BaekSeungJu/TopicwiseEval-Dataset · Datasets at Hugging Face

Question stringlengths 6 846	Choice A stringlengths 1 208	Choice B stringlengths 1 160	Choice C stringlengths 1 216	Choice D stringlengths 1 226	Choice E stringlengths 1 145	answer stringclasses 5 values	answer_text stringlengths 1 226	topic stringclasses 19 values
Which is NOT a histological pattern of orbital rhabdomyosarcoma in the current classification?	Embryonal	Pleomorphic	Alveolar	Differentiated	Botryoid	b	Pleomorphic	General Ophthalmology
In ADULTS, the most common intraocular malignant tumor, and most common site of involvement are:	Melanoma, choroid	Metastasis, iris	Melanoma, iris	Metastasis, choroid	Neuroblastoma, orbital tissue	d	Metastasis, choroid	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements about pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland is FALSE?	It can recur in a diffuse manner.	It can transform to a malignant tumor if present long enough.	Recurrences can transform to malignancy.	It can resolve spontaneously.	Calcification is rare	d	It can resolve spontaneously.	General Ophthalmology
Subperiosteal abscess of the orbit in ADULTS is more likely than in children to:	Drain spontaneously	Respond to single antibiotic therapy	Be polymicrobial	Arise from the ethmoid sinus	Arise from acute sinusitis	c	Be polymicrobial	General Ophthalmology
A 65-year-old woman presents with a progressively enlarging mass in the right inferior orbit. Distraction of the lower eyelid reveals a “salmon patch” appearance to the fornix. The most likely diagnosis is:	Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia	Lymphoma	Sebaceous carcinoma	Melanoma	Apocrine hidrocystoma	b	Lymphoma	General Ophthalmology
The most common location for orbital lymphoma is:	The extraocular muscles	Retro-orbital fat	Lacrimal fossa	Orbital apex	Orbital floor	c	Lacrimal fossa	General Ophthalmology
A biopsy report of an orbital mass states the following “reactive lymphoid hyperplasia.” The appropriate treatment is:	Systemic steroids	Radiation with a dose of 1500–2000 cGy	Systemic chemotherapy	Complete surgical excision	Cryotherapy	b	Radiation with a dose of 1500–2000 cGy	General Ophthalmology
The majority of orbital lymphomas:	Are polyclonal proliferations	Are T-cell tumors	Are systemic at presentation	Are well differentiated	Involve both orbits	d	Are well differentiated	General Ophthalmology
The management of rhabdomyosarcoma of the orbit usually involves:	Lumbar puncture to rule out central nervous system metastasis	Exenteration of the orbit	Enucleation and orbital radiation	Systemic chemotherapy and orbital radiation	Radical neck dissection if cervical lymph nodes are involved	d	Systemic chemotherapy and orbital radiation	General Ophthalmology
All of the following are TRUE regarding optic nerve tumors EXCEPT:	Optic nerve glioma in children is associated with neurofibromatosis type 1.	Optic nerve meningioma in children is associated with neurofibromatosis type 2	Radiation therapy is an accepted therapy for optic nerve sheath meningioma.	Optic nerve glioma of childhood can be malignant.	Radiation therapy is an accepted therapy for optic nerve glioma.	d	Optic nerve glioma of childhood can be malignant.	General Ophthalmology
Acute proptosis may be due to:	Trauma	Orbital cellulitis	Rhabdomyosarcoma	Cavernous sinus thrombosis	All of the above	e	All of the above	General Ophthalmology
All of the following are causes of lagophthalmos EXCEPT:	Facial nerve palsy	Proptosis	Cicatricial ectropion	Third nerve paralysis	nan	d	Third nerve paralysis	General Ophthalmology
All of the following are TRUE regarding orbital cellulites, EXCEPT:	Most cases are associated with an underlying sinusitis.	Infections in children tend to be single organism.	Subperiosteal abscesses, especially in children, require drainage.	After initiation of appropriate antibiotic therapy a subperiosteal abscess may enlarge before responding	nan	c	Subperiosteal abscesses, especially in children, require drainage.	General Ophthalmology
In Orbital cellulites, one is TRUE:	Blunt trauma is a common cause	Most common causative agent is Pseudomonas Aurogenosa	Ultrasound for subperiosteal abscess	Conjunctival swab reveals positive organisms	Presence of contralateral proptosis is evidence for Cavernous Sinus thrombosis	e	Presence of contralateral proptosis is evidence for Cavernous Sinus thrombosis	General Ophthalmology
In the evaluation of a CHILD with unilateral exophthalmos, which assumption is CORRECT?	Cavernous hemangiomas are among the most common benign orbital tumors in children.	Thyroid ophthalmopathy is the most common cause of unilateral exophthalmos among children.	Neurofibroma is the malignant tumor that most commonly produces exophthalmos among children.	Optic nerve meningiomas are more common than gliomas in children.	None of the above	e	None of the above	General Ophthalmology
TRUE statements about cavernous haemangioma include all the following EXCEPT:	It is commoner is female than male	Spontaneous resolution is rare	It is well encapsulated	Retinal striae is a recognized sign	The proptosis increases with Valsalva's maneuver	e	The proptosis increases with Valsalva's maneuver	General Ophthalmology
The most common site for secondary metastasis to the globe is:	Choroid	retina	conjunctiva	iris	vitreous	a	Choroid	General Ophthalmology
Enophthalmos may be due to:	Trauma	Cachexia	Post radiotherapy	Secondary's of breast scirrhus carcinoma	All of the above	e	All of the above	General Ophthalmology
Indications for repair of orbital blowout fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT:	Cosmetically unacceptable enophthalmos	Fractures involving more than half of the orbital floor	Inferior rectus weakness	Pain and oculocardiac reflex on upgaze	Significant inferior rectus entrapment	c	Inferior rectus weakness	General Ophthalmology
A “blow-out” fracture of the orbital floor can result in all the following EXCEPT:	Diplopia	Delayed exophthalmos	Paraesthesia in the distribution of the infraorbital nerve	Depression of the globe	Limited elevation	b	Delayed exophthalmos	General Ophthalmology
Lid retraction is a characteristic sign of which of the following:	Acute facial nerve palsy	Myasthenia gravis	Thyrotoxicosis	Myotonic dystrophy	Diabetic third cranial nerve palsy	c	Thyrotoxicosis	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following signs is most likely to be present in a patient with Graves’ ophthalmopathy?	Exophthalmos	External ophthalmoplegia	Eyelid retraction	Optic neuropathy	nan	c	Eyelid retraction	General Ophthalmology
Thyroid eye disease is exacerbated by all the following EXCEPT:	Radio-iodine treatment of hyperthyroidism	Development of hypothyroidism after treatment of hyperthyroidism	Smoking	Male sex	Presence of diabetes mellitus	e	Presence of diabetes mellitus	General Ophthalmology
Upper eyelid retraction in thyroid eye disease is caused by all the following EXCEPT:	Adrenergic stimulation of the Muller's muscle	Superior oblique muscle fibrosis	Inferior rectus fibrosis	Fibrosis of the levator	Overaction of the superior rectus/levator complex	b	Superior oblique muscle fibrosis	General Ophthalmology
