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Stilwell Road, recently in news, connects which of the following nations? India China Bhutan Myanmar Bangladesh Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Stilwell Road, original name Ledo Road, highway 478 mi (769 km) long that links northeastern India with the Burma (Myanmar) Road, which runs from Burma (Myanmar) to China. During World War II the Stilwell Road was a strategic military route.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Stilwell Road, recently in news, connects which of the following nations? India China Bhutan Myanmar Bangladesh Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Stilwell Road, original name Ledo Road, highway 478 mi (769 km) long that links northeastern India with the Burma (Myanmar) Road, which runs from Burma (Myanmar) to China. During World War II the Stilwell Road was a strategic military route.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016, consider the following statements: Only the airlines with 5 years of experience and 20 airplanes will be allowed for overseas operations. It aims to create a Regional Connectivity fund for viability gap funding to airline operators. It allows open skies agreement with the SAARC countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The 5/20 rule for commencement of international flight in operation since 2004 is replaced by a formulation which provides a level playing field and allows airlines, both new and old, to commence international operations provided they continue to meet some obligation for domestic operation. All airlines can commence international operations provided they deploy 20 aircraft or 20% of total capacity (in term of average number of seats on all departures put together), whichever is higher, for domestic operations. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Civil Aviation Policy aims to create Regional Connectivity fund for VGF to airline operators through a small levy per departure on all domestic flights other than Cat II/ Cat IIA routes, RCS routes and small aircraft below 80 seats at a rate as decided by the Ministry from time to time. Hence, statement 2 is correct. "Open skies" will be implemented on a reciprocal basis for SAARC countries and countries beyond 5000 kms from Delhi. Hence, statement 3 is correct
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016, consider the following statements: Only the airlines with 5 years of experience and 20 airplanes will be allowed for overseas operations. It aims to create a Regional Connectivity fund for viability gap funding to airline operators. It allows open skies agreement with the SAARC countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The 5/20 rule for commencement of international flight in operation since 2004 is replaced by a formulation which provides a level playing field and allows airlines, both new and old, to commence international operations provided they continue to meet some obligation for domestic operation. All airlines can commence international operations provided they deploy 20 aircraft or 20% of total capacity (in term of average number of seats on all departures put together), whichever is higher, for domestic operations. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Civil Aviation Policy aims to create Regional Connectivity fund for VGF to airline operators through a small levy per departure on all domestic flights other than Cat II/ Cat IIA routes, RCS routes and small aircraft below 80 seats at a rate as decided by the Ministry from time to time. Hence, statement 2 is correct. "Open skies" will be implemented on a reciprocal basis for SAARC countries and countries beyond 5000 kms from Delhi. Hence, statement 3 is correct##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to compulsory provisions under 73rd Amendment Act, 1993, consider the following provisions: Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. The members and chairpersons of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. The Parliament may assign to a Panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Compulsory Provisions Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels. Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats. Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayat. The state legislature (and not the Parliament) may assign to a panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to compulsory provisions under 73rd Amendment Act, 1993, consider the following provisions: Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. The members and chairpersons of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. The Parliament may assign to a Panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Compulsory Provisions Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels. Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats. Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayat. The state legislature (and not the Parliament) may assign to a panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following organizations has the final authority over expansion of periodic Table of elements?
|
International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)
|
International Council of Chemical Associations (ICCA)
|
American Chemical Society (ACS)
|
International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)
|
Nihonium (Nh), Moscovium (Mc), Tennessine (Ts) and Oganesson (Og), the newest elements on the periodic table to receive names with respective atomic numbers 113, 115, 117 and 118. Their addition completed the seventh row of the periodic table. Any new elements are recognized by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC), the U.S.-based world authority on chemistry.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following organizations has the final authority over expansion of periodic Table of elements?##Option_A: International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)###Option_B: International Council of Chemical Associations (ICCA)##Option_C: American Chemical Society (ACS)##Option_D: International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)##Answer:a##Explaination:Nihonium (Nh), Moscovium (Mc), Tennessine (Ts) and Oganesson (Og), the newest elements on the periodic table to receive names with respective atomic numbers 113, 115, 117 and 118. Their addition completed the seventh row of the periodic table. Any new elements are recognized by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC), the U.S.-based world authority on chemistry.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Right to Freedom of Religion, consider the following statements: It is available to both citizens and non-citizens. The State can restrict political and economic activities associated with religious practice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Right to freedom of religion (Art 25-28) is available to both citizens and non-citizens. However, these rights are subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions relating to fundamental rights. Further, the State is permitted to: (a) regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious practice; and (b) provide for social welfare and reform or throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. Hence, both the statements are correct.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Right to Freedom of Religion, consider the following statements: It is available to both citizens and non-citizens. The State can restrict political and economic activities associated with religious practice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Right to freedom of religion (Art 25-28) is available to both citizens and non-citizens. However, these rights are subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions relating to fundamental rights. Further, the State is permitted to: (a) regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious practice; and (b) provide for social welfare and reform or throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. Hence, both the statements are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
When a CD (Compact disc) is seen in white light it shows rainbow pattern due to?
|
Scattering
|
Total Internal Reflection
|
Diffraction
|
Scattering
|
Refraction is the bending of a wave when it enters a medium where its speed is different. The refraction of light when it passes from a fast medium to a slow medium bends the light ray toward the normal to the boundary between the two media. Hence refraction can’t be the reason. When light falls on an object some part is reflected unless it is an ideal body. Same way when light falls on CD, a part of is reflected back which also adds to rainbow colour of the CD. The process by which a beam of light or other system of waves is spread out as a result of passing through a narrow aperture or across an edge, typically accompanied by interference between the wave forms produced. The information on a CD is stored on a very thin shiny spiral track. When light shines on these thin lines it is diffracted in all directions.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:When a CD (Compact disc) is seen in white light it shows rainbow pattern due to?##Option_A: Scattering###Option_B: Total Internal Reflection##Option_C: Diffraction##Option_D: Scattering##Answer:c##Explaination:Refraction is the bending of a wave when it enters a medium where its speed is different. The refraction of light when it passes from a fast medium to a slow medium bends the light ray toward the normal to the boundary between the two media. Hence refraction can’t be the reason. When light falls on an object some part is reflected unless it is an ideal body. Same way when light falls on CD, a part of is reflected back which also adds to rainbow colour of the CD. The process by which a beam of light or other system of waves is spread out as a result of passing through a narrow aperture or across an edge, typically accompanied by interference between the wave forms produced. The information on a CD is stored on a very thin shiny spiral track. When light shines on these thin lines it is diffracted in all directions.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
With reference to National Emergency, consider the following statements: The word "National Emergency" is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It can be challenged in the court of law on the ground of malafide. The 44th Amendment Act changed the provision of "armed rebellion" to "internal disturbance" as a ground for National Emergency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
An emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion2 (Article 352). This is popularly known as 'National Emergency'. However, the Constitution employs the expression 'proclamation of emergency' to denote an emergency of this type. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. In Minerva Mill Case, Supreme Court held that proclamation of emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 44th Amendment Act, 1978 did the opposite. It changed the provision of 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to National Emergency, consider the following statements: The word "National Emergency" is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It can be challenged in the court of law on the ground of malafide. The 44th Amendment Act changed the provision of "armed rebellion" to "internal disturbance" as a ground for National Emergency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:An emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion2 (Article 352). This is popularly known as 'National Emergency'. However, the Constitution employs the expression 'proclamation of emergency' to denote an emergency of this type. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. In Minerva Mill Case, Supreme Court held that proclamation of emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 44th Amendment Act, 1978 did the opposite. It changed the provision of 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs: 1. Mariana Trench : Atlantic ocean 2. Java Trench : Indian Ocean 3. Aleutian Trench : Pacific Ocean Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Mariana Trench or Marianas Trench is the deepest part of the world's oceans. It is located in the western Pacific Ocean, to the east of the Mariana Islands. Java Trench is located in the northeastern Indian Ocean. It is the deepest point in the Indian Ocean. The Aleutian Trench is an oceanic trench along a convergent plate boundary which runs along the southern coastline of Alaska and the Aleutian islands, in the northern pacific.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: 1. Mariana Trench : Atlantic ocean 2. Java Trench : Indian Ocean 3. Aleutian Trench : Pacific Ocean Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Mariana Trench or Marianas Trench is the deepest part of the world's oceans. It is located in the western Pacific Ocean, to the east of the Mariana Islands. Java Trench is located in the northeastern Indian Ocean. It is the deepest point in the Indian Ocean. The Aleutian Trench is an oceanic trench along a convergent plate boundary which runs along the southern coastline of Alaska and the Aleutian islands, in the northern pacific.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are the reasons for the excess stocks of the FCI, over and above the stipulated buffer stock norms? Ad-hoc ban of exports Open ended procurement Lack of a pro-active liquidation policy Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
As per the High Level Committee on Reorienting the Role and Restructuring of FCI, during the last five years, on an average, buffer stocks with FCI have been more than double the buffer stocking norms. These excess stocks of the FCI, over and above the stipulated buffer stock norms, lead to inflation in foodgrain prices and also increase the Centre's fiscal deficit. The report says that some of the reasons for these excess stocks are export bans and open ended procurement (accepting whatever amount that is supplied by farmers), with distortions (through bonuses and high statutory levies). An additional key factor as per the report is the lack of a pro-active liquidation policy. The current system of liquidation of excess stocks through Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) or in export markets is extremely ad-hoc and slow.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the reasons for the excess stocks of the FCI, over and above the stipulated buffer stock norms? Ad-hoc ban of exports Open ended procurement Lack of a pro-active liquidation policy Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:As per the High Level Committee on Reorienting the Role and Restructuring of FCI, during the last five years, on an average, buffer stocks with FCI have been more than double the buffer stocking norms. These excess stocks of the FCI, over and above the stipulated buffer stock norms, lead to inflation in foodgrain prices and also increase the Centre's fiscal deficit. The report says that some of the reasons for these excess stocks are export bans and open ended procurement (accepting whatever amount that is supplied by farmers), with distortions (through bonuses and high statutory levies). An additional key factor as per the report is the lack of a pro-active liquidation policy. The current system of liquidation of excess stocks through Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) or in export markets is extremely ad-hoc and slow.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Ordinance making power of the President, consider the following statements: It can be retrospective in nature It can alter the tax law It can amend the Constitution Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Ordinances can be retrospective in nature. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. It can alter the tax laws but can't amend the constitution. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Ordinance making power of the President, consider the following statements: It can be retrospective in nature It can alter the tax law It can amend the Constitution Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Ordinances can be retrospective in nature. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. It can alter the tax laws but can't amend the constitution. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following vegetation types is not found in India?
|
Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests
|
Alpine Forests
|
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests
|
Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests
|
Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests: These are found along the coasts of Tamil Nadu which receive annual rainfall of about 100 cms mostly from the North-East monsoon winds in October-December. Alpine Forests: They occur all along the Himalayas at altitudes ranging between 2900 to 3500 m. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests: These grow in areas where the annual rainfall exceeds 250 cms. They are found along the western side of Western Ghats and A&N Islands. Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following vegetation types is not found in India?##Option_A: Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests###Option_B: Alpine Forests##Option_C: Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests##Option_D: Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests##Answer:d##Explaination:Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests: These are found along the coasts of Tamil Nadu which receive annual rainfall of about 100 cms mostly from the North-East monsoon winds in October-December. Alpine Forests: They occur all along the Himalayas at altitudes ranging between 2900 to 3500 m. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests: These grow in areas where the annual rainfall exceeds 250 cms. They are found along the western side of Western Ghats and A&N Islands. Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Funds Implementing Agency 1. Technology Acquisition and Development Fund : MUDRA 2. India Aspiration Fund : NABARD 3. SMILE : SIDBI Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Technology Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF) under National Manufacturing Policy. TADF is a new scheme to facilitate acquisition of Clean, Green & Energy Efficient Technologies, in form of Technology/Customised Products/Specialised Services / Patents / Industrial Design available in the market available in India or globally, by Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). The Scheme would be implemented through Global Innovation and Technology Alliance (GITA). The Global Innovation and Technology Alliance (GITA), is not-for-profit (Section 25) Public Private Partnership (PPP) Company promoted jointly by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Technology Development Board (TDB) of the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India. GITA is a unique institution for providing demand-driven technology solutions through frontline global alliances for Indian Companies. Recently two funds by SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India), one for providing funds to Start ups in India and Another to aid small enterprises were launched. These are India Aspiration Fund (IAF) is for Startups and "SIDBI Make In India Loan For Enterprises" (SMILE) is for MSMEs.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Funds Implementing Agency 1. Technology Acquisition and Development Fund : MUDRA 2. India Aspiration Fund : NABARD 3. SMILE : SIDBI Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Technology Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF) under National Manufacturing Policy. TADF is a new scheme to facilitate acquisition of Clean, Green & Energy Efficient Technologies, in form of Technology/Customised Products/Specialised Services / Patents / Industrial Design available in the market available in India or globally, by Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). The Scheme would be implemented through Global Innovation and Technology Alliance (GITA). The Global Innovation and Technology Alliance (GITA), is not-for-profit (Section 25) Public Private Partnership (PPP) Company promoted jointly by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Technology Development Board (TDB) of the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India. GITA is a unique institution for providing demand-driven technology solutions through frontline global alliances for Indian Companies. Recently two funds by SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India), one for providing funds to Start ups in India and Another to aid small enterprises were launched. These are India Aspiration Fund (IAF) is for Startups and "SIDBI Make In India Loan For Enterprises" (SMILE) is for MSMEs.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
The reach of Coastal Police extends upto:
|
Territorial zone
|
Contiguous Zone
|
Exclusive Economic Zone
|
Territorial zone
|
