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Culture techniques offer nothing diagnostically or therapeutically in staphylococcal blepharoconjunctivitis
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
b
FALSE
General Ophthalmology
A renal transplant patient is diagnosed with CMV retinitis. What is the NEXT STEP in this patient's management?
decrease the dose of oral steroids and wait
obtain a urine culture
give total body irradiation
call the preacher
nan
a
decrease the dose of oral steroids and wait
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Hypertriglyceridemia alone, without elevated cholesterol levels, is not associated with significant incidence of coronary disease.
The presence of xanthelasma and corneal arcus in young patients is not associated with dyslipoproteinemia.
Lung cancer is the most common malignancy in women.
The prevalence of tuberculosis has remained unchanged in the United States in the last 10 years.
nan
a
Hypertriglyceridemia alone, without elevated cholesterol levels, is not associated with significant incidence of coronary disease.
General Ophthalmology
In patients with AIDS, treatment of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia with sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim is frequently associated with all the following EXCEPT:
Drug fever
Rash
Bronchospasm
Thrombocytopenia
nan
c
Bronchospasm
General Ophthalmology
The α-crystallin is expressed in all the following structures EXCEPT the:
kidney.
thymus.
anterior lens.
lens nucleus.
nan
a
kidney.
General Ophthalmology
The crystallins have all the following functions EXCEPT which one?
They provide stress enhancement properties.
They help ensure lens transparency.
They facilitate the renaturation of chemically denatured proteins.
They help prevent the insolubilization of heat-denatured proteins.
nan
a
They provide stress enhancement properties.
General Ophthalmology
During phacoemulsification of the lens nucleus, vitreous mixed with nuclear and cortical fragments is noted. All the following are surgical goals under these circumstances EXCEPT:
completing the nuclear phacoemulsification prior to mechanical vitrectomy
maintaining enough capsular rim to implant a posterior chamber lens in the ciliary sulcus
removing formed vitreous from the anterior chamber
removing residual cortical material from the capsular fornices
nan
a
completing the nuclear phacoemulsification prior to mechanical vitrectomy
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with retinopathy of prematurity?
Myopia
Pseudoesotropia
Glaucoma
Cataract
nan
b
Pseudoesotropia
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following organ systems is MOST likely to be the target of toxicity from the polyene class of antifungal agents?
central nervous system (CNS).
cardiovascular.
renal.
hematopoietic.
nan
c
renal.
General Ophthalmology
Identify the INCORRECT response.
As a rule, contact lenses that invert the fundus view roughly double the spot size.
Whenever laser spot size is changed, power must be adjusted.
Contact lenses giving direct fundus view (e.g., Goldmann three-mirror lens) do not change spot size.
Small spots with high power are necessary for treating lesions in the posterior pole.
nan
d
Small spots with high power are necessary for treating lesions in the posterior pole.
General Ophthalmology
A patient is tested on the Humphrey automated perimeter. The machine projects a light at his blind spot and the patient presses the button. What does this patient's response represent?
FALSE-positive response
fixation loss
short term fluctuation
FALSE-negative response
nan
b
fixation loss
General Ophthalmology
Although typically associated with hyperthyroidism, Graves' ophthalmopathy may accompany hypothyroidism or Hashimoto thyroiditis.
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
a
TRUE
General Ophthalmology
Apraclonidine (lopidine), an alpha agonist, has all the following side effects except:
Blanching of conjunctival vessels
Dry mouth
Systemic hypotension
Superior lid retraction
nan
c
Systemic hypotension
General Ophthalmology
What is the most likely cause of an allergic conjunctivitis in a glaucoma patient? List in order of probability. 1. dorzolamide 2. timolol 3. brimonidine
1>2>3
2>3>1
3>2>1
3>1>2
nan
d
3>1>2
General Ophthalmology
Major factors that contribute to intraocular pressure level in the eye include all the following EXCEPT:
Systolic pressure within the long posterior ciliary arteries
Rate of aqueous production
Facility of outflow
Episcleral venous pressure
nan
a
Systolic pressure within the long posterior ciliary arteries
General Ophthalmology
Systemic side effects of oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors include all EXCEPT which one of the following?
