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Which among the following committees is/are related to the local self government? Balwant Rai Mehta Committee L M Singhvi Committee Ashok Mehta Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj. Statement 2 is correct: In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi. Statement 3 is correct: In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on panchayati raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining panchayati raj system in the country.
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following committees is/are related to the local self government? Balwant Rai Mehta Committee L M Singhvi Committee Ashok Mehta Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj. Statement 2 is correct: In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi. Statement 3 is correct: In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on panchayati raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining panchayati raj system in the country.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the removal of a judge of Supreme Court, consider the following statements: He can be removed only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion for removal can be introduced in the Parliament only after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. The motion for removal must be passed by simple majority in both the houses of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 124 of the constitution provides only two grounds for the removal of the judges of Supreme Court i.e. proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Statement 2 is not correct: The consultation with the Chief Justice of India is not required before the introduction of the motion for removal of the judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is not correct: The motion must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting)
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the removal of a judge of Supreme Court, consider the following statements: He can be removed only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion for removal can be introduced in the Parliament only after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. The motion for removal must be passed by simple majority in both the houses of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Article 124 of the constitution provides only two grounds for the removal of the judges of Supreme Court i.e. proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Statement 2 is not correct: The consultation with the Chief Justice of India is not required before the introduction of the motion for removal of the judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is not correct: The motion must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting)##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which among the following contain provisions related to local self government? Part IX Directive principles of State Policy 11th Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Part-IX to the Constitution of India s entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. Statement 2 is correct:Article 40 under the Directive principles of state policy states that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government. Statement 3 is correct: 11th schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G.
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following contain provisions related to local self government? Part IX Directive principles of State Policy 11th Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Part-IX to the Constitution of India s entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. Statement 2 is correct:Article 40 under the Directive principles of state policy states that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government. Statement 3 is correct: 11th schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G. ##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
A political party can be recognised as a national party if: It secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states. It wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected from three states. It is recognised as a state party in four states. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A party is recognised as a national party if any of the following conditions is fulfilled: If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and, in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states; or If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected from three states; or If it is recognised as a state party in four states.
|
d
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A political party can be recognised as a national party if: It secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states. It wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected from three states. It is recognised as a state party in four states. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:A party is recognised as a national party if any of the following conditions is fulfilled: If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and, in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states; or If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected from three states; or If it is recognised as a state party in four states.##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, consider the following statements: All seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels are reserved for the Scheduled Tribe. The recommendations of the Gram Sabha are mandatory for grant of mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas. The ownership of minor forest produce in the schedule areas lies with the gram sabha, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the communities for whom reservation is sought to be given under Part IX of the Constitution. However, the reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one half of the total number of seats. Further, all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes. Statement 2 is correct: The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas.The prior recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction. Statement 3 is correct.While endowing Panchayats in the Scheduled Areas with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government, a State Legislature shall ensure that the Panchayats at the appropriate level and the Gram Sabha are endowed specifically with – (i) the power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant (ii) the ownership of minor forest produce (iii) the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe (iv) the power to manage village markets (v) the power to exercise control over money lending to the Scheduled Tribes (vi) the power to exercise control over institutions and functionaries in all social sectors (vii) the power to control local plans and resources for such plans including tribal sub-plans
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, consider the following statements: All seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels are reserved for the Scheduled Tribe. The recommendations of the Gram Sabha are mandatory for grant of mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas. The ownership of minor forest produce in the schedule areas lies with the gram sabha, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the communities for whom reservation is sought to be given under Part IX of the Constitution. However, the reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one half of the total number of seats. Further, all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes. Statement 2 is correct: The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas.The prior recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction. Statement 3 is correct.While endowing Panchayats in the Scheduled Areas with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government, a State Legislature shall ensure that the Panchayats at the appropriate level and the Gram Sabha are endowed specifically with – (i) the power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant (ii) the ownership of minor forest produce (iii) the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe (iv) the power to manage village markets (v) the power to exercise control over money lending to the Scheduled Tribes (vi) the power to exercise control over institutions and functionaries in all social sectors (vii) the power to control local plans and resources for such plans including tribal sub-plans##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding GDP calculations:
1. While calculating GDP, income generated by foreigners in a country is taken into consideration.
2. While calculating GDP, income generated by nationals of a country outside the country is taken into account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding GDP calculations:
1. While calculating GDP, income generated by foreigners in a country is taken into consideration.
2. While calculating GDP, income generated by nationals of a country outside the country is taken into account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which among the following urban local bodies consists of both elected and nominated members? Municipal Corporation Notified Area Committee Cantonment Board Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees and the commissioner. The Council is the deliberative and legislative wing of the corporation. It consists of the Councillors directly elected by the people, as well as a few nominated persons having knowledge or experience of municipal administration. Statement 2 is not correct: It is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. It is neither an elected body nor a statutory body. Statement 3 is correct. A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station.
|
b
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following urban local bodies consists of both elected and nominated members? Municipal Corporation Notified Area Committee Cantonment Board Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees and the commissioner. The Council is the deliberative and legislative wing of the corporation. It consists of the Councillors directly elected by the people, as well as a few nominated persons having knowledge or experience of municipal administration. Statement 2 is not correct: It is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. It is neither an elected body nor a statutory body. Statement 3 is correct. A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station. ##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following authorities may be required to provide staff for election duty? Local Governments Public Sector Undertakings Central Universities Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
According to the Section 159 of the Representation of Peoples Act,1951 the following authorities, when so requested by the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of the state, shall make available to any Returning Officer such staff as may be necessary for the performance of any duties in connection with an election: every local authority; Hence, option 1 is correct. every university established or incorporated by or under a Central, Provincial or State Act; Hence, option 3 is correct. a Government company as defined in section 617 of the Companies Act,1956; any other institution, concern or undertaking which is established by or under a provincial or state Act or which is controlled, or financed wholly or substantially by funds provided, directly or indirectly, by the Central Government or a State Government. Hence, option 2 is correct.
|
d
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following authorities may be required to provide staff for election duty? Local Governments Public Sector Undertakings Central Universities Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:According to the Section 159 of the Representation of Peoples Act,1951 the following authorities, when so requested by the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of the state, shall make available to any Returning Officer such staff as may be necessary for the performance of any duties in connection with an election: every local authority; Hence, option 1 is correct. every university established or incorporated by or under a Central, Provincial or State Act; Hence, option 3 is correct. a Government company as defined in section 617 of the Companies Act,1956; any other institution, concern or undertaking which is established by or under a provincial or state Act or which is controlled, or financed wholly or substantially by funds provided, directly or indirectly, by the Central Government or a State Government. Hence, option 2 is correct.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The 12th schedule of the constitution places which of the following under the purview of the municipalities? Urban poverty alleviation Public health and sanitation Regulation of land use Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Twelfth Schedule It contains the following 18 functional items placed within the purview of municipalities: Urban planning including town planning; Regulation of land use and construction of buildings; Planning for economic and social development; Roads and bridges; Water supply for domestic, industrial and commercial purposes; Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste management; Fire services; Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects; Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded; Slum improvement and upgradation; Urban poverty alleviation; Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens, playgrounds; Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic aspects; Burials and burial grounds, cremations and cremation grounds and electric crematoriums; Cattle ponds, prevention of cruelty to animals; Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths; Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public conveniences; and Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries.
|
d
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The 12th schedule of the constitution places which of the following under the purview of the municipalities? Urban poverty alleviation Public health and sanitation Regulation of land use Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Twelfth Schedule It contains the following 18 functional items placed within the purview of municipalities: Urban planning including town planning; Regulation of land use and construction of buildings; Planning for economic and social development; Roads and bridges; Water supply for domestic, industrial and commercial purposes; Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste management; Fire services; Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects; Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded; Slum improvement and upgradation; Urban poverty alleviation; Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens, playgrounds; Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic aspects; Burials and burial grounds, cremations and cremation grounds and electric crematoriums; Cattle ponds, prevention of cruelty to animals; Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths; Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public conveniences; and Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries.##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the statements regarding our Solar System-:
Pluto is the largest planet revolving around the Sun.
Every planet except Venus rotates from West to East just like Earth on its own axis.
It is a nuclear fusion that takes place within the Sun which releases huge heat energy.
Choose the correct statements from the following code.
|
1 and 2 only.
|
1 and 3 only.
|
2 and 3 only.
|
1 and 2 only.
|
.
|
d
|
The Solar System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the statements regarding our Solar System-:
Pluto is the largest planet revolving around the Sun.
Every planet except Venus rotates from West to East just like Earth on its own axis.
It is a nuclear fusion that takes place within the Sun which releases huge heat energy.
Choose the correct statements from the following code.##Option_A:1 and 2 only.###Option_B:1 and 3 only.##Option_C:2 and 3 only.##Option_D:1 and 2 only.##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:The Solar System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Summer solstice, consider the following statements:
1. The sun"s rays are directly overhead along the Tropic of Capricorn. 2. The Sun is not visible from below the Antarctic Circle. 3. Arctic Circle has a 24-hour day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Summer solstice, consider the following statements:
1. The sun"s rays are directly overhead along the Tropic of Capricorn. 2. The Sun is not visible from below the Antarctic Circle. 3. Arctic Circle has a 24-hour day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Equator of earth, consider the following statements:
Equator has 12 hour day round the day.
The Sun is overhead at the equator round of the year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Weather & Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Equator of earth, consider the following statements:
Equator has 12 hour day round the day.
The Sun is overhead at the equator round of the year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Weather & Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to the urban local bodies consider the following statements: A nagar panchayat is established for an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area. A cantonment board works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence. A town area committee does not require a separate legislation for its establishment. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The 74th amendment act provides for the constitution of the following three types of municipalities in every state. 1. A nagar panchayat for a transitional area, that is, an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area. 2. A municipal council for a smaller urban area. 3. A municipal corporation for a larger urban area. Statement 2 is correct: A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government. Statement 3 is not correct: A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition, functions and other matters are governed by the act.
|
a
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the urban local bodies consider the following statements: A nagar panchayat is established for an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area. A cantonment board works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence. A town area committee does not require a separate legislation for its establishment. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The 74th amendment act provides for the constitution of the following three types of municipalities in every state. 1. A nagar panchayat for a transitional area, that is, an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area. 2. A municipal council for a smaller urban area. 3. A municipal corporation for a larger urban area. Statement 2 is correct: A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government. Statement 3 is not correct: A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition, functions and other matters are governed by the act. ##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the powers of the supreme court, consider the following statements: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the Vice President. It inquires into the conduct of the members of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. It can transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice-president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority. Statement 2 is correct: It enquires into the conduct and behaviour of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. If it finds them guilty of misbehaviour, it can recommend to the president for their removal. The advice tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. Statement 3 is correct: It is authorised to withdraw the cases pending before the high courts and dispose them by itself. It can also transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high court.
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the powers of the supreme court, consider the following statements: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the Vice President. It inquires into the conduct of the members of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. It can transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice-president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority. Statement 2 is correct: It enquires into the conduct and behaviour of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. If it finds them guilty of misbehaviour, it can recommend to the president for their removal. The advice tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. Statement 3 is correct: It is authorised to withdraw the cases pending before the high courts and dispose them by itself. It can also transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high court. ##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Supreme Court, consider the following statements: The judges of the supreme court hold their office during the pleasure of the President. The retired judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any Court within the territory of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The judges of the Supreme Court are provided with the Security of Tenure. They can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the President, though they are appointed by him. Statement 2 is correct. The retired judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any Court or before any authority within the territory of India. This ensures that they do not favour any one in the hope of future favour
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Supreme Court, consider the following statements: The judges of the supreme court hold their office during the pleasure of the President. The retired judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any Court within the territory of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The judges of the Supreme Court are provided with the Security of Tenure. They can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the President, though they are appointed by him. Statement 2 is correct. The retired judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any Court or before any authority within the territory of India. This ensures that they do not favour any one in the hope of future favour##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
We read in the newspapers that foreign direct Investments are preferred over Capital Inflow. In this context, please consider the following:
1. FDI brings in the latest technology
2. FDI does not involve outflow
3. FDI improves the efficiency of the economy
Which among the above is/are the most suitable reason/reasons for the given statement?
|
1 only
|
1 & 3 only
|
1 & 2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:We read in the newspapers that foreign direct Investments are preferred over Capital Inflow. In this context, please consider the following:
1. FDI brings in the latest technology
2. FDI does not involve outflow
3. FDI improves the efficiency of the economy
Which among the above is/are the most suitable reason/reasons for the given statement?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 & 3 only##Option_C:1 & 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Tax evasion and tax avoidance are the same concepts.
2. Tax avoidance is illegal in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Tax evasion and tax avoidance are the same concepts.
2. Tax avoidance is illegal in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: It is a statutory body. It aims to provide free legal Services to the weaker sections of the society. It organizes Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The principal objective of NALSA is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society and to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities, and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. Apart from the abovementioned, functions of NALSA include spreading legal literacy and awareness, undertaking social justice litigations etc.
|
d
|
District Courts, Gram Nyayalayas, NALSA etc
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: It is a statutory body. It aims to provide free legal Services to the weaker sections of the society. It organizes Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The principal objective of NALSA is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society and to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities, and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. Apart from the abovementioned, functions of NALSA include spreading legal literacy and awareness, undertaking social justice litigations etc.##Topic:District Courts, Gram Nyayalayas, NALSA etc##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
Metaphoric rocks are formed due to the direct solidification of magma.
Igneous rocks are formed due to changes in temperature and pressure.
Gneiss is a type of metamorphic rock.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
b
|
Interior of Earth
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Metaphoric rocks are formed due to the direct solidification of magma.
Igneous rocks are formed due to changes in temperature and pressure.
