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Which of the following countries is/are not the members of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)? Pakistan China India Israel Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km. China, Israel and Pakistan are not members of MTCR. USA, UK, Russia, France, Japan, Italy, Germany, Brazil, South Korea and Australia are prominent members of the group. Recently India joined MTCR as a full member.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following countries is/are not the members of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)? Pakistan China India Israel Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km. China, Israel and Pakistan are not members of MTCR. USA, UK, Russia, France, Japan, Italy, Germany, Brazil, South Korea and Australia are prominent members of the group. Recently India joined MTCR as a full member.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Basic structure is not defined under the Indian Constitution. Limited power of the Parliament to amend the Indian Constitution is a part of basic structure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Both the statements are correct. The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. Limited power of the Parliament to amend the Indian Constitution is one of the features of the basic structure.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Basic structure is not defined under the Indian Constitution. Limited power of the Parliament to amend the Indian Constitution is a part of basic structure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Both the statements are correct. The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. Limited power of the Parliament to amend the Indian Constitution is one of the features of the basic structure.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
A system of government "A" is represented by political homogeneity, ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and collective responsibility and the Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister. Based on the above features , the system of Government "A" is :
|
Parliamentary System in UK
|
Presidential System in USA
|
Parliamentary System in India
|
Parliamentary System in UK
|
Indian Parliamentary system is characterised by: 1. Political homogeneity i.e.usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the minister are bound by consensus. 2. Secrecy i.e. The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge information about their proceedings, policies and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy before entering their office. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the President. 3. Collective Responsibility i.e. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). 4. Double Membership - The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament. The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.
|
c
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A system of government "A" is represented by political homogeneity, ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and collective responsibility and the Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister. Based on the above features , the system of Government "A" is :##Option_A: Parliamentary System in UK###Option_B: Presidential System in USA##Option_C: Parliamentary System in India##Option_D: Parliamentary System in UK##Answer:c##Explaination:Indian Parliamentary system is characterised by: 1. Political homogeneity i.e.usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the minister are bound by consensus. 2. Secrecy i.e. The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge information about their proceedings, policies and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy before entering their office. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the President. 3. Collective Responsibility i.e. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). 4. Double Membership - The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament. The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following efforts by the government cannot be held as violative of fundamental rights under the Article 14 and 19? Prevention of concentration of wealth Taking over the management of properties by the state Amalgamation of corporations Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 31C provides that the government's efforts to implement DPSPs specified in article 39(b) and 39 (c) cannot be held as violative of fundamental rights under the Article 14 and 19. 39 (b) - distribution of ownership and control of the material resources of the community as best to subserve the common good; 39 (c) prevention of concentration of wealth. Statements 2 and 3 are also correct: Article 31A provide protection for 5 categories of laws from article 14 and 19: (a) Acquisition of estates and related rights by the State; (b) Taking over the management of properties by the State; (c) Amalgamation of corporations; (d) Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of corporations; and (e) Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following efforts by the government cannot be held as violative of fundamental rights under the Article 14 and 19? Prevention of concentration of wealth Taking over the management of properties by the state Amalgamation of corporations Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only ##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Article 31C provides that the government's efforts to implement DPSPs specified in article 39(b) and 39 (c) cannot be held as violative of fundamental rights under the Article 14 and 19. 39 (b) - distribution of ownership and control of the material resources of the community as best to subserve the common good; 39 (c) prevention of concentration of wealth. Statements 2 and 3 are also correct: Article 31A provide protection for 5 categories of laws from article 14 and 19: (a) Acquisition of estates and related rights by the State; (b) Taking over the management of properties by the State; (c) Amalgamation of corporations; (d) Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of corporations; and (e) Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Hague Code of Conduct, seen recently in news, is related to which of the following?
|
Framework for diplomatic relations between countries
|
Phasing out of hydroflourocarbons
|
Prevention of ballistic missile proliferation
|
Framework for diplomatic relations between countries
|
The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), was established in 2002 to prevent the proliferation of ballistic missiles. HCOC is voluntary, legally non-binding, preventing the spread of ballistic missiles that can deliver weapons of mass destruction. India joined the HCOC on 1 June 2016. The number of signatories of HCOC is 138. China, Pakistan, Israel and Iran have not joined the voluntary regime yet.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Hague Code of Conduct, seen recently in news, is related to which of the following?##Option_A: Framework for diplomatic relations between countries###Option_B: Phasing out of hydroflourocarbons##Option_C: Prevention of ballistic missile proliferation##Option_D: Framework for diplomatic relations between countries##Answer:c##Explaination:The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), was established in 2002 to prevent the proliferation of ballistic missiles. HCOC is voluntary, legally non-binding, preventing the spread of ballistic missiles that can deliver weapons of mass destruction. India joined the HCOC on 1 June 2016. The number of signatories of HCOC is 138. China, Pakistan, Israel and Iran have not joined the voluntary regime yet.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The Indian Parliament, through its power under the Article 368, can amend which of the following parts of the constitution? Fundamental Duties Fundamental Rights Schedules Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Through its power under the article 368, Indian parliament can amend all the given parts of the constitution. 1. Through 86th constitutional amendment act, 11th fundamental duty was inserted. 2. Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights.However, it cannot abridge or take away a Fundamental Right that forms a part of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.(Keshvananda Bharti case) 3. Parliament in many occasions has amended the different schedules of the Indian constitution. Originally there were only 8 schedules and 4 more schedules were added subsequently through amendments.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Indian Parliament, through its power under the Article 368, can amend which of the following parts of the constitution? Fundamental Duties Fundamental Rights Schedules Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Through its power under the article 368, Indian parliament can amend all the given parts of the constitution. 1. Through 86th constitutional amendment act, 11th fundamental duty was inserted. 2. Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights.However, it cannot abridge or take away a Fundamental Right that forms a part of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.(Keshvananda Bharti case) 3. Parliament in many occasions has amended the different schedules of the Indian constitution. Originally there were only 8 schedules and 4 more schedules were added subsequently through amendments.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the acquisition of Citizenship in India? The children of foreign diplomats posted in India can acquire Indian citizenship by birth. A person applying for citizenship by naturalisation should have adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian citizenship by birth. Statement 2 is correct : To have an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule is one of the several qualifications prescribed for acquisition of Citizenship by Naturalisation.
|
b
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the acquisition of Citizenship in India? The children of foreign diplomats posted in India can acquire Indian citizenship by birth. A person applying for citizenship by naturalisation should have adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian citizenship by birth. Statement 2 is correct : To have an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule is one of the several qualifications prescribed for acquisition of Citizenship by Naturalisation.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are not the part of Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the Constitution? Right to telecast Right to property Right to obtain recognition of the association Freedom of commercial advertisements Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is a Fundamental Right - Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly on electronic media is a Fundamental Right under Freedom of Speech and Expression. Statement 2 is not a Fundamental Right - Originally, the right to property was one of the seven fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution. It was dealt by Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading 'Right to Property'. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a fundamental right. Statement 3 is not a Fundamental Right - Although citizens have the right to form associations and unions under Art. 19(c). However, the right to obtain recognition of the association is not a fundamental right. Statement 4 is a Fundamental Right under Freedom of Speech and Expression.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are not the part of Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the Constitution? Right to telecast Right to property Right to obtain recognition of the association Freedom of commercial advertisements Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is a Fundamental Right - Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly on electronic media is a Fundamental Right under Freedom of Speech and Expression. Statement 2 is not a Fundamental Right - Originally, the right to property was one of the seven fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution. It was dealt by Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading 'Right to Property'. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a fundamental right. Statement 3 is not a Fundamental Right - Although citizens have the right to form associations and unions under Art. 19(c). However, the right to obtain recognition of the association is not a fundamental right. Statement 4 is a Fundamental Right under Freedom of Speech and Expression.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Objectives of Privatisation Policy are -
|
To improve government’s financial position
|
To improve performance of the enterprise
|
To reduce the burden on public administration
|
To improve government’s financial position
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Objectives of Privatisation Policy are -##Option_A:To improve government’s financial position###Option_B:To improve performance of the enterprise##Option_C:To reduce the burden on public administration##Option_D:To improve government’s financial position##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Competition Act and Competition Commission of India directives, which of the following constitutes unfair competition?
Collusive price-fixing by companies
Dividing territories between companies by mutual agreement
Deliberate reduction in output
Predatory pricing
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
|
1, 2 and 3 Only
|
2, 3 and 4 Only
|
3 and 4 Only
|
1, 2 and 3 Only
|
.
|
d
|
Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Competition Act and Competition Commission of India directives, which of the following constitutes unfair competition?
Collusive price-fixing by companies
Dividing territories between companies by mutual agreement
Deliberate reduction in output
Predatory pricing
Choose the correct answer using the codes below##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 Only###Option_B:2, 3 and 4 Only##Option_C:3 and 4 Only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 Only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in India, consider the following statements
1. Companies have to earmark 50% of the 2% of the net profit of the companies under CSR activities to invest exclusively for afforestation
2. According to Competition Act 2013, CSR is mandatory for every Indian private and public company
3. Foreign companies are exempted from investing in CSR according to the Competition Act 2013
4. India is the only country in the world that has made legislation for CSR spending
Which of the above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 2 Only
|
1, 2 and 3 Only
|
2 and 3 Only
|
1 and 2 Only
|
.
|
c
|
Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in India, consider the following statements
1. Companies have to earmark 50% of the 2% of the net profit of the companies under CSR activities to invest exclusively for afforestation
2. According to Competition Act 2013, CSR is mandatory for every Indian private and public company
3. Foreign companies are exempted from investing in CSR according to the Competition Act 2013
4. India is the only country in the world that has made legislation for CSR spending
Which of the above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A:1 and 2 Only###Option_B:1, 2 and 3 Only##Option_C: 2 and 3 Only##Option_D:1 and 2 Only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Article 1 of the Constitution describes India i.e. Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. What does that imply?
1. India is an indestructible union of destructible federal units
2. Indian union was formed as an agreement among states
3. States have the right to secede from the union
Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as many new states have been created since independence eg. Gujarat, Nagaland, Telangana etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect as individual states did not agree to form the Indian union
Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no provision for secession by states in India
|
a
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Article 1 of the Constitution describes India i.e. Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. What does that imply?
1. India is an indestructible union of destructible federal units
2. Indian union was formed as an agreement among states
3. States have the right to secede from the union
Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as many new states have been created since independence eg. Gujarat, Nagaland, Telangana etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect as individual states did not agree to form the Indian union
Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no provision for secession by states in India
##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the features deem Indian form of government as a Parliamentary form of government?
|
Strict separation of power between the three organs of the Government, thereby, no encroachment of one organ with regard to the jurisdiction of the other two organs
|
Provision of collective responsibility of members of the Executive to the members of the Legislature
|
Existence of Dual Executive—nominal and real
|
Strict separation of power between the three organs of the Government, thereby, no encroachment of one organ with regard to the jurisdiction of the other two organs
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as in India, there is no strict separation between the Executive and Legislature as members of the Executive are also the members of the Legislature
Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct and denote features of the Indian Parliamentary System
|
a
|
Political systems: concepts, forms and types
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the features deem Indian form of government as a Parliamentary form of government?
##Option_A:Strict separation of power between the three organs of the Government, thereby, no encroachment of one organ with regard to the jurisdiction of the other two organs
###Option_B:Provision of collective responsibility of members of the Executive to the members of the Legislature
##Option_C:Existence of Dual Executive—nominal and real
##Option_D:Strict separation of power between the three organs of the Government, thereby, no encroachment of one organ with regard to the jurisdiction of the other two organs
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as in India, there is no strict separation between the Executive and Legislature as members of the Executive are also the members of the Legislature
Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct and denote features of the Indian Parliamentary System
##Topic:Political systems: concepts, forms and types##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
What is the purpose of ADR?
|
Help an American company raise money from within the USA
|
Help an American company raise money from outside of USA
|
Help foreign companies raise money from the American financial market.
|
Help an American company raise money from within the USA
|
.
|
c
|
FDI/FII etc
|
Commerce & Accountancy
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the purpose of ADR?##Option_A:Help an American company raise money from within the USA###Option_B:Help an American company raise money from outside of USA##Option_C:Help foreign companies raise money from the American financial market.##Option_D:Help an American company raise money from within the USA##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:FDI/FII etc##Subject:Commerce & Accountancy##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about Mauryan King Ashoka: 1. Ashoka Dhamma’s primary objective was to attract and convert people to the Buddhist religion. 2. King Ashoka appointed the special officials for the peaceful functioning of the principles of Dhamma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Ashoka is considered as one of the greatest kings in Indian history. He is praised so much for his policy of Dhamma. According to some of scholars Ashoka was a follower of Buddhism and through Dhamma he tried to propagate the principles of Buddhism. But this does not seem to be true as Dhamma had nothing to do with the propagation of Buddhism. It was a code of conduct or ideal social behaviour common to all religions of the world, which he appealed to his subjects to follow. Although Ashoka himself believed in Buddhism, he never discriminated against other faiths or religions. Ashokan edicts illustrates that basic attributes of Dhamma included compassion (daya), charity (dana), truthfulness, purity and gentleness. Pillar EdictIII asks subjects to control violence, cruelty, anger and envy. Rock edict I call for a ban on animal sacrifice and social gatherings like samaj. The Rock Edict II declares measures to be taken for the construction of hospitals, roads, inns, wells and planting of shade giving trees. Third, Fourth and Twelfth rock edicts ask people to respect parents, relatives, brahmanas and shramanas (monks). Twelfth rock edict is specially important since it says “ the king Piyadassi, the beloved of the gods, respected all sects whether ascetics or householders, and he honours them with gifts and honours of various kinds…let an alien sect also be respected on every occasion.” It shows clearly that neither Dhamma was Buddhism nor Ashoka was trying to convert people to Buddhism. Statement 2 is correct: He appointed a special type of officials called dhamma mahamatras. Their main function was to over see and supervise the peaceful function of the principles of Dhamma. He appointed Rajukas for the administration of justice in empire.
|
b
|
Guptas Age & Post Guptas Age
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Mauryan King Ashoka: 1. Ashoka Dhamma’s primary objective was to attract and convert people to the Buddhist religion. 2. King Ashoka appointed the special officials for the peaceful functioning of the principles of Dhamma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Ashoka is considered as one of the greatest kings in Indian history. He is praised so much for his policy of Dhamma. According to some of scholars Ashoka was a follower of Buddhism and through Dhamma he tried to propagate the principles of Buddhism. But this does not seem to be true as Dhamma had nothing to do with the propagation of Buddhism. It was a code of conduct or ideal social behaviour common to all religions of the world, which he appealed to his subjects to follow. Although Ashoka himself believed in Buddhism, he never discriminated against other faiths or religions. Ashokan edicts illustrates that basic attributes of Dhamma included compassion (daya), charity (dana), truthfulness, purity and gentleness. Pillar EdictIII asks subjects to control violence, cruelty, anger and envy. Rock edict I call for a ban on animal sacrifice and social gatherings like samaj. The Rock Edict II declares measures to be taken for the construction of hospitals, roads, inns, wells and planting of shade giving trees. Third, Fourth and Twelfth rock edicts ask people to respect parents, relatives, brahmanas and shramanas (monks). Twelfth rock edict is specially important since it says “ the king Piyadassi, the beloved of the gods, respected all sects whether ascetics or householders, and he honours them with gifts and honours of various kinds…let an alien sect also be respected on every occasion.” It shows clearly that neither Dhamma was Buddhism nor Ashoka was trying to convert people to Buddhism. Statement 2 is correct: He appointed a special type of officials called dhamma mahamatras. Their main function was to over see and supervise the peaceful function of the principles of Dhamma. He appointed Rajukas for the administration of justice in empire.##Topic:Guptas Age & Post Guptas Age##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to article 22, which of the following statements is/are correct?
