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Using which of the following parliamentary tools can the Rajya Sabha exercise control over the executive? 1. Privilege motion 2. Adjournment motion 3. Half-an-hour discussions 4. Censure motion Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
The Constitution of India established a parliamentary form of government in which the Executive is responsible to both the houses for its policies and acts. Some of the accountability upholding devices available to both the houses are: Privilege Motion: It is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges by a minister . It is moved by a member when he feels that a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. Its purpose is to censure the concerned ministe r. Hence option 1 is correct. Question-Hour : During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers . The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice. A starred question: requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow. An unstarred question: It requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow. A short notice question: It is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally Zero hour : It is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day Half-an-hour discussion : It is meant for discussing a matter of sufficient public importance, which has been subjected to a lot of debate and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact. There is no formal motion or voting before the House. Hence option 3 is correct. Calling attention motion: It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary However, unlike the zero hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure However there are certain accountability devices that are exclusively available to Lok Sabha only as these put a from of censure against the government, Adjournment m otion: It is introduced to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes. Hence option 2 is not correct. No-Confidence Motion: Article 75 of the Constitution says that the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Therefore Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing a no-confidence motion. The motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted censure motion and other discussions. It need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and moved against the entire council of ministers only. I f it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office. Censure Motion: It is also a form of censure against the government, for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers. Hence option 4 is not correct.
|
c
|
Working of the Rajya Sabha
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Using which of the following parliamentary tools can the Rajya Sabha exercise control over the executive? 1. Privilege motion 2. Adjournment motion 3. Half-an-hour discussions 4. Censure motion Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:1, 2 and 4 only ###Option_B:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 4 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:The Constitution of India established a parliamentary form of government in which the Executive is responsible to both the houses for its policies and acts. Some of the accountability upholding devices available to both the houses are: Privilege Motion: It is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges by a minister . It is moved by a member when he feels that a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. Its purpose is to censure the concerned ministe r. Hence option 1 is correct. Question-Hour : During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers . The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice. A starred question: requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow. An unstarred question: It requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow. A short notice question: It is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally Zero hour : It is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day Half-an-hour discussion : It is meant for discussing a matter of sufficient public importance, which has been subjected to a lot of debate and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact. There is no formal motion or voting before the House. Hence option 3 is correct. Calling attention motion: It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary However, unlike the zero hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure However there are certain accountability devices that are exclusively available to Lok Sabha only as these put a from of censure against the government, Adjournment m otion: It is introduced to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes. Hence option 2 is not correct. No-Confidence Motion: Article 75 of the Constitution says that the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Therefore Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing a no-confidence motion. The motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted censure motion and other discussions. It need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and moved against the entire council of ministers only. I f it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office. Censure Motion: It is also a form of censure against the government, for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers. Hence option 4 is not correct. ##Topic:Working of the Rajya Sabha##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. In India Gondwana coals are found in Damodar Valley and Godavari Valley
2. Lignite is not found in the state of Rajasthan
3. Russia has the lowest natural gas reserve in the World
4. Coal bed methane is found in all the regions where coal is present
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. In India Gondwana coals are found in Damodar Valley and Godavari Valley
2. Lignite is not found in the state of Rajasthan
3. Russia has the lowest natural gas reserve in the World
4. Coal bed methane is found in all the regions where coal is present
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1, 2, and 3 only ###Option_B:1 and 4 only ##Option_C:3 and 4 only ##Option_D:1, 2, and 3 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
Coal is predominantly found in the rift valley regions
India has the largest deposit of mica in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Mineral Resourcesclassification and distribution
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Coal is predominantly found in the rift valley regions
India has the largest deposit of mica in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Mineral Resourcesclassification and distribution##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following differences between the adjournment and prorogation of parliamentary sessions: 1. While the adjournment is done by the Presiding Officer of the House, the prorogation of the House is done by the President. 2. While the adjournment does not affect the bills, the prorogation of the House results in the lapsing of bills and motions pending before it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period spanning between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation. During a session, the House meets every day to transact business. The period spanning between the prorogation of a House and its reassembly in a new session is called ‘recess’. A session of Parliament consists of many meetings. Each meeting of a day consists of two sittings, that is, a morning sitting from 11 am to 1 pm and post-lunch sitting from 2 pm to 6 pm. A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by adjournment or adjournment sine die or prorogation or dissolution (in the case of the Lok Sabha). An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours, days or weeks. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period. Whereas prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House. An adjournment is done by presiding officer of the House, whereas prorogation is done by the President of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Adjournment does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House and the same can be resumed when the House meets again. Prorogation also does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Dissolution would result in the lapse of all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions and so on pending before it or its committees.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following differences between the adjournment and prorogation of parliamentary sessions: 1. While the adjournment is done by the Presiding Officer of the House, the prorogation of the House is done by the President. 2. While the adjournment does not affect the bills, the prorogation of the House results in the lapsing of bills and motions pending before it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period spanning between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation. During a session, the House meets every day to transact business. The period spanning between the prorogation of a House and its reassembly in a new session is called ‘recess’. A session of Parliament consists of many meetings. Each meeting of a day consists of two sittings, that is, a morning sitting from 11 am to 1 pm and post-lunch sitting from 2 pm to 6 pm. A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by adjournment or adjournment sine die or prorogation or dissolution (in the case of the Lok Sabha). An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours, days or weeks. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period. Whereas prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House. An adjournment is done by presiding officer of the House, whereas prorogation is done by the President of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Adjournment does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House and the same can be resumed when the House meets again. Prorogation also does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Dissolution would result in the lapse of all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions and so on pending before it or its committees. ##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the Rajya Sabha: 1. A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha must be an elector in the state from where he seeks to be elected. 2. A member elected in a bye-election shall remain as Rajya Sabha member only for the remainder of the term. 3. The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year. Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times. Hence, statement 3 is correct. To be chosen a member of the Parliament, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency. The requirement that a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular state should be an elector in that particular state was dispensed within 2003. In 2006, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of this change. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. A Rajya Sabha member is elected for a full term of six years. The election held to fill a vacancy arising otherwise than by retirement of a member on the expiration of his term of office is called ‘Bye-election’. A member elected in a bye-election remains a member for the remainder of the term of the member who had resigned or died or disqualified to be a member of the House under the Tenth Schedule. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to the Rajya Sabha: 1. A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha must be an elector in the state from where he seeks to be elected. 2. A member elected in a bye-election shall remain as Rajya Sabha member only for the remainder of the term. 3. The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year. Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times. Hence, statement 3 is correct. To be chosen a member of the Parliament, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency. The requirement that a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular state should be an elector in that particular state was dispensed within 2003. In 2006, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of this change. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. A Rajya Sabha member is elected for a full term of six years. The election held to fill a vacancy arising otherwise than by retirement of a member on the expiration of his term of office is called ‘Bye-election’. A member elected in a bye-election remains a member for the remainder of the term of the member who had resigned or died or disqualified to be a member of the House under the Tenth Schedule. Hence, statement 2 is correct.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
मौर्योत्तर कालीन अर्थव्यवस्था के संदर्भ में सिक्कों से संबंधित निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए -
सातवाहनों द्वारा जारी सोने के सिक्कों के पर्याप्त साक्ष्य मिलते हैं|
कुषाणों के सिक्के गुणवत्ता के दृष्टिकोण से प्राचीन भारत में सर्वश्रेष्ठ सिक्के माने गए हैं|
मौर्योत्तर काल में बड़ी संख्या में रोमन सिक्कों के भी साक्ष्य मिलते हैं|
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही नहीं है/हैं ?
|
केवल 1
|
केवल 1 तथा 2
|
केवल 1 तथा 3
|
केवल 1
|
nan
|
a
|
Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan Age
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:मौर्योत्तर कालीन अर्थव्यवस्था के संदर्भ में सिक्कों से संबंधित निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए -
सातवाहनों द्वारा जारी सोने के सिक्कों के पर्याप्त साक्ष्य मिलते हैं|
कुषाणों के सिक्के गुणवत्ता के दृष्टिकोण से प्राचीन भारत में सर्वश्रेष्ठ सिक्के माने गए हैं|
मौर्योत्तर काल में बड़ी संख्या में रोमन सिक्कों के भी साक्ष्य मिलते हैं|
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही नहीं है/हैं ? ##Option_A:केवल 1 ###Option_B:केवल 1 तथा 2 ##Option_C:केवल 1 तथा 3 ##Option_D:केवल 1 ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Mauryan Age & Post Mauryan Age##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
Britain, France, Germany, the USA, and Italy were the traditional producers of cotton textiles
India and Bangladesh are the major producers of Jute
Due to lack of technology India does not produce all the types of Silk
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Britain, France, Germany, the USA, and Italy were the traditional producers of cotton textiles
India and Bangladesh are the major producers of Jute
Due to lack of technology India does not produce all the types of Silk
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:1 and 2 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Temperate region fishes are low in demand as compared to tropical regions
2. Fishes have a higher shelf life in the tropical region as compared to the temperate region
3. Southern continents are not as much into fishing as the northern continents
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Temperate region fishes are low in demand as compared to tropical regions
2. Fishes have a higher shelf life in the tropical region as compared to the temperate region
3. Southern continents are not as much into fishing as the northern continents
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Cantonment Board, consider the following statements:
1. Cantonment Board is under the direct control of the Ministry of Defence. 2. The 74th Constitutional amendment did not prescribe for Cantonment Board. 3. All the members of the Cantonment Board are directly elected by people residing in the Cantonment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Cantonment Board, consider the following statements:
1. Cantonment Board is under the direct control of the Ministry of Defence. 2. The 74th Constitutional amendment did not prescribe for Cantonment Board. 3. All the members of the Cantonment Board are directly elected by people residing in the Cantonment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Industrial Council, consider the following statements:
1. The State legislature of a State may declare an area to be an Industrial Council 2. The 74th Constitutional amendment made it obligatory on the part of State to constitute Industrial Council 3. It is completely a nominated body
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Industrial Council, consider the following statements:
1. The State legislature of a State may declare an area to be an Industrial Council 2. The 74th Constitutional amendment made it obligatory on the part of State to constitute Industrial Council 3. It is completely a nominated body
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:3 only ##Option_C:1 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The State legislature may make provisions for the composition of District Planning Committees and Metropolitan Planning Committees. 2. Governor of a State may make the provisions for the manner of election of the members of the Metropolitan Planning Committees. 3. The Constitution of India provides for the manner of election of the Chairpersons of District Planning Committees
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. The State legislature may make provisions for the composition of District Planning Committees and Metropolitan Planning Committees. 2. Governor of a State may make the provisions for the manner of election of the members of the Metropolitan Planning Committees. 3. The Constitution of India provides for the manner of election of the Chairpersons of District Planning Committees
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
महावीर की शिक्षाओं के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये;
इनकी शिक्षाओं का भी मुख्य लक्ष्य निर्वाण या मोक्ष की प्राप्ति है बौद्ध धर्म के विपरीत जैन धर्म में मोक्ष के लिए कठोर तपस्या के द्वारा शरीर त्याग को आवश्यक माना गया है (सल्लेखना / संथारा)|
बुद्ध की तरह महावीर का भी मानना था कि अज्ञानता के कारण आवागमन के चक्र में व्यक्ति फंसा रहता है |
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
|
केवल 1
|
केवल 2
|
1 और 2 दोनों
|
केवल 1
|
nan
|
c
|
Religion and Philosophy
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:महावीर की शिक्षाओं के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये;
इनकी शिक्षाओं का भी मुख्य लक्ष्य निर्वाण या मोक्ष की प्राप्ति है बौद्ध धर्म के विपरीत जैन धर्म में मोक्ष के लिए कठोर तपस्या के द्वारा शरीर त्याग को आवश्यक माना गया है (सल्लेखना / संथारा)|
बुद्ध की तरह महावीर का भी मानना था कि अज्ञानता के कारण आवागमन के चक्र में व्यक्ति फंसा रहता है |
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?##Option_A:केवल 1 ###Option_B:केवल 2 ##Option_C:1 और 2 दोनों ##Option_D:केवल 1 ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The representative of the People Act 1950 main deals with the preparation and revision of electoral rolls 2. Chief Election Commissioner is removed from office by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers 3. The rules made for elections are made by parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The representative of the People Act 1950 main deals with the preparation and revision of electoral rolls 2. Chief Election Commissioner is removed from office by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers 3. The rules made for elections are made by parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)& Election Commissioners, consider the following statements: 1. CEC holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. 2. After retirement, he can control an office of profit 3. Election Commissioners are removed in the same manner as the judges of Supreme Courts Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
d
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)& Election Commissioners, consider the following statements: 1. CEC holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. 2. After retirement, he can control an office of profit 3. Election Commissioners are removed in the same manner as the judges of Supreme Courts Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Decisions of Election Commission are subject to judicial review of the Court 2. Election Commission is the sole authority to decide on the schedule of election 3. President or Governor shall issue notice for elections on the advice of Election Commission Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Decisions of Election Commission are subject to judicial review of the Court 2. Election Commission is the sole authority to decide on the schedule of election 3. President or Governor shall issue notice for elections on the advice of Election Commission Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Murshid Quli Khan was the first regional governor of Hyderabad province.