Thyroid eye disease. All the following are TRUE, EXCEPT:	Is seen in 40% of patients with Graves' disease	Does not occur in Hashimoto's thyroiditis	Is not a feature of thyroid cancer	Tends to peak 6 months from onset	Usually ceases to be active 18 months after onset	b	Does not occur in Hashimoto's thyroiditis	General Ophthalmology
The following are TRUE about the radiological features of thyroid eye disease EXCEPT:	Inferior rectus is the extraocular muscle most often involved	The tendon of the affected muscle is not involved	Medial rectus enlargement is more likely than inferior rectus enlargement in causing compressive optic neuropathy	Oedema of the extraocular muscle is best diagnosis with B-scan	STIR (short-tau inversion recovery) sequence MRI is useful in assessing the activity of thyroid eye disease	d	Oedema of the extraocular muscle is best diagnosis with B-scan	General Ophthalmology
The following are TRUE about thyroid eye disease EXCEPT:	The orbital tissue is infiltrated by T-cells during the active phase	When performing orbital decompression for optic neuropathy, the medial wall should be removed	Lacrimal gland prolapse is common	Bicoronal flap is the best approach for orbital decompression	Diplopia is a common complication of orbital decompression	d	Bicoronal flap is the best approach for orbital decompression	General Ophthalmology
The majority of orbital lymphomas. One of the following is TRUE:	Are polyclonal proliferations	Are T-cell tumors	Are systemic at presentation	Are well differentiated	Involve both orbits	d	Are well differentiated	General Ophthalmology
The matching of the following diseases and their HLA association are TRUE, EXCEPT:	Sympathetic ophthalmitis HLA-A11	Par planitis HLA-DR2	Cicatricial pemphigoid HLA-B5	Posner-Schlosmann syndrome HLA-BW5	Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada HLA-B22	c	Cicatricial pemphigoid HLA-B5	General Ophthalmology
One of the following is TRUE about active ocular toxoplasmosis:	The antibodies are always present	The central nervous system should be evaluated for toxoplasmosis in all immunocompromised patients	Indocyanine green can be used to detect clinically invisible active satellite lesions	The border of the lesion is sharply defined	It is the commonest cause of retinitis in AIDS patients	b	The central nervous system should be evaluated for toxoplasmosis in all immunocompromised patients	General Ophthalmology
In ocular toxocarisis, one is TRUE:	A history of visceral larva migrans is always present	Examination of the patient's stool is useful in diagnosing the disease	Bilateral ocular involvement should make one doubt the accuracy of the diagnosis	Ultrasound of the granuloma typically shows calcification	Oral thiabendazole is useful	c	Bilateral ocular involvement should make one doubt the accuracy of the diagnosis	General Ophthalmology
In juvenile chronic arthritis-related uveitis, one is TRUE:	The uveitis is usually granulomatous	The eyes are typically white	Uveitis usually precedes arthritis	It is associated with positive rheumatoid factor	Cystoid macular oedema is an important cause of poor vision	b	The eyes are typically white	General Ophthalmology
With regard to cataract in juvenile chronic arthritis, one is TRUE:	Cataract should not be performed before the patients is 8 year-old	Operation should be performed only when the anterior chamber is free of flare	Removal of the cataract should never be combined with anterior vitrectomy	Hypotony is a known post-operative complication in these patients	Only heparin-coated intraocular lens should be implanted.	d	Hypotony is a known post-operative complication in these patients	General Ophthalmology
A pregnant woman develops toxoplasmosis in her first trimester of pregnancy. One is TRUE:	There is a low chance of the fetus acquiring the infection	Subsequent offsprings are at risk of infections	The IgM antibody will be raised	Abortion is advised due to the high risk of fetal malformation	Sulphadiazine is the preferred treatment than clindamycin	c	The IgM antibody will be raised	General Ophthalmology
A 20 year-old man complains of decreased right vision. Four weeks earlier, he had undergone an extensive bowel operation for Crohn's disease and received hyperalimentation and IV antibiotics since the operation. On fundal examination, a fluffy white choroidal lesion is seen near the macula. There is minimal vitritis. All the following are TRUE about the organisms most likely to be responsible for this condition EXCEPT:	Most cases occur without positive blood culture	Although commonly seen in the respiratory tract, it rarely causes pneumonia	This organism will grow on the Sabouraud's culture within 48 hours	The organism rapidly invades the retina	Intravenous vancomycin is the treatment of choice	e	Intravenous vancomycin is the treatment of choice	General Ophthalmology
The following drugs are known to cause anterior uveitis EXCEPT:	Topical alphagan	Rifabutin	Anticholinesterase	Digoxin	Alpha-chymotrypsin	d	Digoxin	General Ophthalmology
Two tumors commonly associated with “masquerade syndromes” are:	Conjunctival lymphoma, choroidal melanoma	Conjunctival lymphoma, intraocular lymphoma	Eyelid sebaceous carcinoma, intraocular lymphoma	Basal cell carcinoma, retinoblastoma	Squamous cell carcinoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma	c	Eyelid sebaceous carcinoma, intraocular lymphoma	General Ophthalmology
One of the following medications is effective against toxoplasma tissue cysts:	Clindamycin	Pyrimethamine	Aulphonamides	Azithromycin	Erythromycin	d	Azithromycin	General Ophthalmology
Which intravitreal antibiotic has the greatest potential for causing retinal toxicity?	Ceftazidime	Vancomycin	Gentamicin	Penicillin	nan	c	Gentamicin	General Ophthalmology
In Schwartz's syndrome, one is TRUE:	There is raised intraocular pressure	The underlying cause is exudative retinal detachment	Granulomatous uveitis is a feature	There is forward movement of the lens-iris diaphragm	Macular oedema is a main cause of visual loss	a	There is raised intraocular pressure	General Ophthalmology
In Fuch's heterochromic cyclitis, one is FALSE:	Koeppe's nodules are seen	Abnormal vessels are seen bridging the angle of the trabecular meshwork	Cataract is seen in 50% of the cases	Glaucoma is seen in 60% of the cases	There is an increased vitreous loss during phacoemulsification	e	There is an increased vitreous loss during phacoemulsification	General Ophthalmology
Posner-Schlossman syndrome, one is TRUE:	Is painless	Does not cause glaucomatous field loss	Is associated with hypopyon in the majority of cases	Is a self-limiting condition	Should be treated with systemic steroid	d	Is a self-limiting condition	General Ophthalmology
The following immunosupprassants and their side-effects are TRUE, EXCEPT:	Cyclophosphamide - haemorrhagic cystitis	Cyclosporine - nephrotoxicity	Azathioprine - nephrotoxicity	Methotrexate - hepatic fibrosis	Tacrolimus (FK506) - hyperglycaemia	c	Azathioprine - nephrotoxicity	General Ophthalmology
The following conditions can give rise to both uveitis and erythema nodosum EXCEPT:	Crohn's disease	Behcet's disease	Sarcoidosis	Rheumatoid arthritis	Systemic lupus erythematosus	d	Rheumatoid arthritis	General Ophthalmology
