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Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an Absolute majority and agreed to by a Simple majority of the Lok Sabha .
2. Vice-President is elected by members of electrol college consist of both elected and nomited members of both houses of parliament,and dose not include members of state legislative assemblies.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
statement 1 is given wrong in laxmikant
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an E ffective majority (more than 50% of effective membership(total membership - Vacant seats) and not by absolute mejority (ie mejority of total members of the house) and agreed to by a simple majority (50% of present and voting members) of the Lok Sabha (Article 67(b).
Statement 2 is correct
|
b
|
Vice President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an Absolute majority and agreed to by a Simple majority of the Lok Sabha .
2. Vice-President is elected by members of electrol college consist of both elected and nomited members of both houses of parliament,and dose not include members of state legislative assemblies.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
##Option_A:1 only
###Option_B:2 only
##Option_C:Both 1 and 2
##Option_D:1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
statement 1 is given wrong in laxmikant
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an E ffective majority (more than 50% of effective membership(total membership - Vacant seats) and not by absolute mejority (ie mejority of total members of the house) and agreed to by a simple majority (50% of present and voting members) of the Lok Sabha (Article 67(b).
Statement 2 is correct
##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Prior recommendation of the President is not required in which of the following bills to be introduced in the Parliament?
|
Bills related to making any change in areas of the existing States.
|
Bills related to reduction or abolition of any tax in which states are interested.
|
Bills related to changing the official language of the Union.
|
Bills related to making any change in areas of the existing States.
|
Bills related to changing the official language of the Parliament doesnot require prior recommendation of the President in its introduction. Bills requiring prior Presidential assent are: Money Bill (as per Article 110) & Finance Bill ; Bills relating to such matters -admission or establishment of new States, formation of new States, and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested (Article 274); State Bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade (Article 304) etc.
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Prior recommendation of the President is not required in which of the following bills to be introduced in the Parliament?##Option_A: Bills related to making any change in areas of the existing States.###Option_B: Bills related to reduction or abolition of any tax in which states are interested.##Option_C: Bills related to changing the official language of the Union.##Option_D: Bills related to making any change in areas of the existing States.##Answer:c##Explaination:Bills related to changing the official language of the Parliament doesnot require prior recommendation of the President in its introduction. Bills requiring prior Presidential assent are: Money Bill (as per Article 110) & Finance Bill ; Bills relating to such matters -admission or establishment of new States, formation of new States, and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested (Article 274); State Bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade (Article 304) etc. ##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The Prime Minister is in-charge/head of which of the following? National Institute for Transforming India National Board for Wildlife Zonal council Department of Atomic Energy Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
NITI Aayog, Department of Atomic Energy and National Board of Wildlife are headed by Prime Minister. Zonal Councils have been established by the state reorganization act 1956 to advise on matters of common interest to each of the five zones, into which the territory of India has been divided. They are headed by Union Home Minister.
|
d
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Prime Minister is in-charge/head of which of the following? National Institute for Transforming India National Board for Wildlife Zonal council Department of Atomic Energy Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination: NITI Aayog, Department of Atomic Energy and National Board of Wildlife are headed by Prime Minister. Zonal Councils have been established by the state reorganization act 1956 to advise on matters of common interest to each of the five zones, into which the territory of India has been divided. They are headed by Union Home Minister.##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Who among the following can do proxy voting in India? 1. NRIs 2. Members of Armed forces 3. Members of State Police forces 4. Government employees posted abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Service voter is a voter having service qualification and such a voter can cast his franchise through a proxy i.e. a person casts the vote on behalf of the service voter. Section 20(A) of the Representation of Peoples (Amendment) Act of 2010 insists on the physical presence of an NRI in his local constituency at the time of voting. The Election Commission has submitted a report in the Supreme Court on recommending proxy voting and e-postal ballots as alternatives to remove this restriction. According to the provisions of Section 20 of Representation of People Act, 1950, service qualification means – (a) Being a member of the armed Forces of the Union ; (b) Being a member of a force to which provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950), have been made applicable whether with or without modification ; (c) Being a member of an Armed Police Force of a State, and serving outside that state; or (d) Being a person who is employed under the Government of India, in a post outside India.
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following can do proxy voting in India? 1. NRIs 2. Members of Armed forces 3. Members of State Police forces 4. Government employees posted abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Service voter is a voter having service qualification and such a voter can cast his franchise through a proxy i.e. a person casts the vote on behalf of the service voter. Section 20(A) of the Representation of Peoples (Amendment) Act of 2010 insists on the physical presence of an NRI in his local constituency at the time of voting. The Election Commission has submitted a report in the Supreme Court on recommending proxy voting and e-postal ballots as alternatives to remove this restriction. According to the provisions of Section 20 of Representation of People Act, 1950, service qualification means – (a) Being a member of the armed Forces of the Union ; (b) Being a member of a force to which provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950), have been made applicable whether with or without modification ; (c) Being a member of an Armed Police Force of a State, and serving outside that state; or (d) Being a person who is employed under the Government of India, in a post outside India.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following amounts to expressing no- confidence in the Government ? Rejection of a money bill Passing a censure motion Passing an adjournment motion Passing a Motion of Thanks on the President"s inaugural address Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Lok Sabha can express lack of confidence in the government in the following ways: By not passing a motion of thanks on the President's inaugural address. By rejecting a money bill. By passing a censure motion or an adjournment motion. By defeating the government on a vital issue. By passing a cut motion.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following amounts to expressing no- confidence in the Government ? Rejection of a money bill Passing a censure motion Passing an adjournment motion Passing a Motion of Thanks on the President"s inaugural address Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination: The Lok Sabha can express lack of confidence in the government in the following ways: By not passing a motion of thanks on the President's inaugural address. By rejecting a money bill. By passing a censure motion or an adjournment motion. By defeating the government on a vital issue. By passing a cut motion.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
|
there is technical progress in the world economy
|
there is population growth in X
|
there is capital formation in X
|
there is technical progress in the world economy
|
.
|
c
|
GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if ##Option_A:there is technical progress in the world economy###Option_B:there is population growth in X##Option_C:there is capital formation in X##Option_D:there is technical progress in the world economy##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements;
1. Interest coverage ratio which in simple terms refers to the repayment strength of interest by the concerned firm even when odd situations are there.
2. Higher the coverage ratio lesser the risk of default.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Banking Reforms
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements;
1. Interest coverage ratio which in simple terms refers to the repayment strength of interest by the concerned firm even when odd situations are there.
2. Higher the coverage ratio lesser the risk of default.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Banking Reforms##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of _______
|
All transactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period of time
|
Goods exported from a country during a year
|
Thebilateral economic transaction between the government of one country to another
|
All transactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period of time
|
.
|
a
|
BOP & International Trade ,
|
Commerce & Accountancy
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of _______##Option_A: All transactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period of time###Option_B:Goods exported from a country during a year##Option_C:Thebilateral economic transaction between the government of one country to another##Option_D: All transactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period of time##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:BOP & International Trade ,##Subject:Commerce & Accountancy##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to The Ganas or Sanghas during the Mahajanapada: 1. Vajji and Malla were sanghas. 2. Ancient ganas were democracies. 3. They were closely associated with the Kshatriyas. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
to be added
|
c
|
Mahajanapadas
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to The Ganas or Sanghas during the Mahajanapada: 1. Vajji and Malla were sanghas. 2. Ancient ganas were democracies. 3. They were closely associated with the Kshatriyas. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only ##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:to be added##Topic:Mahajanapadas##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
With regard to the office of Governor, consider the following statements: It is subordinate to the Central government. It is an employment under the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of Governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government. Hence, both the statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
|
d
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the office of Governor, consider the following statements: It is subordinate to the Central government. It is an employment under the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of Governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government. Hence, both the statements 1 and 2 are not correct.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to the powers of President, consider the following statements: He can transfer Governor from one state to other on his discretion. The decision of the President to remove Governor cannot be challenged in the Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: As per Article 155 and Article 156 of the Constitution, a Governor of a state is an appointee of the President, and he or she holds office "during the pleasure of the President". If a Governor continues to enjoy the “pleasure of the President”, he or she can be in office for a term of five years. Because the President is bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74 of the Constitution, in effect it is the central government that appoints and removes the Governors. “Pleasure of the President” merely refers to this will and wish of the central government. Statement 2 is not correct: In 2010, a constitutional bench of the Supreme Court interpreted these provisions and laid down some binding principles ( B.P. Singhal v. Union of India ). In this case, the newly elected central government had removed the Governors of Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana and Goa in July, 2004 after the 14th Lok Sabha election. When these removals were challenged, the Supreme Court held: The President, in effect the central government, has the power to remove a Governor at any time without giving him or her any reason, and without granting an opportunity to be heard. However, this power cannot be exercised in an arbitrary, capricious or unreasonable manner. The power of removing Governors should only be exercised in rare and exceptional circumstances for valid and compelling reasons. The mere reason that a Governor is at variance with the policies and ideologies of the central government, or that the central government has lost confidence in him or her, is not sufficient to remove a Governor. Thus, a change in central government cannot be a ground for removal of Governors, or to appoint more favourable persons to this post. A decision to remove a Governor can be challenged in a court of law. In such cases, first the petitioner will have to make a prima facie case of arbitrariness or bad faith on part of the central government. If a prima facie case is established, the court can require the central government to produce the materials on the basis of which the decision was made in order to verify the presence of compelling reasons.
|
d
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the powers of President, consider the following statements: He can transfer Governor from one state to other on his discretion. The decision of the President to remove Governor cannot be challenged in the Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: As per Article 155 and Article 156 of the Constitution, a Governor of a state is an appointee of the President, and he or she holds office "during the pleasure of the President". If a Governor continues to enjoy the “pleasure of the President”, he or she can be in office for a term of five years. Because the President is bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74 of the Constitution, in effect it is the central government that appoints and removes the Governors. “Pleasure of the President” merely refers to this will and wish of the central government. Statement 2 is not correct: In 2010, a constitutional bench of the Supreme Court interpreted these provisions and laid down some binding principles ( B.P. Singhal v. Union of India ). In this case, the newly elected central government had removed the Governors of Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana and Goa in July, 2004 after the 14th Lok Sabha election. When these removals were challenged, the Supreme Court held: The President, in effect the central government, has the power to remove a Governor at any time without giving him or her any reason, and without granting an opportunity to be heard. However, this power cannot be exercised in an arbitrary, capricious or unreasonable manner. The power of removing Governors should only be exercised in rare and exceptional circumstances for valid and compelling reasons. The mere reason that a Governor is at variance with the policies and ideologies of the central government, or that the central government has lost confidence in him or her, is not sufficient to remove a Governor. Thus, a change in central government cannot be a ground for removal of Governors, or to appoint more favourable persons to this post. A decision to remove a Governor can be challenged in a court of law. In such cases, first the petitioner will have to make a prima facie case of arbitrariness or bad faith on part of the central government. If a prima facie case is established, the court can require the central government to produce the materials on the basis of which the decision was made in order to verify the presence of compelling reasons.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following officials are appointed and removed by the Governor? Advocate General of state Members of State Public Service Commission State Election Commissioner Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Advocate General is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. Members of State Public Service Commission and State Election Commissioner are appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.
|
a
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following officials are appointed and removed by the Governor? Advocate General of state Members of State Public Service Commission State Election Commissioner Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination: Advocate General is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. Members of State Public Service Commission and State Election Commissioner are appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Question of disqualification of Member of State Legislative Assembly for matters other than those in the Tenth schedule is decided by:
|
Speaker of Legislative Assembly
|
Governor
|
High Court
|
Speaker of Legislative Assembly
|
All the questions regarding disqualification of Members of state legislature are decided by Governor in consultation with Election Commission of India. Speaker has the power to decide questions of disqualification only under Tenth schedule i.e. Anti-defection law.
|
b
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Question of disqualification of Member of State Legislative Assembly for matters other than those in the Tenth schedule is decided by:##Option_A: Speaker of Legislative Assembly###Option_B: Governor##Option_C: High Court##Option_D: Speaker of Legislative Assembly##Answer:b##Explaination: All the questions regarding disqualification of Members of state legislature are decided by Governor in consultation with Election Commission of India. Speaker has the power to decide questions of disqualification only under Tenth schedule i.e. Anti-defection law.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the Governor of the state to cause to be laid before the State Legislature which of the following? Report of State Finance Commission Report of CAG relating to state Report of State Public Service Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Governor lays the reports of : State Finance Commission; State Public Service Commission; Reports of CAG relating to state before the state legislature; Annual financial statement(State budget) is laid before the state legislature.
|
d
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the Governor of the state to cause to be laid before the State Legislature which of the following? Report of State Finance Commission Report of CAG relating to state Report of State Public Service Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Governor lays the reports of : State Finance Commission; State Public Service Commission; Reports of CAG relating to state before the state legislature; Annual financial statement(State budget) is laid before the state legislature.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding reservation of a bill by the Governor for consideration of the President? Governor cannot reserve money bill for the consideration of the President. Governor"s assent is no longer required once bill is reserved. It is obligatory for Governor to reserve the bill if it endangers position of High Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Governor can reserve the money bill for the consideration of the President. But here President can either give his assent or reject the bill. He cannot ask state legislature for reconsideration. Statement 2 is correct: When the Governor reserve the bill for the consideration of the President, he will not have any further role in the enactment of the bill. This means that the assent of the Governor is no longer required. Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 200 - Governor shall not assent to, but shall reserve for the consideration of the President, any Bill which in the opinion of the Governor would, if it became law, so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fulfill.