India will now allow its police stations on land to extend their jurisdiction to 200 nautical miles into the high seas. The Union Home Ministry has extended the jurisdictional limits for notified police stations from the existing 12 nautical miles to 200 nautical miles by issuing a government notification.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The reach of Coastal Police extends upto:##Option_A: Territorial zone###Option_B: Contiguous Zone##Option_C: Exclusive Economic Zone##Option_D: Territorial zone##Answer:c##Explaination:India will now allow its police stations on land to extend their jurisdiction to 200 nautical miles into the high seas. The Union Home Ministry has extended the jurisdictional limits for notified police stations from the existing 12 nautical miles to 200 nautical miles by issuing a government notification.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are the factors for development cotton textile industry in India? Tropical climate of the country Large quantity of cotton grown Availability of abundant skilled labour Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The development of this industry in India was due to several factors. One, it is a tropical country and cotton is the most comfortable fabric for a hot and humid climate. Second, large quantity of cotton was grown in India. Abundant skilled labour required for this industry was available in this country. In fact, in some areas the people were producing cotton textiles for generations and transferred the skill from one generation to the other and in the process perfected their skills.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the factors for development cotton textile industry in India? Tropical climate of the country Large quantity of cotton grown Availability of abundant skilled labour Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The development of this industry in India was due to several factors. One, it is a tropical country and cotton is the most comfortable fabric for a hot and humid climate. Second, large quantity of cotton was grown in India. Abundant skilled labour required for this industry was available in this country. In fact, in some areas the people were producing cotton textiles for generations and transferred the skill from one generation to the other and in the process perfected their skills.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which among the following Constitutional Amendment Acts are associated with the Directive Principles of State Policy? 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 44th Amendment Act of 1978 86th Amendment Act of 2002 97th Amendment Act of 2011 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A) To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48A) The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. (Article 38) The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A. The amended article requires the state to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to co-operative societies.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following Constitutional Amendment Acts are associated with the Directive Principles of State Policy? 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 44th Amendment Act of 1978 86th Amendment Act of 2002 97th Amendment Act of 2011 Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A) To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48A) The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. (Article 38) The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A. The amended article requires the state to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to co-operative societies.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
According to Census 2011, which of the following states/UTs do/does not have any Scheduled Tribe? Punjab Delhi Haryana Puducherry Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
According to Census 2011, Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi and Puducheery do not have Scheduled Tribe population.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to Census 2011, which of the following states/UTs do/does not have any Scheduled Tribe? Punjab Delhi Haryana Puducherry Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:According to Census 2011, Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi and Puducheery do not have Scheduled Tribe population.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Radiation Sterilisation, consider the following statements: It is used for sterilisation of healthcare products. It uses gamma radiation released by radiation isotope Cobalt-60. Radiation sterilised products are acceptable by Food & Drug Administration (FDA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Radiation Sterilisation is a cold process that uses gamma radiation for sterilisation of Healthcare Products. Controlled gamma energy which is released by radioisotope such as Cobalt-60 is used for sterilisation. Cobalt-60 is most preferred radioisotope as it is readily available from single nuclear reaction in reactor and also cost effective. Gamma radiation is characterised by deep penetration and kills microorganism by destroying DNA structure. The process is suitable for Industrial scale sterilisation. Radiation dose of 25 kGy (2.5 Mrad) is officially accepted dose for sterilisation of healthcare products. Delivery of dose to the products is measured by dosimeter. Radiation sterilised products are acceptable by Food & Drug Administration (FDA). Advantages and Benefits of Radiation Sterilization Products of any shape can be sterilised because powerful gamma rays can penetrate right through the package and the product. Being a cold process, heat sensitive plastic medical devices and pharmaceutical products can safely be sterilised. Flexibility in packaging, as the products can be packed individually in sealed bags and sterilised in the fully packaged form. Since sterilisation is effected after final packaging, product sterility is retained indefinitely provided the package is undamaged. Radiation Sterilisation enlarges the market for ready to use pre-packaged products. The process does not result into residual toxicity of any form in the product. Products sterilised by this process do not become radioactive and are safe for use. Presently out of 18 operating plants in Government/Semi-Government/Private/Co-operative sectors, around 13 are also engaged in sterilisation of medical products. Major components of a Radiation Sterilisation Plant A source of gamma radiation (Cobalt-60) A radiation processing cell (irradiation cell) Product conveyors and control mechanisms Safety devices and interlocks
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Radiation Sterilisation, consider the following statements: It is used for sterilisation of healthcare products. It uses gamma radiation released by radiation isotope Cobalt-60. Radiation sterilised products are acceptable by Food & Drug Administration (FDA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Radiation Sterilisation is a cold process that uses gamma radiation for sterilisation of Healthcare Products. Controlled gamma energy which is released by radioisotope such as Cobalt-60 is used for sterilisation. Cobalt-60 is most preferred radioisotope as it is readily available from single nuclear reaction in reactor and also cost effective. Gamma radiation is characterised by deep penetration and kills microorganism by destroying DNA structure. The process is suitable for Industrial scale sterilisation. Radiation dose of 25 kGy (2.5 Mrad) is officially accepted dose for sterilisation of healthcare products. Delivery of dose to the products is measured by dosimeter. Radiation sterilised products are acceptable by Food & Drug Administration (FDA). Advantages and Benefits of Radiation Sterilization Products of any shape can be sterilised because powerful gamma rays can penetrate right through the package and the product. Being a cold process, heat sensitive plastic medical devices and pharmaceutical products can safely be sterilised. Flexibility in packaging, as the products can be packed individually in sealed bags and sterilised in the fully packaged form. Since sterilisation is effected after final packaging, product sterility is retained indefinitely provided the package is undamaged. Radiation Sterilisation enlarges the market for ready to use pre-packaged products. The process does not result into residual toxicity of any form in the product. Products sterilised by this process do not become radioactive and are safe for use. Presently out of 18 operating plants in Government/Semi-Government/Private/Co-operative sectors, around 13 are also engaged in sterilisation of medical products. Major components of a Radiation Sterilisation Plant A source of gamma radiation (Cobalt-60) A radiation processing cell (irradiation cell) Product conveyors and control mechanisms Safety devices and interlocks##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
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With reference to Depository Receipts (DRs), consider the following statements: They are issued for tapping foreign investors who may not be able to participate directly in the domestic market. It is mandatory for a company to be listed on the stock exchange of a country where it intends to issue the DRs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A Depository Receipt (DR) is a financial instrument representing certain securities (eg. shares, bonds etc.) issued by a company/entity in a foreign jurisdiction. Securities of a firm are deposited with a domestic custodian in the firm's domestic jurisdiction, and a corresponding "depository receipt" is issued abroad, which can be purchased by foreign investors. DR is a negotiable security (which means an instrument transferrable by mere delivery or by endorsement and delivery) that can be traded on the stock exchange, if so desired. DRs constitute an important mechanism through which issuers can raise funds outside their home jurisdiction. DRs are issued for tapping foreign investors who otherwise may not be able to participate directly in the domestic market. It is perceived as the beginning point of connecting with the foreign investors (i.e. a stage before the actual listing the shares /securities in a foreign stock exchange) or a way of introducing the company to a foreign investor. Hence it is not mandatory for a company to be listed on the stock exchange of a country where it intends to issue the DRs. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Depository Receipts (DRs), consider the following statements: They are issued for tapping foreign investors who may not be able to participate directly in the domestic market. It is mandatory for a company to be listed on the stock exchange of a country where it intends to issue the DRs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:A Depository Receipt (DR) is a financial instrument representing certain securities (eg. shares, bonds etc.) issued by a company/entity in a foreign jurisdiction. Securities of a firm are deposited with a domestic custodian in the firm's domestic jurisdiction, and a corresponding "depository receipt" is issued abroad, which can be purchased by foreign investors. DR is a negotiable security (which means an instrument transferrable by mere delivery or by endorsement and delivery) that can be traded on the stock exchange, if so desired. DRs constitute an important mechanism through which issuers can raise funds outside their home jurisdiction. DRs are issued for tapping foreign investors who otherwise may not be able to participate directly in the domestic market. It is perceived as the beginning point of connecting with the foreign investors (i.e. a stage before the actual listing the shares /securities in a foreign stock exchange) or a way of introducing the company to a foreign investor. Hence it is not mandatory for a company to be listed on the stock exchange of a country where it intends to issue the DRs. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
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In which of the following sectors Government has enhanced the FDI limits upto 100% via automatic route? Defence Cable Networks Greenfield pharmaceutical Brownfield Airport projects Animal Husbandry Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Foreign Investment in Defence Sector up to 100%: Present FDI regime permits 49% FDI participation in the equity of a company under automatic route. FDI above 49% is permitted through Government approval on case to case basis, wherever it is likely to result in access to modern and 'state-of-art' technology in the country. Teleports (setting up of up-linking HUBs/Teleports), Direct to Home (DTH), Cable Networks (Multi System operators (MSOs) operating at National or State or District level and undertaking upgradation of networks towards digitalization and addressability), Mobile TV and Head end-in-the Sky Broadcasting Service(HITS) have 100% FDI via automatic route. Pharmaceutical: The extant FDI policy on pharmaceutical sector provides for 100% FDI under automatic route in greenfield pharma and FDI up to 100% under government approval in brownfield pharma. Civil Aviation Sector : (i) The extant FDI policy on Airports permits 100% FDI under automatic route in Greenfield Projects and 74% FDI in Brownfield Projects under automatic route. FDI beyond 74% for Brownfield Projects is under government route. (ii) With a view to aid in modernization of the existing airports to establish a high standard and help ease the pressure on the existing airports, it has been decided to permit 100% FDI under automatic route in Brownfield Airport projects. Animal Husbandry: As per FDI Policy 2016, FDI in Animal Husbandry (including breeding of dogs), Pisciculture, Aquaculture and Apiculture is allowed 100% under Automatic Route under controlled conditions. It has been decided to do away with this requirement of 'controlled conditions' for FDI in these activities. Private Security Agencies: The extant policy permits 49% FDI under government approval route in Private Security Agencies. FDI up to 49% is now permitted under automatic route in this sector and FDI beyond 49% and up to 74% would be permitted with government approval route.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In which of the following sectors Government has enhanced the FDI limits upto 100% via automatic route? Defence Cable Networks Greenfield pharmaceutical Brownfield Airport projects Animal Husbandry Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Foreign Investment in Defence Sector up to 100%: Present FDI regime permits 49% FDI participation in the equity of a company under automatic route. FDI above 49% is permitted through Government approval on case to case basis, wherever it is likely to result in access to modern and 'state-of-art' technology in the country. Teleports (setting up of up-linking HUBs/Teleports), Direct to Home (DTH), Cable Networks (Multi System operators (MSOs) operating at National or State or District level and undertaking upgradation of networks towards digitalization and addressability), Mobile TV and Head end-in-the Sky Broadcasting Service(HITS) have 100% FDI via automatic route. Pharmaceutical: The extant FDI policy on pharmaceutical sector provides for 100% FDI under automatic route in greenfield pharma and FDI up to 100% under government approval in brownfield pharma. Civil Aviation Sector : (i) The extant FDI policy on Airports permits 100% FDI under automatic route in Greenfield Projects and 74% FDI in Brownfield Projects under automatic route. FDI beyond 74% for Brownfield Projects is under government route. (ii) With a view to aid in modernization of the existing airports to establish a high standard and help ease the pressure on the existing airports, it has been decided to permit 100% FDI under automatic route in Brownfield Airport projects. Animal Husbandry: As per FDI Policy 2016, FDI in Animal Husbandry (including breeding of dogs), Pisciculture, Aquaculture and Apiculture is allowed 100% under Automatic Route under controlled conditions. It has been decided to do away with this requirement of 'controlled conditions' for FDI in these activities. Private Security Agencies: The extant policy permits 49% FDI under government approval route in Private Security Agencies. FDI up to 49% is now permitted under automatic route in this sector and FDI beyond 49% and up to 74% would be permitted with government approval route.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
With reference to the International Organization for Migration (IOM), consider the following statements:
1. It is an organization working to provide humanitarian assistance to migrants, refugees and internally displaced people.
2. It publishes the ‘World Migration Report’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
International Organization for Migration was established in 1951 & is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• It was made a related organization to UN in 2016.
• It is an intergovernmental organization in the field of migration to promote humane and orderly migration for the benefit of all.
• India became a member state in 2008.
Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-governmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and non-governmental partners.
It has 169 member states and 8 states holding observer status and offices in over 100 countries. It provides services and advice to governments and migrants.
IOM works to help ensure the orderly and humane management of migration, to promote international cooperation on migration issues, to assist in the search for practical solutions to migration problems and to provide humanitarian assistance to migrants in need, including refugees and internally displaced people. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
'World Migration Report' is published by the International Organisation for Migration. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
c
|
Bodies of UN
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the International Organization for Migration (IOM), consider the following statements:
1. It is an organization working to provide humanitarian assistance to migrants, refugees and internally displaced people.
2. It publishes the ‘World Migration Report’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:International Organization for Migration was established in 1951 & is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• It was made a related organization to UN in 2016.
• It is an intergovernmental organization in the field of migration to promote humane and orderly migration for the benefit of all.
• India became a member state in 2008.
Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-governmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and non-governmental partners.
It has 169 member states and 8 states holding observer status and offices in over 100 countries. It provides services and advice to governments and migrants.
IOM works to help ensure the orderly and humane management of migration, to promote international cooperation on migration issues, to assist in the search for practical solutions to migration problems and to provide humanitarian assistance to migrants in need, including refugees and internally displaced people. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
'World Migration Report' is published by the International Organisation for Migration. Hence, statement 2 is correct.##Topic:Bodies of UN##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Vitamins: Human body can sythesize all vitamins. No calorie is obtained from consumption of vitamins. They help in regulating the chemical reactions in the body. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Vitamins do not contain calories or provide energy to our body. Once your body has absorbed vitamins from supplements or food, they are used in multiple body processes, including metabolism of other nutrients and energy production. Humans cannot synthesize vitamins A, B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folate), B12 (cobalamin), E and K but are able to synthesize some vitamins like B3 (niacin) and D. Vitamins are generally of two types: fat soluble (A, D, E, K) and water soluble (B and C). There are no calories in vitamins, minerals, antioxidants, phytochemicals, or other nutrients except those that produce fuel: carbohydrate, protein, fat, and alcohol.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Vitamins: Human body can sythesize all vitamins. No calorie is obtained from consumption of vitamins. They help in regulating the chemical reactions in the body. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Vitamins do not contain calories or provide energy to our body. Once your body has absorbed vitamins from supplements or food, they are used in multiple body processes, including metabolism of other nutrients and energy production. Humans cannot synthesize vitamins A, B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folate), B12 (cobalamin), E and K but are able to synthesize some vitamins like B3 (niacin) and D. Vitamins are generally of two types: fat soluble (A, D, E, K) and water soluble (B and C). There are no calories in vitamins, minerals, antioxidants, phytochemicals, or other nutrients except those that produce fuel: carbohydrate, protein, fat, and alcohol.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Which among the following was not undertaken by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, after his release from Mandalay jail in 1914?
|
He made efforts for entry of extremists in Indian National Congress.
|
He started a Home Rule League movement.
|
He professed his support to violent revolutionary activities in India.
|
He made efforts for entry of extremists in Indian National Congress.
