wheel appears in relief in the centre of the abacus with a bull on right and a horse on left and the outlines of other wheels on extreme right and left. The bell-shaped lotus has been omitted. The words Satyameva Jayate from Mundaka Upanishad, meaning 'Truth Alone Triumphs', are inscribed below the abacus in Devanagari script. Hence A is the correct answer.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
With reference to the "Forest Dwellers Act or Recognition of Forest Rights Act, 2006", consider the following statements: The implementing ministry of this act is Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The Act seeks to recognize both the rights and occupation of traditional forest dwellers and Schedule Tribes in such forests. It provides for diversion of forest land only with the recommendation of the gram sabhas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Schedule Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers Act or Recognition of Forest Rights Act came into force in 2006. The Nodal Ministry for the Act is Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The Acts seeks to recognize the rights and occupation of traditional forest dwellers and Schedule Tribes in such forests. It provides for diversion of forest land only with the recommendation of the gram sabhas. Also includes right of self-cultivation for livelihood, rights over minor forest produce, community rights such as nistar etc. Reports of alleged violation of the Forest Rights Act by the Odisha Mining Corporation in tribal areas of Odisha have brought the Act under the spotlight.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the "Forest Dwellers Act or Recognition of Forest Rights Act, 2006", consider the following statements: The implementing ministry of this act is Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The Act seeks to recognize both the rights and occupation of traditional forest dwellers and Schedule Tribes in such forests. It provides for diversion of forest land only with the recommendation of the gram sabhas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Schedule Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers Act or Recognition of Forest Rights Act came into force in 2006. The Nodal Ministry for the Act is Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The Acts seeks to recognize the rights and occupation of traditional forest dwellers and Schedule Tribes in such forests. It provides for diversion of forest land only with the recommendation of the gram sabhas. Also includes right of self-cultivation for livelihood, rights over minor forest produce, community rights such as nistar etc. Reports of alleged violation of the Forest Rights Act by the Odisha Mining Corporation in tribal areas of Odisha have brought the Act under the spotlight.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Concentrating Solar Power technology, consider the following statements: It does not use photovoltaic cells to generate power. In this heat energy is converted to electricity. It produces electricity in the form of alternating current. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) technology utilizes focused sunlight. CSP plants generate electric power by using mirrors to concentrate (focus) the sun's energy and convert it into high-temperature heat. That heat is then channeled through a conventional generator. The plants consist of two parts: one that collects solar energy and converts it to heat, and another that converts the heat energy to electricity. CSP vs PV - technologies Concentrated Solar Thermal systems (CSP), are not the same as Photovoltaic panels; CSP systems concentrate radiation of the sun to heat a liquid substance which is then used to drive a heat engine and drive an electric generator. This indirect method generates alternating current (AC) which can be easily distributed on the power network. Photovoltaic (PV) solar panels differ from solar thermal systems in that they do not use the sun's heat to generate power. Instead, they use sunlight through the 'photovoltaic effect' to generate direct electric current (DC) in a direct electricity production process. The DC is then converted to AC, usually with the use of inverters, in order to be distributed on the power network.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Concentrating Solar Power technology, consider the following statements: It does not use photovoltaic cells to generate power. In this heat energy is converted to electricity. It produces electricity in the form of alternating current. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) technology utilizes focused sunlight. CSP plants generate electric power by using mirrors to concentrate (focus) the sun's energy and convert it into high-temperature heat. That heat is then channeled through a conventional generator. The plants consist of two parts: one that collects solar energy and converts it to heat, and another that converts the heat energy to electricity. CSP vs PV - technologies Concentrated Solar Thermal systems (CSP), are not the same as Photovoltaic panels; CSP systems concentrate radiation of the sun to heat a liquid substance which is then used to drive a heat engine and drive an electric generator. This indirect method generates alternating current (AC) which can be easily distributed on the power network. Photovoltaic (PV) solar panels differ from solar thermal systems in that they do not use the sun's heat to generate power. Instead, they use sunlight through the 'photovoltaic effect' to generate direct electric current (DC) in a direct electricity production process. The DC is then converted to AC, usually with the use of inverters, in order to be distributed on the power network.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Which among the following correctly defines ‘Opportunity Cost’?
|
The loss of other alternatives when one alternative is not chosen.