|
c
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding reservation of a bill by the Governor for consideration of the President? Governor cannot reserve money bill for the consideration of the President. Governor"s assent is no longer required once bill is reserved. It is obligatory for Governor to reserve the bill if it endangers position of High Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Governor can reserve the money bill for the consideration of the President. But here President can either give his assent or reject the bill. He cannot ask state legislature for reconsideration. Statement 2 is correct: When the Governor reserve the bill for the consideration of the President, he will not have any further role in the enactment of the bill. This means that the assent of the Governor is no longer required. Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 200 - Governor shall not assent to, but shall reserve for the consideration of the President, any Bill which in the opinion of the Governor would, if it became law, so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fulfill.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: President"s pardoning power extends to both Union and Concurrent list. Governor"s pardoning power extends to state list only . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend remit or commute the sentence of any persons convicted of any offence against a Central law. Since central law can be on either on union list or concurrent list hence pardoning power of Presidents extends to Union and Concurrent list. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend remit or commute the sentence of any persons convicted of any offence against a state law. Since state law can be on either on state list or concurrent list hence pardoning power of governor extends to state and Concurrent list.
|
a
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: President"s pardoning power extends to both Union and Concurrent list. Governor"s pardoning power extends to state list only . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend remit or commute the sentence of any persons convicted of any offence against a Central law. Since central law can be on either on union list or concurrent list hence pardoning power of Presidents extends to Union and Concurrent list. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend remit or commute the sentence of any persons convicted of any offence against a state law. Since state law can be on either on state list or concurrent list hence pardoning power of governor extends to state and Concurrent list.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
A person "X" is a 30 year old citizen of India and is a registered elector in Parliamentary constituency. "X" is qualified for which of the following positions? President Prime Minister Speaker of Lok Sabha Chairman of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Presidential candidate must: Be a citizen of India. Have completed the age of thirty-five years. - Be qualified for elections as a member of the Lok Sabha. - Not hold any office of profit under the Union or any State government, or any local or other authority. So 'X' cannot become a President. The candidate contesting for election of Chairman of Rajya Sabha( Vice-President) of India should fulfill the below conditions: - He must be a citizen of India - He must have completed age of 35 years - - He cannot hold an office for profit. - He must be qualified to become a member of Rajya Sabha. So 'X' cannot become a President. As per Article 84 of the constitution, a person is qualified to be a Member of Parliament provided he: - is a citizen of India - has completed 30 years of age in case of Rajya Sabha and 25 years in case of Lok Sabha. - possesses such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament. The third condition above led the Parliament to include other qualifications for MPs in the Representation of People Act (1951). These qualifications are as follows: - Only an elector can be elected. Thus, the candidate must be registered as a voter in a parliamentary constituency and must be eligible to vote. - It is not necessary that a person should be registered as a voter in the same constituency. This is applicable for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Hence, 'X' is qualified to become both Prime Minister and Speaker of Lok Sabha.
|
b
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A person "X" is a 30 year old citizen of India and is a registered elector in Parliamentary constituency. "X" is qualified for which of the following positions? President Prime Minister Speaker of Lok Sabha Chairman of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination: The Presidential candidate must: Be a citizen of India. Have completed the age of thirty-five years. - Be qualified for elections as a member of the Lok Sabha. - Not hold any office of profit under the Union or any State government, or any local or other authority. So 'X' cannot become a President. The candidate contesting for election of Chairman of Rajya Sabha( Vice-President) of India should fulfill the below conditions: - He must be a citizen of India - He must have completed age of 35 years - - He cannot hold an office for profit. - He must be qualified to become a member of Rajya Sabha. So 'X' cannot become a President. As per Article 84 of the constitution, a person is qualified to be a Member of Parliament provided he: - is a citizen of India - has completed 30 years of age in case of Rajya Sabha and 25 years in case of Lok Sabha. - possesses such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament. The third condition above led the Parliament to include other qualifications for MPs in the Representation of People Act (1951). These qualifications are as follows: - Only an elector can be elected. Thus, the candidate must be registered as a voter in a parliamentary constituency and must be eligible to vote. - It is not necessary that a person should be registered as a voter in the same constituency. This is applicable for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Hence, 'X' is qualified to become both Prime Minister and Speaker of Lok Sabha.##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following provisions was the part of Nehru Report 1928? 1. Complete independence 2. Provinces based on languages 3. Fundamental rights Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 and 3 Only
|
2 and 3 Only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 Only
|
.
|
b
|
Nehru Report, 1928
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions was the part of Nehru Report 1928? 1. Complete independence 2. Provinces based on languages 3. Fundamental rights Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 and 3 Only###Option_B: 2 and 3 Only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 Only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Nehru Report, 1928##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following provisions
1. 1/3rd members in the federal assembly to be nominees of princes. 2. Provided for the federal structure that is India to be a union of British India and princely states. 3. Universal adult franchise.
Which of the above was part of the GoI Act, 1935?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
a
|
The Government of India Act, 1935
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following provisions
1. 1/3rd members in the federal assembly to be nominees of princes. 2. Provided for the federal structure that is India to be a union of British India and princely states. 3. Universal adult franchise.
Which of the above was part of the GoI Act, 1935?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:The Government of India Act, 1935##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Who among the following presided over the Karachi Session 1931?
|
Rajendra Prasad
|
Vallabh Bhai Patel
|
Motilal Nehru
|
Rajendra Prasad
|
.
|
b
|
The Civil Disobedience Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following presided over the Karachi Session 1931?##Option_A:Rajendra Prasad###Option_B:Vallabh Bhai Patel##Option_C:Motilal Nehru##Option_D:Rajendra Prasad##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:The Civil Disobedience Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following matches
Khudai Khidmatgars – NWFP
Salt Satyagrah – Dharsana
No rent campaign – Bihar
Agitation against Cunningham Circular – Assam
Which of the above are correctly matched?
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
All of the above
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
.
|
d
|
Gandhi – Advent and Achievement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following matches
Khudai Khidmatgars – NWFP
Salt Satyagrah – Dharsana
No rent campaign – Bihar
Agitation against Cunningham Circular – Assam
Which of the above are correctly matched?##Option_A:Only 1, 2 and 3###Option_B:All of the above##Option_C:Only 1 and 2##Option_D:Only 1, 2 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Gandhi – Advent and Achievement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Who among the following supervises elections in a state?
|
State Election Commissioner
|
Chief Election Commissioner
|
Chief Electoral Officer
|
State Election Commissioner
|
According to Section 13 A of the Representation of the People Act 1950 and Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Chief Electoral Officer of a State/ Union Territory is authorised to supervise the election work in the State/Union Territory subject to the overall superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission
|
c
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Who among the following supervises elections in a state?
##Option_A: State Election Commissioner
###Option_B: Chief Election Commissioner
##Option_C: Chief Electoral Officer
##Option_D: State Election Commissioner
##Answer:c##Explaination:
According to Section 13 A of the Representation of the People Act 1950 and Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Chief Electoral Officer of a State/ Union Territory is authorised to supervise the election work in the State/Union Territory subject to the overall superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission
##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:
1. The Constitution has prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission under Article 324
2. Article 324 specifies the term of the members of the Election Commission
3. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointments by the government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as the Constitution does not prescribe any qualification for the members of the Election Commission. The President determines the conditions of service of the members
Statement 2 is incorrect as the term of the members of the Election Commission has not been specified in the Constitution
Statement 3 is correct
|
d
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:
1. The Constitution has prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission under Article 324
2. Article 324 specifies the term of the members of the Election Commission
3. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointments by the government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B: 1 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as the Constitution does not prescribe any qualification for the members of the Election Commission. The President determines the conditions of service of the members
Statement 2 is incorrect as the term of the members of the Election Commission has not been specified in the Constitution
Statement 3 is correct
##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following does not come under the expenditure "charged" upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
|
Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
|
Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court.
|
Salaries and pensions of the judges of high courts.
|
Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
|
The budget consists of two types of expenditure-the expenditure 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India. The charged expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament, that is, it can only be discussed by the Parliament, while the other type has to be voted by the Parliament. The list of the charged expenditure is as follows: Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court. Pensions ( and not salaries )of the judges of high courts. Hence, (c) is not correct. Salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Salaries, allowances and pension of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and the Union Public Service Commission including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the persons serving in these offices. The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable, including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal. Any other expenditure declared by the Parliament to be
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following does not come under the expenditure "charged" upon the Consolidated Fund of India?##Option_A: Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.###Option_B: Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court.##Option_C: Salaries and pensions of the judges of high courts.##Option_D: Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.##Answer:c##Explaination:The budget consists of two types of expenditure-the expenditure 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India. The charged expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament, that is, it can only be discussed by the Parliament, while the other type has to be voted by the Parliament. The list of the charged expenditure is as follows: Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court. Pensions ( and not salaries )of the judges of high courts. Hence, (c) is not correct. Salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Salaries, allowances and pension of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and the Union Public Service Commission including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the persons serving in these offices. The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable, including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal. Any other expenditure declared by the Parliament to be ##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements with regard to Consultative Committees is not correct?
|
They provide a forum for informal discussions between the ministers and the MPs on policies and programmes of the government.
|
They are headed by the Speaker.
|
They are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
|
They provide a forum for informal discussions between the ministers and the MPs on policies and programmes of the government.
|
Consultative committees are attached to various ministries / departments of the Central Government. They consist of members of both the Houses of Parliament. The Minister / Minister of State in charge of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs concerned acts as the chairman of the consultative committee of that ministry. Hence, (b) is not correct. These committees provide a forum for informal discussions between the ministers and the members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the government and the manner of their implementation. These committees are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. The guidelines regarding the composition, functions and procedures of these committees are formulated by this Ministry. Ministry also makes arrangements for holding their meetings both during the session and the intersession period of Parliament. The membership of these committees is voluntary and is left to the choice of the members and the leaders of their parties. The maximum membership of a committee is 30 and the minimum is 10. These committees are normally constituted after the new Lok Sabha is constituted, after General Elections for the Lok Sabha. In other words, these committees shall stand dissolved upon dissolution of every Lok Sabha and shall be reconstituted upon constitution of each Lok Sabha
|
b
|
Committees of Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements with regard to Consultative Committees is not correct?##Option_A: They provide a forum for informal discussions between the ministers and the MPs on policies and programmes of the government.###Option_B: They are headed by the Speaker.##Option_C: They are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.##Option_D: They provide a forum for informal discussions between the ministers and the MPs on policies and programmes of the government.##Answer:b##Explaination:Consultative committees are attached to various ministries / departments of the Central Government. They consist of members of both the Houses of Parliament. The Minister / Minister of State in charge of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs concerned acts as the chairman of the consultative committee of that ministry. Hence, (b) is not correct. These committees provide a forum for informal discussions between the ministers and the members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the government and the manner of their implementation. These committees are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. The guidelines regarding the composition, functions and procedures of these committees are formulated by this Ministry. Ministry also makes arrangements for holding their meetings both during the session and the intersession period of Parliament. The membership of these committees is voluntary and is left to the choice of the members and the leaders of their parties. The maximum membership of a committee is 30 and the minimum is 10. These committees are normally constituted after the new Lok Sabha is constituted, after General Elections for the Lok Sabha. In other words, these committees shall stand dissolved upon dissolution of every Lok Sabha and shall be reconstituted upon constitution of each Lok Sabha##Topic:Committees of Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With regard to enactment of Budget, consider the following statements: The budget shall distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure. Parliament can reduce or increase a tax but cannot abolish it. No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution of India contains the following provisions with regard to the enactment of budget : Statement 1 is correct : Article 112(2) provides that the budget shall distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure. Statement 2 is not correct: Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it. Statement 3 is not correct: Article 113(3) states that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to enactment of Budget, consider the following statements: The budget shall distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure. Parliament can reduce or increase a tax but cannot abolish it. No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Constitution of India contains the following provisions with regard to the enactment of budget : Statement 1 is correct : Article 112(2) provides that the budget shall distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure. Statement 2 is not correct: Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it. Statement 3 is not correct: Article 113(3) states that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following departments come under Ministry of Science and Technology?
Department of Science and Technology
Department of Atomic Energy
Department of Bio-Technology
Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Ministry of Science and Technology includes following Departments: Department of Science and Technology Department of Scientific and Industrial Research Department of Bio-Technology Department of Atomic Energy is independent department directly under PMO.
|
c
|
Ministeries and Departments of the government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following departments come under Ministry of Science and Technology?
Department of Science and Technology
Department of Atomic Energy
Department of Bio-Technology
Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:Ministry of Science and Technology includes following Departments: Department of Science and Technology Department of Scientific and Industrial Research Department of Bio-Technology Department of Atomic Energy is independent department directly under PMO.##Topic:Ministeries and Departments of the government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement about ordinance making power of President :
1) Ordinance making power is a situtional discretionary power of Presidnt.
2) Ordinance can be retrospective.
3) It may modify or repeal any act of parliament.
4) Ordinance can not alter or amend a tax law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
statement 1 is incorrect:ordinance making power is not discritionary power &he can promulgate or withdraw ordinance only on advice of concil of minister
statement 2 and 3 are correct
statement 4 is incorrect: Ordinance can alter or amend a tax law.
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement about ordinance making power of President :
1) Ordinance making power is a situtional discretionary power of Presidnt.
2) Ordinance can be retrospective.
3) It may modify or repeal any act of parliament.