Paresthesias
Weight loss
Hypokalemia
Metabolic alkalosis
nan
d
Metabolic alkalosis
General Ophthalmology
Superior fibers of the optic radiations, carrying information from the inferior visual field, run in close relationship to the internal capsule.
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
b
FALSE
General Ophthalmology
Clinical effects of direct-acting muscarinic agents (miotics) include all EXCEPT which one of the following?
Increased myopia
Decreased range of accommodation
Central anterior chamber shallowing
Reduced night vision
nan
b
Decreased range of accommodation
General Ophthalmology
Lymphocytes which reside in both orbital connective tissue as well as the perimysium of the extraocular muscle are the most likely cells to act as both target and effector cells of the immune process.
TRUE
False
nan
nan
nan
b
False
General Ophthalmology
Exudative detachments occur in all the following conditions EXCEPT:
VKH
myopia
toxemia of pregnancy
CMV retinitis
nan
b
myopia
General Ophthalmology
All of the following about retinopathy in shaken baby syndrome are TRUE EXCEPT:
marked by retinal hemorrhages and cotton wool spots
has a poor visual prognosis with complete healing of retinal injuries
may also have vitreous or subretinal blood
similar to CRVO, Purtscher's retinopathy, and Valsalva retinopathy
nan
b
has a poor visual prognosis with complete healing of retinal injuries
General Ophthalmology
An infant is referred for poor tracking. On examination, the child does not fix or follow; the rest of the ocular exam is otherwise normal. Which one of the following is LEAST likely in the differential?
Achromatopsia
Congenital stationary night blindness
Leber's congenital amaurosis
Ocular albinism
nan
c
Leber's congenital amaurosis
General Ophthalmology
A patient has congenital hereditary endothelial dystrophy (CHED). Which one of the following statements regarding this disease is TRUE?
This is primarily a unilateral disease.
CHED could be differentiated from congenital hereditary stromal dystrophy (CHSD) by pachymetry
The dominant form is stationary and the recessive form is progressive.
Patients with the dominant form are more likely to demonstrate nystagmus than the recessive form.
nan
b
CHED could be differentiated from congenital hereditary stromal dystrophy (CHSD) by pachymetry
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is NOT a remnant of the tunica vasculosa lentis?
Lens coloboma
Epicapsular star
Mittendorf’s dot
Pupillary strand
nan
a
Lens coloboma
General Ophthalmology
Hypertropia associated with ipsilateral adduction weakness is MOST suggestive of:
decompensated congenital fourth nerve palsy.
dorsal mid-brain syndrome.
"one-and-a-half" syndrome.
skew deviation with internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO).
nan
d
skew deviation with internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO).
General Ophthalmology
Which pattern of nystagmus is MOST localizing?
upbeat nystagmus.
periodic alternating nystagmus.
vestibular nystagmus.
see-saw nystagmus.
nan
d
see-saw nystagmus.
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements about insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) is FALSE?
IDDM is a disorder in which there is immune-mediated destruction of the insulin-secreting beta cells of the pancreas.
Anti-insulin antibodies are frequently found in the serum of these patients.
Certain viruses have been demonstrated to have an association with onset of this disease.
Fewer than 50% of patients with new onset IDDM have demonstrable serum titers of islet-cell antibodies.
nan
d
Fewer than 50% of patients with new onset IDDM have demonstrable serum titers of islet-cell antibodies.
General Ophthalmology
Functional visual loss is a manifestation of:
A somatoform disorder
An adjustment disorder
Major depression
Schizophrenia
nan
a
A somatoform disorder
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following concerning keratoconus is FALSE?
It is associated with atopy, Down's syndrome, and Marfan's syndrome.
The earliest histologic change seen is thinning of the epithelium.
Anterior stromal scarring is typically a late finding.
Iron deposition in epithelial basal cells is not uncommon.
nan
b
The earliest histologic change seen is thinning of the epithelium.
General Ophthalmology
Which one of the following corneal dystrophies is most likely to be associated with a recurrent erosion syndrome?
granular dystrophy.