|
On 16 June 1914, Bal Gangadhar Tilak was released after serving a prison sentence of six years, most of which he had spent in Mandalay in Burma. Tilak initially concentrated all his attention on seeking readmission, for himself and other Extremists, into the Indian National Congress. He was obviously convinced that the sanction of this body, that had come to symbolize the Indian national movement, was a necessary pre-condition for the success of any political action. To conciliate the Moderates and convince them of his bonafides, as well as to stave off any possible government repression, he publicly declared: I may state once for all that we are trying in India, as the Irish Home-rulers have been doing in Ireland, for a reform of the system of administration and not for the overthrow of Government; aid I have no hesitation in saying that the acts of violence which had been committed in the different Parts of India are not only repugnant to me, but have, in my opinion, only unfortunately retarded to a great extent, the pace of our political progress". He further assured the Government of his loyalty to the Crown and urged all Indians to assist the British Government in its hour of crisis.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following was not undertaken by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, after his release from Mandalay jail in 1914?##Option_A: He made efforts for entry of extremists in Indian National Congress.###Option_B: He started a Home Rule League movement.##Option_C: He professed his support to violent revolutionary activities in India.##Option_D: He made efforts for entry of extremists in Indian National Congress.##Answer:c##Explaination:On 16 June 1914, Bal Gangadhar Tilak was released after serving a prison sentence of six years, most of which he had spent in Mandalay in Burma. Tilak initially concentrated all his attention on seeking readmission, for himself and other Extremists, into the Indian National Congress. He was obviously convinced that the sanction of this body, that had come to symbolize the Indian national movement, was a necessary pre-condition for the success of any political action. To conciliate the Moderates and convince them of his bonafides, as well as to stave off any possible government repression, he publicly declared: I may state once for all that we are trying in India, as the Irish Home-rulers have been doing in Ireland, for a reform of the system of administration and not for the overthrow of Government; aid I have no hesitation in saying that the acts of violence which had been committed in the different Parts of India are not only repugnant to me, but have, in my opinion, only unfortunately retarded to a great extent, the pace of our political progress". He further assured the Government of his loyalty to the Crown and urged all Indians to assist the British Government in its hour of crisis.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Which of the following factors are the reasons of sinking deltas in India? Groundwater Mining Artificial levees Large dams Rise in sea level Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
All the given factors are reasons of sinking deltas in India. Large dams are responsible as they restrict sediments to be transported to the sea. This leads to decreasing level of sediment being carried by a given river to the ocean. Thus leads to its submergence of deltas as their thickness (height) decreases. Artificial leads to twin problems of deviating water from main rivers and also lass of sediments thus causing less sediments to be transported. Rise in sea level is one of the prime reasons as the delta gets submerged in sea water. This can happen due to global warming etc. Groundwater mining leads to land compaction and subsidence land which leads to transgression of seas hence submergence of deltas.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors are the reasons of sinking deltas in India? Groundwater Mining Artificial levees Large dams Rise in sea level Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the given factors are reasons of sinking deltas in India. Large dams are responsible as they restrict sediments to be transported to the sea. This leads to decreasing level of sediment being carried by a given river to the ocean. Thus leads to its submergence of deltas as their thickness (height) decreases. Artificial leads to twin problems of deviating water from main rivers and also lass of sediments thus causing less sediments to be transported. Rise in sea level is one of the prime reasons as the delta gets submerged in sea water. This can happen due to global warming etc. Groundwater mining leads to land compaction and subsidence land which leads to transgression of seas hence submergence of deltas.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Champaran Satyagraha, consider the following statements: At Champaran, the cultivators were forced to cultivate under the tinkathia system. Mahatama Gandhi was appointed as a member of government"s Commission of Inquiry for Chamaparan issue. Rajendra Prasad and Vallabhbhai Patel participated in this satyagraha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
At Champaran in the early nineteenth century European planters had involved the cultivators in agreements that forced them to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their holdings (known as the tinkathia system). Towards the end of the nineteenth century, German synthetic dyes forced indigo out of the market and the European planters of Champaran, keen to release the cultivators from the obligation of cultivating indigo, tried to turn their necessity to their advantage by securing enhancements in rent and other illegal dues as a price for the release. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Government appointed a Commission of Inquiry to go into the whole issue, and nominated Gandhiji as one of its members. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Rajendra Prasad and other members of the Bihar intelligentsia, Mahadev Desai and Narhari Parikh, two young men from Gujarat who had thrown in their lot with Gandhiji, and J.B. Kripalani, toured the villages and from dawn to dusk recorded the statements of peasants, interrogating them to make sure that they were giving correct information. Sardar Vallabhai Patel, however did not participated in Chamaparan Satyagraha. He participated in Kheda Satyagraha. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Champaran Satyagraha, consider the following statements: At Champaran, the cultivators were forced to cultivate under the tinkathia system. Mahatama Gandhi was appointed as a member of government"s Commission of Inquiry for Chamaparan issue. Rajendra Prasad and Vallabhbhai Patel participated in this satyagraha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:At Champaran in the early nineteenth century European planters had involved the cultivators in agreements that forced them to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their holdings (known as the tinkathia system). Towards the end of the nineteenth century, German synthetic dyes forced indigo out of the market and the European planters of Champaran, keen to release the cultivators from the obligation of cultivating indigo, tried to turn their necessity to their advantage by securing enhancements in rent and other illegal dues as a price for the release. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Government appointed a Commission of Inquiry to go into the whole issue, and nominated Gandhiji as one of its members. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Rajendra Prasad and other members of the Bihar intelligentsia, Mahadev Desai and Narhari Parikh, two young men from Gujarat who had thrown in their lot with Gandhiji, and J.B. Kripalani, toured the villages and from dawn to dusk recorded the statements of peasants, interrogating them to make sure that they were giving correct information. Sardar Vallabhai Patel, however did not participated in Chamaparan Satyagraha. He participated in Kheda Satyagraha. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which among the following are the reasons for unequal distribution of temperature across the surface of ocean? Distance from the Equator Distance from the land Prevailing winds Oceanic Currents Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Option 1 is correct : If the ocean is the nearby equator, its surface waters will be warmer compared to that of surface waters near by polar regions. This is because of incoming solar radiation. Option 2 is correct: The ocean/sea nearby land receives more heat due to their contact with land, hence oceans in the northern hemisphere are warmer compared to that of the southern hemisphere. Option 3 is correct: Off-shore winds drive away warm surface waters from the coast, resulting in upwelling, whereas onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast, which raises the temperature. Option 4 is correct: Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in the cold areas while the cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas.
|
d
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following are the reasons for unequal distribution of temperature across the surface of ocean? Distance from the Equator Distance from the land Prevailing winds Oceanic Currents Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 4 only##Option_C:1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Option 1 is correct : If the ocean is the nearby equator, its surface waters will be warmer compared to that of surface waters near by polar regions. This is because of incoming solar radiation. Option 2 is correct: The ocean/sea nearby land receives more heat due to their contact with land, hence oceans in the northern hemisphere are warmer compared to that of the southern hemisphere. Option 3 is correct: Off-shore winds drive away warm surface waters from the coast, resulting in upwelling, whereas onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast, which raises the temperature. Option 4 is correct: Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in the cold areas while the cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. ##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements : 1. The Arabian Sea records higher salinity compared to that of Bay of Bengal due to low influx of fresh water and higher evaporation 2. The North Sea records lower salinity compared to that of Baltic Sea due to influx of river waters in large quantity and low evaporation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Bay of Bengal receives more water from the river Ganga, which is perennial in nature, compared to Arabian Sea, where there is such perennial supply of waters and also there is a higher evaporation of sea waters. Statement 2 is incorrect: The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift. Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of river waters in large quantity.
|
a
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements : 1. The Arabian Sea records higher salinity compared to that of Bay of Bengal due to low influx of fresh water and higher evaporation 2. The North Sea records lower salinity compared to that of Baltic Sea due to influx of river waters in large quantity and low evaporation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Bay of Bengal receives more water from the river Ganga, which is perennial in nature, compared to Arabian Sea, where there is such perennial supply of waters and also there is a higher evaporation of sea waters. Statement 2 is incorrect: The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift. Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of river waters in large quantity. ##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following evidences were proposed by Alfred Wegener in support of the theory of Continental Drift? Matching of the shorelines of continents. Ancient rocks of Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa. Presence of Tillite and placer deposits across continents. Distribution of fossils. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
The evidences proposed by Alfred Wegner with respect to his theory were. Matching of the continents - The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match. Rocks of same ages across the oceans - The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa. The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of South America and Africa are of the Jurassic age. Presence of Tillite deposits across continents - It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counter parts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counter parts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia besides India. Distribution of fossils - The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass "Lemuria" linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two localities : the Southern Cape province of South Africa and Iraver formations of Brazil. The two localities presently are 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them. Placer Deposits presence and absence across continents - The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
|
d
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following evidences were proposed by Alfred Wegener in support of the theory of Continental Drift? Matching of the shorelines of continents. Ancient rocks of Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa. Presence of Tillite and placer deposits across continents. Distribution of fossils. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The evidences proposed by Alfred Wegner with respect to his theory were. Matching of the continents - The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match. Rocks of same ages across the oceans - The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa. The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of South America and Africa are of the Jurassic age. Presence of Tillite deposits across continents - It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counter parts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counter parts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia besides India. Distribution of fossils - The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass "Lemuria" linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two localities : the Southern Cape province of South Africa and Iraver formations of Brazil. The two localities presently are 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them. Placer Deposits presence and absence across continents - The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Arrange the following ocean relief features in the correct sequence of occurrence from land to ocean basin.
|
Continental Shelf-Continental Rise-Continental Slope-Abyssal Plain
|
Abyssal Plain-Continental Shelf-Continental Rise-Continental Slope
|
Continental Shelf-Abyssal Plain-Continental Slope-Continental Rise
|
Continental Shelf-Continental Rise-Continental Slope-Abyssal Plain
|
The correct order is: Continental Shelf-Continental Slope-Continental Rise-Abyssal Plain. Continental Margins form the transition between continental shores and deep-sea basins. They include a continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise, and deep-oceanic trenches. The Abyssal plains are extensive plains that lie between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges. The abyssal plains are the areas where the continental sediments that move beyond the margins get deposited. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arrange the following ocean relief features in the correct sequence of occurrence from land to ocean basin.##Option_A: Continental Shelf-Continental Rise-Continental Slope-Abyssal Plain###Option_B: Abyssal Plain-Continental Shelf-Continental Rise-Continental Slope##Option_C: Continental Shelf-Abyssal Plain-Continental Slope-Continental Rise##Option_D: Continental Shelf-Continental Rise-Continental Slope-Abyssal Plain##Answer:d##Explaination:The correct order is: Continental Shelf-Continental Slope-Continental Rise-Abyssal Plain. Continental Margins form the transition between continental shores and deep-sea basins. They include a continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise, and deep-oceanic trenches. The Abyssal plains are extensive plains that lie between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges. The abyssal plains are the areas where the continental sediments that move beyond the margins get deposited. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Alfred Wegener proposed which of the following forces to be responsible for continental drift? Rotation of earth Tidal force of the moon Tidal force of the sun Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Alfred Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by pole-fleeing force and tidal force. The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the Earth. The earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth. The second force that was suggested by Wegener- the tidal force -is due to the attraction of the M oon and the Sun that develops tides in oceanic waters. Wegener believed that these forces would become effective when applied over many million years. However, most of scholars considered these forces to be totally inadequate.
|
d
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Alfred Wegener proposed which of the following forces to be responsible for continental drift? Rotation of earth Tidal force of the moon Tidal force of the sun Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Alfred Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by pole-fleeing force and tidal force. The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the Earth. The earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth. The second force that was suggested by Wegener- the tidal force -is due to the attraction of the M oon and the Sun that develops tides in oceanic waters. Wegener believed that these forces would become effective when applied over many million years. However, most of scholars considered these forces to be totally inadequate.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements in reference to Convection Current Theory. 1. The currents are responsible for plate movement. 2. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. 3. It is confined only in the upper mantle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Arthur Holmes in 1930s discussed the possibility of convection currents operating in the mantle portion. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. Holmes argued that there exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force, on the basis of which contemporary scientists discarded the continental drift theory. These are not seismic waves.
|
a
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in reference to Convection Current Theory. 1. The currents are responsible for plate movement. 2. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. 3. It is confined only in the upper mantle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:1 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:Arthur Holmes in 1930s discussed the possibility of convection currents operating in the mantle portion. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. Holmes argued that there exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force, on the basis of which contemporary scientists discarded the continental drift theory. These are not seismic waves.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
What are Abyssal Plains?
|
Plains adjacent to a stream, river, lake or wetland that experiences occasional or periodic flooding.
|
Plains that lie between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges.
|
Plains through which a river meanders with a very low gradient.
|
Plains adjacent to a stream, river, lake or wetland that experiences occasional or periodic flooding.
|
An abyssal plain is an underwater plain on the deep ocean floor, usually found at depths between 3,000 metres (9,800 ft) and 6,000 metres (20,000 ft). Lying generally between the foot of a continental rise and a mid-ocean ridge, abyssal plains cover more than 50% of the Earth’s surface. They are among the flattest, smoothest and least explored regions on Earth. Abyssal plains are key geologic elements of oceanic basins (the other elements being an elevated mid-ocean ridge and flanking abyssal hills). In addition to these elements, active oceanic basins (those that are associated with a moving plate tectonic boundary) also typically include an oceanic trench and a subduction zone.
|
b
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What are Abyssal Plains?
##Option_A: Plains adjacent to a stream, river, lake or wetland that experiences occasional or periodic flooding.
###Option_B: Plains that lie between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges.
##Option_C: Plains through which a river meanders with a very low gradient.
##Option_D: Plains adjacent to a stream, river, lake or wetland that experiences occasional or periodic flooding.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
An abyssal plain is an underwater plain on the deep ocean floor, usually found at depths between 3,000 metres (9,800 ft) and 6,000 metres (20,000 ft). Lying generally between the foot of a continental rise and a mid-ocean ridge, abyssal plains cover more than 50% of the Earth’s surface. They are among the flattest, smoothest and least explored regions on Earth. Abyssal plains are key geologic elements of oceanic basins (the other elements being an elevated mid-ocean ridge and flanking abyssal hills). In addition to these elements, active oceanic basins (those that are associated with a moving plate tectonic boundary) also typically include an oceanic trench and a subduction zone.
##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Mid-Oceanic Ridges: 1. It is an interconnected chain of mountain system over the ocean. 2. It is the longest mountain-chain on the surface of the earth. 3. It is the zone of intense volcanic activity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is Incorrect. This forms an interconnected chain of mountain system within (not over) the ocean. Statement 2 is Correct. It is the longest mountain-chain on the surface of the earth though submerged under the oceanic waters. It is characterised by a central rift system at the crest, a fractionated plateau and flank zone all along its length. Statement 3 is Correct. The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity.
|
b
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Mid-Oceanic Ridges: 1. It is an interconnected chain of mountain system over the ocean. 2. It is the longest mountain-chain on the surface of the earth. 3. It is the zone of intense volcanic activity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is Incorrect. This forms an interconnected chain of mountain system within (not over) the ocean. Statement 2 is Correct. It is the longest mountain-chain on the surface of the earth though submerged under the oceanic waters. It is characterised by a central rift system at the crest, a fractionated plateau and flank zone all along its length. Statement 3 is Correct. The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to earth"s crust: The oceanic crust is younger than the continental crust. The oceanic crust is thinner than the continental crust. The oceanic crust is lighter than continental crust. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. The oceanic crust is much younger than the continental crust. The age of rocks in the oceanic crust is nowhere more than 200 million years old. Some of the continental rock formations are as old as 3,200 million years. Statement 2 is Correct. The thickness of both the crusts varies. For the oceanic crust, the thickness is around 5 to 10 km. The continental crust is much thicker when compared to the oceanic crust. It has a thickness about 35 km., on the plains, to as much as 70 km., on the highest mountains. Thus, the oceanic crust is thinner than the continental crust. Statement 3 is Incorrect. The density of the continental crust is much less as compared to the oceanic crust. It has an approximate value of 2.6 g/cm3, while the density of the oceanic crust is about 3.0 g/cm3.
|
a
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to earth"s crust: The oceanic crust is younger than the continental crust. The oceanic crust is thinner than the continental crust. The oceanic crust is lighter than continental crust. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is Correct. The oceanic crust is much younger than the continental crust. The age of rocks in the oceanic crust is nowhere more than 200 million years old. Some of the continental rock formations are as old as 3,200 million years. Statement 2 is Correct. The thickness of both the crusts varies. For the oceanic crust, the thickness is around 5 to 10 km. The continental crust is much thicker when compared to the oceanic crust. It has a thickness about 35 km., on the plains, to as much as 70 km., on the highest mountains. Thus, the oceanic crust is thinner than the continental crust. Statement 3 is Incorrect. The density of the continental crust is much less as compared to the oceanic crust. It has an approximate value of 2.6 g/cm3, while the density of the oceanic crust is about 3.0 g/cm3.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs:
Minor Plates Location
1.Cocos Plate : Between South America and Pacific plate
2.Nazca Plate : Between Central America and Pacific plate
3.Caroline Plate : Between the Philippine and Indian plate
4.Scotia Plate : In South Atlantic Ocean near Falkland Islands
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is Incorrect. Cocos Plate is between Central America and Pacific plate.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. Nazca Plate is between South America and Pacific plate.
Statement 3 is Correct. Caroline Plate is between the Philippine and Indian plate.
Statement 4 is Correct. Scotia Plate is in South Atlantic Ocean near Falkland Islands.
|
b
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs:
Minor Plates Location
1.Cocos Plate : Between South America and Pacific plate
2.Nazca Plate : Between Central America and Pacific plate
3.Caroline Plate : Between the Philippine and Indian plate
4.Scotia Plate : In South Atlantic Ocean near Falkland Islands
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Incorrect. Cocos Plate is between Central America and Pacific plate.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. Nazca Plate is between South America and Pacific plate.
Statement 3 is Correct. Caroline Plate is between the Philippine and Indian plate.