2. The decline of the Mughal Empire led to frequent conflicts among various regional governors.
Which of the above statements given above are correct?
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 Only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Murshid Quli Khan was the first regional governor of Hyderabad province.
2. The decline of the Mughal Empire led to frequent conflicts among various regional governors.
Which of the above statements given above are correct?
##Option_A:1 Only
###Option_B:2 Only
##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 Only
##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
सहायक संधि के प्रावधानों के सम्बन्ध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये-
संधि कर्त्ता राज्यों की सुरक्षा की जिम्मेदारी कम्पनी पर होगी|
इसके एवज में संप्रभुता युक्त भू-भाग कंपनी को दिया जाएगा|
संधि कर्त्ता राज्यों से धन भी लिया जाता था|
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से कथन सत्य है/हैं-
|
1 एवं 2
|
2 एवं 3
|
1 एवं 3
|
1 एवं 2
|
nan
|
d
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:सहायक संधि के प्रावधानों के सम्बन्ध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये-
संधि कर्त्ता राज्यों की सुरक्षा की जिम्मेदारी कम्पनी पर होगी|
इसके एवज में संप्रभुता युक्त भू-भाग कंपनी को दिया जाएगा|
संधि कर्त्ता राज्यों से धन भी लिया जाता था|
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से कथन सत्य है/हैं-##Option_A:1 एवं 2 ###Option_B:2 एवं 3 ##Option_C:1 एवं 3 ##Option_D:1 एवं 2 ##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
सहायक संधि को आरम्भ किया-
|
वेलेजली ने
|
डूप्ले ने
|
वारेन हेस्टिंग्स ने
|
वेलेजली ने
|
nan
|
b
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:सहायक संधि को आरम्भ किया-##Option_A:वेलेजली ने###Option_B:डूप्ले ने ##Option_C:वारेन हेस्टिंग्स ने ##Option_D:वेलेजली ने##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
हिन्द महासागर के उत्तरी -पूर्वी मानसून धारा के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये;
1- यह केवल शीत ऋतु में प्रवाहित होती है| 2- उत्तर पूर्वी मानसूनी हवाएं जो स्थल से जल की ओर चलती है| 3- इसके कारण उत्तरी हिन्द महासागर में उत्तर -पूर्वी मानसून की धारा प्रवाहित होती है|
उपर्युक्त में से सत्य कथनों/कथन का चुनाव कीजिये;
|
केवल 1 और 2
|
केवल 1 और 3
|
केवल 2 और 3
|
केवल 1 और 2
|
nan
|
d
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:हिन्द महासागर के उत्तरी -पूर्वी मानसून धारा के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये;
1- यह केवल शीत ऋतु में प्रवाहित होती है| 2- उत्तर पूर्वी मानसूनी हवाएं जो स्थल से जल की ओर चलती है| 3- इसके कारण उत्तरी हिन्द महासागर में उत्तर -पूर्वी मानसून की धारा प्रवाहित होती है|
उपर्युक्त में से सत्य कथनों/कथन का चुनाव कीजिये;##Option_A:केवल 1 और 2 ###Option_B:केवल 1 और 3 ##Option_C:केवल 2 और 3 ##Option_D:केवल 1 और 2 ##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With respect to the constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Constitution regulates the relationship between citizens and the state.
2. Constitution reflects the ideology and philosophy of the nation.
3. Preamble reflects the philosophy of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2
|
Only 2
|
All of the above
|
1 and 2
|
.
|
c
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With respect to the constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Constitution regulates the relationship between citizens and the state.
2. Constitution reflects the ideology and philosophy of the nation.
3. Preamble reflects the philosophy of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:All of the above##Option_D:1 and 2##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following Portuguese Viceroys in India introduced ‘Blue Water Policy’?
|
Vasco da Gama
|
Francisco d’ Almeida
|
Nino da Cunha
|
Vasco da Gama
|
Dom Francisco d’ Almeida , also known as the Great Dom Francisco, was a Portuguese nobleman, soldier and explorer. He distinguished himself as a counsellor to King John II of Portugal and later in the wars against the Moors and in the conquest of Granada in 1492. In 1505 he was appointed as the first governor and viceroy of the Portuguese State of India. Almeida followed the ‘Blue Water Policy’ and is credited with establishing Portuguese hegemony in the Indian Ocean with his victory at the naval Battle of Diu in 1509. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Before Almeida returned to Portugal he lost his life in a conflict with indigenous people at the Cape of Good Hope in 1510. Vasco da Gama was nominated as Portuguese viceroy in India and sent to deal with the mounting corruption among Portuguese authorities there. Arriving in Cochin, he fell ill and died on 24 December 1524. In 1539, his body was taken back to Portugal for burial. Two more viceroys played a significant role in consolidating the Portuguese empire in India. They are Nino da Cunha and Antonio de Noronha.
|
b
|
The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Portuguese Viceroys in India introduced ‘Blue Water Policy’?##Option_A:Vasco da Gama###Option_B:Francisco d’ Almeida##Option_C:Nino da Cunha##Option_D:Vasco da Gama##Answer:b##Explaination:Dom Francisco d’ Almeida , also known as the Great Dom Francisco, was a Portuguese nobleman, soldier and explorer. He distinguished himself as a counsellor to King John II of Portugal and later in the wars against the Moors and in the conquest of Granada in 1492. In 1505 he was appointed as the first governor and viceroy of the Portuguese State of India. Almeida followed the ‘Blue Water Policy’ and is credited with establishing Portuguese hegemony in the Indian Ocean with his victory at the naval Battle of Diu in 1509. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Before Almeida returned to Portugal he lost his life in a conflict with indigenous people at the Cape of Good Hope in 1510. Vasco da Gama was nominated as Portuguese viceroy in India and sent to deal with the mounting corruption among Portuguese authorities there. Arriving in Cochin, he fell ill and died on 24 December 1524. In 1539, his body was taken back to Portugal for burial. Two more viceroys played a significant role in consolidating the Portuguese empire in India. They are Nino da Cunha and Antonio de Noronha. ##Topic:The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Historical place Well-known for 1. Sinauli Prehistoric caves 2. Burzahom Pit-houses 3. Masroor Rock-cut shrines Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
In 2019, ASI (Archaeological Survey of India) had declared the site and remains at Sinauli in Uttar Pradesh's Baghpat district to be of National Importance. It reveals a late Harappan period necropolis- the largest known burial site in India datable to around the early part of the second millennium BCE. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. In Burzahom (present-day Kashmir) people built pit-houses, which were dug into the ground, with steps leading into them. These may have provided shelter in cold weather. Archaeologists have also found cooking hearths both inside and outside the huts, which suggests that, depending on the weather, people could cook food either indoors or outdoors. H ence pair 2 is correctly matched. The Masroor Temples, also referred to as Masrur Temples or Rock-cut Temples at Masroor, i s an early 8th-century complex of rock-cut Hindu temples in the Kangra Valley of Beas River in Himachal Pradesh, India. The temples face northeast, towards the Dhauladhar range of the Himalayas. They are a version of North Indian Nagara architecture style, dedicated to Shiva, Vishnu, Devi, and Saura traditions of Hinduism, with its surviving iconography likely inspired by a monotheistic framework. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
|
a
|
GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Historical place Well-known for 1. Sinauli Prehistoric caves 2. Burzahom Pit-houses 3. Masroor Rock-cut shrines Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:2 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In 2019, ASI (Archaeological Survey of India) had declared the site and remains at Sinauli in Uttar Pradesh's Baghpat district to be of National Importance. It reveals a late Harappan period necropolis- the largest known burial site in India datable to around the early part of the second millennium BCE. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. In Burzahom (present-day Kashmir) people built pit-houses, which were dug into the ground, with steps leading into them. These may have provided shelter in cold weather. Archaeologists have also found cooking hearths both inside and outside the huts, which suggests that, depending on the weather, people could cook food either indoors or outdoors. H ence pair 2 is correctly matched. The Masroor Temples, also referred to as Masrur Temples or Rock-cut Temples at Masroor, i s an early 8th-century complex of rock-cut Hindu temples in the Kangra Valley of Beas River in Himachal Pradesh, India. The temples face northeast, towards the Dhauladhar range of the Himalayas. They are a version of North Indian Nagara architecture style, dedicated to Shiva, Vishnu, Devi, and Saura traditions of Hinduism, with its surviving iconography likely inspired by a monotheistic framework. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.##Topic:GS_History_Ancient and Medival_unclassified##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Arrange the following Mahajanpadas existing during the 6th century BC from East to West: 1. Gandhara 2. Anga 3. Kuru 4. Asmaka Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2-3-4-1
|
2-4-3-1
|
4-2-3-1
|
2-3-4-1
|
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Mahajanapadas
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arrange the following Mahajanpadas existing during the 6th century BC from East to West: 1. Gandhara 2. Anga 3. Kuru 4. Asmaka Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:2-3-4-1###Option_B:2-4-3-1##Option_C:4-2-3-1##Option_D:2-3-4-1##Answer:b##Explaination:Hence option (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Mahajanapadas##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to Preamble, consider the following statements:
It is an essential part of constitution.
