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Which of the following Directives was/were introduced in the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment act? To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor To protect and improve the environment and to to safeguard forests and wildlife To take steps to secure participation of workers in management of industries To promote voluntary formation and professional management of co-operative societies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
By the 42 nd constitutional Amendment act certain changes have been introduced in Part IV, adding new directives, to accentuate the socialistic bias of the Constitution. Statement 1 is correct as Art 39A has been inserted to enjoin the state to provide free legal aid to the poor and to take other suitable steps to ensure equal justice to all, which is offered by the Preamble. Statement 2 is correct as Art 48A Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life was inserted by 42 nd Constitutional Amendment Act Statement 3 is correct as Art. 43A has been inserted in order to direct the State to ensure the participation of workers in the management of the industry and other under-takings. Statement 4 is incorrect as Art 43B was inserted by 97 th Amendment Act
|
a
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Directives was/were introduced in the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment act? To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor To protect and improve the environment and to to safeguard forests and wildlife To take steps to secure participation of workers in management of industries To promote voluntary formation and professional management of co-operative societies Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:By the 42 nd constitutional Amendment act certain changes have been introduced in Part IV, adding new directives, to accentuate the socialistic bias of the Constitution. Statement 1 is correct as Art 39A has been inserted to enjoin the state to provide free legal aid to the poor and to take other suitable steps to ensure equal justice to all, which is offered by the Preamble. Statement 2 is correct as Art 48A Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life was inserted by 42 nd Constitutional Amendment Act Statement 3 is correct as Art. 43A has been inserted in order to direct the State to ensure the participation of workers in the management of the industry and other under-takings. Statement 4 is incorrect as Art 43B was inserted by 97 th Amendment Act##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy given in Part IV in Constitution of India, consider the following statements.
1. They direct the state to make provisions for Organisation of urban local bodies.
2. They direct the state to make provision for all workers to full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities.
3. They direct the state to promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 and 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as Article 40 of Constitution states that Organisation of village panchayats.—The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 43 of Constitution states that Provision for Living wage, etc., for workers.—The State shall endeavour to secure full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect as this is duty for each individual under Fundamental duties article 51A(e).
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy given in Part IV in Constitution of India, consider the following statements.
1. They direct the state to make provisions for Organisation of urban local bodies.
2. They direct the state to make provision for all workers to full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities.
3. They direct the state to promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 and 3 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 and 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as Article 40 of Constitution states that Organisation of village panchayats.—The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 43 of Constitution states that Provision for Living wage, etc., for workers.—The State shall endeavour to secure full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect as this is duty for each individual under Fundamental duties article 51A(e).
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Directives contained in other parts of the Consitution of India, apart from those in Part IV, consider the following statements.
Directive for Claims of SCs and STs to Services.
Directive for Promotion of co-operative societies
Directive for Instruction in mother tongue
Directives outside Part IV are justiciable in courts of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as Besides Part IV there are other Directives addressed to the State in other parts of the Constitution.
Article 335 states that Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State
Statement 2 is incorrect as Directive of co-operative societies is provided within Part IV under Article 43B The State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies.
Statement 3 is correct as under Article 350A State is directed to provide for Facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage.- It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.
Statement 4 is incorrect as those Directives are also non-justiciable.
|
a
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Directives contained in other parts of the Consitution of India, apart from those in Part IV, consider the following statements.
Directive for Claims of SCs and STs to Services.
Directive for Promotion of co-operative societies
Directive for Instruction in mother tongue
Directives outside Part IV are justiciable in courts of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:1 and 3 only
###Option_B:1, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C:1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_D:1 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as Besides Part IV there are other Directives addressed to the State in other parts of the Constitution.
Article 335 states that Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State
Statement 2 is incorrect as Directive of co-operative societies is provided within Part IV under Article 43B The State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies.
Statement 3 is correct as under Article 350A State is directed to provide for Facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage.- It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.
Statement 4 is incorrect as those Directives are also non-justiciable.
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following provisions have been described as the "Conscience of the Constitution"? Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Rights Emergency Provisions Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights have been described as the "Conscience of the Constitution" by Granville Austin. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as 'novel features' of the Indian constitution.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions have been described as the "Conscience of the Constitution"? Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Rights Emergency Provisions Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights have been described as the "Conscience of the Constitution" by Granville Austin. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as 'novel features' of the Indian constitution.
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Promotion of educational and economic interests of SCs, STs and other weaker sections is provided in which of the following provision/provisions of the Constitution of India? Fundamental Rights Fundamental Duties Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 is correct as Right to Equality under Article 15(4) states that nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. 2 is incorrect as Fundamental Duties does not provide special provisions for weaker sections of society. 3 is correct as Article 38 specifies State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people Article 38 clause (2) specifically mentions that the State shall, in particular, strive to minimise the inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Promotion of educational and economic interests of SCs, STs and other weaker sections is provided in which of the following provision/provisions of the Constitution of India? Fundamental Rights Fundamental Duties Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:1 is correct as Right to Equality under Article 15(4) states that nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. 2 is incorrect as Fundamental Duties does not provide special provisions for weaker sections of society. 3 is correct as Article 38 specifies State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people Article 38 clause (2) specifically mentions that the State shall, in particular, strive to minimise the inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy in India, consider the following statements:
They seek to establish political, social and economic democracy
They promote the welfare of the community.
They are negative in character as they prohibit the state from doing certain things.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as DPSP establish social and economic democracy only. Fundamental rights establish political democracy
Statement 2 is correct as DPSP promote welfare of the community. Hence they are societarian and socialistic. While the fundamental rights promote welfare of the individual.
Statement 3 is incorrect as DPSPs are positive as they require the state to do certain things. Fundamental rights are negative in character as they prohibit state from doing certain things.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy in India, consider the following statements:
They seek to establish political, social and economic democracy
They promote the welfare of the community.
They are negative in character as they prohibit the state from doing certain things.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as DPSP establish social and economic democracy only. Fundamental rights establish political democracy
Statement 2 is correct as DPSP promote welfare of the community. Hence they are societarian and socialistic. While the fundamental rights promote welfare of the individual.
Statement 3 is incorrect as DPSPs are positive as they require the state to do certain things. Fundamental rights are negative in character as they prohibit state from doing certain things.
##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The justiciability of the Fundamental Rights and the non-justiciability of the Directive Principles of State Policy, an essential feature of the Indian Constitution, has been adopted from which of the following sources?
|
Constitution of Ireland
|
Weimar Constitution
|
Canadian Constitution
|
Constitution of Ireland
|
The difference between the Fundamental rights and the Directives is that of being justiciable and non-justiciable rights. This classification was adopted from the Irish Constitution. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The justiciability of the Fundamental Rights and the non-justiciability of the Directive Principles of State Policy, an essential feature of the Indian Constitution, has been adopted from which of the following sources?##Option_A:Constitution of Ireland###Option_B:Weimar Constitution##Option_C:Canadian Constitution##Option_D:Constitution of Ireland##Answer:a##Explaination:The difference between the Fundamental rights and the Directives is that of being justiciable and non-justiciable rights. This classification was adopted from the Irish Constitution. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which among the following have helped to fulfill the objectives under the Directive Principles of State Policy? Abolition of Jagirdari and Zamindari systems. Establishment of Khadi and Village Industries commission Ratification of Paris climate change agreement Abolition of untouchability Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as Abolition of Jagirdari and Zamindari through land reforms brought changes in the agrarian society and helped to improve the conditions of rural masses as envisaged in Article 38.
Article 38: State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people
(1) The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life
(2) The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations
Statement 2 is correct as Khadi and Village Industries Board, Khadi and Village Industries Commission, Small Industries Board, National Small Industries corporation etc. have been setup for the development of cottage industries in rural areas under Article 43
Statement 3 is correct as Ratification of the Paris cimate change agreement helps to fulfil the DPSP under Article 48A i.e. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life: The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country
Statement 4 is correct as abolition of untouchability helps in promotion of interests of SCs, STs and other weaker sections of society as envisaged in Article 46 and also in Article 38
|
d
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following have helped to fulfill the objectives under the Directive Principles of State Policy? Abolition of Jagirdari and Zamindari systems. Establishment of Khadi and Village Industries commission Ratification of Paris climate change agreement Abolition of untouchability Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as Abolition of Jagirdari and Zamindari through land reforms brought changes in the agrarian society and helped to improve the conditions of rural masses as envisaged in Article 38.
Article 38: State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people
(1) The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life
(2) The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations
Statement 2 is correct as Khadi and Village Industries Board, Khadi and Village Industries Commission, Small Industries Board, National Small Industries corporation etc. have been setup for the development of cottage industries in rural areas under Article 43
Statement 3 is correct as Ratification of the Paris cimate change agreement helps to fulfil the DPSP under Article 48A i.e. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life: The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country
Statement 4 is correct as abolition of untouchability helps in promotion of interests of SCs, STs and other weaker sections of society as envisaged in Article 46 and also in Article 38
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements: The sanction behind DPSPs is neither political nor legal. The Union cannot issue directions to states for implementation of DPSPs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sanction behind DPSP is political. Dr Ambedkar observed "if any Govt ignores them, they will have to certainly answer for them to the electorate at the time of election" Statement 2 is incorrect. Part IV is part of constitution. And Union government falls within the ambit of definition of state (under article 37, but, giving a conclusive reading of Article 355 and DPSP, Union government can issue directions to state governments to bring those in action. In case of refusal to comply with such directions issued by the Union, it may apply Art. 365 against recalcitrant state. Otherwise, Part IV will remain a dead-letter. Hence, It is competent for the Union to issue directions against particular states to introduce "free and compulsory education [Art. 45]" or to prevent "slaughter of cows, calves and other milch … [Art 48]" and so on
|
d
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements: The sanction behind DPSPs is neither political nor legal. The Union cannot issue directions to states for implementation of DPSPs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sanction behind DPSP is political. Dr Ambedkar observed "if any Govt ignores them, they will have to certainly answer for them to the electorate at the time of election" Statement 2 is incorrect. Part IV is part of constitution. And Union government falls within the ambit of definition of state (under article 37, but, giving a conclusive reading of Article 355 and DPSP, Union government can issue directions to state governments to bring those in action. In case of refusal to comply with such directions issued by the Union, it may apply Art. 365 against recalcitrant state. Otherwise, Part IV will remain a dead-letter. Hence, It is competent for the Union to issue directions against particular states to introduce "free and compulsory education [Art. 45]" or to prevent "slaughter of cows, calves and other milch … [Art 48]" and so on##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Mr X refused to sing the National Anthem in a public event and claimed that he could do so as it was a guaranteed Fundamental Right. Under which provision of Fundamental Rights is it covered?
|
Right to freedom of speech and expression
|
Right to freedom of religion
|
Right to equality
|
Right to freedom of speech and expression
|
Right not to sing the National Anthem can be invoked under Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28). As per the verdict of Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala: 1986, religious beliefs permit one not to sing the National Anthem.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Mr X refused to sing the National Anthem in a public event and claimed that he could do so as it was a guaranteed Fundamental Right. Under which provision of Fundamental Rights is it covered?##Option_A:Right to freedom of speech and expression###Option_B:Right to freedom of religion##Option_C:Right to equality##Option_D:Right to freedom of speech and expression##Answer:b##Explaination:Right not to sing the National Anthem can be invoked under Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28). As per the verdict of Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala: 1986, religious beliefs permit one not to sing the National Anthem.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Concept of ‘Welfare State’ over ‘Police State’ is included in which of the following provision/provisions of the Constitution of India?
Fundamental Rights
Preamble
Fundamental Duties
Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
1 is incorrect. Fundamental Rights are more individualistic in nature and promote welfare of individual, citizen or alien, and not state at large.
2 is correct as it talk about realising high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity that paves way for Welfare state.
3 is incorrect as Fundamental Duties are obligations on individual and does not specify nature of state, per se.
4 is correct as Directive Principles are very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for modern democratic state.
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Concept of ‘Welfare State’ over ‘Police State’ is included in which of the following provision/provisions of the Constitution of India?
Fundamental Rights
Preamble
Fundamental Duties
Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
1 is incorrect. Fundamental Rights are more individualistic in nature and promote welfare of individual, citizen or alien, and not state at large.
2 is correct as it talk about realising high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity that paves way for Welfare state.
3 is incorrect as Fundamental Duties are obligations on individual and does not specify nature of state, per se.
