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With reference to Article 21, consider the following statements:
It safeguards the individuals only against the arbitrary actions of the executive not that of the legislature.
It does not include the expression of due process of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Article 21, consider the following statements:
It safeguards the individuals only against the arbitrary actions of the executive not that of the legislature.
It does not include the expression of due process of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following were the main reasons for the Indian Council Act 1909?
1. Swadeshi Movement. 2. Rise of extremist politics from 1905 onwards. 3. Revolutionary Activities of 1908 onwards. 4. Carrot and stick policy of the British.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
2, 3, and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
nan
|
d
|
The Morley-Minto Reforms or the Indian Councils Act, 1909
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following were the main reasons for the Indian Council Act 1909?
1. Swadeshi Movement. 2. Rise of extremist politics from 1905 onwards. 3. Revolutionary Activities of 1908 onwards. 4. Carrot and stick policy of the British.
Select the answer using the codes given below:##Option_A:1, 2, and 3 only ###Option_B:2, 3, and 4 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2, and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:The Morley-Minto Reforms or the Indian Councils Act, 1909##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Which of the following rights are covered under article 21 of the Indian constitution?
1.Right to primary education up to the age of 14.
2.Right to speedy trial
3.Right to Sexual Orientation
4.Right to privacy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rights are covered under article 21 of the Indian constitution?
1.Right to primary education up to the age of 14.
2.Right to speedy trial
3.Right to Sexual Orientation
4.Right to privacy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
In which of the following case/s, the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression.
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force.
Choose the correct code:
|
1 only.
|
2 & 3 only.
|
1 & 3 only.
|
1 only.
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In which of the following case/s, the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression.
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force.
Choose the correct code:##Option_A:1 only.###Option_B:2 & 3 only.##Option_C:1 & 3 only.##Option_D:1 only.##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to non-permanent membership of the UN Security Council, consider the following statements:
1. The non-permanent members are elected for a maximum term of 5 years.
2. A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election.
3. Each candidate must be unanimously elected by the United Nations General Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
India has won the unanimous support of all countries in the 55-member Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations in support of its bid for a non-permanent seat at the UN Security Council (UNSC) for a two-year term in 2021-22.
UNSC Membership
Along with the five permanent members, the Security Council of the United Nations has temporary members that hold their seats on a rotating basis by geographic region.
Five permanent members: China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US.
The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis:
Five for African and Asian States;
One for the Eastern European States;
Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; and
Two for Western European and other States.
Each year the 193-member of UNGA elects five non-permanent members for a two-year term at the UNSC, with five replaced each year. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
To be approved, a candidate must receive at least two-thirds of all votes cast for that seat, which can result in deadlock if there are two roughly evenly matched candidates. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Asia-Pacific Group gets to nominate one of its members for the 2020 elections to a non-permanent seat of UNSC.
Currently the 10 non-permanent members are Belgium, Cote d'Ivoire, Dominican Republic, Equatorial Guinea, Germany, Indonesia, Kuwait, Peru, Poland and South Africa.
|
b
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to non-permanent membership of the UN Security Council, consider the following statements:
1. The non-permanent members are elected for a maximum term of 5 years.
2. A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election.
3. Each candidate must be unanimously elected by the United Nations General Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
India has won the unanimous support of all countries in the 55-member Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations in support of its bid for a non-permanent seat at the UN Security Council (UNSC) for a two-year term in 2021-22.
UNSC Membership
Along with the five permanent members, the Security Council of the United Nations has temporary members that hold their seats on a rotating basis by geographic region.
Five permanent members: China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US.
The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis:
Five for African and Asian States;
One for the Eastern European States;
Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; and
Two for Western European and other States.
Each year the 193-member of UNGA elects five non-permanent members for a two-year term at the UNSC, with five replaced each year. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
To be approved, a candidate must receive at least two-thirds of all votes cast for that seat, which can result in deadlock if there are two roughly evenly matched candidates. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Asia-Pacific Group gets to nominate one of its members for the 2020 elections to a non-permanent seat of UNSC.
Currently the 10 non-permanent members are Belgium, Cote d'Ivoire, Dominican Republic, Equatorial Guinea, Germany, Indonesia, Kuwait, Peru, Poland and South Africa.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1.The first round table conference was summoned to discuss the recommendations of the Simon Commission report. 2. Congress was represented in the Second Round Table conference only. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Second Round Table Conference, 1931
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1.The first round table conference was summoned to discuss the recommendations of the Simon Commission report. 2. Congress was represented in the Second Round Table conference only. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Second Round Table Conference, 1931##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about GOI Act 1935:
1. GOI was brought in to appease the moderates and liberals.
2. The federation was proposed to further weaken the Centre.
3. A federation was set up in 1935.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1and 3 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about GOI Act 1935:
1. GOI was brought in to appease the moderates and liberals.
2. The federation was proposed to further weaken the Centre.
3. A federation was set up in 1935.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Karachi Resolution:
Karachi resolution was held to approve Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
Karachi resolution was memorable for a resolution on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Programme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Karachi Resolution:
Karachi resolution was held to approve Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
Karachi resolution was memorable for a resolution on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Programme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Freedom Struggle : The Gandhian Era (1917– 47)##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With reference to All India Services, consider the following statements:
1. Parliament created Indian Forest Service after amending the constitution.
2. Rajya Sabha can create a new All India Service in the national interest by passing a resolution with a simple majority.
3. The service conditions of the officers of All India Services are governed by the Ministry of Personnel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
nan
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to All India Services, consider the following statements:
1. Parliament created Indian Forest Service after amending the constitution.
2. Rajya Sabha can create a new All India Service in the national interest by passing a resolution with a simple majority.
3. The service conditions of the officers of All India Services are governed by the Ministry of Personnel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
A decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) can lead to which among the following?
Increase in cash availability of the banks.
Increase in repo rate.
Decrease in SLR.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) can lead to which among the following?
Increase in cash availability of the banks.
Increase in repo rate.
Decrease in SLR.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), consider the following observations:
Banks can keep cash, government bonds as well as gold to meet their SLR requirements.
Banks earn interest on SLR.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), consider the following observations:
Banks can keep cash, government bonds as well as gold to meet their SLR requirements.
Banks earn interest on SLR.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Judicial review is available with the court only to deal with cases related to Fundamental rights.
2. The word judicial review is nowhere mentioned in the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Judicial review is available with the court only to deal with cases related to Fundamental rights.
2. The word judicial review is nowhere mentioned in the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statement
1. In the Mahalwari system, the source of the revenue was a Village or a group of villages 2. This system was introduced in northwestern India and part of central India in 1822. 3. All the proprietors of the village or the group of villages were responsible to pay the revenue fixed by the government
Which of the above is/are not correct ?
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2 and 3
|
1,2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
.
|
d
|
Works of British Governor Generals
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement
1. In the Mahalwari system, the source of the revenue was a Village or a group of villages 2. This system was introduced in northwestern India and part of central India in 1822. 3. All the proprietors of the village or the group of villages were responsible to pay the revenue fixed by the government
Which of the above is/are not correct ?##Option_A:Only 1 and 2###Option_B:Only 2 and 3##Option_C:1,2 and 3##Option_D:Only 1 and 2##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Works of British Governor Generals##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The officers of the State Services always work under the State and they are not promoted to All India Services.
2. The administration of State subjects fall under the State Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. The officers of the State Services always work under the State and they are not promoted to All India Services.
2. The administration of State subjects fall under the State Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to personnel of All India Services, consider the following statements:
1. They hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
2. They are accountable directly to the Parliament.
3. They work on the aid and advice of the Union Cabinet of the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to personnel of All India Services, consider the following statements:
1. They hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
2. They are accountable directly to the Parliament.
3. They work on the aid and advice of the Union Cabinet of the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The fundamental rights of the persons of the State Services can be restricted by the respective State Public Service Commissions.
2. The members of the All India Services are jointly controlled by the Centre and State governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. The fundamental rights of the persons of the State Services can be restricted by the respective State Public Service Commissions.
2. The members of the All India Services are jointly controlled by the Centre and State governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution defines contempt as civil and criminal contempt 2. The Constitution defines Public Interest Litigation 3. PIL can be filed against Private companies Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.Constitution only mentions contempt of court. Contempt is defined in the Contempts of Courts Act 1971 as Civil contempt and Criminal contempt.
Civil contempt means wilful disobedience of any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other processes of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt is attracted by the publication of any matter or the doing of any other act that scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of any court.
The constitution neither mentions nor defines PIL. PIL can be filed against private companies too
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution defines contempt as civil and criminal contempt 2. The Constitution defines Public Interest Litigation 3. PIL can be filed against Private companies Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.Constitution only mentions contempt of court. Contempt is defined in the Contempts of Courts Act 1971 as Civil contempt and Criminal contempt.
Civil contempt means wilful disobedience of any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other processes of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt is attracted by the publication of any matter or the doing of any other act that scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of any court.
The constitution neither mentions nor defines PIL. PIL can be filed against private companies too##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the National emergency:
1. During a National emergency centre can issue executive directions to the States.
2. When Article 352 is in operation then the State legislatures are necessarily dissolved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the National emergency:
1. During a National emergency centre can issue executive directions to the States.
2. When Article 352 is in operation then the State legislatures are necessarily dissolved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding University Grants Commission(UGC): 1. It is an statutory body 2. It provides fellowship/scholarship 3. It monitors universities, colleges and schools. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a statutory body set up by the Union government in accordance to the UGC Act 1956 under HRD Ministry. ( Hence statement 1 is correct)
- It has been mandated to initiate important decisions and dialogues which have an important bearing on the entire student population of the country
- The three primary functions of UGC
include
- Overseeing distribution of grants to
universities and colleges in India.
- Providing scholarships/fellowships to
beneficiaries, ( Hence statement 2 is correct).
- Monitoring conformity to its regulations by universities and colleges. ( Hence statement 3 is incorrect).
|
b
|
Others Non-Constitutional Bodies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding University Grants Commission(UGC): 1. It is an statutory body 2. It provides fellowship/scholarship 3. It monitors universities, colleges and schools. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a statutory body set up by the Union government in accordance to the UGC Act 1956 under HRD Ministry. ( Hence statement 1 is correct)
- It has been mandated to initiate important decisions and dialogues which have an important bearing on the entire student population of the country
- The three primary functions of UGC
include
- Overseeing distribution of grants to
universities and colleges in India.
- Providing scholarships/fellowships to
beneficiaries, ( Hence statement 2 is correct).
- Monitoring conformity to its regulations by universities and colleges. ( Hence statement 3 is incorrect).