A 25 year-old man from the Middle East complains of blurred right vision. Examination of right eye shows a small hypopyon and the posterior segment reveals sheathing of the blood vessels with retinal haemorrhages. He gave a past history of painful lesions in his mouth and his genitals. One of the following is TRUE about this condition:	Histopathology of the painful lesion reveals pathognomonic feature	Puncturing the skin with an hypodermic needle may be useful in diagnosis	The posterior segment pathology is caused by inflammation of the retina and choroid	Oral steroid alone is usually effective in preventing relapse of the ocular inflammation	Unless treated aggressively, the ocular inflammation will become chronic	b	Puncturing the skin with an hypodermic needle may be useful in diagnosis	General Ophthalmology
Patients with which of the following are most likely to present with granulomatous uveitis?	Sarcoidosis	Behcet’s syndrome	Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis	Reiter syndrome	nan	a	Sarcoidosis	General Ophthalmology
Hypopyon is most likely to be seen in which of the following uveitic syndromes?	Sarcoidosis	Behcet’s syndrome	Rheumatoid arthritis	Reiter syndrome	nan	b	Behcet’s syndrome	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following topical agents is MOST effective in controlling intraocular inflammation in uveitis?	Loteprednol	Fluorometholone 0.25%	Dexamethasone 0.1%	Prednisolone 1%	nan	d	Prednisolone 1%	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following uveitic syndromes is LEAST likely to require topical corticosteroid management?	Sarcoidosis	Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis	Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis	Reiter syndrome	nan	c	Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis	General Ophthalmology
Periocular depot corticosteroid injections should NOT be used in which of the following uveitic syndromes?	Pars planitis with cystoid macular edema	Sarcoidosis	Toxoplasmosis	Reiter syndrome	nan	c	Toxoplasmosis	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is most likely to be positive in a patient with acute nongranulomatous uveitis?	HLA-B27	HLA-B51	HLA-B5	HLA-B54	nan	a	HLA-B27	General Ophthalmology
Reiter syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?	Nonspecific urethritis	Polyarthritis	Conjunctivitis	Ankylosing spondylitis	nan	d	Ankylosing spondylitis	General Ophthalmology
Behcet’s syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?	Aphthous stomatitis	Arthritis	Genital ulceration	Retinal vasculitis	nan	b	Arthritis	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is usually seen in CHILDHOOD?	Ankylosing spondylitis	Reiter syndrome	Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome	Kawasaki syndrome	nan	d	Kawasaki syndrome	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following types of intraocular lenses is most associated with recurrent uveitis?	Rigid, closed-loop anterior chamber intraocular lenses	Iris plane intraocular lenses	Sulcus-placed posterior chamber intraocular lenses	Silicone intraocular lenses	nan	a	Rigid, closed-loop anterior chamber intraocular lenses	General Ophthalmology
Risk factors for the development of chronic iridocyclitis in patients with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis include all of the following, EXCEPT ?	Female gender	Positive rheumatoid factor (RF)	Pauciarticular arthritis	Circulating antinuclear antibody (ANA)	nan	b	Positive rheumatoid factor (RF)	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is LEAST commonly seen in patients with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) and uveitis?	Cataract	Macular edema	Glaucoma	Band keratopathy	nan	c	Glaucoma	General Ophthalmology
HLA is found on chromosome:	6	8	9	13	nan	a	6	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis?	Unilateral uveitis	Mild aqueous cell and flare	Iris stromal atrophy	Small nongranulomatous keratic precipitates in Arlt’s triangle	nan	d	Small nongranulomatous keratic precipitates in Arlt’s triangle	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is the most common cause of intermediate uveitis?	Multiple sclerosis	Idiopathic	Lyme disease	Syphilis	nan	b	Idiopathic	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is the MAJOR cause of visual loss in pars planitis?	Band keratopathy	Posterior subcapsular cataract	Epiretinal membrane	Cystoid macular edema	nan	d	Cystoid macular edema	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of acute retinal necrosis (ARN) syndrome?	Vitritis	Occlusive arteriolitis	Extensive retinal hemorrhages	Multifocal yellow-white peripheral retinitis	nan	c	Extensive retinal hemorrhages	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is commonly associated with an immunocompromised state?	Cytomegalovirus retinitis	Herpes simplex keratouveitis	Acute retinal necrosis syndrome	Ocular histoplasmosis syndrome	nan	a	Cytomegalovirus retinitis	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of ocular histoplasmosis syndrome (OHS)?	Peripapillary pigment changes	Vitritis	Peripheral atrophic chorioretinal (“histo”) spots	Maculopathy	nan	b	Vitritis	General Ophthalmology
Treatment of visually threatening ocular toxoplasmosis should include which of the following?	Amphotericin B	Periocular corticosteroid injection	Pyrimethamine and sulfonamides	Acyclovir	nan	c	Pyrimethamine and sulfonamides	General Ophthalmology
Ophthalmologic signs of systemic lupus erythematosus include all of the following EXCEPT?	Vitreous hemorrhage	Cotton-wool spots	Retinal vascular occlusion	Anterior uveitis	nan	d	Anterior uveitis	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Wegener granulomatosis?	Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are present.	There are immune complexes in small vessels.	The main therapeutic agents are prednisone and cyclophosphamide.	Sinusitis and renal disease are common.	nan	b	There are immune complexes in small vessels.	General Ophthalmology
Characteristics of acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy (APMPPE) include all of the following, EXCEPT ?	It often follows a prodromal influenza-like illness.	It is commonly seen in the fifth or sixth decade of life.	Multiple cream-colored homogenous lesions are seen beneath the retina.	Vitreous cells and disc edema may be present.	nan	b	It is commonly seen in the fifth or sixth decade of life.	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements about syphilis and uveitis is NOT TRUE?	A salt-and-pepper fundus may be seen in congenital syphilis.	Uveitis may be seen in secondary-stage syphilis.	Syphilitic uveitis cannot be cured in patients with AIDS syndrome.	A lumbar puncture should be performed in patients with uveitis and syphilis.	nan	c	Syphilitic uveitis cannot be cured in patients with AIDS syndrome.	General Ophthalmology
Recommended treatment of Lyme disease includes all of the following EXCEPT?	Penicillin	Erythromycin	Cephalosporins	Tetracycline	nan	c	Cephalosporins	General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is NOT used to treat tuberculosis?	Ivermectin	Isoniazid	Rifampin	Pyrazinamide	nan	a	Ivermectin	General Ophthalmology