4 is correct as Directive Principles are very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for modern democratic state.
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following is/are related to Parliamentary form of government? Existance of titular or constitutional head Westminster Model Non-responsible government Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 and 2 are correct The important feature of the parliamentary system is the existence of a Titular or Constitutional Ruler. Legally the administration of all the affairs of the state is conducted by the head of the state. In reality, however, the administration is carried by the Council of Ministers. The Monarch or the President, as the case may be, is the head of the state, but not the head of the government. The Parliamentary system is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts. It is also known as Cabinet government (India and UK) - Because cabinet is the nucleus of power. Westminster Model (UK) - Because Parliament of UK where Parliamentary government emerged is called Westminster House Responsible Government (India and UK) - As Council of Ministers is responsible to the Parliament. The Presidential system is the one in which the executive is not responsible to the legislature. It is also known as Non-responsible Government Non-Parliamentary government
|
b
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is/are related to Parliamentary form of government? Existance of titular or constitutional head Westminster Model Non-responsible government Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 and 2 are correct The important feature of the parliamentary system is the existence of a Titular or Constitutional Ruler. Legally the administration of all the affairs of the state is conducted by the head of the state. In reality, however, the administration is carried by the Council of Ministers. The Monarch or the President, as the case may be, is the head of the state, but not the head of the government. The Parliamentary system is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts. It is also known as Cabinet government (India and UK) - Because cabinet is the nucleus of power. Westminster Model (UK) - Because Parliament of UK where Parliamentary government emerged is called Westminster House Responsible Government (India and UK) - As Council of Ministers is responsible to the Parliament. The Presidential system is the one in which the executive is not responsible to the legislature. It is also known as Non-responsible Government Non-Parliamentary government##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following features show federal character of Indian polity?
1. Seventh Schedule
2. Rajya Sabha
3. All India Service
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Explanation Ans 1 and 2 only
Seventh schedule - it promotes federal poltiy as it makes provision for division of powers between cnter and states. And one of the basic feature of federalism is division of powers
Rajya Sabha - It is also called Council of States as it protects the inerests of the states in Parliament. hence it promotes federal character of Indian polity.
All India Services - It promotes Unitary feature in Indian polity as they work in states but are under the control of center.
|
b
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following features show federal character of Indian polity?
1. Seventh Schedule
2. Rajya Sabha
3. All India Service
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Explanation Ans 1 and 2 only
Seventh schedule - it promotes federal poltiy as it makes provision for division of powers between cnter and states. And one of the basic feature of federalism is division of powers
Rajya Sabha - It is also called Council of States as it protects the inerests of the states in Parliament. hence it promotes federal character of Indian polity.
All India Services - It promotes Unitary feature in Indian polity as they work in states but are under the control of center.
##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following reflects the promotion of federal spirit in Indian Polity? Abolition of Planning Commission Transfer of Subject from state list to concurrent list. Increase in share of states in Central pool of taxes to 42%. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
Abolition of planning commission will boost federation as planning commission was considered as promoting centralization of power. Division of powers is the basic feature of a federal government. If a subject is removed from state list and moved to concurrent list it wil allow even centre to pass laws on the same subject and since Parliament has overriding power over States in concurrent list it will promote unitary spirit rather than federal spirit. Increase in share of states in Central pool of taxes will boost fiscal Federalism. Hence only 1 and 3 are correct.
|
b
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following reflects the promotion of federal spirit in Indian Polity? Abolition of Planning Commission Transfer of Subject from state list to concurrent list. Increase in share of states in Central pool of taxes to 42%. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Abolition of planning commission will boost federation as planning commission was considered as promoting centralization of power. Division of powers is the basic feature of a federal government. If a subject is removed from state list and moved to concurrent list it wil allow even centre to pass laws on the same subject and since Parliament has overriding power over States in concurrent list it will promote unitary spirit rather than federal spirit. Increase in share of states in Central pool of taxes will boost fiscal Federalism. Hence only 1 and 3 are correct.##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Who among the following represent Republican character of Indian polity?
|
President
|
Prime Minister
|
Chief Justice of India
|
President
|
A democratic polity can be classified into two categories - monarchy and republic.
In monarchy head of the state enjoys Hereditary position. Whereas in a republic, the head of the state is always elected either directly or indirectly. Hence President represents the republican character as he is the Head of the state in India.
Prime minister is not the answer because he is head of the Government not the head of the state. Also PM represents the Democratic character of Indian polity.
|
a
|
Republic and Monarchy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Who among the following represent Republican character of Indian polity?
##Option_A: President
###Option_B: Prime Minister
##Option_C: Chief Justice of India
##Option_D: President
##Answer:a##Explaination:
A democratic polity can be classified into two categories - monarchy and republic.
In monarchy head of the state enjoys Hereditary position. Whereas in a republic, the head of the state is always elected either directly or indirectly. Hence President represents the republican character as he is the Head of the state in India.
Prime minister is not the answer because he is head of the Government not the head of the state. Also PM represents the Democratic character of Indian polity.
##Topic:Republic and Monarchy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are provisions under Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Indian Constitution? 1. Provide education opportunities for child and ward between the age of six and fourteen years 2. Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife 3. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India 4. Promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect as they are Fundamental Duties under part IV A of the Constitution Statement 4 is correct as it is a DPSP under Article 39 (a), part !V of the Constitution
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are provisions under Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Indian Constitution? 1. Provide education opportunities for child and ward between the age of six and fourteen years 2. Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife 3. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India 4. Promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A:1, 2, 3 and 4###Option_B:4 only##Option_C:1 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2, 3 and 4##Answer:b##Explaination:Statements 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect as they are Fundamental Duties under part IV A of the Constitution Statement 4 is correct as it is a DPSP under Article 39 (a), part !V of the Constitution##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the Treaty of Salbai:
1. It was signed between the British and the Marathas after the 2nd Anglo Maratha war.
2. Britishers agreed to pension off their protege Raghunath Rao.
3. Maratha retained their control over Bassein.
Select the correct code from the options given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
.
|
b
|
British Expansion policy: Doctrine of lapse, Subordinate alliance etc
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Treaty of Salbai:
1. It was signed between the British and the Marathas after the 2nd Anglo Maratha war.
2. Britishers agreed to pension off their protege Raghunath Rao.
3. Maratha retained their control over Bassein.
Select the correct code from the options given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:British Expansion policy: Doctrine of lapse, Subordinate alliance etc##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the First Carnatic war:
It was fought between the British and French East India companies.
It coincided with the war of the Austrian succession
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
.
|
c
|
India in the late Eighteenth Century
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the First Carnatic war:
It was fought between the British and French East India companies.
It coincided with the war of the Austrian succession
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:India in the late Eighteenth Century##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the Saranjamdar system:
1. It was a non-hereditary grant of land for the maintenance of troops or for military service.
2. It was introduced by Maratha ruler Rajaram Bhonsle
3. Certain Saranjams had enjoyed the status of princely states during British rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1,2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
b
|
Indian Kingdoms in 18th century: Marathas, Punjab, Mysore, Hyderabad etc
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Saranjamdar system:
1. It was a non-hereditary grant of land for the maintenance of troops or for military service.
2. It was introduced by Maratha ruler Rajaram Bhonsle
3. Certain Saranjams had enjoyed the status of princely states during British rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1,2 and 3##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Indian Kingdoms in 18th century: Marathas, Punjab, Mysore, Hyderabad etc##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The "Double membership" in the Indian parliamentay system refers to which of the following?
|
A member of Parliament cannot be a member of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously.
|
The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
|
Members of Parliament if selected for two seats in Lok Sabha, have to renounce one.
|
A member of Parliament cannot be a member of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously.
|
One of the features of Parliamentary Government in India is Double Membership. The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of parliament. The constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of parliament for a period of 6 consecutive months ceases to be a minister.
|
b
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The "Double membership" in the Indian parliamentay system refers to which of the following?
##Option_A: A member of Parliament cannot be a member of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously.
###Option_B: The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
##Option_C: Members of Parliament if selected for two seats in Lok Sabha, have to renounce one.
##Option_D: A member of Parliament cannot be a member of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
One of the features of Parliamentary Government in India is Double Membership. The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of parliament. The constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of parliament for a period of 6 consecutive months ceases to be a minister.
##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are the reasons for adoption of parliamentary system in India?
1. Heterogeneous society
2. Familiarity with the system
3. To prevent despotism
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The reasons were:
1. Heterogeneous society – because India has such heterogeneous society the constitution makers adopter parliamentary system as it offers greater scope for giving representation to various section, interests and regions in the government.
2. Familiarity with the system – Constitution makers were already familiar with the system as it had been in operation under the british rule
3. To prevent despotism – they wanted to avoid the conflicts between legislature and executive which are bound to happen in presidential form of government. Also, executive authority is vested in a group of ministers rather than a single person.
|
d
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are the reasons for adoption of parliamentary system in India?
1. Heterogeneous society
2. Familiarity with the system
3. To prevent despotism
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The reasons were:
1. Heterogeneous society – because India has such heterogeneous society the constitution makers adopter parliamentary system as it offers greater scope for giving representation to various section, interests and regions in the government.
2. Familiarity with the system – Constitution makers were already familiar with the system as it had been in operation under the british rule
3. To prevent despotism – they wanted to avoid the conflicts between legislature and executive which are bound to happen in presidential form of government. Also, executive authority is vested in a group of ministers rather than a single person.
##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statement regarding Indian federal system.
1. The term ‘federation’ in not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
2. The Indian federal system is based on the American Model.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. The term ‘federation’ in not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. The Indian federal system is based on the Canadian Model. It resembles in the Canadian model in following ways. (i) in its formation (ie. By way of disintegration), (ii) in its preference to the term Union, and (iii) in its centralising tendency (ie. Vesting more powers in the centre vis-à-vis the states)
|
a
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Indian federal system.
1. The term ‘federation’ in not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
2. The Indian federal system is based on the American Model.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Correct. The term ‘federation’ in not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. The Indian federal system is based on the Canadian Model. It resembles in the Canadian model in following ways. (i) in its formation (ie. By way of disintegration), (ii) in its preference to the term Union, and (iii) in its centralising tendency (ie. Vesting more powers in the centre vis-à-vis the states)
##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following are Federal features of Indian Constitution?
1. Single Constitution
2. Single Citizenship
3. Written Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
Federal features are:
1. Dual polity
2. Written constitution
3. Division of powers
4. Rigid constitution
5. Supremacy of constitution
6. Independent judiciary
7. Bicameralism
Unitary Features are
1. Strong centre
2. Single citizenship
3. Single constitution
4. Emergency provision
5. All India services etc.
|
a
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are Federal features of Indian Constitution?
1. Single Constitution
2. Single Citizenship
3. Written Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Federal features are:
1. Dual polity
2. Written constitution
3. Division of powers
4. Rigid constitution
5. Supremacy of constitution
6. Independent judiciary
7. Bicameralism
Unitary Features are
1. Strong centre
2. Single citizenship
3. Single constitution
4. Emergency provision
5. All India services etc.
##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The Indian political system differes from the Constitutional Monarchy of Britain in which of the following ways?
1. Election of the head of the state
2. Sovereignty of the Parliament
3. Advice of the Cabinet
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The head of the state in India is elected (President) while the head of the state in constitutional monarchy of Britain is hereditary.
Statement 2 is correct. Parliament in India is not sovereign due to written constitution, judicial review and fundamental rights, while constitutional monarchy of the British system have doctrine of sovereignty of parliament.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Both the political systems work on the advice given by their cabinet.
|
b
|
Republic and Monarchy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Indian political system differes from the Constitutional Monarchy of Britain in which of the following ways?
1. Election of the head of the state
2. Sovereignty of the Parliament
3. Advice of the Cabinet
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. The head of the state in India is elected (President) while the head of the state in constitutional monarchy of Britain is hereditary.
Statement 2 is correct. Parliament in India is not sovereign due to written constitution, judicial review and fundamental rights, while constitutional monarchy of the British system have doctrine of sovereignty of parliament.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Both the political systems work on the advice given by their cabinet.
##Topic:Republic and Monarchy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Constitution of a country serve several purposes. Which of the following purposes are surved by the constitution in making a country stronger and a resilient?
1. It lays out ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that citizens aspire to live in.
2. It ensures that a dominant group does not use its power against other, less powerful people or groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. First, it lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that we as citizens aspire to live in. Or, put another way, a Constitution tells us what the fundamental nature of our society is. A country is usually made up of different communities of people who share certain beliefs but may not necessarily agree on all issues. A Constitution helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed. This includes not only the type of government but also an agreement on certain ideals that they all believe the country should uphold.