##Topic:Others Non-Constitutional Bodies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission : It is a quasi-judicial body with powers to impose monetary penalty. It is headed by an sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. Its head office is in New Delhi. It has power to impose monetary penalty. Recently, the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission had ordered a hospital in Mumbai to pay Rs 12,000 to a patient who had contracted HIV 20 years ago after blood transfusion. Statement 2 is correct - The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. Section 23 of Consumer Protection Act, 1986, provides that any person aggrieved by an order of NCDRC, may prefer an Appeal against such order to Supreme Court of India within a period of 30 days.
|
c
|
Others Non-Constitutional Bodies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission : It is a quasi-judicial body with powers to impose monetary penalty. It is headed by an sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. Its head office is in New Delhi. It has power to impose monetary penalty. Recently, the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission had ordered a hospital in Mumbai to pay Rs 12,000 to a patient who had contracted HIV 20 years ago after blood transfusion. Statement 2 is correct - The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. Section 23 of Consumer Protection Act, 1986, provides that any person aggrieved by an order of NCDRC, may prefer an Appeal against such order to Supreme Court of India within a period of 30 days. ##Topic:Others Non-Constitutional Bodies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is the oldest continuing theatre of India?
|
Theyyam
|
Koothiyattam
|
Yakshagana
|
Theyyam
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is the oldest continuing theatre of India?##Option_A:Theyyam###Option_B:Koothiyattam##Option_C:Yakshagana##Option_D:Theyyam##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Laterite soil of India.
It is generally red in colour.
It is rich in nitrogen and potash.
It is well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 4
|
1, 2 and 3
|
.
|
c
|
Classification of Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Laterite soil of India.
It is generally red in colour.
It is rich in nitrogen and potash.
It is well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1, 2 and 3###Option_B:2, 3 and 4##Option_C:1 and 4##Option_D:1, 2 and 3##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Classification of Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?
|
Presence of ferric oxides
|
Accumulated humus
|
Abundance of magnesium
|
Presence of ferric oxides
|
.
|
a
|
Classification of Soils
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?##Option_A:Presence of ferric oxides###Option_B:Accumulated humus##Option_C:Abundance of magnesium##Option_D:Presence of ferric oxides##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Classification of Soils##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
The term ‘Core Banking Solutions’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?
1. It enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank regardless of where they open their accounts. 2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization. 3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term ‘Core Banking Solutions’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?
1. It enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank regardless of where they open their accounts. 2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization. 3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following are functions of the Legal Services Authorities? 1. To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. 2. To organize legal awareness camps in the rural areas. 3. To provide free and competent legal services to eligible persons. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
In every State, a State Legal Services Authority, and in every High Court, a High Court Legal Services Committee has been constituted. The District Legal Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Committees have been constituted in the Districts and most of the Taluks to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to provide free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases (or disputes) which are pending in a court or which are at the pre-litigation stage (not yet brought before a court) are compromised or settled in an amicable manner. Primarily, the State Legal Services Authorities, District Legal Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Committees, etc. have been asked to discharge the following main functions on regular basis: To provide free and competent legal services to eligible persons. To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. To organize legal awareness camps in the rural areas. Additional Information: National Legal Services Authority Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all. Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before the law and a legal system that promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the parliament which came into force on 9th November 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate the implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act. The free legal services include: Payment of court fee, process fees, and all other charges payable or incurred in connection with any legal proceedings. Providing service of lawyers in legal proceedings. Obtaining and supply of certified copies of orders and other documents in legal proceedings. Preparation of appeal, paper book including printing and translation of documents in legal proceedings. The persons eligible for getting free legal services to include: Women and children Members of SC/ST Industrial workmen Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster Disabled persons Persons in custody Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹1 lakh (in the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee the limit ₹1,25,000/-) Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar
|
d
|
Subordinate Courts
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are functions of the Legal Services Authorities? 1. To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. 2. To organize legal awareness camps in the rural areas. 3. To provide free and competent legal services to eligible persons. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In every State, a State Legal Services Authority, and in every High Court, a High Court Legal Services Committee has been constituted. The District Legal Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Committees have been constituted in the Districts and most of the Taluks to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to provide free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases (or disputes) which are pending in a court or which are at the pre-litigation stage (not yet brought before a court) are compromised or settled in an amicable manner. Primarily, the State Legal Services Authorities, District Legal Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Committees, etc. have been asked to discharge the following main functions on regular basis: To provide free and competent legal services to eligible persons. To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. To organize legal awareness camps in the rural areas. Additional Information: National Legal Services Authority Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all. Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before the law and a legal system that promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the parliament which came into force on 9th November 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate the implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act. The free legal services include: Payment of court fee, process fees, and all other charges payable or incurred in connection with any legal proceedings. Providing service of lawyers in legal proceedings. Obtaining and supply of certified copies of orders and other documents in legal proceedings. Preparation of appeal, paper book including printing and translation of documents in legal proceedings. The persons eligible for getting free legal services to include: Women and children Members of SC/ST Industrial workmen Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster Disabled persons Persons in custody Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹1 lakh (in the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee the limit ₹1,25,000/-) Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar##Topic:Subordinate Courts##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The colour of the star is an indication of its
|
Distance from the earth
|
Distance from the sun
|
Temperature
|
Distance from the earth
|
nan
|
c
|
Origin and evolution of Universe, Solar system, Geological History of the Earth, Geological Time scale
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The colour of the star is an indication of its##Option_A:Distance from the earth###Option_B:Distance from the sun##Option_C:Temperature##Option_D:Distance from the earth##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Origin and evolution of Universe, Solar system, Geological History of the Earth, Geological Time scale##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
What is/are the purpose/purposes of the `Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?
1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.
2. These guidelines help ensure the availability of bank credit at interest rates that are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is/are the purpose/purposes of the `Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?
1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.
2. These guidelines help ensure the availability of bank credit at interest rates that are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.)##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
b
|
Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
चंद्रयान 2 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये :
इस मिशन के लैंडर का नाम विक्रम एवं रोवर का नाम प्रज्ञान रखा गया है ।
इसे जी.एस.एल.वी. मार्क 3 के द्वारा लांच किया गया ।
उपरोक्त में सही कूट का चयन कीजिये :
|
केवल 1
|
केवल 2
|
1 और 2 दोनों
|
केवल 1
|
nan
|
c
|
India's Space Programme
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:चंद्रयान 2 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये :
इस मिशन के लैंडर का नाम विक्रम एवं रोवर का नाम प्रज्ञान रखा गया है ।
इसे जी.एस.एल.वी. मार्क 3 के द्वारा लांच किया गया ।
उपरोक्त में सही कूट का चयन कीजिये :##Option_A:केवल 1###Option_B:केवल 2##Option_C:1 और 2 दोनों##Option_D:केवल 1##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:India's Space Programme##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Kol Mutiny: 1. It occurred in present-day Jharkhand state in 1842 2. Mundas were the village headmen who fought against Muslim and Sikh moneylenders 3. The mutiny could not be suppressed and Kols were able to oust outsiders from their land. Which of the statement given above is/correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
c
|
Tribal Movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Kol Mutiny: 1. It occurred in present-day Jharkhand state in 1842 2. Mundas were the village headmen who fought against Muslim and Sikh moneylenders 3. The mutiny could not be suppressed and Kols were able to oust outsiders from their land. Which of the statement given above is/correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Tribal Movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Santhal uprising:
The main leader of the uprising was Sido and Kanhu.
Their main resentment was against usurious people from Bengal, but they turned against the British when they saw govt officials were hand in glove with the oppressors.
They maintained that Zamindar communicated to them to take up the arms against the Dikus which will bring Satyug.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
a
|
The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Santhal uprising:
The main leader of the uprising was Sido and Kanhu.
Their main resentment was against usurious people from Bengal, but they turned against the British when they saw govt officials were hand in glove with the oppressors.
They maintained that Zamindar communicated to them to take up the arms against the Dikus which will bring Satyug.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:The Revolt of 1857 & change after 1857##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with respect to socio-religious reforms:
Social reforms in India were led by the masses
Indian middle-class and western-educated intellectuals were the forerunners of social reforms.
They were inspired by the doctrine of reason and Humanism.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
All of the above
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 3
|
All of the above
|
.
|
b
|
Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to socio-religious reforms:
Social reforms in India were led by the masses
Indian middle-class and western-educated intellectuals were the forerunners of social reforms.
They were inspired by the doctrine of reason and Humanism.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:All of the above###Option_B:Only 2 and 3##Option_C:Only 3##Option_D:All of the above##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Socio Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements 1. None of the states in India can have its separate constitution 2. None of the states enjoys dual citizenship. Which one of the above statements is/are incorrect?
|
Both
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both
|
.
|
d
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements 1. None of the states in India can have its separate constitution 2. None of the states enjoys dual citizenship. Which one of the above statements is/are incorrect?##Option_A:Both###Option_B:Only 1##Option_C:Only 2##Option_D:Both##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following represent unitary features of the Indian constitution? 1.Article 3 2.Article 352 3.Schedule 7 4.Article 249 Choose the Correct Option from the below:
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 4
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
.
|
d
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following represent unitary features of the Indian constitution? 1.Article 3 2.Article 352 3.Schedule 7 4.Article 249 Choose the Correct Option from the below:##Option_A:Only 1, 2 and 3###Option_B:Only 2 and 3##Option_C:Only 1 and 4##Option_D:Only 1, 2 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Article 352 1. President can proclaim emergency only on the grounds of external aggression. 2. President has the sole discretion to declare the emergency if he is satisfied that the grave emergency exist to impose article 352. Which of the statement/s above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Article 352 1. President can proclaim emergency only on the grounds of external aggression. 2. President has the sole discretion to declare the emergency if he is satisfied that the grave emergency exist to impose article 352. Which of the statement/s above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following the statements
1. In the US every state has equal representation in Senate 2. In India, the representation of the state in the center depends upon the size of the state. 3. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house of the parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2 and 3
|
1,2, and 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following the statements
1. In the US every state has equal representation in Senate 2. In India, the representation of the state in the center depends upon the size of the state. 3. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house of the parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 1 and 2###Option_B:Only 2 and 3##Option_C:1,2, and 3##Option_D:Only 1 and 2##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soil of India. 1. It is generally red in colour. 2. It is rich in nitrogen and potash. 3. It is well-developed in Rajasthan and UP. 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on it. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2, 3 and 4
|
1 and 4
|
1, 2 and 3
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soil of India. 1. It is generally red in colour. 2. It is rich in nitrogen and potash. 3. It is well-developed in Rajasthan and UP. 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on it. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 3###Option_B:2, 3 and 4##Option_C:1 and 4##Option_D:1, 2 and 3##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is not correct about the Prime Minister?
|
He can ask a minister to resign.
|
He can bring about the collapse of the CoM by resigning from the office.
|
He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Saba to the President at any time.
|
He can ask a minister to resign.
|
Prime Minister of India: He can ask a minister to resign. He can bring about the collapse of the CoM by resigning from the office. He is the leader of the house. Principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. Advises the President with respect to appointment of important officials. Advises the President with respect to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament. He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Saba to the President at any time.
|
d
|
Prime Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is not correct about the Prime Minister?##Option_A:He can ask a minister to resign.###Option_B:He can bring about the collapse of the CoM by resigning from the office.##Option_C:He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Saba to the President at any time.##Option_D:He can ask a minister to resign.##Answer:d##Explaination:Prime Minister of India: He can ask a minister to resign. He can bring about the collapse of the CoM by resigning from the office. He is the leader of the house. Principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. Advises the President with respect to appointment of important officials. Advises the President with respect to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament. He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Saba to the President at any time.##Topic:Prime Minister##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements
Objective resolution was moved by Pt. Nehru in 1946
The fundamental commitments of Indian constitution Is based on the objective resolution
Which one of the above is correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both
|
Only 1
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
Objective resolution was moved by Pt. Nehru in 1946
The fundamental commitments of Indian constitution Is based on the objective resolution
Which one of the above is correct?##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Both##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements
Preamble is neither enforceable not justifiable
Government of India Act 1919 had a preamble
Government of Indian Act 1935 did not have a preamble.