4) Ordinance can not alter or amend a tax law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
##Option_A:1 and 2 only
###Option_B:2 and 3 only
##Option_C:1 and 4 only
##Option_D:1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
statement 1 is incorrect:ordinance making power is not discritionary power &he can promulgate or withdraw ordinance only on advice of concil of minister
statement 2 and 3 are correct
statement 4 is incorrect: Ordinance can alter or amend a tax law.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Central Government consider the followin statement:
1. Union cabinate secretariat operates under the derection of Ministry of Parlamentry Affairs
2. Constitution of India provides that all cabinate ministers shall be from lok sabha only.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2only
|
both 1and 2
|
1 only
|
statement 1 is incorrect: The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board , the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India . The Cabinet Secretary is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister .
statement 2:cabina ministers can be from both lok sabha and Rajya sabha.
|
d
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Central Government consider the followin statement:
1. Union cabinate secretariat operates under the derection of Ministry of Parlamentry Affairs
2. Constitution of India provides that all cabinate ministers shall be from lok sabha only.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
##Option_A:1 only
###Option_B:2only
##Option_C:both 1and 2
##Option_D:1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
statement 1 is incorrect: The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board , the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India . The Cabinet Secretary is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister .
statement 2:cabina ministers can be from both lok sabha and Rajya sabha.
##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Cripps"s Mission:
1. A representative Constitution-Making Body shall be appointed. 2. The number of Indians in the Viceroy’s Executive council will be increased. 3. It was offered by Sir Stafford Cripps.
Which of the above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
b
|
The Cripps Proposal, 1942
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Cripps"s Mission:
1. A representative Constitution-Making Body shall be appointed. 2. The number of Indians in the Viceroy’s Executive council will be increased. 3. It was offered by Sir Stafford Cripps.
Which of the above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:The Cripps Proposal, 1942##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Who was the first to offer individual satyagraha?
|
L. Nehru
|
Sardar Patel
|
Vinoba Bhave
|
L. Nehru
|
.
|
c
|
Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who was the first to offer individual satyagraha?##Option_A:L. Nehru###Option_B:Sardar Patel##Option_C:Vinoba Bhave##Option_D:L. Nehru##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
In which session of congress M.K. Gandhi raised the slogan of do and die?
|
Calcutta
|
Karachi
|
Bombay
|
Calcutta
|
.
|
c
|
The Quit India Movement, I942
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In which session of congress M.K. Gandhi raised the slogan of do and die?##Option_A:Calcutta###Option_B:Karachi##Option_C:Bombay##Option_D:Calcutta##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:The Quit India Movement, I942##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
With which of the following Aruna Asif Ali was associated?
Raised the Tricolour at the Gowalia tank in the midst of police brutality
Royal Indian Navy revolt of 1946
Founded the women’s department of the Indian National Congress
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
.
|
a
|
Revolutionary movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With which of the following Aruna Asif Ali was associated?
Raised the Tricolour at the Gowalia tank in the midst of police brutality
Royal Indian Navy revolt of 1946
Founded the women’s department of the Indian National Congress
##Option_A:Only 1 and 2###Option_B:Only 2 and 3##Option_C:Only 1 and 3##Option_D:Only 1 and 2##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Revolutionary movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Who was known as old lady Gandhi?
|
Sarojini Naidu
|
Sucheta Kriplani
|
Matangini Hazra
|
Sarojini Naidu
|
.
|
c
|
Gandhi – Advent and Achievement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who was known as old lady Gandhi?##Option_A:Sarojini Naidu###Option_B:Sucheta Kriplani##Option_C:Matangini Hazra##Option_D:Sarojini Naidu##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Gandhi – Advent and Achievement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Q) Though the Governer of state is executive head of state, the real executive power vest in
|
The state council of minister
|
the chief minister
|
civil servants
|
The state council of minister
|
At the state level, there is a Governor in whom the executive power of the State is vested by the Constitution. But the Governor acts as a nominal head, and the real executive powers are exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India.
|
a
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Q) Though the Governer of state is executive head of state, the real executive power vest in
##Option_A:The state council of minister
###Option_B:the chief minister
##Option_C:civil servants
##Option_D:The state council of minister
##Answer:a##Explaination:
At the state level, there is a Governor in whom the executive power of the State is vested by the Constitution. But the Governor acts as a nominal head, and the real executive powers are exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India.
##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following are financial powers of state council of ministers?
1.Formulating the budgate proposals and presenting the same to state legiskature for approval
2.All proposals for taxation emanate from the council of Minister
3.Regulation of contingency fund of state and advancing money out of in contingency situations.
Select the correct answer using codes given below?
a) 1and 2 only
b )2 and 3 only
c) 1and 3 only
d) 1 ,2, and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
statements1,statement 2 ,statement3 are right statements
|
d
|
State Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are financial powers of state council of ministers?
1.Formulating the budgate proposals and presenting the same to state legiskature for approval
2.All proposals for taxation emanate from the council of Minister
3.Regulation of contingency fund of state and advancing money out of in contingency situations.
Select the correct answer using codes given below?
a) 1and 2 only
b )2 and 3 only
c) 1and 3 only
d) 1 ,2, and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
statements1,statement 2 ,statement3 are right statements
##Topic:State Council of Minister##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following matches
Banaras: Chait Singh
Awadh: Wazir Shah Ali
Telangana: Velluthampi
Bengal: Paikas
Which of the above are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following matches
Banaras: Chait Singh
Awadh: Wazir Shah Ali
Telangana: Velluthampi
Bengal: Paikas
Which of the above are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
|
The reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
|
The grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
|
The uprooting of the Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
|
The reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
|
.
|
a
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for##Option_A:The reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third###Option_B:The grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land##Option_C:The uprooting of the Zamindari system and the end of serfdom##Option_D:The reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
The members of state legislative council are appointed through?
1.direction election
2.indirect election
3.nomination
select the correct answer using codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2and 3 only
c) 1and 3 only
d ) 2and 3 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
5/6 th of total number of members of state legislative council are indirectly elected and 1/6 are nomited by governor.
|
b
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The members of state legislative council are appointed through?
1.direction election
2.indirect election
3.nomination
select the correct answer using codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2and 3 only
c) 1and 3 only
d ) 2and 3 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
5/6 th of total number of members of state legislative council are indirectly elected and 1/6 are nomited by governor.
##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda? 1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought. 2. The Administration proposed to introduce a Permanent Settlement in Gujarat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda? 1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought. 2. The Administration proposed to introduce a Permanent Settlement in Gujarat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Non- Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movement##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Writs mentioned in Article 32, which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. Habeas corpus can be issued against a private individual.
2. Mandamus can be issued against a private individual.
3. Prohibition can be issued against administrative authorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Writs mentioned in Article 32, which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. Habeas corpus can be issued against a private individual.
2. Mandamus can be issued against a private individual.
3. Prohibition can be issued against administrative authorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which/Who of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
|
The Parliament of India.
|
The President of India
|
The Supreme court of India
|
The Parliament of India.
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which/Who of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?##Option_A:The Parliament of India.###Option_B:The President of India##Option_C:The Supreme court of India##Option_D:The Parliament of India.##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following grounds are mentioned in the constitution for the removal of a judge of the supreme court?
1. Proved misbehavior. 2. Incapacity. 3. Indiscipline.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only.
|
2 and 3 only.
|
1 and 3 only.
|
1 and 2 only.
|
nan
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following grounds are mentioned in the constitution for the removal of a judge of the supreme court?
1. Proved misbehavior. 2. Incapacity. 3. Indiscipline.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:##Option_A:1 and 2 only.###Option_B:2 and 3 only.##Option_C:1 and 3 only.##Option_D:1 and 2 only.##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. When a national emergency is proclaimed on grounds of war or armed rebellion then article 19 is automatically suspended.
2. Defence Minister of India can suspend the operation of any fundamental rights except article 20 and article 21 when an emergency is declared on grounds of war.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. When a national emergency is proclaimed on grounds of war or armed rebellion then article 19 is automatically suspended.
2. Defence Minister of India can suspend the operation of any fundamental rights except article 20 and article 21 when an emergency is declared on grounds of war.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Kailashnath Temple situated at Ellora, consider the following statements: 1. It is a rock-cut shrine within a rectangular court built in nagara style. 2. It features sculptural representations of both Shiva and Vishnu. 3. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The magnificent Kailashanatha temple at Ellora, built during the reign of Rashtrakuta king Krishna I, is the culmination of at least a millennium-long tradition in rock-cut architecture in India. It is a complete dravida building with a Nandi shrine—since the temple is dedicated to Shiva—a gopuram -like gateway, surrounding cloisters, subsidiary shrines, staircases, and an imposing tower, or vimana , rising to thirty metres. Importantly, all of this is carved out of living rock. One portion of the monolithic hill was carved patiently to build the Kailashnath temple. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Practically all the surfaces of the temple complex are richly ornamented with bold, dramatic, and exceptionally fine sculptures. Most of them are Shaiva, but there are also representations of Vishnu. In fact, the sculptures to the left of the entrance are mostly Shaiva, while those to the right are mostly Vaishnava. A similar logic of sculptural arrangement is found along the back wall of the gallery surrounding the temple. The sculptures include representations of Shiva, Shiva and Parvati, Durga, the Sapta-Matrikas, Ganesha, and the goddesses Ganga, Yamuna, and Sarasvati. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Ellora (also known as Elura or Elapura) Caves are one of the largest rock-cut monastery cave complexes in the world. There are around 100 Buddhist, Hindu and Jain caves at the site, of which 34 are open to the public. They are locally known as Verul Leni. Of these 34 caves in the complex, cave number 16, popularly known as Kailash or Kailashnath temple and dedicated to Lord Shiva, is one of the largest solitary monolithic stone excavations in the world. The temple was carved out vertically from top to bottom from a single basalt rock. It is protected by the Archeological Survey of India and was also declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983. Hence statement 3 is correct.
|
c
|
Architecture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Kailashnath Temple situated at Ellora, consider the following statements: 1. It is a rock-cut shrine within a rectangular court built in nagara style. 2. It features sculptural representations of both Shiva and Vishnu. 3. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The magnificent Kailashanatha temple at Ellora, built during the reign of Rashtrakuta king Krishna I, is the culmination of at least a millennium-long tradition in rock-cut architecture in India. It is a complete dravida building with a Nandi shrine—since the temple is dedicated to Shiva—a gopuram -like gateway, surrounding cloisters, subsidiary shrines, staircases, and an imposing tower, or vimana , rising to thirty metres. Importantly, all of this is carved out of living rock. One portion of the monolithic hill was carved patiently to build the Kailashnath temple. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Practically all the surfaces of the temple complex are richly ornamented with bold, dramatic, and exceptionally fine sculptures. Most of them are Shaiva, but there are also representations of Vishnu. In fact, the sculptures to the left of the entrance are mostly Shaiva, while those to the right are mostly Vaishnava. A similar logic of sculptural arrangement is found along the back wall of the gallery surrounding the temple. The sculptures include representations of Shiva, Shiva and Parvati, Durga, the Sapta-Matrikas, Ganesha, and the goddesses Ganga, Yamuna, and Sarasvati. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Ellora (also known as Elura or Elapura) Caves are one of the largest rock-cut monastery cave complexes in the world. There are around 100 Buddhist, Hindu and Jain caves at the site, of which 34 are open to the public. They are locally known as Verul Leni. Of these 34 caves in the complex, cave number 16, popularly known as Kailash or Kailashnath temple and dedicated to Lord Shiva, is one of the largest solitary monolithic stone excavations in the world. The temple was carved out vertically from top to bottom from a single basalt rock. It is protected by the Archeological Survey of India and was also declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983. Hence statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Architecture##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
With reference to administrative tribunal, consider the following statements:
CAT cannot issue writs.
The Parliament decides the jurisdiction of the tribunals.
Tribunals are part of integrated judiciary system of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to administrative tribunal, consider the following statements:
CAT cannot issue writs.
The Parliament decides the jurisdiction of the tribunals.
Tribunals are part of integrated judiciary system of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only ##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to DPSP of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
Directive Principles are justiciable in nature and can be enforced in a court of law.
Directive Principles lay the foundation of political democracy in the country.
These are self executory.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to DPSP of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
Directive Principles are justiciable in nature and can be enforced in a court of law.
Directive Principles lay the foundation of political democracy in the country.
These are self executory.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements
Fundamental rights are negative obligations for the state.
Fundamental rights provide for Social democracy.
DPSPs provide for political democracy.
Which one of the above is/are incorrect?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 2
|
Only 1
|
.Fundamental rights provide Political democracy and DPSPs provide social &economic democracy
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
Fundamental rights are negative obligations for the state.
Fundamental rights provide for Social democracy.
DPSPs provide for political democracy.
Which one of the above is/are incorrect?##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2 and 3##Option_C:Only 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:.Fundamental rights provide Political democracy and DPSPs provide social &economic democracy##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the National Emergency.
During the National Emergency, the centre can suspend the state assembly.
The President can extend the tenure of Lok Sabha when Article 352 is in operation.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the National Emergency.
During the National Emergency, the centre can suspend the state assembly.
The President can extend the tenure of Lok Sabha when Article 352 is in operation.
Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to National Emergency, consider the following statements:
In case of a national emergency, the fundamental rights under articles 20 and 21 are automatically suspended.
During a national emergency, Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to National Emergency, consider the following statements:
In case of a national emergency, the fundamental rights under articles 20 and 21 are automatically suspended.
During a national emergency, Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Delimitation of constituencies are not correct ?
The validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies cannot be questioned in any court.