The person who is arrested shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours.
The person can be arrested merely on the grounds of suspicion.
The safeguards under article 22 are also applicable to a person who is arrested under preventive detention procedures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to article 22, which of the following statements is/are correct?
The person who is arrested shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours.
The person can be arrested merely on the grounds of suspicion.
The safeguards under article 22 are also applicable to a person who is arrested under preventive detention procedures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
Non-minority institutions have to give reservations to SC/ST.
Minority educational institutions can’t be forced to provide reservations to a special category of people. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Non-minority institutions have to give reservations to SC/ST.
Minority educational institutions can’t be forced to provide reservations to a special category of people. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Writs mentioned in Article 32, which of the following statements given below is/are correct?
1. Habeas corpus can be issued against a private individual.
2. Mandamus can be issued against a private individual.
3. Prohibition can be issued against administrative authorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
nan
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Writs mentioned in Article 32, which of the following statements given below is/are correct?
1. Habeas corpus can be issued against a private individual.
2. Mandamus can be issued against a private individual.
3. Prohibition can be issued against administrative authorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the follwing can be considered as the objective/s of Government budgeting?
|
Allocation function
|
Distribution function
|
Stabilization function
|
Allocation function
|
nan
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the follwing can be considered as the objective/s of Government budgeting?##Option_A:Allocation function###Option_B:Distribution function##Option_C:Stabilization function##Option_D:Allocation function##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With regard to election of Indian President, consider the following statements: Legislative Councils of states have no role in it. Election of a person as President can be declared void by Supreme Court only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The President elections is held with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot.The Election Commission of India ( Article 324) is vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of conducting the elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India. Statement 1 is correct: he legislative Councils have no role in electing the President. The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of - (a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and (b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment Act, 1992). Statement 2 is correct: Article 71 stipulates that all doubts arising out of election of the president will be decided by the “Supreme Court” whose decision is final. Therefore Supreme Court of India is the only authority to try an election petition regarding President’s election and declare the elections as void.
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to election of Indian President, consider the following statements: Legislative Councils of states have no role in it. Election of a person as President can be declared void by Supreme Court only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The President elections is held with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot.The Election Commission of India ( Article 324) is vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of conducting the elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India. Statement 1 is correct: he legislative Councils have no role in electing the President. The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of - (a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and (b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment Act, 1992). Statement 2 is correct: Article 71 stipulates that all doubts arising out of election of the president will be decided by the “Supreme Court” whose decision is final. Therefore Supreme Court of India is the only authority to try an election petition regarding President’s election and declare the elections as void.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements: The members are elected from both the houses of the Parliament. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Unlike Estimates committee, PAC examines public expenditures both from the point of view of economy and legal irregularities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. It consists of 22 members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).The members are elected by the Parliament . Statement 2 correct : A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Statement 3 is correct : The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the president. The committee examines public expenditure not only from legal and formal point of view to discover technical irregularities but also from the point of view of economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory expenses. Whereas, the function of the Estimates committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public expenditure only.
|
d
|
Committees of Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements: The members are elected from both the houses of the Parliament. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Unlike Estimates committee, PAC examines public expenditures both from the point of view of economy and legal irregularities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. It consists of 22 members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).The members are elected by the Parliament . Statement 2 correct : A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Statement 3 is correct : The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the president. The committee examines public expenditure not only from legal and formal point of view to discover technical irregularities but also from the point of view of economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory expenses. Whereas, the function of the Estimates committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public expenditure only.##Topic:Committees of Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to the office of the President, consider the following statements : The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India. President addresses resignation letter to Chief Justice of India. A Governor cannot contest the elections to the office of President Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The oath of office is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost judge of SC available. Statement 2 is not correct : President can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Vice President. Statement 3 is not correct : A person to be eligible for election as President should not hold any office of profit. A sitting President, Vice President, Governor and ministers of union and state are not deemed to hold any office of profit and hence qualified as a presidential candidate.
|
a
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the office of the President, consider the following statements : The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India. President addresses resignation letter to Chief Justice of India. A Governor cannot contest the elections to the office of President Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : The oath of office is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost judge of SC available. Statement 2 is not correct : President can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Vice President. Statement 3 is not correct : A person to be eligible for election as President should not hold any office of profit. A sitting President, Vice President, Governor and ministers of union and state are not deemed to hold any office of profit and hence qualified as a presidential candidate.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
According to the Constitution of India, President can be impeached for which of the following reasons? Insolvency Misbehavior Violation of Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 61 in the Indian Constitution provides a procedure for removal of President. According to this article President can only be removed by an impeachment. And the only reason for impeachment mentioned in the Constitution is for 'violation of the Constitution.' Impeachment Procedure: The charges for impeachment should be signed by 1/4 members of the house in which the process begins and a notice of 14 days should be given to the President. The impeachment bill has to be passed by majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House {special majority}. Once passed in that house, the bill reaches to another house, which shall investigate the charges. President has right to appear and be represented in case of such investigations. If other house also sustains those charges, then it would again need to pass the bill by special majority and thus president stands removed from the office on which the bill is passed in other house. Since it is a bill for removal of president himself, no presidential assent is needed here.
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to the Constitution of India, President can be impeached for which of the following reasons? Insolvency Misbehavior Violation of Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Article 61 in the Indian Constitution provides a procedure for removal of President. According to this article President can only be removed by an impeachment. And the only reason for impeachment mentioned in the Constitution is for 'violation of the Constitution.' Impeachment Procedure: The charges for impeachment should be signed by 1/4 members of the house in which the process begins and a notice of 14 days should be given to the President. The impeachment bill has to be passed by majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House {special majority}. Once passed in that house, the bill reaches to another house, which shall investigate the charges. President has right to appear and be represented in case of such investigations. If other house also sustains those charges, then it would again need to pass the bill by special majority and thus president stands removed from the office on which the bill is passed in other house. Since it is a bill for removal of president himself, no presidential assent is needed here.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following provisions about the Anti Defection Act:
1. It was passed by the Parliament in 1985 and its provisions are contained in the 9 th Schedule of the Constitution
2. A Member of Parliament or State Legislature is deemed to have defected if he/she either voluntarily resigns from his/her party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote
3. Elected independent members are free to join a political party of their choice
4. If two-thirds of party legislators join another party, it is not deemed as anti-defection
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as the act was passed by the Parliament in 1985, but its provisions are contained in the 10 th Schedule of the Constitution
Statement 2 is Correct as even if a member votes in contravention to the party’s whip, he/she will have to resign. Moreover, an elected party member cannot resign the party and join another party
Statement 3 is incorrect as elected independent members will be disqualified if they join any political party. However, nominated members who were not members of a party during elections can choose to join a party within six months; after that period, they are treated either as a party member or an independent member.
Statement 4 is correct as the act has provisions for group defection if 2/3rd members of a party decide to leave the party, however, individual defection is not permitted
|
a
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following provisions about the Anti Defection Act:
1. It was passed by the Parliament in 1985 and its provisions are contained in the 9 th Schedule of the Constitution
2. A Member of Parliament or State Legislature is deemed to have defected if he/she either voluntarily resigns from his/her party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote
3. Elected independent members are free to join a political party of their choice
4. If two-thirds of party legislators join another party, it is not deemed as anti-defection
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 2 and 4 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 2 and 4 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as the act was passed by the Parliament in 1985, but its provisions are contained in the 10 th Schedule of the Constitution
Statement 2 is Correct as even if a member votes in contravention to the party’s whip, he/she will have to resign. Moreover, an elected party member cannot resign the party and join another party
Statement 3 is incorrect as elected independent members will be disqualified if they join any political party. However, nominated members who were not members of a party during elections can choose to join a party within six months; after that period, they are treated either as a party member or an independent member.
Statement 4 is correct as the act has provisions for group defection if 2/3rd members of a party decide to leave the party, however, individual defection is not permitted
##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Recently Manamadurai-Rameswaram stretch became India"s first Green Rail Corridor as:
|
it will consume energy generated only from renewable sources.
|
land alongside the tracks will be used only for tree plantation.
|
it runs through two major wildlife sanctuaries.
|
it will consume energy generated only from renewable sources.
|
India's first Green Rail Corridor has been inaugurated on the 114-km long Rameswaram- Manamadurai stretch in Tamil Nadu. About 150 coaches in 13 pairs of express and passenger trains, running in the section, would have bio-toilets and there would be zero discharge of human waste on tracks in the section. Rameswaram railway station, which handled the trains, had already been developed as a 'Green Station' to handle the bio-toilets in the coaches. To ensure proper working of the bio-toilets, Southern Railway has established a bio-lab at the coaching depot, which handled the coaches, for testing the discharge. Indian Railway has developed the environment friendly ‘IR-DRDO Bio-toilets’, in association with Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Regenerative type anaerobic bacteria in liquid form are poured into the six-chamber retention tanks in the bio-toilets and the bacteria helps in disintegrating human waste into liquid and gas. The liquid is chlorinated and discharged with no harm to the environment.
|
d
|
Places(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently Manamadurai-Rameswaram stretch became India"s first Green Rail Corridor as:##Option_A: it will consume energy generated only from renewable sources.###Option_B: land alongside the tracks will be used only for tree plantation.##Option_C: it runs through two major wildlife sanctuaries.##Option_D: it will consume energy generated only from renewable sources.##Answer:d##Explaination:India's first Green Rail Corridor has been inaugurated on the 114-km long Rameswaram- Manamadurai stretch in Tamil Nadu. About 150 coaches in 13 pairs of express and passenger trains, running in the section, would have bio-toilets and there would be zero discharge of human waste on tracks in the section. Rameswaram railway station, which handled the trains, had already been developed as a 'Green Station' to handle the bio-toilets in the coaches. To ensure proper working of the bio-toilets, Southern Railway has established a bio-lab at the coaching depot, which handled the coaches, for testing the discharge. Indian Railway has developed the environment friendly ‘IR-DRDO Bio-toilets’, in association with Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Regenerative type anaerobic bacteria in liquid form are poured into the six-chamber retention tanks in the bio-toilets and the bacteria helps in disintegrating human waste into liquid and gas. The liquid is chlorinated and discharged with no harm to the environment.##Topic:Places(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
With respect to Lok Sabha, President can exercise which of the following powers? Summon Prorogue Adjourn Dissolve Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
President has the following powers: summon and prorogue both houses of Parliament. dissolve the Lok sabha. summon the joint sitting. Whereas the power to adjourn Lok sabha lies with the Speaker and to adjourn Rajya sabha lies with the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.(An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours, days or weeks)
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With respect to Lok Sabha, President can exercise which of the following powers? Summon Prorogue Adjourn Dissolve Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:President has the following powers: summon and prorogue both houses of Parliament. dissolve the Lok sabha. summon the joint sitting. Whereas the power to adjourn Lok sabha lies with the Speaker and to adjourn Rajya sabha lies with the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.(An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours, days or weeks)##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
President of India has no veto power with respect to which of the following bills ? Money bills of the Centre Money bills of the States Constitutional Amendment Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Indian President has the veto power over the bills passed by both the Parliament and State legislature.The veto power enjoyed by Indian President can be classified into the following three types: Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature. Suspensive veto, which can be over ridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority. Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature. The President of India has no veto power in respect of a Constitutional Amendment Bill . The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Under the Constitution ( Articles 111 and 201) , a Money Bill ( both Centre and State) cannot be returned to the House by the President for reconsideration but he may either give or withhold his assent to a Money Bill.
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:President of India has no veto power with respect to which of the following bills ? Money bills of the Centre Money bills of the States Constitutional Amendment Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Indian President has the veto power over the bills passed by both the Parliament and State legislature.The veto power enjoyed by Indian President can be classified into the following three types: Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature. Suspensive veto, which can be over ridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority. Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature. The President of India has no veto power in respect of a Constitutional Amendment Bill . The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Under the Constitution ( Articles 111 and 201) , a Money Bill ( both Centre and State) cannot be returned to the House by the President for reconsideration but he may either give or withhold his assent to a Money Bill.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the 'None Of The Above' (NOTA) option , consider the following statements: It provides the citizens their right to reject. NOTA option is not used in elections for local bodies. The NOTA option can be exercised only in the presence of a Returning officer. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : NOTA provides the citizens to cast a negative opinion and not right to reject. Supreme court has held that not allowing a person to cast a negative vote would defeat the very freedom of expression and the right to liberty. Statement 2 is not correct : The NOTA option is used in local bodies election in various states like Karnataka, Chandigarh etc. Statement 3 is not correct : Before the NOTA option came in existence, people casting negative votes were required to enter their names in a register and cast their vote on a separate paper ballot. This provision was, however, deemed unconstitutional by the SC as it did not protect the identity of the voter. NOTA protects the identity of a voter, thus keeping the concept of secret balloting intact.
|
d
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the 'None Of The Above' (NOTA) option , consider the following statements: It provides the citizens their right to reject. NOTA option is not used in elections for local bodies. The NOTA option can be exercised only in the presence of a Returning officer. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : NOTA provides the citizens to cast a negative opinion and not right to reject. Supreme court has held that not allowing a person to cast a negative vote would defeat the very freedom of expression and the right to liberty. Statement 2 is not correct : The NOTA option is used in local bodies election in various states like Karnataka, Chandigarh etc. Statement 3 is not correct : Before the NOTA option came in existence, people casting negative votes were required to enter their names in a register and cast their vote on a separate paper ballot. This provision was, however, deemed unconstitutional by the SC as it did not protect the identity of the voter. NOTA protects the identity of a voter, thus keeping the concept of secret balloting intact.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following provisions about Section 58A of the Representation to People Act, 1951, which was recently in news:
Statement 1. It empowers the election poll watchdog to adjourn or cancel elections on the ground of booth capturing
Statement 2: It empowers the election poll watchdog to adjourn or cancel elections on the ground of use of money power
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as Section 58A was introduced in the 1980s when booth capturing was rampant during elections in many parts of the country. EVMs were not used in elections during that time.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Election Commission of India has written to the Centre seeking amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to confer specific powers on the election watchdog to postpone or countermand polls based on evidence that money power was used to influence voters. Use of money power is now considered a major deterrent in the smooth functioning of the election process by the Election Commission.
|
a
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following provisions about Section 58A of the Representation to People Act, 1951, which was recently in news:
Statement 1. It empowers the election poll watchdog to adjourn or cancel elections on the ground of booth capturing
Statement 2: It empowers the election poll watchdog to adjourn or cancel elections on the ground of use of money power
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as Section 58A was introduced in the 1980s when booth capturing was rampant during elections in many parts of the country. EVMs were not used in elections during that time.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Election Commission of India has written to the Centre seeking amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to confer specific powers on the election watchdog to postpone or countermand polls based on evidence that money power was used to influence voters. Use of money power is now considered a major deterrent in the smooth functioning of the election process by the Election Commission.