Gneiss is a type of metamorphic rock.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Interior of Earth##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
अंतर्राज्यीय जल विवाद के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : इसकी चर्चा संविधान के अनुच्छेद 262 में की गयी है . अनुच्छेद 262 संसद को यह अधिकार देता है , कि वह ऐसे किसी विवाद को सर्वोच्च न्यायालय व उच्च न्यायालय के अधिकार क्षेत्र से बाहर रखे . उपरोक्त में असत्य कथन/कथनों का चयन कीजिए :
|
केवल 1
|
केवल 2
|
1 और 2 दोनों
|
केवल 1
|
nan
|
d
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:अंतर्राज्यीय जल विवाद के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : इसकी चर्चा संविधान के अनुच्छेद 262 में की गयी है . अनुच्छेद 262 संसद को यह अधिकार देता है , कि वह ऐसे किसी विवाद को सर्वोच्च न्यायालय व उच्च न्यायालय के अधिकार क्षेत्र से बाहर रखे . उपरोक्त में असत्य कथन/कथनों का चयन कीजिए : ##Option_A:केवल 1 ###Option_B:केवल 2 ##Option_C:1 और 2 दोनों ##Option_D:केवल 1 ##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements: They are a form of alternate dispute redressal mechanisms. They have been given a statutory status. The award given by Lok adalats is final and binding on all parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Statement 2 is correct: Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Statement 3 is correct: Under the Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award.
|
d
|
District Courts, Gram Nyayalayas, NALSA etc
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements: They are a form of alternate dispute redressal mechanisms. They have been given a statutory status. The award given by Lok adalats is final and binding on all parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Statement 2 is correct: Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Statement 3 is correct: Under the Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award.##Topic:District Courts, Gram Nyayalayas, NALSA etc##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following bodies ensures accountability of Government? Parliamentary Committees Cabinet committees Comptroller and Auditor General Supreme Court Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Cabinet committees - They assist the cabinet in taking the decisions. They are the support system of government and not an instrument of accountability. CAG - Ensures financial accountability of the Government. Parliamentary Committees- Ensures Legislative accountability of the Government. Supreme Court- Ensures the accountability of the Government through Judicial Review.
|
b
|
Transparency & Accountability
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following bodies ensures accountability of Government? Parliamentary Committees Cabinet committees Comptroller and Auditor General Supreme Court Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Cabinet committees - They assist the cabinet in taking the decisions. They are the support system of government and not an instrument of accountability. CAG - Ensures financial accountability of the Government. Parliamentary Committees- Ensures Legislative accountability of the Government. Supreme Court- Ensures the accountability of the Government through Judicial Review.##Topic:Transparency & Accountability##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Gram Nyayalaya, consider the following statements: It exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. Its presiding officer is appointed by the state government in consultation with the High Court of the state concerned. No appeal can be made against the decisions of the Gram Nyayalaya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts; i.e., the seat of the Gram Nyayalaya will be located at the headquarters of the intermediate Panchayat, but they will go to villages, work there and dispose of the cases. It can try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Gram Nyayalaya Act and the scope of these cases can be amended by the Central as well as the State Governments, as per their respective legislative competence. Statement 2 is correct: Gram Nyayalaya are courts of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court of the State concerned; The Nyayadhikaris who will preside over these Gram Nyayalayas are strictly judicial officers and will be drawing the same salary and deriving the same powers as First Class Magistrates working under High Courts. Statement 3 is not correct: Appeal in criminal cases shall lie to the Court of Session, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal. Appeal in civil cases shall lie to the District Court, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of the appeal.
|
b
|
District Courts, Gram Nyayalayas, NALSA etc
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Gram Nyayalaya, consider the following statements: It exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. Its presiding officer is appointed by the state government in consultation with the High Court of the state concerned. No appeal can be made against the decisions of the Gram Nyayalaya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts; i.e., the seat of the Gram Nyayalaya will be located at the headquarters of the intermediate Panchayat, but they will go to villages, work there and dispose of the cases. It can try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Gram Nyayalaya Act and the scope of these cases can be amended by the Central as well as the State Governments, as per their respective legislative competence. Statement 2 is correct: Gram Nyayalaya are courts of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court of the State concerned; The Nyayadhikaris who will preside over these Gram Nyayalayas are strictly judicial officers and will be drawing the same salary and deriving the same powers as First Class Magistrates working under High Courts. Statement 3 is not correct: Appeal in criminal cases shall lie to the Court of Session, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal. Appeal in civil cases shall lie to the District Court, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of the appeal.##Topic:District Courts, Gram Nyayalayas, NALSA etc##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Appeal by Special Leave in the Supreme Court, consider the following statements: It can be given for the judgement passed by any court or tribunal in the country. It is a discretionary power of the Supreme Court. It can only be given if the judgement given by the court or tribunal is final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country except military tribunal and court martial. Statement 2 is correct: It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right. Statement 3 is not correct: It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Appeal by Special Leave in the Supreme Court, consider the following statements: It can be given for the judgement passed by any court or tribunal in the country. It is a discretionary power of the Supreme Court. It can only be given if the judgement given by the court or tribunal is final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country except military tribunal and court martial. Statement 2 is correct: It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right. Statement 3 is not correct: It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to earth, consider the following statements:
1. The latitudinal circles of the earth are parallel to each other.
2. The longitude lines are perpendicular to the latitudes.
3. The sunrays are always perpendicular to the equator of the earth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to earth, consider the following statements:
1. The latitudinal circles of the earth are parallel to each other.
2. The longitude lines are perpendicular to the latitudes.
3. The sunrays are always perpendicular to the equator of the earth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958: 1. This act is invoked to control insurgency in the North-East and J&K. 2. Only the governor of the state or the administrator of UT can declare an area as a disturbed area. 3. It is presently enforced in all the states under the sixth schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 only
|
Why in News? The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has extended the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) in parts of Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland for another six months. The AFSPA, 1958 came into force in the context of insurgency in the North-eastern States decades ago. It provides “special power” to the Armed Forces applies to the Army, the Air Force, and the Central Paramilitary forces etc Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 AFSPA gives armed forces the authority use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law. The Act further provides that if “reasonable suspicion exists”, the armed forces can also arrest a person without warrant; enter or search premises without a warrant; and ban the possession of firearms. What are the Special Powers? The ‘special powers’ which are spelt out under Section 4 provide that: Power to arrest without warrant and to use force for the purpose; Power to enter and search premises without a warrant to make arrest or recovery of hostages, arms and ammunition and stolen property etc. What are the Disturbed Areas? A disturbed area is one that is declared by notification under Section 3 of the AFSPA. The Central Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. Hence statement 2 is not correct. AFSPA is currently in force in Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, 3 districts of Arunachal Pradesh, and areas falling within the jurisdiction of 8 police stations in Arunachal Pradesh bordering Assam. Hence statement 3 is not correct. In Jammu and Kashmir, a separate law Armed Forces (Jammu and Kashmir) Special Powers Act, 1990 has been in force. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958: 1. This act is invoked to control insurgency in the North-East and J&K. 2. Only the governor of the state or the administrator of UT can declare an area as a disturbed area. 3. It is presently enforced in all the states under the sixth schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only ##Option_C:1, 2 and 3##Option_D:2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Why in News? The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has extended the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) in parts of Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland for another six months. The AFSPA, 1958 came into force in the context of insurgency in the North-eastern States decades ago. It provides “special power” to the Armed Forces applies to the Army, the Air Force, and the Central Paramilitary forces etc Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 AFSPA gives armed forces the authority use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law. The Act further provides that if “reasonable suspicion exists”, the armed forces can also arrest a person without warrant; enter or search premises without a warrant; and ban the possession of firearms. What are the Special Powers? The ‘special powers’ which are spelt out under Section 4 provide that: Power to arrest without warrant and to use force for the purpose; Power to enter and search premises without a warrant to make arrest or recovery of hostages, arms and ammunition and stolen property etc. What are the Disturbed Areas? A disturbed area is one that is declared by notification under Section 3 of the AFSPA. The Central Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. Hence statement 2 is not correct. AFSPA is currently in force in Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, 3 districts of Arunachal Pradesh, and areas falling within the jurisdiction of 8 police stations in Arunachal Pradesh bordering Assam. Hence statement 3 is not correct. In Jammu and Kashmir, a separate law Armed Forces (Jammu and Kashmir) Special Powers Act, 1990 has been in force. Hence statement 1 is not correct.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
With reference to the writ jurisdiction of a court, consider the following statements: The high court can issue writs outside its territorial jurisdiction. The writ jurisdiction of high court is part of basic structure of the constitution. The high court can issue writs only in case of violation of a fundamental right. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The high court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction. Statement 2 is correct: In the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that the writ jurisdiction of both the high court and the Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be ousted or excluded even by way of an amendment to the Constitution. Statement 3 is not correct: The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.
|
a
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the writ jurisdiction of a court, consider the following statements: The high court can issue writs outside its territorial jurisdiction. The writ jurisdiction of high court is part of basic structure of the constitution. The high court can issue writs only in case of violation of a fundamental right. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The high court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction. Statement 2 is correct: In the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that the writ jurisdiction of both the high court and the Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be ousted or excluded even by way of an amendment to the Constitution. Statement 3 is not correct: The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged. ##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
In which of the following cases high court has the original jurisdiction? Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens. Any Dispute between the Center and any state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Original Jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. It extends to the following: Matters of admirality, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection. Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens. Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to its own file. The four high courts (i.e., Calcutta, Bombay, Madras and Delhi High Courts) have original civil jurisdiction in cases of higher value. Supreme courts holds the original jurisdication in case of any dispute between the Centre and any state.
|
a
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In which of the following cases high court has the original jurisdiction? Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens. Any Dispute between the Center and any state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Original Jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. It extends to the following: Matters of admirality, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection. Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens. Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to its own file. The four high courts (i.e., Calcutta, Bombay, Madras and Delhi High Courts) have original civil jurisdiction in cases of higher value. Supreme courts holds the original jurisdication in case of any dispute between the Centre and any state.##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Representation of the People Act, 1951:
1. According to the Act, a candidate shall be disqualified from the date of conviction for a crime for which the minimum imprisonment is two years.
2. Any person convicted for any heinous crime is permanently barred from contesting elections at any level.
Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates that candidates should have completed a period of six years from the date of conviction to become eligible for elections. Candidate convicted for a crime for which the minimum imprisonment is two years shall also be disqualified from the date of conviction and will continue to be disqualified for six additional years after his release. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
The Election Commission has proposed that the minimum offence punishable by imprisonment of 5 years or more should be set as criteria for
disqualification. The Commission has further proposed that any person convicted for any heinous crime such as murder, rape, smuggling, dacoity, etc., should be permanently barred from contesting elections at any level. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect, as it is a recommendation of the EC and not a provision of the RPA.
|
a
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the Representation of the People Act, 1951:
1. According to the Act, a candidate shall be disqualified from the date of conviction for a crime for which the minimum imprisonment is two years.
2. Any person convicted for any heinous crime is permanently barred from contesting elections at any level.
Which of the above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates that candidates should have completed a period of six years from the date of conviction to become eligible for elections. Candidate convicted for a crime for which the minimum imprisonment is two years shall also be disqualified from the date of conviction and will continue to be disqualified for six additional years after his release. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
The Election Commission has proposed that the minimum offence punishable by imprisonment of 5 years or more should be set as criteria for
disqualification. The Commission has further proposed that any person convicted for any heinous crime such as murder, rape, smuggling, dacoity, etc., should be permanently barred from contesting elections at any level. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect, as it is a recommendation of the EC and not a provision of the RPA.
##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following are mentioned as corrupt practices under the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
1. Distributing freebies in exchange of votes
2. Publishing false content about the personal conduct of a candidate.
3. Undue influence
4. Appealing for votes on the ground of religion
5. Declaring a public policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
3 and 4 only
|
3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act 1951 defines the corrupt practices like bribery, undue influence, inciting religious sentiments, booth capturing etc.
1. Bribery: Any form of gratification (including gift, reward or an offer) to the electors for voting or refraining from voting and to the candidates for withdrawing or not withdrawing nomination is considered as a corrupt practice under RPA. Under RPA, the person accepting such gratifications is also considered guilty of indulging in corrupt practices. The term "gratification" implies monetary gratifications as well as all forms of entertainment and all forms of employment for reward. Thus statement 1 is correct.
2. Undue influence includes any direct or indirect interference with the free exercise of any electoral right by the candidate or his election agent. But a declaration of public policy, or a promise of public action, or the mere exercise of a legal right without intent to interfere with an electoral right, shall not be deemed to be interference. Thus, declaring a public policy is not a corrupt practice. Statement 5 is wrong.
3. Appeal to vote or refrain from voting for any person on the ground of his religion, race, caste, community or language or the use of, or appeal to religious symbols or the use of, or appeal to, national symbols, such as the national flag or the national emblem, for the furtherance of the prospects of the election of that candidate or for prejudicially affecting the election of any candidate.
4. The promotion of feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language.
5. The propagation of the practice or the commission of sati or its glorification
6. The publication of any false statement of fact in relation to the personal character or conduct of any candidate
7. The hiring or procuring of any vehicle or vessel or the use of such vehicle or vessel for the free conveyance of any elector (other than the candidate himself, the members of his family or his agent) to or from any polling station.
8. The incurring or authorizing of expenditure in contravention of ‘Account of election expenses and maximum limit’ prescribed by RPA, 1951 under section 77.
9. The obtaining or procuring or abetting any assistance (other than the giving of vote) for the furtherance of the prospects of that candidate's election, from any person in the service of the Government and belonging to any of the following classes, namely gazetted officers; stipendiary judges and magistrates; members of the armed forces of the Union; members of the police forces; excise officers; revenue officers etc.
10. Booth capturing by a candidate or his agent or other person.
|
c
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are mentioned as corrupt practices under the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
1. Distributing freebies in exchange of votes
2. Publishing false content about the personal conduct of a candidate.
3. Undue influence
4. Appealing for votes on the ground of religion
5. Declaring a public policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 3 and 4 only
###Option_B: 3, 4 and 5 only
##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 3 and 4 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act 1951 defines the corrupt practices like bribery, undue influence, inciting religious sentiments, booth capturing etc.
1. Bribery: Any form of gratification (including gift, reward or an offer) to the electors for voting or refraining from voting and to the candidates for withdrawing or not withdrawing nomination is considered as a corrupt practice under RPA. Under RPA, the person accepting such gratifications is also considered guilty of indulging in corrupt practices. The term "gratification" implies monetary gratifications as well as all forms of entertainment and all forms of employment for reward. Thus statement 1 is correct.
2. Undue influence includes any direct or indirect interference with the free exercise of any electoral right by the candidate or his election agent. But a declaration of public policy, or a promise of public action, or the mere exercise of a legal right without intent to interfere with an electoral right, shall not be deemed to be interference. Thus, declaring a public policy is not a corrupt practice. Statement 5 is wrong.
3. Appeal to vote or refrain from voting for any person on the ground of his religion, race, caste, community or language or the use of, or appeal to religious symbols or the use of, or appeal to, national symbols, such as the national flag or the national emblem, for the furtherance of the prospects of the election of that candidate or for prejudicially affecting the election of any candidate.
4. The promotion of feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language.
5. The propagation of the practice or the commission of sati or its glorification
6. The publication of any false statement of fact in relation to the personal character or conduct of any candidate
7. The hiring or procuring of any vehicle or vessel or the use of such vehicle or vessel for the free conveyance of any elector (other than the candidate himself, the members of his family or his agent) to or from any polling station.
8. The incurring or authorizing of expenditure in contravention of ‘Account of election expenses and maximum limit’ prescribed by RPA, 1951 under section 77.
9. The obtaining or procuring or abetting any assistance (other than the giving of vote) for the furtherance of the prospects of that candidate's election, from any person in the service of the Government and belonging to any of the following classes, namely gazetted officers; stipendiary judges and magistrates; members of the armed forces of the Union; members of the police forces; excise officers; revenue officers etc.