Which one of the above is correct?
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
Only 3
|
Only 1 and 3
|
.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
Preamble is neither enforceable not justifiable
Government of India Act 1919 had a preamble
Government of Indian Act 1935 did not have a preamble.
Which one of the above is correct?##Option_A:Only 1 and 3###Option_B:Only 1##Option_C:Only 3##Option_D:Only 1 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. There is no mention of social justice in the preamble. 2. The preamble is part of the constitution. 3. As per the Preamble, the Parliament is the ultimate sovereign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 2
|
Only 1 and 2
|
.
|
c
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. There is no mention of social justice in the preamble. 2. The preamble is part of the constitution. 3. As per the Preamble, the Parliament is the ultimate sovereign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 1 and 2###Option_B:Only 1 and 3##Option_C:Only 2##Option_D:Only 1 and 2##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements
No country is sovereign in the era of LPG.
Membership of international organisations curtails the sovereignty of a nation.
India remained economically closed for foreign investments till 1991.
Which one of the above is correct?
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1
|
Only 1 and 2
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
No country is sovereign in the era of LPG.
Membership of international organisations curtails the sovereignty of a nation.
India remained economically closed for foreign investments till 1991.
Which one of the above is correct?##Option_A:Only 1 and 2###Option_B:Only 2 and 3##Option_C:Only 1##Option_D:Only 1 and 2##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements
Fundamental rights are constitutional rights
All constitutional rights are not fundamental rights.
The right to Education is a legal right enforced under RTE Act.
Which of the above is true?
|
All
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2 and 3
|
All
|
.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
Fundamental rights are constitutional rights
All constitutional rights are not fundamental rights.
The right to Education is a legal right enforced under RTE Act.
Which of the above is true?##Option_A:All###Option_B:Only 1 and 2##Option_C:Only 2 and 3##Option_D:All##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements
1. Right to equality is available against both the state and a private individual.
2. Right against exploitation is available only to private individuals.
Which one of the above is correct?
|
Both
|
Only 2
|
Only 1
|
Both
|
.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
1. Right to equality is available against both the state and a private individual.
2. Right against exploitation is available only to private individuals.
Which one of the above is correct?##Option_A:Both###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Only 1##Option_D:Both##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statement:
1. The constitution empowers the judiciary to protect fundamental rights under Articles 32 and 226 2. An individual can directly approach the Supreme court in case of violation of a legal right. 3. Separation of power is part of the basic structure of the constitution.
Which of the above statement is correct?
|
1,2, and 3
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1,2, and 3
|
.An individual can directly approach the Supreme court in case of violation of only fundamental right.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement:
1. The constitution empowers the judiciary to protect fundamental rights under Articles 32 and 226 2. An individual can directly approach the Supreme court in case of violation of a legal right. 3. Separation of power is part of the basic structure of the constitution.
Which of the above statement is correct?##Option_A:1,2, and 3###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only ##Option_D:1,2, and 3##Answer:b##Explaination:.An individual can directly approach the Supreme court in case of violation of only fundamental right.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
The Official Secrets Act was passed during the reign of
|
Lord Bentinck
|
Lord Cornwallis
|
Lord Curzon
|
Lord Bentinck
|
.
|
c
|
RTI, Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Official Secrets Act was passed during the reign of##Option_A:Lord Bentinck###Option_B:Lord Cornwallis##Option_C:Lord Curzon##Option_D:Lord Bentinck##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:RTI, Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Self-Government was declared as the goal of the Indian National congress in
|
Surat Session 1907
|
Calcutta Session 1906
|
Madras session 1908
|
Surat Session 1907
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Self-Government was declared as the goal of the Indian National congress in##Option_A:Surat Session 1907###Option_B:Calcutta Session 1906##Option_C:Madras session 1908##Option_D:Surat Session 1907##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
A Domestic Systemically Important Bank (D-SIB) ________
|
Has to maintain additional SLR and SLR
|
Has to follow separate norms for priority sector lending.
|
Has to invest additional money in compulsorily in G-Sec
|
Has to maintain additional SLR and SLR
|
.
|
d
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A Domestic Systemically Important Bank (D-SIB) ________##Option_A:Has to maintain additional SLR and SLR###Option_B:Has to follow separate norms for priority sector lending.##Option_C:Has to invest additional money in compulsorily in G-Sec##Option_D:Has to maintain additional SLR and SLR##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils: 1. Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established by an act of the Parliament. 2. There is a separate Zonal Council for all the Union territories combined together. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Zonal Councils are Statutory bodies established by the act of the Parliament. Each Zonal Council is headed by the Union Home Minister, Chief Ministers of all States in the zone, Administrator of each Union territory in the zone and two other ministers from each state in the zone. Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 263 President can establish Interstate Council for smooth coordination between centre and states. The Zonal Councils as mentioned above are statutory bodies created by the act of the parliament. Statement 2 is not correct: The State Reorganisation Act, 1956 divides the Country into five zones- Northern, Western, Central, Eastern and Southern zones. North Eastern Council Act,1971 created a separate North-Eastern Zonal Council. As per the act, there is no provision of a separate zone for the Union Territories. For example UTs like Chandigarh, Delhi belongs to Northern Zone along with states like Harayana, Punjab.
|
a
|
Others Non-Constitutional Bodies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils: 1. Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established by an act of the Parliament. 2. There is a separate Zonal Council for all the Union territories combined together. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Zonal Councils are Statutory bodies established by the act of the Parliament. Each Zonal Council is headed by the Union Home Minister, Chief Ministers of all States in the zone, Administrator of each Union territory in the zone and two other ministers from each state in the zone. Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 263 President can establish Interstate Council for smooth coordination between centre and states. The Zonal Councils as mentioned above are statutory bodies created by the act of the parliament. Statement 2 is not correct: The State Reorganisation Act, 1956 divides the Country into five zones- Northern, Western, Central, Eastern and Southern zones. North Eastern Council Act,1971 created a separate North-Eastern Zonal Council. As per the act, there is no provision of a separate zone for the Union Territories. For example UTs like Chandigarh, Delhi belongs to Northern Zone along with states like Harayana, Punjab.##Topic:Others Non-Constitutional Bodies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
What is the difference between the "interim budget" and "vote on account"?
|
The provision of a vote on account is used by a regular government only, while an interim budget is used by a newly elected government.
|
A “vote on account” only deals with the expenditure in the government budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts
|
Both A and B
|
The provision of a vote on account is used by a regular government only, while an interim budget is used by a newly elected government.
|
nan
|
b
|
Budgeting: Evolution of Budgeting, Institutions and Laws, The Union Budget: Components - Revenue Account, Capital Account, Measures of Government Deficit etc., Weaknesses in the Budgetary Process
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the difference between the "interim budget" and "vote on account"?##Option_A:The provision of a vote on account is used by a regular government only, while an interim budget is used by a newly elected government.###Option_B:A “vote on account” only deals with the expenditure in the government budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts##Option_C:Both A and B##Option_D:The provision of a vote on account is used by a regular government only, while an interim budget is used by a newly elected government.##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Budgeting: Evolution of Budgeting, Institutions and Laws, The Union Budget: Components - Revenue Account, Capital Account, Measures of Government Deficit etc., Weaknesses in the Budgetary Process##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Kirana Gharana is related to which of the following?
|
Dhrupad
|
Khayal
|
Carnatic classical music
|
Dhrupad
|
Kirana Gharana is one of the most prolific Pakistani and Hindustani Khayal gharanas. The name of this school of music derives from Kirana or Kairana in Shamli district of Uttar Pradesh, which is the hometown of stalwarts like Ustad Abdul Karim Khan and Ustad Abdul Waheed Khan, who established this gharana. It is considered the foremost in perfect intonation of notes or swara. The central concern of the Kirana style is swara, in particular precise tuning and expression of notes Comparable to the gharanas of the khyal, we have "vanis" in the dhrupads. There were four schools or vanis of singing the dhrupad.
|
b
|
Indian Music
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Kirana Gharana is related to which of the following?##Option_A:Dhrupad###Option_B:Khayal##Option_C:Carnatic classical music##Option_D:Dhrupad##Answer:b##Explaination:Kirana Gharana is one of the most prolific Pakistani and Hindustani Khayal gharanas. The name of this school of music derives from Kirana or Kairana in Shamli district of Uttar Pradesh, which is the hometown of stalwarts like Ustad Abdul Karim Khan and Ustad Abdul Waheed Khan, who established this gharana. It is considered the foremost in perfect intonation of notes or swara. The central concern of the Kirana style is swara, in particular precise tuning and expression of notes Comparable to the gharanas of the khyal, we have "vanis" in the dhrupads. There were four schools or vanis of singing the dhrupad.##Topic:Indian Music##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Amir Amanullah Khan Award, recently conferred to the Prime Minister of India, is the highest civilian award of which country?
|
Oman
|
Afghanistan
|
Iran
|
Oman
|
Amir Amanullah Khan Award, recently conferred to the Prime Minister of India, is the highest civilian award of Afghanistan. It is named after the Afghan national hero, Amanullah Khan (Ghazi). It is bestowed by Afghan Govt. to both nationals and foreigners.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Awards
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Amir Amanullah Khan Award, recently conferred to the Prime Minister of India, is the highest civilian award of which country?