##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following states became the first state in the country to set up a "Happiness Department"?
|
Sikkim
|
Gujarat
|
Goa
|
Sikkim
|
Madhya Pradesh has become the first State in the country to set up a 'Happiness Department'. It will work to ensure "happiness in the lives of the common people" on the lines of the neighbouring country Bhutan. The newly-constituted department will give suggestions to ensure happiness in the lives of the people. The State Government believes that happiness will not come into the lives of people merely with materialistic possessions or development but by infusing positivity in their lives so that they don’t take extreme steps like suicide.
|
d
|
Events.National
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following states became the first state in the country to set up a "Happiness Department"?##Option_A: Sikkim###Option_B: Gujarat##Option_C: Goa##Option_D: Sikkim##Answer:d##Explaination:Madhya Pradesh has become the first State in the country to set up a 'Happiness Department'. It will work to ensure "happiness in the lives of the common people" on the lines of the neighbouring country Bhutan. The newly-constituted department will give suggestions to ensure happiness in the lives of the people. The State Government believes that happiness will not come into the lives of people merely with materialistic possessions or development but by infusing positivity in their lives so that they don’t take extreme steps like suicide.##Topic:Events.National##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
With regard to Contingency Fund of India, consider the following statements : The fund is held by Prime Minister"s office on behalf of the President to meet contingency needs like natural disasters and calamities. The payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Constitution authorized the Parliament to establish a ‘Contingency Fund of India’, into which amounts determined by law are paid from time to time. Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the contingency fund of India Act in 1950. This fund is placed at the disposal of the President, and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its authorization by the Parliament. The fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the president. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action i.e. that is, the payments from this account can by made without parliamentary appropriation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) - It was established in 1948 with public contributions to assist displaced persons from Pakistan. The resources of the PMNRF are now utilized primarily to render immediate relief to families of those killed in natural calamities like floods, cyclones and earthquakes, etc. and to the victims of the major accidents and riots, etc.The fund consists entirely of public contributions and does not get any budgetary support. The corpus of the fund is invested with PSU banks in various forms. Disbursements are made with the approval of the Prime Minister. PMNRF has not been constituted by the Parliament. PMNRF operates from the Prime Minister’s Office. PMNRF is exempt under Income Tax Act, 1961 under Section 10 and 139 for return purposes. PMNRF accepts only voluntary donations by individuals and institutions. Contributions flowing out of budgetary sources of Government or from the balance sheets of the public sector undertakings are not accepted.
|
b
|
Power and Functions of the parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Contingency Fund of India, consider the following statements : The fund is held by Prime Minister"s office on behalf of the President to meet contingency needs like natural disasters and calamities. The payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Constitution authorized the Parliament to establish a ‘Contingency Fund of India’, into which amounts determined by law are paid from time to time. Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the contingency fund of India Act in 1950. This fund is placed at the disposal of the President, and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its authorization by the Parliament. The fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the president. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action i.e. that is, the payments from this account can by made without parliamentary appropriation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) - It was established in 1948 with public contributions to assist displaced persons from Pakistan. The resources of the PMNRF are now utilized primarily to render immediate relief to families of those killed in natural calamities like floods, cyclones and earthquakes, etc. and to the victims of the major accidents and riots, etc.The fund consists entirely of public contributions and does not get any budgetary support. The corpus of the fund is invested with PSU banks in various forms. Disbursements are made with the approval of the Prime Minister. PMNRF has not been constituted by the Parliament. PMNRF operates from the Prime Minister’s Office. PMNRF is exempt under Income Tax Act, 1961 under Section 10 and 139 for return purposes. PMNRF accepts only voluntary donations by individuals and institutions. Contributions flowing out of budgetary sources of Government or from the balance sheets of the public sector undertakings are not accepted.##Topic:Power and Functions of the parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Plate boundaries, consider the following statements:
Divergent boundaries do not form oceanic and continental plates side by side.
Convergent boundaries can’t occur between two continental plates.
Strong volcanic eruptions are associated with the convergent boundaries between two continental plates.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
There are many examples of continent-continent convergence, like the Indian-Eurasian plate convergence that created the Himalayas.
Continental plate convergence does not see volcanic activity because the continental plates are not dense enough to subduct. Hence the required temperature and pressure for magma formation are absent
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Plate boundaries, consider the following statements:
Divergent boundaries do not form oceanic and continental plates side by side.
Convergent boundaries can’t occur between two continental plates.
Strong volcanic eruptions are associated with the convergent boundaries between two continental plates.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:There are many examples of continent-continent convergence, like the Indian-Eurasian plate convergence that created the Himalayas.
Continental plate convergence does not see volcanic activity because the continental plates are not dense enough to subduct. Hence the required temperature and pressure for magma formation are absent##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
Sea floor spreading is the phenomenon occurs at convergent plate boundaries.
Volcanic island arcs are associated with ocean-continent convergent plate boundaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Sea floor spreading is the phenomenon occurs at convergent plate boundaries.
Volcanic island arcs are associated with ocean-continent convergent plate boundaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Sea Floor Spreading, consider the following statements:
The age of the Oceanic lithosphere increases with distance from a mid-ocean ridge.
The thickness of the lithosphere increases with distance from a mid-ocean ridge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Sea Floor Spreading, consider the following statements:
The age of the Oceanic lithosphere increases with distance from a mid-ocean ridge.
The thickness of the lithosphere increases with distance from a mid-ocean ridge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are correct regarding the National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms?
1. Under the mission amendments to the Negotiable Instruments Act will be made to reduce increasing litigation relating to cheque bounce cases.
2. A National Court Management System will be set up for monitoring the performance of courts in the country.
3. The mission recommends dilution of the Criminal Procedure Code for reducing pendency of cases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
1, 2 and 3
|
The National Mission for Justice Delivery and legal Reforms was set up in 2011 to achieve the twin goals of increasing access by reducing delays and arrears; and enhancing accountability through structural changes and by setting performance standards and capacities. T he Mission has taken the follwing steps in each of the strategic areas towards fulfillment of its objectives:
1. Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, a proposal has been formulated for constitution of All India Judicial Service, with a view to reduce government litigation, Litigation Policies have been formulated at the national and state level.
2. A n Inter-Ministerial Group has been constituted to suggest necessary amendments to the Negotiable Instruments Act along with other policy and administrative measures to check increasing litigation relating to cheque bounce cases.
3. A National Court Management System has been notified by the Supreme Court for addressing the issues of case management, court management, setting measurable standards for performance of the courts and the National System of Judicial Statistics in the country.
4. Infrastructure development for the subordinate judiciary is a major thrust area of the National Mission. With a view to enhancing the resources of the State Governments, the Government has increased the central share by revising the funding pattern from 50:50 to 75:25 for States other than North Eastern States and 90:10 for North Eastern States.
5. The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 has been enacted for establishment of Gram Nyayalayas at the grass roots level for providing access to justice to citizens at their doorstep.
6. A pendency reduction drive was initiated on a campaign mode for clearing long pending cases and cases relating to marginalized sections of the society.
|
c
|
Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are correct regarding the National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms?
1. Under the mission amendments to the Negotiable Instruments Act will be made to reduce increasing litigation relating to cheque bounce cases.
2. A National Court Management System will be set up for monitoring the performance of courts in the country.
3. The mission recommends dilution of the Criminal Procedure Code for reducing pendency of cases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B: 2 and 3
##Option_C: 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:c##Explaination:
The National Mission for Justice Delivery and legal Reforms was set up in 2011 to achieve the twin goals of increasing access by reducing delays and arrears; and enhancing accountability through structural changes and by setting performance standards and capacities. T he Mission has taken the follwing steps in each of the strategic areas towards fulfillment of its objectives:
1. Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, a proposal has been formulated for constitution of All India Judicial Service, with a view to reduce government litigation, Litigation Policies have been formulated at the national and state level.
2. A n Inter-Ministerial Group has been constituted to suggest necessary amendments to the Negotiable Instruments Act along with other policy and administrative measures to check increasing litigation relating to cheque bounce cases.
3. A National Court Management System has been notified by the Supreme Court for addressing the issues of case management, court management, setting measurable standards for performance of the courts and the National System of Judicial Statistics in the country.
4. Infrastructure development for the subordinate judiciary is a major thrust area of the National Mission. With a view to enhancing the resources of the State Governments, the Government has increased the central share by revising the funding pattern from 50:50 to 75:25 for States other than North Eastern States and 90:10 for North Eastern States.
5. The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 has been enacted for establishment of Gram Nyayalayas at the grass roots level for providing access to justice to citizens at their doorstep.
6. A pendency reduction drive was initiated on a campaign mode for clearing long pending cases and cases relating to marginalized sections of the society.
##Topic:Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following can trigger a tsunami?
|
Undersea earthquakes
|
Undersea landslides
|
The eruption of an oceanic volcano
|
Undersea earthquakes
|
.
|
d
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following can trigger a tsunami?##Option_A:Undersea earthquakes###Option_B:Undersea landslides##Option_C:The eruption of an oceanic volcano##Option_D:Undersea earthquakes##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Volcanic landforms, consider the following statements:
Batholiths are extrusive formations.
Calderas are formed due to effusive eruptions of the volcanoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Volcanic landforms, consider the following statements:
Batholiths are extrusive formations.
Calderas are formed due to effusive eruptions of the volcanoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Election Commission takes the decision on assigning the symbol in case of the split of a recognized political party. 2. A reserved symbol is only allotted to the candidates set up by the National or State party. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Symbols allocation to political parties: Recently the Madras High Court has decided to examine whether it was fair on the part of the Election Commission of India (ECI) to allot permanent election symbols to recognized political parties alone and deny such a benefit to the registered but unrecognized political parties. As per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) (Amendment) Order, 2017 , party symbols are either: Reserved: National parties and state parties across the country have “reserved” symbols. Free: The Election Commission also has a pool of nearly 200 “free” symbols that are allotted to the thousands of unrecognized regional parties that pop up before elections. A reserved symbol will only be allotted to the candidates set up by the National or State party and not to anyone else. . Hence statement 2 is correct. If a political party, which is a recognized State Party in some states, nominates a candidate in states in which it isn’t recognized as a state party, then the candidate, to the exclusion of all the other candidates, shall be allotted the symbol, provided that the symbol is not listed as a free symbol. How are symbols allotted to political parties? A party/candidate has to provide a list of three symbols from the EC’s free symbols list at the time of filing nomination papers. Among them, one symbol is allotted to the party/candidate on a first-come-first-serve basis. When a recognized political party splits, the Election Commission takes the decision on assigning the symbol. Powers of Election Commission: The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the EC to recognize political parties and allot symbols. Under Paragraph 15 of the Order, it can decide disputes among rival groups or sections of a recognized political party staking claim to its name and symbol. The EC is also the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger. Hence statement 1 is correct.
|
c
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Election Commission takes the decision on assigning the symbol in case of the split of a recognized political party. 2. A reserved symbol is only allotted to the candidates set up by the National or State party. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Symbols allocation to political parties: Recently the Madras High Court has decided to examine whether it was fair on the part of the Election Commission of India (ECI) to allot permanent election symbols to recognized political parties alone and deny such a benefit to the registered but unrecognized political parties. As per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) (Amendment) Order, 2017 , party symbols are either: Reserved: National parties and state parties across the country have “reserved” symbols. Free: The Election Commission also has a pool of nearly 200 “free” symbols that are allotted to the thousands of unrecognized regional parties that pop up before elections. A reserved symbol will only be allotted to the candidates set up by the National or State party and not to anyone else. . Hence statement 2 is correct. If a political party, which is a recognized State Party in some states, nominates a candidate in states in which it isn’t recognized as a state party, then the candidate, to the exclusion of all the other candidates, shall be allotted the symbol, provided that the symbol is not listed as a free symbol. How are symbols allotted to political parties? A party/candidate has to provide a list of three symbols from the EC’s free symbols list at the time of filing nomination papers. Among them, one symbol is allotted to the party/candidate on a first-come-first-serve basis. When a recognized political party splits, the Election Commission takes the decision on assigning the symbol. Powers of Election Commission: The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the EC to recognize political parties and allot symbols. Under Paragraph 15 of the Order, it can decide disputes among rival groups or sections of a recognized political party staking claim to its name and symbol. The EC is also the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger. Hence statement 1 is correct.##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP), consider the following statements: It is a programme designed to educate citizens in order to increase their awareness of the electoral processes. It takes the history of a state's electoral participation into consideration. It has been launched by Election Commission of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP) is a programme of multi interventions through different modes and media designed to educate citizens, electors and voters about the electoral process in order to increase their awareness and participation in the electoral processes. Statement 2 is correct : SVEEP is designed according to the socio-economic, cultural and demographic profile of the state as well as the history of electoral participation in previous rounds of elections and learning thereof. Statement 3 is correct : Systematic Voter’s Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP) was launched by Election Commission of India.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP), consider the following statements: It is a programme designed to educate citizens in order to increase their awareness of the electoral processes. It takes the history of a state's electoral participation into consideration. It has been launched by Election Commission of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP) is a programme of multi interventions through different modes and media designed to educate citizens, electors and voters about the electoral process in order to increase their awareness and participation in the electoral processes. Statement 2 is correct : SVEEP is designed according to the socio-economic, cultural and demographic profile of the state as well as the history of electoral participation in previous rounds of elections and learning thereof. Statement 3 is correct : Systematic Voter’s Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP) was launched by Election Commission of India.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Election Commission of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections only for elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures
2. The Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such other election commissioners, if any, as the Parliament may from time to time fix
3. The Election Commission has worked as a multi-member body since its inception as the universal adult suffrage was granted immediately after independence, thereby, significantly increasing the number of voters post independence
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is i ncorrect as the Election Commission of India conducts all elections to Parliament, Legislature of every state and elections to the offices of President and Vice-President.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. The conditions and tenure of office of the election commissioners and regional commissioners too shall be determined by the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect as since its inception in 1950 till 15 th October 1989, the Commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner. On 16 th October 1989, the President appointed two more election commissioners to cope with the increased work of the Commission on account of lowering of the voting age from 21 to 18 years. For two years the Commission functioned as a multi-member body consisting of three election commissioners. However, in 1990, the two posts of two election commissioners were abolished and the Commission became a single member body. Further, in 1993, the President appointed two more election commissioners, thereby, making the Commission a multi-member body. Since then, the Commission has been functioning as a multi-member body consisting of three election commissioners.
|
d
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Election Commission of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections only for elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures
2. The Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such other election commissioners, if any, as the Parliament may from time to time fix
3. The Election Commission has worked as a multi-member body since its inception as the universal adult suffrage was granted immediately after independence, thereby, significantly increasing the number of voters post independence
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is i ncorrect as the Election Commission of India conducts all elections to Parliament, Legislature of every state and elections to the offices of President and Vice-President.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. The conditions and tenure of office of the election commissioners and regional commissioners too shall be determined by the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect as since its inception in 1950 till 15 th October 1989, the Commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner. On 16 th October 1989, the President appointed two more election commissioners to cope with the increased work of the Commission on account of lowering of the voting age from 21 to 18 years. For two years the Commission functioned as a multi-member body consisting of three election commissioners. However, in 1990, the two posts of two election commissioners were abolished and the Commission became a single member body. Further, in 1993, the President appointed two more election commissioners, thereby, making the Commission a multi-member body. Since then, the Commission has been functioning as a multi-member body consisting of three election commissioners.