It cannot be amended by the parliament.
It provides for French style of secular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Preamble, consider the following statements:
It is an essential part of constitution.
It cannot be amended by the parliament.
It provides for French style of secular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements: 1. The word “secular “was added by the 44th constitutional amendment act. 2. The ideals of the welfare state are enshrined in the preamble. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements: 1. The word “secular “was added by the 44th constitutional amendment act. 2. The ideals of the welfare state are enshrined in the preamble. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Special Economic Zones, consider the following statements: It refers to a specially demarcated territory with tax holidays and exemptions from duties for export and import. A major objective of setting up a SEZ is to attract Foreign Direct Investment and earn foreign exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: SEZ refers to a specially demarcated territory usually known as 'deemed foreign territory' with tax holidays, exemption from duties for export and import, world level economic and social infrastructure for production and augmentation of export activities within the territory along with facilities like abundant and relatively cheap labour, strategic location and market access etc. Statement 2 is correct: The major objectives of setting up a SEZ are to attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), earn foreign exchange and contribute to exchange rate stability, boost the export sector especially non traditional exports, to create employment opportunities, introduce new technology, develop backward regions etc. by stimulating sectors as electronics, information technology, R & D, tourism, infrastructure and human resource development that are regarded as strategically important to the economy.
|
c
|
Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Special Economic Zones, consider the following statements: It refers to a specially demarcated territory with tax holidays and exemptions from duties for export and import. A major objective of setting up a SEZ is to attract Foreign Direct Investment and earn foreign exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: SEZ refers to a specially demarcated territory usually known as 'deemed foreign territory' with tax holidays, exemption from duties for export and import, world level economic and social infrastructure for production and augmentation of export activities within the territory along with facilities like abundant and relatively cheap labour, strategic location and market access etc. Statement 2 is correct: The major objectives of setting up a SEZ are to attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), earn foreign exchange and contribute to exchange rate stability, boost the export sector especially non traditional exports, to create employment opportunities, introduce new technology, develop backward regions etc. by stimulating sectors as electronics, information technology, R & D, tourism, infrastructure and human resource development that are regarded as strategically important to the economy.##Topic:Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
The step Jatiswaram is related to which of the following dance?
|
Bharatnatyam
|
Kuchipudi
|
Odissi
|
Bharatnatyam
|
nan
|
a
|
Indian Dance
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The step Jatiswaram is related to which of the following dance?##Option_A:Bharatnatyam###Option_B:Kuchipudi##Option_C:Odissi##Option_D:Bharatnatyam##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Indian Dance##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements- 1. The origin of Indian dance can be traced back to Bharata Muni. 2. There are two basic aspects of Indian classical dance: Tandava and Lashya Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements- 1. The origin of Indian dance can be traced back to Bharata Muni. 2. There are two basic aspects of Indian classical dance: Tandava and Lashya Which of the above given statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Which one of the following statements is best describe the term ‘Redactive Pricing Audit’ often mentioned in the news?
|
Audit that included environmental cost of deforestation before collecting CAMPA fund from industries.
|
Audit that taken into account the principles of economy, efficiency and effectiveness in examination public sector undertakings.
|
Audit from which sensitive information is removed before its publication.
|
Audit that included environmental cost of deforestation before collecting CAMPA fund from industries.
|
Redactive pricing audit of CAG in Rafale deal case. Redaction is the selection or adaption by ‘obscuring or removing sensitive information’ from a document prior to publication. The CAG is mandated to audit all receipts and expenditures of the three-tier governments in India and report to the legislature judiciously, independently, objectively in compliance with applicable laws, rules and regulations, without fear and favour. In the preface of the audit report, the CAG stated that reductive pricing was unprecedented but had to be accepted due to the Ministry’s insistence citing security concerns. Consequently, the full commercial details were withheld and the figures on the procurement deal were blackened. It was unprecedented that an audit report submitted by the CAG to the President under Article 151 of the Constitution suppressed relevant information.
|
c
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following statements is best describe the term ‘Redactive Pricing Audit’ often mentioned in the news?##Option_A:Audit that included environmental cost of deforestation before collecting CAMPA fund from industries.###Option_B:Audit that taken into account the principles of economy, efficiency and effectiveness in examination public sector undertakings.##Option_C:Audit from which sensitive information is removed before its publication.##Option_D:Audit that included environmental cost of deforestation before collecting CAMPA fund from industries.##Answer:c##Explaination:Redactive pricing audit of CAG in Rafale deal case. Redaction is the selection or adaption by ‘obscuring or removing sensitive information’ from a document prior to publication. The CAG is mandated to audit all receipts and expenditures of the three-tier governments in India and report to the legislature judiciously, independently, objectively in compliance with applicable laws, rules and regulations, without fear and favour. In the preface of the audit report, the CAG stated that reductive pricing was unprecedented but had to be accepted due to the Ministry’s insistence citing security concerns. Consequently, the full commercial details were withheld and the figures on the procurement deal were blackened. It was unprecedented that an audit report submitted by the CAG to the President under Article 151 of the Constitution suppressed relevant information.##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Meteorological drought is the reduction of rainfall.
2. Hydrological drought is the reduction of water available in terms of surface and groundwater
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Meteorological drought is the reduction of rainfall.
2. Hydrological drought is the reduction of water available in terms of surface and groundwater
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
What are the benefits of linking of the major rivers in India?
Eradication of famine
Prevention of flood
Protective irrigation
Navigational Channel
Cooperative federalism
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
4 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
.
|
d
|
Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What are the benefits of linking of the major rivers in India?
Eradication of famine
Prevention of flood
Protective irrigation
Navigational Channel
Cooperative federalism
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:4 and 5 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
Virtual water is the water used for producing one unit of any agricultural produce.
Peninsular part of the country is naturally not suitable for tank irrigation.
Aquifer is an underground or subsurface region with a huge water storage capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
GS_Geography_unclassified
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Virtual water is the water used for producing one unit of any agricultural produce.
Peninsular part of the country is naturally not suitable for tank irrigation.
Aquifer is an underground or subsurface region with a huge water storage capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:GS_Geography_unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Humus is the organic matter which provides nutrients to the plants 2. The uppermost horizon of the soil is less rich in humus and minerals Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Humus is the organic matter which provides nutrients to the plants 2. The uppermost horizon of the soil is less rich in humus and minerals Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Under Representation of People"s Act, 1951 Election Commission of India(ECI) has the power to cancel polls if there is Use of muscle power Booth capturing Use of money power Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Recently ECI cancelled polls in Aravakurichi and Thanjavur constituencies in Tamil Nadu following evidence of use of money and gifts to influence the voters. At present, there is no specific provision in the law to cancel polls in case of use of money power and commission has to resort to extraordinary powers under Article 324 of constitution. Clause 58 A of RPA,1951 empowers the Election Commission to cancel polls only if there is an evidence of booth capturing or use of muscle power. The Election Commission of India is demanding amendment to RPA to include specific powers to postpone or countermand polls on the grounds of use of money power. At present, there is no specific provision in the law to this effect and commission has to resort to extraordinary powers under Article 324 of constitution which, it feels should be used sparingly. While elections are normally cancelled following evidence of rigging, muscle power or booth capturing, it was the first time this was being done because of voters being bribed with money, the EC said in a statement, citing instances of money seizures in the two constituencies and various judicial observations.
|
a
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under Representation of People"s Act, 1951 Election Commission of India(ECI) has the power to cancel polls if there is Use of muscle power Booth capturing Use of money power Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Recently ECI cancelled polls in Aravakurichi and Thanjavur constituencies in Tamil Nadu following evidence of use of money and gifts to influence the voters. At present, there is no specific provision in the law to cancel polls in case of use of money power and commission has to resort to extraordinary powers under Article 324 of constitution. Clause 58 A of RPA,1951 empowers the Election Commission to cancel polls only if there is an evidence of booth capturing or use of muscle power. The Election Commission of India is demanding amendment to RPA to include specific powers to postpone or countermand polls on the grounds of use of money power. At present, there is no specific provision in the law to this effect and commission has to resort to extraordinary powers under Article 324 of constitution which, it feels should be used sparingly. While elections are normally cancelled following evidence of rigging, muscle power or booth capturing, it was the first time this was being done because of voters being bribed with money, the EC said in a statement, citing instances of money seizures in the two constituencies and various judicial observations.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the office of profit, consider the following statements: It is defined in the Constitution of India. A person holding only the office of minister in the state government is deemed to hold an office of profit. Both Parliament and state legislatures have power to exempt offices from the purview of office of profit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The expression 'office of profit' has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. They have been mentioned in Article 102 and 191 of the Constitution. According to Article 102 (1) (a), a person shall be disqualified as a member of Parliament for holding any office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state, "other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder". Article 191 (1) (a) has a similar provision for the members of state assemblies. However, based on past judgments, the Election Commission has noted five below tests for what constitutes an office of profit: Whether the government makes the appointment Whether the government has the right to remove or dismiss the holder. Whether the government pays remuneration. What the functions of the holder are. Does the government exercise any control over the performance of these functions. Statement 2 is not correct: Articles 102 and 191 clarify that "a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state by reason only that he is a minister". Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 102 and Article 191 of the Constitution, both parliament and state legislatures have the power to exempt an office from the purview of the office of profit.
|
a
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the office of profit, consider the following statements: It is defined in the Constitution of India. A person holding only the office of minister in the state government is deemed to hold an office of profit. Both Parliament and state legislatures have power to exempt offices from the purview of office of profit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 3 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 3 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The expression 'office of profit' has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. They have been mentioned in Article 102 and 191 of the Constitution. According to Article 102 (1) (a), a person shall be disqualified as a member of Parliament for holding any office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state, "other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder". Article 191 (1) (a) has a similar provision for the members of state assemblies. However, based on past judgments, the Election Commission has noted five below tests for what constitutes an office of profit: Whether the government makes the appointment Whether the government has the right to remove or dismiss the holder. Whether the government pays remuneration. What the functions of the holder are. Does the government exercise any control over the performance of these functions. Statement 2 is not correct: Articles 102 and 191 clarify that "a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state by reason only that he is a minister". Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 102 and Article 191 of the Constitution, both parliament and state legislatures have the power to exempt an office from the purview of the office of profit.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about Human Genome Project – Write. 1. It aims at synthesizing a complete human genome synthetically. 2. It is the continuation of the Human Genome Project - Read which failed to decipher the human genome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. This project is a 10 year extension of earlier Human Genome Project – Read and aims at synthesis of human and other genomes. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Human Genome Project (HGP) was a large, international and multi-institutional effort that took 13 years [1990-2003] and $2.7 billion to produce a blueprint of the sequence of genes and spaces between genes that make up a typical human genome. The new project is not a continuation of the old one. Statement 3 is incorrect. This project will be managed by the Centre of Excellence for Engineering Biology, a new non-profit organization.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Human Genome Project – Write. 1. It aims at synthesizing a complete human genome synthetically. 2. It is the continuation of the Human Genome Project - Read which failed to decipher the human genome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. This project is a 10 year extension of earlier Human Genome Project – Read and aims at synthesis of human and other genomes. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Human Genome Project (HGP) was a large, international and multi-institutional effort that took 13 years [1990-2003] and $2.7 billion to produce a blueprint of the sequence of genes and spaces between genes that make up a typical human genome. The new project is not a continuation of the old one. Statement 3 is incorrect. This project will be managed by the Centre of Excellence for Engineering Biology, a new non-profit organization. ##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
T.S.R Subramanian committee was constituted for which of the following purposes?
