Question
stringlengths 0
1.31k
| Option_A
stringlengths 0
220
| Option_B
stringlengths 0
265
| Option_C
stringlengths 0
589
| Option_D
stringlengths 0
220
| Explaination
stringlengths 0
7.94k
| Answer
stringclasses 4
values | Topic
stringclasses 480
values | Subject
stringclasses 12
values | prompt
stringlengths 165
8.89k
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Which of the following factors affect Climate of India? 1. La Nina 2. Westerly jet streams 3. Tibetan plateau 4. Indian ocean Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
La Nina - Occurrence of La Nina and El Nino affects the South west monsoon and rainfall pattern across India. Westerly jet streams - They are prevalent over north India during winters and are also responsible for winter rains in North west region. Tibetan plateau - Tibetan plateau is the main reason for change of pressure system across India and it influences the occurrence of monsoon as well. Indian Ocean - India is surrounded by Indian ocean, bay of bengal and arabian sea. This acts as the major source of moisture for south west and north east monsoon.
|
d
|
Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors affect Climate of India? 1. La Nina 2. Westerly jet streams 3. Tibetan plateau 4. Indian ocean Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:La Nina - Occurrence of La Nina and El Nino affects the South west monsoon and rainfall pattern across India. Westerly jet streams - They are prevalent over north India during winters and are also responsible for winter rains in North west region. Tibetan plateau - Tibetan plateau is the main reason for change of pressure system across India and it influences the occurrence of monsoon as well. Indian Ocean - India is surrounded by Indian ocean, bay of bengal and arabian sea. This acts as the major source of moisture for south west and north east monsoon.##Topic:Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which among the following schools of philosophy believed in the existence of God? Samkhya Lokayata Yoga Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Both Samkhya and Lokayata schools did not believe in existence of God. Samkhya is an atheistic and strongly dualistic orthodox (Astika) school of Indian philosophy. The Samkhya Sutra (14th c. CE) and its commentaries explicitly attempt to disprove god's existence through reasoned argument. The Lokayata school aslo known as Charvaka school was an atheist school. Its followers rejected the authority of Vedas and Brahmans. The metaphysical ideas of Yoga school were originally close to those of Samkhya school, but they differed in that they brought a deity in to the picture.
|
c
|
Religion and Philosophy
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following schools of philosophy believed in the existence of God? Samkhya Lokayata Yoga Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Both Samkhya and Lokayata schools did not believe in existence of God. Samkhya is an atheistic and strongly dualistic orthodox (Astika) school of Indian philosophy. The Samkhya Sutra (14th c. CE) and its commentaries explicitly attempt to disprove god's existence through reasoned argument. The Lokayata school aslo known as Charvaka school was an atheist school. Its followers rejected the authority of Vedas and Brahmans. The metaphysical ideas of Yoga school were originally close to those of Samkhya school, but they differed in that they brought a deity in to the picture.##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
With reference to agricultural sector, what is the aim of agricultural extension services?
|
bringing more area under cultivation
|
extending agricultural finance at subsidised rates
|
transmission of scientific technologies to agricultural practices
|
bringing more area under cultivation
|
Agricultural extension is the application of scientific research and knowledge to agricultural practices through farmer education. Generally, agricultural extension can be defined as the "delivery of information inputs to farmers." Extension services are classified into 3 types: Technology transfer: the traditional model of the transfer of advice, knowledge and information in a linear manner; Advisory: the use by farmers of a cadre of experts as a source of advice in relation to specific problems faced by them; Facilitation: the aim of this model is to help farmers to define their own problems and develop their own solutions.
|
c
|
Agriculture: Recent trends in Agriculture Sector, Agricultural Marketing and Reforms, Agricultural Research, Sustainable Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to agricultural sector, what is the aim of agricultural extension services?##Option_A: bringing more area under cultivation###Option_B: extending agricultural finance at subsidised rates##Option_C: transmission of scientific technologies to agricultural practices##Option_D: bringing more area under cultivation##Answer:c##Explaination:Agricultural extension is the application of scientific research and knowledge to agricultural practices through farmer education. Generally, agricultural extension can be defined as the "delivery of information inputs to farmers." Extension services are classified into 3 types: Technology transfer: the traditional model of the transfer of advice, knowledge and information in a linear manner; Advisory: the use by farmers of a cadre of experts as a source of advice in relation to specific problems faced by them; Facilitation: the aim of this model is to help farmers to define their own problems and develop their own solutions.##Topic:Agriculture: Recent trends in Agriculture Sector, Agricultural Marketing and Reforms, Agricultural Research, Sustainable Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the FCNR (B) accounts, consider the following statements: The deposits in FCNR(B) accounts cannot be used to make any local payments in India. Deposits in the FCNR (B) accounts increase external debt of India. Currency risks due to exchange rate fluctuations are borne by the banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
An FCNR account is a term deposit account that can be maintained by NRIs and PIOs in foreign currency. FCNRs are not savings accounts but fixed deposit accounts. The balance in FCNR account for making local payments in India. India’s external debt at the end of 2015-16 grew $10.6 billion or 2.2 per cent, year on year, to $485.6 billion, primarily on account of a rise in non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits, including the FCNR(B) deposits. The primary feature of FCNR (B) deposits is that depositors do not face currency risk, the currency risk is borne by banks.
|
c
|
Misc Economic Issues
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the FCNR (B) accounts, consider the following statements: The deposits in FCNR(B) accounts cannot be used to make any local payments in India. Deposits in the FCNR (B) accounts increase external debt of India. Currency risks due to exchange rate fluctuations are borne by the banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:An FCNR account is a term deposit account that can be maintained by NRIs and PIOs in foreign currency. FCNRs are not savings accounts but fixed deposit accounts. The balance in FCNR account for making local payments in India. India’s external debt at the end of 2015-16 grew $10.6 billion or 2.2 per cent, year on year, to $485.6 billion, primarily on account of a rise in non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits, including the FCNR(B) deposits. The primary feature of FCNR (B) deposits is that depositors do not face currency risk, the currency risk is borne by banks.##Topic:Misc Economic Issues##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
A rise in which of the following macro-economic variables may lead to a fall in the level of output in an economy? Savings Export Government taxes Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
There are macro variables, a rise in level of which leads to a fall in the level of output in the economy. These include (i) saving (ii) imports (iii) government taxes. A rise in level of any of these variables implies a fall in level of demand for the domestically produced goods. This leads to a fall in the level of the output in the economy. There are macro variables, a rise in the level of which leads to a rise in the level of output in the economy. These include: government consumption expenditure government investment expenditure exports A rise in the level of any these variables implies a rise in the level of demand for goods produced in the domestic economy. This is expected to cause a rise in the level of output in the economy.
|
c
|
Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A rise in which of the following macro-economic variables may lead to a fall in the level of output in an economy? Savings Export Government taxes Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:There are macro variables, a rise in level of which leads to a fall in the level of output in the economy. These include (i) saving (ii) imports (iii) government taxes. A rise in level of any of these variables implies a fall in level of demand for the domestically produced goods. This leads to a fall in the level of the output in the economy. There are macro variables, a rise in the level of which leads to a rise in the level of output in the economy. These include: government consumption expenditure government investment expenditure exports A rise in the level of any these variables implies a rise in the level of demand for goods produced in the domestic economy. This is expected to cause a rise in the level of output in the economy.##Topic:Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to "Income elasticity of demand", which of the following statements is/are correct? Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The income elasticity of demand is a measure of the relationship between a change in the quantity demanded for a particular good and a change in real income. It refers to the sensitivity of the quantity demanded for a certain product in response to a change in consumer incomes. The formula for calculating income elasticity of demand is: Income Elasticity of Demand = % change in quantity demanded / % change in income Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. As incomes rise, more goods are demanded at each price level. The quantity demanded for normal necessities will increase with income, but at a slower rate than luxury goods. This is because consumers, rather than buying more of the necessities, will likely use their increased income to purchase more luxury goods and services. During a period of increasing incomes, the quantity demanded for luxury products tends to increase at a higher rate than the quantity demanded for necessities. The quantity demanded for luxury goods is very sensitive to changes in income. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand - the quantity demanded for inferior goods falls as incomes rise. For example, the quantity demanded for generic food items tends to decrease during periods of increased incomes. Hence, both the given statements are correct.
|
c
|
Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to "Income elasticity of demand", which of the following statements is/are correct? Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The income elasticity of demand is a measure of the relationship between a change in the quantity demanded for a particular good and a change in real income. It refers to the sensitivity of the quantity demanded for a certain product in response to a change in consumer incomes. The formula for calculating income elasticity of demand is: Income Elasticity of Demand = % change in quantity demanded / % change in income Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. As incomes rise, more goods are demanded at each price level. The quantity demanded for normal necessities will increase with income, but at a slower rate than luxury goods. This is because consumers, rather than buying more of the necessities, will likely use their increased income to purchase more luxury goods and services. During a period of increasing incomes, the quantity demanded for luxury products tends to increase at a higher rate than the quantity demanded for necessities. The quantity demanded for luxury goods is very sensitive to changes in income. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand - the quantity demanded for inferior goods falls as incomes rise. For example, the quantity demanded for generic food items tends to decrease during periods of increased incomes. Hence, both the given statements are correct.##Topic:Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with respect to Hedge funds: 1. Hedge funds, defined under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, are unregistered private investment partnerships that invest and trade in securities. 2. Hedge funds are subject to regulatory provisions similar to Mutual Funds. Which of the above statement is/ are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Hedge fund is a private investment partnership and funds pool that uses varied and complex proprietary strategies and invests or trades in complex products, including listed and unlisted derivatives. There is no exact definition to the term “Hedge Fund”. Hedge funds are unregistered private investment partnerships, funds or pools that may invest and trade in many different markets, strategies and instruments (including securities, non-securities, and derivatives). Hence, statement 1 is correct. Put simply, a hedge fund is a pool of money that takes both short and long positions, buys and sells equities, initiates arbitrage, and trades bonds, currencies, convertible securities, commodities, and derivative products to generate returns at reduced risk. As the name suggests, the fund tries to hedge risks to investor’s capital against market volatility by employing alternative investment approaches. Hedge funds are sometimes called a ‘rich man’s mutual fund’. These funds work either as private investment partnerships or offshore investment corporations. They are not required to be registered with the securities markets regulator and are not subject to the reporting requirements, including periodic disclosure of NAVs. The term can also be defined by considering the characteristics most commonly associated with hedge funds. Usually, hedge funds: 1. are organized as private investment partnerships or offshore investment corporations.; 2. use a wide variety of trading strategies involving position-taking in a range of markets; 3. employ as an assortment of trading techniques and instruments, often including short-selling, derivatives, and leverage; 4. pay performance fees to their managers, and have an investor base comprising wealthy individuals and institutions and a relatively high minimum investment limit ( set at US $100,000 or higher for most funds). In many ways, hedge funds are similar to mutual funds. Both entities issue units or securities to investors, hold pools of securities to diversify investment, have professional asset managers and may, at times, have similar investment strategies. Mutual funds are registered with securities markets regulator and are subject to the provisions of the relevant regulations such as offer/issue of units/securities, disclosure and reporting requirement, valuation for the purpose of computation of NAV, conflict of interest issue and limit leverage. Hedge funds are not required to be registered and therefore, are not subject to similar regulatory provisions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
|
a
|
Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to Hedge funds: 1. Hedge funds, defined under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, are unregistered private investment partnerships that invest and trade in securities. 2. Hedge funds are subject to regulatory provisions similar to Mutual Funds. Which of the above statement is/ are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Hedge fund is a private investment partnership and funds pool that uses varied and complex proprietary strategies and invests or trades in complex products, including listed and unlisted derivatives. There is no exact definition to the term “Hedge Fund”. Hedge funds are unregistered private investment partnerships, funds or pools that may invest and trade in many different markets, strategies and instruments (including securities, non-securities, and derivatives). Hence, statement 1 is correct. Put simply, a hedge fund is a pool of money that takes both short and long positions, buys and sells equities, initiates arbitrage, and trades bonds, currencies, convertible securities, commodities, and derivative products to generate returns at reduced risk. As the name suggests, the fund tries to hedge risks to investor’s capital against market volatility by employing alternative investment approaches. Hedge funds are sometimes called a ‘rich man’s mutual fund’. These funds work either as private investment partnerships or offshore investment corporations. They are not required to be registered with the securities markets regulator and are not subject to the reporting requirements, including periodic disclosure of NAVs. The term can also be defined by considering the characteristics most commonly associated with hedge funds. Usually, hedge funds: 1. are organized as private investment partnerships or offshore investment corporations.; 2. use a wide variety of trading strategies involving position-taking in a range of markets; 3. employ as an assortment of trading techniques and instruments, often including short-selling, derivatives, and leverage; 4. pay performance fees to their managers, and have an investor base comprising wealthy individuals and institutions and a relatively high minimum investment limit ( set at US $100,000 or higher for most funds). In many ways, hedge funds are similar to mutual funds. Both entities issue units or securities to investors, hold pools of securities to diversify investment, have professional asset managers and may, at times, have similar investment strategies. Mutual funds are registered with securities markets regulator and are subject to the provisions of the relevant regulations such as offer/issue of units/securities, disclosure and reporting requirement, valuation for the purpose of computation of NAV, conflict of interest issue and limit leverage. Hedge funds are not required to be registered and therefore, are not subject to similar regulatory provisions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. ##Topic:Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: If Prime Minister of India is from upper house he will not be able to vote in his favour in case of a no-confidence motion. If any member of Council of Minister is from upper house he can not make statements in lower house. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : If Prime Minister of India is from upper house he will not be able to vote in his favour in case of a no-confidence motion. Statement 2 is not correct : A Council of Minister from upper house can make statements in lower house also.
|
a
|
Council of ministers
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: If Prime Minister of India is from upper house he will not be able to vote in his favour in case of a no-confidence motion. If any member of Council of Minister is from upper house he can not make statements in lower house. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : If Prime Minister of India is from upper house he will not be able to vote in his favour in case of a no-confidence motion. Statement 2 is not correct : A Council of Minister from upper house can make statements in lower house also.##Topic:Council of ministers##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The split in Arya Samaj in 1893 occurred due to difference in opinion of:
|
Consumption of Meat vs. Vegetarianism
|
Anglicised vs. Sanskrit based education
|
Underage marriage
|
Consumption of Meat vs. Vegetarianism
|
The Arya Samaj Movement was an outcome of reaction to Western influences. Dayanand Saraswati, its founder, rejected Western ideas and sought to revive the ancient religion of the Aryans. He disregarded the authority of later Hindu scriptures like the Puranas and described them as the work of lesser men and responsible for the evil practices of idol worship and other superstitious beliefs in Hindu religion. In 1893, the Arya Samaj split on two issues of meat eating vs Vegetarianism and Anglicised vs. Sanskrit based education.
|
d
|
Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The split in Arya Samaj in 1893 occurred due to difference in opinion of:##Option_A: Consumption of Meat vs. Vegetarianism###Option_B: Anglicised vs. Sanskrit based education##Option_C: Underage marriage##Option_D: Consumption of Meat vs. Vegetarianism##Answer:d##Explaination:The Arya Samaj Movement was an outcome of reaction to Western influences. Dayanand Saraswati, its founder, rejected Western ideas and sought to revive the ancient religion of the Aryans. He disregarded the authority of later Hindu scriptures like the Puranas and described them as the work of lesser men and responsible for the evil practices of idol worship and other superstitious beliefs in Hindu religion. In 1893, the Arya Samaj split on two issues of meat eating vs Vegetarianism and Anglicised vs. Sanskrit based education.##Topic:Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
"Hutti" in Karnataka and "Ramgiri" in Andhra Pradesh are associated with which of the following?
|
Anthracite Coal Fields
|
Gold Fields
|
Uranium Deposits
|
Anthracite Coal Fields
|
There are three gold fields in the country, namely Kolar and Hutti Gold Field in Karnataka and Ramgiri Gold Field in Andhra Pradesh. In India, Anthracite coal is found only in Jammu and Kashmir and that too in small quantity. Potential Geothermal Energy in India include Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh), Puga Valley (J&K) and Tattapani (Chhatisgarh).
|
b
|
Mineral Resourcesclassification and distribution
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Hutti" in Karnataka and "Ramgiri" in Andhra Pradesh are associated with which of the following?##Option_A: Anthracite Coal Fields###Option_B: Gold Fields##Option_C: Uranium Deposits##Option_D: Anthracite Coal Fields##Answer:b##Explaination:There are three gold fields in the country, namely Kolar and Hutti Gold Field in Karnataka and Ramgiri Gold Field in Andhra Pradesh. In India, Anthracite coal is found only in Jammu and Kashmir and that too in small quantity. Potential Geothermal Energy in India include Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh), Puga Valley (J&K) and Tattapani (Chhatisgarh).##Topic:Mineral Resourcesclassification and distribution##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are common between American (USA) and Indian Polity? Manner of election of president System of collective responsibility Single citizenship Integrated Judiciary Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
USA is an example of presidential form of government while India follows parliamentary system. The manner of election of president is entirely different in India and USA. System of collective responsibility is a constitutional convention in governments using the Westminster System that members of the cabinet must publicly support all governmental decisions made in Cabinet, even if they do not privately agree with them. It is a feature of parliamentary system and not of presidential system. While there is single citizenship in India, in USA there is dual citizenship (Citizenship of both country and state). While in India, there is integrated judiciary, in USA there is a dual court system. All states have their own supreme court along with federal Supreme Court. Thus D is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are common between American (USA) and Indian Polity? Manner of election of president System of collective responsibility Single citizenship Integrated Judiciary Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:USA is an example of presidential form of government while India follows parliamentary system. The manner of election of president is entirely different in India and USA. System of collective responsibility is a constitutional convention in governments using the Westminster System that members of the cabinet must publicly support all governmental decisions made in Cabinet, even if they do not privately agree with them. It is a feature of parliamentary system and not of presidential system. While there is single citizenship in India, in USA there is dual citizenship (Citizenship of both country and state). While in India, there is integrated judiciary, in USA there is a dual court system. All states have their own supreme court along with federal Supreme Court. Thus D is the correct answer.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which among the following do NOT include subsidies in calculation of national income? GDP at market price GVA at basic price GVA at factor cost Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
GDP at market price does not include subsidies while the GVA at factor cost includes both production and product subsidies. GVA at basic prices though donot includes production subsidies, but includes product subsidies. GVA at factor cost + (Production taxes less Production subsidies) = GVA at basic prices GDP at market prices = GVA at basic prices + Product taxes- Product subsidies
|
a
|
GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following do NOT include subsidies in calculation of national income? GDP at market price GVA at basic price GVA at factor cost Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:GDP at market price does not include subsidies while the GVA at factor cost includes both production and product subsidies. GVA at basic prices though donot includes production subsidies, but includes product subsidies. GVA at factor cost + (Production taxes less Production subsidies) = GVA at basic prices GDP at market prices = GVA at basic prices + Product taxes- Product subsidies##Topic:GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
In 2015, Physics Nobel prize was Awarded For Work On Neutrinos Metamorphosis i.e. Neutrinos change their identities while travelling in space. What is the significance of this discovery?