Reis-Buckler's dystrophy.
macular dystrophy.
lattice dystrophy.
nan
b
Reis-Buckler's dystrophy.
General Ophthalmology
A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden- onset oscillopsia and diplopia. Examination reveals an alcohol smell on his breath, normal acuity, bilateral abduction deficits, and coarse binocular nystagmus. Appropriate intervention should include:
intravenous glucose.
intravenous naloxone.
intravenous chlordiazepoxide.
intravenous thiamine.
nan
d
intravenous thiamine.
General Ophthalmology
A lesion that involves both medial longitudinal fasciculi near their junctions with the third nerve nuclei may cause:
INO with skew.
Foville's syndrome.
Walleyed bilateral INO.
Fisher's syndrome.
nan
c
Walleyed bilateral INO.
General Ophthalmology
A variant of the Guillain-Barre syndrome that involves only the brainstem and cranial nerves is known as:
INO skew.
Foville's syndrome.
walleyed bilateral INO.
Fisher's syndrome.
nan
d
Fisher's syndrome.
General Ophthalmology
What is the most important factor for determining visual outcome in retinal detachment?
Presence of vitreous hemorrhage
Duration of detachment
Number of retinal breaks
Attachment of the macula
nan
d
Attachment of the macula
General Ophthalmology
Indications for vitrectomy and membrane peeling in patients with macular epiretinal membrane (ERM) include all the following EXCEPT:
decrease in visual acuity below 20/70
marked retinal distortion
CNVM
metamorphopsia
nan
c
CNVM
General Ophthalmology
A person comes in with preauricular adenopathy and past-history of vesicular lip lesions. Which of the following is the MOST logical differential diagnosis?
herpes simplex and adenovirus
herpes simplex, herpes zoster, adenovirus
adenovirus
none of the above
nan
a
herpes simplex and adenovirus
General Ophthalmology
According to the guidelines from the Cryo-ROP study, cryotherapy or laser therapy should be initiated in patients with which one of the following stages of retinopathy of prematurity?
5 contiguous clock hours of stage 3 plus
8 cumulative clock hours of stage 2 plus
5 contiguous clock hours of stage 1
8 cumulative clock hours of stage 1
nan
a
5 contiguous clock hours of stage 3 plus
General Ophthalmology
Which muscle is the primary depressor of the eye when it is abducted 23° from the midline?
Medial rectus
Inferior oblique
Superior oblique
Inferior rectus
nan
d
Inferior rectus
General Ophthalmology
A tumor resembling an irradiated retinoblastoma is found during a routine ophthalmoscopic examination of a child who had an esotropia. The child had never had a known ocular tumor and was otherwise healthy and normal. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
medulloepithelioma.
incorrect history from the mother.
Coats' disease.
retinocytoma (retinoma).
nan
d
retinocytoma (retinoma).
General Ophthalmology
Which one of the following statements about uveal malignant melanoma is TRUE?
Its most common site of metastasis is the brain.
Ciliary body origin is most common.
Iris and ciliary body melanomas are equally malignant.
It is the most common primary intraocular malignant neoplasm in adults.
nan
d
It is the most common primary intraocular malignant neoplasm in adults.
General Ophthalmology
Which one of the following statements about uveal malignant melanoma is TRUE?
It has a cumulative lifetime incidence of about 1 in 20,000 to 30,000 Caucasian individuals.
It is about 10% more common in Caucasians than in blacks.
After the age of about 65 years the annual incidence plateaus.
The average age at detection is about 55 to 60 years.
nan
d
The average age at detection is about 55 to 60 years.
General Ophthalmology
Which one of the following is NOT considered a risk factor for the development of uveal melanoma?
Intense, sustained, recurrent exposure to sunlight.
Congenital ocular melanocytosis.
Smoking.
Dysplastic nevus syndrome.
nan
c
Smoking.
General Ophthalmology
Which is the LEAST likely way that a ciliary body or choroidal melanoma may appear clinically?
Asymptomatic, discovered on routine ocular examination.
Blurred vision.
Seminal episcleral blood vessels overlying the region of the uveal melanoma.
Heterochromia.
nan
d
Heterochromia.