|
To suggest reforms in civil services
|
To review models of Public Private Partnership
|
To suggest a new national education policy
|
To suggest reforms in civil services
|
The T.S.R. Subramanian committee was constituted for the evolution of a New Education Policy. Some of the important recommendations of the report are: 1) An Indian Education Service (IES) should be established as an All India Service with the Human Resource Development (HRD) ministry as cadre controlling authority. 2) The outlay on education should be raised to at least 6% of GDP without further loss of time. 3) There should be minimum eligibility condition with 50% marks at graduate level for entry to existing B.Ed courses. Teacher Entrance Tests (TET) should be made compulsory for recruitment of all teachers. The Centre and states should jointly lay down norms and standards for TET. 4) Compulsory licensing or certification for teachers in government and private schools should be made mandatory, with provision for renewal every 10 years based on independent external testing. 5) Pre-school education for children in the age group of 4 to 5 years should be declared as a right and a programme for it implemented immediately. 6) The no detention policy must be continued for young children until completion of class V when the child will be 11 years old. At the upper primary stage, the system of detention shall be restored subject to the provision of remedial coaching and at least two extra chances being offered to prove his capability to move to a higher class 7) On-demand board exams should be introduced to offer flexibility and reduce year end stress of students and parents. A National Level Test open to every student who has completed class XII from any School Board should be designed. 8) The mid-day meal (MDM) program should now be extended to cover students of secondary schools. This is necessary as levels of malnutrition and anaemia continue to be high among adolescents. 9) UGC Act must be allowed to lapse once a separate law is created for the management of higher education. The University Grants Commission (UGC) needs to be made leaner and thinner and given the role of disbursal of scholarships and fellowships. 10) Top 200 foreign universities should be allowed to open campuses in India and give the same degree which is acceptable in the home country of the said university. 11) Holding teachers and headmasters accountable for learning outcomes; their career progression will be linked to their performance. 12) fair and equitable deployment of teachers across regions and between rural and urban areas. 13) it has called for transforming at least 1,000 institutes of higher learning into world-class universities so as to stop the migration to foreign universities.
|
c
|
Reports(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:T.S.R Subramanian committee was constituted for which of the following purposes?##Option_A: To suggest reforms in civil services###Option_B: To review models of Public Private Partnership##Option_C: To suggest a new national education policy##Option_D: To suggest reforms in civil services##Answer:c##Explaination:The T.S.R. Subramanian committee was constituted for the evolution of a New Education Policy. Some of the important recommendations of the report are: 1) An Indian Education Service (IES) should be established as an All India Service with the Human Resource Development (HRD) ministry as cadre controlling authority. 2) The outlay on education should be raised to at least 6% of GDP without further loss of time. 3) There should be minimum eligibility condition with 50% marks at graduate level for entry to existing B.Ed courses. Teacher Entrance Tests (TET) should be made compulsory for recruitment of all teachers. The Centre and states should jointly lay down norms and standards for TET. 4) Compulsory licensing or certification for teachers in government and private schools should be made mandatory, with provision for renewal every 10 years based on independent external testing. 5) Pre-school education for children in the age group of 4 to 5 years should be declared as a right and a programme for it implemented immediately. 6) The no detention policy must be continued for young children until completion of class V when the child will be 11 years old. At the upper primary stage, the system of detention shall be restored subject to the provision of remedial coaching and at least two extra chances being offered to prove his capability to move to a higher class 7) On-demand board exams should be introduced to offer flexibility and reduce year end stress of students and parents. A National Level Test open to every student who has completed class XII from any School Board should be designed. 8) The mid-day meal (MDM) program should now be extended to cover students of secondary schools. This is necessary as levels of malnutrition and anaemia continue to be high among adolescents. 9) UGC Act must be allowed to lapse once a separate law is created for the management of higher education. The University Grants Commission (UGC) needs to be made leaner and thinner and given the role of disbursal of scholarships and fellowships. 10) Top 200 foreign universities should be allowed to open campuses in India and give the same degree which is acceptable in the home country of the said university. 11) Holding teachers and headmasters accountable for learning outcomes; their career progression will be linked to their performance. 12) fair and equitable deployment of teachers across regions and between rural and urban areas. 13) it has called for transforming at least 1,000 institutes of higher learning into world-class universities so as to stop the migration to foreign universities.##Topic:Reports(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding ‘Good Country’ 2015 Index is/are correct?
1. It is a biannual index to measure contribution of a country towards common good of humanity and what it takes away as per its size.
2. It takes into account the different indices of World Bank and UN towards contributions to science, culture, health, equality etc.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as the Good Country Index is a biannual index.
Statement 2 is correct as there are various UN and World Bank indices which indicate contribution of a country towards science, health, peace, equality, justice etc. India is ranked 70 th in 163 nations.China is 67 th . Sweden is at number 1 while Libya is at the bottom.
|
c
|
Reports(International)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding ‘Good Country’ 2015 Index is/are correct?
1. It is a biannual index to measure contribution of a country towards common good of humanity and what it takes away as per its size.
2. It takes into account the different indices of World Bank and UN towards contributions to science, culture, health, equality etc.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as the Good Country Index is a biannual index.
Statement 2 is correct as there are various UN and World Bank indices which indicate contribution of a country towards science, health, peace, equality, justice etc. India is ranked 70 th in 163 nations.China is 67 th . Sweden is at number 1 while Libya is at the bottom.
##Topic:Reports(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The recently launched Swachh Yug campaign aims to
|
create awareness about cleanliness among youths all over India.
|
ensure solid waste management in cities along river Ganga.
|
end the practice of open defecation in villages along Ganga through behavioral changes.
|
create awareness about cleanliness among youths all over India.
|
As part of its efforts to make villages located along Ganga open defecation-free, Government has launched a campaign 'Swachh Yug', a collaborative effort of three Union Ministries, to bring about behavioural change among people staying in villages along the holy river.
There are 5,169 villages located along Ganga falling under 1,651 gram panchayats (GPs) in 52 districts of five states - UP, Uttarakhand , Bihar , Jharkhand and West Bengal from where the holy river flows through.
The Union Ministries of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Water Resources and Youth Affairs are working on the campaign in a collaborative manner.
The campaign, being a collaborative effort between the Swachh Bharat Mission, local youth leaders (युवा) and the Namami Gange project (गंगा) - is being called ‘Swachh यु-ग’, which translates into ‘the age of Swachh’.
|
c
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The recently launched Swachh Yug campaign aims to##Option_A: create awareness about cleanliness among youths all over India. ###Option_B: ensure solid waste management in cities along river Ganga. ##Option_C: end the practice of open defecation in villages along Ganga through behavioral changes. ##Option_D: create awareness about cleanliness among youths all over India. ##Answer:c##Explaination:
As part of its efforts to make villages located along Ganga open defecation-free, Government has launched a campaign 'Swachh Yug', a collaborative effort of three Union Ministries, to bring about behavioural change among people staying in villages along the holy river.
There are 5,169 villages located along Ganga falling under 1,651 gram panchayats (GPs) in 52 districts of five states - UP, Uttarakhand , Bihar , Jharkhand and West Bengal from where the holy river flows through.
The Union Ministries of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Water Resources and Youth Affairs are working on the campaign in a collaborative manner.
The campaign, being a collaborative effort between the Swachh Bharat Mission, local youth leaders (युवा) and the Namami Gange project (गंगा) - is being called ‘Swachh यु-ग’, which translates into ‘the age of Swachh’.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The term Lone Wolf, often seen in news is
|
a critically endangered species found in Western Ghats.
|
an individual committing violent attacks without support from any group.
|
an exo-planet orbiting a Sun-like star.
|
a critically endangered species found in Western Ghats.
|
A lone wolf or lone-wolf terrorist is someone who prepares and commits violent acts alone, outside of any command structure and without material assistance from any group. However, he or she may be influenced or motivated by the ideology and beliefs of an external group, and may act in support of such a group They are different from the sleeper cells who are the operatives who infiltrate the targeted society or organization and then remain dormant until a group or organization orders them to take action. In contrast, A lone wolf is a stand alone operative who by his very nature is embedded in the targeted society and is capable of self-activation at any time. Recent mass shooting in Orlando, Florida brought the issue of Lone wolf style terrorist attack across the globe. Over the last 3 years, such terrorist attacks have been on the rise.
|
b
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term Lone Wolf, often seen in news is##Option_A: a critically endangered species found in Western Ghats.###Option_B: an individual committing violent attacks without support from any group.##Option_C: an exo-planet orbiting a Sun-like star.##Option_D: a critically endangered species found in Western Ghats.##Answer:b##Explaination:A lone wolf or lone-wolf terrorist is someone who prepares and commits violent acts alone, outside of any command structure and without material assistance from any group. However, he or she may be influenced or motivated by the ideology and beliefs of an external group, and may act in support of such a group They are different from the sleeper cells who are the operatives who infiltrate the targeted society or organization and then remain dormant until a group or organization orders them to take action. In contrast, A lone wolf is a stand alone operative who by his very nature is embedded in the targeted society and is capable of self-activation at any time. Recent mass shooting in Orlando, Florida brought the issue of Lone wolf style terrorist attack across the globe. Over the last 3 years, such terrorist attacks have been on the rise.##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to Draft National Water Framework Bill, consider the following statements: It proposes that every person would be entitled to water for life that shall not be denied on the ground of inability to pay. It proposes a graded pricing system for domestic water supply for different income groups. The guidelines under the framework will be binding on the states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The draft National Water Framework Bill says every person would be entitled to “water for life” that shall not be denied to anyone on the ground of inability to pay. It defines this “water for life” as that basic requirement that is necessary for the “fundamental right of life of each human being, including drinking, cooking, bathing, sanitation, personal hygiene and related personal and domestic uses”. This would also include the additional requirement for women “for their special needs” and the water required by domestic livestock. This minimum water requirement would be determined by the “appropriate” governments from time to time.