10. Booth capturing by a candidate or his agent or other person.
##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are among the seven directives issued by the Supreme Court following the landmark judgement on the Prakash Singh vs. Union of India case?
1. Setting up of a state security commission to insulate the police from extraneous influences.
2. S eparation of investigative and law and order wings.
3. A Police Establishment Board to decide on transfers, postings and service related matters above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Select the correct answer according to the code given below:
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
The Supreme Court, in its landmark judgement in the Prakash Singh vs. Union of India case in 2006, gave the State Governments seven directives for bringing about police reforms and making the institution people and service oriented. To moniter the compliance measures being undertaken by the states, it set up the Justice K. T. Thomas Committee, in 2008.
Directive One: Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) to:
(i) Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence or pressure on the police
(ii) Lay down broad policy guideline and
(iii) Evaluate the performance of the state police
Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Directive Two: Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum tenure of two years
Directive Three: Ensure that other police officers on operational duties (including Superintendents of Police in-charge of a district and Station House Officers in-charge of a police station) are also provided a minimum tenure of two years
Directive Four: Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Directive Five: Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) instead of the State Government, to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other service related matters of police officers of and below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police and make recommendations on postings and transfers above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Thus, statement 3 is incorrect. The PEB will have powers to make only recommendations on postings and transfers above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police to the State Government and not make decisions.
Directive Six Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct, including custodial death, grievous hurt, or rape in police custody and at district levels to inquire into public complaints against the police personnel below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct Directive Seven Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.
|
c
|
Reform: Police Reform
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are among the seven directives issued by the Supreme Court following the landmark judgement on the Prakash Singh vs. Union of India case?
1. Setting up of a state security commission to insulate the police from extraneous influences.
2. S eparation of investigative and law and order wings.
3. A Police Establishment Board to decide on transfers, postings and service related matters above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Select the correct answer according to the code given below:
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Supreme Court, in its landmark judgement in the Prakash Singh vs. Union of India case in 2006, gave the State Governments seven directives for bringing about police reforms and making the institution people and service oriented. To moniter the compliance measures being undertaken by the states, it set up the Justice K. T. Thomas Committee, in 2008.
Directive One: Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) to:
(i) Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence or pressure on the police
(ii) Lay down broad policy guideline and
(iii) Evaluate the performance of the state police
Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Directive Two: Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum tenure of two years
Directive Three: Ensure that other police officers on operational duties (including Superintendents of Police in-charge of a district and Station House Officers in-charge of a police station) are also provided a minimum tenure of two years
Directive Four: Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police.
Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Directive Five: Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) instead of the State Government, to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other service related matters of police officers of and below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police and make recommendations on postings and transfers above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Thus, statement 3 is incorrect. The PEB will have powers to make only recommendations on postings and transfers above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police to the State Government and not make decisions.
Directive Six Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct, including custodial death, grievous hurt, or rape in police custody and at district levels to inquire into public complaints against the police personnel below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct Directive Seven Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.
##Topic:Reform: Police Reform##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With regard to Parliament"s power over Union Territories, consider the following statements: It can make laws on any subject of State list for Delhi and Puducherry. It can establish a High Court for a union territory. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories. Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures. This means that, the legislative power of Parliament for the union territories on subjects of the State List remain unaffected even after establishing a local legislature for them. But, the legislative assembly of Puducherry can also make laws on any subject of the State List and the Concurrent List. Similarly, the legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State List (except public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List. Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the high court of adjacent state. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since 1966).
|
c
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Parliament"s power over Union Territories, consider the following statements: It can make laws on any subject of State list for Delhi and Puducherry. It can establish a High Court for a union territory. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories. Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures. This means that, the legislative power of Parliament for the union territories on subjects of the State List remain unaffected even after establishing a local legislature for them. But, the legislative assembly of Puducherry can also make laws on any subject of the State List and the Concurrent List. Similarly, the legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State List (except public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List. Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the high court of adjacent state. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since 1966).##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The power to declare scheduled areas under the Indian Constitution is given to
|
Governor
|
Parliament
|
State legislature
|
Governor
|
Declaration of Scheduled Areas ( Vth Schedule): The President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
|
d
|
Special Provisions for Some States
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The power to declare scheduled areas under the Indian Constitution is given to
##Option_A: Governor
###Option_B: Parliament
##Option_C: State legislature
##Option_D: Governor
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Declaration of Scheduled Areas ( Vth Schedule): The President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
##Topic:Special Provisions for Some States##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to high courts, consider the following statements:
1. The constitution provides the maximum number of judges that can be appointed to a high court.
2. A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
Statement 2 is not correct: A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction , except military courts or tribunals.
|
d
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to high courts, consider the following statements:
1. The constitution provides the maximum number of judges that can be appointed to a high court.
2. A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct: Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
Statement 2 is not correct: A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction , except military courts or tribunals.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to National Electoral Roll Purification initiative launched by the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements: Electoral rolls will be made error free. Each eligible elector will be awarded an Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) number. Bio-metric data under Aadhar will be linked with the electoral roll. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Election Commission of India has launched the Purification and Authentication Programme of National Electoral Roll in collaboration with C-DAC under the mission mode project for authenticating, purifying and linking Aadhar with the electoral Roll. The objective is to make electoral roll cent percent error free and multiple entries free. The Objectives of the programme are: Linking and authentication of electors’ EPIC data with Aadhaar of UIDAI Voluntary disclosure of multiple entries in electoral roll. Correction of errors in electoral roll. Improvement of image quality of photograph of the elector in electoral Data.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to National Electoral Roll Purification initiative launched by the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements: Electoral rolls will be made error free. Each eligible elector will be awarded an Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) number. Bio-metric data under Aadhar will be linked with the electoral roll. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Election Commission of India has launched the Purification and Authentication Programme of National Electoral Roll in collaboration with C-DAC under the mission mode project for authenticating, purifying and linking Aadhar with the electoral Roll. The objective is to make electoral roll cent percent error free and multiple entries free. The Objectives of the programme are: Linking and authentication of electors’ EPIC data with Aadhaar of UIDAI Voluntary disclosure of multiple entries in electoral roll. Correction of errors in electoral roll. Improvement of image quality of photograph of the elector in electoral Data.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following countries has recently completed the production of the world's largest amphibios aricraft AG600?
|
China
|
US
|
Russia
|
China
|
China has rolled out the world’s largest amphibious aircraft to fight forest fires and perform marine rescue missions. The aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of 53.5 tonnes, a maximum flight range of 4,500 km, and it can collect 12 tonnes of water in 20 seconds. The AG600 is by far the world’s largest amphibian aircraft, about the size of a Boeing 737. An amphibious aircraft can take off and land on both land and water.
|
a
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following countries has recently completed the production of the world's largest amphibios aricraft AG600?
##Option_A: China
###Option_B: US
##Option_C: Russia
##Option_D: China
##Answer:a##Explaination:
China has rolled out the world’s largest amphibious aircraft to fight forest fires and perform marine rescue missions. The aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of 53.5 tonnes, a maximum flight range of 4,500 km, and it can collect 12 tonnes of water in 20 seconds. The AG600 is by far the world’s largest amphibian aircraft, about the size of a Boeing 737. An amphibious aircraft can take off and land on both land and water.
##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Recently the Union Cabinet has approved setting up of India"s thirteenth major port in which of the following states?
|
West Bengal
|
Andhra Pradesh
|
Tamil Nadu
|
West Bengal
|
The Union government has given its 'in-principle' approval to set up the country’s 13th major port at Enayam, near Colachel in Tamil Nadu. A special purpose vehicle (SPV) will be formed for the development of port that will act as a major gateway container port for cargo and become a trans-shipment hub for East-West trade route. Currently, all of India's trans-shipment traffic gets handled in Colombo, Singapore and other international ports due to which the Indian port industry loses out around Rs.1,500 crore revenues each year.
|
c
|
Places(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently the Union Cabinet has approved setting up of India"s thirteenth major port in which of the following states?##Option_A: West Bengal###Option_B: Andhra Pradesh##Option_C: Tamil Nadu##Option_D: West Bengal##Answer:c##Explaination:The Union government has given its 'in-principle' approval to set up the country’s 13th major port at Enayam, near Colachel in Tamil Nadu. A special purpose vehicle (SPV) will be formed for the development of port that will act as a major gateway container port for cargo and become a trans-shipment hub for East-West trade route. Currently, all of India's trans-shipment traffic gets handled in Colombo, Singapore and other international ports due to which the Indian port industry loses out around Rs.1,500 crore revenues each year. ##Topic:Places(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the convertibility of Indian rupee?
|
It is convertible on capital account
|
It is convertible on the current account
|
It is convertible both on current and capital account
|
It is convertible on capital account
|
.
|
c
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the convertibility of Indian rupee?##Option_A:It is convertible on capital account###Option_B:It is convertible on the current account##Option_C:It is convertible both on current and capital account##Option_D:It is convertible on capital account##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the District Planning Committee: 1. It is a constitutional body. 2. Four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Local Urban government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the District Planning Committee: 1. It is a constitutional body. 2. Four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Local Urban government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project, consider the following statements: It is an e-Governance project being implemented in the Supreme Court and High Courts only. The project is being implemented by National Informatics Centre. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project is one of the national e-Governance projects being implemented in High Courts and district/subordinate Courts of the Country. Statement 2 is correct: There are two phases of the project. Eventually, Phase II will move towards 'less paper courts' and finally towards 'paperless courts'. The project is being implemented by National Informatics Centre (NIC).
|
b
|
e-Governance
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project, consider the following statements: It is an e-Governance project being implemented in the Supreme Court and High Courts only. The project is being implemented by National Informatics Centre. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project is one of the national e-Governance projects being implemented in High Courts and district/subordinate Courts of the Country. Statement 2 is correct: There are two phases of the project. Eventually, Phase II will move towards 'less paper courts' and finally towards 'paperless courts'. The project is being implemented by National Informatics Centre (NIC).##Topic:e-Governance##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: The Constitution does not contain any separate provisions for the administration of acquired territories. A regulation made by the President in the UTs has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The Constitution does not contain any separate provisions for the administration of acquired territories. But, the constitutional provisions for the administration of union territories also apply to the acquired territories.
Statement 2 is correct : A regulation made by the President has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament and can also repeal or amend any act of Parliament in relation to these union territories.
|
c
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The Constitution does not contain any separate provisions for the administration of acquired territories. A regulation made by the President in the UTs has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct : The Constitution does not contain any separate provisions for the administration of acquired territories. But, the constitutional provisions for the administration of union territories also apply to the acquired territories.
Statement 2 is correct : A regulation made by the President has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament and can also repeal or amend any act of Parliament in relation to these union territories.
##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
US-India "Feed the Future- India Triangular Training Program" (FTF-ITT), currently in news is related to
|
impart training to African nations in specialized agriculture.
|
impart training to teachers in developing innovative learning tools.
|
finance SHGs working in the dairy sector.
|
impart training to African nations in specialized agriculture.
|
The Union Agriculture Ministry and the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID) have launched the second phase of the “Feed the Future” India triangular training programme in a bid to bring specialised agriculture training to 1,500 agricultural professionals across Africa and Asia. The first phase trained more than 200 professionals from Kenya, Liberia and Malawi, and they are now implementing the new farming methods to increase farm productivity and income. India and the U.S. are expanding the programme with the second phase launch to reach hundreds of professionals and in turn thousands of smallholder farmers.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:US-India "Feed the Future- India Triangular Training Program" (FTF-ITT), currently in news is related to ##Option_A: impart training to African nations in specialized agriculture.###Option_B: impart training to teachers in developing innovative learning tools.##Option_C: finance SHGs working in the dairy sector.##Option_D: impart training to African nations in specialized agriculture.##Answer:a##Explaination:The Union Agriculture Ministry and the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID) have launched the second phase of the “Feed the Future” India triangular training programme in a bid to bring specialised agriculture training to 1,500 agricultural professionals across Africa and Asia. The first phase trained more than 200 professionals from Kenya, Liberia and Malawi, and they are now implementing the new farming methods to increase farm productivity and income. India and the U.S. are expanding the programme with the second phase launch to reach hundreds of professionals and in turn thousands of smallholder farmers.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following are among the benefits enjoyed by the recognized parties?
1. Free airtime on Doordarshan and All in Radio for election campaign
2. Entitlement to the allotment of symbols for its exclusive use
3. The candidate of such a party doen't require to get his/her nomination paper to be subscribed by at least 10 voters.
Selelct the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The candidates of recognized parties are entitled for free supply of certain materials like such number of copies of electoral rolls, as finally published under the Representation of the People Act, 1950 and such other material as may be prescribed.
The Central Government in consultation with the Election Commission can decide items to be supplied to the recognised political parties.
Other exclusive benefits enjoyed by recognized parties are:
1. Free airtime on Doordarshan and All in Radio for election campaign.
2. A recognized party needs not to have to get his nomination paper subscribed by at least 10 voters in his constituency.
3. The name of the candidates nominated by the recognized party are organized in alphabetical order and printed on the top of Ballot paper followed by candidates nominated by registered party and independent candidates.
4. If a candidate nominated by a recognized party passes away before the commencement of the polling then the election shall be adjourned and the political party concerned will be given one week time to re-nominate a candidate and there after the election process will be completed.
5. Recognized political parties are entitled to the allotment of symbols given for its exclusive use.
6. The proposed amendments to the Representation of People act, 1951 for the introduction of state funding of election provides for extending financial assistance only to the recognized party
|
d
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are among the benefits enjoyed by the recognized parties?
1. Free airtime on Doordarshan and All in Radio for election campaign
2. Entitlement to the allotment of symbols for its exclusive use
3. The candidate of such a party doen't require to get his/her nomination paper to be subscribed by at least 10 voters.
Selelct the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The candidates of recognized parties are entitled for free supply of certain materials like such number of copies of electoral rolls, as finally published under the Representation of the People Act, 1950 and such other material as may be prescribed.
The Central Government in consultation with the Election Commission can decide items to be supplied to the recognised political parties.
Other exclusive benefits enjoyed by recognized parties are:
1. Free airtime on Doordarshan and All in Radio for election campaign.
2. A recognized party needs not to have to get his nomination paper subscribed by at least 10 voters in his constituency.
3. The name of the candidates nominated by the recognized party are organized in alphabetical order and printed on the top of Ballot paper followed by candidates nominated by registered party and independent candidates.
4. If a candidate nominated by a recognized party passes away before the commencement of the polling then the election shall be adjourned and the political party concerned will be given one week time to re-nominate a candidate and there after the election process will be completed.