|
Neutrinos are massless and it validates Standard Model of particle physics.
|
Neutrinos have mass and it validates Standard Model of particle physics.
|
Neutrinos have mass and it violates Standard Model of particle physics.
|
Neutrinos are massless and it validates Standard Model of particle physics.
|
The Nobel Prize in Physics 2015 recognised Takaaki Kajita in Japan and Arthur B. McDonald in Canada, for their key contributions to the experiments which demonstrated that neutrinos change identities. This metamorphosis requires that neutrinos have mass. The Standard Model of particle physics is a theory concerning the electromagnetic, weak, and strong nuclear interactions, as well as classifying all the subatomic particles known. According to the Standard Model of particle physics there are three types of neutrinos - electron-neutrinos, muon-neutrinos and tau-neutrinos. It predicts that neutrinos, which rarely interact with matter, have no mass. The discovery has changed our understanding of the innermost workings of matter and can prove crucial to our view of the universe. It violates the standard model of particle physics and concluded that Neutrinos have mass.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In 2015, Physics Nobel prize was Awarded For Work On Neutrinos Metamorphosis i.e. Neutrinos change their identities while travelling in space. What is the significance of this discovery?##Option_A: Neutrinos are massless and it validates Standard Model of particle physics.###Option_B: Neutrinos have mass and it validates Standard Model of particle physics.##Option_C: Neutrinos have mass and it violates Standard Model of particle physics.##Option_D: Neutrinos are massless and it validates Standard Model of particle physics.##Answer:c##Explaination:The Nobel Prize in Physics 2015 recognised Takaaki Kajita in Japan and Arthur B. McDonald in Canada, for their key contributions to the experiments which demonstrated that neutrinos change identities. This metamorphosis requires that neutrinos have mass. The Standard Model of particle physics is a theory concerning the electromagnetic, weak, and strong nuclear interactions, as well as classifying all the subatomic particles known. According to the Standard Model of particle physics there are three types of neutrinos - electron-neutrinos, muon-neutrinos and tau-neutrinos. It predicts that neutrinos, which rarely interact with matter, have no mass. The discovery has changed our understanding of the innermost workings of matter and can prove crucial to our view of the universe. It violates the standard model of particle physics and concluded that Neutrinos have mass.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Why Jhelum forms meanders in its youth stage, a feature associated with the mature stage of the rivers?
|
Due to low gradient of flow in its youth stage reducing its kinetic energy.
|
Due to large number of pebble rocks present in its path significantly reducing its speed.
|
Due to local base level provided by the erstwhile larger lake.
|
Due to low gradient of flow in its youth stage reducing its kinetic energy.
|
Srinagar, capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of Jhelum river. Rivers generally form meanders in its mature stage but Jhelum, flowing through the Kashmir valley, forms meanders in its youth stage. About 2 million years ago when the Kashmir valley, surrounded by Great Himalayan Range in north-east and Pir Panjal Range in southeast, was submerged under water. Due to tectonic upliftment of Pir Panjal range, drainage of the region was impounded and a big lake of about 5000 sq km area was formed. Because of endogenic forces, Baramullah Gorge was created and this vast lake was drained through this gorge leaving behind sediments and these deposits are called Karewas. ("Karewa" in Kashmiri means "elevated table-land"). These sediments are of fluvio-lacustrine and glacio-lacustrine in origin and composed of fine silt, clay, sand, gravel etc and also characterised with fossils of mammals ; thickness of about 1300-1400 m. Meanders: Meanders are formed when moving water erodes outer banks whereas inner part of river, having less intensity, deposits silt and sediments which results in a snake-like pattern of the water stream. River Jhelum: So, meanders are formed by Jhelum river due to these local base levels of Karewas , provided by that formerly existing large lake which drained leaving behind finer sediments. It gets silt and sediments to deposit when it is in its upper course or youth stage.
|
c
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Why Jhelum forms meanders in its youth stage, a feature associated with the mature stage of the rivers?##Option_A: Due to low gradient of flow in its youth stage reducing its kinetic energy.###Option_B: Due to large number of pebble rocks present in its path significantly reducing its speed.##Option_C: Due to local base level provided by the erstwhile larger lake.##Option_D: Due to low gradient of flow in its youth stage reducing its kinetic energy.##Answer:c##Explaination:Srinagar, capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of Jhelum river. Rivers generally form meanders in its mature stage but Jhelum, flowing through the Kashmir valley, forms meanders in its youth stage. About 2 million years ago when the Kashmir valley, surrounded by Great Himalayan Range in north-east and Pir Panjal Range in southeast, was submerged under water. Due to tectonic upliftment of Pir Panjal range, drainage of the region was impounded and a big lake of about 5000 sq km area was formed. Because of endogenic forces, Baramullah Gorge was created and this vast lake was drained through this gorge leaving behind sediments and these deposits are called Karewas. ("Karewa" in Kashmiri means "elevated table-land"). These sediments are of fluvio-lacustrine and glacio-lacustrine in origin and composed of fine silt, clay, sand, gravel etc and also characterised with fossils of mammals ; thickness of about 1300-1400 m. Meanders: Meanders are formed when moving water erodes outer banks whereas inner part of river, having less intensity, deposits silt and sediments which results in a snake-like pattern of the water stream. River Jhelum: So, meanders are formed by Jhelum river due to these local base levels of Karewas , provided by that formerly existing large lake which drained leaving behind finer sediments. It gets silt and sediments to deposit when it is in its upper course or youth stage.##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following factors affect cropping pattern in India? Temperature Rainfall Irrigation Size of land holdings Availability of Insurance Availability of Investment Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
2, 4, 5 and 6 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The variations in cropping pattern in India are due to: Geographical factors: Relief, Soil, Temperature, Rainfall. Economic factors: Irrigation, size of land holdings, sale price of crops and income of farmers, insurance and investment. eg- the main reasson of groundnut replacing cotton in Madhya Pradesh is easy availability of better quality groundnut seeds to the farmers. Political Factors and Government Policies: e.g.- increase in production of foodgrains and decrease in the cultivation of tobacco and poppy are largely the result of government policies.
|
d
|
Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors affect cropping pattern in India? Temperature Rainfall Irrigation Size of land holdings Availability of Insurance Availability of Investment Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 2, 4, 5 and 6 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The variations in cropping pattern in India are due to: Geographical factors: Relief, Soil, Temperature, Rainfall. Economic factors: Irrigation, size of land holdings, sale price of crops and income of farmers, insurance and investment. eg- the main reasson of groundnut replacing cotton in Madhya Pradesh is easy availability of better quality groundnut seeds to the farmers. Political Factors and Government Policies: e.g.- increase in production of foodgrains and decrease in the cultivation of tobacco and poppy are largely the result of government policies.##Topic:Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
The term “ekcharya” related to Bharatnatyam signifies:
|
the adornation of the performer with flowers.
|
the invocation of God to seek His blessings.
|
the end of a Bharatnatyam performance.
|
the adornation of the performer with flowers.
|
.
|
d
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term “ekcharya” related to Bharatnatyam signifies:##Option_A:the adornation of the performer with flowers.###Option_B:the invocation of God to seek His blessings.##Option_C:the end of a Bharatnatyam performance.##Option_D:the adornation of the performer with flowers.##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the classical dances of India:
1. Chowk- It is tri bent position of the body deflected at the Neck, Torso, and Knee.
2. Tribhanga- In this posture, the chowk dancer tries to create the shape of a square with the help of her legs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the classical dances of India:
1. Chowk- It is tri bent position of the body deflected at the Neck, Torso, and Knee.
2. Tribhanga- In this posture, the chowk dancer tries to create the shape of a square with the help of her legs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements. 1. Tandav and Lasya represent the Feminine and Masculine aspects of classical dance respectively. 2. Nritta, Nritya, and Natya are the three elements of classical dance. 3. The Natya Shashtra mentions eight Rasas only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
b
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements. 1. Tandav and Lasya represent the Feminine and Masculine aspects of classical dance respectively. 2. Nritta, Nritya, and Natya are the three elements of classical dance. 3. The Natya Shashtra mentions eight Rasas only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Alvars: They along with Naynars were examples of early bhakti movements originating in Tamil Nadu. They were inspired from Tantricism and Lingayat school of philosophy. Their composition Silappadikaram is frequently described as significant as four Vedas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Some of the earliest bhakti movements (c. sixth century) were led by the Alvars (literally, those who are "immersed" in devotion to Vishnu) and Nayanars (literally, leaders who were devotees of Shiva). They travelled from place to place singing hymns in Tamil in praise of their gods. Alvars and Nayanars initiated a movement of protest against the caste system and the dominance of Brahmanas or at least attempted to reform the system. One of the major anthologies of compositions by the Alvars, the Nalayira Divyaprabandham,was frequently described as the Tamil Veda, thus claiming that the text was as significant as the four Vedas in Sanskrit. One of the most striking features of these traditions was the presence of women. For instance, the compositions of Andal, a woman Alvar, were widely sung (and continue to be sung to date). Both Tantricism and Lingayat developed after Alvars and Naynars and didn't influence Alvars and Naynars. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
|
a
|
Movements, Bhakti Movement, Sufi Movement
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Alvars: They along with Naynars were examples of early bhakti movements originating in Tamil Nadu. They were inspired from Tantricism and Lingayat school of philosophy. Their composition Silappadikaram is frequently described as significant as four Vedas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Some of the earliest bhakti movements (c. sixth century) were led by the Alvars (literally, those who are "immersed" in devotion to Vishnu) and Nayanars (literally, leaders who were devotees of Shiva). They travelled from place to place singing hymns in Tamil in praise of their gods. Alvars and Nayanars initiated a movement of protest against the caste system and the dominance of Brahmanas or at least attempted to reform the system. One of the major anthologies of compositions by the Alvars, the Nalayira Divyaprabandham,was frequently described as the Tamil Veda, thus claiming that the text was as significant as the four Vedas in Sanskrit. One of the most striking features of these traditions was the presence of women. For instance, the compositions of Andal, a woman Alvar, were widely sung (and continue to be sung to date). Both Tantricism and Lingayat developed after Alvars and Naynars and didn't influence Alvars and Naynars. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.##Topic:Movements, Bhakti Movement, Sufi Movement##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones. In Northern Hemisphere, the extra tropical cyclones rotates clockwise whereas tropical cyclones rotate anticlockwise. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is more destructive than the extra tropical cyclones. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical cyclone in number of ways: The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones. They cover a larger area and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical cyclones originate only over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate. The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is more destructive. The extra tropical cyclones move from west to east but tropical cyclones, move from east to west. Both rotate in similar manner. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
|
b
|
Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones. In Northern Hemisphere, the extra tropical cyclones rotates clockwise whereas tropical cyclones rotate anticlockwise. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is more destructive than the extra tropical cyclones. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical cyclone in number of ways: The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones. They cover a larger area and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical cyclones originate only over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate. The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is more destructive. The extra tropical cyclones move from west to east but tropical cyclones, move from east to west. Both rotate in similar manner. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.##Topic:Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to role of women in Indian national movement and reforms related to them, which of the statement given below is NOT correct?
|
Nari Bahinis or women brigades were formed during Tebhaga movement to resist colonial police.
|
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided women reserved seats in the legislatures.
|
Women"s Indian Association, the first women association all India level was established under leadership of Sarojini Naidu.
|
Nari Bahinis or women brigades were formed during Tebhaga movement to resist colonial police.
|
Tebhaga movement saw involvement of women at high level. It saw widespread autonomous action of the "proletariat and semi proletariat women:, belonging to dalit and tribal communities. Through their own initiative they formed Nari Bahinis or women's brigades and resisted the colonial police with whatever weapon they could lay their hands on. The Government of India Act of 1935 increased the ratio of female voters to 1:5 and gave women reserved seats in the legislature. Women's Indian Association was started by enlightened European and Indian ladies, the most important being Margaret Cousins and Annie Besant. In 1928, Subash Chandra Bose was instrumental in raising under the leadership of "Colonel" Latika Ghosh a Congress women's volunteer corps that had marched on the streets of Calcutta in full uniform.
|
c
|
Women movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to role of women in Indian national movement and reforms related to them, which of the statement given below is NOT correct?##Option_A: Nari Bahinis or women brigades were formed during Tebhaga movement to resist colonial police.###Option_B: The Government of India Act, 1935 provided women reserved seats in the legislatures.##Option_C: Women"s Indian Association, the first women association all India level was established under leadership of Sarojini Naidu.##Option_D: Nari Bahinis or women brigades were formed during Tebhaga movement to resist colonial police.##Answer:c##Explaination:Tebhaga movement saw involvement of women at high level. It saw widespread autonomous action of the "proletariat and semi proletariat women:, belonging to dalit and tribal communities. Through their own initiative they formed Nari Bahinis or women's brigades and resisted the colonial police with whatever weapon they could lay their hands on. The Government of India Act of 1935 increased the ratio of female voters to 1:5 and gave women reserved seats in the legislature. Women's Indian Association was started by enlightened European and Indian ladies, the most important being Margaret Cousins and Annie Besant. In 1928, Subash Chandra Bose was instrumental in raising under the leadership of "Colonel" Latika Ghosh a Congress women's volunteer corps that had marched on the streets of Calcutta in full uniform.##Topic:Women movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With reference to various schools of art, consider the following statements: Sarnath School is characterised by plain halo behind Buddha. Mathura school is characterised by the themes from Buddhism, Jainism and Brahminism. In Gandhara school more stress is given to the inner beauty and facial emotions rather than bodily features. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
A highly decorated halo behind the head of Buddha was characteristic feature of the Mathura school. The Gandhara school had a plain halo while the Sarnath school had a halo with little decoration. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Theme of Mathura school included Buddhism, Jainism and Brahmanism. Several Brahmanical Deities were first crystallized by this school.The Jina Image and indigenous style of Buddhas image was a remarkable features of Mathura art. The Sarvatobhadrika image of 4 jain Jinas standing back to back belongs to the Mathura school. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In Gandhara school more stress is given to the bodily features and external beauty. In the Mathura school more stress is given to the inner beauty and facial emotions rather than bodily gesture. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
b
|
Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to various schools of art, consider the following statements: Sarnath School is characterised by plain halo behind Buddha. Mathura school is characterised by the themes from Buddhism, Jainism and Brahminism. In Gandhara school more stress is given to the inner beauty and facial emotions rather than bodily features. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:A highly decorated halo behind the head of Buddha was characteristic feature of the Mathura school. The Gandhara school had a plain halo while the Sarnath school had a halo with little decoration. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Theme of Mathura school included Buddhism, Jainism and Brahmanism. Several Brahmanical Deities were first crystallized by this school.The Jina Image and indigenous style of Buddhas image was a remarkable features of Mathura art. The Sarvatobhadrika image of 4 jain Jinas standing back to back belongs to the Mathura school. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In Gandhara school more stress is given to the bodily features and external beauty. In the Mathura school more stress is given to the inner beauty and facial emotions rather than bodily gesture. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India are roughly about 30 degrees but the distance measured from North to South is much more than distance measured from East to West. Why?
|
Distance between two longitudes increases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes decreases towards the pole.
|
Distance between two longitudes increases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains almost the same everywhere.
|
Distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains almost the same everywhere.
|
Distance between two longitudes increases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes decreases towards the pole.
|
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India, are roughly about 30 degrees, whereas the actual distance measured from north to south extremity is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933 km. This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the almost the same everywhere.
|
c
|
Latitude and Longitude including important Parallels and Meridians/ Local and Standard Time
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India are roughly about 30 degrees but the distance measured from North to South is much more than distance measured from East to West. Why?##Option_A: Distance between two longitudes increases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes decreases towards the pole.###Option_B: Distance between two longitudes increases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains almost the same everywhere.##Option_C: Distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains almost the same everywhere.##Option_D: Distance between two longitudes increases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes decreases towards the pole.##Answer:c##Explaination:The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India, are roughly about 30 degrees, whereas the actual distance measured from north to south extremity is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933 km. This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the almost the same everywhere.##Topic:Latitude and Longitude including important Parallels and Meridians/ Local and Standard Time##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Niti Aayog has recently designated nodal ministries to fulfill India"s commitment to implement Sustainable Development Goals (SDG). In this regard, consider the following pairs: SDG Nodal Ministry 1. Zero Hunger : Rural Development 2. Sustainable cities and communities : Environment and Forest and Climate Change 3. Decent work and economic growth : Commerce and Industry Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
SDG 2: Zero Hunger i.e. End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture: The nodal Ministry implementing it is Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. SDG 8: Decent work and economic growth i.e. Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable Economic growth, full and productive employment and decent work for all : The nodal Ministry implementing it is Ministry of Labour and Employment. SDG 11: Sustainable cities and communities i.e. Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable: The nodal Ministry implementing it is Ministry of Urban Development.