|
The economic cost of waiting for an opportunity.
|
A benefit of something that must be given up to acquire something else.
|
The loss of other alternatives when one alternative is not chosen.
|
An opportunity cost is the cost of an alternative that must be forgone in order to pursue a certain action. Put another way, the benefits you could have received by taking an alternative action. Since every resource can be put to alternative uses, every action or decision has an associated opportunity cost. The opportunity cost of going to college is the money you would have earned if you worked instead. On the one hand, you lose four years of salary while getting your degree; on the other hand, you hope to earn more during your career, thanks to your education, to offset the lost wages. Another example: if a gardener decides to grow carrots, his or her opportunity cost is the alternative crop that might have been grown instead (potatoes, tomatoes, pumpkins, etc.)
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following correctly defines ‘Opportunity Cost’?##Option_A: The loss of other alternatives when one alternative is not chosen.###Option_B: The economic cost of waiting for an opportunity.##Option_C: A benefit of something that must be given up to acquire something else.##Option_D: The loss of other alternatives when one alternative is not chosen.##Answer:c##Explaination:An opportunity cost is the cost of an alternative that must be forgone in order to pursue a certain action. Put another way, the benefits you could have received by taking an alternative action. Since every resource can be put to alternative uses, every action or decision has an associated opportunity cost. The opportunity cost of going to college is the money you would have earned if you worked instead. On the one hand, you lose four years of salary while getting your degree; on the other hand, you hope to earn more during your career, thanks to your education, to offset the lost wages. Another example: if a gardener decides to grow carrots, his or her opportunity cost is the alternative crop that might have been grown instead (potatoes, tomatoes, pumpkins, etc.)##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Tropical Grasslands : Regions 1. Llanos : Venezuela 2. Pampas : Brazil 3. Campos : Argentina Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Llanos is a vast tropical grassland plain situated to the east of the Andes in northwestern South America. They are wide grasslands stretching across northern South America and occupying western Venezuela and northeastern Colombia. The Pampas of South America are a grassland biome. They are flat, fertile plains that are found primarily in Argentina and extends into Uruguay. Campos is a stretch of tropical grasslands in Brazil.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Tropical Grasslands : Regions 1. Llanos : Venezuela 2. Pampas : Brazil 3. Campos : Argentina Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Llanos is a vast tropical grassland plain situated to the east of the Andes in northwestern South America. They are wide grasslands stretching across northern South America and occupying western Venezuela and northeastern Colombia. The Pampas of South America are a grassland biome. They are flat, fertile plains that are found primarily in Argentina and extends into Uruguay. Campos is a stretch of tropical grasslands in Brazil.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
"Traditionally, in comparison to the area sown during Rabi, farmers cultivate only about 50% of the area during the season of Kharif. The primary reason given is that the region suffers due to Anna Pratha." Which of the following regions in best described by the above passage?
|
Marathwada
|
Rayalaseema
|
Bundelkhand
|
Marathwada
|
Traditionally, in comparison to the area sown during Rabi, farmers cultivate only about 50% of the area during the season of Kharif in Bundelkhand. While the net cropped area during Rabi is approximately 18.50 lakh hectares, the area cropped during Kharif has hovered around 9 lakh hectares. The primary reason given is that the region suffers due to Anna Pratha. This is a traditional system under which people leave their milch cattle unfettered to graze in the fields. These cattle eat up the crops and therefore the farmers are not inclined to sow their lands during the season of Kharif. This does not happen during the Rabi season as he farmers keep their cattle at home.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Traditionally, in comparison to the area sown during Rabi, farmers cultivate only about 50% of the area during the season of Kharif. The primary reason given is that the region suffers due to Anna Pratha." Which of the following regions in best described by the above passage?##Option_A: Marathwada###Option_B: Rayalaseema##Option_C: Bundelkhand##Option_D: Marathwada##Answer:c##Explaination:Traditionally, in comparison to the area sown during Rabi, farmers cultivate only about 50% of the area during the season of Kharif in Bundelkhand. While the net cropped area during Rabi is approximately 18.50 lakh hectares, the area cropped during Kharif has hovered around 9 lakh hectares. The primary reason given is that the region suffers due to Anna Pratha. This is a traditional system under which people leave their milch cattle unfettered to graze in the fields. These cattle eat up the crops and therefore the farmers are not inclined to sow their lands during the season of Kharif. This does not happen during the Rabi season as he farmers keep their cattle at home.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following projects is/are related to providing last mile internet connectivity? Project Loon Aquila White Fi Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Project Loon is a research and development project being developed by X (formerly Google X) with the mission of providing Internet access to rural and remote areas. Aquila by Facebook is a solar power plane that beams internet connectivity from the Sky. White Fi by Microsoft uses unused spectrum to provide connectivity.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following projects is/are related to providing last mile internet connectivity? Project Loon Aquila White Fi Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Project Loon is a research and development project being developed by X (formerly Google X) with the mission of providing Internet access to rural and remote areas. Aquila by Facebook is a solar power plane that beams internet connectivity from the Sky. White Fi by Microsoft uses unused spectrum to provide connectivity.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
In some pockets of United Province, peasants’ movement was characterized by Nai-Dhobi Band. Which of the following statements explains Nai-Dhobi band?