5. Recognized political parties are entitled to the allotment of symbols given for its exclusive use.
6. The proposed amendments to the Representation of People act, 1951 for the introduction of state funding of election provides for extending financial assistance only to the recognized party
##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to high courts, consider the following statements:
1. The constitution provides the maximum number of judges that can be appointed to a high court.
2. A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
Statement 2 is not correct: A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction , except military courts or tribunals.
|
d
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to high courts, consider the following statements:
1. The constitution provides the maximum number of judges that can be appointed to a high court.
2. A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct: Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
Statement 2 is not correct: A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction , except military courts or tribunals.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Who among the following is/are not qualified to be enrolled on the electoral roll? A person who is not a citizen of India. A person is of unsound mind and declared so by a competent court . A person with age less than 18 years. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
All statements correct According to Representation of the People Act, 1950. A person shall be disqualified for registration in an electoral roll if he,- (a) is not a citizen of India; or (b) is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court;or (c) is for the time being disqualified from voting under the provisions of any law relating to corrupt practices and other offences in connection with election . Subject to the foregoing provisions above, every person who- (a) is not less than eighteen years of age on the qualifying date; and (B) is ordinarily resident in a constituency; shall be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for that constituency. Also Article 326 provides for adult suffrage i.e. more than 18 years of age.
|
d
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following is/are not qualified to be enrolled on the electoral roll? A person who is not a citizen of India. A person is of unsound mind and declared so by a competent court . A person with age less than 18 years. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All statements correct According to Representation of the People Act, 1950. A person shall be disqualified for registration in an electoral roll if he,- (a) is not a citizen of India; or (b) is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court;or (c) is for the time being disqualified from voting under the provisions of any law relating to corrupt practices and other offences in connection with election . Subject to the foregoing provisions above, every person who- (a) is not less than eighteen years of age on the qualifying date; and (B) is ordinarily resident in a constituency; shall be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for that constituency. Also Article 326 provides for adult suffrage i.e. more than 18 years of age.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Booth capturing includes which of the following activities? Seizure of polling station and taking control of ballot papers and voting machines Allowing only one"s own supporters to poll votes Preventing electors from going to polling station Seizure of place for counting of votes Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
"Booth capturing" includes, among other things, all or any of the following activities, namely: seizure of a polling station or a place fixed for the poll by any person or persons making polling authorities surrender the ballot papers or voting machines and doing of any other act which affects the orderly conduct of election: taking possession of a polling station or a place fixed for the poll by any person or persons and allowing only his or their own supporters to exercise their right to vote and prevent others from free exercise of their right to vote;; Coercing or intimidating or threatening directly or indirectly any elector and preventing him from going to the polling station or a place fixed for the poll to cast his vote; seizure of a place for counting of votes by any person or persons making the counting authorities surrender the ballot papers or voting machines and the doing of anything which affects the orderly counting of votes; doing by any person in the service of government, of all or any of the aforesaid activities or aiding or conniving at, any such activity in the furtherance of the prospects of the election of a candidate.
|
d
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Booth capturing includes which of the following activities? Seizure of polling station and taking control of ballot papers and voting machines Allowing only one"s own supporters to poll votes Preventing electors from going to polling station Seizure of place for counting of votes Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:"Booth capturing" includes, among other things, all or any of the following activities, namely: seizure of a polling station or a place fixed for the poll by any person or persons making polling authorities surrender the ballot papers or voting machines and doing of any other act which affects the orderly conduct of election: taking possession of a polling station or a place fixed for the poll by any person or persons and allowing only his or their own supporters to exercise their right to vote and prevent others from free exercise of their right to vote;; Coercing or intimidating or threatening directly or indirectly any elector and preventing him from going to the polling station or a place fixed for the poll to cast his vote; seizure of a place for counting of votes by any person or persons making the counting authorities surrender the ballot papers or voting machines and the doing of anything which affects the orderly counting of votes; doing by any person in the service of government, of all or any of the aforesaid activities or aiding or conniving at, any such activity in the furtherance of the prospects of the election of a candidate.##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
In the election to which of the following a person can contest from two constituencies? Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha State Legislative Assembly State Legislative Council Select the correct answer from the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
All are correct. Section 33(7) of Representation of People's act 1951 states that a person can contest a general election or a group of by-elections or biennial elections from a maximum of two constituencies.
|
d
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the election to which of the following a person can contest from two constituencies? Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha State Legislative Assembly State Legislative Council Select the correct answer from the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All are correct. Section 33(7) of Representation of People's act 1951 states that a person can contest a general election or a group of by-elections or biennial elections from a maximum of two constituencies.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by
|
Governor
|
Chief Minister
|
President
|
Governor
|
The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state in consultation with the high court.
A person to be appointed as district judge should have the following qualifications: (a) He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government. (b) He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years. (c) He should be recommended by the high court for appointment.
|
a
|
Subordinate Courts
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by##Option_A:Governor###Option_B:Chief Minister##Option_C:President##Option_D:Governor##Answer:a##Explaination:
The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state in consultation with the high court.
A person to be appointed as district judge should have the following qualifications: (a) He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government. (b) He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years. (c) He should be recommended by the high court for appointment.
##Topic:Subordinate Courts##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Recently isolated enzyme catechol 2,3-dioxygenase from strains of different bacteria would undergo field trial for
|
Biomining
|
Bioremediation
|
Biostimulation
|
Biomining
|
Enzyme catechol 2,3 - dioxygenase recenty was isolated from three new strains of bacteria including Burkholderia and Pseudomonas.
It is believed to have hydrocarbon degrading properties(Bioremediation) which are better and cheaper than other oil degrading bacterias(like oilzapper)
Bioremediation : is the prcess of using micro-organism for breakdown of environmental pollutants.
Biomining :also known as bioleaching , it is the process of extraction of metals from ore using micro-organisms.
Bio-stimulation : It is the process of modifying environment so as to stimulate the performance of microorganisms undergoing bioremediation.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Recently isolated enzyme catechol 2,3-dioxygenase from strains of different bacteria would undergo field trial for
##Option_A:Biomining
###Option_B:Bioremediation
##Option_C:Biostimulation
##Option_D:Biomining
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Enzyme catechol 2,3 - dioxygenase recenty was isolated from three new strains of bacteria including Burkholderia and Pseudomonas.
It is believed to have hydrocarbon degrading properties(Bioremediation) which are better and cheaper than other oil degrading bacterias(like oilzapper)
Bioremediation : is the prcess of using micro-organism for breakdown of environmental pollutants.
Biomining :also known as bioleaching , it is the process of extraction of metals from ore using micro-organisms.
Bio-stimulation : It is the process of modifying environment so as to stimulate the performance of microorganisms undergoing bioremediation.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Anti-defection law according to the tenth schedule of the Constitution?
|
A member of a House belonging to any political party is disqualified on the grounds of defection if he voluntarily gives up his membership of the political party.
|
The Speaker of the House will not be disqualified on the ground of defection if he gives up the membership of his party.
|
The ground of defection does not apply to a member if one-third of the members of his party split from the main party.
|
A member of a House belonging to any political party is disqualified on the grounds of defection if he voluntarily gives up his membership of the political party.
|
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another. It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution and four Articles. The anti-defection law disqualifies members of Parliament and state legislatures on the following grounds: 1. A member of a House belonging to any political party is disqualified on the grounds of defection if: - he voluntarily gives up his membership of the political party - if he votes or abstains from voting in contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission and such act has not been accepted within 15 days. 2. An independent member becomes disqualified if he joins any political party after election. 3. A nominated member becomes disqualified if he joins a political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. However, a member is not considered disqualified if: - two-thirds of members of his party have agreed to merge their party with another party. - a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins if after he ceases to hold that office. This exemption is given in view of the dignity and impartiality of this office. The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 deleted the provision of the Tenth Schedule which gave an exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of a party. Such defectors have no more protection on grounds of splits.
|
c
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Anti-defection law according to the tenth schedule of the Constitution?##Option_A: A member of a House belonging to any political party is disqualified on the grounds of defection if he voluntarily gives up his membership of the political party.###Option_B: The Speaker of the House will not be disqualified on the ground of defection if he gives up the membership of his party.##Option_C:The ground of defection does not apply to a member if one-third of the members of his party split from the main party.##Option_D: A member of a House belonging to any political party is disqualified on the grounds of defection if he voluntarily gives up his membership of the political party.##Answer:c##Explaination:The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another. It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution and four Articles. The anti-defection law disqualifies members of Parliament and state legislatures on the following grounds: 1. A member of a House belonging to any political party is disqualified on the grounds of defection if: - he voluntarily gives up his membership of the political party - if he votes or abstains from voting in contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission and such act has not been accepted within 15 days. 2. An independent member becomes disqualified if he joins any political party after election. 3. A nominated member becomes disqualified if he joins a political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. However, a member is not considered disqualified if: - two-thirds of members of his party have agreed to merge their party with another party. - a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins if after he ceases to hold that office. This exemption is given in view of the dignity and impartiality of this office. The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 deleted the provision of the Tenth Schedule which gave an exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of a party. Such defectors have no more protection on grounds of splits.##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Citizen’s Charter:
Statement 1:The main objective to issue the Citizen's Charter of an organisation is to improve the quality of public services
Statement 2: The Citizen’s Charter is legally enforceable in a court of law and is justiciable in case of a discrepancy between an organization's actions and provisons guaranteed by the Charter to its citizens
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A Citizen’s Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the organisation towards its citizens in respects of standard of services, information, choice and consultation, non-discrimination and accessibility, grievance redress, courtesy and value for money. This also includes expectations of the organisation from the citizen for fulfilling the commitments of the organisation.
Statement 1 is correc t as the main objective the Citizen's Charter of an organisation is to improve the quality of public services. This is done by letting people know the mandate of the concerned Ministry/ Department/ Organisation, how one can get in touch with its officials, what to expect by way of services and how to seek a remedy if something goes wrong
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Citizen’s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the organisation and its clients.
|
a
|
Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about Citizen’s Charter:
Statement 1:The main objective to issue the Citizen's Charter of an organisation is to improve the quality of public services
Statement 2: The Citizen’s Charter is legally enforceable in a court of law and is justiciable in case of a discrepancy between an organization's actions and provisons guaranteed by the Charter to its citizens
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
A Citizen’s Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the organisation towards its citizens in respects of standard of services, information, choice and consultation, non-discrimination and accessibility, grievance redress, courtesy and value for money. This also includes expectations of the organisation from the citizen for fulfilling the commitments of the organisation.
Statement 1 is correc t as the main objective the Citizen's Charter of an organisation is to improve the quality of public services. This is done by letting people know the mandate of the concerned Ministry/ Department/ Organisation, how one can get in touch with its officials, what to expect by way of services and how to seek a remedy if something goes wrong
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Citizen’s Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the organisation and its clients.
##Topic:Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Recently 'Memorandum of Procedure' was frequently in news, it aims to improve governance in
|
Ease of Doing Business
|
Judiciary
|
Public Sector Banks
|
Ease of Doing Business
|
Explanation The Supreme Court pronounced its Order on improvement in the “Collegium System” on 16.12.2015. Vide this order they have decided that the Government of India may finalize the existing Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) by supplementing it in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, and based on the unanimous view of the Collegium comprising the four senior-most puisne Judges of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court has indicated broad categories under which existing MoP can be supplemented such as eligibility criteria, transparency in the appointment process, Secretariat and complaints etc. The Department of Justice is in the process of preparing a revised draft Memorandum of Procedure in consultation with the State Governments.
|
b
|
Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Recently 'Memorandum of Procedure' was frequently in news, it aims to improve governance in ##Option_A: Ease of Doing Business ###Option_B: Judiciary ##Option_C: Public Sector Banks ##Option_D: Ease of Doing Business ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Explanation The Supreme Court pronounced its Order on improvement in the “Collegium System” on 16.12.2015. Vide this order they have decided that the Government of India may finalize the existing Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) by supplementing it in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, and based on the unanimous view of the Collegium comprising the four senior-most puisne Judges of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court has indicated broad categories under which existing MoP can be supplemented such as eligibility criteria, transparency in the appointment process, Secretariat and complaints etc. The Department of Justice is in the process of preparing a revised draft Memorandum of Procedure in consultation with the State Governments.
##Topic:Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which among the following most appropriately defines the term "community policing" ?
|
Giving policing powers to members of gram sabha and wards
|
Policing approach where police and people work together
|
Establishment of Police station in every colony
|
Giving policing powers to members of gram sabha and wards
|
Community policing is defined as a proactive policing approach where police and people work together to ensure safety and security of the citizens. Every citizen is a policeman without uniform and every policeman is a citizen in uniform. This is the main philosophy of Community Policing. The basic features of Community Policing are as follows: Decentralization Citizens’ participation Problem solving Consultation Transparency There are no specific provisions about Community Policing under the Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.P.C). But its essence can be observed under this Code. Section 37 imposes a three-fold duty on members of the public, who are required to assist a Magistrate or police officer, (1) in the taking or preventing the escape of an offender; or (2) in the prevention or suppression of a breach of the peace; or (3) in the prevention of injury to railway, canal, telegraph or public property.
|
b
|
Reform: Police Reform
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following most appropriately defines the term "community policing" ?##Option_A: Giving policing powers to members of gram sabha and wards###Option_B: Policing approach where police and people work together##Option_C: Establishment of Police station in every colony##Option_D: Giving policing powers to members of gram sabha and wards##Answer:b##Explaination:Community policing is defined as a proactive policing approach where police and people work together to ensure safety and security of the citizens. Every citizen is a policeman without uniform and every policeman is a citizen in uniform. This is the main philosophy of Community Policing. The basic features of Community Policing are as follows: Decentralization Citizens’ participation Problem solving Consultation Transparency There are no specific provisions about Community Policing under the Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.P.C). But its essence can be observed under this Code. Section 37 imposes a three-fold duty on members of the public, who are required to assist a Magistrate or police officer, (1) in the taking or preventing the escape of an offender; or (2) in the prevention or suppression of a breach of the peace; or (3) in the prevention of injury to railway, canal, telegraph or public property. ##Topic:Reform: Police Reform##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which among the following can be the most appropriate agency for conducting social audit?
|
Comptroller and Auditor General
|
Gram Sabha
|
Non Governmental organization
|
Comptroller and Auditor General
|
The most appropriate institutional level for social audit is the Gram Sabha, which has been given‘watchdog’ powers and responsibilities by the Panchayati Raj Acts in most States to supervise and monitor the functioning of panchayat elected representatives and government functionaries, and examine the annual statement of accounts and audit reports. These are implied powers indirectly empowering Gram Sabhas to carry out social audits in addition to other functions. Members of the Gram Sabha and the village panchayat, intermediate panchayat and district panchayat through their representatives, can raise issues of social concern and public interest and demand an explanation.