The present constituencies shall continue to be in operation till the first census after 2026.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The Constitution declares that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court. Consequently, the orders issued by the Delimitation Commission become final and cannot be challenged in any court.
Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every census. After coming into force commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation Commission. This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act. The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 census figures under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002. Notwithstanding the above, the Constitution of India was specifically amended in 2002 not to have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026. Thus, the present Constituencies carved out on the basis of 2001 census shall continue to be in operation till the first census after 2026
|
d
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the Delimitation of constituencies are not correct ?
The validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies cannot be questioned in any court.
The present constituencies shall continue to be in operation till the first census after 2026.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Constitution declares that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court. Consequently, the orders issued by the Delimitation Commission become final and cannot be challenged in any court.
Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every census. After coming into force commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation Commission. This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act. The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 census figures under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002. Notwithstanding the above, the Constitution of India was specifically amended in 2002 not to have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026. Thus, the present Constituencies carved out on the basis of 2001 census shall continue to be in operation till the first census after 2026
##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Representation of People’s Act 1950 does not concern with which of the following aspects of general elections?
Preparation of electoral rolls
Delimitation of constituencies
Administrative machinery for conduct of elections
Registration of political parties
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
3 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The Representation of People’s Act 1951 concerns with the following aspects of general elections
Actual conduct of elections
Administrative machinery for conducting elections
Election offences
Election disputes
By-elections
Registration of political parties
Representation of the People Act of 1950 provides for the qualifications of voters,preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation of constituencies, allocation of seats in theParliament and state legislatures and so on.
|
c
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Representation of People’s Act 1950 does not concern with which of the following aspects of general elections?
Preparation of electoral rolls
Delimitation of constituencies
Administrative machinery for conduct of elections
Registration of political parties
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
3 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Representation of People’s Act 1951 concerns with the following aspects of general elections
Actual conduct of elections
Administrative machinery for conducting elections
Election offences
Election disputes
By-elections
Registration of political parties
Representation of the People Act of 1950 provides for the qualifications of voters,preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation of constituencies, allocation of seats in theParliament and state legislatures and so on.
##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding election disputes are not correct ?
Any disputes arising out of elections to the Lok Sabha shall be admissible in Supreme Court only.
Any disputes arising out of elections to the state legislatures shall be admissible in the concerned High Court only.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The Constitution lays down that no election to the Parliament or the state legislature is to be
questioned except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as
provided by the appropriate legislature. Since 1966, the election petitions are triable by high courts alone. But, the appellate jurisdiction lies with the Supreme Court alone.
|
a
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding election disputes are not correct ?
Any disputes arising out of elections to the Lok Sabha shall be admissible in Supreme Court only.
Any disputes arising out of elections to the state legislatures shall be admissible in the concerned High Court only.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Constitution lays down that no election to the Parliament or the state legislature is to be
questioned except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as
provided by the appropriate legislature. Since 1966, the election petitions are triable by high courts alone. But, the appellate jurisdiction lies with the Supreme Court alone.
##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following committees is concerned with state funding of elections?
Indrajit Gupta committee
Tarkunde committee
Vohra committee
Jeevan Reddy committee
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Tarkunde Committee was appointed in 1974 by Jaya Prakash Narayan (JP) during his “Total
Revolution” movement. This unofficial committee submitted its report in 1975.
Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral Reforms (1990)
Vohra Committee on the Nexus between Crime and Politics (1993)
Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998)
National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000-2002). It was headed
by M.N. Venkatachaliah.
|
a
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following committees is concerned with state funding of elections?
Indrajit Gupta committee
Tarkunde committee
Vohra committee
Jeevan Reddy committee
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
Tarkunde Committee was appointed in 1974 by Jaya Prakash Narayan (JP) during his “Total
Revolution” movement. This unofficial committee submitted its report in 1975.
Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral Reforms (1990)
Vohra Committee on the Nexus between Crime and Politics (1993)
Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998)
National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000-2002). It was headed
by M.N. Venkatachaliah.
##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
A person shall be disqualified to contest in the elections to the Parliament if he/she is convicted for which of the following offenses
Promotion of enmity between different groups
Election offenses and corrupt practices
Supporting untouchability or dowry
Insulting the national flag
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
In addition to the constitutional disqualifications (under Article 102), the following acts lay down other disqualifications:
Representation of the People Act, 1951
The protection of civil rights Act, 1955
Customs act, 1962
Foreign Exchange (Regulation) Act, 1973
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
|
d
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
A person shall be disqualified to contest in the elections to the Parliament if he/she is convicted for which of the following offenses
Promotion of enmity between different groups
Election offenses and corrupt practices
Supporting untouchability or dowry
Insulting the national flag
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
In addition to the constitutional disqualifications (under Article 102), the following acts lay down other disqualifications:
Representation of the People Act, 1951
The protection of civil rights Act, 1955
Customs act, 1962
Foreign Exchange (Regulation) Act, 1973
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding elections to the Rajya Sabha are not correct ?
A person is disqualified from contesting if he is not an elector of the State from where he is contesting
Elections are held in Secret ballot system
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
In 2003, the following two changes were introduced with respect to elections to the Rajya Sabha
(i) Domicile or residency requirement of a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha was removed. Prior to this, a candidate had to be an elector in the state from where he was to be elected. Now, it would be sufficient if he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency in the country.
(ii) Introducing open ballot system, instead of secret ballot system to curb cross-voting and to wipe out the role of money power during Rajya Sabha elections. Under the new system, an elector belonging to a political party has to show the ballot paper after marking his vote to a nominated agent of that political party.
|
c
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding elections to the Rajya Sabha are not correct ?
A person is disqualified from contesting if he is not an elector of the State from where he is contesting
Elections are held in Secret ballot system
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
In 2003, the following two changes were introduced with respect to elections to the Rajya Sabha
(i) Domicile or residency requirement of a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha was removed. Prior to this, a candidate had to be an elector in the state from where he was to be elected. Now, it would be sufficient if he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency in the country.
(ii) Introducing open ballot system, instead of secret ballot system to curb cross-voting and to wipe out the role of money power during Rajya Sabha elections. Under the new system, an elector belonging to a political party has to show the ballot paper after marking his vote to a nominated agent of that political party.
##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The Election commission of India is not concerned with the conduct of which of the following elections, according to the Indian Constitution:
Elections to the Lok Sabha
Elections to the Rajya Sabha
Election to the office of Chairman of Lok Sabha
Election to the office of Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Select the correct option using the code given below:
3 only
4 only
3 and 4 only
None of the above options are correct.
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The Constitution (Article 324) provides for an independent Election Commission in order to ensure free and fair elections in the country. The power of super-tendance, direction and conduct of elections to the Parliament, the state legislatures, the office of the President and the office of the Vice-President is vested in the Commission. At present, the commission consists of a chief election commissioner and two election commissioners
|
a
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Election commission of India is not concerned with the conduct of which of the following elections, according to the Indian Constitution:
Elections to the Lok Sabha
Elections to the Rajya Sabha
Election to the office of Chairman of Lok Sabha
Election to the office of Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Select the correct option using the code given below:
3 only
4 only
3 and 4 only
None of the above options are correct.
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
The Constitution (Article 324) provides for an independent Election Commission in order to ensure free and fair elections in the country. The power of super-tendance, direction and conduct of elections to the Parliament, the state legislatures, the office of the President and the office of the Vice-President is vested in the Commission. At present, the commission consists of a chief election commissioner and two election commissioners
##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following bodies is/are concerned with the police reforms in India?
State Security Commission
Police Complaint Authority
Police Establishment Board
National Security Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
In 1996, two retired Directors General of Police, Prakash Singh and N. K. Singh, filed a public interest litigation (PIL) to know whether those recommendations had ever been implemented. It was only a decade later in 2006 that the Court delivered its verdict. In what is popularly referred to as the Prakash Singh case, the Supreme Court ordered that reform must take place. The states and union territories were asked to comply with seven binding directives which would kick-start the reforms. The seven directives are: 1. Limit political control Constitute a State Security Commission to: Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence or pressure on the police. Lay down broad policy guidelines. Evaluate the performance of the state police. 2. Appoint based on merit Ensure that the Director General of Police is appointed through a merit - based, transparent process, and secures a minimum tenure of 2 years. 3. Fix minimum tenure Ensure that other police officers on operational duties (including Superintendents of Police in charge of a district and Station House Officers in charge of a police station) are also provided a minimum tenure of 2 years. 4. Separate police functions Separate the functions of investigation and maintaining law and order. 5. Set up fair and transparent systems Set up a Police Establishment Board to decide and make recommendations on transfers, postings, promotions and other service-related matters of police officers of and below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police. 6. Establish a Police Complaints Authority in each state At the state level, there should be a Police Complaints Authority to look into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct, including custodial death, grievous hurt or rape in police custody. At the district level, the Police Complaints Authority should be set up to inquire into public complaints against the police personnel of and up to the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct. 7. Set up a selection commission A National Security Commission needs to be set up at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of chiefs of the Central Police Organizations with a minimum tenure of 2 years
|
d
|
Reform: Police Reform
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following bodies is/are concerned with the police reforms in India?
State Security Commission
Police Complaint Authority
Police Establishment Board
National Security Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination: In 1996, two retired Directors General of Police, Prakash Singh and N. K. Singh, filed a public interest litigation (PIL) to know whether those recommendations had ever been implemented. It was only a decade later in 2006 that the Court delivered its verdict. In what is popularly referred to as the Prakash Singh case, the Supreme Court ordered that reform must take place. The states and union territories were asked to comply with seven binding directives which would kick-start the reforms. The seven directives are: 1. Limit political control Constitute a State Security Commission to: Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence or pressure on the police. Lay down broad policy guidelines. Evaluate the performance of the state police. 2. Appoint based on merit Ensure that the Director General of Police is appointed through a merit - based, transparent process, and secures a minimum tenure of 2 years. 3. Fix minimum tenure Ensure that other police officers on operational duties (including Superintendents of Police in charge of a district and Station House Officers in charge of a police station) are also provided a minimum tenure of 2 years. 4. Separate police functions Separate the functions of investigation and maintaining law and order. 5. Set up fair and transparent systems Set up a Police Establishment Board to decide and make recommendations on transfers, postings, promotions and other service-related matters of police officers of and below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police. 6. Establish a Police Complaints Authority in each state At the state level, there should be a Police Complaints Authority to look into public complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct, including custodial death, grievous hurt or rape in police custody. At the district level, the Police Complaints Authority should be set up to inquire into public complaints against the police personnel of and up to the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious misconduct. 7. Set up a selection commission A National Security Commission needs to be set up at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of chiefs of the Central Police Organizations with a minimum tenure of 2 years##Topic:Reform: Police Reform##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following agencies are associated with the Juvenile Justice Care and Protection system in India?
Juvenile Justice Boards
Child Welfare Committees
District Child Protection Unit
Children’s Courts
Child Adoption and Resource Agency
Select the correct answer using the code given below
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 ,3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The Juvenile Justice (amendment) Act 2015 provides for the role, responsibilities, and composition of these bodies
|
d
|
Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following agencies are associated with the Juvenile Justice Care and Protection system in India?
Juvenile Justice Boards
Child Welfare Committees
District Child Protection Unit
Children’s Courts
Child Adoption and Resource Agency
Select the correct answer using the code given below
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 ,3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Juvenile Justice (amendment) Act 2015 provides for the role, responsibilities, and composition of these bodies
##Topic:Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding Lok adalats are not correct.
Lok adalats enjoy statutory status under Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
They have the powers of a civil court.
Their decision is binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
None of the above options are correct
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate
|
d
|
Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding Lok adalats are not correct.
Lok adalats enjoy statutory status under Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
They have the powers of a civil court.
Their decision is binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
None of the above options are correct
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate
##Topic:Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to International Solar Alliance, consider the following conditions : It was launched by India and France. It is headquartered in Ahmedabad. It is a common platform for cooperation among solar resource rich countries lying only between Equator and tropic of Cancer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : India and France have launched an International Solar Alliance to boost solar energy in developing countries. Statement 2 is not correct : Its HQ is situated in India (Gurugram/Gurgaon). Further, India is providing land and $30 million to form a secretariat for the Alliance, and also support it for five years. Statement 3 is not correct : The initiative was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris. It will be a common platform for cooperation among solar resource rich countries lying fully or practically between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn. It was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris in 2015 by India and France. Among the tasks that the Alliance would pursue are, cooperation in training, building institutions, regulatory issues, common standards, and investment including joint venture.
|
a
|
Summits.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to International Solar Alliance, consider the following conditions : It was launched by India and France. It is headquartered in Ahmedabad. It is a common platform for cooperation among solar resource rich countries lying only between Equator and tropic of Cancer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : India and France have launched an International Solar Alliance to boost solar energy in developing countries. Statement 2 is not correct : Its HQ is situated in India (Gurugram/Gurgaon). Further, India is providing land and $30 million to form a secretariat for the Alliance, and also support it for five years. Statement 3 is not correct : The initiative was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris. It will be a common platform for cooperation among solar resource rich countries lying fully or practically between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn. It was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris in 2015 by India and France. Among the tasks that the Alliance would pursue are, cooperation in training, building institutions, regulatory issues, common standards, and investment including joint venture.##Topic:Summits.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With regard to International Organisation for Migration, consider the following statements: It is a part of UN system as a related organization. It was founded in the wake of the World War II to resettle refugees from Europe. India is its member state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : In July, 2016 UN General Assembly unanimously adopted a resolution approving an agreement to make the International Organisation for Migration part of the UN as a related organization.
Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-governmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and non-governmental partners.
Statement 2 is correct : It was founded in the wake of the World War II to resettle refugees from Europe.
IOM was granted Permanent Observer status to the UN General Assembly in 1992, and a cooperation agreement between IOM and the UN was signed in 1996.
Statement 3 is correct : India is its member state.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to International Organisation for Migration, consider the following statements: It is a part of UN system as a related organization. It was founded in the wake of the World War II to resettle refugees from Europe. India is its member state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct : In July, 2016 UN General Assembly unanimously adopted a resolution approving an agreement to make the International Organisation for Migration part of the UN as a related organization.
Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-governmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and non-governmental partners.
Statement 2 is correct : It was founded in the wake of the World War II to resettle refugees from Europe.
IOM was granted Permanent Observer status to the UN General Assembly in 1992, and a cooperation agreement between IOM and the UN was signed in 1996.
Statement 3 is correct : India is its member state.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is not correct regarding the Social Audit rules for Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?
|
Social audit of the works has to be undertaken in every Gram Panchayat at least once in six months
|
A summary of the social audits across states shall be submitted by the Central Government to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
|
A Social Audit Unit will be set up by the State Government to facilitate conduct of social audit by Gram Sabhas.
|
Social audit of the works has to be undertaken in every Gram Panchayat at least once in six months
|
The Union Ministry of Rural Development's rules on Social Audit of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) state that the State Government shall facilitate conduct of social audit of the works taken up under the Act in every Gram Panchayat at least once in six months in the manner prescribed under these rules. Hence, statement A is correct. A summary of findings of such social audits conducted during a financial year shall be submitted by the State Government to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Hence statement B is not correct. A Social Audit Unit will be set up by the State Government to facilitate conduct of social audit by Gram Sabhas. Hence, statement C is correct.
|
b
|
Social Audit
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is not correct regarding the Social Audit rules for Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?##Option_A: Social audit of the works has to be undertaken in every Gram Panchayat at least once in six months###Option_B: A summary of the social audits across states shall be submitted by the Central Government to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India ##Option_C: A Social Audit Unit will be set up by the State Government to facilitate conduct of social audit by Gram Sabhas.##Option_D: Social audit of the works has to be undertaken in every Gram Panchayat at least once in six months##Answer:b##Explaination:The Union Ministry of Rural Development's rules on Social Audit of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) state that the State Government shall facilitate conduct of social audit of the works taken up under the Act in every Gram Panchayat at least once in six months in the manner prescribed under these rules. Hence, statement A is correct. A summary of findings of such social audits conducted during a financial year shall be submitted by the State Government to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Hence statement B is not correct. A Social Audit Unit will be set up by the State Government to facilitate conduct of social audit by Gram Sabhas. Hence, statement C is correct.##Topic:Social Audit##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements: It is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. It is a statutory body. The selection committee of the CBI director is headed by the Union Home Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. It plays an important role in the prevention of corruption and maintaining integrity in administration. It also provides assistance to the Central Vigilance Commission. Statement 2 is not correct : The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Statement 3 is not correct : The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 does provide for the appointment of CBI director. Accordingly, the selection committee of the CBI director consists of: Prime Minister - Chairperson Leader of Opposition - member Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge recommended by the Chief Justice - member
|
b
|
CBI
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements: It is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. It is a statutory body. The selection committee of the CBI director is headed by the Union Home Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. It plays an important role in the prevention of corruption and maintaining integrity in administration. It also provides assistance to the Central Vigilance Commission. Statement 2 is not correct : The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Statement 3 is not correct : The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 does provide for the appointment of CBI director. Accordingly, the selection committee of the CBI director consists of: Prime Minister - Chairperson Leader of Opposition - member Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge recommended by the Chief Justice - member##Topic:CBI##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following committees is related to Police Reforms?
|
Soli Sorabjee Committee
|
Shanta Kumar Committee
|
NK Singh Committee
|
Soli Sorabjee Committee
|
To replace the 145-year old Police Act 1861, the Government had set up a Committee of Experts, under the Chairmanship of Dr. Soli J. Sorabjee, in 2005 to draft a new Police Act that could meet the growing challenges to policing and to fulfill the democratic aspirations of the people. Thus, the Model Police Act was drafted by the Committee. The Act aims to grant functional autonomy to the police, encourage professionalism, increase accountability, improve service conditions and also, throws light on the role of the police in protecting internal security in the face of new threats such as terrorism, insurgency, militancy and organised crime.In order to grant functional autonomy to the police, the Act makes the following provisions: Creation of a State Police Board- The board will lay down the policy guidelines for efficient policing and identify performance indicators to evaluate the functioning of the police service. Merit-based selection and appointment of the Director General of Police Security of tenure For encouraging professionalism, the Act makes the following provisions regarding earmarking dedicated staff for crime investigation, Performance evaluation, creation of Accountability Commission and District Authorities, etc Improved service conditions: The Act also aims to provide better service conditions to the police personnel including rationalising their working hours, one day off in each week, or compensatory benefits. It creates a Police Welfare Bureau to take care of health care, housing, and legal facilities for police personnel as well as financial security for the next of kin of those dying in service. Role in protecting Internal Security in light of new threats: In the case of new threats such as terrorism, insurgency, militancy and organised crime, the police are not granted any special powers in the Act to deal with them. The Act provides for systematic preparation and meticulous compliance of Internal Security and Standard Operation Procedures. Shanta kumar Committee is related to PDS reforms. N. K. Singh Committee is related to review of FRBM Act. Mihir Shah Committee is related to National Water Commission.
|
a
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following committees is related to Police Reforms?##Option_A: Soli Sorabjee Committee###Option_B: Shanta Kumar Committee##Option_C: NK Singh Committee##Option_D: Soli Sorabjee Committee##Answer:a##Explaination:To replace the 145-year old Police Act 1861, the Government had set up a Committee of Experts, under the Chairmanship of Dr. Soli J. Sorabjee, in 2005 to draft a new Police Act that could meet the growing challenges to policing and to fulfill the democratic aspirations of the people. Thus, the Model Police Act was drafted by the Committee. The Act aims to grant functional autonomy to the police, encourage professionalism, increase accountability, improve service conditions and also, throws light on the role of the police in protecting internal security in the face of new threats such as terrorism, insurgency, militancy and organised crime.In order to grant functional autonomy to the police, the Act makes the following provisions: Creation of a State Police Board- The board will lay down the policy guidelines for efficient policing and identify performance indicators to evaluate the functioning of the police service. Merit-based selection and appointment of the Director General of Police Security of tenure For encouraging professionalism, the Act makes the following provisions regarding earmarking dedicated staff for crime investigation, Performance evaluation, creation of Accountability Commission and District Authorities, etc Improved service conditions: The Act also aims to provide better service conditions to the police personnel including rationalising their working hours, one day off in each week, or compensatory benefits. It creates a Police Welfare Bureau to take care of health care, housing, and legal facilities for police personnel as well as financial security for the next of kin of those dying in service. Role in protecting Internal Security in light of new threats: In the case of new threats such as terrorism, insurgency, militancy and organised crime, the police are not granted any special powers in the Act to deal with them. The Act provides for systematic preparation and meticulous compliance of Internal Security and Standard Operation Procedures. Shanta kumar Committee is related to PDS reforms. N. K. Singh Committee is related to review of FRBM Act. Mihir Shah Committee is related to National Water Commission.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about Lokayuktas in India:
Statement 1: The 1 st Administrative Reforms Commission recommended setting up the institution of Lokpal and the 2 nd Administrative Reforms Commission recommended setting up the institution of Lokayukta as a mechanism of grievance redressal.
Statement 2: The first state to establish the institution of Lokayukta was Odisha in 1970.
Statement 3: The structure of the Lokuyukta varies in different states, and some states have created the Lokayukta along with Upalokayukta.
Statement 4: Some states have not established the institution of Lokayukta, including all the North-Eastern states.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as the 1 st Administrative Commission of India which submitted its report in 1970 recommended setting special institutions of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances
Statement 2 is incorrect as the institution of Lokayukta was 1 st established in Maharashtra in 1971. Odisha passed an act for its creation in 1970, but it only came into force in 1983.
Statement 3 is correct as states like Rajasthan, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh have created the institutions of Lokayukta and Upalokayukta. However, states like Bihar, Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh have only created the Lokayukta. Jurisdicton of the Lokayukta also varies from state to state.
Statement 4 is incorrect as 12 states have not established the institution of Lokayukta. Among the North-Eastern states, only Assam has created the institution, whereas other states have not done so.
|
b
|
Lokayukta
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about Lokayuktas in India:
Statement 1: The 1 st Administrative Reforms Commission recommended setting up the institution of Lokpal and the 2 nd Administrative Reforms Commission recommended setting up the institution of Lokayukta as a mechanism of grievance redressal.
Statement 2: The first state to establish the institution of Lokayukta was Odisha in 1970.
Statement 3: The structure of the Lokuyukta varies in different states, and some states have created the Lokayukta along with Upalokayukta.
Statement 4: Some states have not established the institution of Lokayukta, including all the North-Eastern states.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as the 1 st Administrative Commission of India which submitted its report in 1970 recommended setting special institutions of ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances
Statement 2 is incorrect as the institution of Lokayukta was 1 st established in Maharashtra in 1971. Odisha passed an act for its creation in 1970, but it only came into force in 1983.
Statement 3 is correct as states like Rajasthan, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh have created the institutions of Lokayukta and Upalokayukta. However, states like Bihar, Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh have only created the Lokayukta. Jurisdicton of the Lokayukta also varies from state to state.
Statement 4 is incorrect as 12 states have not established the institution of Lokayukta. Among the North-Eastern states, only Assam has created the institution, whereas other states have not done so.
##Topic:Lokayukta##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Indian Judiciary, List of Business Information System ( LOBIS ) is concerned with which of the following?
providing pending case status information to litigants
providing the complete text of all reported judgments of Supreme Court of India
scheduling of cases to be heard by the courts on the following day
platform to shortlist candidates for appointment as Supreme Court judges
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
LOBIS: It is about the scheduling of cases to be heard by the courts on the following day. It enabled the Registries of Supreme Court and High Courts in eliminating manual process of Cause List generation thus any manipulation by vested interests. These databases contain details of fresh cases, disposed and pending cases. It is the backbone application of every Court.
COURTNIC: This is about providing Supreme Courts' pending case status information to litigants/advocates on any node of NICNET
JUDIS: NIC has brought out Judgement Information System (JUDIS) consisting of complete text of all reported judgement of Supreme Court of India from 1950 to till Date
District Court Information System (DCIS) Software is a huge general purpose Software package developed for the computerisation of District Courts
There is no such platform for the appointment of SC judges. They are appointed out of HC Judges as per the collegium system.
|
c
|
Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Indian Judiciary, List of Business Information System ( LOBIS ) is concerned with which of the following?
providing pending case status information to litigants
providing the complete text of all reported judgments of Supreme Court of India
scheduling of cases to be heard by the courts on the following day
platform to shortlist candidates for appointment as Supreme Court judges
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
LOBIS: It is about the scheduling of cases to be heard by the courts on the following day. It enabled the Registries of Supreme Court and High Courts in eliminating manual process of Cause List generation thus any manipulation by vested interests. These databases contain details of fresh cases, disposed and pending cases. It is the backbone application of every Court.
COURTNIC: This is about providing Supreme Courts' pending case status information to litigants/advocates on any node of NICNET
JUDIS: NIC has brought out Judgement Information System (JUDIS) consisting of complete text of all reported judgement of Supreme Court of India from 1950 to till Date
District Court Information System (DCIS) Software is a huge general purpose Software package developed for the computerisation of District Courts
There is no such platform for the appointment of SC judges. They are appointed out of HC Judges as per the collegium system.
##Topic:Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following States/UT has recently launched India's first Water Metro Project?
|
Kerala
|
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
|
Lakshwadeep Islands
|
Kerala
|
Kerala Government has launched Kochi Water Metro project, the first ever Water Metro project in India.
The project aims to provide water connectivity to people living between islands in the Kochi agglomeration area and the city.
The Water Metro, being developed as one of the fastest means of transport, will help people commute easily to hubs which generate employment.
The Indo-German Bilateral Cooperation, under the 'Climate Friendly Urban Mobility Plan', will finance the project.
|
a
|
Events.National
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following States/UT has recently launched India's first Water Metro Project?
##Option_A: Kerala
###Option_B: Andaman and Nicobar Islands
##Option_C: Lakshwadeep Islands
##Option_D: Kerala
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Kerala Government has launched Kochi Water Metro project, the first ever Water Metro project in India.
The project aims to provide water connectivity to people living between islands in the Kochi agglomeration area and the city.
The Water Metro, being developed as one of the fastest means of transport, will help people commute easily to hubs which generate employment.
The Indo-German Bilateral Cooperation, under the 'Climate Friendly Urban Mobility Plan', will finance the project.