##Option_A: Oman
###Option_B: Afghanistan
##Option_C: Iran
##Option_D: Oman
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Amir Amanullah Khan Award, recently conferred to the Prime Minister of India, is the highest civilian award of Afghanistan. It is named after the Afghan national hero, Amanullah Khan (Ghazi). It is bestowed by Afghan Govt. to both nationals and foreigners.
##Topic:Miscellaneous Awards##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which among the following are advantages of Post’s Payment Bank?
1. Last-Mile Connectivity
2. Financial Inclusion
3. Familiarity of rural population
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. Extensive reach and spread of Indian postal system to blocks, taluks and villages ensuring last mile connectivity.
Statement 2 is Correct. Helpful for migrants, labourers, MSME, poor household, enhancing access to financial services and promoting financial inclusion.
Statement 3 is Correct. Old setup, ease of access, years of trust and familiarity of rural people.
|
d
|
Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following are advantages of Post’s Payment Bank?
1. Last-Mile Connectivity
2. Financial Inclusion
3. Familiarity of rural population
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Correct. Extensive reach and spread of Indian postal system to blocks, taluks and villages ensuring last mile connectivity.
Statement 2 is Correct. Helpful for migrants, labourers, MSME, poor household, enhancing access to financial services and promoting financial inclusion.
Statement 3 is Correct. Old setup, ease of access, years of trust and familiarity of rural people.
##Topic:Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which among the following is the objective of the 5:25 scheme introduced by Reserve Bank of India?
|
To allow RBI to change the Repo Rates by 25 basis points every 5 months.
|
To allow banks to extend long-term loans of 20-25 years, while refinancing them every 5 or 7 years.
|
To limit Statutory Liquid Ratio to a maximum of 25% while keeping repo rate less than 5%
|
To allow RBI to change the Repo Rates by 25 basis points every 5 months.
|
5:25 scheme - RBI's flexible financing scheme, allows banks to extend long-term loans of 20-25 years to match the cash flow of projects, while refinancing them every five or seven years. It creates incentive for banks to come together with their borrowers to rehabilitate stressed assets.
|
b
|
Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following is the objective of the 5:25 scheme introduced by Reserve Bank of India?
##Option_A: To allow RBI to change the Repo Rates by 25 basis points every 5 months.
###Option_B: To allow banks to extend long-term loans of 20-25 years, while refinancing them every 5 or 7 years.
##Option_C: To limit Statutory Liquid Ratio to a maximum of 25% while keeping repo rate less than 5%
##Option_D: To allow RBI to change the Repo Rates by 25 basis points every 5 months.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
5:25 scheme - RBI's flexible financing scheme, allows banks to extend long-term loans of 20-25 years to match the cash flow of projects, while refinancing them every five or seven years. It creates incentive for banks to come together with their borrowers to rehabilitate stressed assets.
##Topic:Need of banks, Function, Commercial Bank##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following sectors are allowed 100% Foreign Direct Investment?
1. Cable Networks
2. Greenfield projects in Aviation
3. Railway Operations
4. Brownfield Projects in Pharmaceuticals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
100% FDI is allowed in –
1. Cable Networks
2. Greenfield projects in Aviation
3. Brownfield Projects in Pharmaceuticals
4. Food Products etc.
FDI continues to be prohibited in –
Lottery, Gambling, Atomic Energy, Railway Operations etc.
|
c
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following sectors are allowed 100% Foreign Direct Investment?
1. Cable Networks
2. Greenfield projects in Aviation
3. Railway Operations
4. Brownfield Projects in Pharmaceuticals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
100% FDI is allowed in –
1. Cable Networks
2. Greenfield projects in Aviation
3. Brownfield Projects in Pharmaceuticals
4. Food Products etc.
FDI continues to be prohibited in –
Lottery, Gambling, Atomic Energy, Railway Operations etc.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding features of National Mineral Exploration Policy.
1. Lesser role of states for referring exploration projects,
2. Accelerate exploration activity through increasing private participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Incorrect. States will also play a greater role by referring exploration projects, which can be taken up through NMET.
Statement 2 is Correct. NMEP primarily aims at accelerating the exploration activity in the country through enhanced participation of the private sector. States will also play a greater role by referring exploration projects, which can be taken up through NMET (National Mineral Exploration Trust). NMEP has proposed that private entities engaged in carrying out regional and detailed exploration would get a certain share in revenue in mining operation from the successful bidder after the e-auction of the mineral block. The revenue-sharing could be either in the form of a lump sum or an annuity, to be paid throughout the period of mining lease with transferable rights. Selection of private explorer is proposed to be done through a transparent process of competitive bidding through e-auction.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding features of National Mineral Exploration Policy.
1. Lesser role of states for referring exploration projects,
2. Accelerate exploration activity through increasing private participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Incorrect. States will also play a greater role by referring exploration projects, which can be taken up through NMET.
Statement 2 is Correct. NMEP primarily aims at accelerating the exploration activity in the country through enhanced participation of the private sector. States will also play a greater role by referring exploration projects, which can be taken up through NMET (National Mineral Exploration Trust). NMEP has proposed that private entities engaged in carrying out regional and detailed exploration would get a certain share in revenue in mining operation from the successful bidder after the e-auction of the mineral block. The revenue-sharing could be either in the form of a lump sum or an annuity, to be paid throughout the period of mining lease with transferable rights. Selection of private explorer is proposed to be done through a transparent process of competitive bidding through e-auction.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Under the Income Declaration Scheme declarants are given immunity from which of the following legislations? Income Tax Act Wealth Tax Act Benami Transaction Act Black Money Act Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Finance Act 2016 passed in the budget session provided for Income Declaration Scheme which gives an opportunity to all persons to declare their undisclosed income.
Under the Income Declaration Scheme:
The declarants are given immunity from prosecution under Income tax Act, Wealth Tax Act and Benami Tranaction Act.
However, foreign assets or income to which the Black Money Act 2015 applies are not eligible for declaration under this scheme. Undisclosed income acquired through corruption is not covered under the scheme
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under the Income Declaration Scheme declarants are given immunity from which of the following legislations? Income Tax Act Wealth Tax Act Benami Transaction Act Black Money Act Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Finance Act 2016 passed in the budget session provided for Income Declaration Scheme which gives an opportunity to all persons to declare their undisclosed income.
Under the Income Declaration Scheme:
The declarants are given immunity from prosecution under Income tax Act, Wealth Tax Act and Benami Tranaction Act.
However, foreign assets or income to which the Black Money Act 2015 applies are not eligible for declaration under this scheme. Undisclosed income acquired through corruption is not covered under the scheme
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Krishi Kalyan Cess.
1. It is necessarily to be shared with the states
2. It is applicable to all taxable services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Incorrect. The centre has to share the revenue of other taxes with the state but in terms of cess, the centre is not obliged. This case is true for KKC too.
Statement 2 is Correct. It is KKC is a cess, applicable on all taxable services. It is to be solely used towards financing activities for the improvement of agriculture and farmer welfare. The KKC is based on the idea that levying a cess on a thriving sector service sector (58% of GDP) of the economy can help fund a lifeline to a sector that is in distress (Agriculture). The problem is particularly acute this year after two consecutive years of monsoon failure. Over the long-term, improvement in agricultural productivity will help farmers earn higher income and consumers benefit and low inflation from lower prices as a result of better supplies.
|
b
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Krishi Kalyan Cess.
1. It is necessarily to be shared with the states
2. It is applicable to all taxable services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Incorrect. The centre has to share the revenue of other taxes with the state but in terms of cess, the centre is not obliged. This case is true for KKC too.
Statement 2 is Correct. It is KKC is a cess, applicable on all taxable services. It is to be solely used towards financing activities for the improvement of agriculture and farmer welfare. The KKC is based on the idea that levying a cess on a thriving sector service sector (58% of GDP) of the economy can help fund a lifeline to a sector that is in distress (Agriculture). The problem is particularly acute this year after two consecutive years of monsoon failure. Over the long-term, improvement in agricultural productivity will help farmers earn higher income and consumers benefit and low inflation from lower prices as a result of better supplies.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The World Investment Report is released by which of the following organization?
|
United Nations Conference for Trade and Development
|
World Bank
|
International Monetary Fund
|
United Nations Conference for Trade and Development
|
UN Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD) releases the World Investment Report 2016. India continues to be among the top ten countries in terms of foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows globally and the fourth in developing Asia. India’s FDI inflows have increased to $44 billion in 2015 as compared to $35 billion in 2014
|
a
|
Reports(International)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The World Investment Report is released by which of the following organization?##Option_A: United Nations Conference for Trade and Development ###Option_B: World Bank##Option_C: International Monetary Fund##Option_D: United Nations Conference for Trade and Development ##Answer:a##Explaination:
UN Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD) releases the World Investment Report 2016. India continues to be among the top ten countries in terms of foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows globally and the fourth in developing Asia. India’s FDI inflows have increased to $44 billion in 2015 as compared to $35 billion in 2014
##Topic:Reports(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of constitution of India:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in lower house of the parliament or the state legislature.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, it also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India except Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct. An amendment of the constitution in India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill for this purpose in either house of the parliament only. It can be initiated either in the upper house (Rajya Sabha) or in the lower house (Lok Sabha). It cannot be initiated in any of the state legislatures (including legislative assemblies or councils).
Statement 2 is not correct. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. There is no exception regarding Jammu and Kashmir in the provision of ratification by state legislatures for the purpose of constitutional amendment.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of constitution of India:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in lower house of the parliament or the state legislature.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, it also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India except Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct. An amendment of the constitution in India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill for this purpose in either house of the parliament only. It can be initiated either in the upper house (Rajya Sabha) or in the lower house (Lok Sabha). It cannot be initiated in any of the state legislatures (including legislative assemblies or councils).
Statement 2 is not correct. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. There is no exception regarding Jammu and Kashmir in the provision of ratification by state legislatures for the purpose of constitutional amendment.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each house by a special majority in order to get enacted. Special majority, here, refers to:
|
Majority of the members of each house present and voting
|
Majority of the total membership of each house present and voting for the bill
|
Majority of the total membership of the house and a simple majority of the members of the house present and voting
|
Majority of the members of each house present and voting
|
Option a is not correct. This kind of majority is considered as simple majority. The amendments carried out by this majority are not deemed to be amendment of constitution for the purposes of article 368.
Option b is not correct. Such kind of majority is not special majority and is not sufficient for the purpose of constitutional amendment.