Statement 4 is Correct. Scotia Plate is in South Atlantic Ocean near Falkland Islands.
##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Along which of the following plate boundaries, the crust is destroyed? Convergent Boundary Divergent Boundary Transform Boundary Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Option 1 is correct. A convergent boundary is where the crust is destroyed as one plate dives under another. The location where, sinking of a plate occurs is called a subduction zone. There are three ways in which convergence can occur. These are: (i) between an oceanic and continental plate; (ii) between two oceanic plates; and (iii) between two continental plates. Option 2 is incorrect. A divergent boundary is where new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each other. The sites where the plates move away from each other are called spreading sites. Option 3 is incorrect. A transform boundary is where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the mid-oceanic ridges.
|
a
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Along which of the following plate boundaries, the crust is destroyed? Convergent Boundary Divergent Boundary Transform Boundary Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Option 1 is correct. A convergent boundary is where the crust is destroyed as one plate dives under another. The location where, sinking of a plate occurs is called a subduction zone. There are three ways in which convergence can occur. These are: (i) between an oceanic and continental plate; (ii) between two oceanic plates; and (iii) between two continental plates. Option 2 is incorrect. A divergent boundary is where new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each other. The sites where the plates move away from each other are called spreading sites. Option 3 is incorrect. A transform boundary is where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the mid-oceanic ridges.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements.
1. Japan is an example of Ocean-Continent Convergent Boundary.
2. Andes Mountains is an example of Ocean-Ocean Convergent Boundary
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Incorrect. Japan is an example of Ocean-Ocean Convergent Boundary. The Japanese Islands are in marginal areas of the Pacific Plate, the Philippine Sea Plate, the North American Plate, and the Eurasian Plate
Statement 2 is Incorrect. The Andes Mountain Range of western South America is an example of a convergent boundary between an oceanic and continental plate. Here the Nazca Plate is subducting beneath the South American plate.
|
c
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. Japan is an example of Ocean-Continent Convergent Boundary.
2. Andes Mountains is an example of Ocean-Ocean Convergent Boundary
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Incorrect. Japan is an example of Ocean-Ocean Convergent Boundary. The Japanese Islands are in marginal areas of the Pacific Plate, the Philippine Sea Plate, the North American Plate, and the Eurasian Plate
Statement 2 is Incorrect. The Andes Mountain Range of western South America is an example of a convergent boundary between an oceanic and continental plate. Here the Nazca Plate is subducting beneath the South American plate.
##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are the evidences of sea floor spreading? Volcanic activity along the mid-oceanic ridges. Increasing age of rocks away from the oceanic ridges. Similarities of magnetic properties on either side of oceanic ridges. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
All the given statements are the evidences of sea floor spreading. All along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area. The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest. The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges are normal polarity and are the youngest.
|
d
|
Structure and Physiography
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the evidences of sea floor spreading? Volcanic activity along the mid-oceanic ridges. Increasing age of rocks away from the oceanic ridges. Similarities of magnetic properties on either side of oceanic ridges. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the given statements are the evidences of sea floor spreading. All along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area. The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest. The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges are normal polarity and are the youngest.##Topic:Structure and Physiography##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Earthquakes? The point where energy is released during earthquake is called Hypocentre. All the earthquakes take place in Aesthenosphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: as the Point where energy is released is called Focus or hypocentre. Statement 2 is not correct: All natural Earthquakes takes place in Lithosphere which is earth crust and uppermost solid part of mantle and not Aesthenosphere.
|
a
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Earthquakes? The point where energy is released during earthquake is called Hypocentre. All the earthquakes take place in Aesthenosphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination: Statement 1 is correct: as the Point where energy is released is called Focus or hypocentre. Statement 2 is not correct: All natural Earthquakes takes place in Lithosphere which is earth crust and uppermost solid part of mantle and not Aesthenosphere.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to earthquake waves? P waves can travel through solid, liquid and gaseous materials. S waves can travel only through liquid material. Velocity of P waves increases at it enters from denser to rarer medium. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as P wave are like Sound waves and can travel in all the three mediums of solid, liquid and gas. Statement 2 is not correct as S waves can only travel in solid medium and cannot travel in liquid and gaseous medium. Statement 3 is incorrect. Velocity of P waves is in proportional to density of medium and hence it decreases as it enters from denser to rarer medium or solid to liquid medium.
|
a
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to earthquake waves? P waves can travel through solid, liquid and gaseous materials. S waves can travel only through liquid material. Velocity of P waves increases at it enters from denser to rarer medium. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as P wave are like Sound waves and can travel in all the three mediums of solid, liquid and gas. Statement 2 is not correct as S waves can only travel in solid medium and cannot travel in liquid and gaseous medium. Statement 3 is incorrect. Velocity of P waves is in proportional to density of medium and hence it decreases as it enters from denser to rarer medium or solid to liquid medium.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements are correct regarding effect of waves in the material they travel ? 1. P waves create density difference in the material they travel. 2. S waves create troughs and crests in the material they travel. 3. P waves are fastest and hence considered most damaging waves arising out of Earthquake Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
3 only
|
Statement 1 : In P waves , material vibrate parallel to the direction of wave. It leads to streching, squeezing and density differences in the material. Statement 2 : In S waves , the material travel perpendicular to direction of wave and thus create trough and crest Statement 3 : Although P waves are fastest but most damaging waves arising out of an earthquake are considered to be Surface Waves.
|
b
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following statements are correct regarding effect of waves in the material they travel ? 1. P waves create density difference in the material they travel. 2. S waves create troughs and crests in the material they travel. 3. P waves are fastest and hence considered most damaging waves arising out of Earthquake Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:3 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 3##Option_D:3 only##Answer:b##Explaination: Statement 1 : In P waves , material vibrate parallel to the direction of wave. It leads to streching, squeezing and density differences in the material. Statement 2 : In S waves , the material travel perpendicular to direction of wave and thus create trough and crest Statement 3 : Although P waves are fastest but most damaging waves arising out of an earthquake are considered to be Surface Waves. ##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements are correct about the Shadow Zones of Body Waves ? 1. Shadow zone of P wave is a zone between 105 to 145 degree from epicentre. 2. Shadow zone of S wave is above 40% of the earth Surface. 3. Shadow zone occur due to refraction of waves only. Select the correct answer using the code given below .
|
1 and 2 only
|
1and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Following facs should be kept in mind to solve this question : 1. Earth's outer core is made of liquid and inner core is made of solid 2. P waves are similar to sound waves and can travel through Solid,liquid and gaseous materials 3. S waves can only travel through Solid medium 4. Velocity of waves is larger in denser medium and this result into refraction due to change in medium Statement 1 : P waves can travel throug all the layers and shadow zone comes only due to refraction of P waves. Their shadow zone of between 105 to 145 degree from epicentre. Statement 2 : S waves cannot travel in liquid and thus cannot pass through outer core and thus their shadow zone is all the area beyond 105 degree from the epicentre. This area is more than 40 % of Earth surface. Statement 3 : Both refraction and property of S-waves of not travelling in Liquid and gaseous medium are responsible for Shadow Zones
|
a
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct about the Shadow Zones of Body Waves ? 1. Shadow zone of P wave is a zone between 105 to 145 degree from epicentre. 2. Shadow zone of S wave is above 40% of the earth Surface. 3. Shadow zone occur due to refraction of waves only. Select the correct answer using the code given below .##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination: Following facs should be kept in mind to solve this question : 1. Earth's outer core is made of liquid and inner core is made of solid 2. P waves are similar to sound waves and can travel through Solid,liquid and gaseous materials 3. S waves can only travel through Solid medium 4. Velocity of waves is larger in denser medium and this result into refraction due to change in medium Statement 1 : P waves can travel throug all the layers and shadow zone comes only due to refraction of P waves. Their shadow zone of between 105 to 145 degree from epicentre. Statement 2 : S waves cannot travel in liquid and thus cannot pass through outer core and thus their shadow zone is all the area beyond 105 degree from the epicentre. This area is more than 40 % of Earth surface. Statement 3 : Both refraction and property of S-waves of not travelling in Liquid and gaseous medium are responsible for Shadow Zones ##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following may cause an Earthquake? Volcanic eruption Tsunami waves Large reservoirs Mining Explosion of Nuclear Device Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
Volcanic eruptions releases huge amount of lava and magmatic material. In areas of active volcano this can trigger earthquake and is called Volcanic earthquake. Tsunami waves do not cause earthquake but they are result of an earthquake. Areas with large reservoirs and dams are prone to reservoir induced earthquakes Many times in areas on intense mining the underground roof collapses which gives rise to collapse earthquakes Explosion of nuclear devices can result into release of large amount of energy which trigger explosion earthquakes.
|
b
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following may cause an Earthquake? Volcanic eruption Tsunami waves Large reservoirs Mining Explosion of Nuclear Device Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only###Option_B:1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Volcanic eruptions releases huge amount of lava and magmatic material. In areas of active volcano this can trigger earthquake and is called Volcanic earthquake. Tsunami waves do not cause earthquake but they are result of an earthquake. Areas with large reservoirs and dams are prone to reservoir induced earthquakes Many times in areas on intense mining the underground roof collapses which gives rise to collapse earthquakes Explosion of nuclear devices can result into release of large amount of energy which trigger explosion earthquakes.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to measurement of Earthquakes? Richter scale measures intensity which takes into account visible damage created by it. Mercalli scale measures magnitude which relates to energy released during earthquake. Range of intensity scale is 1-12 and that of magnitude scale is 0-10 Select the correct answer from the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Richter scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake which means amount of energy released by it. It is also known as magnitude scale. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mercalli scale measures the intensity which denotes amount of visible damage done by the earthquake. It is also known as the intensity scale. Statement 3 is correct: Range of intensity scale is 1-12 and that of magnitude scale which is a logarithmic scale which is 0-10.
|
b
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to measurement of Earthquakes? Richter scale measures intensity which takes into account visible damage created by it. Mercalli scale measures magnitude which relates to energy released during earthquake. Range of intensity scale is 1-12 and that of magnitude scale is 0-10 Select the correct answer from the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Richter scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake which means amount of energy released by it. It is also known as magnitude scale. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mercalli scale measures the intensity which denotes amount of visible damage done by the earthquake. It is also known as the intensity scale. Statement 3 is correct: Range of intensity scale is 1-12 and that of magnitude scale which is a logarithmic scale which is 0-10.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding interior structure of the earth? Moho"s discontinuity forms the boundary between Mantle and Core of the Earth. Lithosphere is the main source of magma that erupts as lava in Volcano. Outer core is liquid while the inner core is solid. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct because Moho's discontinuity is boundary between Crust and Mantle. Boundary between Mantle and core is called guntenberg's discontinuity. Statement 2 is not correct. It is the Aesthenosphere, not lithosphere which is a source of Magma. Lithosphere consist of crust and uppermost solid mantle while Aesthenosphere is upper and weak portion of mantle extending upto 400 km. Statement 3 is correct. Outer core is liquid and inner core is solid. Since the outer core is liquid, we find Shadow zones of P and S waves.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding interior structure of the earth? Moho"s discontinuity forms the boundary between Mantle and Core of the Earth. Lithosphere is the main source of magma that erupts as lava in Volcano. Outer core is liquid while the inner core is solid. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct because Moho's discontinuity is boundary between Crust and Mantle. Boundary between Mantle and core is called guntenberg's discontinuity. Statement 2 is not correct. It is the Aesthenosphere, not lithosphere which is a source of Magma. Lithosphere consist of crust and uppermost solid mantle while Aesthenosphere is upper and weak portion of mantle extending upto 400 km. Statement 3 is correct. Outer core is liquid and inner core is solid. Since the outer core is liquid, we find Shadow zones of P and S waves. ##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Volcanoes? Shield Volcanoes are made up of basalt. Deccan Traps are examples of flood basalt province. Composite Volcanoes are made of highly fluid lava. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Shield volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt which is very fluid lava and thus they spread to large distance and do not attain much height Statement 2 is correct: Flood basalt provinces outpour highly fluid lava that flows for long distances. Deccan Traps are examples of flood basalt province. Statement 3 is incorrect. Composite Volcanoes are made up of high viscous and cooler lava than basalt and are explosive volcanoes.
|
b
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Volcanoes? Shield Volcanoes are made up of basalt. Deccan Traps are examples of flood basalt province. Composite Volcanoes are made of highly fluid lava. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Shield volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt which is very fluid lava and thus they spread to large distance and do not attain much height Statement 2 is correct: Flood basalt provinces outpour highly fluid lava that flows for long distances. Deccan Traps are examples of flood basalt province. Statement 3 is incorrect. Composite Volcanoes are made up of high viscous and cooler lava than basalt and are explosive volcanoes.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are correct regarding intrusive volcanic landforms? Batholith is a large body of magmatic material cooled in deep depths in the form of large domes. Wall like structure almost perpendicular to the ground is called Sill or Sheet. Near Horizontal body of intrusive igneous rock is called Dyke. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : When a large body of magmatic material is cooled in the deeper depths of earth and develops in form of large domes it is called Batholith. These are granitic bodies and appear on surace after denudational processes remove the overlying materials Statement 2 is incorrect : Wall like structure that are almost perpendicular to surface are called Dykes Statement 3 is incorrect : Horizontal body of igneous rocks are called Sill/sheet.
|
b
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correct regarding intrusive volcanic landforms? Batholith is a large body of magmatic material cooled in deep depths in the form of large domes. Wall like structure almost perpendicular to the ground is called Sill or Sheet. Near Horizontal body of intrusive igneous rock is called Dyke. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : When a large body of magmatic material is cooled in the deeper depths of earth and develops in form of large domes it is called Batholith. These are granitic bodies and appear on surace after denudational processes remove the overlying materials Statement 2 is incorrect : Wall like structure that are almost perpendicular to surface are called Dykes Statement 3 is incorrect : Horizontal body of igneous rocks are called Sill/sheet.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: The highest sea surface temperature is recorded at the equator. The oceans of northern hemisphere have lower temperature compared to that southern hemisphere. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: the highest sea surface temperature is observed not exactly at the equator but slightly towards north of it. This is due to cloud cover and high precipitation at the equator. Statement 2 is incorrect: The oceans of northern hemisphere have higher temperature compared to that southern hemisphere. This is due to the unequal distribution of land and water in the northern and southern hemispheres.
|
c
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The highest sea surface temperature is recorded at the equator. The oceans of northern hemisphere have lower temperature compared to that southern hemisphere. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: the highest sea surface temperature is observed not exactly at the equator but slightly towards north of it. This is due to cloud cover and high precipitation at the equator. Statement 2 is incorrect: The oceans of northern hemisphere have higher temperature compared to that southern hemisphere. This is due to the unequal distribution of land and water in the northern and southern hemispheres.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs
Division of Ocean floor Feature
1. Continental Shelf Atolls
2. Continental Slope Gulfs
2. Deep ocean basin Guyots
Identify the correct pairs using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Pair 1: Incorrectly matched: Continental Shelf is a extended margin of each continent occupied relatively by shallow seas and gulfs, but atolls are part of ocean islands. These atolls are low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central depression
Pair 2: Incorrectly matched: Continental slope connects continental shelf and ocean basins. The slope boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed here.
Pair 3: correctly matched: Guyot is a flat topped sea mount, is observed in the deep ocean basin, which also includes deep sea trenches, sea mounts etc. These guyots show evidences of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains.
|
c
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs
Division of Ocean floor Feature
1. Continental Shelf Atolls
2. Continental Slope Gulfs
2. Deep ocean basin Guyots
Identify the correct pairs using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Pair 1: Incorrectly matched: Continental Shelf is a extended margin of each continent occupied relatively by shallow seas and gulfs, but atolls are part of ocean islands. These atolls are low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central depression
Pair 2: Incorrectly matched: Continental slope connects continental shelf and ocean basins. The slope boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed here.