Statement 2 is correct. The proposed law wants to introduce a “graded pricing system” for domestic water supply, with full cost recovery pricing for high-income groups, “affordable pricing” for middle-income, and a “certain quantum of free supply” to the poor. Alternatively, a minimal quantum of water may be supplied free to all.
Statement 3 is not correct. As water is a state subject, these guidelines will not be binding on states. It is being proposed as a model legislation that can be adopted by states.
|
b
|
Reports(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Draft National Water Framework Bill, consider the following statements: It proposes that every person would be entitled to water for life that shall not be denied on the ground of inability to pay. It proposes a graded pricing system for domestic water supply for different income groups. The guidelines under the framework will be binding on the states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. The draft National Water Framework Bill says every person would be entitled to “water for life” that shall not be denied to anyone on the ground of inability to pay. It defines this “water for life” as that basic requirement that is necessary for the “fundamental right of life of each human being, including drinking, cooking, bathing, sanitation, personal hygiene and related personal and domestic uses”. This would also include the additional requirement for women “for their special needs” and the water required by domestic livestock. This minimum water requirement would be determined by the “appropriate” governments from time to time.
Statement 2 is correct. The proposed law wants to introduce a “graded pricing system” for domestic water supply, with full cost recovery pricing for high-income groups, “affordable pricing” for middle-income, and a “certain quantum of free supply” to the poor. Alternatively, a minimal quantum of water may be supplied free to all.
Statement 3 is not correct. As water is a state subject, these guidelines will not be binding on states. It is being proposed as a model legislation that can be adopted by states.
##Topic:Reports(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statement is correct about Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)?
1. It prevents the proliferation of missile capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 350 km.
2. India has become 35 th member of MTCR.
3. South Korea is not a member of MTCR.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 Only
(b) 2 only
(c ) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(d) None of the above
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
Statement 2 is correct as India became the 35th member of the MTCR. India’s efforts to get in got a boost after it joined the Hague Code of Conduct, dealing with the ballistic missile non-proliferation arrangement.
Statement 3 is incorrect as South Korea is member of MTCR. China, Israel and Pakistan are not members of MTCR.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous World
|
Civil Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statement is correct about Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)?
1. It prevents the proliferation of missile capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 350 km.
2. India has become 35 th member of MTCR.
3. South Korea is not a member of MTCR.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 Only
(b) 2 only
(c ) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(d) None of the above
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
Statement 2 is correct as India became the 35th member of the MTCR. India’s efforts to get in got a boost after it joined the Hague Code of Conduct, dealing with the ballistic missile non-proliferation arrangement.
Statement 3 is incorrect as South Korea is member of MTCR. China, Israel and Pakistan are not members of MTCR.
##Topic:Miscellaneous World##Subject:Civil Engineering##Answer:b
|
Which among the following organisations publishes the Global Peace Index?
|
Institute for Economics and Peace
|
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugee
|
World Bank
|
Institute for Economics and Peace
|
The Global Peace Index (GPI) is an attempt to measure relative position of nations' and regions' peacefulness. It is the product of Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) and developed in consultation with an international panel of peace experts from peace institutes and think tanks with data collected and collated by the Economist Intelligence Unit.India is ranked as the 141st country (out of 163 countries) in GPI 2016. Violence impacted India’s economy by $679.80 billion in 2016, 9% of India’s GDP, or $525 per person.
|
a
|
Reports(International)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following organisations publishes the Global Peace Index?
##Option_A: Institute for Economics and Peace
###Option_B: United Nations High Commissioner for Refugee
##Option_C: World Bank
##Option_D: Institute for Economics and Peace
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Global Peace Index (GPI) is an attempt to measure relative position of nations' and regions' peacefulness. It is the product of Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) and developed in consultation with an international panel of peace experts from peace institutes and think tanks with data collected and collated by the Economist Intelligence Unit.India is ranked as the 141st country (out of 163 countries) in GPI 2016. Violence impacted India’s economy by $679.80 billion in 2016, 9% of India’s GDP, or $525 per person.
##Topic:Reports(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), consider the following statements: It seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling nuclear and nuclear-related exports. India is a member of NSG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a member of NSG. Various members of NSG including China have opposed India's membership.
|
a
|
Non UN Treaties
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), consider the following statements: It seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling nuclear and nuclear-related exports. India is a member of NSG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a member of NSG. Various members of NSG including China have opposed India's membership.##Topic:Non UN Treaties##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:a
|
Which of the following multilateral cooperation platform has lowest number of members?
|
nbsp; The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
|
nbsp; Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
|
nbsp; Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC)
|
nbsp; The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
|
The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal and
voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a Eurasian political, economic, and military organisation which was founded in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of the China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Russian Federation, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. India and Pakistan signed the memorandum of obligations on 24 June 2016 at Tashkent, thereby starting the formal process of joining the SCO as a full member, by which they are expected to become full members by the next meeting at Astana in 2017.
The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), was established in 2002 to prevent the proliferation of ballistic missiles. The number of signatories of HCOC is 138 .
Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. As of 2016 the NSG has 48 members
|
b
|
Non UN Treaties
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following multilateral cooperation platform has lowest number of members?
##Option_A:nbsp; The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
###Option_B:nbsp; Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
##Option_C:nbsp; Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC)
##Option_D:nbsp; The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal and
voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a Eurasian political, economic, and military organisation which was founded in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of the China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Russian Federation, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. India and Pakistan signed the memorandum of obligations on 24 June 2016 at Tashkent, thereby starting the formal process of joining the SCO as a full member, by which they are expected to become full members by the next meeting at Astana in 2017.
The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), was established in 2002 to prevent the proliferation of ballistic missiles. The number of signatories of HCOC is 138 .
Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. As of 2016 the NSG has 48 members
##Topic:Non UN Treaties##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:b
|
Which among the following organisations publishes the Global Gender Gap Report?
|
World Economic Forum
|
World Bank
|
International Monetary Fund
|
World Economic Forum
|
The Global Gender Gap Report is published by the World Economic Forum.
It ranked India at 139 out of 145 countries on the economic participation and opportunity gap. India’s overall female labour force participation (FLFP) rate has dropped from 35% in 1991 to 27% in 2014 while the world average is around 50%.
|
a
|
Reports(International)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following organisations publishes the Global Gender Gap Report?
##Option_A: World Economic Forum
###Option_B: World Bank
##Option_C: International Monetary Fund
##Option_D: World Economic Forum
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Global Gender Gap Report is published by the World Economic Forum.
It ranked India at 139 out of 145 countries on the economic participation and opportunity gap. India’s overall female labour force participation (FLFP) rate has dropped from 35% in 1991 to 27% in 2014 while the world average is around 50%.
##Topic:Reports(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to education system of India which of the following statement(s) is correct?
1. Education is a state subject.
2. National education policy has not been mandatory for state governments.
3. The three-language formula followed by a majority of schools today was recommended by second education policy.
Select the answer using the correct code given below
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c ) Only 2
(d) 2 and 3 Only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as Education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent list by the 42 nd constitutional amendment act.
Statement 2 is correct as The policy provides a broad direction and state governments are expected to follow it. It’s not mandatory. Tamil Nadu, even today, does not follow the three-language formula prescribed by the first education policy in 1968.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the 10+2+3 structure of education, and the three-language formula followed by a majority of schools are among the most enduring legacies of the first national education policy
|
c
|
Reports(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to education system of India which of the following statement(s) is correct?
1. Education is a state subject.
2. National education policy has not been mandatory for state governments.
3. The three-language formula followed by a majority of schools today was recommended by second education policy.
Select the answer using the correct code given below
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c ) Only 2
(d) 2 and 3 Only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as Education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent list by the 42 nd constitutional amendment act.
Statement 2 is correct as The policy provides a broad direction and state governments are expected to follow it. It’s not mandatory. Tamil Nadu, even today, does not follow the three-language formula prescribed by the first education policy in 1968.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the 10+2+3 structure of education, and the three-language formula followed by a majority of schools are among the most enduring legacies of the first national education policy
##Topic:Reports(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Q. India achieved polio free status by using which of the following polio vaccine?
a) Trivalent oral polio vaccine
b) Bivalent oral polio vaccine
c) Inactivated polio vaccine
d) None of the Above
Select the answer using the correct code given below
(
|
1 Only
(
|
nan
|
nbsp; Inactivated polio vaccine
d) None of the Above
Select the answer using the correct code given below
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c ) only 3
(
|
1 Only
(
|
India has been polio free since January 2011. Trivalent OPV was used to achieve this task. Trivalent OPV contained live but weakened type 1, 2 and 3 polio viruses. Subsequently, the country switched to bivalent oral polio vaccine or BOPV by dropping type 2 as this variant was responsible for vaccine-derived polio cases.
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q. India achieved polio free status by using which of the following polio vaccine?
a) Trivalent oral polio vaccine
b) Bivalent oral polio vaccine
c) Inactivated polio vaccine
d) None of the Above
Select the answer using the correct code given below
(##Option_A:1 Only
(###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nbsp; Inactivated polio vaccine
d) None of the Above
Select the answer using the correct code given below
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c ) only 3
(##Option_D:1 Only
(##Answer:a##Explaination:
India has been polio free since January 2011. Trivalent OPV was used to achieve this task. Trivalent OPV contained live but weakened type 1, 2 and 3 polio viruses. Subsequently, the country switched to bivalent oral polio vaccine or BOPV by dropping type 2 as this variant was responsible for vaccine-derived polio cases.
##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to Political Associations which were set up in Bengal, considering the following statements:
The Bangabhasa Prakasika Sabha was formed by associates of Raja Rammohan Roy
Land Holder Society was formed in Bengal to safeguard the interest of Zamindars.
The Bangabhasa Prakasika Sabha was later renamed as British Indian Association.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Political Associations which were set up in Bengal, considering the following statements:
The Bangabhasa Prakasika Sabha was formed by associates of Raja Rammohan Roy
Land Holder Society was formed in Bengal to safeguard the interest of Zamindars.