|
d
|
Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Niti Aayog has recently designated nodal ministries to fulfill India"s commitment to implement Sustainable Development Goals (SDG). In this regard, consider the following pairs: SDG Nodal Ministry 1. Zero Hunger : Rural Development 2. Sustainable cities and communities : Environment and Forest and Climate Change 3. Decent work and economic growth : Commerce and Industry Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:SDG 2: Zero Hunger i.e. End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture: The nodal Ministry implementing it is Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. SDG 8: Decent work and economic growth i.e. Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable Economic growth, full and productive employment and decent work for all : The nodal Ministry implementing it is Ministry of Labour and Employment. SDG 11: Sustainable cities and communities i.e. Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable: The nodal Ministry implementing it is Ministry of Urban Development. ##Topic:Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
ISRO recently made a record with the PSLV-C34 after successfully launching 20 satellites. In this context, consider the following statements about PSLV-C34: It deployed satellites in the Geo-synchronous orbit. All the launched satellites were Navigational and communication satellites. It used both solid and liquid propellants. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its thirty sixth flight (PSLV-C34), launched the Cartosat-2 series satellite for earth observation and 19 co-passenger satellites together weighing about 560 kg at lift-off into a 505 km polar Sun Synchronous Orbit (SSO). The co-passenger satellites are from USA, Canada, Germany and Indonesia as well as two satellites (SATHYABAMASAT and SWAYAM) from Indian University/Academic Institute. With a launch mass of 320,000 kilograms (710,000 lb) and payload mass of 1,288 kilograms (2,840 lb), the C34 set a new record of deploying maximum number of satellites by Indian Space Research Organisation in a single mission. It used both solid and liquid propellants in subsequent stages. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:ISRO recently made a record with the PSLV-C34 after successfully launching 20 satellites. In this context, consider the following statements about PSLV-C34: It deployed satellites in the Geo-synchronous orbit. All the launched satellites were Navigational and communication satellites. It used both solid and liquid propellants. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its thirty sixth flight (PSLV-C34), launched the Cartosat-2 series satellite for earth observation and 19 co-passenger satellites together weighing about 560 kg at lift-off into a 505 km polar Sun Synchronous Orbit (SSO). The co-passenger satellites are from USA, Canada, Germany and Indonesia as well as two satellites (SATHYABAMASAT and SWAYAM) from Indian University/Academic Institute. With a launch mass of 320,000 kilograms (710,000 lb) and payload mass of 1,288 kilograms (2,840 lb), the C34 set a new record of deploying maximum number of satellites by Indian Space Research Organisation in a single mission. It used both solid and liquid propellants in subsequent stages. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
In Assam, tea garden labourers, shouting "Gandhi Maharaj ki Jai", demanded a big increase in their wages. They left the British-owned plantations amidst declarations that they were following Gandhiji"s wish. Interestingly, in the Assamese Vaishnava songs of the period the reference to Krishna was substituted by "Gandhi Raja". Which of the following movements is associated with the description provided in the above paragraph?
|
Quit India Movement
|
Civil Disobedience Movement
|
Non-Cooperation Movement
|
Quit India Movement
|
During Non-Cooperation Movement many interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi in their own ways; mostly to suit their local grievances: The Patidar peasants of Kheda (Gujarat) organized non-violent campaigns against the high land revenue demand. Liquor shops were picketed in coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu. The tribals and poor peasants in Guntur district (Andhra Pradesh) staged a number of forest satyagrahas; to protest against the new forest laws. The Khilafat-Non-Cooperation Movement gave enormous support in Sind and Bengal. In Punjab, the Akali agitation of the Sikhs demanded to remove the corrupt mahants from gurdwaras. In Assam, the tea garden labourers demanded a big hike in their wages. They shouted the slogan, "Gandhi Maharaj ki jai". In many folk songs of Assam; Gandhiji was referred to as "Gandhi Raja".
|
c
|
The Khilafat Movement (1920-22) and Non Cooperation Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In Assam, tea garden labourers, shouting "Gandhi Maharaj ki Jai", demanded a big increase in their wages. They left the British-owned plantations amidst declarations that they were following Gandhiji"s wish. Interestingly, in the Assamese Vaishnava songs of the period the reference to Krishna was substituted by "Gandhi Raja". Which of the following movements is associated with the description provided in the above paragraph?##Option_A: Quit India Movement###Option_B: Civil Disobedience Movement##Option_C: Non-Cooperation Movement##Option_D: Quit India Movement##Answer:c##Explaination:During Non-Cooperation Movement many interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi in their own ways; mostly to suit their local grievances: The Patidar peasants of Kheda (Gujarat) organized non-violent campaigns against the high land revenue demand. Liquor shops were picketed in coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu. The tribals and poor peasants in Guntur district (Andhra Pradesh) staged a number of forest satyagrahas; to protest against the new forest laws. The Khilafat-Non-Cooperation Movement gave enormous support in Sind and Bengal. In Punjab, the Akali agitation of the Sikhs demanded to remove the corrupt mahants from gurdwaras. In Assam, the tea garden labourers demanded a big hike in their wages. They shouted the slogan, "Gandhi Maharaj ki jai". In many folk songs of Assam; Gandhiji was referred to as "Gandhi Raja".##Topic:The Khilafat Movement (1920-22) and Non Cooperation Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
" When water becomes scarce, the vegetation turns brown to limit water loss. It stores necessary moisture and nutrients in its roots while awaiting the return of the rainy season. With food and water reserves stored below ground, it is able to survive the effects of fire as well." Which of the following ecosystems/biomes is best described by the above passage?
|
Tropical Rainforest
|
Tropical Desert
|
Tropical Savannah
|
Tropical Rainforest
|
In the Savannah biome, in order for the grasses to survive the dry season and the periodic fires, they have developed an adaptation that allows them to grow quickly when there is adequate water. Then when water becomes scarce, the grasses turn brown to limit water loss. They store necessary moisture and nutrients in their roots while they await the return of the rainy season. With food and water reserves stored below ground, the grasses are able to survive the effects of fire as well. In fact, fire stimulates new growth and replenishes the soil with nutrients.
|
c
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:" When water becomes scarce, the vegetation turns brown to limit water loss. It stores necessary moisture and nutrients in its roots while awaiting the return of the rainy season. With food and water reserves stored below ground, it is able to survive the effects of fire as well." Which of the following ecosystems/biomes is best described by the above passage?##Option_A: Tropical Rainforest###Option_B: Tropical Desert##Option_C: Tropical Savannah##Option_D: Tropical Rainforest##Answer:c##Explaination:In the Savannah biome, in order for the grasses to survive the dry season and the periodic fires, they have developed an adaptation that allows them to grow quickly when there is adequate water. Then when water becomes scarce, the grasses turn brown to limit water loss. They store necessary moisture and nutrients in their roots while they await the return of the rainy season. With food and water reserves stored below ground, the grasses are able to survive the effects of fire as well. In fact, fire stimulates new growth and replenishes the soil with nutrients.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following terms is/are the focus of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act? Fiscal Deficit Revenue Deficit Current Account Deficit Rupee Convertibility Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The FRBM Act specifies the annual reduction targets for fiscal indicators. The FRBM rules of 2004 specifies reduction of fiscal deficit to 3% of the GDP by 2008-09 with annual reduction target of 0.3% of GDP per year by the Central government. Similarly, revenue deficit has to be reduced by 0.5% of the GDP per year with complete elimination to be achieved by 2008-09. By the Finance Act 2015, the target dates for achieving the prescribed rates of effective revenue deficit and fiscal deficit were further extended. The effective revenue deficit will now need to be eliminated by March 2018. The 3% target of fiscal deficit to be achieved the end of 2017-18. In the Union Budget 2016-17 it was proposed to constitute a Committee to review the implementation of the FRBM Act and give its recommendations on the way forward. This was in view of the new school of thought which believes that instead of fixed numbers as fiscal deficit targets, it may be better to have a fiscal deficit range as the target, which would give necessary policy space to the Government to deal with dynamic situations. There is also a suggestion that fiscal expansion or contraction should be aligned with credit contraction or expansion respectively, in the economy. While remaining committed to fiscal prudence and consolidation, Budget stated that a time has come to review the working of the FRBM Act, especially in the context of the uncertainty and volatility which have become the new norms of global economy.
|
b
|
Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following terms is/are the focus of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act? Fiscal Deficit Revenue Deficit Current Account Deficit Rupee Convertibility Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The FRBM Act specifies the annual reduction targets for fiscal indicators. The FRBM rules of 2004 specifies reduction of fiscal deficit to 3% of the GDP by 2008-09 with annual reduction target of 0.3% of GDP per year by the Central government. Similarly, revenue deficit has to be reduced by 0.5% of the GDP per year with complete elimination to be achieved by 2008-09. By the Finance Act 2015, the target dates for achieving the prescribed rates of effective revenue deficit and fiscal deficit were further extended. The effective revenue deficit will now need to be eliminated by March 2018. The 3% target of fiscal deficit to be achieved the end of 2017-18. In the Union Budget 2016-17 it was proposed to constitute a Committee to review the implementation of the FRBM Act and give its recommendations on the way forward. This was in view of the new school of thought which believes that instead of fixed numbers as fiscal deficit targets, it may be better to have a fiscal deficit range as the target, which would give necessary policy space to the Government to deal with dynamic situations. There is also a suggestion that fiscal expansion or contraction should be aligned with credit contraction or expansion respectively, in the economy. While remaining committed to fiscal prudence and consolidation, Budget stated that a time has come to review the working of the FRBM Act, especially in the context of the uncertainty and volatility which have become the new norms of global economy.##Topic:Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
The Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups "Asurs", "Birhor" and "Korwas" are found in which of the following states?
|
Uttar Pradesh
|
Andhra Pradesh
|
Jharkhand
|
Uttar Pradesh
|
There are nine primitive tribe groups in Jharkhand - Asur, Mal Paharia, Birhor, Birjia, Parhaiya, Sauria Paharia, Hill Kharia, Korwa and Savar. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). PVTGs have some basic characteristics -they are mostly homogenous, with a small population, relatively physically isolated, social institutes cast in a simple mould, absence of written language, relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change etc.
|
c
|
Population and Growth trends density, sex, ratio, literacy, tribes and racial groups in India
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups "Asurs", "Birhor" and "Korwas" are found in which of the following states?##Option_A: Uttar Pradesh###Option_B: Andhra Pradesh##Option_C: Jharkhand##Option_D: Uttar Pradesh##Answer:c##Explaination:There are nine primitive tribe groups in Jharkhand - Asur, Mal Paharia, Birhor, Birjia, Parhaiya, Sauria Paharia, Hill Kharia, Korwa and Savar. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). PVTGs have some basic characteristics -they are mostly homogenous, with a small population, relatively physically isolated, social institutes cast in a simple mould, absence of written language, relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change etc.##Topic:Population and Growth trends density, sex, ratio, literacy, tribes and racial groups in India##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding ceramic-polymer hybrid (CASPOL) is NOT correct?
|
It has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
|
It makes surfaces waterproof and protects against fire and high temperature.
|
It is eco-friendly as it is free of toxic materials.
|
It has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
|
The scientists of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) (a body of ISRO), Thiruvananthapuram, have showcased the ceramic-polymer hybrid (CASPOL), a spin-off product that could protect public transport systems and poor men residing in thatched homes from fire accidents. Besides its ability to protect against fire and high temperature, Caspol can also make surfaces waterproof. When applied over the concrete surface of buildings, fill up the micro cracks and holes on concrete to prevent water from seeping in. When applied over concrete surface of buildings, the high emissivity of the product reduces the temperature inside the building by at least 5 to 6 degree Celsius. The centre has described the product as one which is eco-friendly as it is free of toxic materials. It could be applied either by brushing or spraying on the desired surface. The economic, water-based formulation with self-extinguishing properties could cure in room temperature and has good adhesion and water repellent characteristics.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding ceramic-polymer hybrid (CASPOL) is NOT correct?##Option_A: It has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).###Option_B: It makes surfaces waterproof and protects against fire and high temperature.##Option_C: It is eco-friendly as it is free of toxic materials.##Option_D: It has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).##Answer:d##Explaination:The scientists of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) (a body of ISRO), Thiruvananthapuram, have showcased the ceramic-polymer hybrid (CASPOL), a spin-off product that could protect public transport systems and poor men residing in thatched homes from fire accidents. Besides its ability to protect against fire and high temperature, Caspol can also make surfaces waterproof. When applied over the concrete surface of buildings, fill up the micro cracks and holes on concrete to prevent water from seeping in. When applied over concrete surface of buildings, the high emissivity of the product reduces the temperature inside the building by at least 5 to 6 degree Celsius. The centre has described the product as one which is eco-friendly as it is free of toxic materials. It could be applied either by brushing or spraying on the desired surface. The economic, water-based formulation with self-extinguishing properties could cure in room temperature and has good adhesion and water repellent characteristics.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about World Investment Report: It is an annual report released by International Monetary fund. In 2016 report, India ranked first in FDI inflows. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
India continues to be among the top ten countries in terms of foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows globally and the fourth in developing Asia, as per the World Investment Report 2016 by the United Nations Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD). India ranks 10th after USA, Hongkong China, China, Ireland, Netherlands, Switzerland, Singapore, Brazil and Canada. Hence both statements are wrong.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about World Investment Report: It is an annual report released by International Monetary fund. In 2016 report, India ranked first in FDI inflows. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:India continues to be among the top ten countries in terms of foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows globally and the fourth in developing Asia, as per the World Investment Report 2016 by the United Nations Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD). India ranks 10th after USA, Hongkong China, China, Ireland, Netherlands, Switzerland, Singapore, Brazil and Canada. Hence both statements are wrong.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which among the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?
|
to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion.
|
to protect monuments, place and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance.
|
to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
|
to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion.
|
Fundamental Duties are provided under Article 51A: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India- to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures; to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement. Whereas, to protect monuments, place and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance is a DPSP provided under Article 49.
|
b
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?##Option_A: to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion.###Option_B: to protect monuments, place and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance.##Option_C: to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.##Option_D: to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion.##Answer:b##Explaination:Fundamental Duties are provided under Article 51A: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India- to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures; to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement. Whereas, to protect monuments, place and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance is a DPSP provided under Article 49.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Certificates of deposit (CD) are unsecured, negotiable, short-term instruments in bearer form, issued by commercial banks. 2. Treasury bills are fixed interest bearing debt instruments issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government. 3. Call money is short term financial instrument used for inter bank transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The money market is a market for short term funds which deals in monetary assets whose period of maturity is upto one year. The major participants in the market are the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Commercial Banks, Non- Banking Finance Companies, State Governments, Large Corporate Houses and Mutual Funds. Treasury Bill: A Treasury bill is basically an instrument of short-term borrowing by the Government of India maturing in less than one year. They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds (they are not interest bearing instruments) issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short-term requirement of funds. Treasury bills are issued in the form of a promissory note. They are issued at a price which is lower than their face value and repaid at par. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Call Money: Call money is short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions. Commercial banks have to maintain a minimum cash balance known as cash reserve ratio. The Reserve Bank of India changes the cash reserve ratio from time to time which in turn affects the amount of funds available to be given as loans by commercial banks. Hence statement 3 is correct. Certificate of Deposit: Certificates of deposit (CD) are unsecured, negotiable, short-term instruments in bearer form, issued by commercial banks and development financial institutions. They can be issued to individuals, corporations and companies during periods of tight liquidity when the deposit growth of banks is slow but the demand for credit is high. Hence statement 1 is correct. Commercial Bill: A commercial bill is a bill of exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. It is a short-term, negotiable, self-liquidating instrument which is used to finance the credit sales of firms. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Certificates of deposit (CD) are unsecured, negotiable, short-term instruments in bearer form, issued by commercial banks. 2. Treasury bills are fixed interest bearing debt instruments issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government. 3. Call money is short term financial instrument used for inter bank transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The money market is a market for short term funds which deals in monetary assets whose period of maturity is upto one year. The major participants in the market are the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Commercial Banks, Non- Banking Finance Companies, State Governments, Large Corporate Houses and Mutual Funds. Treasury Bill: A Treasury bill is basically an instrument of short-term borrowing by the Government of India maturing in less than one year. They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds (they are not interest bearing instruments) issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short-term requirement of funds. Treasury bills are issued in the form of a promissory note. They are issued at a price which is lower than their face value and repaid at par. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Call Money: Call money is short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions. Commercial banks have to maintain a minimum cash balance known as cash reserve ratio. The Reserve Bank of India changes the cash reserve ratio from time to time which in turn affects the amount of funds available to be given as loans by commercial banks. Hence statement 3 is correct. Certificate of Deposit: Certificates of deposit (CD) are unsecured, negotiable, short-term instruments in bearer form, issued by commercial banks and development financial institutions. They can be issued to individuals, corporations and companies during periods of tight liquidity when the deposit growth of banks is slow but the demand for credit is high. Hence statement 1 is correct. Commercial Bill: A commercial bill is a bill of exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. It is a short-term, negotiable, self-liquidating instrument which is used to finance the credit sales of firms. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Under which of the following conditions the Governor has to mandatorily reserve the bill for the reconsideration of the President? If it endangers the position of High Court. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy If it is against the larger interest of the country Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Governor reserves the bill for the consideration of the President. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court. (Article 200) In addition, the Governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature: Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution. Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy. Against the larger interest of the country. Of grave national importance. Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
|
a
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under which of the following conditions the Governor has to mandatorily reserve the bill for the reconsideration of the President? If it endangers the position of High Court. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy If it is against the larger interest of the country Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Governor reserves the bill for the consideration of the President. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court. (Article 200) In addition, the Governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature: Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution. Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy. Against the larger interest of the country. Of grave national importance. Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs: Island in News Nations involved in conflict 1. Kuril Islands : Russia and Japan 2. Paracel Islands : China and Vietnam 3. Spratly Islands : Britain and Argentina Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Kuril Island: All the islands are currently under Russian jurisdiction. Japan claims the two southernmost large islands (Iturup and Kunashir) as part of its territory. Both the Paracel Islands and the Spratly Islands are associated with the South China Sea conflict. The Paracel Islands are disputed between the People's Republic of China, Taiwan, and Vietnam. The Pratas Islands are disputed between the People's Republic of China and Taiwan. The Macclesfield Bank is disputed between the People's Republic of China, the Taiwan and the Philippines, with no land above sea level. The Scarborough Shoal is disputed between the People's Republic of China, the Philippines, and Taiwan, with only rocks above sea level. Over Spratly Islands Brunei, China, Malaysia, Philippines and Vietnam are involved in a conflict. Falkland Island is the region of conflict between Britain and Argentina.