##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Indian Constitution provides for the division of legislative powers between Union and state under which of the following criteria? The territory to be governed The distribution of subjects Ease of administration Central control over state legislation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Like any other Federal Constitution, the Indian Constitution also divides the legislative powers between the Centre and the states with respect to both the territory and the subjects of legislation.Further, the Constitution provides for the parliamentary legislation in the state field under five extraordinary situations as well as the centre’s control over state legislation in certain cases. Thus, there are four aspects in the Centre–states legislative relations, viz., (i) Territorial extent of Central and state legislation; (ii) Distribution of legislative subjects; (iii) Parliamentary legislation in the state field and (iv) Centre’s control over state legislation. Ease of administration is not a constitutional prescribed provision. It is a general reason given in favour to create smaller states.
|
d
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Indian Constitution provides for the division of legislative powers between Union and state under which of the following criteria? The territory to be governed The distribution of subjects Ease of administration Central control over state legislation Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Like any other Federal Constitution, the Indian Constitution also divides the legislative powers between the Centre and the states with respect to both the territory and the subjects of legislation.Further, the Constitution provides for the parliamentary legislation in the state field under five extraordinary situations as well as the centre’s control over state legislation in certain cases. Thus, there are four aspects in the Centre–states legislative relations, viz., (i) Territorial extent of Central and state legislation; (ii) Distribution of legislative subjects; (iii) Parliamentary legislation in the state field and (iv) Centre’s control over state legislation. Ease of administration is not a constitutional prescribed provision. It is a general reason given in favour to create smaller states.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding revocation of National Emergency? President requires written decision of Union Cabinet to revoke National Emergency. President has to revoke the proclamation when a resolution is adopted by either Houses of Parliament. Resolution for revocation must be passed by special majority. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is not correct : A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. However, proclamation of national emergency can be done only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. Statements 2 and 3 are not correct : President must revoke the Emergency , if the Lok Sabha ( only) passes a resolution disapproving its continuation by simple majority ( 44th Amendment Act, 1978)
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding revocation of National Emergency? President requires written decision of Union Cabinet to revoke National Emergency. President has to revoke the proclamation when a resolution is adopted by either Houses of Parliament. Resolution for revocation must be passed by special majority. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. However, proclamation of national emergency can be done only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. Statements 2 and 3 are not correct : President must revoke the Emergency , if the Lok Sabha ( only) passes a resolution disapproving its continuation by simple majority ( 44th Amendment Act, 1978)##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the territorial extent of laws made by the Parliament and State Legislatures? States can make laws for whole or any part of the State. Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India The laws of the Parliament are applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object. Statement 2 is correct :The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India. Statement 3 is correct :The Parliament alone can make 'extra-territorial legislation'. Thus, the laws of the Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. These laws cannot be held invalid on the ground that it would have extra-territorial operation.
|
d
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the territorial extent of laws made by the Parliament and State Legislatures? States can make laws for whole or any part of the State. Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India The laws of the Parliament are applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object. Statement 2 is correct :The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India. Statement 3 is correct :The Parliament alone can make 'extra-territorial legislation'. Thus, the laws of the Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. These laws cannot be held invalid on the ground that it would have extra-territorial operation.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to the President"s Rule which of the following amounts to failure of constitutional machinery? Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support. Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority. Where a duly constituted ministry indulges in maladministration. Where allegations of corruption against the ministry are raised. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Based on the report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-state Relations (1988), the Supreme Court in Bommai case (1994) enlisted the situations where the exercise of power under Article 356 could be proper or improper. Statement 2 is correct : Imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be proper, where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, ‘Hung Assembly’. The imposition of President's Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations: Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the Governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative ministry. (Statement 1 is not correct) Maladministration in the state ( Statement 3 is not correct ) or allegations of corruption (Statement 4 is not correct) against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state.
|
b
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the President"s Rule which of the following amounts to failure of constitutional machinery? Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support. Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority. Where a duly constituted ministry indulges in maladministration. Where allegations of corruption against the ministry are raised. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Based on the report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-state Relations (1988), the Supreme Court in Bommai case (1994) enlisted the situations where the exercise of power under Article 356 could be proper or improper. Statement 2 is correct : Imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be proper, where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, ‘Hung Assembly’. The imposition of President's Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations: Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the Governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative ministry. (Statement 1 is not correct) Maladministration in the state ( Statement 3 is not correct ) or allegations of corruption (Statement 4 is not correct) against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to special powers of President and Governor: Governor can direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area. President may direct the Act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area in the State of Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The Governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. under Para 5 of the 5 th Schedule. Statement 2 is not correct : The Governor of Assam may direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area (autonomous district) in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. [Para 121)(b) of 6 th Schedule]. The President enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
|
a
|
Center-State Administrative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to special powers of President and Governor: Governor can direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area. President may direct the Act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area in the State of Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : The Governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. under Para 5 of the 5 th Schedule. Statement 2 is not correct : The Governor of Assam may direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area (autonomous district) in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. [Para 121)(b) of 6 th Schedule]. The President enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.##Topic:Center-State Administrative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Department of Internal Security comes under which of the following ministries/offices?
|
Ministry of Defence
|
Ministry of Home Affairs
|
Prime Minister’s Office
|
Ministry of Defence
|
Department of Internal Security is one the six departments under Ministry of Home Affairs. Others include Department of States, Department of Official Language, Department of Home, Department of Jammu and Kashmir Affairs and Department of Border Management
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Department of Internal Security comes under which of the following ministries/offices?
##Option_A: Ministry of Defence
###Option_B: Ministry of Home Affairs
##Option_C: Prime Minister’s Office
##Option_D: Ministry of Defence
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Department of Internal Security is one the six departments under Ministry of Home Affairs. Others include Department of States, Department of Official Language, Department of Home, Department of Jammu and Kashmir Affairs and Department of Border Management
##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Resolution passed in Council of States to enable the Parliament to legislate on a State Subject is done by which of the following majority?
|
Special Majority of not less than 2/3rd members of the total strength of the house.
|
Special majority of not less than two-third members present and voting only.
|
Special Majority of not less than two-third members present and voting and majority of total membership of the House.
|
Special Majority of not less than 2/3rd members of the total strength of the house.
|
Special majority are of 4 types, with different clauses. Type 1 – Special Majority as Per Article 249 - To pass the Rajya Sabha resolution to empower the parliament to make laws in state list (valid upto 1 year, but can be extended any number of times) requires a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting only. Type 2 – Special Majority as per Article 368 requires a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house . This type of majority is used for most of the Constitution amendment bills. Type 3 – Special Majority as per Article 368 + 50 percent state ratification by simple majority i.e. Special majority as per article 368 plus state ratification requires a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the state legislatures by a simple majority . This type of special majority is required when a constitutional amendment bill try to change the federal structure. Type 4 – Special Majority as per Article 61 requires a majority of 2/3rd members of the total strength of the house eg . Impeachment of the President.
|
b
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Resolution passed in Council of States to enable the Parliament to legislate on a State Subject is done by which of the following majority? ##Option_A: Special Majority of not less than 2/3rd members of the total strength of the house. ###Option_B: Special majority of not less than two-third members present and voting only.##Option_C: Special Majority of not less than two-third members present and voting and majority of total membership of the House.##Option_D: Special Majority of not less than 2/3rd members of the total strength of the house. ##Answer:b##Explaination:Special majority are of 4 types, with different clauses. Type 1 – Special Majority as Per Article 249 - To pass the Rajya Sabha resolution to empower the parliament to make laws in state list (valid upto 1 year, but can be extended any number of times) requires a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting only. Type 2 – Special Majority as per Article 368 requires a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house . This type of majority is used for most of the Constitution amendment bills. Type 3 – Special Majority as per Article 368 + 50 percent state ratification by simple majority i.e. Special majority as per article 368 plus state ratification requires a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the state legislatures by a simple majority . This type of special majority is required when a constitutional amendment bill try to change the federal structure. Type 4 – Special Majority as per Article 61 requires a majority of 2/3rd members of the total strength of the house eg . Impeachment of the President.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to resolution by states to make request to the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List.
1) A law made by Parliament remains in force for one year.
2) The resolution must be passed by Special majority of the House.
3) In case the states have both Legislative Assembly and Council, than the resolution can be passed by either of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
|
nbsp; 2 and 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as The resolution operates as abdication or surrender of the power of the state legislature with respect to the matter and is placed entirely in hands of Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect as The resolution passed by the states making request to the Parliament must be passed by SIMPLE majority of the House.
Statement 3 is incorrect as In case the states concerned have both State Legislative Assembly and State Legislative Council, than the resolution to request Parliament must be passed by all the Houses of the Legislatures of the State.
|
d
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with regard to resolution by states to make request to the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List.
1) A law made by Parliament remains in force for one year.
2) The resolution must be passed by Special majority of the House.
3) In case the states have both Legislative Assembly and Council, than the resolution can be passed by either of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B:nbsp; 2 and 3 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 1 and 2 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as The resolution operates as abdication or surrender of the power of the state legislature with respect to the matter and is placed entirely in hands of Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect as The resolution passed by the states making request to the Parliament must be passed by SIMPLE majority of the House.
Statement 3 is incorrect as In case the states concerned have both State Legislative Assembly and State Legislative Council, than the resolution to request Parliament must be passed by all the Houses of the Legislatures of the State.
##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to Financial Emergency in India, consider the following statements: The resolution for its proclamation must be approved by both the houses of the Parliament by special majority. Once approved, Financial emergency continues for a maximum period of one year. It was proclaimed during 1991 economic crisis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is not correct: A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue by a simple majority. Statement 2 is not correct : Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked Statement 3 is not correct : No use of Financial Emergency ( Article 360) has ever been made.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Financial Emergency in India, consider the following statements: The resolution for its proclamation must be approved by both the houses of the Parliament by special majority. Once approved, Financial emergency continues for a maximum period of one year. It was proclaimed during 1991 economic crisis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue by a simple majority. Statement 2 is not correct : Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked Statement 3 is not correct : No use of Financial Emergency ( Article 360) has ever been made.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
To resolve question of conflict between Union and State lists, Supreme Court has laid down certain principles through various judgments. Which of the following principles is/are correct in this regard? Doctrine of Pith and Substance Doctrine of Colorable Legislation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
To resolve question of conflict between two lists i.e. where the question arises of determining whether a particular law relates to a particular subject mentioned in one list or another, Supreme Court has laid down certain principles through various judgments. Doctrine of Pith and Substance: Pith means "true nature" or "essence" and substance means the essential nature underlying a phenomenon. Thus, the doctrine of pith and substance relates to finding out the true nature of a statute. This doctrine is widely used when deciding whether a state is within its rights to create a statute that involves a subject mentioned in Union List of the Constitution. The basic idea behind this principle is that an act or a provision created by the State is valid if the true nature of the act or the provision is about a subject that falls in the State list. The case of State of Bombay vs F N Balsara AIR 1951 illustrates this principle very nicely. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation This doctrine is based on the principle that what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly. In other words, if the constitution does not permit certain provision of legislation, any provision that has the same effect but in a roundabout manner is also unconstitutional. K.C. G. Narayana Deo v. The State Of Orissa: "… transgression may be patent, manifest or direct, but it may also be disguised, covert and indirect and it is to this latter class of cases that the expression 'Colorable Legislation' has been applied in certain judicial pronouncements. The idea conveyed by the expression is that although apparently a legislature in passing a statute purported to act within the limits of its powers, yet in substance and in reality it transgressed these powers, the transgression being veiled by what appears, on proper examination, to be a mere presence or disguise." This Doctrine is also called as "Fraud on the Constitution".
|
c
|
Center-State Administrative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:To resolve question of conflict between Union and State lists, Supreme Court has laid down certain principles through various judgments. Which of the following principles is/are correct in this regard? Doctrine of Pith and Substance Doctrine of Colorable Legislation Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:To resolve question of conflict between two lists i.e. where the question arises of determining whether a particular law relates to a particular subject mentioned in one list or another, Supreme Court has laid down certain principles through various judgments. Doctrine of Pith and Substance: Pith means "true nature" or "essence" and substance means the essential nature underlying a phenomenon. Thus, the doctrine of pith and substance relates to finding out the true nature of a statute. This doctrine is widely used when deciding whether a state is within its rights to create a statute that involves a subject mentioned in Union List of the Constitution. The basic idea behind this principle is that an act or a provision created by the State is valid if the true nature of the act or the provision is about a subject that falls in the State list. The case of State of Bombay vs F N Balsara AIR 1951 illustrates this principle very nicely. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation This doctrine is based on the principle that what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly. In other words, if the constitution does not permit certain provision of legislation, any provision that has the same effect but in a roundabout manner is also unconstitutional. K.C. G. Narayana Deo v. The State Of Orissa: "… transgression may be patent, manifest or direct, but it may also be disguised, covert and indirect and it is to this latter class of cases that the expression 'Colorable Legislation' has been applied in certain judicial pronouncements. The idea conveyed by the expression is that although apparently a legislature in passing a statute purported to act within the limits of its powers, yet in substance and in reality it transgressed these powers, the transgression being veiled by what appears, on proper examination, to be a mere presence or disguise." This Doctrine is also called as "Fraud on the Constitution".##Topic:Center-State Administrative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
In the context of the Indian economy, consider the following measures taken, not necessarily at one point of time: 1. Repo Rate increased by the Reserve Bank of India. 2. Reverse Repo Rate increased by the Reserve Bank of India. 3. Reduction in the rate of indirect taxes. 4. Reduction in the rate of direct taxes. Which of the measures taken above target an increase in the money supply?
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
ABCD
|
c
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of the Indian economy, consider the following measures taken, not necessarily at one point of time: 1. Repo Rate increased by the Reserve Bank of India. 2. Reverse Repo Rate increased by the Reserve Bank of India. 3. Reduction in the rate of indirect taxes. 4. Reduction in the rate of direct taxes. Which of the measures taken above target an increase in the money supply?##Option_A:1 and 4 only###Option_B:1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:ABCD##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas:
1. The Nyayadhikari is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court of the State.
2. Gram Nyayalayas exercise the power of Civil Courts only.
3. Like the Civil Courts, the Gram Nyayalayas are bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act.
Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Gram Nyayalayas are mobile village courts in India established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas of India. The Act came into force on October 2, 2009 i.e. the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. They will not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court.
Appeal in criminal cases shall lie to the Court of Session, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal. Appeal in civil cases shall lie to the District Court, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of the appeal.