Pair 3: correctly matched: Guyot is a flat topped sea mount, is observed in the deep ocean basin, which also includes deep sea trenches, sea mounts etc. These guyots show evidences of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains.
##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Why does the salinity in the ocean increases with the depth? In the deeper areas, there is no change in quantity of water either through evaporation or fresh water addition. High saline water is dense, hence sinks below the relatively fresh water of the surface area. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Surface water is relatively fresh compared to the deeper water of the ocean as surface water will be continuously exposed to the incoming solar radiation and influx of fresh water from the rivers. This is not the case with the deeper waters of the ocean. Statement 2 is correct. Other factors being constant, increasing salinity of seawater causes its density to increase. High salinity seawater, generally, sinks below the lower salinity water.
|
c
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Why does the salinity in the ocean increases with the depth? In the deeper areas, there is no change in quantity of water either through evaporation or fresh water addition. High saline water is dense, hence sinks below the relatively fresh water of the surface area. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Surface water is relatively fresh compared to the deeper water of the ocean as surface water will be continuously exposed to the incoming solar radiation and influx of fresh water from the rivers. This is not the case with the deeper waters of the ocean. Statement 2 is correct. Other factors being constant, increasing salinity of seawater causes its density to increase. High salinity seawater, generally, sinks below the lower salinity water.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following factors affect the salinity of Surface Ocean waters ? 1. Evaporation and precipitation 2. Fresh water flow from rivers 3. Winds 4. Ocean currents Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Factor 1 is correct. Evaporation and salinity are directly related. Salinity More the evaporation, more will be salinity and vice versa. Salinity and precipitation are inversely related. More the precipitation, less will be the salinity.
Factor 2 is correct. Rivers will add fresh water thereby decreasing the salinity of surface ocean waters.
Factor 3 is correct. Winds influence salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
Factor 4 is correct. Ocean currents moving from equator to pole will have less salinity, where as those moving from pole towards equator will have higher salinity. These will influence the salinity of destination’s waters.
|
d
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors affect the salinity of Surface Ocean waters ? 1. Evaporation and precipitation 2. Fresh water flow from rivers 3. Winds 4. Ocean currents Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Factor 1 is correct. Evaporation and salinity are directly related. Salinity More the evaporation, more will be salinity and vice versa. Salinity and precipitation are inversely related. More the precipitation, less will be the salinity.
Factor 2 is correct. Rivers will add fresh water thereby decreasing the salinity of surface ocean waters.
Factor 3 is correct. Winds influence salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
Factor 4 is correct. Ocean currents moving from equator to pole will have less salinity, where as those moving from pole towards equator will have higher salinity. These will influence the salinity of destination’s waters.
##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to movement of air, consider the following statements:
1. Movement of air in vertical direction is soley determined by the atmospheric pressure.
2. Movement of air from high pressure to low pressure always follows the straight line path.
3. The upward movement of air increases its temperature.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The movement of air in vertical direction is known as convection. It is mainly caused by the temperature difference of air present near the earth surface and upper atmosphere.The air near the earth surface gets heated due to solar insolation and becomes lighter. This leads to movement of air in vertical direction. Atmospheric pressure also determines when the air will sink or rise.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Movement of air does not follow the quickest straight line path as it is affected by the coriolis force. In fact, the air moving from high to low pressure follows a spiralling route, outwards from high pressure and inwards towards low pressure. This is due to the rotation of the Earth beneath the moving air, which causes an apparent deflection of the wind to the right in the northern hemisphere, and left in the southern hemisphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The vertical movement of air leads to expansion of the air and temperature of the air decreases.
Hence the correct code is d.
|
d
|
Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to movement of air, consider the following statements:
1. Movement of air in vertical direction is soley determined by the atmospheric pressure.
2. Movement of air from high pressure to low pressure always follows the straight line path.
3. The upward movement of air increases its temperature.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The movement of air in vertical direction is known as convection. It is mainly caused by the temperature difference of air present near the earth surface and upper atmosphere.The air near the earth surface gets heated due to solar insolation and becomes lighter. This leads to movement of air in vertical direction. Atmospheric pressure also determines when the air will sink or rise.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Movement of air does not follow the quickest straight line path as it is affected by the coriolis force. In fact, the air moving from high to low pressure follows a spiralling route, outwards from high pressure and inwards towards low pressure. This is due to the rotation of the Earth beneath the moving air, which causes an apparent deflection of the wind to the right in the northern hemisphere, and left in the southern hemisphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The vertical movement of air leads to expansion of the air and temperature of the air decreases.
Hence the correct code is d.
##Topic:Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to atmospheric pressure, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is the pressure exerted by a column of air above a surface. The decrease in atmospheric pressure with height is uniform. Atmospheric pressure is maximum at the surface due to effect of gravity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The weight of a column of air contained in a unit area from the mean sea level to the top of the amosphere is called the atmospheric pressure. Statement 2 is incorrect: The decrease in atmospheric pressure with height is not uniform, it does not always decrease at the same rate. In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with height. The decrease amounts to about 1 mb for each 10 m increase in elevation. However the rate of decrease is lower than this at farther heights. Statement 3 is correct: Due to gravity the air present at the surface is denser and hence exerts a high force over an unit area and hence has high pressure.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to atmospheric pressure, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is the pressure exerted by a column of air above a surface. The decrease in atmospheric pressure with height is uniform. Atmospheric pressure is maximum at the surface due to effect of gravity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The weight of a column of air contained in a unit area from the mean sea level to the top of the amosphere is called the atmospheric pressure. Statement 2 is incorrect: The decrease in atmospheric pressure with height is not uniform, it does not always decrease at the same rate. In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with height. The decrease amounts to about 1 mb for each 10 m increase in elevation. However the rate of decrease is lower than this at farther heights. Statement 3 is correct: Due to gravity the air present at the surface is denser and hence exerts a high force over an unit area and hence has high pressure.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
On the surface of earth, we do not experience strong upward winds because:
|
the vertical pressure gradient force of air is balanced by the frictional force.
|
there is no rapid change in atmospheric pressure vertically.
|
the vertical pressure gradient force of air is balanced by the opposite gravitational force.
|
the vertical pressure gradient force of air is balanced by the frictional force.
|
Statement a is incorrect: The vertical pressure gradient force is not balanced by the frictional force. Statement b is incorrect: In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with height. The decrease amounts to about 1 mb for each 10 m increase in elevation. Statement c is correct: The vertical pressure gradient force is balanced by nearly equal gravitational force which is exerted downward in opposite direction to that of air movement. Statement d is incorrect: It is not necessary that the air present at the surface has more water molecules. The air is denser because of gravity and so has high pressure. Perhaps we should remember that air moves from high pressure area to low pressure area.
|
c
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:On the surface of earth, we do not experience strong upward winds because:##Option_A: the vertical pressure gradient force of air is balanced by the frictional force.###Option_B: there is no rapid change in atmospheric pressure vertically.##Option_C: the vertical pressure gradient force of air is balanced by the opposite gravitational force.##Option_D: the vertical pressure gradient force of air is balanced by the frictional force.##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement a is incorrect: The vertical pressure gradient force is not balanced by the frictional force. Statement b is incorrect: In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with height. The decrease amounts to about 1 mb for each 10 m increase in elevation. Statement c is correct: The vertical pressure gradient force is balanced by nearly equal gravitational force which is exerted downward in opposite direction to that of air movement. Statement d is incorrect: It is not necessary that the air present at the surface has more water molecules. The air is denser because of gravity and so has high pressure. Perhaps we should remember that air moves from high pressure area to low pressure area.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Wind blows parallel to isobars.
2. The velocity and direction of wind are independent of topography of earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: This statement is not always correct. Only geostrophic wind blows parallel to the isobars. This is possible when winds are free from the effect of frictional forces.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The velocity of wind depends on the topography. Because the topography decides the frictional force exerted on the wind and hence can decrease the velocity of the wind. Similarly the rough terrain can deflect the direction of the wind.
Hence the correct code is d.
|
d
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. Wind blows parallel to isobars.
2. The velocity and direction of wind are independent of topography of earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: This statement is not always correct. Only geostrophic wind blows parallel to the isobars. This is possible when winds are free from the effect of frictional forces.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The velocity of wind depends on the topography. Because the topography decides the frictional force exerted on the wind and hence can decrease the velocity of the wind. Similarly the rough terrain can deflect the direction of the wind.
Hence the correct code is d.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to pressure belts, consider the following statements: The position of pressure belts depends upon the position of Earth with respect to Sun and Moon. There is an increase in the width of pressure belts in summer season. Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is a belt of high pressure along the tropic of cancer. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The position of pressure belt depends upon the apparent movement of sun. Solar insolation is one of the reasons for the creation of pressure belt. Statement 2 is incorrect: The width of the belts does not increase rather these belts oscillate with the movement of the sun. In summer in northern hemisphere they move northwards and in winter they move southwards. Statement 3 is incorrect: ITCZ lies along the equator and it is a belt of low pressure. In this zone both easterly and westerly planetary winds converge.
|
d
|
Pressure and Pressure belts
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to pressure belts, consider the following statements: The position of pressure belts depends upon the position of Earth with respect to Sun and Moon. There is an increase in the width of pressure belts in summer season. Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is a belt of high pressure along the tropic of cancer. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: The position of pressure belt depends upon the apparent movement of sun. Solar insolation is one of the reasons for the creation of pressure belt. Statement 2 is incorrect: The width of the belts does not increase rather these belts oscillate with the movement of the sun. In summer in northern hemisphere they move northwards and in winter they move southwards. Statement 3 is incorrect: ITCZ lies along the equator and it is a belt of low pressure. In this zone both easterly and westerly planetary winds converge.##Topic:Pressure and Pressure belts##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Coriolis force, which of the following statements is/are correct? The magnitude of Coriolis force is directly proportional to the wind speed. The Coriolis force is maximum at the equator. The Coriolis force will vanish if the earth stops rotating around its axis. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Coriolis force is caused because of the rotation of the earth around its axis. Its magnitude does not depend on the wind speed. However the deflection of wind due to Coriolis force is more if the wind velocity is high. Statement 2 is incorrect: At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and it is maximum at poles. Statement 3 is correct: Coriolis force is generated due to the rotation of the earth about its axis. It affects the direction of the winds. So when earth stops rotating about its axis then the Coriolis force will vanish.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Coriolis force, which of the following statements is/are correct? The magnitude of Coriolis force is directly proportional to the wind speed. The Coriolis force is maximum at the equator. The Coriolis force will vanish if the earth stops rotating around its axis. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Coriolis force is caused because of the rotation of the earth around its axis. Its magnitude does not depend on the wind speed. However the deflection of wind due to Coriolis force is more if the wind velocity is high. Statement 2 is incorrect: At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and it is maximum at poles. Statement 3 is correct: Coriolis force is generated due to the rotation of the earth about its axis. It affects the direction of the winds. So when earth stops rotating about its axis then the Coriolis force will vanish.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to planetary winds: The deflection in the movement of the planetary winds due to Coriolis force is always towards right. The movement of planetary winds affects the circulation of ocean currents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Planetary winds deflect to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere due to the effect of Coriolis force. Statement 2 is correct: The general circulations of the atmosphere affects the oceans. The large scale winds of the atmosphere initiate large and slow moving currents of the ocean. Oceans in turn provide input of energy and water vapour into the air.
|
b
|
Pressure and Pressure belts
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to planetary winds: The deflection in the movement of the planetary winds due to Coriolis force is always towards right. The movement of planetary winds affects the circulation of ocean currents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Planetary winds deflect to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere due to the effect of Coriolis force. Statement 2 is correct: The general circulations of the atmosphere affects the oceans. The large scale winds of the atmosphere initiate large and slow moving currents of the ocean. Oceans in turn provide input of energy and water vapour into the air.##Topic:Pressure and Pressure belts##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
The features like Monadnocks and Peneplain are examples of :
|
Erosional features
|
Depositional feature
|
Both erosional and Depositional feature
|
Erosional features
|
Monadnocks are lowland of faint relief with some low resistant remnants standing out here and there in the course of running water. Due to heavy erosion of running water, a plain is formed. This type of plain forming as a result of stream erosion is called a peneplain.
|
a
|
External forces & their impact Weathering, Erosion & landforms thus developed
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The features like Monadnocks and Peneplain are examples of :
##Option_A: Erosional features
###Option_B: Depositional feature
##Option_C: Both erosional and Depositional feature
##Option_D: Erosional features
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Monadnocks are lowland of faint relief with some low resistant remnants standing out here and there in the course of running water. Due to heavy erosion of running water, a plain is formed. This type of plain forming as a result of stream erosion is called a peneplain.
##Topic:External forces & their impact Weathering, Erosion & landforms thus developed##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to El-Nino, consider the following statements: 1. It is caused by warming of water in western Pacific Ocean. 2. It causes delay in the arrival of monsoon in India and drought in west coast of South America. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: El-Nino is caused by the warmer water in eastern Pacific Ocean ie Peruvian Coast. The cold Peru Current is replaced by the warm ocean current. Statement 2 is incorrect: It has been seen that El-Nino delays monsoon in India. But it also causes heavy rain in the west coast of South America.
|
d
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to El-Nino, consider the following statements: 1. It is caused by warming of water in western Pacific Ocean. 2. It causes delay in the arrival of monsoon in India and drought in west coast of South America. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: El-Nino is caused by the warmer water in eastern Pacific Ocean ie Peruvian Coast. The cold Peru Current is replaced by the warm ocean current. Statement 2 is incorrect: It has been seen that El-Nino delays monsoon in India. But it also causes heavy rain in the west coast of South America.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Fronts, consider the following statements: The process of formation of the fronts is known as frontogenesis. They do not occur in tropical latitudes. They cause abrupt changes in temperature. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone between them is called a front. The process of formation of the fronts is known as frontogenesis. Statement 2 is correct. The fronts occur in middle latitudes and they do not occur in tropical latitudes. Statement 3 is correct. They are are characterised by steep gradient in temperature and pressure. They bring abrupt changes in temperature and cause the air to rise to form clouds and cause precipitation.
|
d
|
Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Fronts, consider the following statements: The process of formation of the fronts is known as frontogenesis. They do not occur in tropical latitudes. They cause abrupt changes in temperature. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone between them is called a front. The process of formation of the fronts is known as frontogenesis. Statement 2 is correct. The fronts occur in middle latitudes and they do not occur in tropical latitudes. Statement 3 is correct. They are are characterised by steep gradient in temperature and pressure. They bring abrupt changes in temperature and cause the air to rise to form clouds and cause precipitation.##Topic:Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Temperate Cyclones, consider the following statements: These develop between 30 degree North and 30 degree South latitudes. These derive energy from heat of condensation released by the clouds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: These develop between mid latitudes and high latitudes. Generally the mid latitudes correspond to latitudes between 30 degree and 60 degree of both the hemisphere. High latitude is situated around the 60 degree latitude or higher. That means both the middle and higher latitudes exist beyond the tropic. The temperate cyclone is also known as extra-tropical cyclone that means the cyclone is formed outside the boundary of the tropic. Statement 2 is incorrect: These develop mainly because of confluence of contrasting cold polar air masses and warmer tropical air masses. Generally the two contrasting air masses converge together to form front. Occluded front is formed in this convergence and cumulus cloud is formed along the cold front. Thus the temperate cyclones derive energy from the converging air masses having contrasting temperature. On the other hand tropical cyclones derive energy from heat of condensation released by the clouds.