|
b
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Island in News Nations involved in conflict 1. Kuril Islands : Russia and Japan 2. Paracel Islands : China and Vietnam 3. Spratly Islands : Britain and Argentina Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Kuril Island: All the islands are currently under Russian jurisdiction. Japan claims the two southernmost large islands (Iturup and Kunashir) as part of its territory. Both the Paracel Islands and the Spratly Islands are associated with the South China Sea conflict. The Paracel Islands are disputed between the People's Republic of China, Taiwan, and Vietnam. The Pratas Islands are disputed between the People's Republic of China and Taiwan. The Macclesfield Bank is disputed between the People's Republic of China, the Taiwan and the Philippines, with no land above sea level. The Scarborough Shoal is disputed between the People's Republic of China, the Philippines, and Taiwan, with only rocks above sea level. Over Spratly Islands Brunei, China, Malaysia, Philippines and Vietnam are involved in a conflict. Falkland Island is the region of conflict between Britain and Argentina.##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
The Expert Committee that was constituted to examine the "Specific Relief Act, 1963" submitted its report and the Centre is contemplating amendments to the Act with a primary objective of:
|
Nuclear Accidents Compensation
|
Ease of Doing Business
|
National plan for disaster management
|
Nuclear Accidents Compensation
|
In the last week of January 2016, the government constituted a five-member expert committee to review the Specific Relief Act, 1963 and suggest changes needed to remove bottlenecks in execution of contract-based infrastructure development, public private partnerships and other public projects. The Centre is contemplating amendments to the Specific Relief Act, 1963, to limit the compensation and relief that courts can grant in cases relating to execution of infrastructure and development projects. The proposed changes, among other things, seek to lay down guidelines for reducing the discretion granted to courts and tribunals while granting performance and injunctive relief. This move is among a series of actions contemplated by the Centre to enhance "ease of doing business". In the government’s assessment, some provisions in the existing law are an impediment for investors, as they fear a long-drawn litigation process.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Expert Committee that was constituted to examine the "Specific Relief Act, 1963" submitted its report and the Centre is contemplating amendments to the Act with a primary objective of:##Option_A: Nuclear Accidents Compensation###Option_B: Ease of Doing Business##Option_C: National plan for disaster management##Option_D: Nuclear Accidents Compensation##Answer:b##Explaination:In the last week of January 2016, the government constituted a five-member expert committee to review the Specific Relief Act, 1963 and suggest changes needed to remove bottlenecks in execution of contract-based infrastructure development, public private partnerships and other public projects. The Centre is contemplating amendments to the Specific Relief Act, 1963, to limit the compensation and relief that courts can grant in cases relating to execution of infrastructure and development projects. The proposed changes, among other things, seek to lay down guidelines for reducing the discretion granted to courts and tribunals while granting performance and injunctive relief. This move is among a series of actions contemplated by the Centre to enhance "ease of doing business". In the government’s assessment, some provisions in the existing law are an impediment for investors, as they fear a long-drawn litigation process.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
India has been divided into a number of Landslide Vulnerability Zones. Which of the following regions of India are classified under Very high vulnerability zones?
|
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
|
Rain shadow areas in Western Ghats
|
Ladakh region
|
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
|
Landslide Vulnerability Zones Very High Vulnerability Zone: Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris. High Vulnerability Zone: All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones. Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone: Areas that receive less precipitation such as Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh and Spiti (Himachal Pradesh), undulated yet stable relief and low precipitation areas in the Aravali, rain shadow areas in the Western and Eastern Ghats and Deccan plateau. Other Areas: The remaining parts of India, particularly states like Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal (except district Darjiling), Assam (except district Karbi Anglong) and Coastal regions of the southern States are safe as far as landslides are concerned.
|
a
|
Earthquakes, Folding, Faulting, Isostasy
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India has been divided into a number of Landslide Vulnerability Zones. Which of the following regions of India are classified under Very high vulnerability zones?##Option_A: Andaman and Nicobar Islands###Option_B: Rain shadow areas in Western Ghats##Option_C: Ladakh region##Option_D: Andaman and Nicobar Islands##Answer:a##Explaination:Landslide Vulnerability Zones Very High Vulnerability Zone: Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris. High Vulnerability Zone: All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones. Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone: Areas that receive less precipitation such as Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh and Spiti (Himachal Pradesh), undulated yet stable relief and low precipitation areas in the Aravali, rain shadow areas in the Western and Eastern Ghats and Deccan plateau. Other Areas: The remaining parts of India, particularly states like Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal (except district Darjiling), Assam (except district Karbi Anglong) and Coastal regions of the southern States are safe as far as landslides are concerned.##Topic:Earthquakes, Folding, Faulting, Isostasy##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding distribution of temperature on Oceans: The annual range of temperature is greater in the Atlantic Ocean than in the Pacific Ocean. In the temperate zone, the eastern sections of the oceans are warmer than the western sections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The apparent annual oscillation of the sun causes a seasonal change in the surface temperature. However, this change on the surface water of the oceans is comparatively less, than on the land surfaces. The annual range of temperature is greater in the Atlantic Ocean than in the Pacific Ocean. This is due to difference in their sizes. The isotherms over the oceans do not run parallel to the lines of latitudes. They are affected by the prevailing winds and the ocean currents. In the temperate zone, the eastern sections of the oceans are warmer than the western sections. This is due to the influence of the westerlies.
|
c
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding distribution of temperature on Oceans: The annual range of temperature is greater in the Atlantic Ocean than in the Pacific Ocean. In the temperate zone, the eastern sections of the oceans are warmer than the western sections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The apparent annual oscillation of the sun causes a seasonal change in the surface temperature. However, this change on the surface water of the oceans is comparatively less, than on the land surfaces. The annual range of temperature is greater in the Atlantic Ocean than in the Pacific Ocean. This is due to difference in their sizes. The isotherms over the oceans do not run parallel to the lines of latitudes. They are affected by the prevailing winds and the ocean currents. In the temperate zone, the eastern sections of the oceans are warmer than the western sections. This is due to the influence of the westerlies.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Evidence of water harvesting and management have been found in the Indus Valley civilisation. Both Arthashastra and Kalhan""s Rajtarangiri give detailed account of irrigation systems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Evidence of water harvesting and management have been found even in the Indus Valley civilization. Archaeological evidence of irrigation and drinking water supply systems through a large number of wells with bricks lining have been found at several Indus valley sites. Dholavira, an Indus valley site had several reservoirs to collect rain water. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Kautilya's Arthashastra mentions dams and bunds that were built for irrigation during the period of the Mauryan empire. Rajatarangini of Kalhana gives a detailed account of irrigation systems developed in the 12th century Kashmir. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
|
c
|
Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Evidence of water harvesting and management have been found in the Indus Valley civilisation. Both Arthashastra and Kalhan""s Rajtarangiri give detailed account of irrigation systems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Evidence of water harvesting and management have been found even in the Indus Valley civilization. Archaeological evidence of irrigation and drinking water supply systems through a large number of wells with bricks lining have been found at several Indus valley sites. Dholavira, an Indus valley site had several reservoirs to collect rain water. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Kautilya's Arthashastra mentions dams and bunds that were built for irrigation during the period of the Mauryan empire. Rajatarangini of Kalhana gives a detailed account of irrigation systems developed in the 12th century Kashmir. Hence, statement 1 is correct.##Topic:Harappan / Indus Valley Civilization##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are classified as erosional landforms? Stalactites Cirque Playas Sea Stacks Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Groundwater Erosional Landforms - Pools, Sinkholes, Lapies and Limestone Pavements, Caves Depositional Landforms - Stalactites , Stalagmites and Pillars Glaciers Erosional Landforms - Cirque , Horns and Serrated Ridges, Glacial Valleys/Troughs Depositional Landforms - Moraines, Eskers, Outwash Plains, Drumlins Winds Erosional Landforms - Pediments and Pediplains, Playas , Deflation Hollows and Caves, Mushroom, Table and Pedestal Rocks Depositional Landforms - Sand Dunes, Barchans Waves and Currents Erosional Landforms - Cliffs, Terraces, Caves and Stacks Depositional Landforms - Beaches and Dunes, Bars, Barriers and Spits
|
b
|
Second order (Mountains, Plateaus, Plains & other landforms)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are classified as erosional landforms? Stalactites Cirque Playas Sea Stacks Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Groundwater Erosional Landforms - Pools, Sinkholes, Lapies and Limestone Pavements, Caves Depositional Landforms - Stalactites , Stalagmites and Pillars Glaciers Erosional Landforms - Cirque , Horns and Serrated Ridges, Glacial Valleys/Troughs Depositional Landforms - Moraines, Eskers, Outwash Plains, Drumlins Winds Erosional Landforms - Pediments and Pediplains, Playas , Deflation Hollows and Caves, Mushroom, Table and Pedestal Rocks Depositional Landforms - Sand Dunes, Barchans Waves and Currents Erosional Landforms - Cliffs, Terraces, Caves and Stacks Depositional Landforms - Beaches and Dunes, Bars, Barriers and Spits##Topic:Second order (Mountains, Plateaus, Plains & other landforms)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
"Budget 2016-17 has introduced a new classification system for the Centre"s spending in Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) into three categories: Core of the Core, Core, and Optional Schemes. Which of the schemes forms part of the "Core of the Core"? Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarentee Act (MNREGA) National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission Swachch Bharat Abhiyan National River Conservation Plan Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 5 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Budget 2016-17 has introduced a new classification system for the Centre's spending .The new system divides Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) into three categories: Core of the Core, Core, and Optional Schemes. This system is based on the recommendations of a sub-committee of chief ministers formed by Niti Aayog in March 2015 for the rationalisation of the CSS. Accordingly, existing CSS should be divided into: Core and Optional schemes. Amongst the Core Schemes, those for social protection and social inclusion should form the Core of the Core and be the first charge on available funds for the National Development Agenda. Ordinarily, in any sector there should be one Umbrella scheme having the same funding pattern for all its sub-components. Investment levels in Core Schemes should be maintained so as to ensure that the optimum size of the programme does not shrink. Funds for Optional Schemes would be allocated to States by the Ministry of Finance as a lump sum and States would be free to choose which Optional Schemes they wish to implement. Additionally, the States have been given the flexibility of portability of funds from optional schemes ( should it choose not to utilize to utilize its entire allocation under that head) to any other CSS component within the overall allocation for the state under CASP. Core of the Core Schemes (6) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA) National Social Assistance Programme Umbrella Scheme for the Development of Scheduled Castes Umbrella Programme for Development of Scheduled Tribes (Tribal Education and Van Bandhu Kalyan Yojana) Umbrella Programme for Development of Backward Classes and other vulnerable groups Umbrella Programme for Development of Minorities (a) Multi Sectoral Development Programme for Minorities. (b) Education Scheme for Madaras and Minorities Swachch Bharat Abhiyan (Rural and Urban) forms part of Core schemes whereas National River Conservation Plan and Shyama Prasad Mukherjee RURBAN Mission forms part of Optional Schemes.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Budget 2016-17 has introduced a new classification system for the Centre"s spending in Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) into three categories: Core of the Core, Core, and Optional Schemes. Which of the schemes forms part of the "Core of the Core"? Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarentee Act (MNREGA) National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission Swachch Bharat Abhiyan National River Conservation Plan Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 5 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Budget 2016-17 has introduced a new classification system for the Centre's spending .The new system divides Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) into three categories: Core of the Core, Core, and Optional Schemes. This system is based on the recommendations of a sub-committee of chief ministers formed by Niti Aayog in March 2015 for the rationalisation of the CSS. Accordingly, existing CSS should be divided into: Core and Optional schemes. Amongst the Core Schemes, those for social protection and social inclusion should form the Core of the Core and be the first charge on available funds for the National Development Agenda. Ordinarily, in any sector there should be one Umbrella scheme having the same funding pattern for all its sub-components. Investment levels in Core Schemes should be maintained so as to ensure that the optimum size of the programme does not shrink. Funds for Optional Schemes would be allocated to States by the Ministry of Finance as a lump sum and States would be free to choose which Optional Schemes they wish to implement. Additionally, the States have been given the flexibility of portability of funds from optional schemes ( should it choose not to utilize to utilize its entire allocation under that head) to any other CSS component within the overall allocation for the state under CASP. Core of the Core Schemes (6) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA) National Social Assistance Programme Umbrella Scheme for the Development of Scheduled Castes Umbrella Programme for Development of Scheduled Tribes (Tribal Education and Van Bandhu Kalyan Yojana) Umbrella Programme for Development of Backward Classes and other vulnerable groups Umbrella Programme for Development of Minorities (a) Multi Sectoral Development Programme for Minorities. (b) Education Scheme for Madaras and Minorities Swachch Bharat Abhiyan (Rural and Urban) forms part of Core schemes whereas National River Conservation Plan and Shyama Prasad Mukherjee RURBAN Mission forms part of Optional Schemes.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following countries is/are NOT the members of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)?
|
Pakistan
|
China
|
India
|
Pakistan
|
India was recently admitted into the MTCR. Except China, all other BRICS countries are member of MTCR. In 2004 China applied to join the MTCR, but members did not offer China membership because of concerns about China's export control standards. Pakistan is also not a member of MTCR
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following countries is/are NOT the members of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)?##Option_A: Pakistan###Option_B: China##Option_C: India##Option_D: Pakistan##Answer:d##Explaination:India was recently admitted into the MTCR. Except China, all other BRICS countries are member of MTCR. In 2004 China applied to join the MTCR, but members did not offer China membership because of concerns about China's export control standards. Pakistan is also not a member of MTCR##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Marginal Cost of funds based Lending rate (MCLR): It refers to the minimum interest rate for loans that is determined by a bank. It is not sensitive to changes in the policy rates thereby improving monetary transmission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The marginal cost of funds based lending rate (MCLR) refers to the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the RBI. It is an internal benchmark or reference rate for the bank. MCLR actually describes the method by which the minimum interest rate for loans is determined by a bank - on the basis of marginal cost or the additional or incremental cost of arranging one more rupee to the prospective borrower. RBI decided to shift from base rate to MCLR because the rates based on marginal cost of funds are more sensitive to changes in the policy rates. This is very essential for the effective implementation of monetary policy. Prior to MCLR system, different banks were following different methodology for calculation of base rate /minimum rate - that is either on the basis of average cost of funds or marginal cost of funds or blended cost of funds.
|
a
|
Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Marginal Cost of funds based Lending rate (MCLR): It refers to the minimum interest rate for loans that is determined by a bank. It is not sensitive to changes in the policy rates thereby improving monetary transmission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The marginal cost of funds based lending rate (MCLR) refers to the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the RBI. It is an internal benchmark or reference rate for the bank. MCLR actually describes the method by which the minimum interest rate for loans is determined by a bank - on the basis of marginal cost or the additional or incremental cost of arranging one more rupee to the prospective borrower. RBI decided to shift from base rate to MCLR because the rates based on marginal cost of funds are more sensitive to changes in the policy rates. This is very essential for the effective implementation of monetary policy. Prior to MCLR system, different banks were following different methodology for calculation of base rate /minimum rate - that is either on the basis of average cost of funds or marginal cost of funds or blended cost of funds.##Topic:Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
What is common between Mahabalipuram, Hampi and Pattadakal?
|
They all are sites of Vesara style of Architcture, a unique combination of Nagara and Dravida style.
|
The major Monuments at these places were bulit by Raja Raja Chola and his son Rajendra Chola.
|
These sites are part of United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage list.
|
They all are sites of Vesara style of Architcture, a unique combination of Nagara and Dravida style.
|
Group of Monuments at Hampi: The austere, grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar. Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries. Group of Monuments at Pattadakal: Pattadakal, in Karnataka, represents the high point of an eclectic art which, in the 7th and 8th centuries under the Chalukya dynasty, achieved a harmonious blend of architectural forms from northern and southern India. An impressive series of nine Hindu temples, as well as a Jain sanctuary, can be seen there. One masterpiece from the group stands out-the Temple of Virupaksha, built c. 740 by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate her husband's victory over the kings from the South. Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram: This group of sanctuaries, founded by the Pallava kings, was carved out of rock along the Coromandel coast in the 7th and 8th centuries. It is known especially for its rathas (temples in the form of chariots), mandapas (cave sanctuaries), giant open-air reliefs such as the famous 'Descent of the Ganges', and the temple of Rivage, with thousands of sculptures to the glory of Shiva.