The State Governments are responsible to establish Gram Nyayalayas in consultation with the respective High Courts.
|
a
|
Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas:
1. The Nyayadhikari is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court of the State.
2. Gram Nyayalayas exercise the power of Civil Courts only.
3. Like the Civil Courts, the Gram Nyayalayas are bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act.
Which of the above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Gram Nyayalayas are mobile village courts in India established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas of India. The Act came into force on October 2, 2009 i.e. the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. They will not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court.
Appeal in criminal cases shall lie to the Court of Session, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal. Appeal in civil cases shall lie to the District Court, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of the appeal.
The State Governments are responsible to establish Gram Nyayalayas in consultation with the respective High Courts.
##Topic:Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to resolution of Rajya Sabha to enable Parliament make law on State List. 1) Law ceases on the expiration of six months from the date it was passed. 2) The resolution remains in force for one year 3) The resolution approving the continuance must be passed by Simple majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
nbsp; 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as Article 249 clause (3) states that A law made by Parliament under clause ( 1 ) have been competent to make shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. Statement 2 is correct as Article 249 clause (2) states that A resolution passed under clause ( 1 ) shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year as may be specified therein. Statement 3 is incorrect as Article 249 clause (2) states “….Provided that, if and so often as a resolution approving the continuance in force of any such resolution is passed in the manner provided in clause ( 1 ) [special Majority of not less than two thirds of the members present and voting].
|
a
|
Legislative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to resolution of Rajya Sabha to enable Parliament make law on State List. 1) Law ceases on the expiration of six months from the date it was passed. 2) The resolution remains in force for one year 3) The resolution approving the continuance must be passed by Simple majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:nbsp; 2 only###Option_B:nbsp; 1, 2 and 3##Option_C:nbsp; 1 and 2 only##Option_D:nbsp; 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect as Article 249 clause (3) states that A law made by Parliament under clause ( 1 ) have been competent to make shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. Statement 2 is correct as Article 249 clause (2) states that A resolution passed under clause ( 1 ) shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year as may be specified therein. Statement 3 is incorrect as Article 249 clause (2) states “….Provided that, if and so often as a resolution approving the continuance in force of any such resolution is passed in the manner provided in clause ( 1 ) [special Majority of not less than two thirds of the members present and voting].##Topic:Legislative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements : Feature of Concurrent List is Borrowed from Canadian Constitution Feature of Residuary Powers is Borrowed from Australian Constitution Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : Feature of Concurrent List is Borrowed from Australian Constitution Statement 2 is not correct : Feature of Residuary Powers is Borrowed from Canadian Constitution
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements : Feature of Concurrent List is Borrowed from Canadian Constitution Feature of Residuary Powers is Borrowed from Australian Constitution Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : Feature of Concurrent List is Borrowed from Australian Constitution Statement 2 is not correct : Feature of Residuary Powers is Borrowed from Canadian Constitution##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following committee/s does not examine the reports of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)? Estimates Committee Public Accounts Committee Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The function of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
The function of the Estimates committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public expenditure.
The functions of the Committee on Public Undertakings includes to examine the reports of the comptroller and auditor general on public undertakings.
|
a
|
Committees of Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following committee/s does not examine the reports of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)? Estimates Committee Public Accounts Committee Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
The function of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
The function of the Estimates committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public expenditure.
The functions of the Committee on Public Undertakings includes to examine the reports of the comptroller and auditor general on public undertakings.
##Topic:Committees of Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With regard to Legislative Relations between Union and states, consider the following statements : No State law can prevail over the law made by the Parliament. The Constitution expressly secures predominance of Union List and Concurrent List over the State List. The Bills on all matters enumerated in the State List can be introduced in Legislature without prior sanction from Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : In case of a conflict between the Central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the state law. But, there is an exception. If the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent, then the state law prevails in that state. But, it would still be competent for the Parliament to override such a law by subsequently making a law on the same matter. Statement 2 is correct : The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the State List and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List. Thus, in case of overlapping between the Union List and the State List, the former should prevail. In case of overlapping between the Union List and the Concurrent List, it is again the former which should prevail. Where there is a conflict between the Concurrent List and the State List, it is the former that should prevail. Statement 3 is not correct : The bills on certain matters ( and not all matters) in the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the previous sanction of the President (For example bills imposing restriction on freedom of trade & commerce)
|
c
|
Legislative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Legislative Relations between Union and states, consider the following statements : No State law can prevail over the law made by the Parliament. The Constitution expressly secures predominance of Union List and Concurrent List over the State List. The Bills on all matters enumerated in the State List can be introduced in Legislature without prior sanction from Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : In case of a conflict between the Central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the state law. But, there is an exception. If the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent, then the state law prevails in that state. But, it would still be competent for the Parliament to override such a law by subsequently making a law on the same matter. Statement 2 is correct : The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the State List and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List. Thus, in case of overlapping between the Union List and the State List, the former should prevail. In case of overlapping between the Union List and the Concurrent List, it is again the former which should prevail. Where there is a conflict between the Concurrent List and the State List, it is the former that should prevail. Statement 3 is not correct : The bills on certain matters ( and not all matters) in the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the previous sanction of the President (For example bills imposing restriction on freedom of trade & commerce)##Topic:Legislative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Emergency Provisions, which of the following is/are denoted by ‘Proclamation of Emergency’? National emergency President’s Rule Financial Emergency Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Article 366(18) provides for the definition of ‘Proclamation of Emergency’ as Proclamation of Emergency means a Proclamation issued under clause ( 1 ) of Article 352 i.e. National Emergency.
|
a
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Emergency Provisions, which of the following is/are denoted by ‘Proclamation of Emergency’? National emergency President’s Rule Financial Emergency Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination: Article 366(18) provides for the definition of ‘Proclamation of Emergency’ as Proclamation of Emergency means a Proclamation issued under clause ( 1 ) of Article 352 i.e. National Emergency.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to request by states to Union to enact laws on State List.
1) A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions
2) Any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution
3) Concerned State can resume the power to make laws by passing resolution by special majority
4) It has never been evoked in post independent India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
nbsp; 1, 2 and 4 only
|
nbsp; 2 and 3 only
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as The law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolution
Statement 2 is correct as any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution to that effect in its legislature
Statement 3 is incorrect as State legislature ceases to have the power to make law with respect to that matter concerned.
Statement 4 is incorrect as laws like Prize Competition Act 1955, Wild Life Protection Act 1972, Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 etc were passed under the above provision of Article 252
|
a
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with regard to request by states to Union to enact laws on State List.
1) A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions
2) Any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution
3) Concerned State can resume the power to make laws by passing resolution by special majority
4) It has never been evoked in post independent India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:nbsp; 1 and 2 only
###Option_B:nbsp; 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 2 and 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as The law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolution
Statement 2 is correct as any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution to that effect in its legislature
Statement 3 is incorrect as State legislature ceases to have the power to make law with respect to that matter concerned.
Statement 4 is incorrect as laws like Prize Competition Act 1955, Wild Life Protection Act 1972, Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 etc were passed under the above provision of Article 252
##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The Council of States enables Parliament to legislate on State List by virtue of which of the following proviso? a. Supremacy of Parliament over State Legislatures b. Threat to unity and diversity of India c. In the National Interest d. Incompetency of State Legislatures
|
Under Article 249 Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest (1) Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution.
|
c
|
Legislative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Council of States enables Parliament to legislate on State List by virtue of which of the following proviso? a. Supremacy of Parliament over State Legislatures b. Threat to unity and diversity of India c. In the National Interest d. Incompetency of State Legislatures##Option_A:###Option_B:##Option_C:##Option_D:##Answer:c##Explaination:Under Article 249 Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest (1) Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution.##Topic:Legislative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
||||
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding President's Rule?
1) Resolution of Parliament must be passed by special majority
2) It affects fundamental rights of the citizen.
3) President can delegate the power to make laws for the State to any authority
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
|
nbsp; 1 and 2 only
|
nbsp; 3 only
|
nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as Every resolution of Parliament approving its proclamation or its continuance can be passed by a simple majority
Statement 2 is incorrect as It has no affect on fundamental rights of the citizen
Statement 3 is incorrect as Parliament (not President) can delegate the power to make laws for the State to President or to any other authority as specified.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding President's Rule?
1) Resolution of Parliament must be passed by special majority
2) It affects fundamental rights of the citizen.
3) President can delegate the power to make laws for the State to any authority
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A:nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B:nbsp; 1 and 2 only
##Option_C:nbsp; 3 only
##Option_D:nbsp; 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as Every resolution of Parliament approving its proclamation or its continuance can be passed by a simple majority
Statement 2 is incorrect as It has no affect on fundamental rights of the citizen
Statement 3 is incorrect as Parliament (not President) can delegate the power to make laws for the State to President or to any other authority as specified.
##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Legislatures of State can legislate with the Parliament under which of the following extraordinary circumstances: 1) When Rajya Sabha Passes Resolution 2) During National Emergency 3) When States make a request 4) To implement International Agreements 5) During Presidents Rule Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
nbsp; 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
|
nbsp; 1, 2 and 5 only
|
nbsp; 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
|
nbsp; 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
|
Statement 1 is correct as Provision under article 249 does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter. Statement 2 is correct as Provision under article 250 does not restrict power of state legislature to make laws on the same matter. Statement 3 is incorrect as States ceases to have power to make law with respect to the matter under article 252 Statement 4 is incorrect as States ceases to have power to make law with respect to the matter under article 253 Statement 5 is correct as under article 356 state can repeal or alter or re-enact the law.
|
b
|
Legislative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Legislatures of State can legislate with the Parliament under which of the following extraordinary circumstances: 1) When Rajya Sabha Passes Resolution 2) During National Emergency 3) When States make a request 4) To implement International Agreements 5) During Presidents Rule Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:nbsp; 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5###Option_B:nbsp; 1, 2 and 5 only##Option_C:nbsp; 1, 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_D:nbsp; 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as Provision under article 249 does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter. Statement 2 is correct as Provision under article 250 does not restrict power of state legislature to make laws on the same matter. Statement 3 is incorrect as States ceases to have power to make law with respect to the matter under article 252 Statement 4 is incorrect as States ceases to have power to make law with respect to the matter under article 253 Statement 5 is correct as under article 356 state can repeal or alter or re-enact the law.##Topic:Legislative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Aquila sometimes seen in news is a:
|
Solar powered plane to beam internet
|
Satellite to monitor ocean currents and tides
|
Underwater observatory in the Arctic
|
Solar powered plane to beam internet
|
Aquila - is the solar-powered plane/drone designed to beam internet to remote parts of the world. It has been created by Facebook. It is a solar-powered airplane that can be used to bring affordable internet to hundreds of millions of people in the hardest-to-reach places. When complete, Aquila will be able to circle a region up to 60 miles in diameter, beaming connectivity down from an altitude of more than 60,000 feet using laser communications and millimeter wave systems.
|
a
|
Administrative relation
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Aquila sometimes seen in news is a:##Option_A:Solar powered plane to beam internet###Option_B:Satellite to monitor ocean currents and tides##Option_C:Underwater observatory in the Arctic##Option_D:Solar powered plane to beam internet##Answer:a##Explaination:Aquila - is the solar-powered plane/drone designed to beam internet to remote parts of the world. It has been created by Facebook. It is a solar-powered airplane that can be used to bring affordable internet to hundreds of millions of people in the hardest-to-reach places. When complete, Aquila will be able to circle a region up to 60 miles in diameter, beaming connectivity down from an altitude of more than 60,000 feet using laser communications and millimeter wave systems.##Topic:Administrative relation##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
As per the "Report on animal and plant discoveries 2015",which of the following is the correct sequence of regions in decreasing order of percentage contribution in discovery of new species?
|
Western Ghats>Andaman and Nicobar islands>Eastern Himalaya region
|
Western Ghats>Eastern Himalaya region>Andaman and Nicobar islands
|
Eastern Himalaya region>Western Ghats>Andaman and Nicobar islands
|
Western Ghats>Andaman and Nicobar islands>Eastern Himalaya region
|
Report on animal and plant discoveries 2015’ was released by Ministry of environment and climate change
As per report around 400 new species got added in the list of newly discovered species(both fauna and flora)
The highest number of new species were reported from Eastern Himalaya region(19% ) followed by Western Ghats(18%) and Andaman and Nicobar islands(155)
|
c
|
Reports(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As per the "Report on animal and plant discoveries 2015",which of the following is the correct sequence of regions in decreasing order of percentage contribution in discovery of new species?##Option_A: Western Ghats>Andaman and Nicobar islands>Eastern Himalaya region###Option_B: Western Ghats>Eastern Himalaya region>Andaman and Nicobar islands##Option_C: Eastern Himalaya region>Western Ghats>Andaman and Nicobar islands##Option_D: Western Ghats>Andaman and Nicobar islands>Eastern Himalaya region##Answer:c##Explaination:
Report on animal and plant discoveries 2015’ was released by Ministry of environment and climate change
As per report around 400 new species got added in the list of newly discovered species(both fauna and flora)
The highest number of new species were reported from Eastern Himalaya region(19% ) followed by Western Ghats(18%) and Andaman and Nicobar islands(155)
##Topic:Reports(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding GST Bill which seeks to amend the financial relations between Union and State? It provides to the Parliament an exclusive right to charge any tax by way of surcharge on GST. It seeks to amend the Seventh schedule by eliminating separate lists and providing single unified list. It seeks to provide power to both Union and State Legislatures to make laws during emergency. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is not correct : Amendment of Article 271 (Surcharge on taxes by union):- Parliament has exclusive right to charge the surcharge on any tax and such surcharge will form the part of consolidated fund. But the GST is exception to above article. In other words, Parliament cannot charge any tax by way of surcharge on GST. Statement 2 is not correct: Due to insertion of Article 246A it is imperative to amend union list and state list to make proper arrangement for GST. The amendments are as follow: Amendment in Entry No 84, 92, 92C to Union List & Amendment in Entry No 52, 54, 55 and 62 to State List. Distinct system of State and Union List is still intact Statement 3 is not correct : Amendment of Article 250(1) (Proclamation of Emergency) :- In the event of announcement of emergency, Parliament of India has power to make the laws in respect of any item covered under state list for the whole India or part of the India under article 250(1). Goods and service tax under article 246A i.e. ONLY Parliament of India can make the GST law in case of emergency.