General Ophthalmology
A 6-year-old child has a 2-month history of a red eye, a visible tan-to-white iris mass, and glaucoma. The child is otherwise normal and healthy. The MOST probable diagnosis is:
amelanotic melanoma.
juvenile xanthogranuloma.
nematode granuloma.
medulloepithelioma.
nan
d
medulloepithelioma.
General Ophthalmology
A 62-year-old woman has left enophthalmos and mild gaze restriction of the left eye in all directions. Which of the following is the MOST significant part of her medical history?
angioedema
normochromic, normocytic anemia
contact lens wear for high hyperopia
a subtotal mastectomy
nan
d
a subtotal mastectomy
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following corneal layers do NOT regenerate?
Bowman's layer
Descemet's membrane
endothelium
keratocytes
nan
a
Bowman's layer
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is the most common cause of vision loss in intermediate uveitis?
Band keratopathy
Cystoid macular edema
Amblyopia
Optic neuritis
nan
b
Cystoid macular edema
General Ophthalmology
Gaze evoked-amaurosis is MOST suggestive of which one of the following?
Carotid artery disease
Papilledema
Optic disc drusen
Orbital tumor
nan
d
Orbital tumor
General Ophthalmology
Sympathetic ophthalmia
Occurs in approximately 1 in 1500 penetrating injuries
Never causes permanent loss of sight
May be avoided by early enucleation of unsalvageable eyes
Does not cause exudative detachment
nan
c
May be avoided by early enucleation of unsalvageable eyes
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements about syphilis and uveitis is NOT correct?
A salt-and-pepper fundus may be seen in congenital syphilis.
Uveitis may be seen in secondary-stage syphilis.
Syphilitic uveitis cannot be cured in patients with AIDS syndrome.
A lumbar puncture should be performed in patients with uveitis and syphilis.
nan
c
Syphilitic uveitis cannot be cured in patients with AIDS syndrome.
General Ophthalmology
Glaucoma drainage device implantation may be indicated when IOP is uncontrolled in all the following EXCEPT:
Failed trabeculectomy with antifibrotics
Blind painful eye with neovascular glaucoma
Active uveitis
Inadequate limbal conjunctiva
nan
b
Blind painful eye with neovascular glaucoma
General Ophthalmology
How does hydroxyamphetamine achieve its pharmacologic action on the normal pupil?
blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine into the nerve ending
blocking the metabolism of norepinephrine by monoamine oxidase
blocking the degrading action of catechol-O-methyltransferase
stimulating the release of norepinephrine from the nerve ending
nan
d
stimulating the release of norepinephrine from the nerve ending
General Ophthalmology
All of the following may be associated with congenital cataracts EXCEPT
Anterior lenticonus
Cerulean cataracts
Aniridia
Siderosis
nan
d
Siderosis
General Ophthalmology
Following laceration of the cornea and sclera, a 9-year-old boy has endophthalmitis caused by Bacillus cereus. Which of the following is appropriate treatment?
amikacin
moxalactam
gentamicin and clindamycin
penicillin G and gentamycin
nan
c
gentamicin and clindamycin
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following local anesthetics in the usual dosages will provide the longest duration of action?
procaine
mepivacaine (carbocaine)
lidocaine (Xylocaine)
bupivacaine
nan
d
bupivacaine
General Ophthalmology
Which vitamin is MOST critical for photoreceptor response to light?
A
B
C
D
nan
a
A
General Ophthalmology
Functional visual loss is a manifestation of:
A somatoform disorder
An adjustment disorder
Major depression
Schizophrenia
nan
a
A somatoform disorder
General Ophthalmology
The posterior lamella of the upper eyelid contains all EXCEPT which one of the following?
Levator aponeurosis
Muller's muscle
Orbicularis muscle
Conjunctival lining
nan
c
Orbicularis muscle
General Ophthalmology
An angle of 45° corresponds to how many prism diopters?
45
22.5
90
100
nan
d
100
General Ophthalmology
Compared to CT scanning, MRI scanning provides better
View of bone and calcium
View of the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction
Elimination of motion artifact
Comfort for claustrophobic patients
nan
b
View of the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with retinopathy of prematurity?