Statement 2 is Correct. Another important function that the Constitution plays in a democracy is to ensure that a dominant group does not use its power against other, less powerful people or groups. Example, the Constitution often lays down rules that guard against this misuse of authority by the executives i.e. Fundamental Rights.
|
c
|
Constitutionalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Constitution of a country serve several purposes. Which of the following purposes are surved by the constitution in making a country stronger and a resilient?
1. It lays out ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that citizens aspire to live in.
2. It ensures that a dominant group does not use its power against other, less powerful people or groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Correct. First, it lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that we as citizens aspire to live in. Or, put another way, a Constitution tells us what the fundamental nature of our society is. A country is usually made up of different communities of people who share certain beliefs but may not necessarily agree on all issues. A Constitution helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed. This includes not only the type of government but also an agreement on certain ideals that they all believe the country should uphold.
Statement 2 is Correct. Another important function that the Constitution plays in a democracy is to ensure that a dominant group does not use its power against other, less powerful people or groups. Example, the Constitution often lays down rules that guard against this misuse of authority by the executives i.e. Fundamental Rights.
##Topic:Constitutionalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?
|
It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
|
It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain
|
It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer
|
It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?##Option_A: It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation###Option_B: It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain##Option_C: It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer##Option_D: It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Trade Winds, consider the following statements: 1. They are more constant in the summer season than in the winter season over land. 2. They blow from the subtropical high-pressure belt to the equatorial low-pressure belt. 3. They are deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Trade winds: It is the wind blowing steadily toward the equator from the northeast in the northern hemisphere or the southeast in the southern hemisphere, especially at sea. Two belts of trade winds encircle the earth. These winds are called trade winds because of the fact that they helped the sea merchants in sailing their ships as their (trade winds) direction remain more or less constant and regular. There is a more or less regular inflow of winds from subtropical high-pressure belts to the equatorial low-pressure belt. Hence statement 2 is correct . According to Ferrel's law( based on Coriolis force generated by the rotation of the earth), trade winds are deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 3 is correct. There is much variation in the weather condition in different parts of the trade winds. The poleward side of the trade winds or eastern sides of the subtropical anticyclones are dry because of the strong subsidence of air currents from above. Because of the dominance of the anticyclonic conditions, there is strong atmospheric stability, strong inversion of temperature, and a clear sky. On the other hand, the equatorward part of the trade winds is humid because they are characterized by atmospheric instability and much precipitation as the trade winds while blowing over the oceans pick up moisture. Trade winds are more regular and constant over the oceans than over the lands. At some places on the lands (eg. S.E . Asia and the southern USA) the trade winds disappear during the summer season due to the formation of low-pressure cells because of high temperatures but the trade winds are more constant and regular over the continents during the winter season . Hence statement 1 is not correct It may be pointed out that the zone of trade winds is called Hadley Cell on the basis of the convective model prepared by Hadley for the entire earth.
|
b
|
Winds Planetary, Seasonal and Local; Jet Streams
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Trade Winds, consider the following statements: 1. They are more constant in the summer season than in the winter season over land. 2. They blow from the subtropical high-pressure belt to the equatorial low-pressure belt. 3. They are deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Trade winds: It is the wind blowing steadily toward the equator from the northeast in the northern hemisphere or the southeast in the southern hemisphere, especially at sea. Two belts of trade winds encircle the earth. These winds are called trade winds because of the fact that they helped the sea merchants in sailing their ships as their (trade winds) direction remain more or less constant and regular. There is a more or less regular inflow of winds from subtropical high-pressure belts to the equatorial low-pressure belt. Hence statement 2 is correct . According to Ferrel's law( based on Coriolis force generated by the rotation of the earth), trade winds are deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 3 is correct. There is much variation in the weather condition in different parts of the trade winds. The poleward side of the trade winds or eastern sides of the subtropical anticyclones are dry because of the strong subsidence of air currents from above. Because of the dominance of the anticyclonic conditions, there is strong atmospheric stability, strong inversion of temperature, and a clear sky. On the other hand, the equatorward part of the trade winds is humid because they are characterized by atmospheric instability and much precipitation as the trade winds while blowing over the oceans pick up moisture. Trade winds are more regular and constant over the oceans than over the lands. At some places on the lands (eg. S.E . Asia and the southern USA) the trade winds disappear during the summer season due to the formation of low-pressure cells because of high temperatures but the trade winds are more constant and regular over the continents during the winter season . Hence statement 1 is not correct It may be pointed out that the zone of trade winds is called Hadley Cell on the basis of the convective model prepared by Hadley for the entire earth.##Topic:Winds Planetary, Seasonal and Local; Jet Streams##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Right against exploitation guaranteed by the Constitution prohibits which of the following activities?
|
Exploitation against religious minorities
|
Exploitation against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
|
Traffic in human beings and forced labour
|
Exploitation against religious minorities
|
Article 23 (Right Against Exploitation) of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Right against exploitation guaranteed by the Constitution prohibits which of the following activities?
##Option_A: Exploitation against religious minorities
###Option_B: Exploitation against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
##Option_C: Traffic in human beings and forced labour
##Option_D: Exploitation against religious minorities
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Article 23 (Right Against Exploitation) of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Union Budget, which of the following, is/are covered under Non-Plan Revenue Expenditure? 1. Defense -expenditure 2. Interest payments 3. Salaries and pensions 4. Subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Union Budget, which of the following, is/are covered under Non-Plan Revenue Expenditure? 1. Defense -expenditure 2. Interest payments 3. Salaries and pensions 4. Subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2, 3 and 4##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with reference to drought: A period of below-normal rainfall does not necessarily result in drought conditions. Hydrological drought is a situation when the water availability in different storages and reservoirs falls below what precipitation can replenish. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The term ‘drought’ is applied to an extended period when there is a shortage of water availability due to inadequate precipitation, excessive rate of evaporation, and over-utilization of water from the reservoirs and other storages, including the groundwater. A period of below-normal rainfall does not necessarily result in drought conditions. Hence statement 1 is correct. Some rain returns to the air as water vapor when water evaporates from water surfaces and from moist soil. Plant roots draw some of the moisture from the soil and return it to the air through a process called transpiration. The total amount of water returned to the air by these processes is called evapotranspiration. Sunlight, humidity, temperature, and wind affect the rate of evapotranspiration. When evapotranspiration rates are large, soils can lose moisture and dry conditions can develop. During cool, cloudy weather, evapotranspiration rates may be small enough to offset periods of below-normal precipitation, and drought may be less severe or may not develop at all. Types of Droughts: Meteorological Drought : It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space. Agricultural Drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterized by low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an area has more than 30 percent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded from the drought-prone category. Hydrological Drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish. Hence statement 2 is correct. Ecological Drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to a shortage of water and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem.
|
c
|
Others
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to drought: A period of below-normal rainfall does not necessarily result in drought conditions. Hydrological drought is a situation when the water availability in different storages and reservoirs falls below what precipitation can replenish. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The term ‘drought’ is applied to an extended period when there is a shortage of water availability due to inadequate precipitation, excessive rate of evaporation, and over-utilization of water from the reservoirs and other storages, including the groundwater. A period of below-normal rainfall does not necessarily result in drought conditions. Hence statement 1 is correct. Some rain returns to the air as water vapor when water evaporates from water surfaces and from moist soil. Plant roots draw some of the moisture from the soil and return it to the air through a process called transpiration. The total amount of water returned to the air by these processes is called evapotranspiration. Sunlight, humidity, temperature, and wind affect the rate of evapotranspiration. When evapotranspiration rates are large, soils can lose moisture and dry conditions can develop. During cool, cloudy weather, evapotranspiration rates may be small enough to offset periods of below-normal precipitation, and drought may be less severe or may not develop at all. Types of Droughts: Meteorological Drought : It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space. Agricultural Drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterized by low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an area has more than 30 percent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded from the drought-prone category. Hydrological Drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish. Hence statement 2 is correct. Ecological Drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to a shortage of water and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem.##Topic:Others##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements: It introduced a system of communal representation in India. It introduced bicameralism and direct elections in the country. It gave the legislative councils, for the first time, the power to discuss budget. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The act introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bicameralism and direct elections were introduced by the act of 1919. Statement 3 is incorrect. Power to discuss budget was already accorded in the Act of 1892.
|
a
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements: It introduced a system of communal representation in India. It introduced bicameralism and direct elections in the country. It gave the legislative councils, for the first time, the power to discuss budget. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The act introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bicameralism and direct elections were introduced by the act of 1919. Statement 3 is incorrect. Power to discuss budget was already accorded in the Act of 1892. ##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Act of 1784, consider the following statements: 1. This act established the system of double government in India. 2. This act gave British government supreme control over Company"s affair and administration in India. 3. It separated for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of Governor-general. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The act allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commecial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government.
Statement 2 is also correct. This act was significant for two reasons: first, the Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the British possessions in India; and second, the British Government was given the supreme control over Company’s affairs and its administration in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It was Charter Act of 1853 that separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council.
|
b
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Act of 1784, consider the following statements: 1. This act established the system of double government in India. 2. This act gave British government supreme control over Company"s affair and administration in India. 3. It separated for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of Governor-general. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only ##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. The act allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commecial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government.
Statement 2 is also correct. This act was significant for two reasons: first, the Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the British possessions in India; and second, the British Government was given the supreme control over Company’s affairs and its administration in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It was Charter Act of 1853 that separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council.
##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Charter Act of 1833? The act ended the commercial activity of East India Company and reduced it to an administrative body. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The act ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company's territories in India were held by it 'in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors. Statement 2 is also correct. This act made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
|
c
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Charter Act of 1833? The act ended the commercial activity of East India Company and reduced it to an administrative body. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The act ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company's territories in India were held by it 'in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors. Statement 2 is also correct. This act made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which one of the following is an example of derivative securities?
|
return backed security
|
mortgage-backed security
|
cash flow backed security
|
return backed security
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following is an example of derivative securities?##Option_A:return backed security###Option_B:mortgage-backed security##Option_C:cash flow backed security##Option_D:return backed security##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Adopting a liberal interpretation, the Supreme Court has read several rights to constitute under Art. 21. Which of the following constitute these rights?
1. Right to information
2. Right to shelter
3. Right to go abroad
4. Right against public hanging
5. Right to reputation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
|
3, 4 and 5 only
|
The expanded scope of Article 21 has been explained by the Apex Court and it itself provided the list of some of the rights covered under Article 21 on the basis of earlier pronouncements and some of them are listed below:
The right to go abroad.
The right to privacy.
The right against solitary confinement.
The right against hand cuffing.
The right against delayed execution.
The right to shelter.
The right against custodial death.
The right against public hanging.
Doctors assistance
Right to pollution free water and air.
Protection of under-trial.
Right of every child to a full development.
Protection of cultural heritage.
Right to hearing
Right to reputation
Right information
Right against bar felters and handcuffing
Right to speedy, fair and open trail.
Right to legal aid, etc.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Adopting a liberal interpretation, the Supreme Court has read several rights to constitute under Art. 21. Which of the following constitute these rights?
1. Right to information
2. Right to shelter
3. Right to go abroad
4. Right against public hanging
5. Right to reputation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 3, 4 and 5 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
##Option_D: 3, 4 and 5 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The expanded scope of Article 21 has been explained by the Apex Court and it itself provided the list of some of the rights covered under Article 21 on the basis of earlier pronouncements and some of them are listed below:
The right to go abroad.
The right to privacy.
The right against solitary confinement.
The right against hand cuffing.
The right against delayed execution.
The right to shelter.
The right against custodial death.
The right against public hanging.
Doctors assistance
Right to pollution free water and air.
Protection of under-trial.
Right of every child to a full development.
Protection of cultural heritage.
Right to hearing
Right to reputation
Right information
Right against bar felters and handcuffing
Right to speedy, fair and open trail.