|
c
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is common between Mahabalipuram, Hampi and Pattadakal?##Option_A: They all are sites of Vesara style of Architcture, a unique combination of Nagara and Dravida style.###Option_B: The major Monuments at these places were bulit by Raja Raja Chola and his son Rajendra Chola.##Option_C: These sites are part of United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage list.##Option_D: They all are sites of Vesara style of Architcture, a unique combination of Nagara and Dravida style.##Answer:c##Explaination:Group of Monuments at Hampi: The austere, grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar. Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries. Group of Monuments at Pattadakal: Pattadakal, in Karnataka, represents the high point of an eclectic art which, in the 7th and 8th centuries under the Chalukya dynasty, achieved a harmonious blend of architectural forms from northern and southern India. An impressive series of nine Hindu temples, as well as a Jain sanctuary, can be seen there. One masterpiece from the group stands out-the Temple of Virupaksha, built c. 740 by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate her husband's victory over the kings from the South. Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram: This group of sanctuaries, founded by the Pallava kings, was carved out of rock along the Coromandel coast in the 7th and 8th centuries. It is known especially for its rathas (temples in the form of chariots), mandapas (cave sanctuaries), giant open-air reliefs such as the famous 'Descent of the Ganges', and the temple of Rivage, with thousands of sculptures to the glory of Shiva.##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following was/were associated with Dr B R Ambedkar? Mahad Satyagraha Independent Labour Party Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha Poona Sarvajanik Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Pune Sarvajanik Sabha, was a sociopolitical organisation established in 1870 which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India. The organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session from Maharashtra itself. It was formed in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was also associated with it. Dr Ambedkar was associated with Poona Pact annd not Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. Mahad Satyagraha was a satyagraha led by B. R. Ambedkar in 1927 to allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad (currently in Raigad district), Maharashtra. Independent Labour Party (ILP) was an Indian political organisation formed under the leadership of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in August 1936 against the brahmanical and capitalist structures in the society. ILP argued for Indian labour class while also stressing on the nature of caste structures and need for its annihilation. Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha established in 1924 is a central institution formed by B.R.Ambedkar for removing difficulties of the untouchables and placing their grievances before government.
|
c
|
Prsonality Based Questions
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following was/were associated with Dr B R Ambedkar? Mahad Satyagraha Independent Labour Party Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha Poona Sarvajanik Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Pune Sarvajanik Sabha, was a sociopolitical organisation established in 1870 which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India. The organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session from Maharashtra itself. It was formed in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was also associated with it. Dr Ambedkar was associated with Poona Pact annd not Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. Mahad Satyagraha was a satyagraha led by B. R. Ambedkar in 1927 to allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad (currently in Raigad district), Maharashtra. Independent Labour Party (ILP) was an Indian political organisation formed under the leadership of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in August 1936 against the brahmanical and capitalist structures in the society. ILP argued for Indian labour class while also stressing on the nature of caste structures and need for its annihilation. Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha established in 1924 is a central institution formed by B.R.Ambedkar for removing difficulties of the untouchables and placing their grievances before government.##Topic:Prsonality Based Questions##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
In the hey days of the Mughal empire after the "Treaty of Allahabad", 1765 , the East India Company got diwani functions from the Emperor Shah Alam and the Nizamat functions from the Subahadar of Bengal The Governor of Bengal endeavoured to correct the abuses of the Company"s civil and military services but his reforms were temporary expedients. The above description is best suited for which of the following Governors?
|
Lord Cornwallis
|
Lord Warren Hastings
|
Lord Clive
|
Lord Cornwallis
|
By the second Treaty of Allahabad (August 1765, fallout of Battle of Plassey) the Emperor Shah Alam was taken under the company's protection and was to reside at Allahabad. He was assigned Allahabad and Kora ceded by Nawab of Oudh. The Emperor in turn issued a firman on 12th August 1765 granting to the Company in perpetuity the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in return for the company making an annual payment of Rs.26 lakhs to him and providing for the expenses of the Nizamat of the said provinces which was fixed at Rs. 53 lakhs. Clive's solution of the political tangle of Bengal was the setting up of the infamous Dual System or Dyarchy i.e. 'rule of two', the Company and the Nawab. For the exercise of the Diwani functions , the Company appointed two Deputy Diwans, Mohammad Reza Khan for Bengal and Raja Shitab Roy for Bihar. Mohammad Reza Khan also acted as Deputy Nizam. Thus, the whole administration i.e. the Nizamat and Diwani, was exercised through Indian agency, though the actual power rested with the Company.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the hey days of the Mughal empire after the "Treaty of Allahabad", 1765 , the East India Company got diwani functions from the Emperor Shah Alam and the Nizamat functions from the Subahadar of Bengal The Governor of Bengal endeavoured to correct the abuses of the Company"s civil and military services but his reforms were temporary expedients. The above description is best suited for which of the following Governors?##Option_A: Lord Cornwallis###Option_B: Lord Warren Hastings##Option_C: Lord Clive##Option_D: Lord Cornwallis##Answer:c##Explaination:By the second Treaty of Allahabad (August 1765, fallout of Battle of Plassey) the Emperor Shah Alam was taken under the company's protection and was to reside at Allahabad. He was assigned Allahabad and Kora ceded by Nawab of Oudh. The Emperor in turn issued a firman on 12th August 1765 granting to the Company in perpetuity the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in return for the company making an annual payment of Rs.26 lakhs to him and providing for the expenses of the Nizamat of the said provinces which was fixed at Rs. 53 lakhs. Clive's solution of the political tangle of Bengal was the setting up of the infamous Dual System or Dyarchy i.e. 'rule of two', the Company and the Nawab. For the exercise of the Diwani functions , the Company appointed two Deputy Diwans, Mohammad Reza Khan for Bengal and Raja Shitab Roy for Bihar. Mohammad Reza Khan also acted as Deputy Nizam. Thus, the whole administration i.e. the Nizamat and Diwani, was exercised through Indian agency, though the actual power rested with the Company.##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Human Genome Project–write (HGP-write): It seeks to build an artificial human genome with sophisticated bioengineering tools. Technologies developed through HGP-write will be universally applicable to all organisms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Human Genome Project-write (HGP-write)- to write or build an artificial human genome with sophisticated bioengineering tools. The Human Genome Project (HGP) was a large, international and multi-institutional effort that took 13 years [1990-2003] and $2.7 billion to produce a blueprint of the sequence of genes and spaces between genes that make up a typical human genome. The original HGP was a "read" in that it used chemicals and instruments to decipher the genome for the first time. Fast forward to 2016 and another project, called the Human Genome Project-write (HGP-write), now underway to synthesise a human genome from scratch. The tools, techniques and technologies that are going to be developed through HGP-write will be universally applicable to all organisms, especially at an earlier stage for organisms with smaller genomes (for example, viruses), towards building individual genes and genomes efficiently and in an inexpensive manner. The potential benefits of HGP-write to India include providing new solutions to diseases like malaria, dengue and chikungunya.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Human Genome Project–write (HGP-write): It seeks to build an artificial human genome with sophisticated bioengineering tools. Technologies developed through HGP-write will be universally applicable to all organisms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Human Genome Project-write (HGP-write)- to write or build an artificial human genome with sophisticated bioengineering tools. The Human Genome Project (HGP) was a large, international and multi-institutional effort that took 13 years [1990-2003] and $2.7 billion to produce a blueprint of the sequence of genes and spaces between genes that make up a typical human genome. The original HGP was a "read" in that it used chemicals and instruments to decipher the genome for the first time. Fast forward to 2016 and another project, called the Human Genome Project-write (HGP-write), now underway to synthesise a human genome from scratch. The tools, techniques and technologies that are going to be developed through HGP-write will be universally applicable to all organisms, especially at an earlier stage for organisms with smaller genomes (for example, viruses), towards building individual genes and genomes efficiently and in an inexpensive manner. The potential benefits of HGP-write to India include providing new solutions to diseases like malaria, dengue and chikungunya.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Coal Bed Methane (CBM): It refers to a reserve of coals stored in deep ocean basins. Currently, there are no CBM producing blocks in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Coal bed methane refers to a reserve of natural gas stored in coal seams. Methane is associated with coal as a by product of the coal formation process. It is trapped in coal beds and released during and after mining. This methane does cause disasters in underground coal mines. With India having the fourth largest proven reserves of coal globally, according to the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons, the country holds significant prospects for exploration and production of CBM, which is also seen as a clean energy source. Currently, Great Eastern Energy Corporation and Essar Oil are the only two CBM-gas producing blocks in the country , both from separate reserves in Raniganj, West Bengal. Reliance Industries has reportedly begun test production from its two blocks in Madhya Pradesh.
|
c
|
Energy Resourcesconventional and nonconventional resources
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Coal Bed Methane (CBM): It refers to a reserve of coals stored in deep ocean basins. Currently, there are no CBM producing blocks in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Coal bed methane refers to a reserve of natural gas stored in coal seams. Methane is associated with coal as a by product of the coal formation process. It is trapped in coal beds and released during and after mining. This methane does cause disasters in underground coal mines. With India having the fourth largest proven reserves of coal globally, according to the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons, the country holds significant prospects for exploration and production of CBM, which is also seen as a clean energy source. Currently, Great Eastern Energy Corporation and Essar Oil are the only two CBM-gas producing blocks in the country , both from separate reserves in Raniganj, West Bengal. Reliance Industries has reportedly begun test production from its two blocks in Madhya Pradesh.##Topic:Energy Resourcesconventional and nonconventional resources##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Schedule Added by 1. 9th Schedule : 4 th Amendment 2. 10th Schedule : 25th Amendment 3. 12th Schedule : 73 rd Amendment. Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Ninth Schedule: Added by 1st amendment in 1951. It contains acts & orders related to land tenure, land tax, railways, industries. Tenth Schedule: Added by 52nd amendment in 1985. It contains provisions on disqualification of grounds of defection. Eleventh Schedule: By 73rd amendment in 1992. It contains provisions of Panchayati Raj. Twelfth Schedule: By 74thamendment in 1992. It contains provisions of Municipal Corporation.
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Schedule Added by 1. 9th Schedule : 4 th Amendment 2. 10th Schedule : 25th Amendment 3. 12th Schedule : 73 rd Amendment. Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Ninth Schedule: Added by 1st amendment in 1951. It contains acts & orders related to land tenure, land tax, railways, industries. Tenth Schedule: Added by 52nd amendment in 1985. It contains provisions on disqualification of grounds of defection. Eleventh Schedule: By 73rd amendment in 1992. It contains provisions of Panchayati Raj. Twelfth Schedule: By 74thamendment in 1992. It contains provisions of Municipal Corporation.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
भारत सरकार के द्वारा प्रारंभ की गयी "किरण कार्यक्रम" का मुख्य उद्येश्य निम्नलिखित में से किसपर आधारित है?
|
स्कूली बच्चों (6 से 10th तक ) को नवोन्मेष के लिए प्रोत्साहन करना ;
|
महिला वैज्ञानिकों के करियर एडवांसमेंट में सहायता के लिए;
|
अल्पसंख्यक महिलाओं में रोजगार के प्रोत्साहन के लिए ;
|
स्कूली बच्चों (6 से 10th तक ) को नवोन्मेष के लिए प्रोत्साहन करना ;
|
nan
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:भारत सरकार के द्वारा प्रारंभ की गयी "किरण कार्यक्रम" का मुख्य उद्येश्य निम्नलिखित में से किसपर आधारित है?##Option_A:स्कूली बच्चों (6 से 10th तक ) को नवोन्मेष के लिए प्रोत्साहन करना ;###Option_B:महिला वैज्ञानिकों के करियर एडवांसमेंट में सहायता के लिए;##Option_C:अल्पसंख्यक महिलाओं में रोजगार के प्रोत्साहन के लिए ;##Option_D:स्कूली बच्चों (6 से 10th तक ) को नवोन्मेष के लिए प्रोत्साहन करना ;##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
" This region is a delta region of about 900 sq. km situated in the west coast of Kerala State, India. The farming System practiced here is unique as it is the only system in India that practices rice cultivation below sea level. It is one of the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) sites in India." The above passage describes which of the following places?
|
Koratpur
|
Pampore
|
Kuttanad
|
Koratpur
|
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) are regions of outstanding biodiversity that reflect the natural evolution of farming and may help provide natural solutions to changing climates in the future. India has three Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) sites- Pampore (J&K) Koratpur (Odisha) Kuttanad (Kerala) The Kuttanad Below Sea-level Farming System (KBSFS) is unique, as it is the only system in India that practices rice cultvation below sea level. The major land use structure of KBSFS is flat stretches of rice fields in about 50,000 ha of mostly reclaimed delta swamps. The rice fields, which are popularly known as "Puncha Vayals" exist in three landscape elements: Karapadam (upland rice fields), Kayal (wetland rice fields) and Kari (land buried with black coal like materials). Farmers of Kuttanad have developed and mastered the spectacular technique of below sea level cultivation over 150 year ago. They made this system unique as it contributes remarkably well to the conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem services including several livelihood services for local communities.
|
c
|
Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:" This region is a delta region of about 900 sq. km situated in the west coast of Kerala State, India. The farming System practiced here is unique as it is the only system in India that practices rice cultivation below sea level. It is one of the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) sites in India." The above passage describes which of the following places?##Option_A: Koratpur###Option_B: Pampore##Option_C: Kuttanad##Option_D: Koratpur##Answer:c##Explaination:Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) are regions of outstanding biodiversity that reflect the natural evolution of farming and may help provide natural solutions to changing climates in the future. India has three Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) sites- Pampore (J&K) Koratpur (Odisha) Kuttanad (Kerala) The Kuttanad Below Sea-level Farming System (KBSFS) is unique, as it is the only system in India that practices rice cultvation below sea level. The major land use structure of KBSFS is flat stretches of rice fields in about 50,000 ha of mostly reclaimed delta swamps. The rice fields, which are popularly known as "Puncha Vayals" exist in three landscape elements: Karapadam (upland rice fields), Kayal (wetland rice fields) and Kari (land buried with black coal like materials). Farmers of Kuttanad have developed and mastered the spectacular technique of below sea level cultivation over 150 year ago. They made this system unique as it contributes remarkably well to the conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem services including several livelihood services for local communities.##Topic:Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to trends in expenditure on social services as a proportion of the GDP in last five years, consider the following statements: There has been a constant increase in the expenditure on education. The expenditure on health as a proportion of GDP has remained constant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
d
|
Misc Economic Issues
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to trends in expenditure on social services as a proportion of the GDP in last five years, consider the following statements: There has been a constant increase in the expenditure on education. The expenditure on health as a proportion of GDP has remained constant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:##Topic:Misc Economic Issues##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
|
Which among the following offices/post are deemed to be "Office of Profit"? President Governor Union Minister Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
A sitting President or Vice-President of the Union, the Governor of any state and a minister of the Union or any state is not deemed to hold any office of profit. The expression "office of profit" has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following offices/post are deemed to be "Office of Profit"? President Governor Union Minister Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:A sitting President or Vice-President of the Union, the Governor of any state and a minister of the Union or any state is not deemed to hold any office of profit. The expression "office of profit" has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The 86th constitutional amendment inserted/ changed articles in which of the following parts of the constitution? Part III Part IV Part IV-A Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
86th Amendment: Insertion of new Article 21A- After article 21 of the Constitution, the following article shall be inserted, namely: Right to education: "21A. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine". Substitution of new article for article 45. - For article 45 of the Constitution, the following article shall be substituted, namely: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years. "45. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years". Amendment of article 51A. In article 51A of the Constitution, after clause (J), the following clause shall be added, namely: "(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years". Thus it has bearing on parts III, IV, and IVA of the constitution.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The 86th constitutional amendment inserted/ changed articles in which of the following parts of the constitution? Part III Part IV Part IV-A Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:86th Amendment: Insertion of new Article 21A- After article 21 of the Constitution, the following article shall be inserted, namely: Right to education: "21A. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine". Substitution of new article for article 45. - For article 45 of the Constitution, the following article shall be substituted, namely: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years. "45. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years". Amendment of article 51A. In article 51A of the Constitution, after clause (J), the following clause shall be added, namely: "(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years". Thus it has bearing on parts III, IV, and IVA of the constitution.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Types of Inflation Meaning 1.Skewflation High inflation and low growth 2. Stagflation Price rise of small group of commodities over a sustained period of time 3. Reflation deliberately brought by the government to increase demand to foster growth. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Skewflation is a situation in which there is a price rise of one or a small group of commodities over a sustained period of time. Stagflation is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment - a time of stagnation - accompanied by a rise in prices, or inflation. Stagflation occurs when the economy isn't growing but prices are, which is not a good situation for a country to be in. Reflation is a situation often deliberately brought by the government to reduce unemployment and increase demand by going for higher levels of economic growth. Reflation policies can include reducing taxes, changing the money supply and lowering interest rates.
|
c
|
Inflation: Definition, Inflationary Gap and Inflationary Process, Inflation Cycles: Demand Pull Inflation, Cost Push Inflation, Causes of Inflation, Inflation Control measures
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Types of Inflation Meaning 1.Skewflation High inflation and low growth 2. Stagflation Price rise of small group of commodities over a sustained period of time 3. Reflation deliberately brought by the government to increase demand to foster growth. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Skewflation is a situation in which there is a price rise of one or a small group of commodities over a sustained period of time. Stagflation is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment - a time of stagnation - accompanied by a rise in prices, or inflation. Stagflation occurs when the economy isn't growing but prices are, which is not a good situation for a country to be in. Reflation is a situation often deliberately brought by the government to reduce unemployment and increase demand by going for higher levels of economic growth. Reflation policies can include reducing taxes, changing the money supply and lowering interest rates.##Topic:Inflation: Definition, Inflationary Gap and Inflationary Process, Inflation Cycles: Demand Pull Inflation, Cost Push Inflation, Causes of Inflation, Inflation Control measures##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the French
1) They were defeated by the British in the battle of Wandiwash
2) The French were friendly with Siraj-ud-Daulah
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the French
1) They were defeated by the British in the battle of Wandiwash
2) The French were friendly with Siraj-ud-Daulah
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Which of the following best defines Investment in an economy?
|
change in saving
|
change in capital stock
|
change in government expenditure
|
change in saving
|
An investment is an asset or item that is purchased with the hope that it will generate income or appreciate in the future. In an economic sense, an investment is the purchase of goods that are not consumed today but are used in the future to create wealth. Capital stock implies production capacity of the producers. Producers always try to increase their capital stock, so that their capacity to produce increases over time. Increase in the stock of capital during the year is called investment during the year. Change in stock of capital is also called capital formation. So the terms investment and capital formation can be used interchangeably.