Characteristics of sarcoidosis include all of the following, EXCEPT ?	Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) and lysozyme levels	Caseating granuloma on histopathology	Pulmonary and liver disease	Granulomatous or nongranulomatous uveitis	nan	b	Caseating granuloma on histopathology	General Ophthalmology
A 41-year-old Japanese man with a remote history of blunt ocular trauma in one eye but good vision and no history of ocular surgery presents with decreased vision and severe pain in both eyes. He has bilateral uveitis, alopecia, vitiligo, and recent cerebrovascular accident. There is an exudative retinal detachment in one eye. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?	Sarcoidosis	Sympathetic ophthalmia	Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome	Behcet’s syndrome	nan	c	Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome	General Ophthalmology
A 67-year-old white female presents with mild uveitis with a mild vitritis and subretinal infiltrates. The condition has been minimally responsive to topical corticosteroid treatment. She has recently experienced weakness and confusion. Which of the following tests would be the most important to obtain at this time?	Gallium scan	Westergren sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein	PPD and chest x-ray	CT scan or MRI of the head	nan	d	CT scan or MRI of the head	General Ophthalmology
All the following are true about retina, except:	Composed of 10 separable layers	There is a loose attachment between neurosensory and Retinal pigment epithelium	The Fovea is not supplied by the central retinal artery	Soft exudates are swollen axons of ganglion cells	nan	a	Composed of 10 separable layers	General Ophthalmology
Cause of blindness in HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) patient; one is true:	Cotton wool spots	HIV microangiopathy	Cytomegalovirus retinitis	Kaposi sarcoma	nan	c	Cytomegalovirus retinitis	General Ophthalmology
Pseudophakia is the loss of:	Accommodation	Conversion	Saccadic eye movements	Contrast sensitivity	nan	a	Accommodation	General Ophthalmology
All are used for treatment of myopia, except:	Convex lenses	Concave lenses	Lens refractive surgery	LASIK	nan	a	Convex lenses	General Ophthalmology
One of the following is indicative of past optic neuritis in multiple sclerosis patients:	Mild Relative afferent pupillary defect	Internuclear ophthalmoplegia	Nystagmus	Diplopia	nan	a	Mild Relative afferent pupillary defect	General Ophthalmology
Emmetropia is:	Parallel rays of light brought on retina	Visual acuity of 6/6	Parallel rays of light brought before retina	(A) & (B)	nan	a	Parallel rays of light brought on retina	General Ophthalmology
One of the following does not cause exophthalmos:	Orbital varix	Optic nerve tumor	Blow out fracture	Orbital cellulitis	nan	c	Blow out fracture	General Ophthalmology
One of the following is not a cause of entropion:	Facial nerve palsy	Congenital	Cicatricial pemphigoid	Conjunctival scaring	nan	a	Facial nerve palsy	General Ophthalmology
Which one is responsible for strongest refraction in the eye:	Tear film	Cornea	Lens	Vitreous	nan	b	Cornea	General Ophthalmology
Chronic blepharitis is associated with all, except:	Ectropion	Eyelid margin ulceration	Red eye	Obstruction of meibomian glands	nan	b	Eyelid margin ulceration	General Ophthalmology
Carotid–cavernous sinus fistula causes all the following, except:	Bruit over globe	Pulsatile tinnitus	Proptosis	Scleral veins congestion	nan	b	Pulsatile tinnitus	General Ophthalmology
All the following are risk factors for bacterial keratitis, except:	Chalazion	Contact lenses	Trauma	Dry eye	nan	a	Chalazion	General Ophthalmology
About trichiasis; all the following are true, except:	Signs of dry eye	Iris atrophy	Corneal opacity	Backward misdirection of eye lashes	nan	b	Iris atrophy	General Ophthalmology
All the following are true about herpetic infection, except:	A Dendritic ulcer is characteristic	Primary infection is asymptomatic	Caused by Herpes simplex virus type 2	Steroids may be used for treatment	nan	d	Steroids may be used for treatment	General Ophthalmology
All the following are used in treatment of open angle glaucoma, except:	Steroids	Parasympathomimetics	Betablockers	Alpha agonists	nan	a	Steroids	General Ophthalmology
All the following are true about open angle glaucoma, except:	Commonly causes headache	Optic disc cupping	Peripheral visual loss	Medical treatment is the first line of treatment	nan	a	Commonly causes headache	General Ophthalmology
All the following are signs of keratoconus, except:	Thickening of central cornea	Corneal thinning, especially in the inferior cornea	Munson sign	Prominent corneal nerves	nan	a	Thickening of central cornea	General Ophthalmology
All the following are used for the treatment of keratoconus, except:	LASIK	Intracorneal rings	Contact lenses	Keratoplasty	nan	a	LASIK	General Ophthalmology
what type of surgery is performed for a patient with large angle right esotropia:	Right recession	Right resection	Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on right eye	Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on left eye	nan	c	Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on right eye	General Ophthalmology
All the following are true about branch vein occlusion, except:	Improves with time and minimal visual loss	Surgery is indicated if the macula is not involved	Steroids and anti-VGEF are rarely used	There are two types; ischemic & non ischemic	nan	b	Surgery is indicated if the macula is not involved	General Ophthalmology
In diabetic macular edema, one is true:	Pan retinal photocoagulation is the first line of management	Anti-VGEF is the first line of treatment	All treatment modules have poor visual acuity	Treatment protocol depends on presenting vision	nan	d	Treatment protocol depends on presenting vision	General Ophthalmology
All the following are true regarding retinal detachment, except:	Uveitis cause exudative type	DM cause tractional type	Posterior vitreous detachment causes rhegmatogenous type	Surgery indicated for all types	nan	d	Surgery indicated for all types	General Ophthalmology
One of the following regarding age-related macular degeneration is correct:	The dry type does not convert to the wet type	Anti-VEGF is the drug of choice	There is reduction in central vision	Fluorescein angiography and optical coherence tomography can be used for diagnosis	nan	b	Anti-VEGF is the drug of choice	General Ophthalmology
All the following are true regarding retinitis pigmentosa, except:	Day light vision spared all over life	Complains of loss of night vision	Autosomal Dominant type is the mildest form	Loss of peripheral vision	nan	a	Day light vision spared all over life	General Ophthalmology
All the following are related to angle closure glaucoma, except:	Common in high myopes	Painful red eye	Acute presentation	Treatment for both eyes	nan	a	Common in high myopes	General Ophthalmology
Most common nerve affected by blow-out fracture:	Infra-orbital nerve.	Supratrochlear nerve.	Optic nerve.	Nasocilliary nerve.	nan	a	Infra-orbital nerve.	General Ophthalmology