##Topic:Events.National##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following constitute electoral offences under the Representation of the People Act, 1951? Publication of the results of exit polls during the elections Promoting enimity on grounds of language Publication of opinion polls during the application of model code of conduct. Booth capturing Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : Using powers under the Representation of People Act, 1951, EC does not allow exit polls from the time the poll begins till half-an-hour after the polling ends.The date & time is specified by the EC by a general order.. Non-compliance can attract imprisonment upto 2 years /fine/both Statement 2 is correct : Under RPA, promoting enmity on grounds of religion, race, caste, community ,language, feelings is punishable. It can attract imprisonment upto 3 years /fine/both. Statement 3 is not correct : Existing law allows EC to ban opinion polls 48 hours prior to voting. However, they are not banned during the application of the model code of conduct. The EC had proposed that there should be a prohibition on publication and broadcast of the results of opinion polls starting from the date of notification of elections till the completion of the last phase of polls to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. The proposal is pending with the government. Statement 4 is correct : Booth capturing is an offence under the RPA. It can lead to imprisonment upto 3 years & fine and if committed by a person in service of Government, the term is upto 5 years & fine. Booth capturing involves seizure/taking possession of polling station/place of counting of votes /threatening any elector.
|
d
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following constitute electoral offences under the Representation of the People Act, 1951? Publication of the results of exit polls during the elections Promoting enimity on grounds of language Publication of opinion polls during the application of model code of conduct. Booth capturing Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : Using powers under the Representation of People Act, 1951, EC does not allow exit polls from the time the poll begins till half-an-hour after the polling ends.The date & time is specified by the EC by a general order.. Non-compliance can attract imprisonment upto 2 years /fine/both Statement 2 is correct : Under RPA, promoting enmity on grounds of religion, race, caste, community ,language, feelings is punishable. It can attract imprisonment upto 3 years /fine/both. Statement 3 is not correct : Existing law allows EC to ban opinion polls 48 hours prior to voting. However, they are not banned during the application of the model code of conduct. The EC had proposed that there should be a prohibition on publication and broadcast of the results of opinion polls starting from the date of notification of elections till the completion of the last phase of polls to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. The proposal is pending with the government. Statement 4 is correct : Booth capturing is an offence under the RPA. It can lead to imprisonment upto 3 years & fine and if committed by a person in service of Government, the term is upto 5 years & fine. Booth capturing involves seizure/taking possession of polling station/place of counting of votes /threatening any elector. ##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft/ Mission Purpose 1. New Horizons to map and investigate Mercury 2. Juno to understand origin and evolution of Jupiter 3. LISA Pathfinder to demonstrate the technology needed to build a space-based gravitational wave observatory Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Pair 1 is not matched correctly: The New Horizons mission aims to understand worlds at the edge of our solar system by making the first reconnaissance of the dwarf planet Pluto and by venturing deeper into the distant, mysterious Kuiper Belt - a relic of solar system formation. Kuiper belt is flat ring of icy small bodies that revolve around the Sun beyond the orbit of the planet Neptune. It comprises hundreds of millions of objects-presumed to be leftovers from the formation of the outer planets-whose orbits lie close to the plane of the solar system. The Kuiper belt is thought to be the source of most of the observed short-period comets, particularly those that orbit the Sun in less than 20 years. Pair 2 is matched correctly: NASA's Juno spacecraft aims to: To understand the origin and evolution of Jupiter. Investigate the existence of a solid planetary core. Map Jupiter's intense magnetic field, Measure the amount of water and ammonia in the deep atmosphere and observe the planet's aurora Pair 3 is matched correctly: European Space Agency's LISA Pathfinder mission has demonstrated the technology needed to build a space-based gravitational wave observatory. LISA would be the first dedicated space-based gravitational wave detector. It aims to measure gravitational waves directly by using laser interferometry. As a prelude to the massive LISA mission, the smaller LISA Pathfinder was launched by ESA in 2015
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft/ Mission Purpose 1. New Horizons to map and investigate Mercury 2. Juno to understand origin and evolution of Jupiter 3. LISA Pathfinder to demonstrate the technology needed to build a space-based gravitational wave observatory Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Pair 1 is not matched correctly: The New Horizons mission aims to understand worlds at the edge of our solar system by making the first reconnaissance of the dwarf planet Pluto and by venturing deeper into the distant, mysterious Kuiper Belt - a relic of solar system formation. Kuiper belt is flat ring of icy small bodies that revolve around the Sun beyond the orbit of the planet Neptune. It comprises hundreds of millions of objects-presumed to be leftovers from the formation of the outer planets-whose orbits lie close to the plane of the solar system. The Kuiper belt is thought to be the source of most of the observed short-period comets, particularly those that orbit the Sun in less than 20 years. Pair 2 is matched correctly: NASA's Juno spacecraft aims to: To understand the origin and evolution of Jupiter. Investigate the existence of a solid planetary core. Map Jupiter's intense magnetic field, Measure the amount of water and ammonia in the deep atmosphere and observe the planet's aurora Pair 3 is matched correctly: European Space Agency's LISA Pathfinder mission has demonstrated the technology needed to build a space-based gravitational wave observatory. LISA would be the first dedicated space-based gravitational wave detector. It aims to measure gravitational waves directly by using laser interferometry. As a prelude to the massive LISA mission, the smaller LISA Pathfinder was launched by ESA in 2015##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to natural gas hydrates, consider the following statements: They are a naturally occurring, ice-like combination of natural gas and water. No deposits of natural gas hydrates have been found in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: They are a naturally occurring, ice-like combination of natural gas and water. Generally they are found in oceans and Polar Regions. By nature, Gas hydrates are mostly methane (CH4). Methane gas hydrate is most stable at the seafloor at water depths which is below about 500 meters. They are considered as vast resources of natural gas and are known to occur in marine sediments on continental shelf margins. The total amount of gas available within the world's gas hydrate accumulations is believed to greatly exceed the quantity of all known conventional gas resources. Statement 2 is not correct: India has discovered a potentially producible large accumulation of natural gas hydrate in the KG Basin off the east coast. Gas hydrate resources in India are estimated to be at 1,894 trillion cubic meters and these deposits are mainly found in Western, Eastern and Andaman offshore areas.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to natural gas hydrates, consider the following statements: They are a naturally occurring, ice-like combination of natural gas and water. No deposits of natural gas hydrates have been found in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: They are a naturally occurring, ice-like combination of natural gas and water. Generally they are found in oceans and Polar Regions. By nature, Gas hydrates are mostly methane (CH4). Methane gas hydrate is most stable at the seafloor at water depths which is below about 500 meters. They are considered as vast resources of natural gas and are known to occur in marine sediments on continental shelf margins. The total amount of gas available within the world's gas hydrate accumulations is believed to greatly exceed the quantity of all known conventional gas resources. Statement 2 is not correct: India has discovered a potentially producible large accumulation of natural gas hydrate in the KG Basin off the east coast. Gas hydrate resources in India are estimated to be at 1,894 trillion cubic meters and these deposits are mainly found in Western, Eastern and Andaman offshore areas.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to mixed heritage sites consider the following statements: These sites exhibit qualities of both natural and cultural significance. They are declared by the World Heritage Committee of UNESCO. There is no "mixed" heritage site in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
A 'mixed site' exhibits qualities of both natural and cultural significance. The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), has added Sikkim's Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) and Chandigarh' Capitol Complex in its list of World Heritage Sites. Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) in Sikkim has been named a world heritage site by the World Heritage Committee (WHC) of UNESCO. It is the first 'mixed' heritage site from India to make it to the list. The Khangchendzonga National Park exhibits one of the widest altitudinal ranges of any protected area worldwide. It covers 25 per cent of Sikkim, is home to a significant number of endemic, rare and threatened plant and animal species. The park combines the religious and cultural practices of Buddhism as well as the ecological significance of the region, and stands out as an outstanding example of traditional knowledge and environmental preservation. It is also a unique example of coexistence and exchange between different religious traditions and people.
|
b
|
Places(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to mixed heritage sites consider the following statements: These sites exhibit qualities of both natural and cultural significance. They are declared by the World Heritage Committee of UNESCO. There is no "mixed" heritage site in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:A 'mixed site' exhibits qualities of both natural and cultural significance. The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), has added Sikkim's Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) and Chandigarh' Capitol Complex in its list of World Heritage Sites. Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) in Sikkim has been named a world heritage site by the World Heritage Committee (WHC) of UNESCO. It is the first 'mixed' heritage site from India to make it to the list. The Khangchendzonga National Park exhibits one of the widest altitudinal ranges of any protected area worldwide. It covers 25 per cent of Sikkim, is home to a significant number of endemic, rare and threatened plant and animal species. The park combines the religious and cultural practices of Buddhism as well as the ecological significance of the region, and stands out as an outstanding example of traditional knowledge and environmental preservation. It is also a unique example of coexistence and exchange between different religious traditions and people.##Topic:Places(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following Climate types witness rainfall throughout the year? Equatorial Climate Mediterranean Climate Temperate Monsoon Climate Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Equatorial Climate - There is no month without rainfall due to almost daily convectional rain. Mediterranean type of climate- It receives maximum rainfall in winters. Rain falls in heavy showers for few days with bright sunny periods in between. China type or Temperate monsoon type of climate- This Climate type is found at Eastern coast of southern continents in Temperate areas. Hence, South East Trade winds bring more even distribution of rainfall throughout the year.
|
c
|
Climate
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Climate types witness rainfall throughout the year? Equatorial Climate Mediterranean Climate Temperate Monsoon Climate Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Equatorial Climate - There is no month without rainfall due to almost daily convectional rain. Mediterranean type of climate- It receives maximum rainfall in winters. Rain falls in heavy showers for few days with bright sunny periods in between. China type or Temperate monsoon type of climate- This Climate type is found at Eastern coast of southern continents in Temperate areas. Hence, South East Trade winds bring more even distribution of rainfall throughout the year.##Topic:Climate##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of the Civil Services Board in India?
|
Prime Minister
|
Union Home Minister
|
Cabinet Secretary
|
Prime Minister
|
The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
|
c
|
Reforms: Police Reform, Administrative
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of the Civil Services Board in India?
##Option_A:Prime Minister###Option_B:Union Home Minister##Option_C:Cabinet Secretary##Option_D:Prime Minister##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
##Topic:Reforms: Police Reform, Administrative##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The term "red corridor" often seen in news is related to which of the following?
|
areas with extreme contamination of groundwater with arsenic.
|
areas affected by left wing extremism.
|
biodiversity hotspots prone to human animal conflict.
|
areas with extreme contamination of groundwater with arsenic.
|
The Red Corridor is a region in the east of India that experiences considerable Naxalite–Maoist insurgency. The 106 districts that span 10 States — Bihar, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Telangana, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Chhattisgarh — are described as those affected by Left Wing Extremism (LWE) and constitute the ‘Red Corridor.’
|
b
|
Places(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "red corridor" often seen in news is related to which of the following?##Option_A: areas with extreme contamination of groundwater with arsenic.###Option_B: areas affected by left wing extremism.##Option_C: biodiversity hotspots prone to human animal conflict.##Option_D: areas with extreme contamination of groundwater with arsenic.##Answer:b##Explaination:The Red Corridor is a region in the east of India that experiences considerable Naxalite–Maoist insurgency. The 106 districts that span 10 States — Bihar, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Telangana, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Chhattisgarh — are described as those affected by Left Wing Extremism (LWE) and constitute the ‘Red Corridor.’##Topic:Places(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
India has been declared free of which of the following diseases by the World Health Organization? Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus Yaws Polio Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The United Nations World Health Organization (WHO) has announced the elimination of yaws, and maternal and neonatal tetanus in India. India is the first country under the 2012 WHO neglected tropical diseases (NTD) roadmap to eliminate yaws, a disease known to affect the most underserved population. In January 2016, India completed five years of being polio-free. The last case of polio in the country was reported from Howrah district in West Bengal on January 13, 2011.
|
d
|
Reports(International)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India has been declared free of which of the following diseases by the World Health Organization? Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus Yaws Polio Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The United Nations World Health Organization (WHO) has announced the elimination of yaws, and maternal and neonatal tetanus in India. India is the first country under the 2012 WHO neglected tropical diseases (NTD) roadmap to eliminate yaws, a disease known to affect the most underserved population. In January 2016, India completed five years of being polio-free. The last case of polio in the country was reported from Howrah district in West Bengal on January 13, 2011.##Topic:Reports(International)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
1. Subsidiaries of companies in India 2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies 3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies 4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
.
|
d
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
1. Subsidiaries of companies in India 2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies 3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies 4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A:1, 2, 3 and 4###Option_B:2 and 4 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1, 2, 3 and 4##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Match the following operations carried out by India in List I with the respective countries they were carried out in with List II: List I List II 1. Sankat Mochan A. Yemen 2. Maitri B. Nepal 3. Rahat C. South Sudan Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1-A, 2-C, 3-B
|
1-A, 2-B, 3-C
|
1-B, 2-C, 3-A
|
1-A, 2-C, 3-B
|
Operation Sankat Mochan: The Union Government undertook operation ‘Sankat Mochan’ to evacuate Indian citizens stranded in South Sudan’s capital Juba. Sankat Mochan in Hindi means reliever from troubles. Operation Maitri: Operation Maitri is the rescue and relief operation in Nepal by the Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftershock of the 2015 Nepal earthquake. Operation Rahat: In early April, 2015, India had evacuated 5,600 displaced persons from Yemen under Operation Rahat (relief).
|
d
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match the following operations carried out by India in List I with the respective countries they were carried out in with List II: List I List II 1. Sankat Mochan A. Yemen 2. Maitri B. Nepal 3. Rahat C. South Sudan Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1-A, 2-C, 3-B###Option_B: 1-A, 2-B, 3-C##Option_C: 1-B, 2-C, 3-A##Option_D: 1-A, 2-C, 3-B##Answer:d##Explaination:Operation Sankat Mochan: The Union Government undertook operation ‘Sankat Mochan’ to evacuate Indian citizens stranded in South Sudan’s capital Juba. Sankat Mochan in Hindi means reliever from troubles. Operation Maitri: Operation Maitri is the rescue and relief operation in Nepal by the Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftershock of the 2015 Nepal earthquake. Operation Rahat: In early April, 2015, India had evacuated 5,600 displaced persons from Yemen under Operation Rahat (relief).##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Recently, a threatened breed of sheep locally known as Kuji Mendha has been conferred "rare and singular species" tag by the central government. The rare genetic traits lead to the multiple birth syndrome in them. They are found in which part of India?
|
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
|
Odisha
|
Rajasthan
|
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
|
A threatened breed of sheep found only in coastal Jagatsinghpur and Kendrapara districts of Odisha has been conferred 'rare and singular species' tag by the Central government. The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) has accorded genetic recognition to the breed of sheep, locally called 'kuji mendha'. The sheep that are reared in this part are delicate domestic animals. Sheep in other parts of Odisha are not known for giving multiple birth. This characteristic makes them distinctive from other species. In Sundarbans area of West Bengal, Garol breed sheep are found who are multiple-breeders. Kendrapara district accounts for about 75,000 'kuji' breed of sheep. Because of multiple-birth characteristics, rearing of 'kuji' sheep is a profitable livelihood source.