|
It was a form of political boycott.
|
It was a form of social boycott.
|
It was a form of economic boycott.
|
It was a form of political boycott.
|
Nai-Dhobi band was a form of social boycott witnessed during Kisan Sabha movement in United Provinces. The landowners and the empathizers of government were denied the basic facilities of washermen and barber. They were socially boycotted.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In some pockets of United Province, peasants’ movement was characterized by Nai-Dhobi Band. Which of the following statements explains Nai-Dhobi band?##Option_A: It was a form of political boycott.###Option_B: It was a form of social boycott.##Option_C: It was a form of economic boycott.##Option_D: It was a form of political boycott.##Answer:b##Explaination:Nai-Dhobi band was a form of social boycott witnessed during Kisan Sabha movement in United Provinces. The landowners and the empathizers of government were denied the basic facilities of washermen and barber. They were socially boycotted.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Which of the following correctly defines "Masala bonds"?
|
They are rupee-denominated instruments sold only to offshore investors by Indian corporates to raise money from overseas.
|
They are dollar-denominated instruments sold only to offshore investors by Indian corporates to raise money from overseas.
|
They are rupee-denominated instruments sold only to Indian investors by offshore corporates to raise money from India.
|
They are rupee-denominated instruments sold only to offshore investors by Indian corporates to raise money from overseas.
|
Bonds are instruments of debt that are typically used by corporates to raise money from investors. Masala bonds are rupee-denominated instruments sold only to offshore investors by Indian corporates for raising money from overseas investors. They do not face currency fluctuation risks.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following correctly defines "Masala bonds"?##Option_A: They are rupee-denominated instruments sold only to offshore investors by Indian corporates to raise money from overseas.###Option_B: They are dollar-denominated instruments sold only to offshore investors by Indian corporates to raise money from overseas.##Option_C: They are rupee-denominated instruments sold only to Indian investors by offshore corporates to raise money from India.##Option_D: They are rupee-denominated instruments sold only to offshore investors by Indian corporates to raise money from overseas.##Answer:a##Explaination:Bonds are instruments of debt that are typically used by corporates to raise money from investors. Masala bonds are rupee-denominated instruments sold only to offshore investors by Indian corporates for raising money from overseas investors. They do not face currency fluctuation risks.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Economic Council for Asia and Pacific works under the framework of:
|
United Nations
|
Asia Pacific Economic Forum
|
South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
|
United Nations
|
The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is the regional development arm of the United Nations for the Asia-Pacific region. Made up of 53 Member States and 9 Associate Members, with a geographical scope that stretches from Turkey in the west to the Pacific island nation of Kiribati in the east, and from the Russian Federation in the north to New Zealand in the south, the region is home to 4.1 billion people, or two thirds of the world's population.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Economic Council for Asia and Pacific works under the framework of:##Option_A: United Nations###Option_B: Asia Pacific Economic Forum##Option_C: South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation##Option_D: United Nations##Answer:a##Explaination:The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is the regional development arm of the United Nations for the Asia-Pacific region. Made up of 53 Member States and 9 Associate Members, with a geographical scope that stretches from Turkey in the west to the Pacific island nation of Kiribati in the east, and from the Russian Federation in the north to New Zealand in the south, the region is home to 4.1 billion people, or two thirds of the world's population.