|
b
|
Social Audit
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following can be the most appropriate agency for conducting social audit?##Option_A: Comptroller and Auditor General###Option_B: Gram Sabha##Option_C: Non Governmental organization##Option_D: Comptroller and Auditor General##Answer:b##Explaination:The most appropriate institutional level for social audit is the Gram Sabha, which has been given‘watchdog’ powers and responsibilities by the Panchayati Raj Acts in most States to supervise and monitor the functioning of panchayat elected representatives and government functionaries, and examine the annual statement of accounts and audit reports. These are implied powers indirectly empowering Gram Sabhas to carry out social audits in addition to other functions. Members of the Gram Sabha and the village panchayat, intermediate panchayat and district panchayat through their representatives, can raise issues of social concern and public interest and demand an explanation.##Topic:Social Audit##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Accountability of civil servants in India is ensured through which of the following? Code of conduct Code of ethics Vigilance Commissions Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The Conduct Rules, contained in the Central Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964 and analogous rules applicable to members of the All India Services or employees of various State Governments. The code of behaviour as enunciated in the Conduct Rules, while containing some general norms like 'maintaining integrity and absolute devotion to duty' and not indulging in 'conduct unbecoming of a government servant' is generally directed towards cataloguing specific activities deemed undesirable for government servants. These conduct rules do not constitute a code of ethics. Statement 2 is not correct : There is no Code of Ethics prescribed for civil servants in India although such Codes exist in other countries. Statement 3 is correct : The Central and State Vigilance Commission are examples of other oversight mechanisms that are autonomous but lie within the framework of the State. Analysts have categorized these accountability mechanisms into “horizontal” accountability mechanisms which refer to those located within the State as against 'vertical' accountability mechanisms which are those outside the State and include the media, civil society and citizen.
|
b
|
Transparency & Accountability
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Accountability of civil servants in India is ensured through which of the following? Code of conduct Code of ethics Vigilance Commissions Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : The Conduct Rules, contained in the Central Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964 and analogous rules applicable to members of the All India Services or employees of various State Governments. The code of behaviour as enunciated in the Conduct Rules, while containing some general norms like 'maintaining integrity and absolute devotion to duty' and not indulging in 'conduct unbecoming of a government servant' is generally directed towards cataloguing specific activities deemed undesirable for government servants. These conduct rules do not constitute a code of ethics. Statement 2 is not correct : There is no Code of Ethics prescribed for civil servants in India although such Codes exist in other countries. Statement 3 is correct : The Central and State Vigilance Commission are examples of other oversight mechanisms that are autonomous but lie within the framework of the State. Analysts have categorized these accountability mechanisms into “horizontal” accountability mechanisms which refer to those located within the State as against 'vertical' accountability mechanisms which are those outside the State and include the media, civil society and citizen.##Topic:Transparency & Accountability##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
What is an Annual Confidential Report (ACR)?
|
It is a confidential document shared by government employees for smooth inter-departmental functioning
|
It is an annual report that the board of directors of a company receive regarding the performance of that particular company
|
It is a report completed by a superior government officer/ senior-most judge with an evaluation of a government employee’s/ lower judge’s performance respectively
|
It is a confidential document shared by government employees for smooth inter-departmental functioning
|
An Annual Confidential Report (ACR) is a report completed by a superior government officer/ senior-most judge with an evaluation of a government employee’s/ lower judge’s performance respectively. A public authority is not under any obligation to disclose ACRs of an employee to an employee himself or any other person as disclosure of ACR is protected by clause (j) of sub-section (1) of the RTI Act, and ACR is a confidential document, disclosure of which is prevented by the Officials Secrets Act, 1923. However, a public authority may allow access if public interest in disclosure outweighs harm caused by disclosure.
|
c
|
Reforms: Police Reform, Administrative
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What is an Annual Confidential Report (ACR)?
##Option_A: It is a confidential document shared by government employees for smooth inter-departmental functioning
###Option_B: It is an annual report that the board of directors of a company receive regarding the performance of that particular company
##Option_C: It is a report completed by a superior government officer/ senior-most judge with an evaluation of a government employee’s/ lower judge’s performance respectively
##Option_D: It is a confidential document shared by government employees for smooth inter-departmental functioning
##Answer:c##Explaination:
An Annual Confidential Report (ACR) is a report completed by a superior government officer/ senior-most judge with an evaluation of a government employee’s/ lower judge’s performance respectively. A public authority is not under any obligation to disclose ACRs of an employee to an employee himself or any other person as disclosure of ACR is protected by clause (j) of sub-section (1) of the RTI Act, and ACR is a confidential document, disclosure of which is prevented by the Officials Secrets Act, 1923. However, a public authority may allow access if public interest in disclosure outweighs harm caused by disclosure.
##Topic:Reforms: Police Reform, Administrative##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): It is neither constitutional nor statutory body. It was established on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. It presents an annual report on its performance to the President . Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : Originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. In September 2003, the Parliament conferred statutory status on the CVC through the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003. Statement 2 is correct : It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Statement 3 is correct : The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
|
c
|
Central Vigilance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): It is neither constitutional nor statutory body. It was established on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. It presents an annual report on its performance to the President . Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : Originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. In September 2003, the Parliament conferred statutory status on the CVC through the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003. Statement 2 is correct : It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Statement 3 is correct : The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.##Topic:Central Vigilance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Equatorial Climate.
1. Temperature range over Oceans is smaller than that over land
2. Seeding, flowering, fruiting and decaying do not take place in a seasonal manner
3. Not favourable for livestock farming
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Explanation
Statement 1 correct - Due to differential heating of land and water the range of temperature over oceans will be smaller than that over land.
Statement 2 correct - High temperature and abundant rainfall in Equatorial regions leads to growing season all round the year. Hence seeding flowering fruiting and decaying do not take place in a Seasonal pattern, some trees may be in flower while other only a few yards away may be bearing a fruit.
Statement 3 correct- Livestock farming is greatly handicapped due to absence of meadow grass, even on the highlands.
|
d
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Equatorial Climate.
1. Temperature range over Oceans is smaller than that over land
2. Seeding, flowering, fruiting and decaying do not take place in a seasonal manner
3. Not favourable for livestock farming
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Explanation
Statement 1 correct - Due to differential heating of land and water the range of temperature over oceans will be smaller than that over land.
Statement 2 correct - High temperature and abundant rainfall in Equatorial regions leads to growing season all round the year. Hence seeding flowering fruiting and decaying do not take place in a Seasonal pattern, some trees may be in flower while other only a few yards away may be bearing a fruit.
Statement 3 correct- Livestock farming is greatly handicapped due to absence of meadow grass, even on the highlands.##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
The nodal Ministry of the Government of India responsible for Administrative Reforms is
|
Ministry of Home Affairs
|
Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension
|
Ministry of Human Resource Development
|
Ministry of Home Affairs
|
The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension is the nodal agency of the Government of India for administrative reforms as well as redressal of public grievances relating to the states in general and those pertaining to Central Government agencies in particular.
|
b
|
Reforms: Police Reform, Administrative
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The nodal Ministry of the Government of India responsible for Administrative Reforms is##Option_A:Ministry of Home Affairs###Option_B:Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension##Option_C:Ministry of Human Resource Development##Option_D:Ministry of Home Affairs##Answer:b##Explaination:The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension is the nodal agency of the Government of India for administrative reforms as well as redressal of public grievances relating to the states in general and those pertaining to Central Government agencies in particular. ##Topic:Reforms: Police Reform, Administrative##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Power of Lokpal under Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 extends to which of the following? Prime Minister Members of Parliament Civil Servants Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Office of Lokpal under Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 has jurisdiction over any person who is or has been a Prime Minister, any person who is or has been a Minister of the Union, any person who is or has been a member of either House of Parliament, any Group 'A' or Group 'B' officer or equivalent or above, any Group 'C' or Group 'D' official or equivalent, any person who is or has been a chairperson or member or officer or employee in any body or Board or corporation or authority or company or society or trust or autonomous body (by whatever name called) established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly financed by the Central Government or controlled by it, any person who is or has been a director, manager, secretary or other officer of every other society or association of persons or trust (whether registered under any law for the time being in force or not), by whatever name called, wholly or partly financed by the Government and the annual income of which exceeds such amount as the Central Government may, by notification, specify; any person who is or has been a director, manager, secretary or other officer of every other society or association of persons or trust (whether registered under any law for the time being in force or not) in receipt of any donation from any foreign source under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 in excess of ten lakh rupees in a year or such higher amount as the Central Government may, by notification, specify.
|
d
|
Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Power of Lokpal under Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 extends to which of the following? Prime Minister Members of Parliament Civil Servants Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Office of Lokpal under Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 has jurisdiction over any person who is or has been a Prime Minister, any person who is or has been a Minister of the Union, any person who is or has been a member of either House of Parliament, any Group 'A' or Group 'B' officer or equivalent or above, any Group 'C' or Group 'D' official or equivalent, any person who is or has been a chairperson or member or officer or employee in any body or Board or corporation or authority or company or society or trust or autonomous body (by whatever name called) established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly financed by the Central Government or controlled by it, any person who is or has been a director, manager, secretary or other officer of every other society or association of persons or trust (whether registered under any law for the time being in force or not), by whatever name called, wholly or partly financed by the Government and the annual income of which exceeds such amount as the Central Government may, by notification, specify; any person who is or has been a director, manager, secretary or other officer of every other society or association of persons or trust (whether registered under any law for the time being in force or not) in receipt of any donation from any foreign source under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 in excess of ten lakh rupees in a year or such higher amount as the Central Government may, by notification, specify.##Topic:Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Leaders Association Bhagat Singh Naujawan Bharat Sabha Sahajanand Saraswati All India Kisan Sabha Jayprakash Narayan Congress Socialist Party Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Naujawan Bharat Sabha : 1926: Bhagat Singh founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha (1926) in Punjab as an open wing of revolutionaries to carry out political work among the youth, peasants and workers, and it was to open branches in villages. Bhagat and Sukhdev also organised the Lahore Students' Union for open, legal work among students. Bhagat and his comrades realised that a revolution meant organisation and development of a mass movement of the exploited and the suppressed sections by the revolutionary intelligentsia. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched All India Kisan Congress Sabha : 1936: This sabha was founded in Lucknow in April 1936 with Swami Sahjanand Saraswati as the president and N.G. Ranga as the general secretary. A kisan manifesto, which was adopted in August, contained radical demands, such as the abolition of zamindari, graduated income tax on agricultural income, granting of occupancy rights to all tenants and scaling down of interest rates and debt was issued and a periodical under Indulal Yagnik started. The AIKS and the Congress held their sessions in Faizpur in 1936. The Congress manifesto (especially the agrarian policy) for the 1937 provincial elections was strongly influenced by the AIKS agenda. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Congress Socialist Party : 1934: The Congress Socialist Party was formed in 1934 as a leftwing pressure group inside the Indian National Congress, with the twin objective of achievement of complete independence in the sense of separation from the British Empire, and the establishment of a Socialist society. The founding fathers of the C.S.P. were mostly middle-class intellectuals who had come under the influence both of nationalism and socialism.Peasant movement activists and Young Socialists, the most prominent of whom were Jayaprakash Narayan , Ashok Mehta, Achyuta Patwardhan, Yusuf Meherally, S.M. Joshi and N.G. Goray, latter on joined by some senior Congressmen from the Kashi Vidyapith, Acharya Narendra Deva, Shri Sampurnananda and Shri Sriparakas, met in Patna in May 1934 and formed the new Party. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
|
d
|
GS_History_unclassified
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Leaders Association Bhagat Singh Naujawan Bharat Sabha Sahajanand Saraswati All India Kisan Sabha Jayprakash Narayan Congress Socialist Party Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? ##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Naujawan Bharat Sabha : 1926: Bhagat Singh founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha (1926) in Punjab as an open wing of revolutionaries to carry out political work among the youth, peasants and workers, and it was to open branches in villages. Bhagat and Sukhdev also organised the Lahore Students' Union for open, legal work among students. Bhagat and his comrades realised that a revolution meant organisation and development of a mass movement of the exploited and the suppressed sections by the revolutionary intelligentsia. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched All India Kisan Congress Sabha : 1936: This sabha was founded in Lucknow in April 1936 with Swami Sahjanand Saraswati as the president and N.G. Ranga as the general secretary. A kisan manifesto, which was adopted in August, contained radical demands, such as the abolition of zamindari, graduated income tax on agricultural income, granting of occupancy rights to all tenants and scaling down of interest rates and debt was issued and a periodical under Indulal Yagnik started. The AIKS and the Congress held their sessions in Faizpur in 1936. The Congress manifesto (especially the agrarian policy) for the 1937 provincial elections was strongly influenced by the AIKS agenda. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Congress Socialist Party : 1934: The Congress Socialist Party was formed in 1934 as a leftwing pressure group inside the Indian National Congress, with the twin objective of achievement of complete independence in the sense of separation from the British Empire, and the establishment of a Socialist society. The founding fathers of the C.S.P. were mostly middle-class intellectuals who had come under the influence both of nationalism and socialism.Peasant movement activists and Young Socialists, the most prominent of whom were Jayaprakash Narayan , Ashok Mehta, Achyuta Patwardhan, Yusuf Meherally, S.M. Joshi and N.G. Goray, latter on joined by some senior Congressmen from the Kashi Vidyapith, Acharya Narendra Deva, Shri Sampurnananda and Shri Sriparakas, met in Patna in May 1934 and formed the new Party. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.##Topic:GS_History_unclassified##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Citizen"s Charter: It is a document which represents the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens. It is legally enforceable. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances provides guidelines for implementation of the Charters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 correct : Citizen's Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of - Standard of Services, - Information, - Choice and Consultation, - Non-discrimination and Accessibility, - Grievance Redress, - Courtesy and Value for Money. Statement 2 is not correct : The Citizen's Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Statement 3 correct : Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen-friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen’s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.
|
b
|
Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Citizen"s Charter: It is a document which represents the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens. It is legally enforceable. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances provides guidelines for implementation of the Charters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 correct : Citizen's Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of - Standard of Services, - Information, - Choice and Consultation, - Non-discrimination and Accessibility, - Grievance Redress, - Courtesy and Value for Money. Statement 2 is not correct : The Citizen's Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Statement 3 correct : Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen-friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen’s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.##Topic:Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Political Parties in India: 1. They are not allowed to accept contributions from foreign sources 2. It is mandatory to register with ECI to contest elections Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Explanation Statement 1 incorrect - Recently amendments to Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) has enabled Political Parties to accept donations from Foreign sources. Statement 2 incorrect - It is not necessary for every association to get registered by the Election Commission. Only an association or body of individual citizens of India calling itself a political party and intending to avail itself of the provisions of Part-IV-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, (relating to registration of political parties) is required to get itself registered with the Election Commission of India.
|
d
|
Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Political Parties in India: 1. They are not allowed to accept contributions from foreign sources 2. It is mandatory to register with ECI to contest elections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Explanation Statement 1 incorrect - Recently amendments to Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) has enabled Political Parties to accept donations from Foreign sources. Statement 2 incorrect - It is not necessary for every association to get registered by the Election Commission. Only an association or body of individual citizens of India calling itself a political party and intending to avail itself of the provisions of Part-IV-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, (relating to registration of political parties) is required to get itself registered with the Election Commission of India.