Myopia
Pseudoesotropia
Glaucoma
Cataract
nan
b
Pseudoesotropia
General Ophthalmology
A patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is to be given local anesthesia for elective eye surgery. Which of the following measures would be MOST USEFUL in preventing intraoperative CO2 narcosis?
preoperative restriction of fluids
preoperative sedation with an agent that is not a central nervous system depressant
intraoperative administration of IV steroids
intraoperative administration of 4 to 6 L of 02/min via nasal prongs
nan
b
preoperative sedation with an agent that is not a central nervous system depressant
General Ophthalmology
A renal transplant patient is diagnosed with CMV retinitis. What is the NEXT STEP in this patient's management?
decrease the dose of oral steroids and wait
obtain a urine culture
give total body irradiation
call the preacher
nan
a
decrease the dose of oral steroids and wait
General Ophthalmology
Enophthalmos in one eye without previous injury is suspicious for which of the following?
orbital malignant melanoma
metastatic breast carcinoma in a woman
orbital cellulitis
all the above
nan
b
metastatic breast carcinoma in a woman
General Ophthalmology
All the following are very rare primary intraocular neoplasms EXCEPT:
leiomyoma.
neurilemoma.
adenoma and adenocarcinoma of the neuroepithelium (e.g., ciliary epithelium).
intraocular extension of conjunctival carcinoma.
nan
d
intraocular extension of conjunctival carcinoma.
General Ophthalmology
After a motor vehicle accident, a young man presents with unilateral marked proptosis, diplopia, and prominent episcleral vessels. He complains of a rushing sound in his head. Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY possibility?
Posteriorly draining dural shunt
Carotid-cavernous fistula
Retro-orbital hemorrhage
Orbital floor fracture
nan
b
Carotid-cavernous fistula
General Ophthalmology
A patient presents with headache, blurred vision, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil. The opposite pupil is normal. The dilated pupil does not respond to one drop of pilocarpine 1%. What is the MOST LIKELY explanation?
Intracranial aneurysm
Vasculopathic oculomotor nerve (CN III) palsy
Migraine
Pharmacologic mydriasis
nan
d
Pharmacologic mydriasis
General Ophthalmology
Which one of the following statements about carotid endarterectomy is NOT CORRECT?
It reduces the risk of stroke in symptomatic patients with 70% or greater stenosis.
Stroke reduction and surgical outcomes are not related to the surgical experience of the team at the treating medical center.
Endarterectomy was not beneficial for patients with moderate (50%- 69%) stenosis.
Aspirin may be beneficial in patients with mild carotid occlusive disease.
nan
b
Stroke reduction and surgical outcomes are not related to the surgical experience of the team at the treating medical center.
General Ophthalmology
What treatment is indicated for the patient in the previous question?
No treatment, but re-evaluation in 2 months
Focal laser photocoagulation if visual acuity is less than 20/40
Panretinal laser photocoagulation
Focal laser photocoagulation
nan
d
Focal laser photocoagulation
General Ophthalmology
The temporal retina is vascularized at 36 weeks' gestation, approximately 4 weeks before the nasal retina.
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
b
FALSE
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following descriptions of severity of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is CORRECT?
Stage 2: an elevated demarcation line with preretinal fibrovascular proliferation.
Stage 3: a demarcation line having width and height (protruding into the vitreous).
Stage 4: total retinal detachment.
Stage 5: total retinal detachment.
nan
d
Stage 5: total retinal detachment.
General Ophthalmology
In which of the following would you NOT suspect a viral etiology?
verruca vulgaris
CMV
Newcastle conjunctivitis
trachoma
nan
d
trachoma
General Ophthalmology
A 60-year-old man develops ipsilateral, multifocal, linear, and punctate, granular corneal epithelial lesions three months after the onset of trigeminal herpes zoster. What is the MOST LIKELY mechanism?
recurrent varicella-zoster virus from the trigeminal ganglion
recurrent varicella-zoster virus from the corneal stroma
superinfection with herpes simplex virus
delayed hypersensitivity reaction to varicella zoster antigen in the anterior stroma
nan
c
superinfection with herpes simplex virus
General Ophthalmology
A patient undergoes penetrating keratoplasty. Which of the following is the MOST important determinant of reaction to the allograft?
age of the recipient.
age of the donor.
presence or absence of epithelium on the donor cornea.
degree of corneal vascularization.
nan
d
degree of corneal vascularization.