|
b
|
Misc Economic Issues
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following best defines Investment in an economy?##Option_A: change in saving###Option_B: change in capital stock##Option_C: change in government expenditure##Option_D: change in saving##Answer:b##Explaination:An investment is an asset or item that is purchased with the hope that it will generate income or appreciate in the future. In an economic sense, an investment is the purchase of goods that are not consumed today but are used in the future to create wealth. Capital stock implies production capacity of the producers. Producers always try to increase their capital stock, so that their capacity to produce increases over time. Increase in the stock of capital during the year is called investment during the year. Change in stock of capital is also called capital formation. So the terms investment and capital formation can be used interchangeably.##Topic:Misc Economic Issues##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Wood"s Education Dispatch, 1854 advocated extension of education in vernacular languages. Raja Rammohun Roy supported the foundation of Sanskrit College as he believed in educating the masses in ancient Indian philosophy. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded Aligarh Scientific society for development of scientific education in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Charles Wood's Education Dispatch signalled a shift away from the downward filtration policy, as it recommended the extension of vernacular elementary education. Raja Rammohun Roy sent a memorandum to the governor general protesting against the founding of the Sanskrit College in Calcutta. Roy represented a generation of Indians who beleived that modernisation of India would come through English education and the dissemination of knowledge of the western sciences. The Aligarh Scientific Society started in 1868, by Syed Ahmed Khan contributed to discourse of science in India.
|
b
|
Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Wood"s Education Dispatch, 1854 advocated extension of education in vernacular languages. Raja Rammohun Roy supported the foundation of Sanskrit College as he believed in educating the masses in ancient Indian philosophy. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded Aligarh Scientific society for development of scientific education in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Charles Wood's Education Dispatch signalled a shift away from the downward filtration policy, as it recommended the extension of vernacular elementary education. Raja Rammohun Roy sent a memorandum to the governor general protesting against the founding of the Sanskrit College in Calcutta. Roy represented a generation of Indians who beleived that modernisation of India would come through English education and the dissemination of knowledge of the western sciences. The Aligarh Scientific Society started in 1868, by Syed Ahmed Khan contributed to discourse of science in India.##Topic:Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Arrange the following events in the chronological order of their occurrence : Formation of the Deccan Traps. Breaking up of Pangea. Collision of Indian Plate with Asiatic Plate. Formation of Great Plains of North India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1-2-3-4
|
2-1-3-4
|
2-3-4-1
|
1-2-3-4
|
India was a large island situated off the Australian coast, in a vast ocean. The Tethys Sea separated it from the Asian continent till about 225 million years ago. India is supposed to have started her northward journey about 200 million years ago at the time when Pangaea broke. During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Asiatic plate, a major event that occurred was the outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps. This started somewhere around 60 million years ago and continued for a long period of time. India collided with Asia about 40-50 million years ago causing rapid uplift of the Himalayas. Great Plains of North India were formed as a result of filling of a deep depression lying between the Peninsular and the Himalayan regions by the depositional work of the rivers coming from these two landmasses. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
|
b
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arrange the following events in the chronological order of their occurrence : Formation of the Deccan Traps. Breaking up of Pangea. Collision of Indian Plate with Asiatic Plate. Formation of Great Plains of North India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1-2-3-4###Option_B: 2-1-3-4##Option_C: 2-3-4-1##Option_D: 1-2-3-4##Answer:b##Explaination:India was a large island situated off the Australian coast, in a vast ocean. The Tethys Sea separated it from the Asian continent till about 225 million years ago. India is supposed to have started her northward journey about 200 million years ago at the time when Pangaea broke. During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Asiatic plate, a major event that occurred was the outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps. This started somewhere around 60 million years ago and continued for a long period of time. India collided with Asia about 40-50 million years ago causing rapid uplift of the Himalayas. Great Plains of North India were formed as a result of filling of a deep depression lying between the Peninsular and the Himalayan regions by the depositional work of the rivers coming from these two landmasses. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to Bharatnatyam, consider the following statements: Natya Shastra provides information on this dance form. In this dance one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance. The face of the artist is painted over to appear as though a mask is worn. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Bharatnatyam Dance is considered to be over 2000 years old. Several texts beginning with Bharata Muni's Natya Shastra (200 B.C.E. to 200 C.E.) provide information on this dance form. The Abhinaya Darpana by Nandikesvara is one of the main sources of textual material, for the study of the technique and grammar of body movement in Bharatnatyam Dance. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Bharatnatyam dance is known to be ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In Kathakali, the face of the artist is painted over to appear as though a mask is worn. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
b
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Bharatnatyam, consider the following statements: Natya Shastra provides information on this dance form. In this dance one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance. The face of the artist is painted over to appear as though a mask is worn. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Bharatnatyam Dance is considered to be over 2000 years old. Several texts beginning with Bharata Muni's Natya Shastra (200 B.C.E. to 200 C.E.) provide information on this dance form. The Abhinaya Darpana by Nandikesvara is one of the main sources of textual material, for the study of the technique and grammar of body movement in Bharatnatyam Dance. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Bharatnatyam dance is known to be ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In Kathakali, the face of the artist is painted over to appear as though a mask is worn. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the Southwest Monsoon Season. Which of the following factors are responsible for it? It is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch. It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during this season. There are two factors responsible for it: The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon. It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon. Hence, both the statements are correct.
|
c
|
Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the Southwest Monsoon Season. Which of the following factors are responsible for it? It is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch. It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during this season. There are two factors responsible for it: The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon. It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon. Hence, both the statements are correct.##Topic:Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
What is the significance of centralised cash reserves with Central Bank? To offer financial help to the commercial banks during emergencies To increase or decrease the credit creation capacity of commercial banks To have a say in appointments in commercial banks board of directors To inspire the confidence of public in commercial banks Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Central bank acts as the custodian of the cash reserves of commercial banks and helps in facilitating their transactions. There are many advantages of keeping the cash reserves of the commercial banks with the central bank. In the first place, the centralisation of cash reserves in the central bank is a source of great strength to the banking system of a country and inspire the confidence of public in commercial banks. Secondly, centralised cash reserves can serve as the basis of a large and more elastic credit structure than if the same amount were scattered among the individual banks. Thirdly, centralised cash reserves can be utilised fully and most effectively during periods of seasonal strains and in financial crises or emergencies. Fourthly, by varying these cash reserves the central bank can control the credit creation by commercial banks. Lastly, the central bank can provide additional funds on a temporary and short term basis to commercial banks to overcome their financial difficulties. It doesn't keep centralised cash reserves to have a say in appointment in in commercial banks board of directors. Hence only statement 3 is not correct. Hence only statement 3 is not correct.
|
b
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the significance of centralised cash reserves with Central Bank? To offer financial help to the commercial banks during emergencies To increase or decrease the credit creation capacity of commercial banks To have a say in appointments in commercial banks board of directors To inspire the confidence of public in commercial banks Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Central bank acts as the custodian of the cash reserves of commercial banks and helps in facilitating their transactions. There are many advantages of keeping the cash reserves of the commercial banks with the central bank. In the first place, the centralisation of cash reserves in the central bank is a source of great strength to the banking system of a country and inspire the confidence of public in commercial banks. Secondly, centralised cash reserves can serve as the basis of a large and more elastic credit structure than if the same amount were scattered among the individual banks. Thirdly, centralised cash reserves can be utilised fully and most effectively during periods of seasonal strains and in financial crises or emergencies. Fourthly, by varying these cash reserves the central bank can control the credit creation by commercial banks. Lastly, the central bank can provide additional funds on a temporary and short term basis to commercial banks to overcome their financial difficulties. It doesn't keep centralised cash reserves to have a say in appointment in in commercial banks board of directors. Hence only statement 3 is not correct. Hence only statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which among the following are parts of triratnas of jainism? Right teaching Right faith Right action Right knowledge Right monastic order Select the correct answer using the code below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
In Jainism the three jewels (also referred to as ratnatraya) are understood as samyagdarshana ("right faith"), samyagjnana ("right knowledge"), and samyakcharitra ("right action"). One of the three cannot exist exclusive of the others, and all are required for spiritual liberation. The Triratna is symbolized frequently in art as a trident. In Buddhism the Triratna comprises the Buddha, the dharma (doctrine, or teaching), and the sangha (the monastic order, or community). One becomes a Buddhist by saying the words "I go to the Buddha for refuge, I go to the Doctrine for refuge, I go to the Order for refuge."
|
c
|
Religion and Philosophy
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following are parts of triratnas of jainism? Right teaching Right faith Right action Right knowledge Right monastic order Select the correct answer using the code below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:In Jainism the three jewels (also referred to as ratnatraya) are understood as samyagdarshana ("right faith"), samyagjnana ("right knowledge"), and samyakcharitra ("right action"). One of the three cannot exist exclusive of the others, and all are required for spiritual liberation. The Triratna is symbolized frequently in art as a trident. In Buddhism the Triratna comprises the Buddha, the dharma (doctrine, or teaching), and the sangha (the monastic order, or community). One becomes a Buddhist by saying the words "I go to the Buddha for refuge, I go to the Doctrine for refuge, I go to the Order for refuge."##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Goods and Services Tax Bill is a:
|
Money Bill
|
Finance Bill-I
|
Finance Bill- II
|
Money Bill
|
The Goods and Services Tax Bill or GST Bill, officially known as The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Second Amendment) Bill, 2014, proposes a national Value added Tax to be implemented in IndiA from June 2016. "Goods and Services Tax" would be a comprehensive indirect tax on manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services throughout India, to replace taxes levied by the Central and State governments.
|
d
|
Types of bills and Legislative procedure
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Goods and Services Tax Bill is a:##Option_A: Money Bill###Option_B: Finance Bill-I##Option_C: Finance Bill- II##Option_D: Money Bill##Answer:d##Explaination:The Goods and Services Tax Bill or GST Bill, officially known as The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Second Amendment) Bill, 2014, proposes a national Value added Tax to be implemented in IndiA from June 2016. "Goods and Services Tax" would be a comprehensive indirect tax on manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services throughout India, to replace taxes levied by the Central and State governments.##Topic:Types of bills and Legislative procedure##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Rajasthani or Rajput painting, consider the following statements: They were completely indigenous and were not influenced by sultanate paintings. Paintings were done for decoration on walls and illustration in books. Majority of the themes were centered around Krishna and his adventures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Rajasthani or Rajput paintings developed under patronage of different kingdoms of Rajputana area in western India. Rajasthani painting consists of four principal schools that have within them several artistic styles and sub styles that can be traced to the various princely states that patronised these artists. The four principal schools are as follows: The Mewar School The Marwar school The Hadoti school The Dhundar school
|
c
|
Paintings
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Rajasthani or Rajput painting, consider the following statements: They were completely indigenous and were not influenced by sultanate paintings. Paintings were done for decoration on walls and illustration in books. Majority of the themes were centered around Krishna and his adventures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Rajasthani or Rajput paintings developed under patronage of different kingdoms of Rajputana area in western India. Rajasthani painting consists of four principal schools that have within them several artistic styles and sub styles that can be traced to the various princely states that patronised these artists. The four principal schools are as follows: The Mewar School The Marwar school The Hadoti school The Dhundar school##Topic:Paintings##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Permanent Settlement system was introduced in Bengal due to which of the following reasons? It would incentivise investment in agriculture by the landlords. It did not require large administrative machinery. It would create a powerful loyal class of local population. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Through Permanent Settlement British aimed that the landlords would invest money in improving the land, as with the state demand being fixed the whole of the benefit from increased production and enhanced income would accrue to them. Further reasons to introduce the permanent settlement: It was easier to collect revenue from a small number of zamindars than from the innumerable peasants, it would also require a small administrative machinery. It would ensure the loyalty of a powerful class of the local population. Hence, all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Economic policies and their impact, Education Policies
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Permanent Settlement system was introduced in Bengal due to which of the following reasons? It would incentivise investment in agriculture by the landlords. It did not require large administrative machinery. It would create a powerful loyal class of local population. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Through Permanent Settlement British aimed that the landlords would invest money in improving the land, as with the state demand being fixed the whole of the benefit from increased production and enhanced income would accrue to them. Further reasons to introduce the permanent settlement: It was easier to collect revenue from a small number of zamindars than from the innumerable peasants, it would also require a small administrative machinery. It would ensure the loyalty of a powerful class of the local population. Hence, all the statements are correct.##Topic:Economic policies and their impact, Education Policies##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in Africa as one proceeds from North to South? Cape Town Maputo Nairobi Dodoma Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3-4-2-1
|
4-1-3-2
|
1-3-2-4
|
3-4-2-1
|
Cape Town, Maputo, Nairobi and Dodoma are important cities in South Africa, Mozambique, Kenya and Tanzania respectively. Recently Prime Minister took a four nation Africa tour to these countries.
|
a
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in Africa as one proceeds from North to South? Cape Town Maputo Nairobi Dodoma Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 3-4-2-1###Option_B: 4-1-3-2##Option_C: 1-3-2-4##Option_D: 3-4-2-1##Answer:a##Explaination:Cape Town, Maputo, Nairobi and Dodoma are important cities in South Africa, Mozambique, Kenya and Tanzania respectively. Recently Prime Minister took a four nation Africa tour to these countries. ##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs: Type of Soil Characteristic 1. Alluvial Soil : Self ploughing in nature 2. Red and Yellow Soil : Cut as bricks for use in construction. 3. Arid Soils : Kankar layer formation Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Black Soils: They are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of 'self ploughing'. Self ploughing occurs in black soil. Red and Yellow Soils: The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. Laterite Soils: They are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction. Arid Soils: Lower horizons of the soil are occupied by 'kankar' layers because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The 'Kankar' layer formation in the bottom horizons restricts the infiltration of water, and as such when irrigation is made available, the soil moisture is readily available for a sustainable plant growth.
|
c
|
Soils Classification, distribution, erosion & Conservation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Type of Soil Characteristic 1. Alluvial Soil : Self ploughing in nature 2. Red and Yellow Soil : Cut as bricks for use in construction. 3. Arid Soils : Kankar layer formation Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Black Soils: They are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of 'self ploughing'. Self ploughing occurs in black soil. Red and Yellow Soils: The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. Laterite Soils: They are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction. Arid Soils: Lower horizons of the soil are occupied by 'kankar' layers because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The 'Kankar' layer formation in the bottom horizons restricts the infiltration of water, and as such when irrigation is made available, the soil moisture is readily available for a sustainable plant growth.##Topic:Soils Classification, distribution, erosion & Conservation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to the powers Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), consider the following statements: He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty. He audits all the expenditure from contingency fund and public accounts of India. He submits the audit reports relating to the accounts of Centre and states to the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Article 279: He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty. His certificate is final. The ‘net proceeds’ means the proceeds of a tax or a duty minus the cost of collection. Article 151: He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to President, who shall, in turn, place them before both the Houses of Parliament whereas audit reports relating to the accounts of a state to Governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state. He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly.
|
b
|
CAG
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the powers Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), consider the following statements: He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty. He audits all the expenditure from contingency fund and public accounts of India. He submits the audit reports relating to the accounts of Centre and states to the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 279: He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty. His certificate is final. The ‘net proceeds’ means the proceeds of a tax or a duty minus the cost of collection. Article 151: He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to President, who shall, in turn, place them before both the Houses of Parliament whereas audit reports relating to the accounts of a state to Governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state. He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly.##Topic:CAG##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following qualifications are laid down by the Indian Constitution, for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature? He must be not less than 30 years of age in case of legislative council. A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. He must be a member of SC/ST if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature. He must be a citizen of India. He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose. In his oath or affirmation, he swears: To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor's nomination, he must be a resident in the concerned state. A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not a constitutional provisions but are provided in Representation of People Act (1951).
|
a
|
Working of Vidhan Sabha
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following qualifications are laid down by the Indian Constitution, for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature? He must be not less than 30 years of age in case of legislative council. A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. He must be a member of SC/ST if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature. He must be a citizen of India. He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose. In his oath or affirmation, he swears: To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor's nomination, he must be a resident in the concerned state. A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not a constitutional provisions but are provided in Representation of People Act (1951).##Topic:Working of Vidhan Sabha##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The Start-up India Action Plan of Union Government is an initiative of:
|
Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion
|
Ministry of Skill Development And Entrepreneurship
|
Department of Economic Affairs
|
Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion
|
Start up India Action Plan is an initiative of Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP). Startup India campaign is based on an action plan aimed at promoting bank financing for start-up ventures to boost entrepreneurship and encourage start ups with jobs creation. The campaign was first announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his 15 August, 2015 address from the Red Fort.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Start-up India Action Plan of Union Government is an initiative of:##Option_A: Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion###Option_B: Ministry of Skill Development And Entrepreneurship##Option_C: Department of Economic Affairs##Option_D: Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion##Answer:a##Explaination:Start up India Action Plan is an initiative of Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP). Startup India campaign is based on an action plan aimed at promoting bank financing for start-up ventures to boost entrepreneurship and encourage start ups with jobs creation. The campaign was first announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his 15 August, 2015 address from the Red Fort.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), consider the following statements: They allow investment in in income-generating real estate assets. They can be traded on stock exchange. 100% FDI has been permitted in REITs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
REITs are similar to mutual funds. While mutual funds provide for an opportunity to invest in equity stocks, REITs allow one to invest in income-generating real estate assets. Hence, statement 1 is correct. REITs raise funds from a large number of investors and directly invest that sum in income-generating real estate properties (which could be offices, residential apartments, shopping centres, hotels and warehouses). The trusts are listed in stock exchanges so that investors can buy units in the trust. Hence, statement 2 is correct. FDI is prohibited in lottery, gambling, atomic energy, real estate investment trusts (ReIT), and railway operations. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
a
|
Initiatives taken by Govt
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), consider the following statements: They allow investment in in income-generating real estate assets. They can be traded on stock exchange. 100% FDI has been permitted in REITs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:REITs are similar to mutual funds. While mutual funds provide for an opportunity to invest in equity stocks, REITs allow one to invest in income-generating real estate assets. Hence, statement 1 is correct. REITs raise funds from a large number of investors and directly invest that sum in income-generating real estate properties (which could be offices, residential apartments, shopping centres, hotels and warehouses). The trusts are listed in stock exchanges so that investors can buy units in the trust. Hence, statement 2 is correct. FDI is prohibited in lottery, gambling, atomic energy, real estate investment trusts (ReIT), and railway operations. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:Initiatives taken by Govt##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to Kushanas, consider the following statements: They introduced satrap system of government in India. They controlled the Silk Route, which became great source of income to them. They patronised both Buddhism and Vaishanavism. Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Kushanas introduced the satrap system of government. The empire was divided into numerous satrapies, and each satrapy was placed under the rule of a satrap. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Kushans controlled the Silk Route , which started from China and passed through their empire in Central Asia and Afghanistan to Iran. This route was a source of great income to the Kushans and they built a large prosperous empire because of the tolls levied from the traders. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Kushana rulers worshipped both Shiva and the Buddha and the images of these two gods appeared on the Kushana coins. Several Kushan rulers were worshippers of Vishnu such as the Kushan ruler Vasudev. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
d
|
Others
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Kushanas, consider the following statements: They introduced satrap system of government in India. They controlled the Silk Route, which became great source of income to them. They patronised both Buddhism and Vaishanavism. Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination: The Kushanas introduced the satrap system of government. The empire was divided into numerous satrapies, and each satrapy was placed under the rule of a satrap. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Kushans controlled the Silk Route , which started from China and passed through their empire in Central Asia and Afghanistan to Iran. This route was a source of great income to the Kushans and they built a large prosperous empire because of the tolls levied from the traders. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Kushana rulers worshipped both Shiva and the Buddha and the images of these two gods appeared on the Kushana coins. Several Kushan rulers were worshippers of Vishnu such as the Kushan ruler Vasudev. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Others##Subject:Geography##Answer:d
|
A 'Democracy' is a form of government in which: rulers are elected by the people. elections are conducted in free and fair manner where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value. government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens' rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Features of a democracy form of government: In a democracy the final decision making power must rest with those elected by the people. a democracy must be based on a free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. in a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value. a democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens' rights.