The Bangabhasa Prakasika Sabha was later renamed as British Indian Association.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Which among the following was/were the causes for rising of nationalism in the late 19th Century
1. Political, Administrative, and Economic unification of the Country
2. Socio-religious reform movements
3. Huge participation of women and peasants in Politics
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
Growth of Political Ideas and Political Organisations (up to 1885)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following was/were the causes for rising of nationalism in the late 19th Century
1. Political, Administrative, and Economic unification of the Country
2. Socio-religious reform movements
3. Huge participation of women and peasants in Politics
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Growth of Political Ideas and Political Organisations (up to 1885)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to -
|
Removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian district magistrates and session judges to try Europeans.
|
The imposition of restrictions on newspapers published in Indian languages
|
Separation of the executive from judicial functions
|
Removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian district magistrates and session judges to try Europeans.
|
.
|
a
|
Changes in Indian Administration after 1858
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to - ##Option_A:Removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian district magistrates and session judges to try Europeans.###Option_B:The imposition of restrictions on newspapers published in Indian languages##Option_C:Separation of the executive from judicial functions##Option_D:Removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian district magistrates and session judges to try Europeans.##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Changes in Indian Administration after 1858##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: 1. An increase in cash in the hand of the public can lead to a decline in the money multiplier. 2. An increase in the cash reserve ratio will lead to an increase in the money multiplier. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
In monetary economics, the currency in circulation in a country is the value of currency or cash (banknotes and coins) that has ever been issued by the country's monetary authority less than the amount that has been removed. Money Multiplier is the ratio of the stock of money to the stock of high powered money. It is the relationship between the monetary base and the money supply of an economy. A country’s money multiplier depends on two factors - how much individuals (and businesses) hold in cash and how much banks hold as reserves. The more individuals hold cash in hand, the less the banking system will be able to create money and hence a lower value for the multiplier. In other words, cash in hand acts as a leakage for the banking system. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Higher the reserve lesser would be the amount available to lend ahead. Higher CRR will force banks to keep excess funds in the central bank and which will lead it to low funds to lend or vice versa. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
|
a
|
Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. An increase in cash in the hand of the public can lead to a decline in the money multiplier. 2. An increase in the cash reserve ratio will lead to an increase in the money multiplier. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In monetary economics, the currency in circulation in a country is the value of currency or cash (banknotes and coins) that has ever been issued by the country's monetary authority less than the amount that has been removed. Money Multiplier is the ratio of the stock of money to the stock of high powered money. It is the relationship between the monetary base and the money supply of an economy. A country’s money multiplier depends on two factors - how much individuals (and businesses) hold in cash and how much banks hold as reserves. The more individuals hold cash in hand, the less the banking system will be able to create money and hence a lower value for the multiplier. In other words, cash in hand acts as a leakage for the banking system. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Higher the reserve lesser would be the amount available to lend ahead. Higher CRR will force banks to keep excess funds in the central bank and which will lead it to low funds to lend or vice versa. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.##Topic:Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Industrial regions of Europe, consider the following statements: 1. The Industrial belt stretches in North-South manner from Scotland through England passing through the mouth of river Rhine through Germany France up to northern Italy 2. Industrialization in Europe began in the 20th century 3. Industrialisation in Europe began in Germany 4. Germany is the largest industrial region in Europe Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Industrial regions of Europe, consider the following statements: 1. The Industrial belt stretches in North-South manner from Scotland through England passing through the mouth of river Rhine through Germany France up to northern Italy 2. Industrialization in Europe began in the 20th century 3. Industrialisation in Europe began in Germany 4. Germany is the largest industrial region in Europe Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:3 and 4 only##Option_C:1 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following organisations are associated with the issuance of the annual report "State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World" (2020)? 1. Food and Agriculture Organization 2. International Fund for Agricultural Development 3. World Food Programme 4. World Health Organisation 5. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2020 (SOFI 2020) report presents the most recent and authoritative estimates of the extent of hunger, food insecurity and malnutrition around the world. This joint report is issued annually by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, the International Fund for Agricultural Development, UNICEF, the World Food Programme and the World Health Organization. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. The 2020 edition continues to signal that significant challenges remain in the fight against food insecurity and malnutrition in all its forms. Almost 690 million people around the world went hungry in 2019. High costs and low affordability also mean billions cannot eat healthily or nutritiously. As progress in fighting hunger stalls, the COVID-19 pandemic is intensifying the vulnerabilities and inadequacies of global food systems. While it is too early to assess the full impact of the lockdowns and other containment measures, at least another 83 million to 132 million people may go hungry in 2020. If recent trends continue, the Zero Hunger target of the Sustainable Development Goals will not be achieved by 2030. The report urges the transformation of food systems to reduce the cost of nutritious foods and increase the affordability of healthy diets. The study calls on governments to: Mainstream nutrition in their approaches to agriculture Work to cut cost-escalating factors in the production , distribution and marketing of food, including reducing inefficiencies, and food loss and waste Support local small-scale producers to grow and sell more nutritious foods, and secure their access to markets Embed nutrition in national social protection systems and investment strategies.etc.
|
c
|
Reports(International)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following organisations are associated with the issuance of the annual report "State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World" (2020)? 1. Food and Agriculture Organization 2. International Fund for Agricultural Development 3. World Food Programme 4. World Health Organisation 5. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization Select the correct answer using the codes given below. ##Option_A:1, 2 and 5 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C:1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 5 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2020 (SOFI 2020) report presents the most recent and authoritative estimates of the extent of hunger, food insecurity and malnutrition around the world. This joint report is issued annually by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, the International Fund for Agricultural Development, UNICEF, the World Food Programme and the World Health Organization. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. The 2020 edition continues to signal that significant challenges remain in the fight against food insecurity and malnutrition in all its forms. Almost 690 million people around the world went hungry in 2019. High costs and low affordability also mean billions cannot eat healthily or nutritiously. As progress in fighting hunger stalls, the COVID-19 pandemic is intensifying the vulnerabilities and inadequacies of global food systems. While it is too early to assess the full impact of the lockdowns and other containment measures, at least another 83 million to 132 million people may go hungry in 2020. If recent trends continue, the Zero Hunger target of the Sustainable Development Goals will not be achieved by 2030. The report urges the transformation of food systems to reduce the cost of nutritious foods and increase the affordability of healthy diets. The study calls on governments to: Mainstream nutrition in their approaches to agriculture Work to cut cost-escalating factors in the production , distribution and marketing of food, including reducing inefficiencies, and food loss and waste Support local small-scale producers to grow and sell more nutritious foods, and secure their access to markets Embed nutrition in national social protection systems and investment strategies.etc.##Topic:Reports(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Eastern Ukraine and southwest Moscow don’t have rich coal deposits, so these regions do not produce Steel. 2. During the industrial revolution, the Iron and Steel industries were set up near coal mines. 3. Water transport is the cheapest mode of transport.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
Mineral and Energy Resources
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Eastern Ukraine and southwest Moscow don’t have rich coal deposits, so these regions do not produce Steel. 2. During the industrial revolution, the Iron and Steel industries were set up near coal mines. 3. Water transport is the cheapest mode of transport.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Mineral and Energy Resources##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Manufacturing in advanced countries did not face depression in post-World War II 2. Microelectronics industries began is Californian regions 3. Japan witnessed industrialization at a very fast pace Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Manufacturing in advanced countries did not face depression in post-World War II 2. Microelectronics industries began is Californian regions 3. Japan witnessed industrialization at a very fast pace Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following factors affect the growth of manufacturing industries in a region?
1. Labor availability 2. Raw material availability 3. Industrial Policies of the Government 4. Naxalism 5. Transport connectivity 6. Land Acquisition
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 5 and 6 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
.
|
d
|
Infrastructure, Location factors and distribution of key natural resources across the world
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors affect the growth of manufacturing industries in a region?
1. Labor availability 2. Raw material availability 3. Industrial Policies of the Government 4. Naxalism 5. Transport connectivity 6. Land Acquisition
Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:1, 2, 3 and 4 only###Option_B:3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C:1, 2, 5 and 6 only##Option_D:1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Infrastructure, Location factors and distribution of key natural resources across the world##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
भारत में ब्रिटिश विस्तार के कारणों में निम्न में किसे/किनको उत्तरदायी माना जा सकता है?
कर्नाटक युद्ध
मैसूर युद्ध
बंगाल विजय
|
केवल 1
|
केवल 1 और 2
|
केवल 2 और 3
|
केवल 1
|
nan
|
d
|
Growth of Political Ideas and Political Organisations (up to 1885)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:भारत में ब्रिटिश विस्तार के कारणों में निम्न में किसे/किनको उत्तरदायी माना जा सकता है?
कर्नाटक युद्ध
मैसूर युद्ध
बंगाल विजय
##Option_A:केवल 1###Option_B:केवल 1 और 2##Option_C:केवल 2 और 3##Option_D:केवल 1##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Growth of Political Ideas and Political Organisations (up to 1885)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is the Base year(Currently) for calculation of GDP growth rate in Indian Economy:
|
2010-11
|
2011-12
|
2013-14
|
2010-11
|
nan
|
b
|
GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is the Base year(Currently) for calculation of GDP growth rate in Indian Economy:##Option_A:2010-11###Option_B:2011-12##Option_C:2013-14##Option_D:2010-11##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
Automobile industries generally have well-developed rubber industries in proximity
Like Germany, Japan is an industrialized country because of the presence of large mineral resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Industriestypes and their locational factors
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Automobile industries generally have well-developed rubber industries in proximity
Like Germany, Japan is an industrialized country because of the presence of large mineral resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Industriestypes and their locational factors##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the terminologies related to a drainage
1. On both sides of the water divide, the rivers flow in the same direction 2. A basin is the entire region from which the surface water accumulates at one point. 3. The boundary line which separates one drainage basin from the other is known as the watershed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the terminologies related to a drainage
1. On both sides of the water divide, the rivers flow in the same direction 2. A basin is the entire region from which the surface water accumulates at one point. 3. The boundary line which separates one drainage basin from the other is known as the watershed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Dam Projects Rivers 1. Indirasagar Beas 2. Krishnarajasagar Krishna 3. Mettur Kaveri Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Indira Sagar dam built on the Narmada river. It is a concrete gravity dam, located in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. Indira sagar project was the key project on Narmada river providing excellent storage site of water. Indira Sagar Dam has the biggest reservoir in India. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. Krishnarajasagar Dam built across Kaveri River near Mysore in Karnataka. It is one of the principal and largest dam built on the river Kaveri in Karnataka in, South India. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. Mettur Dam built across Kaveri River at Salem district in Tamil Nadu. It is one the largest and one of the oldest dam built in India. Mettur Dam has biggest and the most power generating capacity dam in Tamil Nadu. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
|
c
|
Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Dam Projects Rivers 1. Indirasagar Beas 2. Krishnarajasagar Krishna 3. Mettur Kaveri Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Indira Sagar dam built on the Narmada river. It is a concrete gravity dam, located in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. Indira sagar project was the key project on Narmada river providing excellent storage site of water. Indira Sagar Dam has the biggest reservoir in India. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. Krishnarajasagar Dam built across Kaveri River near Mysore in Karnataka. It is one of the principal and largest dam built on the river Kaveri in Karnataka in, South India. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. Mettur Dam built across Kaveri River at Salem district in Tamil Nadu. It is one the largest and one of the oldest dam built in India. Mettur Dam has biggest and the most power generating capacity dam in Tamil Nadu. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.##Topic:Water ResourcesAvailability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Choose the correct statement(s) with respect to REER -
1) REER captures inflation differentials between India and its major trading partners.
2) REER reflects the degree of external competitiveness of Indian products
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Choose the correct statement(s) with respect to REER -
1) REER captures inflation differentials between India and its major trading partners.