|
d
|
Center-State Financial Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding GST Bill which seeks to amend the financial relations between Union and State? It provides to the Parliament an exclusive right to charge any tax by way of surcharge on GST. It seeks to amend the Seventh schedule by eliminating separate lists and providing single unified list. It seeks to provide power to both Union and State Legislatures to make laws during emergency. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : Amendment of Article 271 (Surcharge on taxes by union):- Parliament has exclusive right to charge the surcharge on any tax and such surcharge will form the part of consolidated fund. But the GST is exception to above article. In other words, Parliament cannot charge any tax by way of surcharge on GST. Statement 2 is not correct: Due to insertion of Article 246A it is imperative to amend union list and state list to make proper arrangement for GST. The amendments are as follow: Amendment in Entry No 84, 92, 92C to Union List & Amendment in Entry No 52, 54, 55 and 62 to State List. Distinct system of State and Union List is still intact Statement 3 is not correct : Amendment of Article 250(1) (Proclamation of Emergency) :- In the event of announcement of emergency, Parliament of India has power to make the laws in respect of any item covered under state list for the whole India or part of the India under article 250(1). Goods and service tax under article 246A i.e. ONLY Parliament of India can make the GST law in case of emergency.##Topic:Center-State Financial Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to elections to the office of the Vice President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The electoral college of the elections to the Vice President of India consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament
2. The electoral college also consists of elected members of the State Legislative assemblies, as the Vice President is the de-facto Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States
3. Elections to the office is conducted by a special electoral body which is only concerned with elections to the office of the President and the Vice President and gets dissolved once the elections are conducted
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct
Statement 2 is incorrec t as the Vice President is elected by the members of Parliament. As in the case of election of the President, elected members of State Legislative assemblies do not participate in the election process of the Vice President
Statement 3 is incorrect as the Election Commission of India conducts elections to the office of the Vice President of India under the Constitution of India
|
a
|
Vice President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With regard to elections to the office of the Vice President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The electoral college of the elections to the Vice President of India consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament
2. The electoral college also consists of elected members of the State Legislative assemblies, as the Vice President is the de-facto Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States
3. Elections to the office is conducted by a special electoral body which is only concerned with elections to the office of the President and the Vice President and gets dissolved once the elections are conducted
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct
Statement 2 is incorrec t as the Vice President is elected by the members of Parliament. As in the case of election of the President, elected members of State Legislative assemblies do not participate in the election process of the Vice President
Statement 3 is incorrect as the Election Commission of India conducts elections to the office of the Vice President of India under the Constitution of India
##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With regard to the executive power relating to the concurrent subject in seventh schedule consider the following statements: A law on concurrent subject is to be ordinarily enacted and executed by the Union. A law to implement any international treaty on Concurrent list is enacted by the Parliament but executed by the State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : With regard to the matters included in Concurrent List the executive function shall ordinarily remain with states, but subject to the provisions of the Constitution or of any law of the Parliament conferring such function expressly upon the Union. Statement 2 is not correct : Under Article 73(1)(b) , the executive power to implement any treaty or international agreement belongs exclusively to the Union, whether the subject pertains to the Union, State or Concurrent List.
|
d
|
Administrative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the executive power relating to the concurrent subject in seventh schedule consider the following statements: A law on concurrent subject is to be ordinarily enacted and executed by the Union. A law to implement any international treaty on Concurrent list is enacted by the Parliament but executed by the State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : With regard to the matters included in Concurrent List the executive function shall ordinarily remain with states, but subject to the provisions of the Constitution or of any law of the Parliament conferring such function expressly upon the Union. Statement 2 is not correct : Under Article 73(1)(b) , the executive power to implement any treaty or international agreement belongs exclusively to the Union, whether the subject pertains to the Union, State or Concurrent List.##Topic:Administrative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to which of the following is the Union government constitutionally mandated to give directions to the states? To ensure protection of railways, highways, or waterways within the State. To ensure maintenance of means of communication of commercial importance to state. To ensure execution of specified schemes of the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the State Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : Article 257(3) states that The executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the State. Proviso under Article 257(2) states that that nothing in this clause shall be taken as restricting the power of Parliament to declare highways or waterways to be national highways or national waterways so declared or the power of the Union to construct and maintain means of communication as part of its functions with respect to naval, military and air force works. Statement 2 is not correct : Article 257(2) states that the executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance (not commercial importance) Statement 3 is not correct : Article 339(2) states that The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the drawing up and execution of schemes specified in the direction to be essential for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the State( and not Scheduled Castes).
|
b
|
Administrative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to which of the following is the Union government constitutionally mandated to give directions to the states? To ensure protection of railways, highways, or waterways within the State. To ensure maintenance of means of communication of commercial importance to state. To ensure execution of specified schemes of the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the State Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : Article 257(3) states that The executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the State. Proviso under Article 257(2) states that that nothing in this clause shall be taken as restricting the power of Parliament to declare highways or waterways to be national highways or national waterways so declared or the power of the Union to construct and maintain means of communication as part of its functions with respect to naval, military and air force works. Statement 2 is not correct : Article 257(2) states that the executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance (not commercial importance) Statement 3 is not correct : Article 339(2) states that The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the drawing up and execution of schemes specified in the direction to be essential for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the State( and not Scheduled Castes).##Topic:Administrative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are considered as Electoral corrupt practices under Representation of People's act 1951?
1. Bribery
2. Appeal to vote on the ground of religion
3. Appeal to vote by use of national symbols
4. Promoting enmity between different classes of the citizens of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
According to sec 123 of Representation of People's act 1951 the following shall be deemed to be corrupt practices for the purposes of this act:- (1) "Bribery", (2) Undue influence, that is to say, any direct or indirect interference or attempt to interfere on the part of the candidate. (3) The appeal by a candidate to vote or refrain from voting for any person on the ground of his religion, race caste, community or language or the use of, or appeal to religious symbols or the use of, or appeal to, national symbols, such as the national flag or the national emblem, for the furtherance of the prospects of the election of that candidate. (3A) The promotion of, or attempt to promote, feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language, by a candidate. (3B) The propagation of the practice or the commission of sati or this glorification by a candidate.
|
d
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are considered as Electoral corrupt practices under Representation of People's act 1951?
1. Bribery
2. Appeal to vote on the ground of religion
3. Appeal to vote by use of national symbols
4. Promoting enmity between different classes of the citizens of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only ##Option_C: 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
According to sec 123 of Representation of People's act 1951 the following shall be deemed to be corrupt practices for the purposes of this act:- (1) "Bribery", (2) Undue influence, that is to say, any direct or indirect interference or attempt to interfere on the part of the candidate. (3) The appeal by a candidate to vote or refrain from voting for any person on the ground of his religion, race caste, community or language or the use of, or appeal to religious symbols or the use of, or appeal to, national symbols, such as the national flag or the national emblem, for the furtherance of the prospects of the election of that candidate. (3A) The promotion of, or attempt to promote, feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language, by a candidate. (3B) The propagation of the practice or the commission of sati or this glorification by a candidate.
##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following provisions is/are correct regarding National Emergency? It can be declared by the Parliament when security of India or part of it is threatened. Its proclamation can be made before actual occurrence of war or external aggression. Its proclamation is immune from judicial review. If proclamation is already issued, no new proclamation can be made. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : It is the President (and not the Parliament) who can declare national emergency under Article 352. Statement 2 is correct : Article 352(1) states that a Proclamation of Emergency declaring that the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened by war or by external aggression or by armed rebellion may be made before the actual occurrence of war or of any such aggression or rebellion, if the President is satisfied that there is imminent danger thereof. Statement 3 is not correct : Immunity from judicial review for the proclamation of National Emergency was deleted by 44 th Amendment Act. Further, Supreme Court in Minerva Mills case held that the proclamation of national emergency can be challenged in the court. Statement 4 is not correct : 38 th Amendment adds Clause (9) to Article 352 as "The power conferred on the President by this article shall include the power to issue different Proclamations on different grounds, being war or external aggression or armed rebellion or imminent danger of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, whether or not there is a Proclamation already issued by the President under clause (l) and such Proclamation is in operation".
|
b
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions is/are correct regarding National Emergency? It can be declared by the Parliament when security of India or part of it is threatened. Its proclamation can be made before actual occurrence of war or external aggression. Its proclamation is immune from judicial review. If proclamation is already issued, no new proclamation can be made. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : It is the President (and not the Parliament) who can declare national emergency under Article 352. Statement 2 is correct : Article 352(1) states that a Proclamation of Emergency declaring that the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened by war or by external aggression or by armed rebellion may be made before the actual occurrence of war or of any such aggression or rebellion, if the President is satisfied that there is imminent danger thereof. Statement 3 is not correct : Immunity from judicial review for the proclamation of National Emergency was deleted by 44 th Amendment Act. Further, Supreme Court in Minerva Mills case held that the proclamation of national emergency can be challenged in the court. Statement 4 is not correct : 38 th Amendment adds Clause (9) to Article 352 as "The power conferred on the President by this article shall include the power to issue different Proclamations on different grounds, being war or external aggression or armed rebellion or imminent danger of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, whether or not there is a Proclamation already issued by the President under clause (l) and such Proclamation is in operation".##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding President’s Rule?
1) A Proclamation expires after six months from the date of approval by resolution.
2) Maximum period for its operation is three years for all states.
3) The State Governor, on its own, assumes power of the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
None of the Above
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as article 356(4) states that A Proclamation so approved shall, unless revoked, cease to operate on the expiration of a period of six months from the date of issue of the Proclamation.
Statement 2 is incorrect as Article 356 states that Provided in the case of the Proclamation issued under clause (1) on the 11th day of May, 1987 with respect to the State of Punjab, the reference in the first proviso to this clause to “three years” shall be construed as a reference to [five years]
Statement 3 is incorrect as The state governor , on behalf of the President , carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding President’s Rule?
1) A Proclamation expires after six months from the date of approval by resolution.
2) Maximum period for its operation is three years for all states.
3) The State Governor, on its own, assumes power of the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
None of the Above
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as article 356(4) states that A Proclamation so approved shall, unless revoked, cease to operate on the expiration of a period of six months from the date of issue of the Proclamation.
Statement 2 is incorrect as Article 356 states that Provided in the case of the Proclamation issued under clause (1) on the 11th day of May, 1987 with respect to the State of Punjab, the reference in the first proviso to this clause to “three years” shall be construed as a reference to [five years]
Statement 3 is incorrect as The state governor , on behalf of the President , carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.
##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
1) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission
2) The notification for the election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned
3) The Election Commissioners cannot be removed before the expiry of the term
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as The recommendation for election is made by the government.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the notification for the election is issued by the Election Commission
Statement 3 is incorrect as Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They can resign at any time or can also be removed before the expiry of their term.
|
d
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
1) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission
2) The notification for the election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned
3) The Election Commissioners cannot be removed before the expiry of the term
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as The recommendation for election is made by the government.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the notification for the election is issued by the Election Commission
Statement 3 is incorrect as Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They can resign at any time or can also be removed before the expiry of their term.
##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following subjects come under the State list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution? Education Forests Pilgrimage within India Agriculture Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Education and Forests were transferred from State list to Concurrent list by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Pilgrimages, other than pilgrimages to places outside India and Agriculture, including agricultural education and research, protection against pests and prevention of plant diseases comes under the state list.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following subjects come under the State list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution? Education Forests Pilgrimage within India Agriculture Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Education and Forests were transferred from State list to Concurrent list by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Pilgrimages, other than pilgrimages to places outside India and Agriculture, including agricultural education and research, protection against pests and prevention of plant diseases comes under the state list.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to the office of the Vice President, consider the following statements: Vice President is not the member of either house of Parliament. Lok Sabha has no role in the removal of Vice President. When the office of President falls vacant, Vice President assumes office for the entire unexpired term. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The Vice-President is not a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of a Legislature of any state. If a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of a Legislature of any state is elected as Vice-President, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date he/she enters his office as Vice-President. Statement 2 is not correct: The Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States by a majority of all the members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People. No such resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Statement 3 is not correct : American Vice President succeeds to Presidency when it falls vacant, and remains President for unexpired term. Whereas Indian Vice-President merely serves as an acting President until new President assumes charge.
|
b
|
Vice President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the office of the Vice President, consider the following statements: Vice President is not the member of either house of Parliament. Lok Sabha has no role in the removal of Vice President. When the office of President falls vacant, Vice President assumes office for the entire unexpired term. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The Vice-President is not a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of a Legislature of any state. If a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of a Legislature of any state is elected as Vice-President, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date he/she enters his office as Vice-President. Statement 2 is not correct: The Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States by a majority of all the members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People. No such resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Statement 3 is not correct : American Vice President succeeds to Presidency when it falls vacant, and remains President for unexpired term. Whereas Indian Vice-President merely serves as an acting President until new President assumes charge.##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Council of Ministers:
1. There can be no CoM without PM
2. CoM is collectively responsible to the Parliament
3. Vote of no confidence even against a single Minister lead to resignation of entire CoM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Explanation
Statement 1 correct -
According to article 75 - The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Since other ministers are to be appointed by President on the advise of PM hence CoM cannot exist without PM.
Statement 2 incorrect -
According to article 75 - The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not to the Parliament which contains Rajya sabha also.
Statement 3 correct -
Constitution prescribes principle of collective responsibility for CoM.
Hence vote of no confidence leads to resignation of entire CoM whether against single Minister or entire CoM.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Council of Ministers:
1. There can be no CoM without PM
2. CoM is collectively responsible to the Parliament
3. Vote of no confidence even against a single Minister lead to resignation of entire CoM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 2 and 3 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Explanation
Statement 1 correct -
According to article 75 - The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Since other ministers are to be appointed by President on the advise of PM hence CoM cannot exist without PM.
Statement 2 incorrect -
According to article 75 - The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not to the Parliament which contains Rajya sabha also.
Statement 3 correct -
Constitution prescribes principle of collective responsibility for CoM.
Hence vote of no confidence leads to resignation of entire CoM whether against single Minister or entire CoM.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the administrative tribunal, consider the following statements: 1. Central Administrative Tribunal can issue writs. 2. The Parliament decides the jurisdiction of the tribunals. 3. Tribunals are part of the integrated judiciary system of India. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Tribunals
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the administrative tribunal, consider the following statements: 1. Central Administrative Tribunal can issue writs. 2. The Parliament decides the jurisdiction of the tribunals. 3. Tribunals are part of the integrated judiciary system of India. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Tribunals##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: 1. When a national emergency is proclaimed on grounds of war or armed rebellion then article 19 is automatically suspended. 2. Defence Minister of India can suspend the operation of any fundamental rights except article 20 and article 21 when an emergency is declared on grounds of war. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.As per article 358, Article 19 will get automatically suspended on the grounds of war and external aggression.
President has such power as per article 359
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. When a national emergency is proclaimed on grounds of war or armed rebellion then article 19 is automatically suspended. 2. Defence Minister of India can suspend the operation of any fundamental rights except article 20 and article 21 when an emergency is declared on grounds of war. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.As per article 358, Article 19 will get automatically suspended on the grounds of war and external aggression.
President has such power as per article 359##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following are the essential features of the Parliamentary System of Government? 1. Political homogeneity 2. Elected Head of the State 3. The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive (double membership) Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of nature of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government. The parliamentary government is also known as cabinet government or responsible government or Westminster model of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan, Canada, and India among others. The parliamentary government is also known as ‘responsible government’ as the cabinet (the real executive) is accountable to the Parliament and stays in office so long as it enjoys the latter’s confidence. Features of the Parliamentary System Dual executive: The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Thus, the President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government. Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The advice so tendered is binding on the President. Majority party rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President; other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the prime minister. However, when no single party gets the majority, a coalition of parties may be invited by the President to form the government. Collective responsibility: This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., the council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence. Political homogeneity : Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In the case of the coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus. Hence option 1 is correct. Double membership: The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of Parliament. The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister. Hence option 2 is correct. The leadership of the prime minister: The Prime Minister plays the leadership role in this system of government. He is the leader of the council of ministers, leader of the Parliament, and the leader of the party in power. In these capacities, he plays a significant and highly crucial role in the functioning of the government. Dissolution of Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections. This means that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system. Elected Head of State A parliamentary form of government need not have an elected head of state. There may be a state where the head of state is hereditary and while the government, accountable to the elected Parliament, exercises the bulk of the executive powers, determines national policies, and oversees their implementation. Hence, option 3 is not correct. Such a system is called a parliamentary monarchy. Examples are the Constitution of the Kingdom of Spain.