|
d
|
Democratic & NonDemocratic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A 'Democracy' is a form of government in which: rulers are elected by the people. elections are conducted in free and fair manner where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value. government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens' rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Features of a democracy form of government: In a democracy the final decision making power must rest with those elected by the people. a democracy must be based on a free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. in a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value. a democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens' rights.##Topic:Democratic & NonDemocratic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about "The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016": It aims to provide for targeted delivery of subsidies by assigning 12 digit unique identity numbers. The bill empowers the UID authority to collect demographic information like race, religion and caste of an individual. The bill allows biometric information of an individual will not be revealed in any case including cases of national security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, benefits and services) Act, 2016 is a money bill of the Parliament of India. It aims to provide legal backing to the Aadhaar unique identification number project. The Aadhaar Bill plans to use the identification number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), to deliver State subsidies directly into the hands (or actually, bank accounts) of beneficiaries. Identity information and authentication records may be disclosed in the interest of national security. This will be on the direction of an officer who is at least a Joint Secretary in the central government. Demographic information will include name, date of birth, address and other information that is specified by the UID authority. However, such information cannot include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical of the individual. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about "The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016": It aims to provide for targeted delivery of subsidies by assigning 12 digit unique identity numbers. The bill empowers the UID authority to collect demographic information like race, religion and caste of an individual. The bill allows biometric information of an individual will not be revealed in any case including cases of national security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, benefits and services) Act, 2016 is a money bill of the Parliament of India. It aims to provide legal backing to the Aadhaar unique identification number project. The Aadhaar Bill plans to use the identification number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), to deliver State subsidies directly into the hands (or actually, bank accounts) of beneficiaries. Identity information and authentication records may be disclosed in the interest of national security. This will be on the direction of an officer who is at least a Joint Secretary in the central government. Demographic information will include name, date of birth, address and other information that is specified by the UID authority. However, such information cannot include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical of the individual. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
The scheme of composition of a legislative council in the state legislature as laid down in the Constitution can be modified by:
|
President
|
Governor
|
State Legislature
|
President
|
Unlike the members of the legislative assembly, the members of the legislative council are indirectly elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament. This scheme of composition of a legislative council as laid down in the Constitution is tentative and not final. The Parliament is authorised to modify or replace the same. However, it has not enacted any such law so far.
|
d
|
Working of Vidhan Parishad
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The scheme of composition of a legislative council in the state legislature as laid down in the Constitution can be modified by:##Option_A: President###Option_B: Governor##Option_C: State Legislature##Option_D: President##Answer:d##Explaination:Unlike the members of the legislative assembly, the members of the legislative council are indirectly elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament. This scheme of composition of a legislative council as laid down in the Constitution is tentative and not final. The Parliament is authorised to modify or replace the same. However, it has not enacted any such law so far.##Topic:Working of Vidhan Parishad##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Tejas combat aircraft, consider the following statements: It is the lightest multi-role supersonic aircraft of its class. It was developed by India in collaboration with Israel. Due to strategic reasons the aircraft will not be available for export to any other country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Tejas is India's first indigenous light combat aircraft (LCA), which is all set to replace the MiG-21 series. It was designed and developed by Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and HAL. Tejas is the smallest and lightest Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft of its class. Defence Minister has pointed out that Tejas will also be available for export to friendly nations. Sri Lanka is slated to be a possible export customer.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Tejas combat aircraft, consider the following statements: It is the lightest multi-role supersonic aircraft of its class. It was developed by India in collaboration with Israel. Due to strategic reasons the aircraft will not be available for export to any other country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Tejas is India's first indigenous light combat aircraft (LCA), which is all set to replace the MiG-21 series. It was designed and developed by Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and HAL. Tejas is the smallest and lightest Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft of its class. Defence Minister has pointed out that Tejas will also be available for export to friendly nations. Sri Lanka is slated to be a possible export customer.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
ISRO has been working to test a "Scramjet engine". What is the significant feature of these engines?
|
They utilize solar energy to produce thrust.
|
They obtain oxygen from the atmosphere for combustion.
|
They work on a 4-stage cryogenic engine sequenced between solid and liquid propellant.
|
They utilize solar energy to produce thrust.
|
While conventional rocket engines need to carry both fuel and oxidiser on board for combustion to produce thrust, scramjets obtain oxygen from the atmosphere by compressing the incoming air before combustion at hypersonic speed. The scramjet engine can also liquefy the oxygen and store it on board.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:ISRO has been working to test a "Scramjet engine". What is the significant feature of these engines?##Option_A: They utilize solar energy to produce thrust.###Option_B: They obtain oxygen from the atmosphere for combustion.##Option_C: They work on a 4-stage cryogenic engine sequenced between solid and liquid propellant.##Option_D: They utilize solar energy to produce thrust.##Answer:b##Explaination:While conventional rocket engines need to carry both fuel and oxidiser on board for combustion to produce thrust, scramjets obtain oxygen from the atmosphere by compressing the incoming air before combustion at hypersonic speed. The scramjet engine can also liquefy the oxygen and store it on board.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Out of the total utilisable water resource, surface water dominates over ground water. Agriculture accounts for most of the both surface and ground water utilization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Out of the total utilisable water resource (1122 km 3 ), surface water (690 km 3 ) dominates over ground water (432 km 3 ). Agriculture accounts for most of the both surface and ground water utilization. It accounts for close to 90 per cent of both surface water and ground water utilization. Hence, both the statements are correct.
|
c
|
Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Out of the total utilisable water resource, surface water dominates over ground water. Agriculture accounts for most of the both surface and ground water utilization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Out of the total utilisable water resource (1122 km 3 ), surface water (690 km 3 ) dominates over ground water (432 km 3 ). Agriculture accounts for most of the both surface and ground water utilization. It accounts for close to 90 per cent of both surface water and ground water utilization. Hence, both the statements are correct.##Topic:Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft Purpose 1. Juno : Orbiting Jupiter and studying its composition 2. Rosetta : Mapping and investigating the Mercury 3. New Horizons : Exploring the Kuiper Belt Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Juno is a NASA space probe orbiting the planet Jupiter. It was launched from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station on August 5, 2011, as part of the New Frontiers program, and entered Jupiter orbit on July 4, 2016. The spacecraft is in a polar orbit to study Jupiter's composition, gravity field, magnetic field, and polar magnetosphere. Juno will also search for clues about how the planet formed, including whether it has a rocky core. Rosetta is a space probe built by the European Space Agency launched on 2 March 2004. Along with Philae, its lander module, Rosetta is performing a detailed study of comet 67P/Churyumov-Gerasimenko (67P). New Horizons is an interplanetary space probe that was launched as a part of NASA's New Frontiers program. The spacecraft was launched with the primary mission to perform a flyby study of the Pluto system, and a secondary mission to fly by and study one or more other Kuiper belt objects (KBOs).
|
c
|
Others
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft Purpose 1. Juno : Orbiting Jupiter and studying its composition 2. Rosetta : Mapping and investigating the Mercury 3. New Horizons : Exploring the Kuiper Belt Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Juno is a NASA space probe orbiting the planet Jupiter. It was launched from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station on August 5, 2011, as part of the New Frontiers program, and entered Jupiter orbit on July 4, 2016. The spacecraft is in a polar orbit to study Jupiter's composition, gravity field, magnetic field, and polar magnetosphere. Juno will also search for clues about how the planet formed, including whether it has a rocky core. Rosetta is a space probe built by the European Space Agency launched on 2 March 2004. Along with Philae, its lander module, Rosetta is performing a detailed study of comet 67P/Churyumov-Gerasimenko (67P). New Horizons is an interplanetary space probe that was launched as a part of NASA's New Frontiers program. The spacecraft was launched with the primary mission to perform a flyby study of the Pluto system, and a secondary mission to fly by and study one or more other Kuiper belt objects (KBOs).##Topic:Others##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Why is GDP NOT considered as an appropriate indicator of welfare? It takes non-monetary transactions into account. It does not take externalities into account. Growth in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of few individuals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
GDP is the sum total of value of goods and services created within the geographical boundary of a country in a particular year. However, higher level of GDP of a country may not be a good index of greater well-being of the people of that country. There are at least three reasons: Distribution of GDP: how uniform is it: if the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare may not rise as a consequence. This is because the rise in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firms. For the rest, the income may in fact have fallen. Non-monetary exchanges: It does not take non-monetary transactions into account. Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms. For example, the domestic services women perform at home are not paid for. Hence, statement 1 is wrong. Externalities: Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid (or penalised). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold. For example, pollution caused by an oil refinery in the nearby river and the subsequent loss to environment is not counted in GDP. This is a negative externality. Similarly positive externality is not included in calculation of GDP.
|
b
|
GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Why is GDP NOT considered as an appropriate indicator of welfare? It takes non-monetary transactions into account. It does not take externalities into account. Growth in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of few individuals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:GDP is the sum total of value of goods and services created within the geographical boundary of a country in a particular year. However, higher level of GDP of a country may not be a good index of greater well-being of the people of that country. There are at least three reasons: Distribution of GDP: how uniform is it: if the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare may not rise as a consequence. This is because the rise in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firms. For the rest, the income may in fact have fallen. Non-monetary exchanges: It does not take non-monetary transactions into account. Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms. For example, the domestic services women perform at home are not paid for. Hence, statement 1 is wrong. Externalities: Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid (or penalised). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold. For example, pollution caused by an oil refinery in the nearby river and the subsequent loss to environment is not counted in GDP. This is a negative externality. Similarly positive externality is not included in calculation of GDP.##Topic:GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
The term "Dark sky reserve" is often seen news is:
|
a zone showing most evidences of presence of dark matter
|
an area kept free of light pollution
|
an area of high ozone layer depletion
|
a zone showing most evidences of presence of dark matter
|
A dark-sky reserve is an area, usually surrounding a park or observatory, that is kept free of artificial light pollution. The purpose of a dark sky preserve is generally to promote astronomy.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "Dark sky reserve" is often seen news is:##Option_A: a zone showing most evidences of presence of dark matter###Option_B: an area kept free of light pollution##Option_C: an area of high ozone layer depletion##Option_D: a zone showing most evidences of presence of dark matter##Answer:b##Explaination:A dark-sky reserve is an area, usually surrounding a park or observatory, that is kept free of artificial light pollution. The purpose of a dark sky preserve is generally to promote astronomy.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to the constitution of Monetary Policy Committee, consider the following statements: It will determine the inflation targets in the medium term for RBI. The decision of the Committee would be binding on the RBI. The establishment of the committee is brought through an amendment to the RBI Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
MPC was set up consequent to the agreement reached between Government and RBI to task RBI with the responsibility for price stability and inflation targeting. The Reserve Bank of India and Government of India signed the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement. Subsequently, the government, while unveiling the Union Budget for 2016-17 in the Parliament, proposed to amend the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 for giving a statutory backing to the aforementioned Monetary Policy Framework Agreement and for setting up a Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). Under the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement, the RBI will be responsible for containing inflation targets at 4% (with a standard deviation of 2%) in the medium term. The Central Government will determine the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index, once in every five years in consultation with the RBI. (Hence Statement 1 is wrong). The MPC takes decisions based on majority vote (by those who are present and voting). In case of a tie, the RBI governor will have the second or casting vote. The decision of the Committee would be binding on the RBI. Composition: The six-member Committee will comprise three members from RBI, including the Governor, who will be the ex-officio chairperson, a Deputy Governor and one officer of the central bank. The other three members will be appointed by the Centre on the recommendations of a search-cum-selection committee to be headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the constitution of Monetary Policy Committee, consider the following statements: It will determine the inflation targets in the medium term for RBI. The decision of the Committee would be binding on the RBI. The establishment of the committee is brought through an amendment to the RBI Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:MPC was set up consequent to the agreement reached between Government and RBI to task RBI with the responsibility for price stability and inflation targeting. The Reserve Bank of India and Government of India signed the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement. Subsequently, the government, while unveiling the Union Budget for 2016-17 in the Parliament, proposed to amend the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 for giving a statutory backing to the aforementioned Monetary Policy Framework Agreement and for setting up a Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). Under the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement, the RBI will be responsible for containing inflation targets at 4% (with a standard deviation of 2%) in the medium term. The Central Government will determine the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index, once in every five years in consultation with the RBI. (Hence Statement 1 is wrong). The MPC takes decisions based on majority vote (by those who are present and voting). In case of a tie, the RBI governor will have the second or casting vote. The decision of the Committee would be binding on the RBI. Composition: The six-member Committee will comprise three members from RBI, including the Governor, who will be the ex-officio chairperson, a Deputy Governor and one officer of the central bank. The other three members will be appointed by the Centre on the recommendations of a search-cum-selection committee to be headed by the Cabinet Secretary.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding "Duar Formations": These formations are associated with Himachal and Uttaranchal Himalayas. They have been used for the development of coffee gardens. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The two distinguishing features of Himachal and Uttaranchal Himalayas region from the point of view of physiography are the 'Shiwalik' and "Dun formations". Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik formations. In place of the Shiwaliks here, the 'duar formations' are important, which have also been used for the development of tea gardens (and not coffee gardens).
|
c
|
Important physical features & regions of the world
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding "Duar Formations": These formations are associated with Himachal and Uttaranchal Himalayas. They have been used for the development of coffee gardens. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The two distinguishing features of Himachal and Uttaranchal Himalayas region from the point of view of physiography are the 'Shiwalik' and "Dun formations". Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik formations. In place of the Shiwaliks here, the 'duar formations' are important, which have also been used for the development of tea gardens (and not coffee gardens).##Topic:Important physical features & regions of the world##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: The Wassenaar Arrangement through export controls aims to prevent the development of chemical or biological weapons. The Australia Group aims to promote transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Wassenaar Arrangement has been established in order to contribute to regional and international security and stability, by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies, thus preventing destabilising accumulations. The Australia Group (AG) is an informal forum of countries which, through the harmonisation of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological weapons.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The Wassenaar Arrangement through export controls aims to prevent the development of chemical or biological weapons. The Australia Group aims to promote transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Wassenaar Arrangement has been established in order to contribute to regional and international security and stability, by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies, thus preventing destabilising accumulations. The Australia Group (AG) is an informal forum of countries which, through the harmonisation of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological weapons.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are spread over only one State in India? Bundelkhand Upland Ajanta Range Dandakaranya Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Bundelkhand Uplands - It is spread over the states of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Ajanta Range - It lies completely inside Maharashtra. Dandakaranya - It is spread over the states of Orissa, Chattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh.
|
b
|
Important physical features & regions of the world
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are spread over only one State in India? Bundelkhand Upland Ajanta Range Dandakaranya Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Bundelkhand Uplands - It is spread over the states of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Ajanta Range - It lies completely inside Maharashtra. Dandakaranya - It is spread over the states of Orissa, Chattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh.##Topic:Important physical features & regions of the world##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Script Period 1. Brahmi : Mauryan 2. Siddhamatrika : Gupta 3. Modi : Marathas Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The Brahmi script is one of the most important writing systems in the world by virtue of its time depth and influence. It represents the earliest post-Indus corpus of texts, and some of the earliest historical inscriptions found in India. Most importantly, it is the ancestor to hundreds of scripts found in South, Southeast, and East Asia. This elegant script appeared in India most certainly by the 5th century BCE. (Mauryan Age). The Gupta script (c. 300 A.D. to 550 A.D.) is considered to be the successor of the Kushana script in north India. Thus, from the 6th to about 10th century A.D., the inscriptions in north India were written in a script which was called by different names like Siddhamatrika and Kutila. From the 8th century A.D., the Siddhamatrika script developed into Sarada script in Kashmir and Punjab, into Proto-Bengali or Gaudi in Bengal and Orissa and into Nagari in other parts of north India. Nagari script was used widely in northern India from the 10th century onwards. The use of Nandinagari, a variant of Nagari script, is mostly confined to the Karnataka region. The Modi script was used to write the Marathi language spoken in the Indian state of Maharashtra. It originated as a cursive variant of the script during the 17th century CE. Modi script was used until the 1950's when Devanagari replaced it as the written medium of the Marathi language.