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to Pabna Agrarian unrest of 1870s, consider the following statements: It emerged against zamindars efforts to prevent tenant from acquiring occupancy rights. It used legal resistance as main form of struggle. No anti-British demands were raised during the unrest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Pabna Movement (1872-76): In East Bengal the peasantry was oppressed by zamindars through frequent recourse to ejection, harassment, arbitrary enhancement of rent through ceases (abwabs) and use of force. The zamindars also tried to prevent them from acquiring the occupancy rights under the Act of 1859. In May 1873 an Agrarian League was formed in the Yusufzahi Pargana of Pabna district (East Bengal). Payments of enhanced rents were refused and the peasants fought the zamindars in the courts. The main form of the struggle was that of legal resistance. Similar leagues were formed in the adjoining districts of Bengal. The main leaders of the Agrarian League were Ishan Chandra Roy, Shambu Pal and Khoodi Mullah. The agrarian leagues kept within the bounds of law, used the legal machinery to fight the zamindars and raised no anti- British demands. The leaders often argued that they leaders often argued that they were against zamindars and not the British. Infact, the leaders raised the slogan that the peasants want to be the ryots of Her Majesty and the Queen and of Her only. The discontent continued till 1885 when the Government by the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 enhanced the occupancy rights.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Pabna Agrarian unrest of 1870s, consider the following statements: It emerged against zamindars efforts to prevent tenant from acquiring occupancy rights. It used legal resistance as main form of struggle. No anti-British demands were raised during the unrest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Pabna Movement (1872-76): In East Bengal the peasantry was oppressed by zamindars through frequent recourse to ejection, harassment, arbitrary enhancement of rent through ceases (abwabs) and use of force. The zamindars also tried to prevent them from acquiring the occupancy rights under the Act of 1859. In May 1873 an Agrarian League was formed in the Yusufzahi Pargana of Pabna district (East Bengal). Payments of enhanced rents were refused and the peasants fought the zamindars in the courts. The main form of the struggle was that of legal resistance. Similar leagues were formed in the adjoining districts of Bengal. The main leaders of the Agrarian League were Ishan Chandra Roy, Shambu Pal and Khoodi Mullah. The agrarian leagues kept within the bounds of law, used the legal machinery to fight the zamindars and raised no anti- British demands. The leaders often argued that they leaders often argued that they were against zamindars and not the British. Infact, the leaders raised the slogan that the peasants want to be the ryots of Her Majesty and the Queen and of Her only. The discontent continued till 1885 when the Government by the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 enhanced the occupancy rights.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With reference to time and demand deposits, which among the following statements are correct? All current account deposits are demand deposits. All fixed deposits are time deposits. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Current Account Deposits are payable on demand. They can be drawn upon by cheque without any restriction. These accounts are usually maintained by businesses and are used for making business payments. No interest is paid on these accounts. Fixed/Term Deposits are deposits for a fixed term (period of time) varying from a few days to a few years. They are not payable on demand and do not enjoy chequing facilities. Interest is paid on these deposits and the rate of interest rises with the term of the deposits. In monetary analysis deposits are classified into two types: demand deposits and time deposits. Demand deposits are payable on demand either through cheque or otherwise. Only demand depositsmay serve as a medium of exchange, because their ownership can be transferred from person to person through cheques. All other deposits are not payable on demand are called time deposits. All current account deposits are demand deposits and all term deposits are time deposits.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to time and demand deposits, which among the following statements are correct? All current account deposits are demand deposits. All fixed deposits are time deposits. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Current Account Deposits are payable on demand. They can be drawn upon by cheque without any restriction. These accounts are usually maintained by businesses and are used for making business payments. No interest is paid on these accounts. Fixed/Term Deposits are deposits for a fixed term (period of time) varying from a few days to a few years. They are not payable on demand and do not enjoy chequing facilities. Interest is paid on these deposits and the rate of interest rises with the term of the deposits. In monetary analysis deposits are classified into two types: demand deposits and time deposits. Demand deposits are payable on demand either through cheque or otherwise. Only demand depositsmay serve as a medium of exchange, because their ownership can be transferred from person to person through cheques. All other deposits are not payable on demand are called time deposits. All current account deposits are demand deposits and all term deposits are time deposits.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
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