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, a threatened breed of sheep locally known as Kuji Mendha has been conferred "rare and singular species" tag by the central government. The rare genetic traits lead to the multiple birth syndrome in them. They are found in which part of India?##Option_A: Andaman and Nicobar Islands###Option_B: Odisha##Option_C: Rajasthan##Option_D: Andaman and Nicobar Islands##Answer:b##Explaination:A threatened breed of sheep found only in coastal Jagatsinghpur and Kendrapara districts of Odisha has been conferred 'rare and singular species' tag by the Central government. The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) has accorded genetic recognition to the breed of sheep, locally called 'kuji mendha'. The sheep that are reared in this part are delicate domestic animals. Sheep in other parts of Odisha are not known for giving multiple birth. This characteristic makes them distinctive from other species. In Sundarbans area of West Bengal, Garol breed sheep are found who are multiple-breeders. Kendrapara district accounts for about 75,000 'kuji' breed of sheep. Because of multiple-birth characteristics, rearing of 'kuji' sheep is a profitable livelihood source.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The "Ulaanbaatar Declaration", recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:
|
Asia Pacific Economic Council
|
Asia-Europe Meeting Summit
|
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
|
Asia Pacific Economic Council
|
The eleventh edition of the Asia-Europe Meeting Summit (ASEM11) or ASEM2016 issued Ulaanbaatar Declaration. The declaration has reaffirmed ASEM's commitment for greater partnership through informal political dialogue and initiatives in economic and socio-cultural fields. It also has expressed its commitment for united fight against terrorism and violent extremism.
|
b
|
Summits.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The "Ulaanbaatar Declaration", recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:##Option_A: Asia Pacific Economic Council###Option_B: Asia-Europe Meeting Summit##Option_C: Shanghai Cooperation Organisation##Option_D: Asia Pacific Economic Council##Answer:b##Explaination:The eleventh edition of the Asia-Europe Meeting Summit (ASEM11) or ASEM2016 issued Ulaanbaatar Declaration. The declaration has reaffirmed ASEM's commitment for greater partnership through informal political dialogue and initiatives in economic and socio-cultural fields. It also has expressed its commitment for united fight against terrorism and violent extremism.##Topic:Summits.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The term "nine-dash line", recently seen in news, refers to:
|
a line used by China to demarcate its claims in South China Sea.
|
a line which depicts the extent of a solar storm.
|
a line which demarcates the biodiversity hotspots in the Asia-Pacific region.
|
a line used by China to demarcate its claims in South China Sea.
|
The 'nine-dash line' stretches hundreds of kilometers south and east of its southerly Hainan Island, covering the strategic Paracel and Spratly island chains. China laid claim to the SCS back in 1947. It demarcated its claims with a U-shaped line made up of eleven dashes on a map, covering most of the area. The Communist Party, which took over in 1949, removed the Gulf of Tonkin portion in 1953, erasing two of the dashes to make it a nine-dash line.
|
a
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "nine-dash line", recently seen in news, refers to:##Option_A: a line used by China to demarcate its claims in South China Sea.###Option_B: a line which depicts the extent of a solar storm.##Option_C: a line which demarcates the biodiversity hotspots in the Asia-Pacific region.##Option_D: a line used by China to demarcate its claims in South China Sea.##Answer:a##Explaination:The 'nine-dash line' stretches hundreds of kilometers south and east of its southerly Hainan Island, covering the strategic Paracel and Spratly island chains. China laid claim to the SCS back in 1947. It demarcated its claims with a U-shaped line made up of eleven dashes on a map, covering most of the area. The Communist Party, which took over in 1949, removed the Gulf of Tonkin portion in 1953, erasing two of the dashes to make it a nine-dash line.##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following States/UT has recently imposed a "Fat Tax" to discourage junk food culture?
|
Maharashtra
|
West Bengal
|
Delhi
|
Maharashtra
|
Kerala Government has proposed a "Fat Tax" on fast food items like burgers, pizzas, donuts and pasta etc. served in branded restaurants in a bid to discourage the junk food culture. The revised state budget for 2016-17 expects the Fat tax will add an additional Rs.10 crore to the state coffers. The fat tax’s major concern is with issues related to public health more than revenue generation.
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following States/UT has recently imposed a "Fat Tax" to discourage junk food culture?##Option_A: Maharashtra###Option_B: West Bengal##Option_C: Delhi##Option_D: Maharashtra##Answer:d##Explaination:Kerala Government has proposed a "Fat Tax" on fast food items like burgers, pizzas, donuts and pasta etc. served in branded restaurants in a bid to discourage the junk food culture. The revised state budget for 2016-17 expects the Fat tax will add an additional Rs.10 crore to the state coffers. The fat tax’s major concern is with issues related to public health more than revenue generation.##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
With reference to Atal Tinkering Laboratories, conisder the following statements:
1. They will be established in selected schools to assist students in grasping the concepts of science and technology.
2. They are being set up by NITI Ayog under the Atal Innovation Mission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
To foster creativity and scientific temper in students, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) will establish 500 Atal Tinkering Laboratories in schools. The key objectives of setting up Atal Tinkering Laboratories is to build relevant skill sets among youngsters and to provide access to technology that will enable solutions. Young children will get a chance to work with tools and equipment to understand the concepts of STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Math). Intel will co-lead the creation and management of ten ATLs as State Hubs.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Atal Tinkering Laboratories, conisder the following statements:
1. They will be established in selected schools to assist students in grasping the concepts of science and technology.
2. They are being set up by NITI Ayog under the Atal Innovation Mission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
To foster creativity and scientific temper in students, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) will establish 500 Atal Tinkering Laboratories in schools. The key objectives of setting up Atal Tinkering Laboratories is to build relevant skill sets among youngsters and to provide access to technology that will enable solutions. Young children will get a chance to work with tools and equipment to understand the concepts of STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Math). Intel will co-lead the creation and management of ten ATLs as State Hubs.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding the High Court is/are not correct ?
1. The President can appoint a distinguished jurist as a High Court judge under Article 217 of the Constitution
2. The removal procedure of a High Court judge is the same as that of the Supreme Court judge despite the hierarchical and organic nature of Indian judiciary
3. The National Judicial Appointments Commissions Bill seeks to alter the provisions concerned with the appoint procedure of judges of High Courts in states
Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Only 3
|
Only 1
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as the President can appointment a distinguished jurist as a Supreme Court judge, but not as a judge of the High Court.
Statement 2 is correct as the removal procedure of a High Court judge is the same as that of a Supreme Court judge
Statement 3 is correct as the NJAC Bill seeks to alter the provisions related to Supreme Court judges, High Court judges, Ad hoc judges and retired judges appointed to the two courts.
|
a
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the High Court is/are not correct ?
1. The President can appoint a distinguished jurist as a High Court judge under Article 217 of the Constitution
2. The removal procedure of a High Court judge is the same as that of the Supreme Court judge despite the hierarchical and organic nature of Indian judiciary
3. The National Judicial Appointments Commissions Bill seeks to alter the provisions concerned with the appoint procedure of judges of High Courts in states
Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: Only 1
###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: Only 3
##Option_D: Only 1
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as the President can appointment a distinguished jurist as a Supreme Court judge, but not as a judge of the High Court.
Statement 2 is correct as the removal procedure of a High Court judge is the same as that of a Supreme Court judge
Statement 3 is correct as the NJAC Bill seeks to alter the provisions related to Supreme Court judges, High Court judges, Ad hoc judges and retired judges appointed to the two courts.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding police reforms in India:
Statement 1: Police falls under the Concurrent subject list as security issues fall under the ambit of both Central and State governments
Statement 2: It is now mandatory for the police to upload a First Information Report within 48 hours drawn up by it suo motu or on a complaint
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect as Police (including railway and village police) is an exclusive subject under the State List of the Indian Constitution (List II, Schedule VII).
Statement 2 is correct as the Supreme Court in Youth Bar Association of India versus Union of India and others , 2016, held that it is mandatory to upload within 48 hours an FIR drawn by it suo motu or on a complaint. This was done to enhance transparency and curb arbitrariness in police work.
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding police reforms in India:
Statement 1: Police falls under the Concurrent subject list as security issues fall under the ambit of both Central and State governments
Statement 2: It is now mandatory for the police to upload a First Information Report within 48 hours drawn up by it suo motu or on a complaint
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect as Police (including railway and village police) is an exclusive subject under the State List of the Indian Constitution (List II, Schedule VII).
Statement 2 is correct as the Supreme Court in Youth Bar Association of India versus Union of India and others , 2016, held that it is mandatory to upload within 48 hours an FIR drawn by it suo motu or on a complaint. This was done to enhance transparency and curb arbitrariness in police work.
##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the election petitions, consider the following statements: 1. The High Courts has the original jurisdiction on deciding on all election petitions. 2. An election petition calling in question an election has to be filed within the period of forty-five days from the date of declaration of results. 3. An election petition can be filed only by the candidates for the particular constituency. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct :Election petitions are filed in the High Court of the particular state in which the election was conducted. Therefore, only the High Courts have the original jurisdiction on deciding on election petitions. Such jurisdiction shall be exercised ordinarily by the Single Judge of the High Court and Chief Justice shall from time to time assign one or more Judges for that purpose. According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court. Further, according to section 14 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, an election petition can be filed before the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct : An election petition calling in question an election shall be filed within the time period of forty-five days from the date of declaration of results. Statement 3 is not correct : An election petition can be filed by any candidate, or an elector (An elector is a person who was entitled to vote at the election to which the election petition relates, whether he/she has voted at such election or not) relating to the election personally, to the authorized officer of the High Court.
|
b
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the election petitions, consider the following statements: 1. The High Courts has the original jurisdiction on deciding on all election petitions. 2. An election petition calling in question an election has to be filed within the period of forty-five days from the date of declaration of results. 3. An election petition can be filed only by the candidates for the particular constituency. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct :Election petitions are filed in the High Court of the particular state in which the election was conducted. Therefore, only the High Courts have the original jurisdiction on deciding on election petitions. Such jurisdiction shall be exercised ordinarily by the Single Judge of the High Court and Chief Justice shall from time to time assign one or more Judges for that purpose. According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court. Further, according to section 14 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, an election petition can be filed before the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct : An election petition calling in question an election shall be filed within the time period of forty-five days from the date of declaration of results. Statement 3 is not correct : An election petition can be filed by any candidate, or an elector (An elector is a person who was entitled to vote at the election to which the election petition relates, whether he/she has voted at such election or not) relating to the election personally, to the authorized officer of the High Court.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Jnanpith award, consider the following statements: It is awarded for works in any one of the languages listed in the Schedule Eight of the Indian Constitution. It is awarded by the Sahitya Akademi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The Jnanpith Award recognises litterateurs who write in any one of the 22 Indian languages listed in the Schedule Eight of the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is not correct: The nomination and award is decided by the Bhartiya Jnanpith foundation.