|
d
|
Languag and Literature
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Script Period 1. Brahmi : Mauryan 2. Siddhamatrika : Gupta 3. Modi : Marathas Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Brahmi script is one of the most important writing systems in the world by virtue of its time depth and influence. It represents the earliest post-Indus corpus of texts, and some of the earliest historical inscriptions found in India. Most importantly, it is the ancestor to hundreds of scripts found in South, Southeast, and East Asia. This elegant script appeared in India most certainly by the 5th century BCE. (Mauryan Age). The Gupta script (c. 300 A.D. to 550 A.D.) is considered to be the successor of the Kushana script in north India. Thus, from the 6th to about 10th century A.D., the inscriptions in north India were written in a script which was called by different names like Siddhamatrika and Kutila. From the 8th century A.D., the Siddhamatrika script developed into Sarada script in Kashmir and Punjab, into Proto-Bengali or Gaudi in Bengal and Orissa and into Nagari in other parts of north India. Nagari script was used widely in northern India from the 10th century onwards. The use of Nandinagari, a variant of Nagari script, is mostly confined to the Karnataka region. The Modi script was used to write the Marathi language spoken in the Indian state of Maharashtra. It originated as a cursive variant of the script during the 17th century CE. Modi script was used until the 1950's when Devanagari replaced it as the written medium of the Marathi language.##Topic:Languag and Literature##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding conditions of growth of tea and coffee crops: Both are shade-loving crops. Both are grown at elevations from 600 to 1600 mts above sea level. Both thrive well in hot and humid climate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
All the three statements are correct. Tea - It thrives well in hot and humid climate. The ideal conditions for its growth is 20-30 degree C. It requires 150-300 cm annual rainfall. It is a shade-loving plant. It is grown at elevations from 600 to 1600 mts above sea level. Coffee - It requires hot and humid climate with temperatures varying between 15-28 degree C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm. It is also a shade-loving plant. It is also grown at elevations from 600 to 1600 mts above sea level.
|
d
|
Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding conditions of growth of tea and coffee crops: Both are shade-loving crops. Both are grown at elevations from 600 to 1600 mts above sea level. Both thrive well in hot and humid climate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the three statements are correct. Tea - It thrives well in hot and humid climate. The ideal conditions for its growth is 20-30 degree C. It requires 150-300 cm annual rainfall. It is a shade-loving plant. It is grown at elevations from 600 to 1600 mts above sea level. Coffee - It requires hot and humid climate with temperatures varying between 15-28 degree C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm. It is also a shade-loving plant. It is also grown at elevations from 600 to 1600 mts above sea level.##Topic:Major Crops grown in India, Agro-Climatic Regions, Types of Cultivation and Farming##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
The Centre recently approved the culling of wild animals such as nilgai and wild boar in Bihar and rhesus monkey in Himachal Pradesh by declaring them "vermin". Declaring a wild animal "vermin" is associated with which among the following legislations? Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 Biological Diversity Act, 2002 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Centre approved the culling of wild animals such as nilgai and wild boar in Bihar and rhesus monkey in Himachal Pradesh by declaring them 'vermin', under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, in December 2015. As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part 11 of Schedule H of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time. As long as the notification is in force such wild animal shall be included in Schedule V of the law, depriving them of any protection under that law.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Centre recently approved the culling of wild animals such as nilgai and wild boar in Bihar and rhesus monkey in Himachal Pradesh by declaring them "vermin". Declaring a wild animal "vermin" is associated with which among the following legislations? Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 Biological Diversity Act, 2002 Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Centre approved the culling of wild animals such as nilgai and wild boar in Bihar and rhesus monkey in Himachal Pradesh by declaring them 'vermin', under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, in December 2015. As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part 11 of Schedule H of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time. As long as the notification is in force such wild animal shall be included in Schedule V of the law, depriving them of any protection under that law.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements.
1. Tamil Nadu receives rainfall in winters only.
2. Mango Showers are monsoon showers of Kerala.
3. Western Disturbances are important for the development of Rabi crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala. In the South-west Monsoon Season, the Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during this season. There are two factors responsible for it: (i) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon. (ii) It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. Mango Showers: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomena in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.
Statement 3 is Correct. During the winters, the weather in India is pleasant. The pleasant weather conditions, however, at intervals, get disturbed by shallow cyclonic depressions originating over the east Mediterranean Sea and travelling eastwards across West Asia, Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan before they reach the northwestern parts of India. On their way, the moisture content gets augmented from the Caspian Sea in the north and the Persian Gulf in the south. In northwestern India, these weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops.
|
a
|
Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. Tamil Nadu receives rainfall in winters only.
2. Mango Showers are monsoon showers of Kerala.
3. Western Disturbances are important for the development of Rabi crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Correct. During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala. In the South-west Monsoon Season, the Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during this season. There are two factors responsible for it: (i) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon. (ii) It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. Mango Showers: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomena in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.
Statement 3 is Correct. During the winters, the weather in India is pleasant. The pleasant weather conditions, however, at intervals, get disturbed by shallow cyclonic depressions originating over the east Mediterranean Sea and travelling eastwards across West Asia, Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan before they reach the northwestern parts of India. On their way, the moisture content gets augmented from the Caspian Sea in the north and the Persian Gulf in the south. In northwestern India, these weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops.
##Topic:Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Northern Plains is/are correct? 1. The Bhabar is a narrow belt where rivers often disappear in large boulders. 2. The Tarai is a swampy and marshy belt, thus lacking diversity in wild life. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as the Bhabar is the narrow belt at the Shivalik foothills,rich in rocks and boulders as it is the breaking point of slope. Thus, the river streams often disappear in these rocks. Statement 2 is not correct as the Tarai is rich in vegetation and has a varied wildlife too.
|
a
|
Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding the Northern Plains is/are correct? 1. The Bhabar is a narrow belt where rivers often disappear in large boulders. 2. The Tarai is a swampy and marshy belt, thus lacking diversity in wild life. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as the Bhabar is the narrow belt at the Shivalik foothills,rich in rocks and boulders as it is the breaking point of slope. Thus, the river streams often disappear in these rocks. Statement 2 is not correct as the Tarai is rich in vegetation and has a varied wildlife too.##Topic:Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Mussories located on the hill top is cooler than adjoining plains of Dehradun due to:
|
Proximity to the mountains of Himalayas.
|
Presence of numerous water bodies and falls.
|
Presence of thin air on the mountains.
|
Proximity to the mountains of Himalayas.
|
Temperature decreases with height. Due to thin air, places in the mountains are cooler than places on the plains. For example, Agra and Darjiling are located on the same latitude, but temperature of January in Agra is 16°C whereas it is only 4°C in Darjiling.
|
c
|
Climatic Regions of India
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Mussories located on the hill top is cooler than adjoining plains of Dehradun due to:
##Option_A: Proximity to the mountains of Himalayas.
###Option_B: Presence of numerous water bodies and falls.
##Option_C: Presence of thin air on the mountains.
##Option_D: Proximity to the mountains of Himalayas.
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Temperature decreases with height. Due to thin air, places in the mountains are cooler than places on the plains. For example, Agra and Darjiling are located on the same latitude, but temperature of January in Agra is 16°C whereas it is only 4°C in Darjiling.
##Topic:Climatic Regions of India##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the composition of Atmosphere? Oxygen is present only in the troposphere. Carbon dioxide is the most abundant gas after Nitrogen and Oxygen. Higher composition of dust particles is found in sub tropical regions when compared to tropical regions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Oxygen is present in small amounts till 120 Km height of the atmosphere. Troposphere is the lowermost layer of atmosphere present upto average height of 13 Km. Statement 2 is incorrect: Composition of Atmosphere is as follows : Nitrogen 78.08 Oxygen 20.95 Argon 0.93 Carbon Dioxide 0.036 Neon 0.002 Hence it's the Argon and not Carbon dioxide which is abundant gas after Nitrogen and Oxygen. Statement 3 is correct: The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate region due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar region which have humidity in winds.
|
d
|
The Atmosphere Structure, Composition
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the composition of Atmosphere? Oxygen is present only in the troposphere. Carbon dioxide is the most abundant gas after Nitrogen and Oxygen. Higher composition of dust particles is found in sub tropical regions when compared to tropical regions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Oxygen is present in small amounts till 120 Km height of the atmosphere. Troposphere is the lowermost layer of atmosphere present upto average height of 13 Km. Statement 2 is incorrect: Composition of Atmosphere is as follows : Nitrogen 78.08 Oxygen 20.95 Argon 0.93 Carbon Dioxide 0.036 Neon 0.002 Hence it's the Argon and not Carbon dioxide which is abundant gas after Nitrogen and Oxygen. Statement 3 is correct: The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate region due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar region which have humidity in winds.##Topic:The Atmosphere Structure, Composition##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding structure of the atmosphere? Temperature decreases steadily with increase in height. Thickness of troposphere is highest at Equator and lowest at the poles. Ionosphere layer is responsible for radio transmission on earth. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Temperature of air decline steadily in Troposphere, which is the lowermost layer of atmosphere. After this, temperature remains constant for some height and then increases in the stratosphere. Statement 2 is correct: Height of troposphere is more over equator due to string convectional currents. It is minimum at the poles. Statement 3 is correct: Ionosphere contains electrically charged particles called ions which reflect radio waves and thus make radio transmission possible on the earth.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere Structure, Composition
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding structure of the atmosphere? Temperature decreases steadily with increase in height. Thickness of troposphere is highest at Equator and lowest at the poles. Ionosphere layer is responsible for radio transmission on earth. Select the correct answer from the code given below.##Option_A:2 only ###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Temperature of air decline steadily in Troposphere, which is the lowermost layer of atmosphere. After this, temperature remains constant for some height and then increases in the stratosphere. Statement 2 is correct: Height of troposphere is more over equator due to string convectional currents. It is minimum at the poles. Statement 3 is correct: Ionosphere contains electrically charged particles called ions which reflect radio waves and thus make radio transmission possible on the earth. ##Topic:The Atmosphere Structure, Composition##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which among the following is/are the effects of tropical cyclones brought by easterly jet streams into India during summer season? 1. They affect the distribution of monsoon rainfall in India. 2. They reduce the amount of monsoon rainfall in India. Select the correct answer using the code below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India. These depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. The tracks of these depressions are the areas of highest rainfall in India. The frequency at which these depressions visit India, their direction and intensity, all go a long way in determining the rainfall pattern during the southwest monsoon period.
Statement 2 is not correct. They do not reduce the amount of monsoon rainfall in India. The tracks of these depressions are the areas of highest rainfall in India.
|
a
|
Climatic Regions of India
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is/are the effects of tropical cyclones brought by easterly jet streams into India during summer season? 1. They affect the distribution of monsoon rainfall in India. 2. They reduce the amount of monsoon rainfall in India. Select the correct answer using the code below: ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India. These depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. The tracks of these depressions are the areas of highest rainfall in India. The frequency at which these depressions visit India, their direction and intensity, all go a long way in determining the rainfall pattern during the southwest monsoon period.
Statement 2 is not correct. They do not reduce the amount of monsoon rainfall in India. The tracks of these depressions are the areas of highest rainfall in India.
##Topic:Climatic Regions of India##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following factors affect insolation on the surface of earth? Latitude Altitude Transparency of atmosphere Continentality Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Latitude of the place determines the angle which the sun's rays makes with the earth surface. At equator, Sun's rays are almost vertical and hence they receive more insolation compared to polar areas where sun rays are almost parallel to earth surface. Altitude of a place has affect on temperature of a place but not on Insolation. Transparency of Atmosphere affect the insolation. Due to cloudiness on equator, insolation at equator is lesser than on subtropical deserts despite the fact that at equator sun rays are almost vertical. Continentality also does not have effect on insolation but have effect on Temperature of the place.
|
b
|
Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors affect insolation on the surface of earth? Latitude Altitude Transparency of atmosphere Continentality Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:2 and 3 only ###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:2 and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Latitude of the place determines the angle which the sun's rays makes with the earth surface. At equator, Sun's rays are almost vertical and hence they receive more insolation compared to polar areas where sun rays are almost parallel to earth surface. Altitude of a place has affect on temperature of a place but not on Insolation. Transparency of Atmosphere affect the insolation. Due to cloudiness on equator, insolation at equator is lesser than on subtropical deserts despite the fact that at equator sun rays are almost vertical. Continentality also does not have effect on insolation but have effect on Temperature of the place.##Topic:Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Central Highlands of Peninsular Plateau is/are correct?
1. It slopes towards south and southeastern directions.
2. It is marked by the presence of metamorphic rocks.
3. Many tributaries of the river Yamuna have their origin in this region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Central highlands form the northernmost boundary of the Deccan plateau. They are bounded to the west by the Aravali range. An eastern extension of the Central Highland is formed by the Rajmahal hills, to the south of which lies the Chotanagpur plateau. Statement 1 is incorrect as the general elevation of the Central Highlands ranges between 700-1,000 m above the mean sea level and it slopes towards the north and northeastern directions. Statement 2 is correct as this region has undergone metamorphic processes in its geological history, which can be corroborated by the presence of metamorphic rocks such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc. Statement 3 is correct as most tributaries of the river Yamuna is from Vindhyas and Kaimur ranges.
|
b
|
Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the Central Highlands of Peninsular Plateau is/are correct?
1. It slopes towards south and southeastern directions.
2. It is marked by the presence of metamorphic rocks.
3. Many tributaries of the river Yamuna have their origin in this region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:Central highlands form the northernmost boundary of the Deccan plateau. They are bounded to the west by the Aravali range. An eastern extension of the Central Highland is formed by the Rajmahal hills, to the south of which lies the Chotanagpur plateau. Statement 1 is incorrect as the general elevation of the Central Highlands ranges between 700-1,000 m above the mean sea level and it slopes towards the north and northeastern directions. Statement 2 is correct as this region has undergone metamorphic processes in its geological history, which can be corroborated by the presence of metamorphic rocks such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc. Statement 3 is correct as most tributaries of the river Yamuna is from Vindhyas and Kaimur ranges. ##Topic:Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
What are the reasons due to which places at higher latitudes receive lesser Insolation?
Sun rays are slant to the surface.
Sun rays have to pass through greater depth of atmosphere resulting in more absorption.
Presence of glaciers and snow at higher latitudes
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
As the latitude increases , angle which sun rays make with the earth surface starts decreasing and sun rays start becoming more slant. Slant sun rays get absorbed, scattered and diffused in the upper layers in larger amount as against vertical sun rays which directly reach to surface with very little absorption,scattering and diffusion. As the sun rays become slant, it has to travel greater distance to reach the earth surface and thus energy per unit decreases. Snow and glaciers don't have affect on insolation but on Albedo ( how much light is reflected)
|
b
|
Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What are the reasons due to which places at higher latitudes receive lesser Insolation?
Sun rays are slant to the surface.
Sun rays have to pass through greater depth of atmosphere resulting in more absorption.
Presence of glaciers and snow at higher latitudes
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:As the latitude increases , angle which sun rays make with the earth surface starts decreasing and sun rays start becoming more slant. Slant sun rays get absorbed, scattered and diffused in the upper layers in larger amount as against vertical sun rays which directly reach to surface with very little absorption,scattering and diffusion. As the sun rays become slant, it has to travel greater distance to reach the earth surface and thus energy per unit decreases. Snow and glaciers don't have affect on insolation but on Albedo ( how much light is reflected)##Topic:Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding heating of Earth"s atmosphere: Atmosphere gets heated through convection till the Troposphere. Atmosphere gets heated by short wave terrestrial radiation. Heating of atmosphere through conduction is limited to only lower layers of atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and this Process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is called Convection. This convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere (lowermost layer of atmosphere). Statement 2 is incorrect: Air gets heated from Long wave terrestrial radiation and not from short wave radiation. Statement 3 is correct: When two objects of dissimilar temperature come in contact, heat transfer take through process of conduction. When atmosphere comes in contact of heated earth surface then conduction starts but it is important in heating only lower layers of atmosphere.
|
a
|
Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding heating of Earth"s atmosphere: Atmosphere gets heated through convection till the Troposphere. Atmosphere gets heated by short wave terrestrial radiation. Heating of atmosphere through conduction is limited to only lower layers of atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only ###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and this Process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is called Convection. This convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere (lowermost layer of atmosphere). Statement 2 is incorrect: Air gets heated from Long wave terrestrial radiation and not from short wave radiation. Statement 3 is correct: When two objects of dissimilar temperature come in contact, heat transfer take through process of conduction. When atmosphere comes in contact of heated earth surface then conduction starts but it is important in heating only lower layers of atmosphere.##Topic:Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following factors influence the temperature of air at any place? Latitude Altitude Distance from the sea Ocean currents Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Latitude affects insolation at a point which affects temperature of any place. As earth get heated by terrestrial radiation so the temperature of atmosphere in troposphere goes on decreasing with rise in altitude. Due to higher specific heat of water and moderating influence of sea breeze, places near the sea always have moderate temperatures. Warm ocean currents increases the temperature and cold currents cools the place. Scandinavian countries have moderate temperatures (in spite of their latitude) due to effect of North Atlantic Drift (a warm current).
|
d
|
Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors influence the temperature of air at any place? Latitude Altitude Distance from the sea Ocean currents Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Latitude affects insolation at a point which affects temperature of any place. As earth get heated by terrestrial radiation so the temperature of atmosphere in troposphere goes on decreasing with rise in altitude. Due to higher specific heat of water and moderating influence of sea breeze, places near the sea always have moderate temperatures. Warm ocean currents increases the temperature and cold currents cools the place. Scandinavian countries have moderate temperatures (in spite of their latitude) due to effect of North Atlantic Drift (a warm current). ##Topic:Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.