Right to legal aid, etc.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following provisions related to an act of British India: It provided for an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states. It abolished dyarchy in states but introduced provincial autonomy. It abolished the Council of India which was established by Government of India Act, 1858. The above mentioned provisions are related to which of the following acts?
|
Government of India Act, 1909
|
Government of India Act, 1919
|
Government of India Act, 1935
|
Government of India Act, 1909
|
Salient Features of the Government of India Act 1935 were as follows: Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of dyarchy at centre. Abolished the Council of India, established by Government of India Act, 1858. The secretary of State was provided with a team of advisors. Provision for an All India Federation with British India territories and princely states. Elaborate safeguards and protective instruments for minorities. division of subjects into three lists and retention of communal electorate.
|
c
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following provisions related to an act of British India: It provided for an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states. It abolished dyarchy in states but introduced provincial autonomy. It abolished the Council of India which was established by Government of India Act, 1858. The above mentioned provisions are related to which of the following acts?##Option_A: Government of India Act, 1909###Option_B: Government of India Act, 1919##Option_C: Government of India Act, 1935##Option_D: Government of India Act, 1909##Answer:c##Explaination:Salient Features of the Government of India Act 1935 were as follows: Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of dyarchy at centre. Abolished the Council of India, established by Government of India Act, 1858. The secretary of State was provided with a team of advisors. Provision for an All India Federation with British India territories and princely states. Elaborate safeguards and protective instruments for minorities. division of subjects into three lists and retention of communal electorate.##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament:
1. It was established before India gained independence and has been functioning since
2. Its members are drawn only from the Lower House
3. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as the Committee was set up in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Committee has 22 members, 15 from the Lower House and 7 from the upper House
Statement 3 is correct as a minister cannot become a member of the Committee
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament:
1. It was established before India gained independence and has been functioning since
2. Its members are drawn only from the Lower House
3. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as the Committee was set up in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Committee has 22 members, 15 from the Lower House and 7 from the upper House
Statement 3 is correct as a minister cannot become a member of the Committee
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Increasing unemployment and inflation is a situation of :
|
Hyperinflation
|
Deflation
|
Stagflation
|
Hyperinflation
|
.
|
c
|
Inflation: Definition, Inflationary Gap and Inflationary Process, Inflation Cycles: Demand Pull Inflation, Cost Push Inflation, Causes of Inflation, Inflation Control measures
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Increasing unemployment and inflation is a situation of :##Option_A:Hyperinflation###Option_B:Deflation##Option_C:Stagflation##Option_D:Hyperinflation##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Inflation: Definition, Inflationary Gap and Inflationary Process, Inflation Cycles: Demand Pull Inflation, Cost Push Inflation, Causes of Inflation, Inflation Control measures##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statement(s) regarding 'state action' as per Article 12 of the Consitution is/are correct?
1. The act of a private individual may be regarded as the act of the State if it is aided by an Executive organ of a state.
2. Minority schools are not State within the meaning of Art. 12.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
'State action', as per the definition given in Art. 12 of Part III refers to the action undertaken by not only the Executive and the Legislative organs of the Union and the States, but also local bodies such as municipal authorities and orders, rules, bye-laws or regulations having the force of law. Even the act of a private individual may become an act of the State if it is enforced or aided by any of the authorities related to the Government.
Unaided private minority schools over which the Government has no administrative control because of their autonomy under Art. 30(1) of the Constitution are not State within the meaning of Art. 12 of the Constitution.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statement(s) regarding 'state action' as per Article 12 of the Consitution is/are correct?
1. The act of a private individual may be regarded as the act of the State if it is aided by an Executive organ of a state.
2. Minority schools are not State within the meaning of Art. 12.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
'State action', as per the definition given in Art. 12 of Part III refers to the action undertaken by not only the Executive and the Legislative organs of the Union and the States, but also local bodies such as municipal authorities and orders, rules, bye-laws or regulations having the force of law. Even the act of a private individual may become an act of the State if it is enforced or aided by any of the authorities related to the Government.
Unaided private minority schools over which the Government has no administrative control because of their autonomy under Art. 30(1) of the Constitution are not State within the meaning of Art. 12 of the Constitution.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to Preventive Detention? 1. A person can be detained for withholding or obstructing services which are essential to the community. 2. A person can be detained in custody only for a period of three months. 3. The detained person holds the right to be informed of the grounds for his detention except when such information is against public interest to disclose. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The Constitution authorises the Legislature to make laws providing for preventive detention for reasons connected to: 1. the security of a State 2. the maintenance of public order 3. maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community 4. for reasons connected with Defence, Foreign Affairs or the Security of India. No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice. However, it is not applicable when it is against the public interest to disclose. Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the said period without the authority of a magistrate. No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless it is granted by an Advisory Board (consisting of persons who are or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court) has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention. However, the Parliament may by law prescribe the circumstances under which a person may be detained for a period longer than three months without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board and the maximum period for which any person may be detained under any law providing for preventive detention.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to Preventive Detention? 1. A person can be detained for withholding or obstructing services which are essential to the community. 2. A person can be detained in custody only for a period of three months. 3. The detained person holds the right to be informed of the grounds for his detention except when such information is against public interest to disclose. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Constitution authorises the Legislature to make laws providing for preventive detention for reasons connected to: 1. the security of a State 2. the maintenance of public order 3. maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community 4. for reasons connected with Defence, Foreign Affairs or the Security of India. No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice. However, it is not applicable when it is against the public interest to disclose. Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the said period without the authority of a magistrate. No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless it is granted by an Advisory Board (consisting of persons who are or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court) has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention. However, the Parliament may by law prescribe the circumstances under which a person may be detained for a period longer than three months without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board and the maximum period for which any person may be detained under any law providing for preventive detention.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
While Right to Vote is a statutory right guaranteed by the Representation of People Act 1951, Right not to Vote (NOTA) comes under which of the following rights?
|
Constitutional Right
|
Fundamental Right
|
Legal Right
|
Constitutional Right
|
None Of The Above (NOTA) is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 19 (1) (a). The option is based on the principle that "consent requires the ability to withhold consent in an election". However, the Election Commission clarified that votes caste as NOTA are counted, but are considered 'invalid votes'. The relevance of NOTA is that it gives people dissatisfied with contesting candidates an opportunity to express their disapproval.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:While Right to Vote is a statutory right guaranteed by the Representation of People Act 1951, Right not to Vote (NOTA) comes under which of the following rights?##Option_A:Constitutional Right###Option_B:Fundamental Right##Option_C:Legal Right##Option_D:Constitutional Right##Answer:b##Explaination:None Of The Above (NOTA) is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 19 (1) (a). The option is based on the principle that "consent requires the ability to withhold consent in an election". However, the Election Commission clarified that votes caste as NOTA are counted, but are considered 'invalid votes'. The relevance of NOTA is that it gives people dissatisfied with contesting candidates an opportunity to express their disapproval.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statement:
1. The Industrial Policy of 1948 was the first industrial policy statement by the Government
2. It gave a leading role to the private sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement:
1. The Industrial Policy of 1948 was the first industrial policy statement by the Government
2. It gave a leading role to the private sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to Vedanta Desikan, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. He was one of the most prominent preceptors in the Sri Vaishnava tradition. 2. He was a contemporary of the bhakti saint Ramanuja. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Recently, a postage stamp was launched to commemorate the 750th birth anniversary of Sri Vedanta Desikan. He was a Sri Vaishnava guru/philosopher and one of the most brilliant stalwarts of Sri Vaishnavism in the post-Ramanuja period. He was a multi-faceted personality and celebrated as ‘Sarva-Tantra-Svatantra’ or master of all arts and crafts and awarded the title ‘Kavi TarkikaKesari’, the lion amongst poets and logicians. He wrote poems, prose, drama, epics, commentaries, scientific texts and philosophical treatises in Sanskrit, Tamil, Prakrit and Manipravalam. His magnum opus, the Rahasya Traya Sara, is a masterly treatise on Prapatti or surrendering oneself to the divine. His masterpiece, Paduka Sahasram, reveals his poetic eloquence and his mathematical ingenuity. In two verses in this collection, Sri Vedanta Desikann gave a solution to a mathematical problem that was solved five centuries later by another mathematician, Leonard Euler. Desikan showed his knowledge of the arts and sciences through other works such as Silpartha-saram, a treatise on sculpture, and Bhugola-nirnayam – a research text on geography. Taking cues from the Vedic scriptures, Vedanta Desikan authored Aahaara Niyamam that detailed how different food items help in maintaining a healthy mind and a disease-free life. His ‘Subhashita Neevi’ contains a fund of moral and ethical advice which is relevant and practical. About Sri Vaishnava tradition: It is a denomination within the Vaishnavism tradition of Hinduism. Though Nathamuni (10th century CE) is attributed as the founder, its central philosopher was Ramanuja (11th C) who developed the Vishishtadvaita philosophy. The most striking difference between Srivaishnavas and other Vaishnava groups lies in their interpretation of Vedas. While other Vaishnava groups interpret Vedic deities like Indra, Rudra, etc. to be same as their Puranic counterparts, Sri Vaishnavas consider these to be different names and forms of Lord Narayan thus claiming that the entire Veda is dedicated for Vishnu worship alone. In this tradition, the ultimate reality and truth are considered to be the divine sharing of the feminine and the masculine, the goddess and the god. The prefix Sri is used for this sect because they give special importance to the worship of the Goddess Lakshmi, who they believe to act as a mediator between God Vishnu and man. Some of the important acharyas of this tradition are Yamunacharya, Ramanujacharya, Parasara Bhattar, Pillai Lokacharya, Vedanta Desikan.
|
a
|
Other Persons
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Vedanta Desikan, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. He was one of the most prominent preceptors in the Sri Vaishnava tradition. 2. He was a contemporary of the bhakti saint Ramanuja. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Recently, a postage stamp was launched to commemorate the 750th birth anniversary of Sri Vedanta Desikan. He was a Sri Vaishnava guru/philosopher and one of the most brilliant stalwarts of Sri Vaishnavism in the post-Ramanuja period. He was a multi-faceted personality and celebrated as ‘Sarva-Tantra-Svatantra’ or master of all arts and crafts and awarded the title ‘Kavi TarkikaKesari’, the lion amongst poets and logicians. He wrote poems, prose, drama, epics, commentaries, scientific texts and philosophical treatises in Sanskrit, Tamil, Prakrit and Manipravalam. His magnum opus, the Rahasya Traya Sara, is a masterly treatise on Prapatti or surrendering oneself to the divine. His masterpiece, Paduka Sahasram, reveals his poetic eloquence and his mathematical ingenuity. In two verses in this collection, Sri Vedanta Desikann gave a solution to a mathematical problem that was solved five centuries later by another mathematician, Leonard Euler. Desikan showed his knowledge of the arts and sciences through other works such as Silpartha-saram, a treatise on sculpture, and Bhugola-nirnayam – a research text on geography. Taking cues from the Vedic scriptures, Vedanta Desikan authored Aahaara Niyamam that detailed how different food items help in maintaining a healthy mind and a disease-free life. His ‘Subhashita Neevi’ contains a fund of moral and ethical advice which is relevant and practical. About Sri Vaishnava tradition: It is a denomination within the Vaishnavism tradition of Hinduism. Though Nathamuni (10th century CE) is attributed as the founder, its central philosopher was Ramanuja (11th C) who developed the Vishishtadvaita philosophy. The most striking difference between Srivaishnavas and other Vaishnava groups lies in their interpretation of Vedas. While other Vaishnava groups interpret Vedic deities like Indra, Rudra, etc. to be same as their Puranic counterparts, Sri Vaishnavas consider these to be different names and forms of Lord Narayan thus claiming that the entire Veda is dedicated for Vishnu worship alone. In this tradition, the ultimate reality and truth are considered to be the divine sharing of the feminine and the masculine, the goddess and the god. The prefix Sri is used for this sect because they give special importance to the worship of the Goddess Lakshmi, who they believe to act as a mediator between God Vishnu and man. Some of the important acharyas of this tradition are Yamunacharya, Ramanujacharya, Parasara Bhattar, Pillai Lokacharya, Vedanta Desikan.##Topic:Other Persons##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
What is the role of the Supreme Court in the instance of an inter-state dispute relating to waters of Inter-state rivers or river valleys?
|
It suo- motu adjudicates any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley
|
It decides on the issue as it falls under the Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
|
It may use its discretion under Article 136 and either grant or deny its directions under Special Leave Petitions
|
It suo- motu adjudicates any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley
|
Under Article 136 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgement, decree, determination, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any court or tribunal in the territory of India.