Which is NOT a histological pattern of orbital rhabdomyosarcoma in the current classification?

Embryonal

Pleomorphic

Alveolar

Differentiated

Botryoid

b

Pleomorphic

General Ophthalmology

In ADULTS, the most common intraocular malignant tumor, and most common site of involvement are:

Melanoma, choroid

Metastasis, iris

Melanoma, iris

Metastasis, choroid

Neuroblastoma, orbital tissue

d

Metastasis, choroid

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following statements about pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland is FALSE?

It can recur in a diffuse manner.

It can transform to a malignant tumor if present long enough.

Recurrences can transform to malignancy.

It can resolve spontaneously.

Calcification is rare

d

It can resolve spontaneously.

General Ophthalmology

Subperiosteal abscess of the orbit in ADULTS is more likely than in children to:

Drain spontaneously

Respond to single antibiotic therapy

Be polymicrobial

Arise from the ethmoid sinus

Arise from acute sinusitis

c

Be polymicrobial

General Ophthalmology

A 65-year-old woman presents with a progressively enlarging mass in the right inferior orbit. Distraction of the lower eyelid reveals a “salmon patch” appearance to the fornix. The most likely diagnosis is:

Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia

Lymphoma

Sebaceous carcinoma

Melanoma

Apocrine hidrocystoma

b

Lymphoma

General Ophthalmology

The most common location for orbital lymphoma is:

The extraocular muscles

Retro-orbital fat

Lacrimal fossa

Orbital apex

Orbital floor

c

Lacrimal fossa

General Ophthalmology

A biopsy report of an orbital mass states the following “reactive lymphoid hyperplasia.” The appropriate treatment is:

Systemic steroids

Radiation with a dose of 1500–2000 cGy

Systemic chemotherapy

Complete surgical excision

Cryotherapy

b

Radiation with a dose of 1500–2000 cGy

General Ophthalmology

The majority of orbital lymphomas:

Are polyclonal proliferations

Are T-cell tumors

Are systemic at presentation

Are well differentiated

Involve both orbits

d

Are well differentiated

General Ophthalmology

The management of rhabdomyosarcoma of the orbit usually involves:

Lumbar puncture to rule out central nervous system metastasis

Exenteration of the orbit

Enucleation and orbital radiation

Systemic chemotherapy and orbital radiation

Radical neck dissection if cervical lymph nodes are involved

d

Systemic chemotherapy and orbital radiation

General Ophthalmology

All of the following are TRUE regarding optic nerve tumors EXCEPT:

Optic nerve glioma in children is associated with neurofibromatosis type 1.

Optic nerve meningioma in children is associated with neurofibromatosis type 2

Radiation therapy is an accepted therapy for optic nerve sheath meningioma.

Optic nerve glioma of childhood can be malignant.

Radiation therapy is an accepted therapy for optic nerve glioma.

d

Optic nerve glioma of childhood can be malignant.

General Ophthalmology

Acute proptosis may be due to:

Trauma

Orbital cellulitis

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

All of the above

e

All of the above

General Ophthalmology

All of the following are causes of lagophthalmos EXCEPT:

Facial nerve palsy

Proptosis

Cicatricial ectropion

Third nerve paralysis

nan

d

Third nerve paralysis

General Ophthalmology

All of the following are TRUE regarding orbital cellulites, EXCEPT:

Most cases are associated with an underlying sinusitis.

Infections in children tend to be single organism.

Subperiosteal abscesses, especially in children, require drainage.

After initiation of appropriate antibiotic therapy a subperiosteal abscess may enlarge before responding

nan

c

Subperiosteal abscesses, especially in children, require drainage.

General Ophthalmology

In Orbital cellulites, one is TRUE:

Blunt trauma is a common cause

Most common causative agent is Pseudomonas Aurogenosa

Ultrasound for subperiosteal abscess

Conjunctival swab reveals positive organisms

Presence of contralateral proptosis is evidence for Cavernous Sinus thrombosis

e

Presence of contralateral proptosis is evidence for Cavernous Sinus thrombosis

General Ophthalmology

In the evaluation of a CHILD with unilateral exophthalmos, which assumption is CORRECT?

Cavernous hemangiomas are among the most common benign orbital tumors in children.

Thyroid ophthalmopathy is the most common cause of unilateral exophthalmos among children.

Neurofibroma is the malignant tumor that most commonly produces exophthalmos among children.

Optic nerve meningiomas are more common than gliomas in children.

None of the above

e

None of the above

General Ophthalmology

TRUE statements about cavernous haemangioma include all the following EXCEPT:

It is commoner is female than male

Spontaneous resolution is rare

It is well encapsulated

Retinal striae is a recognized sign

The proptosis increases with Valsalva's maneuver

e

The proptosis increases with Valsalva's maneuver

General Ophthalmology

The most common site for secondary metastasis to the globe is:

Choroid

retina

conjunctiva

iris

vitreous

a

Choroid

General Ophthalmology

Enophthalmos may be due to:

Trauma

Cachexia

Post radiotherapy

Secondary's of breast scirrhus carcinoma

All of the above

e

All of the above

General Ophthalmology

Indications for repair of orbital blowout fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Cosmetically unacceptable enophthalmos

Fractures involving more than half of the orbital floor

Inferior rectus weakness

Pain and oculocardiac reflex on upgaze

Significant inferior rectus entrapment

c

Inferior rectus weakness

General Ophthalmology

A “blow-out” fracture of the orbital floor can result in all the following EXCEPT:

Diplopia

Delayed exophthalmos

Paraesthesia in the distribution of the infraorbital nerve

Depression of the globe

Limited elevation

b

Delayed exophthalmos

General Ophthalmology

Lid retraction is a characteristic sign of which of the following:

Acute facial nerve palsy

Myasthenia gravis

Thyrotoxicosis

Myotonic dystrophy

Diabetic third cranial nerve palsy

c

Thyrotoxicosis

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following signs is most likely to be present in a patient with Graves’ ophthalmopathy?