Option c is not correct. In order to pass a constitutional amendment act in each house of parliament a majority of the total membership of the house along with a majority of two-third, and not a simple majority, of the members of the house present and voting is required.
Option d is correct. In order to pass a constitutional amendment act, such kind of majority is required in both houses of parliament. This kind of majority is called as special majority.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each house by a special majority in order to get enacted. Special majority, here, refers to:##Option_A: Majority of the members of each house present and voting###Option_B: Majority of the total membership of each house present and voting for the bill##Option_C: Majority of the total membership of the house and a simple majority of the members of the house present and voting##Option_D: Majority of the members of each house present and voting##Answer:d##Explaination:
Option a is not correct. This kind of majority is considered as simple majority. The amendments carried out by this majority are not deemed to be amendment of constitution for the purposes of article 368.
Option b is not correct. Such kind of majority is not special majority and is not sufficient for the purpose of constitutional amendment.
Option c is not correct. In order to pass a constitutional amendment act in each house of parliament a majority of the total membership of the house along with a majority of two-third, and not a simple majority, of the members of the house present and voting is required.
Option d is correct. In order to pass a constitutional amendment act, such kind of majority is required in both houses of parliament. This kind of majority is called as special majority.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following provisions require a special majority of parliament and consent of half of the state legislatures in order to get amended?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Any of the lists in the seventh schedule
3. Representation of states in parliament
4. Fifth and sixth schedules of the constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Those provisions of the constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.
To amend the directive principles of state policy, consent of state legislatures is not required. It can be amended by special majority of the parliament.
Seventh schedule deals with the division of powers between the union and the states in terms of union list, state list and concurrent list. It is a federal feature of the constitution. So it can be amended only by special majority of the parliament along with consent of half of the state legislature by a simple majority.
Representation of states in parliament is also a federal feature. So, to amend this provision, special majority of parliament along with consent of half of the states is required.
Amendment in the fifth and sixth schedule of the constitution can be carried out by simple majority of the parliament, which is not deemed as constitutional amendment under article 368.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following provisions require a special majority of parliament and consent of half of the state legislatures in order to get amended?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Any of the lists in the seventh schedule
3. Representation of states in parliament
4. Fifth and sixth schedules of the constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Those provisions of the constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.
To amend the directive principles of state policy, consent of state legislatures is not required. It can be amended by special majority of the parliament.
Seventh schedule deals with the division of powers between the union and the states in terms of union list, state list and concurrent list. It is a federal feature of the constitution. So it can be amended only by special majority of the parliament along with consent of half of the state legislature by a simple majority.
Representation of states in parliament is also a federal feature. So, to amend this provision, special majority of parliament along with consent of half of the states is required.
Amendment in the fifth and sixth schedule of the constitution can be carried out by simple majority of the parliament, which is not deemed as constitutional amendment under article 368.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following features can be said to convey philosophy of our Constitution?
1. Fundamental Rights 2. Collective responsibility of Council of Ministers to Lok Sabha 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Only 1 and 3 are correct
Philosophical part of the Constitution means that part which defines the goals which our founding fathers had in mind, and which they wanted to achieve through this Constitution. Hence Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy forms the philosophical part of Indian Constitution.
On the other hand, Collective responsibility of CoM will form the political part of our Constitution as it deals with the type of polity which India is going to adopt i.e. Parliamentary democracy.
|
b
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following features can be said to convey philosophy of our Constitution?
1. Fundamental Rights 2. Collective responsibility of Council of Ministers to Lok Sabha 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only ##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Only 1 and 3 are correct
Philosophical part of the Constitution means that part which defines the goals which our founding fathers had in mind, and which they wanted to achieve through this Constitution. Hence Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy forms the philosophical part of Indian Constitution.
On the other hand, Collective responsibility of CoM will form the political part of our Constitution as it deals with the type of polity which India is going to adopt i.e. Parliamentary democracy.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Indian Constitution is considered both rigid as well as flexible in terms of Amendment. Which among the following feature can be said to form the flexible part of Constitution?
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Seventh schedule
|
Creation of Legislative councils
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Indian Constitution can be amended in 3 ways:
1. Special majority of the Parliament.
2. Special majority of the Parliament and ratification by half of the states.
3. Simple majority.
The provisions of the Constitution that can be amended by first two types are the rigid parts of the Constitution as they cannot by changed easily.
Whereas those provisions of the Constitution that can be amended by simple majority are known as flexible parts of the Constitution.
Following provisions can be amended by simple majority:
1. Citizenship – acquisition and termination
2. Union territories
3. Quorum in parliament.
4. Conferment’s of more jurisdiction on the supreme
5. Use of official language.
6. Number of judges in the supreme court
7. Use of English language in parliament
8. Admission or establishments of new states.
9. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
10. Salaries and allowances of the members of parliament
11. Rules of procedures in parliament
12. Privileges of the parliaments, its members and its committees
13. Election of parliament and state legislatures.
14. Delimitation of constituencies.
15. Union territories
16. Sixth schedule – administration of tribal areas
17. Fifth schedule – administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
18. Formation of new state and alteration of areas, boundaries or name of existing states.
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Indian Constitution is considered both rigid as well as flexible in terms of Amendment. Which among the following feature can be said to form the flexible part of Constitution? ##Option_A: Fundamental Rights ###Option_B: Seventh schedule ##Option_C: Creation of Legislative councils ##Option_D: Fundamental Rights ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Indian Constitution can be amended in 3 ways:
1. Special majority of the Parliament.
2. Special majority of the Parliament and ratification by half of the states.
3. Simple majority.
The provisions of the Constitution that can be amended by first two types are the rigid parts of the Constitution as they cannot by changed easily.
Whereas those provisions of the Constitution that can be amended by simple majority are known as flexible parts of the Constitution.
Following provisions can be amended by simple majority:
1. Citizenship – acquisition and termination
2. Union territories
3. Quorum in parliament.
4. Conferment’s of more jurisdiction on the supreme
5. Use of official language.
6. Number of judges in the supreme court
7. Use of English language in parliament
8. Admission or establishments of new states.
9. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
10. Salaries and allowances of the members of parliament
11. Rules of procedures in parliament
12. Privileges of the parliaments, its members and its committees
13. Election of parliament and state legislatures.
14. Delimitation of constituencies.
15. Union territories
16. Sixth schedule – administration of tribal areas
17. Fifth schedule – administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
18. Formation of new state and alteration of areas, boundaries or name of existing states.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following feature can be common between Parliamentary and Presidential form of government?
|
Responsibility of Executive to Legislature
|
Rule by Party with majority in Lower House
|
Dissolution of Lower House by President
|
Responsibility of Executive to Legislature
|
Presidential countries like Russia and Sri Lanka have PM too.
Under Parliamentary system of government: - executive is responsible to the legislature
- Majority party in Lower house forms the Government
- President can dissolve lower house on the advise of PM
- Can have both PM and President as in India or only PM as in UK
Following countries have Parliamentary system - Britain, Japan, Canada, India.
Under Presidential system of government: - executive is not responsible to the legislature.
- It is not necessary that majority party in Lower house forms the Government as President can be from opposite party.
- President cannot dissolve Lower House due to seperation of Powers.
- Can have both PM and President as in Russia or only President as in USA.
Following countries have Presidential system- USA, Brazil, Russia, Sri Lanka etc.
|
d
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following feature can be common between Parliamentary and Presidential form of government?
##Option_A: Responsibility of Executive to Legislature
###Option_B: Rule by Party with majority in Lower House
##Option_C: Dissolution of Lower House by President
##Option_D: Responsibility of Executive to Legislature
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Presidential countries like Russia and Sri Lanka have PM too.
Under Parliamentary system of government: - executive is responsible to the legislature
- Majority party in Lower house forms the Government
- President can dissolve lower house on the advise of PM
- Can have both PM and President as in India or only PM as in UK
Following countries have Parliamentary system - Britain, Japan, Canada, India.
Under Presidential system of government: - executive is not responsible to the legislature.
- It is not necessary that majority party in Lower house forms the Government as President can be from opposite party.
- President cannot dissolve Lower House due to seperation of Powers.
- Can have both PM and President as in Russia or only President as in USA.
Following countries have Presidential system- USA, Brazil, Russia, Sri Lanka etc.
##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
What do we mean when we say Fundamental Rights are not "absolute" ?
|
They can be repealed.
|
They act as limitations on executive.
|
They are subject to reasonable restrictions.
|
They can be repealed.
|
Fundamental Rights are not absolute , it means that they can be subjected to reasonable restrictions. For example right to absolute freedom of expression can lead to defamation, incitement to an offense etc. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. Fundamental Rights are not 'sacrosanct', it means that they can be repealed or modified by amending the Constitution. Fundamental Rights as the Political Rights of people means that there are limitations on the executive's arbitrary power.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What do we mean when we say Fundamental Rights are not "absolute" ?##Option_A: They can be repealed.###Option_B: They act as limitations on executive.##Option_C: They are subject to reasonable restrictions.##Option_D: They can be repealed.##Answer:c##Explaination:Fundamental Rights are not absolute , it means that they can be subjected to reasonable restrictions. For example right to absolute freedom of expression can lead to defamation, incitement to an offense etc. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. Fundamental Rights are not 'sacrosanct', it means that they can be repealed or modified by amending the Constitution. Fundamental Rights as the Political Rights of people means that there are limitations on the executive's arbitrary power.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
I only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
I only
|
.