While Article 262 deems Parliament to settle Inter-State water river disputes, there is a provision for the Supreme Court to review the judgement of the arbitration body set up the by Parliament under Article 136 of the Constitution
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What is the role of the Supreme Court in the instance of an inter-state dispute relating to waters of Inter-state rivers or river valleys?
##Option_A:It suo- motu adjudicates any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley
###Option_B:It decides on the issue as it falls under the Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
##Option_C:It may use its discretion under Article 136 and either grant or deny its directions under Special Leave Petitions
##Option_D:It suo- motu adjudicates any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Under Article 136 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgement, decree, determination, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any court or tribunal in the territory of India.
While Article 262 deems Parliament to settle Inter-State water river disputes, there is a provision for the Supreme Court to review the judgement of the arbitration body set up the by Parliament under Article 136 of the Constitution
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following grounds of discrimination
1.Religion
2.Race
3.Sex
4.Descent
5.Place of birth
Which of the following grounds of discrimination are common under article 15(ie, Prohibition of discrimination by state under certain grounds) and article 16( Prohibition of discrimination by state on matters of public employment ) prohibiting the state to discriminate among citizens.
|
1,2 and 3 only
|
2,3 and 5 only
|
1,2,3 and 5 only
|
1,2 and 3 only
|
Under Article 15: State shall not discriminate againsta any citizen on grounds of
Religion
Race
Caste
Sex
Place of birth
Under Article 16: There has to be equality of opurtunity in public employment and a state shall not discriminate a citizen for employment to any public office on the grounds of
Religion
Race
Caste
Sex
Descent (Not common in A15 and A16)
Place of birth
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following grounds of discrimination
1.Religion
2.Race
3.Sex
4.Descent
5.Place of birth
Which of the following grounds of discrimination are common under article 15(ie, Prohibition of discrimination by state under certain grounds) and article 16( Prohibition of discrimination by state on matters of public employment ) prohibiting the state to discriminate among citizens.
##Option_A:1,2 and 3 only
###Option_B:2,3 and 5 only
##Option_C:1,2,3 and 5 only
##Option_D:1,2 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Under Article 15: State shall not discriminate againsta any citizen on grounds of
Religion
Race
Caste
Sex
Place of birth
Under Article 16: There has to be equality of opurtunity in public employment and a state shall not discriminate a citizen for employment to any public office on the grounds of
Religion
Race
Caste
Sex
Descent (Not common in A15 and A16)
Place of birth
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
For which of the following public offices the writ of quo-warranto cannot be issued by the court? Union Public Service Commission Comptroller and Auditor General Niti Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The writ of Quo-Warranto is issued by the court to enquire into legality of claim of a person to a public office., it prevents illegal occupation of a post by a person. The writ can only be issued for public office of permanent character created either under a statute or by the constitution. Extra constitutional bodies , ministrial office are not covered by it. UPSC and CAG are both constitutional bodies whereas Niti Aayog is an extra constitutional body without any backing of a statute. Hence, Quo warranto cannot be used for it.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:For which of the following public offices the writ of quo-warranto cannot be issued by the court? Union Public Service Commission Comptroller and Auditor General Niti Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The writ of Quo-Warranto is issued by the court to enquire into legality of claim of a person to a public office., it prevents illegal occupation of a post by a person. The writ can only be issued for public office of permanent character created either under a statute or by the constitution. Extra constitutional bodies , ministrial office are not covered by it. UPSC and CAG are both constitutional bodies whereas Niti Aayog is an extra constitutional body without any backing of a statute. Hence, Quo warranto cannot be used for it.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
About Article 15 of the Indian constitution, consider the following statements:
Rights under article 15 are available to the citizens only
Under article 15 State shall not discriminate against a citizen on grounds of religion, race, and place of birth or residence only.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The grounds mentioned in article 15 are - Race , religion, Caste, Sex and place of birth
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:About Article 15 of the Indian constitution, consider the following statements:
Rights under article 15 are available to the citizens only
Under article 15 State shall not discriminate against a citizen on grounds of religion, race, and place of birth or residence only.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The grounds mentioned in article 15 are - Race , religion, Caste, Sex and place of birth##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Prohibition of discrimination under article 15(1) does not mention residence as a ground. 2. Art. 16(4) empower the State for reserving certain posts in a state for the residents only. 3. State can’t make religion as a ground for qualification for recruitment of candidates in a certain categories of public employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Prohibition of discrimination under article 15(1) does not mention residence as a ground. 2. Art. 16(4) empower the State for reserving certain posts in a state for the residents only. 3. State can’t make religion as a ground for qualification for recruitment of candidates in a certain categories of public employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
`Consider the following statements regarding the Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs): 1. NFTs are tokens that are used to represent ownership of unique items like art, collectibles, even real estate. 2. NFTs are interchangeable like a cryptocurrency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Recent Context: In the recent times, several multi-million-dollar Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) sales have taken place. For instance, Christie’s sale of an NFT by a digital artist called Beeple set the record for digital art, as it was bought by two Indian-origin crypto enthusiasts for a whopping $69 million. NFTs are tokens that are used to represent ownership of unique items such as art, collectibles, even real estate. T hey can only have one official owner at a time and they're secured by the Ethereum blockchain – no one can modify the record of ownership or copy/paste a new NFT into existence. Hence, statement 1 is correct. About Non-Fungible Token (NFT): NFT is one of a kind asset can be bought and sold similar to any other piece of property. They however have no tangible form and exist in form of certificates only. NFT cannot be broken down into small values and unlike most currencies cannot beexchanged for an equal value. The NFTs have unique value and they cannot be duplicated. NFTs can always be traced back to their original user/supplier. NFTs exist on a blockchain, which is a distributed public ledger that records transactions. So, when an NFT is sent to someone, a ledger entry is made containing an address to the file, which establishes the ownership of that NFT. Each has a digital signature that makes it impossible for NFTs to be exchanged for or equal to one another (hence, non-fungible). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:`Consider the following statements regarding the Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs): 1. NFTs are tokens that are used to represent ownership of unique items like art, collectibles, even real estate. 2. NFTs are interchangeable like a cryptocurrency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Recent Context: In the recent times, several multi-million-dollar Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) sales have taken place. For instance, Christie’s sale of an NFT by a digital artist called Beeple set the record for digital art, as it was bought by two Indian-origin crypto enthusiasts for a whopping $69 million. NFTs are tokens that are used to represent ownership of unique items such as art, collectibles, even real estate. T hey can only have one official owner at a time and they're secured by the Ethereum blockchain – no one can modify the record of ownership or copy/paste a new NFT into existence. Hence, statement 1 is correct. About Non-Fungible Token (NFT): NFT is one of a kind asset can be bought and sold similar to any other piece of property. They however have no tangible form and exist in form of certificates only. NFT cannot be broken down into small values and unlike most currencies cannot beexchanged for an equal value. The NFTs have unique value and they cannot be duplicated. NFTs can always be traced back to their original user/supplier. NFTs exist on a blockchain, which is a distributed public ledger that records transactions. So, when an NFT is sent to someone, a ledger entry is made containing an address to the file, which establishes the ownership of that NFT. Each has a digital signature that makes it impossible for NFTs to be exchanged for or equal to one another (hence, non-fungible). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
The doctrine of the eclipse is applicable only to pre-constitutional laws.
Post-constitutional laws are covered under the doctrine of the eclipse.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
The doctrine of the eclipse is applicable only to pre-constitutional laws.
Post-constitutional laws are covered under the doctrine of the eclipse.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:1. The constitution defines Untouchability under article 17.2. The parliament has enacted the Protection of civil rights act,1955 to enforce rights under article 17.3. Indian citizens must get the consent of the Prime Minister of India in order to get a title from a foreign State.Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:1. The constitution defines Untouchability under article 17.2. The parliament has enacted the Protection of civil rights act,1955 to enforce rights under article 17.3. Indian citizens must get the consent of the Prime Minister of India in order to get a title from a foreign State.Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following events occurred during the Viceroyship of Lord Linlithgow? 1. Rajkot Satyagraha 2. August Revolution 3. Outbreak of Second World War Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Lord Linlithgow was the longest serving viceroy of India . He was the viceroy from 1936 to 1944. During his time, many important events took place. Rajkot Satyagraha took place in 1938-39 . It was against the princely ruler of Rajkot state, known as the ‘Thakore’, oppressive taxation regimes, curbs/restrictions on civil liberties such as freedom of speech, freedom to assemble, lack of access to education and other welfare services . Hence statement 1 is correct. Most of the state revenue that was earned by imposing heavy taxes on its citizens, was spent on the upkeep of the luxurious lifestyles led by the princely ruler. The situation was further aggravated by the fact that the princes had ‘British immunity’ that is they were given protection by the British from domestic and external turmoil or aggression. In exchange for this protection, the princes were expected to support fully, the imperialistic agendas of the British while ignoring the domestic struggles for freedom that were spreading, across their states. Winston Churchill was elected as the prime minister of England in 1940. The Congress passed the ‘Quit India Resolution’ in 1942 which started the Quit India movement. It was famously called as August revolution. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was launched after the failure of the Cripps Mission when it failed to solve the constitutional deadlock. Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted the tricolour on the Gowalia Tank ground and on August 9 night, the senior leaders of the Congress were arrested. Due to the arrests, an action plan for the movement was made. Second world war began in 1939 and lasted till 1945 . Hence statement 3 is correct . It was during Linlithgow’s time that the congress ministries resigned due to outbreak of second world war.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following events occurred during the Viceroyship of Lord Linlithgow? 1. Rajkot Satyagraha 2. August Revolution 3. Outbreak of Second World War Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:2 and 3 only ##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Lord Linlithgow was the longest serving viceroy of India . He was the viceroy from 1936 to 1944. During his time, many important events took place. Rajkot Satyagraha took place in 1938-39 . It was against the princely ruler of Rajkot state, known as the ‘Thakore’, oppressive taxation regimes, curbs/restrictions on civil liberties such as freedom of speech, freedom to assemble, lack of access to education and other welfare services . Hence statement 1 is correct. Most of the state revenue that was earned by imposing heavy taxes on its citizens, was spent on the upkeep of the luxurious lifestyles led by the princely ruler. The situation was further aggravated by the fact that the princes had ‘British immunity’ that is they were given protection by the British from domestic and external turmoil or aggression. In exchange for this protection, the princes were expected to support fully, the imperialistic agendas of the British while ignoring the domestic struggles for freedom that were spreading, across their states. Winston Churchill was elected as the prime minister of England in 1940. The Congress passed the ‘Quit India Resolution’ in 1942 which started the Quit India movement. It was famously called as August revolution. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was launched after the failure of the Cripps Mission when it failed to solve the constitutional deadlock. Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted the tricolour on the Gowalia Tank ground and on August 9 night, the senior leaders of the Congress were arrested. Due to the arrests, an action plan for the movement was made. Second world war began in 1939 and lasted till 1945 . Hence statement 3 is correct . It was during Linlithgow’s time that the congress ministries resigned due to outbreak of second world war. ##Topic:Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Session, Governor –General Viceroys etc.##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following arguments about the importance of seafloor spreading theory -
It has the complete theory about the formation and movement of the seafloor which was earlier unknown.
It also improved on the continental drift theory, that continents move over the oceanic floor and rather establish that it is the oceanic lithosphere that moves over the Aesthenosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following arguments about the importance of seafloor spreading theory -
It has the complete theory about the formation and movement of the seafloor which was earlier unknown.
It also improved on the continental drift theory, that continents move over the oceanic floor and rather establish that it is the oceanic lithosphere that moves over the Aesthenosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा/से गरम दल से संबन्धित है/हैं?
अरविंद घोष
आर. सी. दत्त
लाला लाजपत राय
दादा भाई नौरोजी
नीचे दिये गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
|
केवल 2, 4
|
केवल 1, 3
|
केवल 1, 2, 3
|
केवल 2, 4
|
nan
|
b
|
Freedom Struggle : Extremist Phase (1905 – 17)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा/से गरम दल से संबन्धित है/हैं?
अरविंद घोष
आर. सी. दत्त
लाला लाजपत राय
दादा भाई नौरोजी
नीचे दिये गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।##Option_A:केवल 2, 4###Option_B:केवल 1, 3##Option_C:केवल 1, 2, 3##Option_D:केवल 2, 4##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Freedom Struggle : Extremist Phase (1905 – 17)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With reference to Fundamental rights, consider the following statements:
These rights provide protection only against state actions.
These rights are absolute.