|
d
|
Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Temperate Cyclones, consider the following statements: These develop between 30 degree North and 30 degree South latitudes. These derive energy from heat of condensation released by the clouds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: These develop between mid latitudes and high latitudes. Generally the mid latitudes correspond to latitudes between 30 degree and 60 degree of both the hemisphere. High latitude is situated around the 60 degree latitude or higher. That means both the middle and higher latitudes exist beyond the tropic. The temperate cyclone is also known as extra-tropical cyclone that means the cyclone is formed outside the boundary of the tropic. Statement 2 is incorrect: These develop mainly because of confluence of contrasting cold polar air masses and warmer tropical air masses. Generally the two contrasting air masses converge together to form front. Occluded front is formed in this convergence and cumulus cloud is formed along the cold front. Thus the temperate cyclones derive energy from the converging air masses having contrasting temperature. On the other hand tropical cyclones derive energy from heat of condensation released by the clouds.##Topic:Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about United Nations Security Council (UNSC): It is charged with the maintenance of international peace and security. It consists of four permanent, veto-wielding members and ten non-permanent members. It is the only UN organ with the power to make decisions that member states are obligated to implement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
About United Nations Security Council (UNSC): UNSC is one of the five principal organs of the United Nations (UN). It is charged with the maintenance of international peace and security. Powers: (i) establishment of peacekeeping operations, (ii) establishment of international sanctions, (iii) authorization of military action through UNSC resolution. All members of the United Nations agree to accept and carry out the decisions of the Security Council. While other organs of the United Nations make recommendations to member states, only the Security Council has the power to make decisions that member states are then obligated to implement under the Charter. Members: It consists of five permanent, veto-wielding members - China, Russia, France, UK and US along with 10 non-permanent members. The non-permanent seats are allocated according to a rotation pattern set by the UNGA in 1963, to ensure a proportionate representation over time from different parts of the world. Of the 10 members, 5 are from African and Asian states, 1 from Eastern European states, 2 from Latin American states and 2 from Western European and Other states. Recently The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) has elected Ethiopia, Bolivia, Sweden and Kazakhstan as the non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about United Nations Security Council (UNSC): It is charged with the maintenance of international peace and security. It consists of four permanent, veto-wielding members and ten non-permanent members. It is the only UN organ with the power to make decisions that member states are obligated to implement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:About United Nations Security Council (UNSC): UNSC is one of the five principal organs of the United Nations (UN). It is charged with the maintenance of international peace and security. Powers: (i) establishment of peacekeeping operations, (ii) establishment of international sanctions, (iii) authorization of military action through UNSC resolution. All members of the United Nations agree to accept and carry out the decisions of the Security Council. While other organs of the United Nations make recommendations to member states, only the Security Council has the power to make decisions that member states are then obligated to implement under the Charter. Members: It consists of five permanent, veto-wielding members - China, Russia, France, UK and US along with 10 non-permanent members. The non-permanent seats are allocated according to a rotation pattern set by the UNGA in 1963, to ensure a proportionate representation over time from different parts of the world. Of the 10 members, 5 are from African and Asian states, 1 from Eastern European states, 2 from Latin American states and 2 from Western European and Other states. Recently The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) has elected Ethiopia, Bolivia, Sweden and Kazakhstan as the non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Round Table Conferences, 1930-32, consider the following statements: The provisions for the Round Table conferences were made in the Simon Commission report. Indian National Congress did not attend the first and second round table conferences. The discussions at the Round Table Conference formed the basis of Government of India Act, 1935. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The proposal for Round Table conference was made in announcement of Viceroy Irwin in October 31, 1929. Congress attended the Second Round Table Conference. Mahatma Gandhi was appointed the representative of the Congress to the Second Round Table Conference. The principal sources from where the Government of India Act, 1935 drew it inspiration from were: the Nehru report the discussions at the Round Table Conferences the White paper the Joint Select Committee Report the Simon Commission Report the Lothian Report.
|
c
|
Second Round Table Conference, 1931
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Round Table Conferences, 1930-32, consider the following statements: The provisions for the Round Table conferences were made in the Simon Commission report. Indian National Congress did not attend the first and second round table conferences. The discussions at the Round Table Conference formed the basis of Government of India Act, 1935. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The proposal for Round Table conference was made in announcement of Viceroy Irwin in October 31, 1929. Congress attended the Second Round Table Conference. Mahatma Gandhi was appointed the representative of the Congress to the Second Round Table Conference. The principal sources from where the Government of India Act, 1935 drew it inspiration from were: the Nehru report the discussions at the Round Table Conferences the White paper the Joint Select Committee Report the Simon Commission Report the Lothian Report.##Topic:Second Round Table Conference, 1931##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
The Treaty of Lisbon, recently seen in news is related to which of the following?
|
It led to the creation of a common market within European Union.
|
It allows a nation to secede from the European Union.
|
It led to the largest enlargement of European Union adding ten countries at once.
|
It led to the creation of a common market within European Union.
|
The Treaty of Lisbon, which came into effect in 2009, does allow a nation to secede from the European Union. Paragraph 1 of Article 50 of the treaty states: "Any Member State may decide to withdraw from the Union in accordance with its own constitutional requirements."
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Treaty of Lisbon, recently seen in news is related to which of the following?##Option_A: It led to the creation of a common market within European Union.###Option_B: It allows a nation to secede from the European Union.##Option_C: It led to the largest enlargement of European Union adding ten countries at once.##Option_D: It led to the creation of a common market within European Union.##Answer:b##Explaination:The Treaty of Lisbon, which came into effect in 2009, does allow a nation to secede from the European Union. Paragraph 1 of Article 50 of the treaty states: "Any Member State may decide to withdraw from the Union in accordance with its own constitutional requirements."##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to Tropical Cyclones, consider the following statements: Coriolis force is essential for formation of the cyclones. The wind speed is maximum at the eye of the cyclones. They develop only over the oceans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Coriolis force is essential to provide the needed rotation. For e.g. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator. Statement 2 is incorrect: The wind speed is minimum at the eye of the cyclones. The eye of the cyclone is calm and here subsidence of air takes place. Statement 3 is correct: The tropical cyclones are strictly oceanic phenomenon. The source of energy for tropical cyclone is warm oceanic water which provides moisture from sea on a continuous basis. The heat released by the condensation further warms the air. In the land the continuous supply of moisture is not available so tropical cyclones are not formed over land.
|
c
|
Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Tropical Cyclones, consider the following statements: Coriolis force is essential for formation of the cyclones. The wind speed is maximum at the eye of the cyclones. They develop only over the oceans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Coriolis force is essential to provide the needed rotation. For e.g. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator. Statement 2 is incorrect: The wind speed is minimum at the eye of the cyclones. The eye of the cyclone is calm and here subsidence of air takes place. Statement 3 is correct: The tropical cyclones are strictly oceanic phenomenon. The source of energy for tropical cyclone is warm oceanic water which provides moisture from sea on a continuous basis. The heat released by the condensation further warms the air. In the land the continuous supply of moisture is not available so tropical cyclones are not formed over land.##Topic:Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to Thunderstorms, consider the following statements: 1. They are caused by the horizontal movement of moist air between pressure belts. 2. They are always characterised by cumulonimbus cloud and hailstorm. 3. They are essential for development of a tornado. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Thunderstorms are caused by the intense convection of air on moist hot days i.e intense updraft of rising warm air. They are of short duration, occuring over a small area Statement 2 is not correct: Thunderstorms are always associated with cumulonimbus cloud. The cloud can achieve a substantial great height. When clouds increase to such a height where sub zero temperature prevails hails are formed and they come down as hailstorms. So hailstorms are not always associated with thunderstorms. Statement 3 is correct: Thunderstorm is essential condition for a tornado to develop. From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiralling wind descends like a trunk of an elephant with great force, with very low pressure at the centre. Such a phenomenon is called a tornado.
|
c
|
Others
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Thunderstorms, consider the following statements: 1. They are caused by the horizontal movement of moist air between pressure belts. 2. They are always characterised by cumulonimbus cloud and hailstorm. 3. They are essential for development of a tornado. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Thunderstorms are caused by the intense convection of air on moist hot days i.e intense updraft of rising warm air. They are of short duration, occuring over a small area Statement 2 is not correct: Thunderstorms are always associated with cumulonimbus cloud. The cloud can achieve a substantial great height. When clouds increase to such a height where sub zero temperature prevails hails are formed and they come down as hailstorms. So hailstorms are not always associated with thunderstorms. Statement 3 is correct: Thunderstorm is essential condition for a tornado to develop. From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiralling wind descends like a trunk of an elephant with great force, with very low pressure at the centre. Such a phenomenon is called a tornado.##Topic:Others##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following processes are associated with diastrophism? 1. Orogenic processes 2. Epeirogenic process 3. Earthquakes 4. Plate techtonics Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 4 only
|
All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. They include: (i) Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust. In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds. Orogeny is a mountain building process. (ii) Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust. Due to epeirogeny, there may be simple deformation. Epeirogeny is continental building process. (iii) earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements (iv) plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. All these processes cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following processes are associated with diastrophism? 1. Orogenic processes 2. Epeirogenic process 3. Earthquakes 4. Plate techtonics Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 4 only###Option_B:2 and 4 only##Option_C:1, 2, 3 and 4##Option_D:1 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination: All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. They include: (i) Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust. In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds. Orogeny is a mountain building process. (ii) Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust. Due to epeirogeny, there may be simple deformation. Epeirogeny is continental building process. (iii) earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements (iv) plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. All these processes cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following processes are associated with denudation? Weathering Erosion Mass movement Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
All the exogenic geomorphic processes are covered under a general term, denudation. The word 'denude' means to strip off or to uncover. Weathering, mass wasting/movements, erosion and transportation are included in denudation.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following processes are associated with denudation? Weathering Erosion Mass movement Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the exogenic geomorphic processes are covered under a general term, denudation. The word 'denude' means to strip off or to uncover. Weathering, mass wasting/movements, erosion and transportation are included in denudation.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding chemical weathering :
1. Wetting and drying of rock may result in chemical weathering.
2. Oxidation of rock results in chemical weathering.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Wetting and drying of rock is a chemical weathering process.
Hydration is the chemical addition of water. Minerals take up water and expand; this expansion causes an increase in the volume of
the material itself or rock. Calcium sulphate takes in water and turns to gypsum, which is more unstable than calcium sulphate. This
process is reversible and long, continued epetition of this process causes fatigue in the rocks and may lead to their disintegration.
Statement 2 is correct:Oxidation occurs where there is ready access to the atmosphere andoxygenated waters. The minerals most
commonly involved in this process are iron,manganese, sulphur etc. In the process ofoxidation rock breakdown occurs due to the
disturbance caused by addition of oxygen.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding chemical weathering :
1. Wetting and drying of rock may result in chemical weathering.
2. Oxidation of rock results in chemical weathering.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Wetting and drying of rock is a chemical weathering process.
Hydration is the chemical addition of water. Minerals take up water and expand; this expansion causes an increase in the volume of
the material itself or rock. Calcium sulphate takes in water and turns to gypsum, which is more unstable than calcium sulphate. This
process is reversible and long, continued epetition of this process causes fatigue in the rocks and may lead to their disintegration.
Statement 2 is correct:Oxidation occurs where there is ready access to the atmosphere andoxygenated waters. The minerals most
commonly involved in this process are iron,manganese, sulphur etc. In the process ofoxidation rock breakdown occurs due to the
disturbance caused by addition of oxygen.
##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding weathering:
1. Gravitational force has no impact on physical weathering.
2. Both chemical and physical weathering may result in exfoliation .
3. Unloading of rocks favor physical weathering.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Gravitational force affects both physical as well as chemical weathering
Statement 2 is correct: Exfoliation can be caused by both physical as well as chemical weathering
Statement 3 is correct: Unloading of rocks favors physical weather as the pressure above the rock decreases rock expands.
|
b
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding weathering:
1. Gravitational force has no impact on physical weathering.
2. Both chemical and physical weathering may result in exfoliation .
3. Unloading of rocks favor physical weathering.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Gravitational force affects both physical as well as chemical weathering
Statement 2 is correct: Exfoliation can be caused by both physical as well as chemical weathering
Statement 3 is correct: Unloading of rocks favors physical weather as the pressure above the rock decreases rock expands.
##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following processes is/are associated with physical weathering? Frost wedging Salt weathering Temperature changes and expansion Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Option 1 is correct: Freezing, thawing and frost wedging results in physical weathering as it results in periodic expansion and contraction of the rocks. Frost weathering occurs due to growth of ice within pores and cracks of rocks during repeated cycles of freezing and melting. This process is most effective at high elevations in mid-latitudes where freezing and melting is often repeated. Glacial areas are subject to frost wedging daily. In this process, the rate of freezing is important. Rapid freezing of water causes its sudden expansion and high pressure. The resulting expansion affects joints, cracks and small inter granular fractures to become wider and wider till the rock breaks apart. Option 2 is correct: Salt weathering results in physical weathering. Salts in rocks expand due to thermal action, hydration and crystallisation. Salt crystals in near-surface pores cause splitting of individual grains within rocks, which eventually fall off. This process of falling off of individual grains may result in granular disintegration or granular foliation. Option 3 is correct: Various minerals in rocks possess their own limits of expansion and contraction. Because of diurnal changes in the temperatures, the internal movement among the mineral grains of the superficial layers of rocks takes place regularly. Due to differential heating and resulting expansion and contraction of surface layers results into subsequent exfoliation.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following processes is/are associated with physical weathering? Frost wedging Salt weathering Temperature changes and expansion Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Option 1 is correct: Freezing, thawing and frost wedging results in physical weathering as it results in periodic expansion and contraction of the rocks. Frost weathering occurs due to growth of ice within pores and cracks of rocks during repeated cycles of freezing and melting. This process is most effective at high elevations in mid-latitudes where freezing and melting is often repeated. Glacial areas are subject to frost wedging daily. In this process, the rate of freezing is important. Rapid freezing of water causes its sudden expansion and high pressure. The resulting expansion affects joints, cracks and small inter granular fractures to become wider and wider till the rock breaks apart. Option 2 is correct: Salt weathering results in physical weathering. Salts in rocks expand due to thermal action, hydration and crystallisation. Salt crystals in near-surface pores cause splitting of individual grains within rocks, which eventually fall off. This process of falling off of individual grains may result in granular disintegration or granular foliation. Option 3 is correct: Various minerals in rocks possess their own limits of expansion and contraction. Because of diurnal changes in the temperatures, the internal movement among the mineral grains of the superficial layers of rocks takes place regularly. Due to differential heating and resulting expansion and contraction of surface layers results into subsequent exfoliation.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding significance of weathering: Weathering of surface results in rough and uneven topography. It results in enrichment of ores. It is an important process in the formation of soils. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Weathering of surface results in smooth and round surface. It aids in reduction of relief. Statement 2 is correct: When rocks undergo weathering, some materials are removed through chemical or physical leaching by groundwater and thereby the concentration of remaining (valuable) materials increases. Without such a weathering taking place, the concentration of the same valuable material may not be sufficient and economically viable to exploit, process and refine. This is what is called enrichment. Statement 3 is correct: Weathering is an important process in the formation of soils.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding significance of weathering: Weathering of surface results in rough and uneven topography. It results in enrichment of ores. It is an important process in the formation of soils. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Weathering of surface results in smooth and round surface. It aids in reduction of relief. Statement 2 is correct: When rocks undergo weathering, some materials are removed through chemical or physical leaching by groundwater and thereby the concentration of remaining (valuable) materials increases. Without such a weathering taking place, the concentration of the same valuable material may not be sufficient and economically viable to exploit, process and refine. This is what is called enrichment. Statement 3 is correct: Weathering is an important process in the formation of soils.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
All the laws present in India are enacted by the Parliament of India.