|
d
|
Economic Reforms since 1991
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: I only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: I only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Economic Reforms since 1991##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Terms in Preamble Related provision in Constitution 1. Secular : Article 15 and 16 2. Liberty : Article 19 3. Unity and Integrity : Article 1 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
All the given pairs are correctly matched Secular character is revealed in following articles: Article 15 prohibits the state from discriminating between citizens on the ground of religion. Article 16 prohibits the state from discriminating between citizens in matters of public employment on the basis of religion. Under the "Right to Freedom of Religion" from Article 25 to 28, various provisions can be seen which again reinforce the ideal of secularism. Article 325 provides that no person can be ineligible for inclusion in an electoral roll or can claim inclusion in a special roll on the grounds of religion. Liberty means liberty of thought, expression, beliefs, faith, and worship. Hence articles: Article 19 - freedom of speech and expression Article 25 - liberty to profess, practice and propagate any religion. The phrase 'unity and integrity of the nation' embraces both the psychological and territorial dimensions of national integration. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States' to make it clear that the states have no right to secede from the Union, implying the indestructible nature of the Indian Union. It aims at overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism, regionalism, casteism, linguism, secessionism and so on.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Terms in Preamble Related provision in Constitution 1. Secular : Article 15 and 16 2. Liberty : Article 19 3. Unity and Integrity : Article 1 Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the given pairs are correctly matched Secular character is revealed in following articles: Article 15 prohibits the state from discriminating between citizens on the ground of religion. Article 16 prohibits the state from discriminating between citizens in matters of public employment on the basis of religion. Under the "Right to Freedom of Religion" from Article 25 to 28, various provisions can be seen which again reinforce the ideal of secularism. Article 325 provides that no person can be ineligible for inclusion in an electoral roll or can claim inclusion in a special roll on the grounds of religion. Liberty means liberty of thought, expression, beliefs, faith, and worship. Hence articles: Article 19 - freedom of speech and expression Article 25 - liberty to profess, practice and propagate any religion. The phrase 'unity and integrity of the nation' embraces both the psychological and territorial dimensions of national integration. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States' to make it clear that the states have no right to secede from the Union, implying the indestructible nature of the Indian Union. It aims at overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism, regionalism, casteism, linguism, secessionism and so on. ##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Article 16 of the Constitution: 1. Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review. 2. Backward classes of citizens contained in Article 16 includes Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes within its purview. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review. Statement 2 is correct: Art 16 is an enabling provision and confers a discretionary power on the State to make reservation, if required. The backwardness contemplated by Article 16(4) is mainly social, hence it contains SCs, STs and OBCs.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Article 16 of the Constitution: 1. Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review. 2. Backward classes of citizens contained in Article 16 includes Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes within its purview. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review. Statement 2 is correct: Art 16 is an enabling provision and confers a discretionary power on the State to make reservation, if required. The backwardness contemplated by Article 16(4) is mainly social, hence it contains SCs, STs and OBCs.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following most comprehensively provide basic philosophy of Indian Constitution?
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Directive Principles
|
Fundamental duties
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Fundamental Rights, DPSP, and Fundamental duties provide the philosophy of our Constitution but only in partial manner.
Whereas, Preamble embodies the complete Philosophy of our Constitution.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following most comprehensively provide basic philosophy of Indian Constitution?
##Option_A: Fundamental Rights
###Option_B: Directive Principles
##Option_C: Fundamental duties
##Option_D: Fundamental Rights
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Fundamental Rights, DPSP, and Fundamental duties provide the philosophy of our Constitution but only in partial manner.
Whereas, Preamble embodies the complete Philosophy of our Constitution.
##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Preamble to the constitution of India aims to achieve which among the following ? Fraternity Dignity Diversity Integrity Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Except diversity all other are mentioned in our Preamble. WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
|
c
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Preamble to the constitution of India aims to achieve which among the following ? Fraternity Dignity Diversity Integrity Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 4 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 4 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Except diversity all other are mentioned in our Preamble. WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? The term "federation" has not been used in the Constitution. The federal system was adopted in India owing to the large size of the country and the socio-cultural diversity. Flexibility of the Constitution is a federal feature of the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The term 'federation' has not been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States' and not 'Federation of States' to indicate that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation and that the states have no right to secede from the federation. Statement 2 is correct: The framers of the Indian Constitution adopted the federal system due to two main reasons- the large size of the country and its socio-cultural diversity. The federal system ensures efficient governance in the country and also reconciles national unity with regional autonomy. Statement 3 is incorrect: Flexibility of the Constitution is a Unitary or non-federal feature of the Constitution. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of the Parliament by simple majority or by special majority. Also, the power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution also lies only with the Centre.
|
a
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? The term "federation" has not been used in the Constitution. The federal system was adopted in India owing to the large size of the country and the socio-cultural diversity. Flexibility of the Constitution is a federal feature of the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The term 'federation' has not been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States' and not 'Federation of States' to indicate that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation and that the states have no right to secede from the federation. Statement 2 is correct: The framers of the Indian Constitution adopted the federal system due to two main reasons- the large size of the country and its socio-cultural diversity. The federal system ensures efficient governance in the country and also reconciles national unity with regional autonomy. Statement 3 is incorrect: Flexibility of the Constitution is a Unitary or non-federal feature of the Constitution. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of the Parliament by simple majority or by special majority. Also, the power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution also lies only with the Centre. ##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
As per the Constitution, which of the following can be considered to examine the reasonableness of a law with respect to Article 19? 1.DPSPs 2. Public order 3. Defamation 4. Contempt of court 5. International conventions Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
The following factors can be considered for imposing reasonable restrictions to a law under Art. 19 of the Constitution: 1. Sovereignty and integrity of India 2. the security of the State 3. Friendly relations with foreign States 4. Public order 5. Decency or morality 6. Contempt of court 7. Defamation 8. Incitement to an offence
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As per the Constitution, which of the following can be considered to examine the reasonableness of a law with respect to Article 19? 1.DPSPs 2. Public order 3. Defamation 4. Contempt of court 5. International conventions Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The following factors can be considered for imposing reasonable restrictions to a law under Art. 19 of the Constitution: 1. Sovereignty and integrity of India 2. the security of the State 3. Friendly relations with foreign States 4. Public order 5. Decency or morality 6. Contempt of court 7. Defamation 8. Incitement to an offence##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which among the following sentences best defines co-operative federalism?
|
State and federal government share responsibility in the governance.
|
Federation as a result of agreement between states
|
Union of states under a Central Government
|
State and federal government share responsibility in the governance.
|
When governments at all the three tiers i.e. State, local and federal level share responsibility in the governance, it is called Cooperative Federalism. The concept which is currently being followed in India.
When individual governments of the separate states come together to form a federal government, the pure form of federal government is said to be formed. For example - USA.
Union of states under a Central Government is the case in India where federation is not the result of agreement between the states. Also states are not allowed to secede from the Union. It is for this reason that K C Wheare has called Indian Constitution as Quasi-federal.
Competition among the states leads to competitive federalism. For example states in India trying to improve their ease of doing business rating to attract more investments.
|
a
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following sentences best defines co-operative federalism?
##Option_A: State and federal government share responsibility in the governance.
###Option_B: Federation as a result of agreement between states
##Option_C: Union of states under a Central Government
##Option_D: State and federal government share responsibility in the governance.
##Answer:a##Explaination:
When governments at all the three tiers i.e. State, local and federal level share responsibility in the governance, it is called Cooperative Federalism. The concept which is currently being followed in India.
When individual governments of the separate states come together to form a federal government, the pure form of federal government is said to be formed. For example - USA.
Union of states under a Central Government is the case in India where federation is not the result of agreement between the states. Also states are not allowed to secede from the Union. It is for this reason that K C Wheare has called Indian Constitution as Quasi-federal.
Competition among the states leads to competitive federalism. For example states in India trying to improve their ease of doing business rating to attract more investments.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the power of the legislature and the executive w.r.t. Fundamental Rights:
1. Article 21 imposes limitation on the Legislative as well as Executive power.
2. Article 20 does not impose a limitation on Legislative power.
Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Some of the Fundamental Rights are negatively worded, thus prohibiting or limiting the power of the State. However, some Fundamental Rights impose limitation only on the Executive and not on the Legislative power of the State. For eg, Art. 21 says that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law." Thus, it does not impose any limitation upon the legislative power, but only ensures that the Executive does not take away a man's liberty except under the authority of a valid law enacted by the legislature to set limitations to Art. 21. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
On the other hand, the rights guaranteed by Arts. 15, 17, 18, 20 and 24 place absolute limitations upon both the Legislative and Executive powers of the State and the Legislature cannot regulate the exercise of such rights. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with reference to the power of the legislature and the executive w.r.t. Fundamental Rights:
1. Article 21 imposes limitation on the Legislative as well as Executive power.
2. Article 20 does not impose a limitation on Legislative power.
Which of the above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Some of the Fundamental Rights are negatively worded, thus prohibiting or limiting the power of the State. However, some Fundamental Rights impose limitation only on the Executive and not on the Legislative power of the State. For eg, Art. 21 says that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law." Thus, it does not impose any limitation upon the legislative power, but only ensures that the Executive does not take away a man's liberty except under the authority of a valid law enacted by the legislature to set limitations to Art. 21. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
On the other hand, the rights guaranteed by Arts. 15, 17, 18, 20 and 24 place absolute limitations upon both the Legislative and Executive powers of the State and the Legislature cannot regulate the exercise of such rights. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which among the following languages is/are mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the constitution? Assamese English Sanskrit Hindi Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages viz. Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkari, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu. The list had originally 14 languages only.
|
b
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following languages is/are mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the constitution? Assamese English Sanskrit Hindi Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 2, 3 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages viz. Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkari, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu. The list had originally 14 languages only.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following fundamental rights is/are "self-executory" in nature? 1. Prohibition of untouchability 2. Right to freedom of speech and expression 3. Right to constitutional remedies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Fundamental rights can be classified as executory and non-executory rights. Some provisions of Part III of the Constitution are not self-executory i.e., these articles are not directly enforceable. They are indirectly enforeceable and require the enactment of some law to bring them into effect. They are enforceable only if the law is violated. For eg, Art. 15(2) (equality in regard to access to use of places of public resort), Art. 17 (prohibition of untouchability), Art. 18 (3)-(4) (prohibition of acceptance of foreign title), Art. 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings), Art 24. (prohibition of employment of children in hazardous employment), are executory rights, needing a law to enforce them.