##Topic:Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Model Code of Conduct prohibits which of the following activities? Using caste and communal feelings to secure votes. Criticising candidates on the basis of unverified reports. Bribing or intimidation of voters. Use of official machinery for election work by the ministers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The MCC contains eight provisions dealing with general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, party in power, and election manifestos. Major provisions of the MCC are outlined below: General Conduct: Criticism of political parties must be limited to their policies and programmes, past record and work. Activities such as: (a) using caste and communal feelings to secure votes, (b) criticising candidates on the basis of unverified reports, (c) bribing or intimidation of voters, and (d) organising demonstrations or picketing outside houses of persons to protest against their opinions, are prohibited. Hence, statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Meetings: Parties must inform the local police authorities of the venue and time of any meeting in time to enable the police to make adequate security arrangements. Processions: If two or more candidates plan processions along the same route, organisers must establish contact in advance to ensure that the processions do not clash. Carrying and burning effigies representing members of other political parties is not allowed. Polling day: All authorised party workers at polling booths should be given identity badges. These should not contain the party name, symbol or name of the candidate. Polling booths: Only voters, and those with a valid pass from the Election Commission, will be allowed to enter polling booths. Observers: The Election Commission will appoint observers to whom any candidates may report problems regarding the conduct of the election. Party in power: The MCC incorporated certain restrictions in 1979, regulating the conduct of the party in power. Ministers must not combine official visits with election work or use official machinery for the same. The party must avoid advertising at the cost of the public exchequer or using official mass media for publicity on achievements to improve chances of victory in the elections. Ministers and other authorities must not announce any financial grants, or promise any construction of roads, provision of drinking water, etc. Other parties must be allowed to use public spaces and rest houses and these must not be monopolised by the party in power. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Election manifestos: Added in 2013, these guidelines prohibit parties from making promises that exert an undue influence on voters, and suggest that manifestos also indicate the means to achieve promises.
|
d
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Model Code of Conduct prohibits which of the following activities? Using caste and communal feelings to secure votes. Criticising candidates on the basis of unverified reports. Bribing or intimidation of voters. Use of official machinery for election work by the ministers. Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The MCC contains eight provisions dealing with general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, party in power, and election manifestos. Major provisions of the MCC are outlined below: General Conduct: Criticism of political parties must be limited to their policies and programmes, past record and work. Activities such as: (a) using caste and communal feelings to secure votes, (b) criticising candidates on the basis of unverified reports, (c) bribing or intimidation of voters, and (d) organising demonstrations or picketing outside houses of persons to protest against their opinions, are prohibited. Hence, statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Meetings: Parties must inform the local police authorities of the venue and time of any meeting in time to enable the police to make adequate security arrangements. Processions: If two or more candidates plan processions along the same route, organisers must establish contact in advance to ensure that the processions do not clash. Carrying and burning effigies representing members of other political parties is not allowed. Polling day: All authorised party workers at polling booths should be given identity badges. These should not contain the party name, symbol or name of the candidate. Polling booths: Only voters, and those with a valid pass from the Election Commission, will be allowed to enter polling booths. Observers: The Election Commission will appoint observers to whom any candidates may report problems regarding the conduct of the election. Party in power: The MCC incorporated certain restrictions in 1979, regulating the conduct of the party in power. Ministers must not combine official visits with election work or use official machinery for the same. The party must avoid advertising at the cost of the public exchequer or using official mass media for publicity on achievements to improve chances of victory in the elections. Ministers and other authorities must not announce any financial grants, or promise any construction of roads, provision of drinking water, etc. Other parties must be allowed to use public spaces and rest houses and these must not be monopolised by the party in power. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Election manifestos: Added in 2013, these guidelines prohibit parties from making promises that exert an undue influence on voters, and suggest that manifestos also indicate the means to achieve promises.##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance And Timely Implementation): It is an e-governance project designed by PMO and National Informatics Center (NIC). It is a three-tier system including PMO, Union Government Secretaries, and Chief Ministers of the States. It is aimed at addressing grievances of the common man. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Key features of the PRAGATI application are as follows: Statement 1 is correct : The system has been designed in-house by the PMO team with the help of National Informatics Center (NIC). As the name suggests, it is aimed at starting a culture of Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation. It is also a robust system for bringing e-transparency and e-accountability with real-time presence and exchange among the key stakeholders. Statement 2 is not correct : It is a three-tier system (PMO, Union Government Secretaries, and Chief Secretaries of the States); - Prime Minister will hold a monthly programme where he will interact with the Government of India Secretaries, and Chief Secretaries through Video-conferencing enabled by data and geo-informatics visuals; - The first such programme was launched on 25th March, 2015. It will be held once in every month on Fourth Wednesday at 3.30 PM-to be known as PRAGATI Day. Statement 3 is correct : PRAGATI is a unique integrating and interactive platform. The platform is aimed at addressing common man’s grievances, and simultaneously monitoring and reviewing important programmes and projects of the Government of India as well as projects flagged by State Governments.
|
b
|
Good Governance , e-Governance
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance And Timely Implementation): It is an e-governance project designed by PMO and National Informatics Center (NIC). It is a three-tier system including PMO, Union Government Secretaries, and Chief Ministers of the States. It is aimed at addressing grievances of the common man. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Key features of the PRAGATI application are as follows: Statement 1 is correct : The system has been designed in-house by the PMO team with the help of National Informatics Center (NIC). As the name suggests, it is aimed at starting a culture of Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation. It is also a robust system for bringing e-transparency and e-accountability with real-time presence and exchange among the key stakeholders. Statement 2 is not correct : It is a three-tier system (PMO, Union Government Secretaries, and Chief Secretaries of the States); - Prime Minister will hold a monthly programme where he will interact with the Government of India Secretaries, and Chief Secretaries through Video-conferencing enabled by data and geo-informatics visuals; - The first such programme was launched on 25th March, 2015. It will be held once in every month on Fourth Wednesday at 3.30 PM-to be known as PRAGATI Day. Statement 3 is correct : PRAGATI is a unique integrating and interactive platform. The platform is aimed at addressing common man’s grievances, and simultaneously monitoring and reviewing important programmes and projects of the Government of India as well as projects flagged by State Governments.##Topic:Good Governance , e-Governance ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Tsunamis can be caused by which of the following? Earthquake Landslide Volcanic eruption Meteorites Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
A tsunami is a large ocean wave that is caused by sudden motion on the ocean floor. This sudden motion could be an Earthquake, a powerful volcanic eruptions, or an underwater landslides. The impact of a large meteorite could also cause a tsunami. Tsunamis travel across the open ocean at great speeds and build into large deadly waves in the shallow water of a shoreline.
|
d
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Tsunamis can be caused by which of the following? Earthquake Landslide Volcanic eruption Meteorites Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:A tsunami is a large ocean wave that is caused by sudden motion on the ocean floor. This sudden motion could be an Earthquake, a powerful volcanic eruptions, or an underwater landslides. The impact of a large meteorite could also cause a tsunami. Tsunamis travel across the open ocean at great speeds and build into large deadly waves in the shallow water of a shoreline.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
The net value of GDP after deducting depreciation from GDP is
|
Net national product
|
Net domestic product
|
Gross national product
|
Net national product
|
.
|
b
|
GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The net value of GDP after deducting depreciation from GDP is##Option_A:Net national product###Option_B:Net domestic product##Option_C:Gross national product##Option_D:Net national product##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
In the context of economy, Potential GDP refers to:
|
measure of country's economic output adjusted for the impact of inflation.
|
the level of output that an economy can produce at a constant inflation rate.
|
the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation.
|
measure of country's economic output adjusted for the impact of inflation.
|
Like GDP, potential GDP represents the market value of goods and services, but rather than capturing the current objective state of a nation’s economic activity, potential GDP attempts to estimate the highest level of output an economy can sustain over a period of time. According to OECD’s Economic Outlook publication, Potential gross domestic product (GDP) is defined as the level of output that an economy can produce at a constant inflation rate. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Although an economy can temporarily produce more than its potential level of output, that comes at the cost of rising inflation. Potential output depends on the capital stock, the potential labour force (which depends on demographic factors and on participation rates), the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU), and the level of labour efficiency. Real GDP measures a country's economic output adjusted for the impact of inflation. Real GDP makes comparing GDP from year to year and from different years more meaningful because it shows comparisons for both the quantity and value of goods and services. Nominal GDP is the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation. Since nominal GDP doesn't remove the pace of rising prices when comparing one period to another, it can inflate the growth figure. Economic growth at zero inflation is possible. But this could occur if there were improvements in productivity, which caused lower costs and higher output at the same time. There is no specific term for the measure of country's economic output at zero inflation.
|
b
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of economy, Potential GDP refers to:##Option_A:measure of country's economic output adjusted for the impact of inflation.###Option_B:the level of output that an economy can produce at a constant inflation rate.##Option_C:the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation.##Option_D:measure of country's economic output adjusted for the impact of inflation.##Answer:b##Explaination:Like GDP, potential GDP represents the market value of goods and services, but rather than capturing the current objective state of a nation’s economic activity, potential GDP attempts to estimate the highest level of output an economy can sustain over a period of time. According to OECD’s Economic Outlook publication, Potential gross domestic product (GDP) is defined as the level of output that an economy can produce at a constant inflation rate. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Although an economy can temporarily produce more than its potential level of output, that comes at the cost of rising inflation. Potential output depends on the capital stock, the potential labour force (which depends on demographic factors and on participation rates), the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU), and the level of labour efficiency. Real GDP measures a country's economic output adjusted for the impact of inflation. Real GDP makes comparing GDP from year to year and from different years more meaningful because it shows comparisons for both the quantity and value of goods and services. Nominal GDP is the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation. Since nominal GDP doesn't remove the pace of rising prices when comparing one period to another, it can inflate the growth figure. Economic growth at zero inflation is possible. But this could occur if there were improvements in productivity, which caused lower costs and higher output at the same time. There is no specific term for the measure of country's economic output at zero inflation.##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
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1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
|
Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Lake Baikal Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
2 and 3
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
nan
|
a
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Lake Baikal Select the correct answer using the code given below :##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statement is correct about Lake Titicaca?
1. It is located between Peru and Bolivia. 2. It is the largest freshwater lake in South America. 3. It is the highest navigable lake in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 only
|
nan
|
d
|
Map based questions from World
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement is correct about Lake Titicaca?
1. It is located between Peru and Bolivia. 2. It is the largest freshwater lake in South America. 3. It is the highest navigable lake in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below :##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3##Option_C:2 and 3##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Map based questions from World##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to an initiative called ‘The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)’ which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the G20 countries. 2. The coalition aims to help develop disaster resilient technologies and mechanism for integrating risk reduction in infrastructure financing. 3. The secretariat of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) will be established in New Delhi. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is an initiative of the Government of India. It was launched by Prime Minister of India at the UN Climate Action Summit,2019 in New York. It is an international partnership that will support countries- developed and developing- to build climate and disaster-resilient infrastructure. Developed through consultations with more than 35 countries, CDRI envisions enabling a measurable reduction in infrastructure losses from disasters, including extreme climate events. Established as a platform for generating and exchanging knowledge, CDRI will conduct country-specific and global activities. CDRI will provide member countries technical support and capacity development, research and knowledge management, and advocacy and partnerships to facilitate and encourage investment in disaster-resilient infrastructure systems. In its formative stage, CDRI will focus on developing resilience in ecological infrastructure, social infrastructure with a concerted emphasis on health and education, and economic infrastructure with special attention to transportation, telecommunications, energy, and water. Statement 2 is correct : CDRI aims to help develop disaster resilient technologies and mechanism for integrating risk reduction in infrastructure financing. The coalition aims to have a 3-fold impact of achieving considerable changes in member countries’ policy frameworks, future infrastructure investments and high reduction in economic losses from climate-related events and natural disasters across sectors. CDRI will uphold the UN Agenda 2030 principle of leaving no one, no place, and no ecosystem behind, focusing on the most vulnerable regions and populations, while enabling inclusive and deliberative processes that recognize national and local efforts as primal. Statement 3 is correct: The secretariat of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), supported by United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR), will be established in New Delhi. It will facilitate knowledge exchange, provide technical support and support capacity building.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to an initiative called ‘The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)’ which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the G20 countries. 2. The coalition aims to help develop disaster resilient technologies and mechanism for integrating risk reduction in infrastructure financing. 3. The secretariat of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) will be established in New Delhi. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is an initiative of the Government of India. It was launched by Prime Minister of India at the UN Climate Action Summit,2019 in New York. It is an international partnership that will support countries- developed and developing- to build climate and disaster-resilient infrastructure. Developed through consultations with more than 35 countries, CDRI envisions enabling a measurable reduction in infrastructure losses from disasters, including extreme climate events. Established as a platform for generating and exchanging knowledge, CDRI will conduct country-specific and global activities. CDRI will provide member countries technical support and capacity development, research and knowledge management, and advocacy and partnerships to facilitate and encourage investment in disaster-resilient infrastructure systems. In its formative stage, CDRI will focus on developing resilience in ecological infrastructure, social infrastructure with a concerted emphasis on health and education, and economic infrastructure with special attention to transportation, telecommunications, energy, and water. Statement 2 is correct : CDRI aims to help develop disaster resilient technologies and mechanism for integrating risk reduction in infrastructure financing. The coalition aims to have a 3-fold impact of achieving considerable changes in member countries’ policy frameworks, future infrastructure investments and high reduction in economic losses from climate-related events and natural disasters across sectors. CDRI will uphold the UN Agenda 2030 principle of leaving no one, no place, and no ecosystem behind, focusing on the most vulnerable regions and populations, while enabling inclusive and deliberative processes that recognize national and local efforts as primal. Statement 3 is correct: The secretariat of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), supported by United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR), will be established in New Delhi. It will facilitate knowledge exchange, provide technical support and support capacity building.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
There is a place A with longitude 060 o There is another place B with longitude 090 o East. If local time at place A is 1200 Hrs. What would be local time at Place B?
|
1200 Hrs
|
1400 Hrs
|
1000 Hrs
|
1200 Hrs
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:There is a place A with longitude 060 o There is another place B with longitude 090 o East. If local time at place A is 1200 Hrs. What would be local time at Place B?##Option_A:1200 Hrs
###Option_B:1400 Hrs
##Option_C:1000 Hrs
##Option_D:1200 Hrs
##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following features are related to Hot Desert Climate?
1) No Winter season.
2) Low annual range of temperature.