2) REER reflects the degree of external competitiveness of Indian products##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The well-defined channels through which the water flows so as to move out of the region 2. Catchment is the area in which the river drains 3. Broadly the water divide is the line that separates one catchment region from another catchment region Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Others
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The well-defined channels through which the water flows so as to move out of the region 2. Catchment is the area in which the river drains 3. Broadly the water divide is the line that separates one catchment region from another catchment region Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Others##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. River regime is the pattern of seasonal flow of water in a river overs a year period 2. Ephemeral rivers are the rivers that always flow 3. Cauvery river is an ephemeral river Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. River regime is the pattern of seasonal flow of water in a river overs a year period 2. Ephemeral rivers are the rivers that always flow 3. Cauvery river is an ephemeral river Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Match the following with respect to the interior of the earth:
1. SIAL - Silica, and Aluminum 2. SIMA - Silica, and Iron 3. NIFE - Nickle and Iron Chose the correct option:
|
only 1 and 3
|
only 2 and 3
|
only 2
|
only 1 and 3
|
nan
|
a
|
Origin and evolution of Earth
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match the following with respect to the interior of the earth:
1. SIAL - Silica, and Aluminum 2. SIMA - Silica, and Iron 3. NIFE - Nickle and Iron Chose the correct option:##Option_A:only 1 and 3###Option_B:only 2 and 3##Option_C:only 2##Option_D:only 1 and 3##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Origin and evolution of Earth##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement:
1. A country is called as water stressed if water availability per capita is less than 1700 metre cube per person per year
2. A country is called as water scared if the water availability per capita is less than 1000 metre cube per person per year
3. The water of the Kaveri river has not been potentially used to produce electricity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement:
1. A country is called as water stressed if water availability per capita is less than 1700 metre cube per person per year
2. A country is called as water scared if the water availability per capita is less than 1000 metre cube per person per year
3. The water of the Kaveri river has not been potentially used to produce electricity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:1 and 2 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Kishanganga is a tributary of the Ganga 2. Salal hydroelectric project is built on river Chenab 3. The Harike barrage is constructed near the confluence of rivers Sutlej and Beas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Kishanganga is a tributary of the Ganga 2. Salal hydroelectric project is built on river Chenab 3. The Harike barrage is constructed near the confluence of rivers Sutlej and Beas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are the direct tributaries of the Ganga river?
1. Rapti 2. Kosi 3. Sarda 4. Ghaghara
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
.
|
c
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the direct tributaries of the Ganga river?
1. Rapti 2. Kosi 3. Sarda 4. Ghaghara
Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:3 and 4 only##Option_C:2 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Lohit 2. Dibang 3. Kameng 4. Manas
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
.
|
d
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Lohit 2. Dibang 3. Kameng 4. Manas
Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:1, 2, and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 4 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1, 2, and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Pranhita is the largest tributary of Godavari 2. Narmada"s source is Amarkantahk of MP. 3. Kabani river is a tributary of Mahanadi Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Pranhita is the largest tributary of Godavari 2. Narmada"s source is Amarkantahk of MP. 3. Kabani river is a tributary of Mahanadi Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the river Luni in India-:
1) It flows from west to east
2) It originates from the Aravalli range
3) It drains into the Gulf of Khambat
Choose the incorrect statements from the codes given below
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
nan
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the river Luni in India-:
1) It flows from west to east
2) It originates from the Aravalli range
3) It drains into the Gulf of Khambat
Choose the incorrect statements from the codes given below##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: Article 21A makes both elementary and higher education a fundamental right. Article 51A makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen to provide his child opportunities for education between age of 6 and 14 years. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine. Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education. Statement 2 is correct: Article 51A reads-'It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years'.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Article 21A makes both elementary and higher education a fundamental right. Article 51A makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen to provide his child opportunities for education between age of 6 and 14 years. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine. Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education. Statement 2 is correct: Article 51A reads-'It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years'.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are the features of Fundamental rights? Not all fundamental rights are positive in character Not all fundamental rights are permanent in nature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Following are the features of fundamental rights Not all fundamental rights are positive in character : As some of the fundamental rights are negative in character. It means some rights places restriction over the authority of the state, for eg under A15 "state shall not discrimate against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste,sex or place of birth" Similarly A16 and A19 limits the authority of state( statement 1 correct) Not all fundamental rights are negative in character : As some of the fundamental rights are positive in character .ie,certain rights confers certain privileges on the persons. for eg equality of oppurtunity in matters of public employment etc. Not all the rights are permanent in nature : As some of the rights can be curtailed by parliament through an amendment of the constitution , provided it would not disturb the basic structure. Similarty certaing rights gets suspended during acts of emergency. As under national emergency all the fundamental rights are suspended except A20 and A21, similarty during declaration of emergency under external aggression A19 is suspended.( statement 2 correct)
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the features of Fundamental rights? Not all fundamental rights are positive in character Not all fundamental rights are permanent in nature. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Following are the features of fundamental rights Not all fundamental rights are positive in character : As some of the fundamental rights are negative in character. It means some rights places restriction over the authority of the state, for eg under A15 "state shall not discrimate against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste,sex or place of birth" Similarly A16 and A19 limits the authority of state( statement 1 correct) Not all fundamental rights are negative in character : As some of the fundamental rights are positive in character .ie,certain rights confers certain privileges on the persons. for eg equality of oppurtunity in matters of public employment etc. Not all the rights are permanent in nature : As some of the rights can be curtailed by parliament through an amendment of the constitution , provided it would not disturb the basic structure. Similarty certaing rights gets suspended during acts of emergency. As under national emergency all the fundamental rights are suspended except A20 and A21, similarty during declaration of emergency under external aggression A19 is suspended.( statement 2 correct)##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Potassium Bromate which was in news recently: It is an additive commonly used in bread to strengthen dough and enhance its flexibility. It has been classified as a potential carcinogen. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It is an additive commonly used in bread where it acts as an oxidising agent which strengthens dough and enhances its flexibility. Statement 2 is correct: Potassium bromate is classified as a category 2B carcinogen (possibly carcinogenic to humans) by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC).
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Potassium Bromate which was in news recently: It is an additive commonly used in bread to strengthen dough and enhance its flexibility. It has been classified as a potential carcinogen. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It is an additive commonly used in bread where it acts as an oxidising agent which strengthens dough and enhances its flexibility. Statement 2 is correct: Potassium bromate is classified as a category 2B carcinogen (possibly carcinogenic to humans) by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC).##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following provisions require amendment by special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority? 1. Amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 2. Lists mentioned under 7 th Schedule 3. Administration of Scheduled Areas under 5 th Schedule 4. Amendment of Part III and Part IV of the Constitution Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the Politycan be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. Statement is incorrect as any provision with regard to administration of areas under 5th Schedule requires a simple majority of the Parliament Statement is incorrect as amendments to FR and DPSP require special majority of the Parliament
|
c
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions require amendment by special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority? 1. Amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 2. Lists mentioned under 7 th Schedule 3. Administration of Scheduled Areas under 5 th Schedule 4. Amendment of Part III and Part IV of the Constitution Choose the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B:1 and 4 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only ##Option_D:1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statements 1 and 2 are correct as provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the Politycan be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. Statement is incorrect as any provision with regard to administration of areas under 5th Schedule requires a simple majority of the Parliament Statement is incorrect as amendments to FR and DPSP require special majority of the Parliament##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regard to declaration of National Emergency by the President under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution:
1. The President of India can declare a national emergency when the security of India or part of it is threatened by war, internal disturbance and armed rebellion
2. The President can declare emergency under the mentioned article only during the occurrence of the mentioned provisions and not under anticipated danger or conjecture of any kind.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India can declare a national emergency when there is imminent threat to the security of India due to war, internal disturbance or armed rebellion and also during the event of an actual threat, hence, Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 1 is correct.
|
a
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with regard to declaration of National Emergency by the President under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution:
1. The President of India can declare a national emergency when the security of India or part of it is threatened by war, internal disturbance and armed rebellion
2. The President can declare emergency under the mentioned article only during the occurrence of the mentioned provisions and not under anticipated danger or conjecture of any kind.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India can declare a national emergency when there is imminent threat to the security of India due to war, internal disturbance or armed rebellion and also during the event of an actual threat, hence, Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 1 is correct.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to Maltitol?
1. It is a sugar alcohol derived from Maltose.
2. Maltitole helps in growth of broken bone because it is soluble in water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 Only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Maltitol is a sugar alcohol used as sugar substitute and derived from maltose.
Statement 2 is correct. Maltitol reacts to water and as the body is primarily made of water, the bonds start breaking slowly, over a course of time. The molecules are soluble in water, and they eventually come out. Once the bone grows back, the structure simply disintegrates. Indian Institute of Science has recently developed a bone reconstruction method using Maltose.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with regard to Maltitol?
1. It is a sugar alcohol derived from Maltose.
2. Maltitole helps in growth of broken bone because it is soluble in water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
##Option_A: 1 Only
###Option_B: 2 Only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 Only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Maltitol is a sugar alcohol used as sugar substitute and derived from maltose.
Statement 2 is correct. Maltitol reacts to water and as the body is primarily made of water, the bonds start breaking slowly, over a course of time. The molecules are soluble in water, and they eventually come out. Once the bone grows back, the structure simply disintegrates. Indian Institute of Science has recently developed a bone reconstruction method using Maltose.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The blue light emitted by LED is considered harmful because
|
its prolonged exposure can damage the cells in upper layer of skin and thus can cause cancer.
|
it affects sleep by suppressing the production of the hormone which regulates the sleep-wake cycle.
|
it results in reduced level of antioxidants in the body which suppress body"s immune system.
|
its prolonged exposure can damage the cells in upper layer of skin and thus can cause cancer.
|
Blue light directly affects sleep by suppressing the production of the hormone melatonin, which mediates the sleep-wake cycle in humans.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The blue light emitted by LED is considered harmful because ##Option_A: its prolonged exposure can damage the cells in upper layer of skin and thus can cause cancer. ###Option_B: it affects sleep by suppressing the production of the hormone which regulates the sleep-wake cycle. ##Option_C: it results in reduced level of antioxidants in the body which suppress body"s immune system. ##Option_D: its prolonged exposure can damage the cells in upper layer of skin and thus can cause cancer. ##Answer:b##Explaination:Blue light directly affects sleep by suppressing the production of the hormone melatonin, which mediates the sleep-wake cycle in humans. ##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The removal procedure of which of the following officials is the same as that of the judge of a Supreme Court?
|
Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission
|
Chief Vigilance Commissioner
|
Chief Election Commissioner
|
Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission
|
The removal procedure of Chief Election Commissioner is the same as that of a judge of the Supreme Court according to Article 324 of the Constitution. This has been done to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission.
Similarly, the removal procedure of Comptroller and Auditor General of India and judges of High Courts is the same as that of a Supreme Court judge.
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The removal procedure of which of the following officials is the same as that of the judge of a Supreme Court?
##Option_A: Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission
###Option_B: Chief Vigilance Commissioner
##Option_C: Chief Election Commissioner
##Option_D: Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission
##Answer:c##Explaination:
The removal procedure of Chief Election Commissioner is the same as that of a judge of the Supreme Court according to Article 324 of the Constitution. This has been done to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission.