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following fundamental rights is/are "self-executory" in nature? 1. Prohibition of untouchability 2. Right to freedom of speech and expression 3. Right to constitutional remedies Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Fundamental rights can be classified as executory and non-executory rights. Some provisions of Part III of the Constitution are not self-executory i.e., these articles are not directly enforceable. They are indirectly enforeceable and require the enactment of some law to bring them into effect. They are enforceable only if the law is violated. For eg, Art. 15(2) (equality in regard to access to use of places of public resort), Art. 17 (prohibition of untouchability), Art. 18 (3)-(4) (prohibition of acceptance of foreign title), Art. 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings), Art 24. (prohibition of employment of children in hazardous employment), are executory rights, needing a law to enforce them. ##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the provisions of the Charter Act of 1853, consider the following statements: It separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor General"s council. It introduced an open competition for selection of civil servants. It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor General's council. It provided for addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s legislative council which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. This legislative wing of the council functioned as a mini- Parliament, adopting the same procedures as the British Parliament. Thus, legislation, for the first time, was treated as a special function of the government, requiring special machinery and special process. Statement 2 is correct: The Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil services was thus thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854. Statement 3 is not correct: This was a provision under the Charter Act of 1833 and not Charter Act of 1853 . The Charter Act of 1833 deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India
|
a
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the provisions of the Charter Act of 1853, consider the following statements: It separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor General"s council. It introduced an open competition for selection of civil servants. It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor General's council. It provided for addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s legislative council which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. This legislative wing of the council functioned as a mini- Parliament, adopting the same procedures as the British Parliament. Thus, legislation, for the first time, was treated as a special function of the government, requiring special machinery and special process. Statement 2 is correct: The Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil services was thus thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854. Statement 3 is not correct: This was a provision under the Charter Act of 1833 and not Charter Act of 1853 . The Charter Act of 1833 deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Government of India Act, 1858, consider the following statements: It ended the system of double government in India introduced by the Pitts India Act, 1784. It changed the designation of Governor-General of India to the Viceroy of India. It created a new office of Secretary of State for India who was a member of the British cabinet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The Act ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. Statement 2 is correct: The designation of the Governor-General of India was changed to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the first Viceroy of India". Statement 3 is correct: The act created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament".
|
d
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Government of India Act, 1858, consider the following statements: It ended the system of double government in India introduced by the Pitts India Act, 1784. It changed the designation of Governor-General of India to the Viceroy of India. It created a new office of Secretary of State for India who was a member of the British cabinet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The Act ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. Statement 2 is correct: The designation of the Governor-General of India was changed to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the first Viceroy of India". Statement 3 is correct: The act created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament".##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Preamble to the Indian Constitution: It cannot be amended as it is part of the basic structure of the constitution. It is a source of power to legislature and also a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The Supreme court in the Kesavananda Bharti case held that the Preamble can be amended. However it also held that those features of the Preamble which are included in the basic features cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368. Statement 2 is not correct: The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
|
d
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Preamble to the Indian Constitution: It cannot be amended as it is part of the basic structure of the constitution. It is a source of power to legislature and also a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The Supreme court in the Kesavananda Bharti case held that the Preamble can be amended. However it also held that those features of the Preamble which are included in the basic features cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368. Statement 2 is not correct: The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following writs are enforced by a higher court to a lower court? 1. Mandamus 2. Certiorari 3. Quo Warranto 4. Prohibition Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1,3 and only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Mandamus: Issued by the Supreme Court to a public official or an inferior court asking them to perform their function Prohibition : Issues by the Supreme Court to inferior court or judicial magistrate who has judicial powers. Certiorari : Issues by the Supreme Court to inferior courts asking them to transfer the records of cases already decided by them Quo Warranto : Issued by the Courts to public officials (not inferior courts)
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following writs are enforced by a higher court to a lower court? 1. Mandamus 2. Certiorari 3. Quo Warranto 4. Prohibition Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only ##Option_C:1,3 and only##Option_D:1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Mandamus: Issued by the Supreme Court to a public official or an inferior court asking them to perform their function Prohibition : Issues by the Supreme Court to inferior court or judicial magistrate who has judicial powers. Certiorari : Issues by the Supreme Court to inferior courts asking them to transfer the records of cases already decided by them Quo Warranto : Issued by the Courts to public officials (not inferior courts)##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The term 'Fraternity' in the Preamble aims to assure
1. Dignity of individual
2. Integrity of individual
3. Dignity of nation
4. Integrity of nation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
20“WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY, of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship: EQUALITY, of status and opportunity and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY, This 26th day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES, and THIS CONSTITUTION.”
|
a
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The term 'Fraternity' in the Preamble aims to assure
1. Dignity of individual
2. Integrity of individual
3. Dignity of nation
4. Integrity of nation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:20“WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY, of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship: EQUALITY, of status and opportunity and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY, This 26th day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES, and THIS CONSTITUTION.”##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
A bill for abolition or creation of legislative councils in states is passed by
|
a majority of the members present and voting in both the houses of the Parliament
|
two third of the members of both houses of Parliament present and voting
|
a simple majority in Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures
|
a majority of the members present and voting in both the houses of the Parliament
|
A bill for creation and abolition of Legislative Council in states by the Parliament by simple majority. Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting.
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A bill for abolition or creation of legislative councils in states is passed by ##Option_A: a majority of the members present and voting in both the houses of the Parliament###Option_B: two third of the members of both houses of Parliament present and voting##Option_C: a simple majority in Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures##Option_D: a majority of the members present and voting in both the houses of the Parliament##Answer:a##Explaination:A bill for creation and abolition of Legislative Council in states by the Parliament by simple majority. Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for amendment of constitution of India: The President can withhold his assent to the constitutional amendment bill if the bill deals with amending the basic structure of the constitution. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a special majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct. Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the basic structure of the constitution. Also, the President can neither withhold his assent to the constitutional amendment bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the parliament. Statement 2 is not correct. If the constitutional amendment bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority ( and not special majority), that is, a majority of the members of the house present and voting.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for amendment of constitution of India: The President can withhold his assent to the constitutional amendment bill if the bill deals with amending the basic structure of the constitution. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a special majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct. Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the basic structure of the constitution. Also, the President can neither withhold his assent to the constitutional amendment bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the parliament. Statement 2 is not correct. If the constitutional amendment bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority ( and not special majority), that is, a majority of the members of the house present and voting.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the power of Parliament to amend the constitution, consider the following statements: 1. It is extra-constituent. 2. It is not procedurally limited and restricted. 3. It is unrestricted by any inherent and implied limitations. 4. It includes power to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal of the provision of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
4 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct. Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of parliament only, and also by, a special majority of parliament coupled with ratification of half of the states ( in case of amendment of federal features of the constitution). Some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the constitution by a simple majority of parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each house present and voting (similar to ordinary legislative process). These amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the constitution for the purposes of article 368.
Statement 2 is not correct. There are several limitations and restrictions placed in the procedure to carry out constitutional amendment. For example, the constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house of parliament only and not in the state legislature. No joint sitting of the two houses can be called for deliberation and passage of the bill in case of disagreement between the two houses. The constitutional amendment bill has to be passed individually by the two houses of parliament with special majority. Amendment of the federal provisions can be carried out only if the bill is ratified by the legislature of half of the states by a simple majority after the bill has been passed by each house of the parliament with special majority.
Statement 3 is not correct. As per the ruling of the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati case (1973), the parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the basic structure of the constitution, for example, secularism and rule of law etc.
Statement 4 is correct. Article 368 in part twenty of the Constitution of India deals with powers of Parliament to amend the constitution and its procedure. It states that the Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the power of Parliament to amend the constitution, consider the following statements: 1. It is extra-constituent. 2. It is not procedurally limited and restricted. 3. It is unrestricted by any inherent and implied limitations. 4. It includes power to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal of the provision of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct. Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of parliament only, and also by, a special majority of parliament coupled with ratification of half of the states ( in case of amendment of federal features of the constitution). Some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the constitution by a simple majority of parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each house present and voting (similar to ordinary legislative process). These amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the constitution for the purposes of article 368.
Statement 2 is not correct. There are several limitations and restrictions placed in the procedure to carry out constitutional amendment. For example, the constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house of parliament only and not in the state legislature. No joint sitting of the two houses can be called for deliberation and passage of the bill in case of disagreement between the two houses. The constitutional amendment bill has to be passed individually by the two houses of parliament with special majority. Amendment of the federal provisions can be carried out only if the bill is ratified by the legislature of half of the states by a simple majority after the bill has been passed by each house of the parliament with special majority.
Statement 3 is not correct. As per the ruling of the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati case (1973), the parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the basic structure of the constitution, for example, secularism and rule of law etc.
Statement 4 is correct. Article 368 in part twenty of the Constitution of India deals with powers of Parliament to amend the constitution and its procedure. It states that the Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following fundamental rights.
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
3. Right to constitutional remedies.
Which of these rights are not available to non-citizens of India?
|
1 and 2 Only
|
2 Only
|
1 and 3 Only
|
1 and 2 Only
|
Fundamental rights defined under article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are not available to foreign citizens.
|
a
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following fundamental rights.
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
3. Right to constitutional remedies.
Which of these rights are not available to non-citizens of India? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 Only ###Option_B: 2 Only ##Option_C: 1 and 3 Only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 Only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
Fundamental rights defined under article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are not available to foreign citizens.
##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Citizenship in India? Only a citizen by birth is eligible to hold the office of the President. When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of other country, his/her Indian citizenship automatically gets terminated. If a foreign territory becomes a part of India, all the people of that territory automatically become citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President. Statement 2 is correct. When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. Statement 3 is incorrect. If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, all the people of that territory do not automatically become citizens of India. The Government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India. Such persons become the citizens of India from the notified date.
|
b
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Citizenship in India? Only a citizen by birth is eligible to hold the office of the President. When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of other country, his/her Indian citizenship automatically gets terminated. If a foreign territory becomes a part of India, all the people of that territory automatically become citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President. Statement 2 is correct. When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. Statement 3 is incorrect. If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, all the people of that territory do not automatically become citizens of India. The Government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India. Such persons become the citizens of India from the notified date.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following powers of the parliament to reorganize states.
1. President’s consent is not mandatory before introducing a bill in the parliament seeking reorganization of existing states.
2. It is not mandatory to sought opinion of the state concerned before introducing such a bill in the parliament.
Which of the above statement/s is are correct?
|
1 Only
|
2 Only
|
1 and 2
|
1 Only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. President’s consent is mandatory before introducing a bill in the parliament seeking reorganization of existing states. Statement 2 is incorrect. It is mandatory for the President to sought opinion of the state concerned before introducing such a bill in the parliament. However views of the state could be accepted or rejected.
|
d
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following powers of the parliament to reorganize states.
1. President’s consent is not mandatory before introducing a bill in the parliament seeking reorganization of existing states.
2. It is not mandatory to sought opinion of the state concerned before introducing such a bill in the parliament.
Which of the above statement/s is are correct?
##Option_A: 1 Only ###Option_B: 2 Only ##Option_C: 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 Only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. President’s consent is mandatory before introducing a bill in the parliament seeking reorganization of existing states. Statement 2 is incorrect. It is mandatory for the President to sought opinion of the state concerned before introducing such a bill in the parliament. However views of the state could be accepted or rejected.
##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the formation of a new state out of an existing state by the Parliament?
|
It requires an amendment to the constitution under Article 368.
|
The legislative assembly of the concerned state must pass the bill with simple majority.
|
The Parliament shall pass the bill with a simple majority following an ordinary legislative process.
|
It requires an amendment to the constitution under Article 368.
|
Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to: (a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state, (b) increase the area of any state, (c) diminish the area of any state, (d) alter the boundaries of any state, and (e) alter the name of any state. The Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process. Hence, (c) is the correct answer
|
c
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the formation of a new state out of an existing state by the Parliament?##Option_A: It requires an amendment to the constitution under Article 368.###Option_B: The legislative assembly of the concerned state must pass the bill with simple majority.##Option_C: The Parliament shall pass the bill with a simple majority following an ordinary legislative process.##Option_D: It requires an amendment to the constitution under Article 368.##Answer:c##Explaination:Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to: (a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state, (b) increase the area of any state, (c) diminish the area of any state, (d) alter the boundaries of any state, and (e) alter the name of any state. The Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process. Hence, (c) is the correct answer##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
On which grounds does the constitution (under Art. 15) prohibit discrimination against any citizen?