General Ophthalmology
A 35-year-old obese man has had recurrent bilateral ocular irritation, conjunctival hyperemia, and minimal mucous discharge for six months. Examination reveals excessive laxity of the upper lids, and the patient reports that the upper lids evert spontaneously during sleep. Which of the following will be revealed in exa...
diffuse papillae and hyperemia
diffuse membrane formation
multifocal ulceration and hyperemia
hypertrophic follicles
nan
a
diffuse papillae and hyperemia
General Ophthalmology
A 37-year-old contact lens intolerant patient who is actively involved in scuba diving and skiing and "hates wearing glasses" is interested in refractive surgery. The refractive error in his right eye is -1.25 +2.50 x 75. The refraction in his other eye is similar. He is highly motivated to have his astigmatism correct...
Refer him to an excimer laser center.
Perform a four-incision radial keratotomy with a 4.0 mm optical zone and two transverse incisions along the 75° axis.
Determine the spherical equivalent before planning his surgery
Perform two arcuate incisions in the 165° axis.
nan
c
Determine the spherical equivalent before planning his surgery
General Ophthalmology
A 15-year-old boy presents with a two week history of malaise, low-grade fever, and headache. Four days prior to presentation, he developed a severe sore throat and bilateral upper eyelid swelling. Examination shows a mildly ill boy with a temperature of 100.1° F, moderately severe pharyngitis, mildly tender cervical l...
"strep throat"
infectious mononucleosis
sarcoidosis
diphtheria
nan
b
infectious mononucleosis
General Ophthalmology
The glaucoma seen ipsilateral to facial hemangioma in Sturge-Weber syndrome is due entirely to elevated episcleral venous pressure (EVP).
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
b
FALSE
General Ophthalmology
Subperiosteal abscess of the orbit in adults is MORE likely than in children to
Drain spontaneously
Respond to single antibiotic therapy
Be polymicrobial
Arise from the ethmoid sinus
nan
c
Be polymicrobial
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is NOT associated with glucose intolerance?
thiazide diuretic therapy
Dilantin therapy
Friedrich's ataxia
primary hyperparathyroidism
nan
c
Friedrich's ataxia
General Ophthalmology
Posterior polymorphous dystrophy has all the following attributes EXCEPT:
vesicular, curvilinear, and placoid abnormalities on specular microscopy.
epithelial-like transformation of corneal endothelium.
an association with glaucoma.
an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.
nan
d
an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.
General Ophthalmology
If indicated, prophylactic irradiation following the diagnosis of acute leukemia in childhood should involve both eyes.
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
a
TRUE
General Ophthalmology
Cromolyn sodium is most effective when used prophylactically; however, symptomatic relief may be obtained with intensive administration.
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
b
FALSE
General Ophthalmology
Which one of the following concerning asteroid hyalosis is FALSE?
It is more common with aging.
It is more commonly bilateral.
It is generally associated with no decrease in visual acuity.
The vitreous is otherwise normal.
nan
b
It is more commonly bilateral.
General Ophthalmology
A scleral support ring (Flieringa ring) during penetrating keratoplasty is most helpful in eyes that are aphakic (or will become so during the procedure).
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
a
TRUE
General Ophthalmology
Which one of the following concerning Coats' disease is FALSE?
TRUE Coats' disease is a disorder of childhood, more often affecting boys.
The condition is more commonly bilateral than unilateral.
Diagnosis of Coats' disease may not be made in the setting of subretinal exudate without obvious abnormal retinal vessels.
Full treatment involves obliteration of the abnormal vessels and subsequent treatment of associated retinal detachment.
nan
b
The condition is more commonly bilateral than unilateral.
General Ophthalmology
Pigment epithelial detachment (PED) in a patient under the age of 50 years generally has a better prognosis than in a patient over the age of 50 years.