3) Permanent high pressure areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Explanation
Statement 1 correct - There is no winter season because of high temperatures throughout the year. High temperatures are due to the clear cloudless sky. And cloudless sky is due to permanent high pressure belts.
Statement 2 correct - Annual range of temperature is low because temperature remains high throughout the year. Whereas the diurnal range fluctuates greatly due to high temperatures during daytime and low temperatures during night.
Statement 3 correct - They lie in the so-called Horse Latitudes, which is an area of constant high-pressure systems.
|
d
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following features are related to Hot Desert Climate?
1) No Winter season.
2) Low annual range of temperature.
3) Permanent high pressure areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Explanation
Statement 1 correct - There is no winter season because of high temperatures throughout the year. High temperatures are due to the clear cloudless sky. And cloudless sky is due to permanent high pressure belts.
Statement 2 correct - Annual range of temperature is low because temperature remains high throughout the year. Whereas the diurnal range fluctuates greatly due to high temperatures during daytime and low temperatures during night.
Statement 3 correct - They lie in the so-called Horse Latitudes, which is an area of constant high-pressure systems.
##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Mediterranean Climate areas:
1. Best Developed in areas around Mediterranean.
2. Rain falls in heavy showers for few days with bright sunny periods in between.
3. Cattle rearing is an important occupation here.
4. Are known as the world"s orchard lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 incorrect - The best developed form of this peculiar climate type is found in Central Chile and not at areas around Mediterranean sea.
Statement 2 correct - One unique characteristic of this climate type is that the rain comes in heavy showers and only on a few days with bright sunny periods in between them.
Statement 3 incorrect - Condition in the Mediterranean do not suit grass, because most of the rain comes in the cool season when the growth is slow. Hence cattle rearing is not an important occupation in this region.
|
c
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Mediterranean Climate areas:
1. Best Developed in areas around Mediterranean.
2. Rain falls in heavy showers for few days with bright sunny periods in between.
3. Cattle rearing is an important occupation here.
4. Are known as the world"s orchard lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 incorrect - The best developed form of this peculiar climate type is found in Central Chile and not at areas around Mediterranean sea.
Statement 2 correct - One unique characteristic of this climate type is that the rain comes in heavy showers and only on a few days with bright sunny periods in between them.
Statement 3 incorrect - Condition in the Mediterranean do not suit grass, because most of the rain comes in the cool season when the growth is slow. Hence cattle rearing is not an important occupation in this region.##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With regard to the State Human Rights Commission, consider the following statements : It has all the powers of the civil court. It cannot look into a matter beyond one year of its occurrence. It cannot recommend to the state government to make payment of compensation or damages to the victim. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The Commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character. Statement 2 is correct : The Commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed. In other words, it can look into a matter within one year of its occurrence. Statement 3 is not correct : It may recommend to the state government or authority to make payment of compensation or damages to the victim
|
a
|
State Human Rights Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the State Human Rights Commission, consider the following statements : It has all the powers of the civil court. It cannot look into a matter beyond one year of its occurrence. It cannot recommend to the state government to make payment of compensation or damages to the victim. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : The Commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character. Statement 2 is correct : The Commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed. In other words, it can look into a matter within one year of its occurrence. Statement 3 is not correct : It may recommend to the state government or authority to make payment of compensation or damages to the victim##Topic:State Human Rights Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Government of India has embarked upon an ambitious project named 'Megh Raj'. It is related to
|
large- scale natural calamity fund
|
a dedicated satellite to monitor climate change
|
a cloud computing project
|
large- scale natural calamity fund
|
In order to utilise and harness the benefits of Cloud Computing, Government of India has embarked upon an ambitious initiative – ‘GI Cloud’ which has been named as ‘MeghRaj’. The focus of this initiative is to accelerate delivery of e-services in the country while optimizing ICT spending of the Government. This will ensure optimum utilization of the infrastructure and speed up the development and deployment of e-Gov applications. The architectural vision of GI Cloud encompasses a set of discrete cloud computing environments spread across multiple locations, built on existing or new (augmented) infrastructure, following a set of common protocols, guidelines and standards issued by the Government of India.
|
c
|
e-Governance
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Government of India has embarked upon an ambitious project named 'Megh Raj'. It is related to##Option_A:large- scale natural calamity fund###Option_B:a dedicated satellite to monitor climate change ##Option_C:a cloud computing project##Option_D:large- scale natural calamity fund##Answer:c##Explaination:In order to utilise and harness the benefits of Cloud Computing, Government of India has embarked upon an ambitious initiative – ‘GI Cloud’ which has been named as ‘MeghRaj’. The focus of this initiative is to accelerate delivery of e-services in the country while optimizing ICT spending of the Government. This will ensure optimum utilization of the infrastructure and speed up the development and deployment of e-Gov applications. The architectural vision of GI Cloud encompasses a set of discrete cloud computing environments spread across multiple locations, built on existing or new (augmented) infrastructure, following a set of common protocols, guidelines and standards issued by the Government of India. ##Topic:e-Governance##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: In Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) a certain percentage of the funding is borne by the States. Central sector schemes are 100% funded by the Union government. Central Sector schemes are implemented by the State Governments. Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are implemented by the Central government machinery. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
In India's developmental plan exercise we have two types of schemes viz; central sector scheme and centrally sponsored scheme. The nomenclature is derived from the pattern of funding and the modality for implementation. Under Central sector schemes, it is 100% funded by the Union government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Under Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) a certain percentage of the funding is borne by the States in the ratio of 50:50, 70:30, 75:25 or 90:10 and the implementation is by the State Governments. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
|
a
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: In Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) a certain percentage of the funding is borne by the States. Central sector schemes are 100% funded by the Union government. Central Sector schemes are implemented by the State Governments. Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are implemented by the Central government machinery. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In India's developmental plan exercise we have two types of schemes viz; central sector scheme and centrally sponsored scheme. The nomenclature is derived from the pattern of funding and the modality for implementation. Under Central sector schemes, it is 100% funded by the Union government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Under Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) a certain percentage of the funding is borne by the States in the ratio of 50:50, 70:30, 75:25 or 90:10 and the implementation is by the State Governments. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which among the following is mandated under Right To Education Act, 2009 to examine and review the safeguards of the rights of the children?
|
National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights
|
Ministry of Women and Child Development
|
Ministry of Human Resource and Development
|
National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights
|
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been mandated under Section 31 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 to examine and review the safeguards of the rights provided under the act and to recommend measures for its effective implementation; to inquire into complaints relating to violation of child’s right to free and compulsory education and to take necessary steps as provided under Section 15 of the Commission for Protection of Child Rights, 2005.
Towards realizing its commitment of Universalizing Elementary Education during 2013 onwards, the Commission has undertaken varied activities providing for equity, inclusive, quality and sustainable education in India.
|
a
|
Education/Health/Human Resources
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is mandated under Right To Education Act, 2009 to examine and review the safeguards of the rights of the children?##Option_A: National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights###Option_B: Ministry of Women and Child Development##Option_C: Ministry of Human Resource and Development##Option_D: National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights##Answer:a##Explaination:
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been mandated under Section 31 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 to examine and review the safeguards of the rights provided under the act and to recommend measures for its effective implementation; to inquire into complaints relating to violation of child’s right to free and compulsory education and to take necessary steps as provided under Section 15 of the Commission for Protection of Child Rights, 2005.
Towards realizing its commitment of Universalizing Elementary Education during 2013 onwards, the Commission has undertaken varied activities providing for equity, inclusive, quality and sustainable education in India.
##Topic:Education/Health/Human Resources##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With regard to Chief Information Commissioner , consider the following statements: His appointment and removal is done by the President. He is not eligible for reappointment. His salary, allowances and other service conditions are similar to those of an Election Commissioner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The President can remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner from the office under the following circumstances : (a) if he is adjudged an insolvent; or (b) if he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the President) involves a moral turpitude; or (c) if he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or (d) if he is (in the opinion of the President) unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of mind or body; or (e) if he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions. In addition to these, the President can also remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Statement 2 is correct : The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment. Statement 3 is not correct : The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner and that of the Information Commissioner are similar to those of an Election Commissioner. But, they cannot be varied to his disadvantage during service.
|
a
|
Central Information Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Chief Information Commissioner , consider the following statements: His appointment and removal is done by the President. He is not eligible for reappointment. His salary, allowances and other service conditions are similar to those of an Election Commissioner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The President can remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner from the office under the following circumstances : (a) if he is adjudged an insolvent; or (b) if he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the President) involves a moral turpitude; or (c) if he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or (d) if he is (in the opinion of the President) unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of mind or body; or (e) if he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions. In addition to these, the President can also remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Statement 2 is correct : The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment. Statement 3 is not correct : The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner and that of the Information Commissioner are similar to those of an Election Commissioner. But, they cannot be varied to his disadvantage during service.##Topic:Central Information Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are the grounds for the removal of Chairman/members of UPSC?
1. Insolvency
2. Misbehaviour
3. Infirmity of body
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances: (a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt); (b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or (c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member
. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the president. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the president can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC. Defining the term ‘misbehaviour’ in this context, the Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of the UPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour if he (a) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or (b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.
|
d
|
UPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are the grounds for the removal of Chairman/members of UPSC?
1. Insolvency
2. Misbehaviour
3. Infirmity of body
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances: (a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt); (b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or (c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member
. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the president. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the president can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC. Defining the term ‘misbehaviour’ in this context, the Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of the UPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour if he (a) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or (b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.
##Topic:UPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Earthquake, consider the following statements:
Richter Scale is accurate is only up to 6.5
Earthquakes do not occur at divergent boundaries.
Bhuj earthquake was associated with the Sea floor spreading of Indian Ocean.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Earthquake, consider the following statements:
Richter Scale is accurate is only up to 6.5
Earthquakes do not occur at divergent boundaries.
Bhuj earthquake was associated with the Sea floor spreading of Indian Ocean.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
Basic magma is slow flowing and solidifies quickly near the vent.
The Pacific ring of fire is known for the frequent eruption of volcanos.
Acidic magma leads to fissure eruption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.Acidic magma is slow flowing and solidifies quickly near the vent.
Basic magma leads to fissure eruption.
|
b
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Basic magma is slow flowing and solidifies quickly near the vent.
The Pacific ring of fire is known for the frequent eruption of volcanos.
Acidic magma leads to fissure eruption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.Acidic magma is slow flowing and solidifies quickly near the vent.
Basic magma leads to fissure eruption.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are the all India Services? 1. Indian Foreign Service (IFS) 2. Indian Administrative Service (IAS) 3. Indian Police Service (IPS) Select the correct code from the following.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
b
|
Administrative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the all India Services? 1. Indian Foreign Service (IFS) 2. Indian Administrative Service (IAS) 3. Indian Police Service (IPS) Select the correct code from the following.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:##Topic:Administrative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
|
With regard to the constitutional provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the UPSC, consider the following statements: The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. The chairman of UPSC on ceasing to hold office is eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the UPSC: The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Therefore, they enjoy security of tenure. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. The conditions of service of the chairman or a member, though determined by the president, cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charg ed on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. The chairman of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct. A member of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman of UPSC or a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), but not for any other employment in the Government of India or a state3. The chairman or a member or UPSC is (after having completed his first term) not eligible for reappointment to that office (i.e., not eligible for second term).
|
c
|
UPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the constitutional provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the UPSC, consider the following statements: The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. The chairman of UPSC on ceasing to hold office is eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the UPSC: The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Therefore, they enjoy security of tenure. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. The conditions of service of the chairman or a member, though determined by the president, cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charg ed on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. The chairman of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct. A member of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman of UPSC or a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), but not for any other employment in the Government of India or a state3. The chairman or a member or UPSC is (after having completed his first term) not eligible for reappointment to that office (i.e., not eligible for second term).##Topic:UPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Appointment and removal of Chairman or a member of State Public Service Commission is done respectively by:
|
Governor and Chief Minister
|
Governor and President
|
Chief Minister and President
|
Governor and Chief Minister
|
Although the Chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor).
The President can remove them on the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove a chairman or a member of the UPSC.
Thus, he can remove him under the following circumstances: (a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (i.e., has gone bankrupt); or (b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or (c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body3. In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of SPSC for misbehaviour.
|
b
|
SPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Appointment and removal of Chairman or a member of State Public Service Commission is done respectively by:##Option_A: Governor and Chief Minister###Option_B: Governor and President##Option_C: Chief Minister and President##Option_D: Governor and Chief Minister##Answer:b##Explaination:
Although the Chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor).
The President can remove them on the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove a chairman or a member of the UPSC.
Thus, he can remove him under the following circumstances: (a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (i.e., has gone bankrupt); or (b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or (c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body3. In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of SPSC for misbehaviour.
##Topic:SPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about Landslides:
1. Landslides can be triggered by changes in groundwater
2.. Landslides can even occur underwater
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Landslide is the movement of large mass of soil or rock down the slope. Statement 1 correct- Landslides can be initiated in slopes already on the verge of movement by - rainfall, - snowmelt, - changes in water level, - stream erosion, - changes in ground water, - earthquakes, - volcanic activity, - disturbance by human activities, or - any combination of these factors. Statement 2 correct- Earthquake shaking and other factors can also induce landslides underwater. These landslides are called submarine landslides. Submarine landslides sometimes cause tsunamis that damage coastal areas.
|
c
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Landslides:
1. Landslides can be triggered by changes in groundwater
2.. Landslides can even occur underwater
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:Landslide is the movement of large mass of soil or rock down the slope. Statement 1 correct- Landslides can be initiated in slopes already on the verge of movement by - rainfall, - snowmelt, - changes in water level, - stream erosion, - changes in ground water, - earthquakes, - volcanic activity, - disturbance by human activities, or - any combination of these factors. Statement 2 correct- Earthquake shaking and other factors can also induce landslides underwater. These landslides are called submarine landslides. Submarine landslides sometimes cause tsunamis that damage coastal areas. ##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With regard to the Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC), consider the following statements: It is created by an order of the President on the request of concerned state legislatures. Its report is laid down by the concerned state Governors to the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : A JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. Statement 2 is not correct : A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state Governors. Each Governor places the report before the state legislature.
|
d
|
SPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC), consider the following statements: It is created by an order of the President on the request of concerned state legislatures. Its report is laid down by the concerned state Governors to the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : A JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. Statement 2 is not correct : A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state Governors. Each Governor places the report before the state legislature.##Topic:SPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The qualifications of Chairman and members of the Finance Commission and the manner in which they should be selected is determined by:
|
President
|
Parliament
|
NITI Aayog
|
President
|
The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following: 1. A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one. 2. A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the government. 3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration. 4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.
|
b
|
Finance Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The qualifications of Chairman and members of the Finance Commission and the manner in which they should be selected is determined by:##Option_A: President###Option_B: Parliament##Option_C: NITI Aayog##Option_D: President##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following: 1. A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one. 2. A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the government. 3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration. 4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.