Article 17 is an absolute right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Fundamental rights, consider the following statements:
These rights provide protection only against state actions.
These rights are absolute.
Article 17 is an absolute right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Morley Minto Reforms,1909:
The non-official majority was introduced in Provincial Legislative Councils.
Muslims were provided with a separate electorate.
The legislature could vote on the whole budget.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
1 and 3
|
.
|
c
|
The Morley-Minto Reforms or the Indian Councils Act, 1909
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Morley Minto Reforms,1909:
The non-official majority was introduced in Provincial Legislative Councils.
Muslims were provided with a separate electorate.
The legislature could vote on the whole budget.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3###Option_B: 2 and 3 ##Option_C:1 and 2##Option_D:1 and 3##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:The Morley-Minto Reforms or the Indian Councils Act, 1909##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Kheda Satyagrah:
It was the first non-cooperation movement by Gandhi in India
Indulal Yagnik was part of this movement.
It was led against denial of remission of taxes if the yield is very low.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 3
|
Only 1
|
Only 1 and 3
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Kheda Satyagrah:
It was the first non-cooperation movement by Gandhi in India
Indulal Yagnik was part of this movement.
It was led against denial of remission of taxes if the yield is very low.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 1 and 3###Option_B:Only 3##Option_C:Only 1##Option_D:Only 1 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Jaliawala Bagh incident
1. It was a protest against the arrest of Saifuddin Kitchlew.
2. Rabindranath Tagore gave up his knighthood in protest against this incident.
3. In protest, Gandhi returned the Kaiser-e-Hind title.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 2
|
1, 2, and 3
|
Only 2 and 3
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Jaliawala Bagh incident
1. It was a protest against the arrest of Saifuddin Kitchlew.
2. Rabindranath Tagore gave up his knighthood in protest against this incident.
3. In protest, Gandhi returned the Kaiser-e-Hind title.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 2 and 3###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:1, 2, and 3##Option_D:Only 2 and 3##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhi-Read Talk:
It was held in 1924
It was held in relation to the Khilafat movement
Gandhi withdrew Khilafat movement after this talk
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2
|
Only 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhi-Read Talk:
It was held in 1924
It was held in relation to the Khilafat movement
Gandhi withdrew Khilafat movement after this talk
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 1 and 2###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Only 3##Option_D:Only 1 and 2##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
In the context of the Indian National movement, Which of the following personalities was/were the proponents of the Council Entry movement?
CR Das
Motilal Nehru
Rajendra Prasad
Sardar Patel
|
Only 1
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of the Indian National movement, Which of the following personalities was/were the proponents of the Council Entry movement?
CR Das
Motilal Nehru
Rajendra Prasad
Sardar Patel
##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2 and 3##Option_C:Only 1 and 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following with respect to the achievements of no-changers:
They established national schools and colleges which were not based on colonial ideology.
They popularised Charkha and Khadi among tribals and lower castes
They worked for Hindu-Muslim unity.
Choose the correct code from the following:
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Only 1 and 2
|
.
|
d
|
Rowllat Act , Jalianawala Bagh Massacre and Khilapat Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following with respect to the achievements of no-changers:
They established national schools and colleges which were not based on colonial ideology.
They popularised Charkha and Khadi among tribals and lower castes
They worked for Hindu-Muslim unity.
Choose the correct code from the following:##Option_A:Only 1 and 2###Option_B:Only 1##Option_C:Only 2##Option_D:Only 1 and 2##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Rowllat Act , Jalianawala Bagh Massacre and Khilapat Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding revolutionary terrorism
It was a reaction to the withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
It was influenced by the Russian revolution.
It promoted the idea of self-sacrifice
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
.
|
d
|
Montey-Minto Reform
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding revolutionary terrorism
It was a reaction to the withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
It was influenced by the Russian revolution.
It promoted the idea of self-sacrifice
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:1 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Montey-Minto Reform##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
With reference to Article 21, consider the following statements:
1. It safeguards the individuals only against the arbitrary actions of the executive not that of the legislature
2. It does not include the expression due process of law
3. It can be suspended when a national emergency is in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Article 21, consider the following statements:
1. It safeguards the individuals only against the arbitrary actions of the executive not that of the legislature
2. It does not include the expression due process of law
3. It can be suspended when a national emergency is in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The proclamation of National Emergency lapses after 1 month unless it is approved by Parliament by the special majority
2. If Loksabha is dissolved during this period but Rajya Sabha has approved the emergency within 1 month then the Emergency shall continue
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. The proclamation of National Emergency lapses after 1 month unless it is approved by Parliament by the special majority
2. If Loksabha is dissolved during this period but Rajya Sabha has approved the emergency within 1 month then the Emergency shall continue
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following rights are covered under article 21 of the Indian constitution? Right to speedy trial Right against cruel punishment Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rights are covered under article 21 of the Indian constitution? Right to speedy trial Right against cruel punishment Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to article 22, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The person who is arrested shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours excluding the travel time. 2. The person also has the right to be informed about the grounds of his arrest. 3. The safeguards under article 22(2) are also applicable to a person who is arrested under preventive detention procedures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to article 22, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The person who is arrested shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours excluding the travel time. 2. The person also has the right to be informed about the grounds of his arrest. 3. The safeguards under article 22(2) are also applicable to a person who is arrested under preventive detention procedures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Refer to the following Statements in the context of Article 23 of the Constitution:
1. It prohibits trafficking in Human beings, begar, and other forms of forced labour.
2. State cannot compel the individual to provide service with or without payment even in the Public interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Refer to the following Statements in the context of Article 23 of the Constitution:
1. It prohibits trafficking in Human beings, begar, and other forms of forced labour.
2. State cannot compel the individual to provide service with or without payment even in the Public interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the fundamental rights mentioned in the constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Article 24 is an absolute right.
2. Article 23 can be enforced against private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the fundamental rights mentioned in the constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Article 24 is an absolute right.
2. Article 23 can be enforced against private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following changes were made in the Constituent Assembly by the Indian Independence Act, 1947? The constituent assembly was made a fully sovereign body. The constituent body was given the function of enacting ordinary laws for the country. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the following three changes in the position of the Assembly: 1. The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased. The act empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to India. 2. The Assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, two separate functions were assigned to the Assembly, that is, making of a constitution for free India and enacting of ordinary laws for the country. These two tasks were to be performed on separate days. Thus, the Assembly became the first Parliament of free India (Dominion Legislature). Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G V Mavlankar. These two functions continued till November 26, 1949, when the task of making the Constitution was over. 3. The Muslim League members (hailing from the areas included in the Pakistan) withdrew from the Constituent Assembly for India. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly came down to 299 as against 389 originally fixed in 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. The strength of the Indian provinces (formerly British Provinces) was reduced from 296 to 229 and those of the princely states from 93 to 70
|
c
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following changes were made in the Constituent Assembly by the Indian Independence Act, 1947? The constituent assembly was made a fully sovereign body. The constituent body was given the function of enacting ordinary laws for the country. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the following three changes in the position of the Assembly: 1. The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased. The act empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to India. 2. The Assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, two separate functions were assigned to the Assembly, that is, making of a constitution for free India and enacting of ordinary laws for the country. These two tasks were to be performed on separate days. Thus, the Assembly became the first Parliament of free India (Dominion Legislature). Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G V Mavlankar. These two functions continued till November 26, 1949, when the task of making the Constitution was over. 3. The Muslim League members (hailing from the areas included in the Pakistan) withdrew from the Constituent Assembly for India. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly came down to 299 as against 389 originally fixed in 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. The strength of the Indian provinces (formerly British Provinces) was reduced from 296 to 229 and those of the princely states from 93 to 70##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Committees of the Constituent Assembly Chairman 1. Drafting Committee : B.R. Ambedkar 2. Steering Committee : Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Union Powers Committee : Rajendra Prasad Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Following were the major committees and their chairmen: 1. Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru 2. Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Provincial Constitution Committee - Sardar Patel 4. Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas - Sardar Patel. 6. Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad 7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Nehru 8. Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
|
a
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Committees of the Constituent Assembly Chairman 1. Drafting Committee : B.R. Ambedkar 2. Steering Committee : Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Union Powers Committee : Rajendra Prasad Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Following were the major committees and their chairmen: 1. Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru 2. Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Provincial Constitution Committee - Sardar Patel 4. Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas - Sardar Patel. 6. Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad 7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Nehru 8. Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1861 which of the statements given below is not correct?
|
It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal and Punjab.
|
It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinance without concurrence of the legislative council.
|
It provided that the Viceroy could nominate Indians to his legislative council.
|
It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal and Punjab.
|
Features of the Act of 1861 1. It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council-the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. 2. It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937. 3. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively. 4. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient trans-action of business in the council. It also gave a recognition to the 'portfolio' system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy's council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s). 5. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months. Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil servants
|
d
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1861 which of the statements given below is not correct? ##Option_A: It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal and Punjab. ###Option_B: It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinance without concurrence of the legislative council. ##Option_C: It provided that the Viceroy could nominate Indians to his legislative council. ##Option_D: It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal and Punjab. ##Answer:d##Explaination:Features of the Act of 1861 1. It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council-the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. 2. It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937. 3. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively. 4. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient trans-action of business in the council. It also gave a recognition to the 'portfolio' system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy's council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s). 5. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months. Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil servants##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Regulating Act of 1773, consider the following statements: The governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies were made subordinate to the Governor-general of Bengal. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta. The servants of East India Company were allowed to engage in private trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges. Statement 2 is correct: It designated the Governor of Bengal as the 'Governor-General of Bengal' and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras residencies subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another. Statement 3 is not correct: It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the 'natives'.
|
a
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Regulating Act of 1773, consider the following statements: The governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies were made subordinate to the Governor-general of Bengal. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta. The servants of East India Company were allowed to engage in private trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges. Statement 2 is correct: It designated the Governor of Bengal as the 'Governor-General of Bengal' and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras residencies subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another. Statement 3 is not correct: It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the 'natives'.##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements: The idea of a constituent assembly was put forward for the first time by M.N. Roy. The constituent assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democratism. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. Statement 2 is correct: The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
|
c
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements: The idea of a constituent assembly was put forward for the first time by M.N. Roy. The constituent assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democratism. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. Statement 2 is correct: The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: The ideal of justice in the Preamble has been take from the French revolution. The preamble ensures only political and economic justice to the citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct. The ideal of justice-social, economic and political-has been taken from the Russian Revolution (1917). Statement 2 is not correct. The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms—social, economic and political, secured through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The ideal of justice in the Preamble has been take from the French revolution. The preamble ensures only political and economic justice to the citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct. The ideal of justice-social, economic and political-has been taken from the Russian Revolution (1917). Statement 2 is not correct. The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms—social, economic and political, secured through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Central Board of Film Certification, consider the following statements: It is a non-statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the CBFC. The chairman and the members of the board are appointed by the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. Statement 3 is correct: The Board, consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Central Board of Film Certification, consider the following statements: It is a non-statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the CBFC. The chairman and the members of the board are appointed by the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. Statement 3 is correct: The Board, consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements: It was enacted before the drafting of the rest of the constitution. It is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru. It stipulates January 26, 1950 as the date of the adoption of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct.Like any other part of the Constitution, the Preamble was also enacted by the Constituent Assembly, but, after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. The reason for inserting the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Statement 2 is correct. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the 'Objectives Resolution', drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Statement 3 is not correct. It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date of adoption of the Constitution.
|
c
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements: It was enacted before the drafting of the rest of the constitution. It is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru. It stipulates January 26, 1950 as the date of the adoption of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct.Like any other part of the Constitution, the Preamble was also enacted by the Constituent Assembly, but, after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. The reason for inserting the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Statement 2 is correct. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the 'Objectives Resolution', drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Statement 3 is not correct. It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date of adoption of the Constitution.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following aims to promote fraternity among Indian citizens? Preamble Fundamental Duties Second Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things-the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word 'integrity' has been added to the preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976). Statement 2 is correct: The Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities. Statement 3 is not correct: Second schedule lists the emoluments for holders of constitutional offices such as salaries of President, Vice President, Ministers, Judges and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India etc.