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
a
TRUE
General Ophthalmology
Myelinated nerve fibers are more common in boys than in girls.
TRUE
FALSE
nan
nan
nan
a
TRUE
General Ophthalmology
The triad of adenoma sebaceum, mental retardation, and seizures is considered pathognomonic for:
neurofibromatosis.
Sturge-Weber syndrome.
ataxia-telangiectasia.
tuberous sclerosis.
nan
d
tuberous sclerosis.
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is MOST COMMONLY consistent with verticillate corneal dystrophy?
saccular aneurysms of the conjunctiva
spoke-like anterior subcapsular cataract
pigmentary retinopathy
normal examination otherwise
nan
d
normal examination otherwise
General Ophthalmology
Identify the INCORRECT answer. The Worth four-dot test with red glass over the right eye:
stimulates retinal rivalry for the white light in bifoveal patients.
demands a four-light response at near distance in all binocular patients.
demands a "red light only" response at all testing distances in patients without binocular vision who fixate with the right eye.
can separate monofixators from patients who have anomalous retinal correspondence and suppression.
nan
d
can separate monofixators from patients who have anomalous retinal correspondence and suppression.
General Ophthalmology
Nodular scleritis is MOST likely to be associated with
Relapsing polychondritis
Multiple sclerosis
Orbital pseudotumor
Graft-versus-host disease following bone marrow transplantation
nan
a
Relapsing polychondritis
General Ophthalmology
In bifocal design, image jump may be minimized by
Placing the optical center of the segment as close as possible to the top of the segment
Placing the top of the segment as close as possible to the distance optical center
Using a smaller bifocal segment
Using a blended bifocal segment having no visible line of separation
nan
a
Placing the optical center of the segment as close as possible to the top of the segment
General Ophthalmology
When prescribing bifocal lenses for a myope…
The practitioner should leave the choice of the segment type to the optician.
A round-top segment is preferred because of its thin upper edge, which causes less prismatic effect.
A flat-top segment is preferred because it lessens image jump.
The one-piece shape is indicated for adds greater than +2.00 D.
nan
c
A flat-top segment is preferred because it lessens image jump.
General Ophthalmology
A non-immunized individual splashed in the eye with blood that is positive for hepatitis B should
Receive hepatitis B immune globulin, followed in 6 months by a full hepatitis B vaccination schedule.
Receive immune globulin, followed by hepatitis B immune globulin in 1 week.
Concurrently receive hepatitis B immune globulin and begin accelerated hepatitis B vaccination schedule.
Concurrently receive hepatitis B vaccination and immune globulin.
nan
c
Concurrently receive hepatitis B immune globulin and begin accelerated hepatitis B vaccination schedule.
General Ophthalmology
All of the following disorders are pathogenetically linked EXCEPT:
Rheumatoid arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Reiter syndrome
Recurrent acute iridocyclitis
nan
a
Rheumatoid arthritis
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following groups of antihypertensive agents should be avoided in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus patients?
Diuretics
Calcium channel blockers
Direct-acting vasodilators
Beta blockers
nan
d
Beta blockers
General Ophthalmology
Hashimoto thyroiditis…
Is associated with specific HLA antigens.
Is unrelated to other autoimmune diseases.
Presents with symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
Causes eosinophilic infiltration of the thyroid gland.
nan
a
Is associated with specific HLA antigens.
General Ophthalmology
This nerve to an extraocular muscle does not pass through the muscle cone on entering the orbit:
CN III
CN IV
CN V
CN VI
nan
b
CN IV
General Ophthalmology
Which is TRUE regarding orbital anatomy?
The lacrimal gland fossa is located within the lateral orbital wall.
The optic canal is located within the greater wing of the sphenoid bone.
The medial wall of the optic canal is formed by the lateral wall of the sphenoid sinus.
The nerve to the inferior rectus muscle travels anteriorly along the medial aspect of the muscle and innervates the muscle on its posterior surface.
nan
c
The medial wall of the optic canal is formed by the lateral wall of the sphenoid sinus.
General Ophthalmology