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the essential features of the Parliamentary System of Government? 1. Political homogeneity 2. Elected Head of the State 3. The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive (double membership) Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of nature of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government. The parliamentary government is also known as cabinet government or responsible government or Westminster model of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan, Canada, and India among others. The parliamentary government is also known as ‘responsible government’ as the cabinet (the real executive) is accountable to the Parliament and stays in office so long as it enjoys the latter’s confidence. Features of the Parliamentary System Dual executive: The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Thus, the President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government. Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The advice so tendered is binding on the President. Majority party rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President; other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the prime minister. However, when no single party gets the majority, a coalition of parties may be invited by the President to form the government. Collective responsibility: This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., the council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence. Political homogeneity : Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In the case of the coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus. Hence option 1 is correct. Double membership: The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of Parliament. The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister. Hence option 2 is correct. The leadership of the prime minister: The Prime Minister plays the leadership role in this system of government. He is the leader of the council of ministers, leader of the Parliament, and the leader of the party in power. In these capacities, he plays a significant and highly crucial role in the functioning of the government. Dissolution of Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections. This means that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system. Elected Head of State A parliamentary form of government need not have an elected head of state. There may be a state where the head of state is hereditary and while the government, accountable to the elected Parliament, exercises the bulk of the executive powers, determines national policies, and oversees their implementation. Hence, option 3 is not correct. Such a system is called a parliamentary monarchy. Examples are the Constitution of the Kingdom of Spain.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Regarding DPSPs of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Directive Principles are justiciable and can be enforced in a court of law.
2. Directive Principles lay the foundation of political democracy in the country.
3. These are self-executory.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
d
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Regarding DPSPs of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Directive Principles are justiciable and can be enforced in a court of law.
2. Directive Principles lay the foundation of political democracy in the country.
3. These are self-executory.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the DPSP:
1. The concept of DPSP has been inspired by the Irish constitution.
2. The DPSPs are also similar to the Instrument of Instruction GoI Act 1935.
Choose the correct codes from the below:
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the DPSP:
1. The concept of DPSP has been inspired by the Irish constitution.
2. The DPSPs are also similar to the Instrument of Instruction GoI Act 1935.
Choose the correct codes from the below:##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following provisions regarding PM are mentioned in the Constitution of India?
1. PM is head of Council of Ministers
2. PM holds office for 5 years
3. PM can remove any Minister from office
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Explanation
Statement 1 correct
Art 74 reads - There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice: Provided that the President may require the council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
Statement 2 incorrect -
There is no mention of any tenure of PM in Constitution. Only link to removal of PM is under Article 75 which reads-
- The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
- The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People
Statement 3 incorrect -
According to article 75, PM can only advise President in appointment of Ministers.
Removal of ministers is based on two clauses under Article 75
1) The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
2) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
Though under 1st clause it is actually PMs advise on which President removes Minister but it is not mentioned explicitly in Constitution.
|
a
|
Prime Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions regarding PM are mentioned in the Constitution of India?
1. PM is head of Council of Ministers
2. PM holds office for 5 years
3. PM can remove any Minister from office
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Explanation
Statement 1 correct
Art 74 reads - There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice: Provided that the President may require the council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
Statement 2 incorrect -
There is no mention of any tenure of PM in Constitution. Only link to removal of PM is under Article 75 which reads-
- The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
- The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People
Statement 3 incorrect -
According to article 75, PM can only advise President in appointment of Ministers.
Removal of ministers is based on two clauses under Article 75
1) The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
2) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
Though under 1st clause it is actually PMs advise on which President removes Minister but it is not mentioned explicitly in Constitution.
##Topic:Prime Minister##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding Council of Ministers (CoM) is not correct?
|
CoM continue to hold office even after dissolution of Lok sabha.
|
After passing of no confidence motion against the CoM, the President must dissolve the Lok Sabha.
|
CoM can advise President to dissolve the Lok Sabha.
|
CoM continue to hold office even after dissolution of Lok sabha.
|
Statement a correct : Supreme Court in a judgement in 1971 held that 'even after the dissolution of the Lok sabha, the CoM does not cease to hold office. This is because article 74 is mandatory and President cannot exercise executive powers without aid and advice of CoM. Statement b is not correct : Dissolution can take place only after the President is satisfied that it is not possible to form an alternative government following the defeat and resignation of the Council of Ministers. It is a moot point whether the President should accept automatically the advice of a defeated Government to dissolve the House without his exploring the possibility of an alternative government which enjoys the confidence of the House. In case the President dissolves that House, the defeated Government continues in office as caretaker government until the general elections, following the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, are over Statement c is correct : CoM can advise President to dissolve the Lok sabha on the ground that the House does not represent the vies of the electorate faithfully and call for new elections. And if CoM is enjoying the majority in Lok sabha while making such advice, President has to follow the advise.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Council of Ministers (CoM) is not correct?##Option_A: CoM continue to hold office even after dissolution of Lok sabha.###Option_B: After passing of no confidence motion against the CoM, the President must dissolve the Lok Sabha.##Option_C: CoM can advise President to dissolve the Lok Sabha.##Option_D: CoM continue to hold office even after dissolution of Lok sabha.##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement a correct : Supreme Court in a judgement in 1971 held that 'even after the dissolution of the Lok sabha, the CoM does not cease to hold office. This is because article 74 is mandatory and President cannot exercise executive powers without aid and advice of CoM. Statement b is not correct : Dissolution can take place only after the President is satisfied that it is not possible to form an alternative government following the defeat and resignation of the Council of Ministers. It is a moot point whether the President should accept automatically the advice of a defeated Government to dissolve the House without his exploring the possibility of an alternative government which enjoys the confidence of the House. In case the President dissolves that House, the defeated Government continues in office as caretaker government until the general elections, following the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, are over Statement c is correct : CoM can advise President to dissolve the Lok sabha on the ground that the House does not represent the vies of the electorate faithfully and call for new elections. And if CoM is enjoying the majority in Lok sabha while making such advice, President has to follow the advise.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Who among the following can attend all Cabinet meeting by default?
1. Minister of Cabinet Rank
2. Minister of state attached to cabinet minister
3. Minister of state with independent charge
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Explanation
Correct answer a
Categories of Ministers:
(a) Cabinet Ministers:
Their number is between 15- 20. They are important ministers hold key portfolios. They constitute the Cabinet i.e. the powerful policymaking and decision-making part of the Council of Ministers.
(b) Ministers of State:
They constitute the second category of ministers. They are not the members of the Cabinet. A minister of state either holds an independent charge of a small department or is attached to a Cabinet Minister.
In case of independent charge they perform the same functions and exercise the same power as cabinet minister do. However they are not the members of Cabinet and do not attend the cabinet meetings unless specially invited.
(c) Deputy Ministers:
They are helping ministers attached to the Cabinet Ministers or the Ministers of State. No Deputy Minister holds an independent charge of any department. The present Union Council of Ministers has no Deputy Minister as its member. They are not the members of Cabinet and do not attend the cabinet meetings.
Parliamentary Secretaries:
They are neither minister nor are they assigned any administrative work. Their sole function is to help the ministers in the Parliament. They do not draw any salary.
They are also not the members of Cabinet and do not attend the cabinet meetings.
|
a
|
Council of ministers
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following can attend all Cabinet meeting by default?
1. Minister of Cabinet Rank
2. Minister of state attached to cabinet minister
3. Minister of state with independent charge
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Explanation
Correct answer a
Categories of Ministers:
(a) Cabinet Ministers:
Their number is between 15- 20. They are important ministers hold key portfolios. They constitute the Cabinet i.e. the powerful policymaking and decision-making part of the Council of Ministers.
(b) Ministers of State:
They constitute the second category of ministers. They are not the members of the Cabinet. A minister of state either holds an independent charge of a small department or is attached to a Cabinet Minister.
In case of independent charge they perform the same functions and exercise the same power as cabinet minister do. However they are not the members of Cabinet and do not attend the cabinet meetings unless specially invited.
(c) Deputy Ministers:
They are helping ministers attached to the Cabinet Ministers or the Ministers of State. No Deputy Minister holds an independent charge of any department. The present Union Council of Ministers has no Deputy Minister as its member. They are not the members of Cabinet and do not attend the cabinet meetings.
Parliamentary Secretaries:
They are neither minister nor are they assigned any administrative work. Their sole function is to help the ministers in the Parliament. They do not draw any salary.
They are also not the members of Cabinet and do not attend the cabinet meetings.
##Topic:Council of ministers##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The State Election Commissions were constituted in 1950 along with the Election Commission of India
Statement 2: The State Election Commissions are responsible for conducting Panchayat elections and Municipal elections in their respective states
Statement 3: Since the State Election Commissions are a part of an organic system and due to the hierarchical nature of the system, the State Election Commissioners are responsible to the Chief Election Commissioner and other election commissioners
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as the State Election Commissions are constituted under the Constitution (Seventy-third and Seventy-fourth) Amendments Act, 1992 for each State / Union Territory.
Statement 2 is correct as the State Election Commissions are vested with the powers of conduct of elections to the Corporations, Muncipalities, Zilla Parishads, District Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Gram Panchayats and other local bodies.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the State Election Commissions are independent of the Election Commission of India. Under the provisions contained in Article 243K(1) of the Constitution of India, the Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner of the State.
|
b
|
Good Governance , e-Governance
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The State Election Commissions were constituted in 1950 along with the Election Commission of India
Statement 2: The State Election Commissions are responsible for conducting Panchayat elections and Municipal elections in their respective states
Statement 3: Since the State Election Commissions are a part of an organic system and due to the hierarchical nature of the system, the State Election Commissioners are responsible to the Chief Election Commissioner and other election commissioners
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as the State Election Commissions are constituted under the Constitution (Seventy-third and Seventy-fourth) Amendments Act, 1992 for each State / Union Territory.
Statement 2 is correct as the State Election Commissions are vested with the powers of conduct of elections to the Corporations, Muncipalities, Zilla Parishads, District Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Gram Panchayats and other local bodies.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the State Election Commissions are independent of the Election Commission of India. Under the provisions contained in Article 243K(1) of the Constitution of India, the Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner of the State.
##Topic:Good Governance , e-Governance ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a.) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b.) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
(c.) It ensures financial inclusion of the masses by ensuring banking facilities to them.
(d.) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Finance commission is a body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its primary job is to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed between the Centre and states.
Besides suggesting the mechanism to share tax revenues, the Commission also lays down the principles for giving out grant-in-aid to states and other local bodies.
The commission takes on itself the job of addressing the imbalances that often arise between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the states, respectively. Primarily, it has to ensure a sense of equality in public services across the states.
|
d
|
Center-State Financial Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a.) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b.) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
(c.) It ensures financial inclusion of the masses by ensuring banking facilities to them.
(d.) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Finance commission is a body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its primary job is to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed between the Centre and states.
Besides suggesting the mechanism to share tax revenues, the Commission also lays down the principles for giving out grant-in-aid to states and other local bodies.
The commission takes on itself the job of addressing the imbalances that often arise between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the states, respectively. Primarily, it has to ensure a sense of equality in public services across the states.
##Topic:Center-State Financial Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
|
with the consent of all the States
|
with the consent of the majority of States
|
with the consent of the States concerned
|
with the consent of all the States
|
The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions without the consent of any state. This provision enables the Central government to fulfill its international obligations and commitments. (Article 253) Examples of laws enacted under this provision are Geneva Convention Act, 1960; legislations relating to environment and TRIPS; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 etc.
|
d
|
Legislative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties##Option_A:with the consent of all the States###Option_B:with the consent of the majority of States##Option_C:with the consent of the States concerned##Option_D:with the consent of all the States##Answer:d##Explaination:The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions without the consent of any state. This provision enables the Central government to fulfill its international obligations and commitments. (Article 253) Examples of laws enacted under this provision are Geneva Convention Act, 1960; legislations relating to environment and TRIPS; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 etc.##Topic:Legislative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Council of Ministers (CoM) and Cabinet : Both the words CoM and Cabinet are mentioned in the Constitution. CoM determines the functions of Cabinet. CoM includes both cabinet ministers and the ministers of state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Council of ministers is a constitutional body, dealt in detail by the Articles 74 and 75 of the Constitution. Its size and classification are, however, not mentioned in the Constitution. Its size is determined by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. The word 'Cabinet' was inserted in Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. Also, Article 352 only defines the cabinet saying that it is ‘the council consisting of the prime minister and other ministers of cabinet rank appointed under Article 75’ and does not describe its powers and functions. Statement 2 is not correct: Council of ministers functions' are determined by the cabinet. It implements the decisions taken by the cabinet. Cabinet exercises, in practice, the powers of the council of ministers and thus, acts for the latter.Cabinet directs the council of ministers by taking policy decisions which are binding on all ministers. It supervises the implementation of its decisions by the council of ministers. Statement 3 is correct: Council of ministers(CoM) includes all the three categories of ministers, that is, cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers whereas, Cabinet includes the cabinet ministers only. But it is a part of the council of ministers
|
c
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Council of Ministers (CoM) and Cabinet : Both the words CoM and Cabinet are mentioned in the Constitution. CoM determines the functions of Cabinet. CoM includes both cabinet ministers and the ministers of state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Council of ministers is a constitutional body, dealt in detail by the Articles 74 and 75 of the Constitution. Its size and classification are, however, not mentioned in the Constitution. Its size is determined by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. The word 'Cabinet' was inserted in Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. Also, Article 352 only defines the cabinet saying that it is ‘the council consisting of the prime minister and other ministers of cabinet rank appointed under Article 75’ and does not describe its powers and functions. Statement 2 is not correct: Council of ministers functions' are determined by the cabinet. It implements the decisions taken by the cabinet. Cabinet exercises, in practice, the powers of the council of ministers and thus, acts for the latter.Cabinet directs the council of ministers by taking policy decisions which are binding on all ministers. It supervises the implementation of its decisions by the council of ministers. Statement 3 is correct: Council of ministers(CoM) includes all the three categories of ministers, that is, cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers whereas, Cabinet includes the cabinet ministers only. But it is a part of the council of ministers##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With regard to Prime Minister"s Office (PMO), consider the following statements: It is an extra-constitutional body. The Cabinet Secretary is its administrative head. NITI Aayog comes under PMO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : Prime Minister's Office(PMO) is an extra-constitutional body as there is no mention of PMO in the Constitution. Statement 2 is not correct : Administrative Head of PMO is Principal Secretary - PMO acts as a staff agency to provide Secretarial assistance to PM. Statement 3 is not correct : NITI Aayog is a separate think tank of government. It does not come under PMO. It enjoys the status of a department of the Government. All the subjects which are not allotted to any Ministry or Department comes under PMO.
|
a
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Prime Minister"s Office (PMO), consider the following statements: It is an extra-constitutional body. The Cabinet Secretary is its administrative head. NITI Aayog comes under PMO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : Prime Minister's Office(PMO) is an extra-constitutional body as there is no mention of PMO in the Constitution. Statement 2 is not correct : Administrative Head of PMO is Principal Secretary - PMO acts as a staff agency to provide Secretarial assistance to PM. Statement 3 is not correct : NITI Aayog is a separate think tank of government. It does not come under PMO. It enjoys the status of a department of the Government. All the subjects which are not allotted to any Ministry or Department comes under PMO.##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Match the following
A. Absolute veto
|
o action taken on the bill passed by legislature
B. Qualified veto
|
Overwrite the legislature by higher majority
C. Suspensive veto
|
Overwrite the legislature by ordinary majority
D. pocket veto
|
o action taken on the bill passed by legislature
B. Qualified veto
|
A. Absolute veto - 1. With holding of the assent to the bill passed
B. Qualified veto - 2. Overwrite the legislature by higher majority
C. Suspensive veto - 3. Overwrite the legislature by oridinary majority
D. pocket veto - 4. no action taken on the bill passed by legislature
In India, there is no qualified veto power to the president. His decision can be over ruled by the ordinary majority only. (suspensive veto). No veto power in constitutional amendment bill.