|
b
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following aims to promote fraternity among Indian citizens? Preamble Fundamental Duties Second Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things-the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word 'integrity' has been added to the preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976). Statement 2 is correct: The Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities. Statement 3 is not correct: Second schedule lists the emoluments for holders of constitutional offices such as salaries of President, Vice President, Ministers, Judges and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India etc.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
The Preamble to the Indian constitution gives information about which of the following? Source of authority of the Constitution. Nature of Indian State Objectives of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components: 1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India. 2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity. 3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives. 4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Preamble to the Indian constitution gives information about which of the following? Source of authority of the Constitution. Nature of Indian State Objectives of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components: 1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India. 2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity. 3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives. 4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which among the following is/are the characteristics of a representative democracy? Use of referendum and initiative A council of minister responsible to the legislature Rule of law Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Referendum, initiative and plebiscite are the instruments of direct democracy and not representative democracy. Statement 2 is correct: In a representative democracy the people exercise their sovereignity through a Parliament at the Centre and a Legislature in each state to which the real executive i..e the Council of ministers is responsible. Statement 3 is correct: A characteristic of democracy is that it ensures rule of law. Law is supreme and all the citizens are equal in the eyes of law. No one is above law.
|
c
|
Direct and Representative
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is/are the characteristics of a representative democracy? Use of referendum and initiative A council of minister responsible to the legislature Rule of law Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Referendum, initiative and plebiscite are the instruments of direct democracy and not representative democracy. Statement 2 is correct: In a representative democracy the people exercise their sovereignity through a Parliament at the Centre and a Legislature in each state to which the real executive i..e the Council of ministers is responsible. Statement 3 is correct: A characteristic of democracy is that it ensures rule of law. Law is supreme and all the citizens are equal in the eyes of law. No one is above law.##Topic:Direct and Representative##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Article 35 gives the Parliament (and not the state legislatures) to have powers to make laws/ prescribe punishment for which of the following offence(s)? Untouchability (Article 17). Trafficking of human beings and forced labour (Article 23). Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces (Article 33). Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 35 contains the following provisions: The Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) power to make laws with respect to the following matters: Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority (Article 16). Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and the high courts to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds for the enforcement of fundamental rights (Article 32). Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces, police forces, etc. (Article 33). Indemnifying any government servant or any other person for any act done during the operation of martial law in any area (Article 34). Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) powers to make laws for prescribing punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under the fundamental rights. These include the following: Untouchability (Article 17) Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23). Further, the Parliament shall, after the commencement of the Constitution, make laws for prescribing punishment for the above acts, thus making it obligatory on the part of the Parliament to enact such laws. Any law in force at the commencement of the Constitution with respect to any of the matters specified above is to continue in force until altered or repealed or amended by the Parliament. It should be noted that Article 35 extends the competence of the Parliament to make a law on the matters specified above, even though some of those matters may fall within the sphere of the state legislatures (i.e., State List).
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Article 35 gives the Parliament (and not the state legislatures) to have powers to make laws/ prescribe punishment for which of the following offence(s)? Untouchability (Article 17). Trafficking of human beings and forced labour (Article 23). Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces (Article 33). Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Article 35 contains the following provisions: The Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) power to make laws with respect to the following matters: Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority (Article 16). Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and the high courts to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds for the enforcement of fundamental rights (Article 32). Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces, police forces, etc. (Article 33). Indemnifying any government servant or any other person for any act done during the operation of martial law in any area (Article 34). Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) powers to make laws for prescribing punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under the fundamental rights. These include the following: Untouchability (Article 17) Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23). Further, the Parliament shall, after the commencement of the Constitution, make laws for prescribing punishment for the above acts, thus making it obligatory on the part of the Parliament to enact such laws. Any law in force at the commencement of the Constitution with respect to any of the matters specified above is to continue in force until altered or repealed or amended by the Parliament. It should be noted that Article 35 extends the competence of the Parliament to make a law on the matters specified above, even though some of those matters may fall within the sphere of the state legislatures (i.e., State List).##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The term "Dark sky reserve" is often seen news is:
|
an area in space with high concentration of artificial satellites
|
an area kept free of light pollution
|
an area of high ozone layer depletion
|
an area in space with high concentration of artificial satellites
|
A dark-sky reserve is an area, usually surrounding a park or observatory, that is kept free of artificial light pollution. The purpose of a dark sky reserve is generally to promote astronomy.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "Dark sky reserve" is often seen news is:##Option_A: an area in space with high concentration of artificial satellites###Option_B: an area kept free of light pollution##Option_C: an area of high ozone layer depletion##Option_D: an area in space with high concentration of artificial satellites##Answer:b##Explaination:A dark-sky reserve is an area, usually surrounding a park or observatory, that is kept free of artificial light pollution. The purpose of a dark sky reserve is generally to promote astronomy.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to the National Mineral Exploration Policy, consider the following statements: It aims to increase the participation of the private sector in exploration activities. It envisages a greater role for the states in the exploration activities. It proposes to establish a National Centre for Mineral Targeting to address the mineral exploration challenges in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The NMEP primarily aims at accelerating the exploration activity in the country through enhanced participation of the private sector. Statement 2 is correct. States will also play a greater role by referring exploration projects, which can be taken up through the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET). Statement 3 is correct. It proposes to establish a not-for-profit autonomous institution that will be known as the National Centre for Mineral Targeting (NCMT) in collaboration with scientific and research bodies, universities and industry for scientific and technological research to address the mineral exploration challenges in the country.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the National Mineral Exploration Policy, consider the following statements: It aims to increase the participation of the private sector in exploration activities. It envisages a greater role for the states in the exploration activities. It proposes to establish a National Centre for Mineral Targeting to address the mineral exploration challenges in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The NMEP primarily aims at accelerating the exploration activity in the country through enhanced participation of the private sector. Statement 2 is correct. States will also play a greater role by referring exploration projects, which can be taken up through the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET). Statement 3 is correct. It proposes to establish a not-for-profit autonomous institution that will be known as the National Centre for Mineral Targeting (NCMT) in collaboration with scientific and research bodies, universities and industry for scientific and technological research to address the mineral exploration challenges in the country.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: Under Article 32 , the Supreme Court cannot determine a question that does not involve Fundamental Rights. Under Article 32 , the Supreme Court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The purpose of Article 32 is to provide a guaranteed, effective, expeditious, inexpensive and summary remedy for the protection of the fundamental rights. Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on. Statement 1 is correct : The violation of a fundamental right is the sine qua non for the exercise of the right conferred by Article 32. In other words, the Supreme Court, under Article 32, cannot determine a question that does not involve Fundamental Rights. Statement 2 is not correct : Article 32 is a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court cannot refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article 226 is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Under Article 32 , the Supreme Court cannot determine a question that does not involve Fundamental Rights. Under Article 32 , the Supreme Court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The purpose of Article 32 is to provide a guaranteed, effective, expeditious, inexpensive and summary remedy for the protection of the fundamental rights. Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on. Statement 1 is correct : The violation of a fundamental right is the sine qua non for the exercise of the right conferred by Article 32. In other words, the Supreme Court, under Article 32, cannot determine a question that does not involve Fundamental Rights. Statement 2 is not correct : Article 32 is a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court cannot refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article 226 is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Shangri La Dialogue, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?
|
Maintenance of defense and security in Asia.
|
Impact of climate change on small island nations
|
Status of women in conflict-affected regions
|
Maintenance of defense and security in Asia.
|
SHANGRI LA DIALOGUE: ASIA SECURITY SUMMIT The IISS Asia Security Summit was launched in 2002 by British think tank the International Institute for Strategic Studies and the Singaporean government. This annual dialogue brings together defence ministers and military chiefs from 28 Asia-Pacific countries to talk about security in the region. It gets its name from the location of the meeting, the Shangri-La hotel in Singapore. India's defence Minister participated in the 15th Shangri-La security summit.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Shangri La Dialogue, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?##Option_A: Maintenance of defense and security in Asia.###Option_B: Impact of climate change on small island nations##Option_C: Status of women in conflict-affected regions##Option_D: Maintenance of defense and security in Asia.##Answer:a##Explaination:SHANGRI LA DIALOGUE: ASIA SECURITY SUMMIT The IISS Asia Security Summit was launched in 2002 by British think tank the International Institute for Strategic Studies and the Singaporean government. This annual dialogue brings together defence ministers and military chiefs from 28 Asia-Pacific countries to talk about security in the region. It gets its name from the location of the meeting, the Shangri-La hotel in Singapore. India's defence Minister participated in the 15th Shangri-La security summit.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
The Amended Technology Upgradation Funds Scheme ( ATUFS) aims to give boost to which of the following?
|
Semiconductors & Computers manufacturing
|
Textile manufacturing
|
Automobile manufacturing
|
Semiconductors & Computers manufacturing
|
"Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS)" has replaced the existing Revised Restructured Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (RR-TUFS),for technology upgradation of the textiles industry. The new scheme specifically targets: (a) Employment generation and export by encouraging apparel and garment industry, which will provide employment to women in particular and increase India’s share in global exports. (b) Promotion of Technical Textiles, a sunrise sector, for export and employment (c) Promoting conversion of existing looms to better technology looms for improvement in quality and productivity (d) Encouraging better quality in processing industry and checking need for import of fabrics by the garment sector.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Amended Technology Upgradation Funds Scheme ( ATUFS) aims to give boost to which of the following? ##Option_A: Semiconductors & Computers manufacturing ###Option_B: Textile manufacturing ##Option_C: Automobile manufacturing ##Option_D: Semiconductors & Computers manufacturing ##Answer:b##Explaination:"Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS)" has replaced the existing Revised Restructured Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (RR-TUFS),for technology upgradation of the textiles industry. The new scheme specifically targets: (a) Employment generation and export by encouraging apparel and garment industry, which will provide employment to women in particular and increase India’s share in global exports. (b) Promotion of Technical Textiles, a sunrise sector, for export and employment (c) Promoting conversion of existing looms to better technology looms for improvement in quality and productivity (d) Encouraging better quality in processing industry and checking need for import of fabrics by the garment sector.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Pelindaba Treaty, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?
|
efficient disposal of e-wastes
|
prevention of nuclear proliferation
|
prevention of wildlife trafficking
|
efficient disposal of e-wastes
|
The Pelindaba Treaty also known as African Nuclear Weapon-Free Zone Treaty signed in 1996 aims at preventing nuclear proliferation and preventing strategic minerals of Africa from being exported freely.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Pelindaba Treaty, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?##Option_A: efficient disposal of e-wastes###Option_B: prevention of nuclear proliferation##Option_C: prevention of wildlife trafficking##Option_D: efficient disposal of e-wastes##Answer:b##Explaination:The Pelindaba Treaty also known as African Nuclear Weapon-Free Zone Treaty signed in 1996 aims at preventing nuclear proliferation and preventing strategic minerals of Africa from being exported freely.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty under the article 51A of Indian constitution?
|
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
|
To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
|
To promote international peace and security.
|
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
|
Option (c) is a DPSP under the article 51 which states that the state shall endeavour to promote international peace and security; maintain just and honourable relations between nations. The others are Fundamental Duties under the article 51 A of the Indian constitution.
|
c
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty under the article 51A of Indian constitution?##Option_A: To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.###Option_B: To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.##Option_C: To promote international peace and security.##Option_D: To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.##Answer:c##Explaination:Option (c) is a DPSP under the article 51 which states that the state shall endeavour to promote international peace and security; maintain just and honourable relations between nations. The others are Fundamental Duties under the article 51 A of the Indian constitution.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides/permits which of the following? Absence of any special privileges in favour of any person Equality of treatment under all the circumstances Class legislations Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Article 14 of the Indian constitution states that: the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Statement 1 is correct : Absence of special privileges to any person comes under condept of "Equality before Law". Statement 2 is incorrect : Equality of treatment is for people under equal circumstances else it would be violation of "Equal Protection of Law". Statement 3 is incorrect : Article 14 forbids class legislation. Class legslation is not allowed but reasonable classification of persons, objects etc. is allowed. Classification should not be arbitrary, artificial or evasive.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides/permits which of the following? Absence of any special privileges in favour of any person Equality of treatment under all the circumstances Class legislations Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Article 14 of the Indian constitution states that: the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Statement 1 is correct : Absence of special privileges to any person comes under condept of "Equality before Law". Statement 2 is incorrect : Equality of treatment is for people under equal circumstances else it would be violation of "Equal Protection of Law". Statement 3 is incorrect : Article 14 forbids class legislation. Class legslation is not allowed but reasonable classification of persons, objects etc. is allowed. Classification should not be arbitrary, artificial or evasive.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The Carbfix project, often seen in news is related to
|
storage of carbon dioxide emissions in basalt rocks.