1. Race
2. Place of residence
3. Sex
4. Caste
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1, 2 and 3 Only
|
1, 3 and 4 Only
|
2, 3 and 4 Only
|
1, 2 and 3 Only
|
The constitution (under Art. 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
|
b
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
On which grounds does the constitution (under Art. 15) prohibit discrimination against any citizen?
1. Race
2. Place of residence
3. Sex
4. Caste
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 Only
###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 Only
##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 Only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 Only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The constitution (under Art. 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with respect to citizenship in India.
1. Non-Resident Indian (NRI) is a citizen of India who holds an Indian passport and has temporarily emigrated to another country for three months or more.
2. A person of Indian origin who is a citizen of Sri Lanka cannot apply for Overseas Citizenship of India.
3. Person of Indian Origin (PIO) card holders can visit India without visa for life long.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
|
1 and 2 Only
|
2 and 3 Only
|
1 and 3 Only
|
1 and 2 Only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Non-Resident Indian (NRI) is a citizen of India who holds an Indian passport and has temporarily emigrated to another country for six months or more. Statement 2 is incorrect. A person of Indian origin who is a citizen of Sri Lanka can apply for Overseas Citizenship of India. However a person who is or has been a citizen of Pakistan and Bangladesh cannot apply for OCI. Statement 3 is incorrect. Person of Indian Origin (PIO) card holders can visit India without visa for 15 years.
|
d
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with respect to citizenship in India.
1. Non-Resident Indian (NRI) is a citizen of India who holds an Indian passport and has temporarily emigrated to another country for three months or more.
2. A person of Indian origin who is a citizen of Sri Lanka cannot apply for Overseas Citizenship of India.
3. Person of Indian Origin (PIO) card holders can visit India without visa for life long.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 Only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 Only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 Only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 Only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Non-Resident Indian (NRI) is a citizen of India who holds an Indian passport and has temporarily emigrated to another country for six months or more. Statement 2 is incorrect. A person of Indian origin who is a citizen of Sri Lanka can apply for Overseas Citizenship of India. However a person who is or has been a citizen of Pakistan and Bangladesh cannot apply for OCI. Statement 3 is incorrect. Person of Indian Origin (PIO) card holders can visit India without visa for 15 years.
##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following constitutional features forms the element of the " basic structure " of the Indian Constitution? Law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts of the country. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court as mentioned in the Constitution. Remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 32. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
From the various judgements, some elements have emerged as the basic structure of the Constitution which includes powers of the Supreme Court under articles 32, 136, 141 and 142. These articles cannot be amended by the Parliament. Statement 1 which comes under article 141 is one of the elements of basic structure of the constitution. Laws declared by Supreme Court are binding on all courts of India. Statement 2 which comes under article 136 is one of the elements of basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court is authorized to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country except military tribunal and court martial. Statement 3 which comes under article 32 is one of the elements of basic structure of the constitution. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen.
|
d
|
Basic Structure of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following constitutional features forms the element of the " basic structure " of the Indian Constitution? Law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts of the country. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court as mentioned in the Constitution. Remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 32. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:From the various judgements, some elements have emerged as the basic structure of the Constitution which includes powers of the Supreme Court under articles 32, 136, 141 and 142. These articles cannot be amended by the Parliament. Statement 1 which comes under article 141 is one of the elements of basic structure of the constitution. Laws declared by Supreme Court are binding on all courts of India. Statement 2 which comes under article 136 is one of the elements of basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court is authorized to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country except military tribunal and court martial. Statement 3 which comes under article 32 is one of the elements of basic structure of the constitution. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen.##Topic:Basic Structure of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Parliament cannot, under article 368, expand its amending power so as to acquire for itself the right to repeal or abrogate the constitution or to destroy its basic feature. Reason(R): Constitution has conferred only a limited amending power on the Parliament which cannot be used as an absolute power. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
|
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
|
A is true but R is false
|
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. The Indian constitution provides only a limited power to Parliament as far as amending the constitution is concerned. A limited amending power is one of the basic features of the constitution and, so, the limitations on that power cannot be destroyed. Parliament cannot under the exercise of the limited amending power enlarge this very power into an absolute power.
|
a
|
Basic Structure of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Parliament cannot, under article 368, expand its amending power so as to acquire for itself the right to repeal or abrogate the constitution or to destroy its basic feature. Reason(R): Constitution has conferred only a limited amending power on the Parliament which cannot be used as an absolute power. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?##Option_A: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A###Option_B: Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A##Option_C: A is true but R is false##Option_D: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A##Answer:a##Explaination:Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. The Indian constitution provides only a limited power to Parliament as far as amending the constitution is concerned. A limited amending power is one of the basic features of the constitution and, so, the limitations on that power cannot be destroyed. Parliament cannot under the exercise of the limited amending power enlarge this very power into an absolute power. ##Topic:Basic Structure of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following was a part of the green revolution strategy?
1. High-yielding variety seeds
2. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides
3. Irrigation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Others
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following was a part of the green revolution strategy?
1. High-yielding variety seeds
2. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides
3. Irrigation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Others##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
What is meant by Net Sown Area?
|
It is the total area sown with crops in a country.
|
It is land which left without cultivation.
|
It is land used for non-agricultural purposes.
|
It is the total area sown with crops in a country.
|
.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is meant by Net Sown Area?##Option_A:It is the total area sown with crops in a country.###Option_B:It is land which left without cultivation.##Option_C:It is land used for non-agricultural purposes.##Option_D:It is the total area sown with crops in a country.##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Land use changes in India; 1. land use changed in favor of non-agricultural use. 2. The areas under the forest have shown an increase. Select the correct answer using the code given below;
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Land use changes in India; 1. land use changed in favor of non-agricultural use. 2. The areas under the forest have shown an increase. Select the correct answer using the code given below;##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Gorkhaland Territorial Administration, a semi-autonomous administrative body for the Darjeeling hills in West Bengal comes under which of the following?
|
Fifth Schedule
|
Sixth Schedule
|
Eleventh Schedule
|
Fifth Schedule
|
Gorkhaland Territorial Administration (GTA) has provisons similar to areas under 5th and 6th Schedules. However, it does not fall under the schedules. Provisions of the 11th Schedule also do not apply to the GTA as mentioned in the Constitution.
|
d
|
Others Non-Constitutional Bodies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Gorkhaland Territorial Administration, a semi-autonomous administrative body for the Darjeeling hills in West Bengal comes under which of the following?
##Option_A: Fifth Schedule
###Option_B: Sixth Schedule
##Option_C: Eleventh Schedule
##Option_D: Fifth Schedule
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Gorkhaland Territorial Administration (GTA) has provisons similar to areas under 5th and 6th Schedules. However, it does not fall under the schedules. Provisions of the 11th Schedule also do not apply to the GTA as mentioned in the Constitution.
##Topic:Others Non-Constitutional Bodies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to provisions regarding Directive Principles of State Policy in India, consider the following statements.
They are of the nature of ‘instruments of instruction’ to the Government of the day.
It aims to establish opportunities for securing justice is not denied to people with disabilities.
Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 was enacted to implement the Directive Principles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement 1 is correct. Principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country. They act as Lighthouse to the Government, guiding way ahead.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 39A mentions Equal justice and free legal aid.—The State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 47 Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.—The State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health and Bihar Liquor Law 2016 achieves the same.
|
a
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to provisions regarding Directive Principles of State Policy in India, consider the following statements.
They are of the nature of ‘instruments of instruction’ to the Government of the day.
It aims to establish opportunities for securing justice is not denied to people with disabilities.
Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 was enacted to implement the Directive Principles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country. They act as Lighthouse to the Government, guiding way ahead.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 39A mentions Equal justice and free legal aid.—The State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 47 Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.—The State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health and Bihar Liquor Law 2016 achieves the same.
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Recently, cow slaughter was in news as today India is biggest exporter of beef. Which of the following Constitutional provision/provisions does not promote killing of animals?
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
nbsp;1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as Article 48 in The Constitution Of India states: Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry-The State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle
Statement 2 is correct as Article 51A(g) in The Constitution Of India states: Fundamental duties.—It shall be the duty of every citizen of India— to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;
|
c
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Recently, cow slaughter was in news as today India is biggest exporter of beef. Which of the following Constitutional provision/provisions does not promote killing of animals?
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A:1 only
###Option_B:2 only
##Option_C:nbsp;1 and 2
##Option_D:1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as Article 48 in The Constitution Of India states: Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry-The State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle
Statement 2 is correct as Article 51A(g) in The Constitution Of India states: Fundamental duties.—It shall be the duty of every citizen of India— to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV of Constitution prescribes for which of the following directive/directives to the state to secure for all workers.
|
nbsp; Minimum Wage
|
nbsp; Living Wage
|
nbsp; Fair Wage
|
nbsp; Minimum Wage
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as Article 43 of Constitution prescribes “Living wage, etc., for workers.”
Minimum wage includes only bare needs of life like ‘shelter, food and clothing. Living wage includes education, health, insurance etc.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 43 of Constitution prescribes The State shall endeavour to secure, by suitable legislation or economic organisation or in any other way, to all workers, agricultural, industrial or otherwise, work, a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life.
Statement 3 is incorrect as fair wage is mean between ‘living wage’ and ‘minimum wage’
Statement 4 is incorrect as Article 43A. mentions Participation of workers in management of industries (and not service sector.)
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV of Constitution prescribes for which of the following directive/directives to the state to secure for all workers.
##Option_A:nbsp; Minimum Wage
###Option_B:nbsp; Living Wage
##Option_C:nbsp; Fair Wage
##Option_D:nbsp; Minimum Wage
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as Article 43 of Constitution prescribes “Living wage, etc., for workers.”
Minimum wage includes only bare needs of life like ‘shelter, food and clothing. Living wage includes education, health, insurance etc.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 43 of Constitution prescribes The State shall endeavour to secure, by suitable legislation or economic organisation or in any other way, to all workers, agricultural, industrial or otherwise, work, a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life.
Statement 3 is incorrect as fair wage is mean between ‘living wage’ and ‘minimum wage’
Statement 4 is incorrect as Article 43A. mentions Participation of workers in management of industries (and not service sector.)
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
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