|
a
|
Literary and Art
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Jnanpith award, consider the following statements: It is awarded for works in any one of the languages listed in the Schedule Eight of the Indian Constitution. It is awarded by the Sahitya Akademi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The Jnanpith Award recognises litterateurs who write in any one of the 22 Indian languages listed in the Schedule Eight of the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is not correct: The nomination and award is decided by the Bhartiya Jnanpith foundation.##Topic:Literary and Art##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: 1. At the Central level, it is the Central Election Commission which through a notification, calls upon all Parliamentary constituencies to elect members. 2. At the State level, it is the Governor who through a notification, calls upon all constituencies to elect members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
For general election to the House of the people and also the Council of States, the President, by one or more notifications published in the Gazette of India on such date or dates, as may be recommended by the Election Commission, calls upon all Parliamentary constituencies to elect members. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
In the case of states, the Governor issues the notifications for elections to the State assemblies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. At the Central level, it is the Central Election Commission which through a notification, calls upon all Parliamentary constituencies to elect members. 2. At the State level, it is the Governor who through a notification, calls upon all constituencies to elect members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
For general election to the House of the people and also the Council of States, the President, by one or more notifications published in the Gazette of India on such date or dates, as may be recommended by the Election Commission, calls upon all Parliamentary constituencies to elect members. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
In the case of states, the Governor issues the notifications for elections to the State assemblies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Antrix, consider the following statements: It is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation . It is a wholly owned Government of India Company incorporated under the Companies Act,1956. It has been awarded miniratna status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Antrix Corporation Limited (Antrix), incorporated on 28 September 1992 (under the Companies Act, 1956), is a wholly owned Government of India Company under the administrative control of Department of Space (DOS). Antrix is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Antrix promotes and commercially markets the products and services emanating from the Indian Space Programme. In the year 2008, the Company was awarded 'MINIRATNA' status. The current business activities of Antrix include: a) Provisioning of communication satellite transponders to various users, b) Providing launch services for customer satellites, c) Marketing of data from Indian and foreign remote sensing satellites, d) Building and marketing of satellites as well as satellite sub-systems, e) Establishing ground infrastructure for space applications, and f) Mission support services for satellites.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Antrix, consider the following statements: It is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation . It is a wholly owned Government of India Company incorporated under the Companies Act,1956. It has been awarded miniratna status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Antrix Corporation Limited (Antrix), incorporated on 28 September 1992 (under the Companies Act, 1956), is a wholly owned Government of India Company under the administrative control of Department of Space (DOS). Antrix is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Antrix promotes and commercially markets the products and services emanating from the Indian Space Programme. In the year 2008, the Company was awarded 'MINIRATNA' status. The current business activities of Antrix include: a) Provisioning of communication satellite transponders to various users, b) Providing launch services for customer satellites, c) Marketing of data from Indian and foreign remote sensing satellites, d) Building and marketing of satellites as well as satellite sub-systems, e) Establishing ground infrastructure for space applications, and f) Mission support services for satellites.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
With reference to Comet, consider the following statements:
Its tail is pointed towards the sun while it revolves around the Sun.
comets are frozen rocky and metallic bodies surrounded by gases and dust.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
.
|
b
|
The Universe
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Comet, consider the following statements:
Its tail is pointed towards the sun while it revolves around the Sun.
comets are frozen rocky and metallic bodies surrounded by gases and dust.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:The Universe##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about disqualifications under the Representation of the People Act: Failure to lodge account of election expenses is a ground for disqualification of a candidate. Candidate convicted for a crime for which the minimum imprisonment is two years is disqualified. Any person convicted for any heinous crime is permanently barred from contesting elections at any level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Section 10A of the Representation of the People Act cites that failure to lodge election expenses stands as a valid ground for the disqualification of a candidate. Statement 2 is correct: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates that candidates should have completed a period of six years from the date of conviction to become eligible for elections. Candidate convicted for a crime for which the minimum imprisonment is two years shall also be disqualified from the date of conviction and will continue to be disqualified for six additional years after his release. Statement 3 is not correct: The Election Commission has proposed that any person convicted for any heinous crime such as murder, rape, smuggling, dacoity, etc., should be permanently barred from contesting elections at any level. Thus, statement is incorrect, as it is a recommendation of the EC and not a provision of the RPA.
|
a
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about disqualifications under the Representation of the People Act: Failure to lodge account of election expenses is a ground for disqualification of a candidate. Candidate convicted for a crime for which the minimum imprisonment is two years is disqualified. Any person convicted for any heinous crime is permanently barred from contesting elections at any level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Section 10A of the Representation of the People Act cites that failure to lodge election expenses stands as a valid ground for the disqualification of a candidate. Statement 2 is correct: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates that candidates should have completed a period of six years from the date of conviction to become eligible for elections. Candidate convicted for a crime for which the minimum imprisonment is two years shall also be disqualified from the date of conviction and will continue to be disqualified for six additional years after his release. Statement 3 is not correct: The Election Commission has proposed that any person convicted for any heinous crime such as murder, rape, smuggling, dacoity, etc., should be permanently barred from contesting elections at any level. Thus, statement is incorrect, as it is a recommendation of the EC and not a provision of the RPA.##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The recently commissioned Pattiseema lift irrigation project aims to interlink which of the following rivers? Godavari Narmada Krishna Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Pattiseema lift irrigation project interlinking rivers Godavari & Krishna, in West Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh has been commissioned recently. It is South India’s first River Integration Project.
|
b
|
Events.National
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The recently commissioned Pattiseema lift irrigation project aims to interlink which of the following rivers? Godavari Narmada Krishna Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Pattiseema lift irrigation project interlinking rivers Godavari & Krishna, in West Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh has been commissioned recently. It is South India’s first River Integration Project.##Topic:Events.National##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Model Code of Conduct (MCC): It is statutory in nature It remains in force from the date of announcement of elections till the completion of elections. Its violation can attract a penalty under the Representation of the People, 1951 Act. Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : The Model Code of Conduct does not a have a statutory backing and it is more a consensus driven code arrived at after consultation with all political parties to ensure free and fair elections and to see that the ruling party does not misuse its dominant position. Thus it is voluntary in nature. Statement 2 is correct : The dispute over the date when the Model Code of Conduct should come into force, the issuance of the press release by Election Commission announcing the poll dates or the date of actual notification in this regard was resolved in the Union of India V/s Harbans Sigh Jalal. The apex court gave the ruling that the Code of Conduct would come into force the moment the Commission issues the press release, which precedes the notification by a good two weeks. This ruling lay at rest the controversy related to the dates of enforcement of MCC. Thus the MCC remains in force from the date of announcement of elections till the completion of elections. Statement 3 is not correct : The repercussions of violation of the MCC have not been defined under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 or by the Election Commission. The EC issues warnings or in rare cases, it has also imposed a temporary ban on the election campaign of a politician violating the MCC. Rival parties often make appeals before the EC against actions of their opponents violating the MCC.
|
b
|
Representation of People's Act
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Model Code of Conduct (MCC): It is statutory in nature It remains in force from the date of announcement of elections till the completion of elections. Its violation can attract a penalty under the Representation of the People, 1951 Act. Which of the above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : The Model Code of Conduct does not a have a statutory backing and it is more a consensus driven code arrived at after consultation with all political parties to ensure free and fair elections and to see that the ruling party does not misuse its dominant position. Thus it is voluntary in nature. Statement 2 is correct : The dispute over the date when the Model Code of Conduct should come into force, the issuance of the press release by Election Commission announcing the poll dates or the date of actual notification in this regard was resolved in the Union of India V/s Harbans Sigh Jalal. The apex court gave the ruling that the Code of Conduct would come into force the moment the Commission issues the press release, which precedes the notification by a good two weeks. This ruling lay at rest the controversy related to the dates of enforcement of MCC. Thus the MCC remains in force from the date of announcement of elections till the completion of elections. Statement 3 is not correct : The repercussions of violation of the MCC have not been defined under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 or by the Election Commission. The EC issues warnings or in rare cases, it has also imposed a temporary ban on the election campaign of a politician violating the MCC. Rival parties often make appeals before the EC against actions of their opponents violating the MCC. ##Topic:Representation of People's Act##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Panchayati Raj institutions consider the following statements: The state legislature can authorise a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes. The Central Finance commission can suggest measures needed to augument the consolidated fund of state to supplement resources of panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 243 H states that the Legislature of a State may, by law, (a) authorise a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls and fees in accordance with such procedure and subject to such limits; (b) assign to a Panchayat such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the State Government for such purposes and subject to such conditions and limits; (c) provide for making such grants in aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State; and (d) provide for constitution of such Funds for crediting all moneys received, respectively, by or on behalf of the Panchayats and also for the withdrawal of such moneys therefrom, as may be specified in the law. Statement 2 is correct: The Central Finance Commission can also suggest the measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats in the states (on the basis of the recommendations made by the finance commission of the state.
|
c
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Panchayati Raj institutions consider the following statements: The state legislature can authorise a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes. The Central Finance commission can suggest measures needed to augument the consolidated fund of state to supplement resources of panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Article 243 H states that the Legislature of a State may, by law, (a) authorise a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls and fees in accordance with such procedure and subject to such limits; (b) assign to a Panchayat such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the State Government for such purposes and subject to such conditions and limits; (c) provide for making such grants in aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State; and (d) provide for constitution of such Funds for crediting all moneys received, respectively, by or on behalf of the Panchayats and also for the withdrawal of such moneys therefrom, as may be specified in the law. Statement 2 is correct: The Central Finance Commission can also suggest the measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats in the states (on the basis of the recommendations made by the finance commission of the state.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Milky way galaxy is a type of which of the following galaxies?
|
Elliptical
|
Spiral
|
Irregular
|
Elliptical
|
.
|
b
|
The Universe
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Milky way galaxy is a type of which of the following galaxies?##Option_A:Elliptical###Option_B:Spiral##Option_C:Irregular##Option_D:Elliptical##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:The Universe##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
‘शीरी कलम’ तथा ‘नादिर- उल -असर’ की उपाधियाँ निम्नलिखित में से किन से संबंधित हैं?
|
अब्दुस्समद तथा मीर सैयद अली
|
फारुख कलमक तथा दसवंत
|
मिशकिन तथा मुतुकंद
|
अब्दुस्समद तथा मीर सैयद अली
|
nan
|
a
|
Paintings
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:‘शीरी कलम’ तथा ‘नादिर- उल -असर’ की उपाधियाँ निम्नलिखित में से किन से संबंधित हैं?##Option_A:अब्दुस्समद तथा मीर सैयद अली###Option_B:फारुख कलमक तथा दसवंत##Option_C:
मिशकिन तथा मुतुकंद
##Option_D:अब्दुस्समद तथा मीर सैयद अली##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Paintings##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजियेः (चित्रकला की शैली)(संबंधित राज्य) 1. डोगरी : राजस्थान 2. बूंदी : जम्मू-कश्मीर उपर्युक्त युग्मों में कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित है/हैं?
|
केवल 2
|
केवल 1
|
न तो 1 और न ही 2
|
केवल 2
|
nan
|
c
|
Paintings
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजियेः (चित्रकला की शैली)(संबंधित राज्य) 1. डोगरी : राजस्थान 2. बूंदी : जम्मू-कश्मीर उपर्युक्त युग्मों में कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित है/हैं?##Option_A:केवल 2###Option_B:
केवल 1
##Option_C: न तो 1 और न ही 2##Option_D:केवल 2##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Paintings##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
The NATRIP project, recently seen in news is related to which of the following?
|
Defence manufacturing
|
Automobile sector
|
Food processing
|
Defence manufacturing
|
National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRiP), the largest and one of the most significant initiatives in Automotive sector. It represents a unique joining of hands between the Government of India, a number of State Governments and Indian Automotive Industry to create a state of the art Testing, Validation and R&D infrastructure in the country. The Project aims at creating core global competencies in Automotive sector in India and facilitate seamless integration of Indian Automotive industry with the world as also to position the country prominently on the global automotive map.
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The NATRIP project, recently seen in news is related to which of the following?##Option_A: Defence manufacturing###Option_B: Automobile sector##Option_C: Food processing##Option_D: Defence manufacturing##Answer:b##Explaination:National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRiP), the largest and one of the most significant initiatives in Automotive sector. It represents a unique joining of hands between the Government of India, a number of State Governments and Indian Automotive Industry to create a state of the art Testing, Validation and R&D infrastructure in the country. The Project aims at creating core global competencies in Automotive sector in India and facilitate seamless integration of Indian Automotive industry with the world as also to position the country prominently on the global automotive map.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The state legislature may endow the Panchayats with the powers with respect to which of the following? Preparation of plans for economic development and social justice Implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Article 243G states that the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority and may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self government and such law may contain provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats, at the appropriate level, subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to (a) the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; (b) the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
|
c
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The state legislature may endow the Panchayats with the powers with respect to which of the following? Preparation of plans for economic development and social justice Implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Article 243G states that the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority and may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self government and such law may contain provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats, at the appropriate level, subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to (a) the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; (b) the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA), consider the following statements: It has been setup under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It is chaired by the Prime Minister. It aims to maintain the minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Government of India has given Ganga the status of a National River and has constituted the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) on 20th February 2009 under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection Act, 1986. Statement 2 is correct: The authority is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others. This initiative is expected to rejuvenate the collective efforts of the Centre and the States for cleaning the river. The Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation(MoWR, RD & GR) is the nodal Ministry for the NGRBA. Statement 3 is correct: NGRBA functions include development of a Ganga River Basin Management Plan, regulation of activities aimed at prevention, control and abatement of pollution, to maintain water quality and to take measures relevant to the river ecology in the Ganga basin states. It is mandated to ensure the maintenance of minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga and abate pollution through planning, financing and execution of programmes including that of - 1) Augmentation of Sewerage Infrastructure 2) Catchment Area Treatment 3) Protection of Flood Plains 4) Creating Public Awareness.
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA), consider the following statements: It has been setup under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It is chaired by the Prime Minister. It aims to maintain the minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Government of India has given Ganga the status of a National River and has constituted the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) on 20th February 2009 under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection Act, 1986. Statement 2 is correct: The authority is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others. This initiative is expected to rejuvenate the collective efforts of the Centre and the States for cleaning the river. The Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation(MoWR, RD & GR) is the nodal Ministry for the NGRBA. Statement 3 is correct: NGRBA functions include development of a Ganga River Basin Management Plan, regulation of activities aimed at prevention, control and abatement of pollution, to maintain water quality and to take measures relevant to the river ecology in the Ganga basin states. It is mandated to ensure the maintenance of minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga and abate pollution through planning, financing and execution of programmes including that of - 1) Augmentation of Sewerage Infrastructure 2) Catchment Area Treatment 3) Protection of Flood Plains 4) Creating Public Awareness.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
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