|
increased plantation of plants with higher carbon dioxide absorption.
|
use of carbon dioxide as fuel for spacecrafts.
|
storage of carbon dioxide emissions in basalt rocks.
|
Carbfix project: It is a project that aims to lock away CO2 by reacting it with basaltic rocks. Carbonated water is injected into the rocks so that it reacts with Calcium, Magnesium or Silicate material present in Basaltic rocks. This is called enhanced weathering. Thus, the CO2 is captured permanently without releasing any harmful by-products
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Carbfix project, often seen in news is related to##Option_A: storage of carbon dioxide emissions in basalt rocks.###Option_B: increased plantation of plants with higher carbon dioxide absorption.##Option_C: use of carbon dioxide as fuel for spacecrafts.##Option_D: storage of carbon dioxide emissions in basalt rocks.##Answer:a##Explaination:Carbfix project: It is a project that aims to lock away CO2 by reacting it with basaltic rocks. Carbonated water is injected into the rocks so that it reacts with Calcium, Magnesium or Silicate material present in Basaltic rocks. This is called enhanced weathering. Thus, the CO2 is captured permanently without releasing any harmful by-products##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are provisions under Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Indian Constitution? Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 45 states that state shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. Statement 2 is not correct: It is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(g) - to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures Statement 3 is not correct: It is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(c) - to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
|
a
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are provisions under Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Indian Constitution? Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Article 45 states that state shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. Statement 2 is not correct: It is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(g) - to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures Statement 3 is not correct: It is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(c) - to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The recently launched Vidyanjali scheme aims at
|
boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools.
|
providing support to young entrepreneurs by coordinated delivery of various entrepreneurship programs.
|
introducing compulsory certification for teachers in government and private schools
|
boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools.
|
The Ministry of HRD recently launched the Vidyanjali scheme aimed at boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools. It will not replace the regular and professionally qualified teachers in the government schools The volunteer's responsibility is towards overall development of the child, not academics. The volunteer service will be used in developing skills like public speaking, creative writing, counseling, music and dance.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The recently launched Vidyanjali scheme aims at##Option_A: boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools.###Option_B: providing support to young entrepreneurs by coordinated delivery of various entrepreneurship programs.##Option_C: introducing compulsory certification for teachers in government and private schools ##Option_D: boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools.##Answer:a##Explaination:The Ministry of HRD recently launched the Vidyanjali scheme aimed at boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools. It will not replace the regular and professionally qualified teachers in the government schools The volunteer's responsibility is towards overall development of the child, not academics. The volunteer service will be used in developing skills like public speaking, creative writing, counseling, music and dance.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Minority educational institutions are not defined under the Indian Constitution. 2. Minority educational institutions are not covered under RTE Act, 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Article 30 defines minority educational institutions as those established by minorities, whether based on religion or language. Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution bench ( Pramati judgement) in 2014 exempted minority schools, both aided and unaided, from the purview of the Act. It said minority schools could not be put under legal obligation to provide free and compulsory elementary education to children who were not members of the minority community which had established the school.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Minority educational institutions are not defined under the Indian Constitution. 2. Minority educational institutions are not covered under RTE Act, 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Article 30 defines minority educational institutions as those established by minorities, whether based on religion or language. Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution bench ( Pramati judgement) in 2014 exempted minority schools, both aided and unaided, from the purview of the Act. It said minority schools could not be put under legal obligation to provide free and compulsory elementary education to children who were not members of the minority community which had established the school.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
CASPOL, often seen in news, is
|
a flame retardent ceramic-polymer hybrid
|
a bio-digester technology
|
a vaccine for prevention of dengue
|
a flame retardent ceramic-polymer hybrid
|
Indian Space Research Organisation at its Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) has developed CASPOL (CeramicPolymer Hybrid), a water based, ready-to-coat and easy-to-use flame proof coating having both societal and advanced enduse applications. It confers excellent flame retardant, waterproofing and thermal control properties to substrates ranging from masonry surfaces, textiles, paper, thatched leaves, wood etc to advanced materials like polyurethane and phenolic based thermal insulation foam pads.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:CASPOL, often seen in news, is ##Option_A: a flame retardent ceramic-polymer hybrid ###Option_B: a bio-digester technology ##Option_C: a vaccine for prevention of dengue##Option_D: a flame retardent ceramic-polymer hybrid ##Answer:a##Explaination:Indian Space Research Organisation at its Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) has developed CASPOL (CeramicPolymer Hybrid), a water based, ready-to-coat and easy-to-use flame proof coating having both societal and advanced enduse applications. It confers excellent flame retardant, waterproofing and thermal control properties to substrates ranging from masonry surfaces, textiles, paper, thatched leaves, wood etc to advanced materials like polyurethane and phenolic based thermal insulation foam pads.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Right against exploitation guaranteed by the Constitution prohibits which of the following activities?
|
Exploitation of religious minorities.
|
Exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
|
Trafficking in human beings and forced labour
|
Exploitation of religious minorities.
|
RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION (Article 23 & 24) 'Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings and Forced Labour' is provided under Article 23 which prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons. Prohibition of Employment of Children in Factories, etc is provided under Article 24 which prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But, it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Right against exploitation guaranteed by the Constitution prohibits which of the following activities?##Option_A: Exploitation of religious minorities.###Option_B: Exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes##Option_C: Trafficking in human beings and forced labour##Option_D: Exploitation of religious minorities.##Answer:c##Explaination:RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION (Article 23 & 24) 'Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings and Forced Labour' is provided under Article 23 which prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons. Prohibition of Employment of Children in Factories, etc is provided under Article 24 which prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But, it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Golden crescent, an area of illicit opium production lies in which of the following countries? Iran Pakistan Afghanistan Tajikistan Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Golden Crescent is a mountainous area of Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan where opium has been grown for hundreds of years. Proximity to the largest producers of heroin and hashish-the Golden Triangle and Golden Crescent (Afghanistan-Pakistan-Iran) -has made India's border vulnerable to drug trafficking.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Golden crescent, an area of illicit opium production lies in which of the following countries? Iran Pakistan Afghanistan Tajikistan Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Golden Crescent is a mountainous area of Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan where opium has been grown for hundreds of years. Proximity to the largest producers of heroin and hashish-the Golden Triangle and Golden Crescent (Afghanistan-Pakistan-Iran) -has made India's border vulnerable to drug trafficking.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to protection of interests of minorities under Article 29: It provides protection to both religious and linguistic minority. It includes right to conserve the language and the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Hence, the political speeches or promises made for the conservation the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to protection of interests of minorities under Article 29: It provides protection to both religious and linguistic minority. It includes right to conserve the language and the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Hence, the political speeches or promises made for the conservation the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following tourist circuits is/are being developed under the Swadesh Darshan scheme? Ramayan circuit Rural circuit Krishna circuit Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Swadesh Darshan Scheme It was launched with the aim of developing theme based tourist circuits in the country, under Ministry of Tourism. Under the scheme thirteen thematic circuits have been identified for development. These are North-East, Himalayan, Coastal, Krishna, Desert, Tribal, Eco, Wildlife, Rural, Spiritual, Ramayana and Heritage Circuits.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following tourist circuits is/are being developed under the Swadesh Darshan scheme? Ramayan circuit Rural circuit Krishna circuit Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Swadesh Darshan Scheme It was launched with the aim of developing theme based tourist circuits in the country, under Ministry of Tourism. Under the scheme thirteen thematic circuits have been identified for development. These are North-East, Himalayan, Coastal, Krishna, Desert, Tribal, Eco, Wildlife, Rural, Spiritual, Ramayana and Heritage Circuits.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Settlement of boundary dispute between India and another country requires which of the following?
|
A constitutional amendment under the article 368.
|
Parliament"s approval by simple majority under Article 3.
|
An executive order.
|
A constitutional amendment under the article 368.
|
Settlement of boundary dispute relates to the alignment of an undefined boundary. This involves no cession of Indian territory. Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that, settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment and it can be done by executive order itself. If cessation of territory which was part of Indian territory was involved, it requires a constitutional amendment under the article 368. In all other cases of reorganisation, Parliament's approval is required by simple majority under Article 3.
|
c
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Settlement of boundary dispute between India and another country requires which of the following?##Option_A: A constitutional amendment under the article 368.###Option_B: Parliament"s approval by simple majority under Article 3.##Option_C: An executive order.##Option_D: A constitutional amendment under the article 368.##Answer:c##Explaination:Settlement of boundary dispute relates to the alignment of an undefined boundary. This involves no cession of Indian territory. Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that, settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment and it can be done by executive order itself. If cessation of territory which was part of Indian territory was involved, it requires a constitutional amendment under the article 368. In all other cases of reorganisation, Parliament's approval is required by simple majority under Article 3.##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
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With reference to the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016, consider the following statements: It allows only the airlines with 5 years of experience and 20 airplanes for overseas operations. It aims to create a Regional Connectivity fund for viability gap funding to airline operators. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
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The Union Cabinet recently cleared the Civil Aviation Policy in order to boost the domestic aviation sector and provide passenger-friendly fares. The Policy aims at India to become 3rd largest civil aviation market by 2022 from 9th currently. 1. Domestic ticketing to grow from 8 crore in 2015 to 30 crore by 2022. To grow domestic passenger traffic nearly four-fold to 300 million by 2022. 2. Airports having scheduled commercial flights to increase from 77 in 2016 to 127 by 2019. 3. Cargo volumes to increase by 4 times to 10 million tonnes by 2027. 4. Enhancing ease of doing business through deregulation, simplified procedures and e-governance. 5. Promoting 'Make In India' in Civil Aviation Sector. The policy scrapped 5/20 rule and replaced with a scheme which provides a level playing field. All airlines can now commence international operations provided that they deploy 20 aircraft or 20% of total capacity, whichever is higher for domestic operations. Civil Aviation Policy aims to create Regional Connectivity fund for VGF to airline operators through a small levy per departure on all domestic flights other than Cat II/ Cat IIA routes, RCS routes and small aircraft below 80 seats at a rate as decided by the Ministry from time to time.
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b
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no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016, consider the following statements: It allows only the airlines with 5 years of experience and 20 airplanes for overseas operations. It aims to create a Regional Connectivity fund for viability gap funding to airline operators. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:The Union Cabinet recently cleared the Civil Aviation Policy in order to boost the domestic aviation sector and provide passenger-friendly fares. The Policy aims at India to become 3rd largest civil aviation market by 2022 from 9th currently. 1. Domestic ticketing to grow from 8 crore in 2015 to 30 crore by 2022. To grow domestic passenger traffic nearly four-fold to 300 million by 2022. 2. Airports having scheduled commercial flights to increase from 77 in 2016 to 127 by 2019. 3. Cargo volumes to increase by 4 times to 10 million tonnes by 2027. 4. Enhancing ease of doing business through deregulation, simplified procedures and e-governance. 5. Promoting 'Make In India' in Civil Aviation Sector. The policy scrapped 5/20 rule and replaced with a scheme which provides a level playing field. All airlines can now commence international operations provided that they deploy 20 aircraft or 20% of total capacity, whichever is higher for domestic operations. Civil Aviation Policy aims to create Regional Connectivity fund for VGF to airline operators through a small levy per departure on all domestic flights other than Cat II/ Cat IIA routes, RCS routes and small aircraft below 80 seats at a rate as decided by the Ministry from time to time.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
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Which of the following is/are the differences between the impostion of Martial law and National Emergency in India? Martial law does not affect the centre-state relations whereas national emergency affects it. Martial law suspends government and ordinary law courts whereas national emergency does not. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
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Statement 1 is correct: Impostition of martial law affects only Fundamental Rights. Imposition of National emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre–state relations, distribution of revenues and legislative powers between centre and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament. Statement 2 is correct: Martial law suspends the government and ordinary law courts whereas National Emergency continues the government and ordinary law courts.
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c
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Fundamental Rights
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the differences between the impostion of Martial law and National Emergency in India? Martial law does not affect the centre-state relations whereas national emergency affects it. Martial law suspends government and ordinary law courts whereas national emergency does not. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Impostition of martial law affects only Fundamental Rights. Imposition of National emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre–state relations, distribution of revenues and legislative powers between centre and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament. Statement 2 is correct: Martial law suspends the government and ordinary law courts whereas National Emergency continues the government and ordinary law courts.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
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