##Topic:Finance Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following constitutional bodies looks into the matters of anglo-Indians in India?
|
Ministry of External Affairs
|
National Commission for Backward Classes
|
National Commission for Scheduled Castes
|
Ministry of External Affairs
|
Both the Ministries of External Affairs and Tourism are not constitutional bodies.
The National Commission for SCs is also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the OBCs and the Anglo-Indian Community as it does with respect to the SCs. In other words, the commission has to investigate all matters relating to the Constitutional and other legal safeguards for the OBCs and the Anglo-Indian community and report to the President upon their working
|
c
|
National Commision for SCs
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following constitutional bodies looks into the matters of anglo-Indians in India?##Option_A: Ministry of External Affairs###Option_B: National Commission for Backward Classes##Option_C: National Commission for Scheduled Castes##Option_D: Ministry of External Affairs##Answer:c##Explaination:
Both the Ministries of External Affairs and Tourism are not constitutional bodies.
The National Commission for SCs is also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the OBCs and the Anglo-Indian Community as it does with respect to the SCs. In other words, the commission has to investigate all matters relating to the Constitutional and other legal safeguards for the OBCs and the Anglo-Indian community and report to the President upon their working
##Topic:National Commision for SCs##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With regard to National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), consider the following statements: It looks into the matters related to administration of Scheduled and Tribal areas. Its report is laid down to the President by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : Article 244 of the Indian Constitution vests administrative powers to the Governor in Scheduled and tribal areas
Statement 2 is not correct : The Commission presents an annual report to the President. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary. The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non-acceptance of any of such recommendations. The President also forwards any report of the Commission pertaining to a state government to the state governor. The governor places it before the state legislature, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations of the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.
|
d
|
National Commision for STs
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), consider the following statements: It looks into the matters related to administration of Scheduled and Tribal areas. Its report is laid down to the President by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct : Article 244 of the Indian Constitution vests administrative powers to the Governor in Scheduled and tribal areas
Statement 2 is not correct : The Commission presents an annual report to the President. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary. The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non-acceptance of any of such recommendations. The President also forwards any report of the Commission pertaining to a state government to the state governor. The governor places it before the state legislature, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations of the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.
##Topic:National Commision for STs##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements : He is appointed by the President. There is no mention in the Constitution regarding his removal procedure. He submits the annual report to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957. He is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. Statement 1 is correct : Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India. Statement 2 is correct : The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Statement 3 is correct : At the Central level, the Commissioner comes under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence, he submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister.
|
d
|
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements : He is appointed by the President. There is no mention in the Constitution regarding his removal procedure. He submits the annual report to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957. He is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. Statement 1 is correct : Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India. Statement 2 is correct : The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Statement 3 is correct : At the Central level, the Commissioner comes under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence, he submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister.##Topic:Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: E-Governance projects States 1. Bhoomi Project : Karnataka 2. Gyandoot : Madhya Pradesh 3. e-Mitra : Rajasthan Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Gyandoot is an intranet network of computers connecting the rural areas and fulfilling the everyday, information related needs of the rural people.Computers in 21 major centres in five Blocks of the district( Dhar, MP were connected through an Inranet network. These computers have been established in Gram Panchayats. They have been called Soochanalayas. From the Soochanalaya, user-charge based services are given to the masses and at the same time the information technology related developmental needs of government departments and Panchayats are met free of cost. Bhoomi is a project jointly funded by the Government of India and the Government of Karnataka to digitize the paper land records and create a software mechanism to control changes to the land registry in Karnataka. The project was designed to eliminate the long-standing problem of inefficiency and corruption in the maintenance of land records at dispersed and poorly supervised and audited block-level offices known as "taluka" offices in South India, The project development and implementation was done by National Informatics Centre. E-Mitra is an ambitious E-governance initiative of Government of Rajasthan (GoR) which is being implemented in all 33 Districts of the state using Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model for convenience and transparency to citizens in availing various services of the Government and Private Sectors under a single roof at their door steps using an e- platform. The services are delivered via counters known as CSC (Common Service Center) kiosks in Rural Areas and e-Mitra kiosks in urban areas and also online via www.emitra.gov.in. Hence, these counters provide services related to various departments in an integrated and easily accessible manner to people residing in rural as well as urban areas without any need for running around in government offices.
|
d
|
e-Governance
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: E-Governance projects States 1. Bhoomi Project : Karnataka 2. Gyandoot : Madhya Pradesh 3. e-Mitra : Rajasthan Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Gyandoot is an intranet network of computers connecting the rural areas and fulfilling the everyday, information related needs of the rural people.Computers in 21 major centres in five Blocks of the district( Dhar, MP were connected through an Inranet network. These computers have been established in Gram Panchayats. They have been called Soochanalayas. From the Soochanalaya, user-charge based services are given to the masses and at the same time the information technology related developmental needs of government departments and Panchayats are met free of cost. Bhoomi is a project jointly funded by the Government of India and the Government of Karnataka to digitize the paper land records and create a software mechanism to control changes to the land registry in Karnataka. The project was designed to eliminate the long-standing problem of inefficiency and corruption in the maintenance of land records at dispersed and poorly supervised and audited block-level offices known as "taluka" offices in South India, The project development and implementation was done by National Informatics Centre. E-Mitra is an ambitious E-governance initiative of Government of Rajasthan (GoR) which is being implemented in all 33 Districts of the state using Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model for convenience and transparency to citizens in availing various services of the Government and Private Sectors under a single roof at their door steps using an e- platform. The services are delivered via counters known as CSC (Common Service Center) kiosks in Rural Areas and e-Mitra kiosks in urban areas and also online via www.emitra.gov.in. Hence, these counters provide services related to various departments in an integrated and easily accessible manner to people residing in rural as well as urban areas without any need for running around in government offices. ##Topic:e-Governance##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following features: Rare presence of trees Short grasses Seasonal extremes of temperature Precipitation increases gradually towards the west The above mentioned features best describes which of the following regions?
|
African Savannah
|
Central Asian Steppes
|
Mediterranean region
|
African Savannah
|
Central Asian Steppes are located in the heart of the continents and hence have little maritime influence. Thus having extremes of temperature. The greatest difference between Savannah and Central Asian Steppes is that latter are practically treeless. In Central Asian Steppes short steppe type of grass prevails whereas Savannah has tall grasses and Mediterranean has no grasses. Rainfall is a critical variable, which diminishes as the rain-bearing winds from the Atlantic become increasingly erratic east of the Don. These temperature and precipitation gradients make the Ukraine and adjacent parts of Romania far richer natural pastureland than the land farther east. Peoples of the Western Steppe therefore tended to migrate westward along the steppe, seeking better grass and milder temperatures, whenever political conditions allowed them to do so.
|
b
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following features: Rare presence of trees Short grasses Seasonal extremes of temperature Precipitation increases gradually towards the west The above mentioned features best describes which of the following regions?##Option_A: African Savannah###Option_B: Central Asian Steppes##Option_C: Mediterranean region##Option_D: African Savannah##Answer:b##Explaination:Central Asian Steppes are located in the heart of the continents and hence have little maritime influence. Thus having extremes of temperature. The greatest difference between Savannah and Central Asian Steppes is that latter are practically treeless. In Central Asian Steppes short steppe type of grass prevails whereas Savannah has tall grasses and Mediterranean has no grasses. Rainfall is a critical variable, which diminishes as the rain-bearing winds from the Atlantic become increasingly erratic east of the Don. These temperature and precipitation gradients make the Ukraine and adjacent parts of Romania far richer natural pastureland than the land farther east. Peoples of the Western Steppe therefore tended to migrate westward along the steppe, seeking better grass and milder temperatures, whenever political conditions allowed them to do so.##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following climate types is/are absent in the southern hemisphere? Laurentian Taiga British type Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Due to the narrowness of the southern continents in high latitudes, Taiga and Laurentian types of climate are absent in Southern Hemisphere. The British type of climate is present in Tasmania, New Zealand, and the southern tip of Chile and Argentina. The Arctic tundra is found almost entirely in the Northern Hemisphere. In the southern hemisphere, it is found on isolated islands off the coast of Antarctica as well as the Antarctic peninsula. Hence only options 1 and 2 are correct.
|
a
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following climate types is/are absent in the southern hemisphere? Laurentian Taiga British type Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Due to the narrowness of the southern continents in high latitudes, Taiga and Laurentian types of climate are absent in Southern Hemisphere. The British type of climate is present in Tasmania, New Zealand, and the southern tip of Chile and Argentina. The Arctic tundra is found almost entirely in the Northern Hemisphere. In the southern hemisphere, it is found on isolated islands off the coast of Antarctica as well as the Antarctic peninsula. Hence only options 1 and 2 are correct.##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following rights are recommended by National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) to be made as Fundamental Rights? Right to privacy and family life Right against torture Right to safe drinking water Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution has recommended that following should be added as new Fundamental Rights: (a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment. (b) Right to compensation ifa person is illegally deprived ofhis right to life or liberty. (c) Right to leave and to return to India. (d) Right to privacy and family life. (e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of80 days in a year. (f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice. (g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid8. (h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children). (i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable development.
|
d
|
Rights Issues etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rights are recommended by National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) to be made as Fundamental Rights? Right to privacy and family life Right against torture Right to safe drinking water Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution has recommended that following should be added as new Fundamental Rights: (a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment. (b) Right to compensation ifa person is illegally deprived ofhis right to life or liberty. (c) Right to leave and to return to India. (d) Right to privacy and family life. (e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of80 days in a year. (f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice. (g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid8. (h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children). (i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable development.##Topic:Rights Issues etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Law Commission of India, consider the following statements: The Law Commission of India is a statutory advisory body. Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body. It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Statement 2 is correct: Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Statement 3 is correct: Its recommendations are not binding on the government.
|
c
|
Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Law Commission of India, consider the following statements: The Law Commission of India is a statutory advisory body. Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body. It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Statement 2 is correct: Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of laws. Statement 3 is correct: Its recommendations are not binding on the government. ##Topic:Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following key rights are guaranteed by the Mental Healthcare Bill, 2013? Manner of Treatment Access to public health care Medical Insurance for mentally ill Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Bill seeks to replace the Mental Health Act, 1987. In 2007, India ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, which requires signatory countries to change their laws to give effect to the rights of persons with mental illness.
Mental illness was earlier defined as any mental disorder other than mental retardation. The Bill passed by Rajya Sabha defines mental illness to mean a disorder of thinking, mood, perception, orientation or memory. Such a disorder impairs a person’s behaviour, judgement, capacity to recognise reality or ability to meet ordinary demands of life. This definition also includes mental conditions associated with substance abuse, and does not include mental retardation.
Key rights being guaranteed under the Bill-
(i) Manner of treatment: The Bill states that every person would have the right to specify how he would like to be treated for mental illness in the event of a mental health situation. An individual will also specify who will be the person responsible for taking decisions with regard to the treatment, his admission into a hospital, etc.
(ii) Access to public health care: The Bill guarantees every person the right to access mental health care and treatment from the government. This right includes affordable, good quality, easy access to services such as minimum mental health services in every district. Persons with mental illness also have the right to equality of treatment and protection from inhuman and degrading treatment.
(iii) Suicide decriminalised: Currently, attempting suicide is punishable with imprisonment for up to a year and/or a fine. The Bill decriminalises suicide. It states that whoever attempts suicide will be presumed to be under severe stress, and shall not punished for it.
(iv) Insurance: The Bill requires that every insurance company shall provide medical insurance for mentally ill persons on the same basis as is available for physical illnesses.
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following key rights are guaranteed by the Mental Healthcare Bill, 2013? Manner of Treatment Access to public health care Medical Insurance for mentally ill Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Bill seeks to replace the Mental Health Act, 1987. In 2007, India ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, which requires signatory countries to change their laws to give effect to the rights of persons with mental illness.
Mental illness was earlier defined as any mental disorder other than mental retardation. The Bill passed by Rajya Sabha defines mental illness to mean a disorder of thinking, mood, perception, orientation or memory. Such a disorder impairs a person’s behaviour, judgement, capacity to recognise reality or ability to meet ordinary demands of life. This definition also includes mental conditions associated with substance abuse, and does not include mental retardation.
Key rights being guaranteed under the Bill-
(i) Manner of treatment: The Bill states that every person would have the right to specify how he would like to be treated for mental illness in the event of a mental health situation. An individual will also specify who will be the person responsible for taking decisions with regard to the treatment, his admission into a hospital, etc.
(ii) Access to public health care: The Bill guarantees every person the right to access mental health care and treatment from the government. This right includes affordable, good quality, easy access to services such as minimum mental health services in every district. Persons with mental illness also have the right to equality of treatment and protection from inhuman and degrading treatment.
(iii) Suicide decriminalised: Currently, attempting suicide is punishable with imprisonment for up to a year and/or a fine. The Bill decriminalises suicide. It states that whoever attempts suicide will be presumed to be under severe stress, and shall not punished for it.
(iv) Insurance: The Bill requires that every insurance company shall provide medical insurance for mentally ill persons on the same basis as is available for physical illnesses.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
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Which among the following aim to promote the human rights? Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Rights Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1 and 2 only
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2 and 3 only
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3 only
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1 and 2 only
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The Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948). The four ideals of the Preamble are aimed at the promotion of human rights such as Justice in social, economic and political spheres, Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. The Fundamental Rights under Part-III of the Constitution contain an elaborate list of civil and political rights. The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part-IV of the Constitution comprise economic, social and cultural rights.
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d
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Rights Issues etc
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following aim to promote the human rights? Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Rights Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948). The four ideals of the Preamble are aimed at the promotion of human rights such as Justice in social, economic and political spheres, Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. The Fundamental Rights under Part-III of the Constitution contain an elaborate list of civil and political rights. The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part-IV of the Constitution comprise economic, social and cultural rights.##Topic:Rights Issues etc##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
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The rights of persons with disabilities have been dealt with in which of the following provisions in the Constitution? Directive Principles of Sate Policy Seventh Schedule Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1 only
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1 and 2 only
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2 and 3 only
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1 only
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Statement 1 is correct: Article 41 states that the state shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. Statement 2 is correct: The subject of “relief of the disabled and unemployable” is specified in List II (State List) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Statement 3 is not correct: Fundamental duties do not have provisions dealing with the rights of persons with disabilities.
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b
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Rights Issues etc
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The rights of persons with disabilities have been dealt with in which of the following provisions in the Constitution? Directive Principles of Sate Policy Seventh Schedule Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Article 41 states that the state shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. Statement 2 is correct: The subject of “relief of the disabled and unemployable” is specified in List II (State List) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Statement 3 is not correct: Fundamental duties do not have provisions dealing with the rights of persons with disabilities.##Topic:Rights Issues etc##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
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