Exophthalmos

External ophthalmoplegia

Eyelid retraction

Optic neuropathy

nan

c

Eyelid retraction

General Ophthalmology

Thyroid eye disease is exacerbated by all the following EXCEPT:

Radio-iodine treatment of hyperthyroidism

Development of hypothyroidism after treatment of hyperthyroidism

Smoking

Male sex

Presence of diabetes mellitus

e

Presence of diabetes mellitus

General Ophthalmology

Upper eyelid retraction in thyroid eye disease is caused by all the following EXCEPT:

Adrenergic stimulation of the Muller's muscle

Superior oblique muscle fibrosis

Inferior rectus fibrosis

Fibrosis of the levator

Overaction of the superior rectus/levator complex

b

Superior oblique muscle fibrosis

General Ophthalmology

Thyroid eye disease. All the following are TRUE, EXCEPT:

Is seen in 40% of patients with Graves' disease

Does not occur in Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Is not a feature of thyroid cancer

Tends to peak 6 months from onset

Usually ceases to be active 18 months after onset

b

Does not occur in Hashimoto's thyroiditis

General Ophthalmology

The following are TRUE about the radiological features of thyroid eye disease EXCEPT:

Inferior rectus is the extraocular muscle most often involved

The tendon of the affected muscle is not involved

Medial rectus enlargement is more likely than inferior rectus enlargement in causing compressive optic neuropathy

Oedema of the extraocular muscle is best diagnosis with B-scan

STIR (short-tau inversion recovery) sequence MRI is useful in assessing the activity of thyroid eye disease

d

Oedema of the extraocular muscle is best diagnosis with B-scan

General Ophthalmology

The following are TRUE about thyroid eye disease EXCEPT:

The orbital tissue is infiltrated by T-cells during the active phase

When performing orbital decompression for optic neuropathy, the medial wall should be removed

Lacrimal gland prolapse is common

Bicoronal flap is the best approach for orbital decompression

Diplopia is a common complication of orbital decompression

d

Bicoronal flap is the best approach for orbital decompression

General Ophthalmology

The majority of orbital lymphomas. One of the following is TRUE:

Are polyclonal proliferations

Are T-cell tumors

Are systemic at presentation

Are well differentiated

Involve both orbits

d

Are well differentiated

General Ophthalmology

The matching of the following diseases and their HLA association are TRUE, EXCEPT:

Sympathetic ophthalmitis HLA-A11

Par planitis HLA-DR2

Cicatricial pemphigoid HLA-B5

Posner-Schlosmann syndrome HLA-BW5

Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada HLA-B22

c

Cicatricial pemphigoid HLA-B5

General Ophthalmology

One of the following is TRUE about active ocular toxoplasmosis:

The antibodies are always present

The central nervous system should be evaluated for toxoplasmosis in all immunocompromised patients

Indocyanine green can be used to detect clinically invisible active satellite lesions

The border of the lesion is sharply defined

It is the commonest cause of retinitis in AIDS patients

b

The central nervous system should be evaluated for toxoplasmosis in all immunocompromised patients

General Ophthalmology

In ocular toxocarisis, one is TRUE:

A history of visceral larva migrans is always present

Examination of the patient's stool is useful in diagnosing the disease

Bilateral ocular involvement should make one doubt the accuracy of the diagnosis

Ultrasound of the granuloma typically shows calcification

Oral thiabendazole is useful

c

Bilateral ocular involvement should make one doubt the accuracy of the diagnosis

General Ophthalmology

In juvenile chronic arthritis-related uveitis, one is TRUE:

The uveitis is usually granulomatous

The eyes are typically white

Uveitis usually precedes arthritis

It is associated with positive rheumatoid factor

Cystoid macular oedema is an important cause of poor vision

b

The eyes are typically white

General Ophthalmology

With regard to cataract in juvenile chronic arthritis, one is TRUE:

Cataract should not be performed before the patients is 8 year-old

Operation should be performed only when the anterior chamber is free of flare

Removal of the cataract should never be combined with anterior vitrectomy

Hypotony is a known post-operative complication in these patients

Only heparin-coated intraocular lens should be implanted.

d

Hypotony is a known post-operative complication in these patients

General Ophthalmology

A pregnant woman develops toxoplasmosis in her first trimester of pregnancy. One is TRUE:

There is a low chance of the fetus acquiring the infection

Subsequent offsprings are at risk of infections

The IgM antibody will be raised

Abortion is advised due to the high risk of fetal malformation

Sulphadiazine is the preferred treatment than clindamycin

c

The IgM antibody will be raised

General Ophthalmology

A 20 year-old man complains of decreased right vision. Four weeks earlier, he had undergone an extensive bowel operation for Crohn's disease and received hyperalimentation and IV antibiotics since the operation. On fundal examination, a fluffy white choroidal lesion is seen near the macula. There is minimal vitritis. All the following are TRUE about the organisms most likely to be responsible for this condition EXCEPT:

Most cases occur without positive blood culture

Although commonly seen in the respiratory tract, it rarely causes pneumonia

This organism will grow on the Sabouraud's culture within 48 hours

The organism rapidly invades the retina

Intravenous vancomycin is the treatment of choice

e

Intravenous vancomycin is the treatment of choice

General Ophthalmology

The following drugs are known to cause anterior uveitis EXCEPT:

Topical alphagan

Rifabutin

Anticholinesterase

Digoxin

Alpha-chymotrypsin

d

Digoxin

General Ophthalmology

Two tumors commonly associated with “masquerade syndromes” are:

Conjunctival lymphoma, choroidal melanoma

Conjunctival lymphoma, intraocular lymphoma

Eyelid sebaceous carcinoma, intraocular lymphoma

Basal cell carcinoma, retinoblastoma

Squamous cell carcinoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma

c

Eyelid sebaceous carcinoma, intraocular lymphoma

General Ophthalmology

One of the following medications is effective against toxoplasma tissue cysts:

Clindamycin

Pyrimethamine

Aulphonamides

Azithromycin

Erythromycin

d

Azithromycin

General Ophthalmology

Which intravitreal antibiotic has the greatest potential for causing retinal toxicity?

Ceftazidime

Vancomycin

Gentamicin

Penicillin

nan

c

Gentamicin

General Ophthalmology

In Schwartz's syndrome, one is TRUE:

There is raised intraocular pressure

The underlying cause is exudative retinal detachment

Granulomatous uveitis is a feature

There is forward movement of the lens-iris diaphragm

Macular oedema is a main cause of visual loss

a

There is raised intraocular pressure

General Ophthalmology

In Fuch's heterochromic cyclitis, one is FALSE:

Koeppe's nodules are seen

Abnormal vessels are seen bridging the angle of the trabecular meshwork

Cataract is seen in 50% of the cases

Glaucoma is seen in 60% of the cases

There is an increased vitreous loss during phacoemulsification

e

There is an increased vitreous loss during phacoemulsification

General Ophthalmology

Posner-Schlossman syndrome, one is TRUE:

Is painless

Does not cause glaucomatous field loss

Is associated with hypopyon in the majority of cases

Is a self-limiting condition

Should be treated with systemic steroid

d

Is a self-limiting condition

General Ophthalmology

The following immunosupprassants and their side-effects are TRUE, EXCEPT:

Cyclophosphamide - haemorrhagic cystitis

Cyclosporine - nephrotoxicity

Azathioprine - nephrotoxicity

Methotrexate - hepatic fibrosis

Tacrolimus (FK506) - hyperglycaemia

c

Azathioprine - nephrotoxicity

General Ophthalmology

The following conditions can give rise to both uveitis and erythema nodosum EXCEPT:

Crohn's disease

Behcet's disease

Sarcoidosis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Systemic lupus erythematosus

d

Rheumatoid arthritis

General Ophthalmology

A 25 year-old man from the Middle East complains of blurred right vision. Examination of right eye shows a small hypopyon and the posterior segment reveals sheathing of the blood vessels with retinal haemorrhages. He gave a past history of painful lesions in his mouth and his genitals. One of the following is TRUE about this condition:

Histopathology of the painful lesion reveals pathognomonic feature

Puncturing the skin with an hypodermic needle may be useful in diagnosis

The posterior segment pathology is caused by inflammation of the retina and choroid

Oral steroid alone is usually effective in preventing relapse of the ocular inflammation

Unless treated aggressively, the ocular inflammation will become chronic

b

Puncturing the skin with an hypodermic needle may be useful in diagnosis

General Ophthalmology

Patients with which of the following are most likely to present with granulomatous uveitis?

Sarcoidosis

Behcet’s syndrome

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Reiter syndrome

nan

a

Sarcoidosis

General Ophthalmology

Hypopyon is most likely to be seen in which of the following uveitic syndromes?

Sarcoidosis

Behcet’s syndrome

Rheumatoid arthritis

Reiter syndrome

nan

b

Behcet’s syndrome

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following topical agents is MOST effective in controlling intraocular inflammation in uveitis?

Loteprednol

Fluorometholone 0.25%

Dexamethasone 0.1%

Prednisolone 1%

nan

d

Prednisolone 1%

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following uveitic syndromes is LEAST likely to require topical corticosteroid management?

Sarcoidosis

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis

Reiter syndrome

nan

c

Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis

General Ophthalmology

Periocular depot corticosteroid injections should NOT be used in which of the following uveitic syndromes?

Pars planitis with cystoid macular edema

Sarcoidosis

Toxoplasmosis

Reiter syndrome

nan

c

Toxoplasmosis

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is most likely to be positive in a patient with acute nongranulomatous uveitis?

HLA-B27

HLA-B51

HLA-B5

HLA-B54

nan

a

HLA-B27

General Ophthalmology

Reiter syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?

Nonspecific urethritis

Polyarthritis

Conjunctivitis

Ankylosing spondylitis

nan

d

Ankylosing spondylitis

General Ophthalmology

Behcet’s syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?

Aphthous stomatitis

Arthritis

Genital ulceration

Retinal vasculitis

nan

b

Arthritis

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is usually seen in CHILDHOOD?

Ankylosing spondylitis

Reiter syndrome

Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome

Kawasaki syndrome

nan

d

Kawasaki syndrome

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following types of intraocular lenses is most associated with recurrent uveitis?

Rigid, closed-loop anterior chamber intraocular lenses

Iris plane intraocular lenses

Sulcus-placed posterior chamber intraocular lenses

Silicone intraocular lenses

nan

a

Rigid, closed-loop anterior chamber intraocular lenses

General Ophthalmology

Risk factors for the development of chronic iridocyclitis in patients with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis include all of the following, EXCEPT ?

Female gender

Positive rheumatoid factor (RF)

Pauciarticular arthritis

Circulating antinuclear antibody (ANA)

nan

b

Positive rheumatoid factor (RF)

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is LEAST commonly seen in patients with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) and uveitis?

Cataract

Macular edema

Glaucoma

Band keratopathy

nan

c

Glaucoma

General Ophthalmology

HLA is found on chromosome:

6

8

9

13

nan

a

6

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis?

Unilateral uveitis

Mild aqueous cell and flare

Iris stromal atrophy

Small nongranulomatous keratic precipitates in Arlt’s triangle

nan

d

Small nongranulomatous keratic precipitates in Arlt’s triangle

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is the most common cause of intermediate uveitis?

Multiple sclerosis

Idiopathic

Lyme disease

Syphilis

nan

b

Idiopathic

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is the MAJOR cause of visual loss in pars planitis?

Band keratopathy

Posterior subcapsular cataract

Epiretinal membrane

Cystoid macular edema

nan

d

Cystoid macular edema

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of acute retinal necrosis (ARN) syndrome?

Vitritis

Occlusive arteriolitis

Extensive retinal hemorrhages

Multifocal yellow-white peripheral retinitis

nan

c

Extensive retinal hemorrhages

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is commonly associated with an immunocompromised state?

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

Herpes simplex keratouveitis

Acute retinal necrosis syndrome

Ocular histoplasmosis syndrome

nan

a

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of ocular histoplasmosis syndrome (OHS)?

Peripapillary pigment changes

Vitritis

Peripheral atrophic chorioretinal (“histo”) spots

Maculopathy

nan

b

Vitritis

General Ophthalmology

Treatment of visually threatening ocular toxoplasmosis should include which of the following?

Amphotericin B

Periocular corticosteroid injection

Pyrimethamine and sulfonamides

Acyclovir

nan

c

Pyrimethamine and sulfonamides

General Ophthalmology

Ophthalmologic signs of systemic lupus erythematosus include all of the following EXCEPT?

Vitreous hemorrhage

Cotton-wool spots

Retinal vascular occlusion

Anterior uveitis

nan

d

Anterior uveitis

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Wegener granulomatosis?

Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are present.

There are immune complexes in small vessels.

The main therapeutic agents are prednisone and cyclophosphamide.

Sinusitis and renal disease are common.

nan

b

There are immune complexes in small vessels.

General Ophthalmology

Characteristics of acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy (APMPPE) include all of the following, EXCEPT ?

It often follows a prodromal influenza-like illness.

It is commonly seen in the fifth or sixth decade of life.

Multiple cream-colored homogenous lesions are seen beneath the retina.

Vitreous cells and disc edema may be present.

nan

b

It is commonly seen in the fifth or sixth decade of life.

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following statements about syphilis and uveitis is NOT TRUE?

A salt-and-pepper fundus may be seen in congenital syphilis.

Uveitis may be seen in secondary-stage syphilis.

Syphilitic uveitis cannot be cured in patients with AIDS syndrome.

A lumbar puncture should be performed in patients with uveitis and syphilis.

nan

c

Syphilitic uveitis cannot be cured in patients with AIDS syndrome.

General Ophthalmology

Recommended treatment of Lyme disease includes all of the following EXCEPT?

Penicillin

Erythromycin

Cephalosporins

Tetracycline

nan

c

Cephalosporins

General Ophthalmology

Which of the following is NOT used to treat tuberculosis?