The constitution validates all the laws present in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
Parliamentary Forum
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
All the laws present in India are enacted by the Parliament of India.
The constitution validates all the laws present in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Parliamentary Forum##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Council of Ministers (COM), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. COM consists of Lok Sabha only.
2. As per the constitution, COM is the law-making body in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Council of Ministers (COM), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. COM consists of Lok Sabha only.
2. As per the constitution, COM is the law-making body in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the term 'liquidity trap'?
|
It is a situation when money gets held in the banking system due to technical issues.
|
In this situation the interest rate gets increases manifold.
|
Open Market Operation helps in overcoming this situation.
|
It is a situation when money gets held in the banking system due to technical issues.
|
Liquidity trap is a situation when expansionary monetary policy (increase in the money supply) does not increase the interest rate, income and hence does not stimulate economic growth. Liquidity trap is the extreme effect of monetary policy. It is a situation in which the general public is prepared to hold on to whatever amount of money is supplied, at a given rate of interest. They do so because of the fear of adverse events like deflation, war. In that case, a monetary policy carried out through open market operations has no effect on either the interest rate or the level of income. In a liquidity trap, the monetary policy is powerless to affect the interest rate. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is correct regarding the term 'liquidity trap'?##Option_A: It is a situation when money gets held in the banking system due to technical issues. ###Option_B:In this situation the interest rate gets increases manifold. ##Option_C:Open Market Operation helps in overcoming this situation. ##Option_D: It is a situation when money gets held in the banking system due to technical issues. ##Answer:d##Explaination:Liquidity trap is a situation when expansionary monetary policy (increase in the money supply) does not increase the interest rate, income and hence does not stimulate economic growth. Liquidity trap is the extreme effect of monetary policy. It is a situation in which the general public is prepared to hold on to whatever amount of money is supplied, at a given rate of interest. They do so because of the fear of adverse events like deflation, war. In that case, a monetary policy carried out through open market operations has no effect on either the interest rate or the level of income. In a liquidity trap, the monetary policy is powerless to affect the interest rate. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Constitutionalism, consider the following statements:
1. Democratically formed constitution is necessary to ensure constitutionalism. 2. The parliament is supreme in constitutionalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Constitutionalism, consider the following statements:
1. Democratically formed constitution is necessary to ensure constitutionalism. 2. The parliament is supreme in constitutionalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Constitutionalism, consider the following statements:
1. Democratically formed constitution is necessary to ensure constitutionalism. 2. The presence of constitution guarantees constitutionalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Constitutionalism, consider the following statements:
1. Democratically formed constitution is necessary to ensure constitutionalism. 2. The presence of constitution guarantees constitutionalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The office of the Attorney General is created by the Constitution of India. 2. The Attorney General is barred from private legal practice. 3. The Attorney General holds the office during the pleasure of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India (AG) . He is the highest law officer in the country. In addition to the AG, there are the solicitor general of India and the additional solicitor general of India. But only the office of the AG is created by the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct. The AG is not a member of the Central cabinet and is not a fulltime counsel for the Government. Hence, it does not fall into the category of government servants. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice . Hence statement 2 is not correct. The Constitution does not fix the term of AG, does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. Hence statement 3 is correct. Conventionally , he resigns when the government of the day resigns or is replaced , as he is appointed on its advice.
|
c
|
Attorney General of India
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The office of the Attorney General is created by the Constitution of India. 2. The Attorney General is barred from private legal practice. 3. The Attorney General holds the office during the pleasure of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India (AG) . He is the highest law officer in the country. In addition to the AG, there are the solicitor general of India and the additional solicitor general of India. But only the office of the AG is created by the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct. The AG is not a member of the Central cabinet and is not a fulltime counsel for the Government. Hence, it does not fall into the category of government servants. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice . Hence statement 2 is not correct. The Constitution does not fix the term of AG, does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. Hence statement 3 is correct. Conventionally , he resigns when the government of the day resigns or is replaced , as he is appointed on its advice. ##Topic:Attorney General of India##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Countries having written constitutions, consider the following statements: 1. In those countries parliament is the supreme authority. 2. Judiciary has limited power in those countries. 3. In those countries, every enactment of laws made by the parliament becomes part of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Countries having written constitutions, consider the following statements: 1. In those countries parliament is the supreme authority. 2. Judiciary has limited power in those countries. 3. In those countries, every enactment of laws made by the parliament becomes part of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Countries having written constitution, consider the following statements:
1. In those countries parliament is the supreme authority.
2. Judiciary has limited power in those countries.
3. In those countries, every enactment of laws made by the parliament becomes part of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
nan
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Countries having written constitution, consider the following statements:
1. In those countries parliament is the supreme authority.
2. Judiciary has limited power in those countries.
3. In those countries, every enactment of laws made by the parliament becomes part of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The executive is part of the legislature in the Presidential system of government.
2. There is a clear-cut separation of powers in the Presidential System.
3. The parliamentary democracy offers more accountability and less stability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
b
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. The executive is part of the legislature in the Presidential system of government.
2. There is a clear-cut separation of powers in the Presidential System.
3. The parliamentary democracy offers more accountability and less stability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
प्राचीन भारत में शिक्षा के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये;
हड़प्पा सभ्यता की शिक्षा व्यवस्था के संदर्भ में दावे के साथ कुछ कह नहीं सकते लेकिन किसी न किसी रूप में वैज्ञानिक शिक्षा का प्रचलन था|
वैदिक काल के साथ शिक्षा के नियमित साक्ष्य मिलने लगते हैं|
उपर्युक्त में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
|
केवल 1
|
केवल 2
|
1 और 2 दोनों
|
केवल 1
|
nan
|
c
|
Others
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:प्राचीन भारत में शिक्षा के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये;
हड़प्पा सभ्यता की शिक्षा व्यवस्था के संदर्भ में दावे के साथ कुछ कह नहीं सकते लेकिन किसी न किसी रूप में वैज्ञानिक शिक्षा का प्रचलन था|
वैदिक काल के साथ शिक्षा के नियमित साक्ष्य मिलने लगते हैं|
उपर्युक्त में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?##Option_A:केवल 1 ###Option_B:केवल 2 ##Option_C:1 और 2 दोनों ##Option_D:केवल 1 ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Others##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with reference to tax expenditure: 1. It is the expenditure incurred by the Government in the collection of taxes. 2. A statement of tax expenditure is presented to the Parliament at the time of Union Budget as a separate budget document. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Tax expenditure refers to the opportunity cost of taxing at concessional rates, or the opportunity cost of giving exemptions, deductions, rebates, deferrals credits etc. to the tax payers. Tax expenditures indicate how much more revenue could have been collected by the Government if not for such measures. In other words, it shows the extent of indirect subsidy enjoyed by the tax payers in the country. Hence statement 1 is not correct Tax expenditures or the revenue forgone are sanctioned in the tax laws. A statement of the same, (as far as Federal / Union / Central Government is concerned) is presented to the Parliament at the time of Union Budget by way of a separate budget document titled “Statement of Revenue Foregone”. Hence statement 2 is correct. It lists the revenue impact of tax incentives or tax subsidies that are part of the tax system of the Central Government. This document also estimates the revenue to be foregone during the proposed financial year on the basis of the revenue foregone figures of the previous financial year. Tax expenditures or revenue foregone statement was laid before Parliament for the first time during Budget 2006-07 by way of Annex-12 of the Receipts Budget 2006-07. The practice has been continuing since then and is submitted as a separate document since 2007-08. This gave credence to the Government’s intention of bringing about transparency in the matter of tax policy and tax expenditures.
|
b
|
Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to tax expenditure: 1. It is the expenditure incurred by the Government in the collection of taxes. 2. A statement of tax expenditure is presented to the Parliament at the time of Union Budget as a separate budget document. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Tax expenditure refers to the opportunity cost of taxing at concessional rates, or the opportunity cost of giving exemptions, deductions, rebates, deferrals credits etc. to the tax payers. Tax expenditures indicate how much more revenue could have been collected by the Government if not for such measures. In other words, it shows the extent of indirect subsidy enjoyed by the tax payers in the country. Hence statement 1 is not correct Tax expenditures or the revenue forgone are sanctioned in the tax laws. A statement of the same, (as far as Federal / Union / Central Government is concerned) is presented to the Parliament at the time of Union Budget by way of a separate budget document titled “Statement of Revenue Foregone”. Hence statement 2 is correct. It lists the revenue impact of tax incentives or tax subsidies that are part of the tax system of the Central Government. This document also estimates the revenue to be foregone during the proposed financial year on the basis of the revenue foregone figures of the previous financial year. Tax expenditures or revenue foregone statement was laid before Parliament for the first time during Budget 2006-07 by way of Annex-12 of the Receipts Budget 2006-07. The practice has been continuing since then and is submitted as a separate document since 2007-08. This gave credence to the Government’s intention of bringing about transparency in the matter of tax policy and tax expenditures.##Topic:Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Development, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Object##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding mass movements: Weathering is a pre requisite for mass movement. It is aided by geomorphic agents like water, glacier and wind. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Weathering is not a pre-requisite for mass movement though it aids mass movements. Mass movements are very active over weathered slopes rather than over unweathered materials. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mass movements are aided by gravity and no geomorphic agent like running water, glaciers, wind, waves and currents participate in the process of mass movements. That means mass movements do not come under erosion though there is a shift (aided by gravity) of materials from one place to another.weathering environment and physical changes due to growth or movement of organisms.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding mass movements: Weathering is a pre requisite for mass movement. It is aided by geomorphic agents like water, glacier and wind. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Weathering is not a pre-requisite for mass movement though it aids mass movements. Mass movements are very active over weathered slopes rather than over unweathered materials. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mass movements are aided by gravity and no geomorphic agent like running water, glaciers, wind, waves and currents participate in the process of mass movements. That means mass movements do not come under erosion though there is a shift (aided by gravity) of materials from one place to another.weathering environment and physical changes due to growth or movement of organisms.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statement,:
1. Solifluction does not occur in temperate regions.
2. Landslide is a rapid mass movement of saturated soil
3. Humid climatic conditions promote Rapid mass movement
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: solifluctionwhich involves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine grained rock debris saturated or lubricated with water. This process is quite common in moist temperate areas where surface melting of deeply frozen ground and long continued rain respectively, occur frequently. When the upper portions get saturated and when the lower parts are impervious to water percolation, flowing occurs in the upper parts..
Statement 2 is incorrect: Landslides are known as relatively rapid and perceptible movements. The materials involved are relatively dry.
Statement 3 is correct:Rapid mass movements are mostly prevalent in humid climatic regions and occur over gentle to steep slopes. Movement of water-saturated clayey or silty earth materials down low-angle terraces or hillsides is known as earthflow. Quite often, the materials slump making step-like terraces and leaving arcuate scarps at their heads and an accumulation bulge at the toe. When slopes are steeper, even the bedrock especially of soft sedimentary rocks like shale or deeply weathered igneous rock may slide downslope.
|
a
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement,:
1. Solifluction does not occur in temperate regions.
2. Landslide is a rapid mass movement of saturated soil
3. Humid climatic conditions promote Rapid mass movement
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: solifluctionwhich involves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine grained rock debris saturated or lubricated with water. This process is quite common in moist temperate areas where surface melting of deeply frozen ground and long continued rain respectively, occur frequently. When the upper portions get saturated and when the lower parts are impervious to water percolation, flowing occurs in the upper parts..
Statement 2 is incorrect: Landslides are known as relatively rapid and perceptible movements. The materials involved are relatively dry.
Statement 3 is correct:Rapid mass movements are mostly prevalent in humid climatic regions and occur over gentle to steep slopes. Movement of water-saturated clayey or silty earth materials down low-angle terraces or hillsides is known as earthflow. Quite often, the materials slump making step-like terraces and leaving arcuate scarps at their heads and an accumulation bulge at the toe. When slopes are steeper, even the bedrock especially of soft sedimentary rocks like shale or deeply weathered igneous rock may slide downslope.
##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following processes are classified as Rapid mass movement? 1. Creep 2. Solifluction 3. Earthflow 4. Avalanche Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
3 and 4 only
|
Creep: is one type of mass movement which can occur on moderately steep, soil covered slopes. Movement of materials is extremely slow and imperceptible except through extended observation. Solifluction: which involves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine grained rock debris saturated or lubricated with water. Earthflow and Avalanche are classified as Rapid Movements. Earthflow : Movement of water-saturated clayey or silty earth materials down low-angle terraces or hillsides is known as earthflow. Avalanche : It is a characteristic of humid regions with or without vegetation cover and occurs in narrow tracks on steep slopes. Therefore, option 3 and 4 are correct.
|
a
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following processes are classified as Rapid mass movement? 1. Creep 2. Solifluction 3. Earthflow 4. Avalanche Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:3 and 4 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:1, 2, 3 and 4##Option_D:3 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Creep: is one type of mass movement which can occur on moderately steep, soil covered slopes. Movement of materials is extremely slow and imperceptible except through extended observation. Solifluction: which involves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine grained rock debris saturated or lubricated with water. Earthflow and Avalanche are classified as Rapid Movements. Earthflow : Movement of water-saturated clayey or silty earth materials down low-angle terraces or hillsides is known as earthflow. Avalanche : It is a characteristic of humid regions with or without vegetation cover and occurs in narrow tracks on steep slopes. Therefore, option 3 and 4 are correct.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following agents of erosion: 1. Running water 2. Wind 3. Ground water 4. Wave Which of the above is/are controlled by local climatic conditions ?
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
The erosion and transportation of earth materials is brought about by wind, running water, glaciers, waves and ground water. Of these, the first three agents- wind, running water and glaciers are controlled by climatic conditions. The work of the two agents of erosion-waves and ground water is not controlled by climate. In case of waves it is the location along the interface of litho and hydro sphere — coastal region — that will determine the work of waves, whereas the work of ground water is determined more by the lithological character of the region.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following agents of erosion: 1. Running water 2. Wind 3. Ground water 4. Wave Which of the above is/are controlled by local climatic conditions ?##Option_A:1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2, 3 and 4##Option_D:1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The erosion and transportation of earth materials is brought about by wind, running water, glaciers, waves and ground water. Of these, the first three agents- wind, running water and glaciers are controlled by climatic conditions. The work of the two agents of erosion-waves and ground water is not controlled by climate. In case of waves it is the location along the interface of litho and hydro sphere — coastal region — that will determine the work of waves, whereas the work of ground water is determined more by the lithological character of the region.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following indicate that Climate change is a natural and continuous process? 1. Sediment deposits in glacial lakes. 2. Geomorphological features in high altitudes and latitudes. 3. Rings in the trees. 4. Rajastan region earlier experienced wet and cool climate. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only.
|
1 and 3 only.