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Match the following
A. Absolute veto ##Option_A:o action taken on the bill passed by legislature
B. Qualified veto ###Option_B:Overwrite the legislature by higher majority
C. Suspensive veto ##Option_C:Overwrite the legislature by ordinary majority
D. pocket veto ##Option_D:o action taken on the bill passed by legislature
B. Qualified veto ##Answer:b##Explaination:
A. Absolute veto - 1. With holding of the assent to the bill passed
B. Qualified veto - 2. Overwrite the legislature by higher majority
C. Suspensive veto - 3. Overwrite the legislature by oridinary majority
D. pocket veto - 4. no action taken on the bill passed by legislature
In India, there is no qualified veto power to the president. His decision can be over ruled by the ordinary majority only. (suspensive veto). No veto power in constitutional amendment bill.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
consider the following about pardoning power of Governor:
1. He can Pardon ,Reprive, Respite, Remit, Suspend any punishment of person convicted against a central law.
2. Governor has no power in relation to death sentence.
3. Governor has no pardoning power in respect to punishment or sentence by a court marshal.
which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
1. governor has pardoning power with respect to offense against state law and not central law.
2. governor cannot pardon a death sentence but governor can suspend, remite or commute the death sentence.
3. governor does not possess any power in relation to sentence by court marshal or military court.
|
b
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
consider the following about pardoning power of Governor:
1. He can Pardon ,Reprive, Respite, Remit, Suspend any punishment of person convicted against a central law.
2. Governor has no power in relation to death sentence.
3. Governor has no pardoning power in respect to punishment or sentence by a court marshal.
which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
1. governor has pardoning power with respect to offense against state law and not central law.
2. governor cannot pardon a death sentence but governor can suspend, remite or commute the death sentence.
3. governor does not possess any power in relation to sentence by court marshal or military court.
##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
consider the following provisions about the Governor:
|
Governor has not only situational discreation but also constitutional discreation.
|
42nd constitutional amendment act made ministerial advice binding on the Governor.
|
overnor must reserve the bill endangering the position of high court for presidential consideration.
|
Governor has not only situational discreation but also constitutional discreation.
|
statement one: is correct as governor has constitutional discretions for example reservation of the bill for presidential consideration, recommation of imposition of the presidential rule.
situational discreation e.g. - appoint of chief ministers when no party gets majority, dismissal of COM when it cannot porve the confidence of state assembly.
statement two: 42nd constitutional amendment act made ministerial advice binding on the president.
statement three and four are correct.
|
d
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
consider the following provisions about the Governor:
##Option_A:Governor has not only situational discreation but also constitutional discreation.
###Option_B:42nd constitutional amendment act made ministerial advice binding on the Governor.
##Option_C:overnor must reserve the bill endangering the position of high court for presidential consideration.
##Option_D:Governor has not only situational discreation but also constitutional discreation.
##Answer:d##Explaination:
statement one: is correct as governor has constitutional discretions for example reservation of the bill for presidential consideration, recommation of imposition of the presidential rule.
situational discreation e.g. - appoint of chief ministers when no party gets majority, dismissal of COM when it cannot porve the confidence of state assembly.
statement two: 42nd constitutional amendment act made ministerial advice binding on the president.
statement three and four are correct.
##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: 1. Pardon completely absolves from all sentences and punishment 2. Commutation reducing the period of sentence without changing the character of sentence 3. Remission substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. 4. Reprieve lesser sentence in special conditions. 5. Respite stay on the execution of sentence for a temporary period Which of the pairs given above is /are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1 only
|
Only pair 1 is correctly matched. Pardon : completely absolves from all sentences and punishments. Commutation : substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. e.g. - death sentence commuted to rigorous imprisonment. Remission : reduces the period of sentence without changing the character of sentence e.g. - four years rigorous imprisonment remissioned to one year rigorous imprisonment Reprieve : put a stay on the execution of sentence for a temporary period. Respite : awarding lesser sentence in special conditions e.g. pregnancy.
|
a
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: 1. Pardon completely absolves from all sentences and punishment 2. Commutation reducing the period of sentence without changing the character of sentence 3. Remission substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. 4. Reprieve lesser sentence in special conditions. 5. Respite stay on the execution of sentence for a temporary period Which of the pairs given above is /are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Only pair 1 is correctly matched. Pardon : completely absolves from all sentences and punishments. Commutation : substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. e.g. - death sentence commuted to rigorous imprisonment. Remission : reduces the period of sentence without changing the character of sentence e.g. - four years rigorous imprisonment remissioned to one year rigorous imprisonment Reprieve : put a stay on the execution of sentence for a temporary period. Respite : awarding lesser sentence in special conditions e.g. pregnancy.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of Prime Minister:
1. Constitution has provided for the appointment of the leader of majority party of lower house as a prime minister.
2. When no party gets majority, president appoints leader of the largest party or the coalition in lok sabha and ask him to seek the vote of confidence in lok sabha within six months.
3. When a person who is not a member of either house of parliament is appointed as a prime minister he has to be a member of either house within six months.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
1. constitution does not contain any specific provision regarding the appointment prime minister. article 75 states only that prime minister shall be appointed by the president. All other provisions are according to conventions of parlamentory system.
2. when no party gets majority, president appoints leader of the largest party or the coalition in lok sabha and ask him to seek the vote of confidence in lok sabha within one month.
3. third statement is correct.
|
c
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of Prime Minister:
1. Constitution has provided for the appointment of the leader of majority party of lower house as a prime minister.
2. When no party gets majority, president appoints leader of the largest party or the coalition in lok sabha and ask him to seek the vote of confidence in lok sabha within six months.
3. When a person who is not a member of either house of parliament is appointed as a prime minister he has to be a member of either house within six months.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
1. constitution does not contain any specific provision regarding the appointment prime minister. article 75 states only that prime minister shall be appointed by the president. All other provisions are according to conventions of parlamentory system.
2. when no party gets majority, president appoints leader of the largest party or the coalition in lok sabha and ask him to seek the vote of confidence in lok sabha within one month.
3. third statement is correct.
##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding benefits accrued to parties registering with the Election Commission of India:
Statement 1: The candidates set up by a political party registered with the Election Commission of India will get preference in the matter of allotment of free symbols vis-à-vis purely independent candidates
Statement 2: Registered political parties, in course of time, can get recognition as `State Party’ or National Party’ subject to the fulfillment of the conditions prescribed by the Commission in the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order,1968, as amended from time to time
Statement 3: If a party is recognised as a State Party’, it is entitled for exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to the candidates set up by it in the State of States in which it is so recognised, and if a party is recognised as a `National Party’ it is entitled for exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to the candidates set up by it throughout India
Statement 4: Recognised `State’ and `National’ parties need only one proposer for filing the nomination and are also entitled for two sets of electoral rolls free of cost and broadcast/telecast facilities over Akashvani/Doordarshan during general elections.
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
All of the statements given above are correct
|
c
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding benefits accrued to parties registering with the Election Commission of India:
Statement 1: The candidates set up by a political party registered with the Election Commission of India will get preference in the matter of allotment of free symbols vis-à-vis purely independent candidates
Statement 2: Registered political parties, in course of time, can get recognition as `State Party’ or National Party’ subject to the fulfillment of the conditions prescribed by the Commission in the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order,1968, as amended from time to time
Statement 3: If a party is recognised as a State Party’, it is entitled for exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to the candidates set up by it in the State of States in which it is so recognised, and if a party is recognised as a `National Party’ it is entitled for exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to the candidates set up by it throughout India
Statement 4: Recognised `State’ and `National’ parties need only one proposer for filing the nomination and are also entitled for two sets of electoral rolls free of cost and broadcast/telecast facilities over Akashvani/Doordarshan during general elections.
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 4
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
All of the statements given above are correct
##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Sustainable Development Goal Index is launched by which of the following?
|
World Economic Forum
|
Sustainable Development Solutions Network
|
World Bank
|
World Economic Forum
|
The Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann Stiftung have launched a new Sustainable Development Goal Index. The index helps countries identify priorities for early actions and shows that every country faces major challenges in achieving the SDGs. India is ranked at a low 110 of 149 nations with regard to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals.
|
b
|
Reports(International)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Sustainable Development Goal Index is launched by which of the following?##Option_A: World Economic Forum###Option_B: Sustainable Development Solutions Network##Option_C: World Bank##Option_D: World Economic Forum##Answer:b##Explaination:The Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann Stiftung have launched a new Sustainable Development Goal Index. The index helps countries identify priorities for early actions and shows that every country faces major challenges in achieving the SDGs. India is ranked at a low 110 of 149 nations with regard to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals. ##Topic:Reports(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: For contesting an election as a candidate, a person need not be necessarily registered as a voter
Statement 2: A person confined in jail can vote for elections, as it is a right guaranteed by the Constitution under Article 326
Statement 3: A person who is on bail, pending disposal of his/her appeal, can contest elections and is only disqualified after his/her appeal is rejected
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as for contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter. Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he/she is an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Section 5 (c) of Representation of People Act, 1951 has a similar provision for Assembly Constituencies.
Statement 2 is incorrect as according to section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, no person shall vote at any election if he/she is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police.
Statement 3 is incorrect as even if is a person is on bail, after the conviction and his/her appeal is pending for disposal, he/she is disqualified from contesting an election as per the guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India.
|
d
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: For contesting an election as a candidate, a person need not be necessarily registered as a voter
Statement 2: A person confined in jail can vote for elections, as it is a right guaranteed by the Constitution under Article 326
Statement 3: A person who is on bail, pending disposal of his/her appeal, can contest elections and is only disqualified after his/her appeal is rejected
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as for contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter. Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he/she is an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Section 5 (c) of Representation of People Act, 1951 has a similar provision for Assembly Constituencies.
Statement 2 is incorrect as according to section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, no person shall vote at any election if he/she is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police.
Statement 3 is incorrect as even if is a person is on bail, after the conviction and his/her appeal is pending for disposal, he/she is disqualified from contesting an election as per the guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India.
##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Who is responsible for counting of votes and declaration of results during an election?
|
District Electoral
|
Chief Electoral Officer
|
Returning Officer
|
District Electoral
|
According to Section 64 of the Representation of People Act, 1951, votes are counted by or under the supervision / direction of the Returning Officer of the Constituency. When the counting is completed, the Returning officer declares the result as per provisions of Section 66 of Representation of People Act, 1951
|
c
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Who is responsible for counting of votes and declaration of results during an election?
##Option_A: District Electoral
###Option_B: Chief Electoral Officer
##Option_C: Returning Officer
##Option_D: District Electoral
##Answer:c##Explaination:
According to Section 64 of the Representation of People Act, 1951, votes are counted by or under the supervision / direction of the Returning Officer of the Constituency. When the counting is completed, the Returning officer declares the result as per provisions of Section 66 of Representation of People Act, 1951
##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Once the results of the Parliament elections are declared in all constituencies, which authority is responsible for constituting the new Lok Sabha?
|
Outgoing Speaker of Lok Sabha
|
Pro Term Speaker of the newly constituted Lok Sabha
|
President of India
|
Outgoing Speaker of Lok Sabha
|
According to Section 73 of the Representation of People Act, 1951, after the results of all Parliamentary constituencies are declared, the Election Commission will constitute the new Lok Sabha by notifying in the official gazette, the names of the newly elected members.
|
d
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Once the results of the Parliament elections are declared in all constituencies, which authority is responsible for constituting the new Lok Sabha?
##Option_A: Outgoing Speaker of Lok Sabha
###Option_B: Pro Term Speaker of the newly constituted Lok Sabha
##Option_C: President of India
##Option_D: Outgoing Speaker of Lok Sabha
##Answer:d##Explaination:
According to Section 73 of the Representation of People Act, 1951, after the results of all Parliamentary constituencies are declared, the Election Commission will constitute the new Lok Sabha by notifying in the official gazette, the names of the newly elected members.
##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The personnel belonging to the Central Services serve under the Central Government only. 2. The personnel belonging to the State Services are recruited by the State Governments with the help of UPSC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The personnel belonging to the Central Services serve under the Central Government only. 2. The personnel belonging to the State Services are recruited by the State Governments with the help of UPSC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
‘Neutrino’ has been quite frequent in news due to important scientific research. What are the possible sources of neutrinos?
(1) Big Bang
(2) Cosmic Rays
(3) Supernova
(4) Nuclear Bomb
(5) Geological Reactions
(6) Nuclear Reactors
(7) Sun
The correct codes are-
|
1,2,4,6 and 7
|
1,2,3,5,and 7
|
2,3,4,5,6,and 7
|
1,2,4,6 and 7
|
.
|
d
|
Space Discoveries
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:‘Neutrino’ has been quite frequent in news due to important scientific research. What are the possible sources of neutrinos?
(1) Big Bang
(2) Cosmic Rays
(3) Supernova
(4) Nuclear Bomb
(5) Geological Reactions
(6) Nuclear Reactors
(7) Sun
The correct codes are-##Option_A:1,2,4,6 and 7###Option_B:1,2,3,5,and 7 ##Option_C: 2,3,4,5,6,and 7##Option_D:1,2,4,6 and 7##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Space Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Blackhole:
1. Infinitely dense mass. 2. It is formed due to the death of a big star. 3. Escape velocity is less than the speed of light.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 3
|
Only 1
|
nan
|
b
|
No_topic
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Blackhole:
1. Infinitely dense mass. 2. It is formed due to the death of a big star. 3. Escape velocity is less than the speed of light.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 1 and 2##Option_C:Only 3##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
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