Similarly, the removal procedure of Comptroller and Auditor General of India and judges of High Courts is the same as that of a Supreme Court judge.
##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Bio-ink.
1. Bio-ink contains a natural polymer derived from seaweed and a sacrificial synthetic polymer.
2. When temperature is raised, bio-ink changes from solid to liquid.
3. Bio-ink containing stem cells allow 3D printing of complex living tissues.
Which of the above statements are correct?
|
1 and 2 Only
|
2 and 3 Only
|
1 and 3 Only
|
1 and 2 Only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Bio-ink contains a natural polymer derived from seaweed and a sacrificial synthetic polymer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. When temperature is raised, bio-ink changes from liquid to solid.
Statement 3 is correct. Bio-ink containing stem cells allow 3D printing of complex living tissues.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about Bio-ink.
1. Bio-ink contains a natural polymer derived from seaweed and a sacrificial synthetic polymer.
2. When temperature is raised, bio-ink changes from solid to liquid.
3. Bio-ink containing stem cells allow 3D printing of complex living tissues.
Which of the above statements are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 Only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 Only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 Only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 Only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Bio-ink contains a natural polymer derived from seaweed and a sacrificial synthetic polymer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. When temperature is raised, bio-ink changes from liquid to solid.
Statement 3 is correct. Bio-ink containing stem cells allow 3D printing of complex living tissues.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Zika virus disease: It is caused by a virus transmitted by mosquito. Presently there is no vaccine available for Zika virus. Zika can be passed from a pregnant woman to her foetus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It is caused by a virus transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquito. Statement 2 is correct: Presently there is no approved vaccine available for zika virus in the market. However GLS – 5700 vaccine was found to be effective during trials on animals and soon trials on humans will begin. Statement 3 is correct: Zika can be passed from a pregnant woman to her foetus and may result into microcephaly, in which baby’s head is much smaller than expected.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Zika virus disease: It is caused by a virus transmitted by mosquito. Presently there is no vaccine available for Zika virus. Zika can be passed from a pregnant woman to her foetus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It is caused by a virus transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquito. Statement 2 is correct: Presently there is no approved vaccine available for zika virus in the market. However GLS – 5700 vaccine was found to be effective during trials on animals and soon trials on humans will begin. Statement 3 is correct: Zika can be passed from a pregnant woman to her foetus and may result into microcephaly, in which baby’s head is much smaller than expected.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
The President can exercise suspensive veto power while deciding on which of the following bills?
|
Ordinary bills
|
Money bills
|
Constitutional Amendment bills
|
Ordinary bills
|
A suspensive veto is the ability of an executive to return a bill to the Parliament/ Legislature without the bill becoming a law.
The President cannot exercise suspensive veto power with regard to passage of Money bills and Constitutional amendment bills.
The Preseident has suspensive veto power with regard to Ordinary bills and bills reserved by the Governor (under Article 200)
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The President can exercise suspensive veto power while deciding on which of the following bills?
##Option_A:Ordinary bills
###Option_B:Money bills
##Option_C:Constitutional Amendment bills
##Option_D:Ordinary bills
##Answer:c##Explaination:
A suspensive veto is the ability of an executive to return a bill to the Parliament/ Legislature without the bill becoming a law.
The President cannot exercise suspensive veto power with regard to passage of Money bills and Constitutional amendment bills.
The Preseident has suspensive veto power with regard to Ordinary bills and bills reserved by the Governor (under Article 200)
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: 1. S.N. Banerjea was an extremist leader. 2. Moderates had a positive outlook towards the British. 3. The main aim of moderators was constitutional reforms and more representations of Indians in the councils. Which of the above is correct?
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
All
|
2 and 3
|
.
|
a
|
Moderate Phase (1885 – 1905)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. S.N. Banerjea was an extremist leader. 2. Moderates had a positive outlook towards the British. 3. The main aim of moderators was constitutional reforms and more representations of Indians in the councils. Which of the above is correct?##Option_A:2 and 3###Option_B:1 and 3##Option_C:All##Option_D:2 and 3##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Moderate Phase (1885 – 1905)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following matches
East India Association – Dada Bhai Nauroji
Indian Association of Calcutta – Ananda Mohan Bose
Madras Mahajan Sabha - B.G. Tilak
Which one of the above is correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
a
|
The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following matches
East India Association – Dada Bhai Nauroji
Indian Association of Calcutta – Ananda Mohan Bose
Madras Mahajan Sabha - B.G. Tilak
Which one of the above is correctly matched?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement regarding the parliamentary system:
1. Executive is part of the legislature.
2. Council of Ministers is headed by the Prime Minister.
3. President is the head of the state with nominal executive powers.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
c
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement regarding the parliamentary system:
1. Executive is part of the legislature.
2. Council of Ministers is headed by the Prime Minister.
3. President is the head of the state with nominal executive powers.
Which of the statements given above is correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2, and 3##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
The constitution defines Untouchability under article 17.
The Bharat Ratna award is regarded as a title under article 18(1).
Indian citizens must get the consent of the Prime Minister of India in order to get the title from a foreign State.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
The constitution defines Untouchability under article 17.
The Bharat Ratna award is regarded as a title under article 18(1).
Indian citizens must get the consent of the Prime Minister of India in order to get the title from a foreign State.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Battle of Pollillur (1780):
1. Haider Ali led Mysore.
2. The battle saw the first use of Mysore-made war rockets.
3. The Treaty of Seringapatnam followed the battle.
Choose the incorrect statements from the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Tipu Sultan had led Mysore.
The Treaty of Mangalore followed the battle.
|
c
|
The Indian States
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Battle of Pollillur (1780):
1. Haider Ali led Mysore.
2. The battle saw the first use of Mysore-made war rockets.
3. The Treaty of Seringapatnam followed the battle.
Choose the incorrect statements from the codes given below:##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Tipu Sultan had led Mysore.
The Treaty of Mangalore followed the battle.##Topic:The Indian States##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the Ghadar Movement:
It was inspired by Delhi Conspiracy Case, 1912
On each Issue of Ghadar, especially on frontpage had an expose of British colonialism or "Angrezi Raaz ka kaccha Chitta"
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 Only
|
nan
|
c
|
Revolutionary movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the Ghadar Movement:
It was inspired by Delhi Conspiracy Case, 1912
On each Issue of Ghadar, especially on frontpage had an expose of British colonialism or "Angrezi Raaz ka kaccha Chitta"
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 Only ###Option_B:2 Only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 Only ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Revolutionary movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
I n India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to LokSabha.
It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:I n India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to LokSabha.
It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
The Fundamental Rights granted by the Indian Constitution are absolute
The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens are non-justiciable.
The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens protect them against the tyranny of the majority
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are incorrect?
The Fundamental Rights granted by the Indian Constitution are absolute
The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens are non-justiciable.
The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens protect them against the tyranny of the majority
##Option_A:1 and 3 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:3 only ##Option_D:1 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which one of the following is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds?
|
Benchmark Prime Lending Rate
|
Annual Percentage Rate
|
Bank Rate
|
Benchmark Prime Lending Rate
|
Under the repo rate, RBI is always willing to give loan to the commercial banks. It purchases government securities from them and give funds in case of a shortfall.
|
d
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds?##Option_A:Benchmark Prime Lending Rate###Option_B:Annual Percentage Rate##Option_C:Bank Rate##Option_D:Benchmark Prime Lending Rate##Answer:d##Explaination:Under the repo rate, RBI is always willing to give loan to the commercial banks. It purchases government securities from them and give funds in case of a shortfall.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Right to Equality: Art 14-18.4.
2. Right to Cultural and Educational Rights: Art 25-28.
3. Right to Freedom: Art 19-22.
4. Rights against exploitation: Art 23 and Art 24.
5. Right to Religion: Art 29 and Art 30
Choose the correct option from below.
|
1,2,3,4 and 5
|
1,3,and 4 Only
|
1 and 3 Only
|
1,2,3,4 and 5
|
nan
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Right to Equality: Art 14-18.4.
2. Right to Cultural and Educational Rights: Art 25-28.
3. Right to Freedom: Art 19-22.
4. Rights against exploitation: Art 23 and Art 24.
5. Right to Religion: Art 29 and Art 30
Choose the correct option from below.##Option_A:1,2,3,4 and 5###Option_B:1,3,and 4 Only##Option_C:1 and 3 Only##Option_D:1,2,3,4 and 5##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
शिवरमन समिति संबंधित है-
|
नाबार्ड की स्थापना से
|
सिडबी की स्थापना से
|
एग्जिम बैंक की स्थापना से
|
नाबार्ड की स्थापना से
|
nan
|
a
|
Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:शिवरमन समिति संबंधित है-##Option_A:नाबार्ड की स्थापना से ###Option_B:सिडबी की स्थापना से ##Option_C:एग्जिम बैंक की स्थापना से ##Option_D:नाबार्ड की स्थापना से ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the "Permanent settlement system":
1) Zamindari"s rights were not hereditary.
2) In case, the zamindars failed to pay the revenue, their property was transferrable to other zamindars.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct ?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
.
|
a
|
The British Administrative Structure, Reform , Impact and Organization of Government of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the "Permanent settlement system":
1) Zamindari"s rights were not hereditary.
2) In case, the zamindars failed to pay the revenue, their property was transferrable to other zamindars.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct ?##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Only 1 and 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:The British Administrative Structure, Reform , Impact and Organization of Government of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
Basel norms are mandatory for every member nation.
India has not implemented Basel III norms to date.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Banking Reforms
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Basel norms are mandatory for every member nation.
India has not implemented Basel III norms to date.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Banking Reforms##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following was a part of the green revolution strategy?
1. High-yielding variety seeds 2. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides 3. Irrigation
Select the answer from the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
d
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following was a part of the green revolution strategy?
1. High-yielding variety seeds 2. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides 3. Irrigation
Select the answer from the codes given below: ##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The personnel belonging to the Central Services serve under the Central Government only. 2. The personnel belonging to the State Services are recruited by the State Governments with the help of UPSC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
UPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The personnel belonging to the Central Services serve under the Central Government only. 2. The personnel belonging to the State Services are recruited by the State Governments with the help of UPSC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:UPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following was a reason behind withdrawal of the Non-cooperation movement?
|
Chauri Chaura Incident
|
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
|
Arrest of Gandhi
|
Chauri Chaura Incident
|
.
|
a
|
Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following was a reason behind withdrawal of the Non-cooperation movement?##Option_A:Chauri Chaura Incident###Option_B:Jallianwala Bagh Massacre##Option_C:Arrest of Gandhi##Option_D:Chauri Chaura Incident##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Non-Co-operation movement resolution.
It was passed in Calcutta special session.
It was ratified in Nagpur annual session.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Non-Co-operation movement resolution.
It was passed in Calcutta special session.
It was ratified in Nagpur annual session.
Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
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