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only.
|
All the statements are correct. These three statements indicate that climate change is natural process. Sediment deposits in glacial lakes reveal the occurence of warm and cold periods. The geomorphological features in high altitudes and high latitudes exhibit traces of advances and retreats of glaciers. The rings in the trees provide clues about wet and dry periods.
|
d
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following indicate that Climate change is a natural and continuous process? 1. Sediment deposits in glacial lakes. 2. Geomorphological features in high altitudes and latitudes. 3. Rings in the trees. 4. Rajastan region earlier experienced wet and cool climate. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only.###Option_B:1 and 3 only.##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only.##Answer:d##Explaination:All the statements are correct. These three statements indicate that climate change is natural process. Sediment deposits in glacial lakes reveal the occurence of warm and cold periods. The geomorphological features in high altitudes and high latitudes exhibit traces of advances and retreats of glaciers. The rings in the trees provide clues about wet and dry periods.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to a particular region, consider the following statements: The temperature of the region is uniformly high. Annual range of temperature is very small. Rainfall occurs in every month of the year. The above statements describe which one of the following types of climate?
|
Tropical Monsoon climate
|
Tropical wet and dry climate
|
Tropical wet climate
|
Tropical Monsoon climate
|
Option (a) is incorrect. In Tropical Monsoon Climate, rainfall occurs mostly in summer. Winter is dry. Optiion (b) is incorrect. In Tropical wet and dry regions, the wet season is shorter and dry season is longer. Option (c) is correct. In Tropical wet climate, Rainfall occurs throughout the year, the annual range of temperature is negligible and there is uniformly high temperature as they lie in the equatorial region. Option (d) is incorrect. In humid sub-tropical climate, although rainfall occurs throughout the year, the annual range of temperature is not very small. However, the daily range of temperature is small.
|
c
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to a particular region, consider the following statements: The temperature of the region is uniformly high. Annual range of temperature is very small. Rainfall occurs in every month of the year. The above statements describe which one of the following types of climate?##Option_A: Tropical Monsoon climate###Option_B: Tropical wet and dry climate##Option_C: Tropical wet climate##Option_D: Tropical Monsoon climate##Answer:c##Explaination:Option (a) is incorrect. In Tropical Monsoon Climate, rainfall occurs mostly in summer. Winter is dry. Optiion (b) is incorrect. In Tropical wet and dry regions, the wet season is shorter and dry season is longer. Option (c) is correct. In Tropical wet climate, Rainfall occurs throughout the year, the annual range of temperature is negligible and there is uniformly high temperature as they lie in the equatorial region. Option (d) is incorrect. In humid sub-tropical climate, although rainfall occurs throughout the year, the annual range of temperature is not very small. However, the daily range of temperature is small.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
The effectiveness of any Green House Gas (GHG) molecules depends on which of the following factors? Magnitude of its concentration Its lifetime in the atmosphere Wavelength of the radiation it absorbs Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The effectiveness of any GHG molecule depends upon 3 factors: Magnitude of its concentration. Its lifetime in the atmosphere, that is, the duration for which it stays in the atmosphere. Wavelength of the radiation it absorbs.
|
d
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The effectiveness of any Green House Gas (GHG) molecules depends on which of the following factors? Magnitude of its concentration Its lifetime in the atmosphere Wavelength of the radiation it absorbs Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The effectiveness of any GHG molecule depends upon 3 factors: Magnitude of its concentration. Its lifetime in the atmosphere, that is, the duration for which it stays in the atmosphere. Wavelength of the radiation it absorbs.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Koeppen"s system of climatic classification based on which of the following parameters? Temperature Precipitation Distribution of vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Koeppen recognised five major climatic groups, four of them are based on temperature and one on precipitation. Koeppen identified a close relationship between the distribution of vegetation and climate. He selected certain values of temperature and precipitation and related them to the distribution of vegetation and used these values for classifying the climates thus he only takes Temperature and precipitation as a parameter to classify the climatic group.
|
b
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Koeppen"s system of climatic classification based on which of the following parameters? Temperature Precipitation Distribution of vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Koeppen recognised five major climatic groups, four of them are based on temperature and one on precipitation. Koeppen identified a close relationship between the distribution of vegetation and climate. He selected certain values of temperature and precipitation and related them to the distribution of vegetation and used these values for classifying the climates thus he only takes Temperature and precipitation as a parameter to classify the climatic group.##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1.The warm temperate type of climate extends between 30 degree and 50 degree latitude on both western and eastern margins of the
continent.
2.Humid subtropical climate (Cfa) is similar to Tropical wet and dry (Aw) type of climate but it has warm winters.
3.The North Indian plains experience Humid sub-tropical climate(Cfa).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct.The warm temperate climates extend between 30 and 50 degree latitude .They are also called as mid-lattitude type of climate.
Statement 2 is incorrect.The humid subtropical (Cfa) is not similar to Tropical wet and dry(Aw).But humid subtropical (Cwa) is similar to Tropical wet and dry (Aw) except that Aw has warm winters.
Statement 3 is incorrect.The North Indian plains and interiors of South China experience Humid subtropical climate (Cwa) and not Humid subtropical (Cfa) type of climate.The winters are dry and summers are hot in Cwa type of climate whereas Cfa has no dry season with rainfall throughout the year.
|
a
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1.The warm temperate type of climate extends between 30 degree and 50 degree latitude on both western and eastern margins of the
continent.
2.Humid subtropical climate (Cfa) is similar to Tropical wet and dry (Aw) type of climate but it has warm winters.
3.The North Indian plains experience Humid sub-tropical climate(Cfa).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct.The warm temperate climates extend between 30 and 50 degree latitude .They are also called as mid-lattitude type of climate.
Statement 2 is incorrect.The humid subtropical (Cfa) is not similar to Tropical wet and dry(Aw).But humid subtropical (Cwa) is similar to Tropical wet and dry (Aw) except that Aw has warm winters.
Statement 3 is incorrect.The North Indian plains and interiors of South China experience Humid subtropical climate (Cwa) and not Humid subtropical (Cfa) type of climate.The winters are dry and summers are hot in Cwa type of climate whereas Cfa has no dry season with rainfall throughout the year.
##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: 1 Transport of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels by downward precipitation of water is called illuviation. 2. Deposition of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels is called eluviations. 3. Salts form into a crust in the soil due to water logging is known as hardpans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Eluviation is the transport of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels by downward precipitation of water. Statement 2 is incorrect: Accumulation of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels is called Illuviation. Statement 3 is correct: In dry climates, because of high temperature, evaporation exceeds precipitation and hence ground water is brought up to the surface by capillary action and in the process the water evaporates leaving behind salts in the soil. Such salts form into a crust in the soil known as hardpans.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1 Transport of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels by downward precipitation of water is called illuviation. 2. Deposition of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels is called eluviations. 3. Salts form into a crust in the soil due to water logging is known as hardpans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Eluviation is the transport of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels by downward precipitation of water. Statement 2 is incorrect: Accumulation of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels is called Illuviation. Statement 3 is correct: In dry climates, because of high temperature, evaporation exceeds precipitation and hence ground water is brought up to the surface by capillary action and in the process the water evaporates leaving behind salts in the soil. Such salts form into a crust in the soil known as hardpans.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding soils of tundra region: They are characterised by high bacterial activity. They show deeper soil profiles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Intensity of bacterial activity shows up differences between soils of cold and warm climates. Humus accumulates in cold climates as bacterial growth is slow. Therefore, soils of these regions are characterised by low bacterial activity due to which layers of peat develop in these regions. Statement 2 is incorrect. Soils of Tundra regions contain largely mechanically broken materials whereas tropical soils show deeper profiles.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding soils of tundra region: They are characterised by high bacterial activity. They show deeper soil profiles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. Intensity of bacterial activity shows up differences between soils of cold and warm climates. Humus accumulates in cold climates as bacterial growth is slow. Therefore, soils of these regions are characterised by low bacterial activity due to which layers of peat develop in these regions. Statement 2 is incorrect. Soils of Tundra regions contain largely mechanically broken materials whereas tropical soils show deeper profiles.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following best describe the relationship between Relative Humidity (R.H.) and dew point?
|
R.H. will be minimum when the dew point and the ambient temperature are the same.
|
R.H. will be 100% when the dew point and the ambient temperature are the same.
|
R.H. and the dew point are the two concepts that are mutually exclusive and hence one does not affect the other.
|
R.H. will be minimum when the dew point and the ambient temperature are the same.
|
The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature is said to be saturated. It means that the air at the given temperature is incapable of holding any additional amount of moisture at that stage. The temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air is known as dew point. When the dew point equals the air temperature, the air is saturated andthe relative humidity is %100. The dew point temperature tells us nothing about how many water molecules are in the atmosphere or how close theair is to a relative humidity of 100%. To know how close the air is to saturation, we need to know the dew point and the air temperature. The closer the dew point is to the air temperature, the closer the air is to saturation. The temperature, the dew point temperature, and the relative humidity are related to one another. Thus at dew point air will be at its maximum capacity to hold moisture and hence Relative Humidity will be 100%. Hence option (a) is not correct and (b) is the correct answer. Option (c) is not correct: as they do affect each other as can be seen above. Option (d) is not correct: as Dew point being as absolute measure is often cited as better way of measuring the humidity.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following best describe the relationship between Relative Humidity (R.H.) and dew point?##Option_A:R.H. will be minimum when the dew point and the ambient temperature are the same.###Option_B:R.H. will be 100% when the dew point and the ambient temperature are the same.##Option_C:R.H. and the dew point are the two concepts that are mutually exclusive and hence one does not affect the other.##Option_D:R.H. will be minimum when the dew point and the ambient temperature are the same.##Answer:b##Explaination:The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature is said to be saturated. It means that the air at the given temperature is incapable of holding any additional amount of moisture at that stage. The temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air is known as dew point. When the dew point equals the air temperature, the air is saturated andthe relative humidity is %100. The dew point temperature tells us nothing about how many water molecules are in the atmosphere or how close theair is to a relative humidity of 100%. To know how close the air is to saturation, we need to know the dew point and the air temperature. The closer the dew point is to the air temperature, the closer the air is to saturation. The temperature, the dew point temperature, and the relative humidity are related to one another. Thus at dew point air will be at its maximum capacity to hold moisture and hence Relative Humidity will be 100%. Hence option (a) is not correct and (b) is the correct answer. Option (c) is not correct: as they do affect each other as can be seen above. Option (d) is not correct: as Dew point being as absolute measure is often cited as better way of measuring the humidity.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Inter-State Council?
|
It can recommend on issues relating to Centre-state and Centre-union territories relations.
|
Its decisions are not binding.
|
The Union Home Minister acts as the Chairman of the Standing Committee of the Council.
|
It can recommend on issues relating to Centre-state and Centre-union territories relations.
|
Inter-State Council is a recommendatory body on issues relating to inter-state, Centre-state, and Centre-union territories relations. Its decisions are not binding. The Union Home Minister acts as the Chairman of the Standing Committee of the Council. It also consists of 4 other Union Ministers and Chief Ministers of 8 States apart from the Union Home Minister as the Chairman. Inter-State Council Secretariat was set up in 1991 and is headed by a Secretary to the Government of India. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Inter-State Council?##Option_A:It can recommend on issues relating to Centre-state and Centre-union territories relations.###Option_B:Its decisions are not binding.##Option_C:The Union Home Minister acts as the Chairman of the Standing Committee of the Council.##Option_D:It can recommend on issues relating to Centre-state and Centre-union territories relations.##Answer:d##Explaination:Inter-State Council is a recommendatory body on issues relating to inter-state, Centre-state, and Centre-union territories relations. Its decisions are not binding. The Union Home Minister acts as the Chairman of the Standing Committee of the Council. It also consists of 4 other Union Ministers and Chief Ministers of 8 States apart from the Union Home Minister as the Chairman. Inter-State Council Secretariat was set up in 1991 and is headed by a Secretary to the Government of India. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following conditions are suitable for the formation of dew? Cloudy sky Cold and long nights Calm air High relative humidity Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Dew is the condensation phenomenon observed when the skies are clear and not cloudy hence option 1 is wrong. The rest of the conditions like cold air and long nights, calm air in the environment and high relative density aid the formation of dew.
|
d
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following conditions are suitable for the formation of dew? Cloudy sky Cold and long nights Calm air High relative humidity Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Dew is the condensation phenomenon observed when the skies are clear and not cloudy hence option 1 is wrong. The rest of the conditions like cold air and long nights, calm air in the environment and high relative density aid the formation of dew.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Type of clouds Characteristics 1. Cirrus : Detached Clouds having feather like appearance 2. Cumulus : Looks like cotton wool and exist in patches 3. Stratus : Layered clouds formed by mixing of air masses of different temperatures Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
According to their height, expanse, density and transparency or opaqueness clouds are grouped under four types : (i) cirrus; (ii) cumulus; (iii) stratus; (iv) nimbus. Cirrus Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 - 12,000m). They are thin and detached clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in color. Cumulus Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4,000 -7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base. Stratus As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures. Nimbus Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses o f thick vapor.
|
d
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Type of clouds Characteristics 1. Cirrus : Detached Clouds having feather like appearance 2. Cumulus : Looks like cotton wool and exist in patches 3. Stratus : Layered clouds formed by mixing of air masses of different temperatures Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:According to their height, expanse, density and transparency or opaqueness clouds are grouped under four types : (i) cirrus; (ii) cumulus; (iii) stratus; (iv) nimbus. Cirrus Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 - 12,000m). They are thin and detached clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in color. Cumulus Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4,000 -7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base. Stratus As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures. Nimbus Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses o f thick vapor.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are associated with retreating monsoon in India ?
Low pressure over Ganga plains
Cyclonic rainfall over Tamil Nadu coast
October heat
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct. The south-west monsoon starts retreating from northern india in early October. Hence, the months of October and November are known for retreating monsoon. The reason for this retreat is that the monsoon trough of low pressure over the Ganga plains becomes weaker due to the apparent movement of the sun. The low pressure trough is gradually replaced by high pressure.
Statement 2 is correct. The low pressure conditions from Ganga plains are transferred to the centre of Bay of Bengal by early November. This shift of low pressure area is marked by cyclonic depressions which originate over the Andaman Sea. Some of the cyclonic depressions manage to cross the eastern coasts of southern peninsula resulting in heavy and widespread rains on the coast of Tamil Nadu and Orissa.
Statement 3 is correct. The retreat of monsoon is marked by clear skies and drop in night temperature. The land remains moist. The combination of high temperature and humidity gives rise to an oppressive weather. This is commonly known as 'October heat'
|
c
|
Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are associated with retreating monsoon in India ?
Low pressure over Ganga plains
Cyclonic rainfall over Tamil Nadu coast
October heat
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct. The south-west monsoon starts retreating from northern india in early October. Hence, the months of October and November are known for retreating monsoon. The reason for this retreat is that the monsoon trough of low pressure over the Ganga plains becomes weaker due to the apparent movement of the sun. The low pressure trough is gradually replaced by high pressure.
Statement 2 is correct. The low pressure conditions from Ganga plains are transferred to the centre of Bay of Bengal by early November. This shift of low pressure area is marked by cyclonic depressions which originate over the Andaman Sea. Some of the cyclonic depressions manage to cross the eastern coasts of southern peninsula resulting in heavy and widespread rains on the coast of Tamil Nadu and Orissa.
Statement 3 is correct. The retreat of monsoon is marked by clear skies and drop in night temperature. The land remains moist. The combination of high temperature and humidity gives rise to an oppressive weather. This is commonly known as 'October heat'
##Topic:Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding soil is/are correct?
1. Fertile soil should have sufficient depth to enable growth of plant roots.
2. Sedimentary soil is mainly formed by deposition of sediments transported through wind and water.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; Both 1 and 2
|
nbsp; 1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct because fertile soil is not only rich in nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium along with organic matter and moisture, but it should also have the strength to support plant growth. A thin layer of soil will not support growth of roots.
Statement 2 is not correct because sedimentary soil or residuary soil is formed ‘in situ’ by breaking up of parent rocks. Transported soil is deposited by wind and water.
|
a
|
Classification of Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding soil is/are correct?
1. Fertile soil should have sufficient depth to enable growth of plant roots.
2. Sedimentary soil is mainly formed by deposition of sediments transported through wind and water.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; Both 1 and 2
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct because fertile soil is not only rich in nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium along with organic matter and moisture, but it should also have the strength to support plant growth. A thin layer of soil will not support growth of roots.
Statement 2 is not correct because sedimentary soil or residuary soil is formed ‘in situ’ by breaking up of parent rocks. Transported soil is deposited by wind and water.
##Topic:Classification of Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
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