Ivermectin

Isoniazid

Rifampin

Pyrazinamide

nan

a

Ivermectin

General Ophthalmology

Characteristics of sarcoidosis include all of the following, EXCEPT ?

Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) and lysozyme levels

Caseating granuloma on histopathology

Pulmonary and liver disease

Granulomatous or nongranulomatous uveitis

nan

b

Caseating granuloma on histopathology

General Ophthalmology

A 41-year-old Japanese man with a remote history of blunt ocular trauma in one eye but good vision and no history of ocular surgery presents with decreased vision and severe pain in both eyes. He has bilateral uveitis, alopecia, vitiligo, and recent cerebrovascular accident. There is an exudative retinal detachment in one eye. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

Sarcoidosis

Sympathetic ophthalmia

Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome

Behcet’s syndrome

nan

c

Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome

General Ophthalmology

A 67-year-old white female presents with mild uveitis with a mild vitritis and subretinal infiltrates. The condition has been minimally responsive to topical corticosteroid treatment. She has recently experienced weakness and confusion. Which of the following tests would be the most important to obtain at this time?

Gallium scan

Westergren sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein

PPD and chest x-ray

CT scan or MRI of the head

nan

d

CT scan or MRI of the head

General Ophthalmology

All the following are true about retina, except:

Composed of 10 separable layers

There is a loose attachment between neurosensory and Retinal pigment epithelium

The Fovea is not supplied by the central retinal artery

Soft exudates are swollen axons of ganglion cells

nan

a

Composed of 10 separable layers

General Ophthalmology

Cause of blindness in HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) patient; one is true:

Cotton wool spots

HIV microangiopathy

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

Kaposi sarcoma

nan

c

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

General Ophthalmology

Pseudophakia is the loss of:

Accommodation

Conversion

Saccadic eye movements

Contrast sensitivity

nan

a

Accommodation

General Ophthalmology

All are used for treatment of myopia, except:

Convex lenses

Concave lenses

Lens refractive surgery

LASIK

nan

a

Convex lenses

General Ophthalmology

One of the following is indicative of past optic neuritis in multiple sclerosis patients:

Mild Relative afferent pupillary defect

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia

Nystagmus

Diplopia

nan

a

Mild Relative afferent pupillary defect

General Ophthalmology

Emmetropia is:

Parallel rays of light brought on retina

Visual acuity of 6/6

Parallel rays of light brought before retina

(A) & (B)

nan

a

Parallel rays of light brought on retina

General Ophthalmology

One of the following does not cause exophthalmos:

Orbital varix

Optic nerve tumor

Blow out fracture

Orbital cellulitis

nan

c

Blow out fracture

General Ophthalmology

One of the following is not a cause of entropion:

Facial nerve palsy

Congenital

Cicatricial pemphigoid

Conjunctival scaring

nan

a

Facial nerve palsy

General Ophthalmology

Which one is responsible for strongest refraction in the eye:

Tear film

Cornea

Lens

Vitreous

nan

b

Cornea

General Ophthalmology

Chronic blepharitis is associated with all, except:

Ectropion

Eyelid margin ulceration

Red eye

Obstruction of meibomian glands

nan

b

Eyelid margin ulceration

General Ophthalmology

Carotid–cavernous sinus fistula causes all the following, except:

Bruit over globe

Pulsatile tinnitus

Proptosis

Scleral veins congestion

nan

b

Pulsatile tinnitus

General Ophthalmology

All the following are risk factors for bacterial keratitis, except:

Chalazion

Contact lenses

Trauma

Dry eye

nan

a

Chalazion

General Ophthalmology

About trichiasis; all the following are true, except:

Signs of dry eye

Iris atrophy

Corneal opacity

Backward misdirection of eye lashes

nan

b

Iris atrophy

General Ophthalmology

All the following are true about herpetic infection, except:

A Dendritic ulcer is characteristic

Primary infection is asymptomatic

Caused by Herpes simplex virus type 2

Steroids may be used for treatment

nan

d

Steroids may be used for treatment

General Ophthalmology

All the following are used in treatment of open angle glaucoma, except:

Steroids

Parasympathomimetics

Betablockers

Alpha agonists

nan

a

Steroids

General Ophthalmology

All the following are true about open angle glaucoma, except:

Commonly causes headache

Optic disc cupping

Peripheral visual loss

Medical treatment is the first line of treatment

nan

a

Commonly causes headache

General Ophthalmology

All the following are signs of keratoconus, except:

Thickening of central cornea

Corneal thinning, especially in the inferior cornea

Munson sign

Prominent corneal nerves

nan

a

Thickening of central cornea

General Ophthalmology

All the following are used for the treatment of keratoconus, except:

LASIK

Intracorneal rings

Contact lenses

Keratoplasty

nan

a

LASIK

General Ophthalmology

what type of surgery is performed for a patient with large angle right esotropia:

Right recession

Right resection

Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on right eye

Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on left eye

nan

c

Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on right eye

General Ophthalmology

All the following are true about branch vein occlusion, except:

Improves with time and minimal visual loss

Surgery is indicated if the macula is not involved

Steroids and anti-VGEF are rarely used

There are two types; ischemic & non ischemic

nan

b

Surgery is indicated if the macula is not involved

General Ophthalmology

In diabetic macular edema, one is true:

Pan retinal photocoagulation is the first line of management

Anti-VGEF is the first line of treatment

All treatment modules have poor visual acuity

Treatment protocol depends on presenting vision

nan

d

Treatment protocol depends on presenting vision

General Ophthalmology

All the following are true regarding retinal detachment, except:

Uveitis cause exudative type

DM cause tractional type

Posterior vitreous detachment causes rhegmatogenous type

Surgery indicated for all types

nan

d

Surgery indicated for all types

General Ophthalmology

One of the following regarding age-related macular degeneration is correct:

The dry type does not convert to the wet type

Anti-VEGF is the drug of choice

There is reduction in central vision

Fluorescein angiography and optical coherence tomography can be used for diagnosis

nan

b

Anti-VEGF is the drug of choice

General Ophthalmology

All the following are true regarding retinitis pigmentosa, except:

Day light vision spared all over life

Complains of loss of night vision

Autosomal Dominant type is the mildest form

Loss of peripheral vision

nan

a

Day light vision spared all over life

General Ophthalmology

All the following are related to angle closure glaucoma, except:

Common in high myopes

Painful red eye

Acute presentation

Treatment for both eyes

nan

a

Common in high myopes

General Ophthalmology

Most common nerve affected by blow-out fracture:

Infra-orbital nerve.

Supratrochlear nerve.

Optic nerve.

Nasocilliary nerve.

nan

a

Infra-orbital nerve.

General Ophthalmology