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Regarding the optic nerve, one of the following is false?
Intraorbitallly is double its intraocular thickness
Is crossed inferiorly by the nerve to lateral rectus
Meets its fellow nerve between the internal carotid arteries
Receives fibres from the temporal retina that have an indirect course to the optic disc
nan
b
Is crossed inferiorly by the nerve to lateral rectus
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements is true?
Macular fibres lie medially in the distal optic nerve
Temporal macular fibres decussate anteriorly in the chiasm
Nasal macular fibres decussate posteriorly in the chiasm
Macular fibres lie superiorly in the optic tract
nan
d
Macular fibres lie superiorly in the optic tract
General Ophthalmology
Regarding the globe, one of the following is true?
The anterior segment lies anterior to the plane of the iris
The globe has equal horizontal and vertical diameters
The axial length is decreased in short-sightedness
It lies closer to the orbital roof than floor
nan
d
It lies closer to the orbital roof than floor
General Ophthalmology
Regarding the cornea, one of the following is true?
Is circular in shape
Is thickest centrally
Has a multilayered squamous epithelium
Contains three acellular layers
nan
c
Has a multilayered squamous epithelium
General Ophthalmology
Regarding the corneal stroma, one of the following is true?
Forms 70% of the corneal thickness
Is the strongest corneal layer
Blends with sclera peripherally
Possesses a fine lymphatic network
nan
c
Blends with sclera peripherally
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements is false?
The corneal epithelium has both microplicae and microvilli.
It regenerates from central stem cells if damaged
The corneal endothelium consists of a single layer of polygonal cells
This endothelium is unable to regenerate in humans
nan
b
It regenerates from central stem cells if damaged
General Ophthalmology
Regarding Tenon's capsule, one of the following is false?
Sheathes the globe up to the posterior border of the limbus
Lies in contact with orbital fat
Is reflected around all the muscles that move the globe
Supports the globe
nan
a
Sheathes the globe up to the posterior border of the limbus
General Ophthalmology
Regarding the sclera, one of the following is false?
Has ciliary muscle attached to it
Is firmly attached to overlying Tenon's capsule
Is supplied by three sets of ciliary arteries
Is grooved on its innermost surface
nan
b
Is firmly attached to overlying Tenon's capsule
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements about the limbal area is false?
It is 1.5-2 mm wide
It is the site where the cornea and sclera merge
The conjunctival and corneal epithelia meet here
It is crossed by unmyelinated fibres innervating the cornea
nan
d
It is crossed by unmyelinated fibres innervating the cornea
General Ophthalmology
Regarding the iris, all the following are false, except?
At its pupillary margin lies ~ 2 mm from the anterior capsule of the lens
Has Fuch's crypts within the epithelium
Contains an annulus of muscle that contracts during accommodation
Has the major arterial circle lying within it
nan
c
Contains an annulus of muscle that contracts during accommodation
General Ophthalmology
Regarding the ciliary body, one of the following is true?
Is the same colour as the choroid
Has the pars plicata lying adjacent to the retina
Is innervated by fibres from the nerve to inferior oblique
Has longitudinal (meridional) muscle fibres lying anteriorly
nan
c
Is innervated by fibres from the nerve to inferior oblique
General Ophthalmology
Regarding the lens, one of the following is false?
Has a capsule that is thickest adjacent to the equator
Contains cells dividing maximally at the poles
Has an embryonic nucleus with an erect Y-shaped suture anteriorly
Contains elongated cells some 100 μιm long
nan
b
Contains cells dividing maximally at the poles
General Ophthalmology
During accommodation, which of the following is false?
The anterior pole of the lens moves anteriorly
The lens diameter increases
The lens becomes thicker
Sphincter pupillae contracts
nan
b
The lens diameter increases
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements is true?
At rest the eye is focused at infinity
Accommodation causes an increase in lens thickness
The fibres of the lens zonule only connect the lens and ciliary processes
The lens capsule is composed of a single layer of fibres
nan
b
Accommodation causes an increase in lens thickness
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements about the vitreous is false?
An embryological remnant of the primary vitreous is present in all young adult eyes
Cloquet's canal communicates with the posterior vitreous base
The tertiary vitreous forms a structure that is attached to the ciliary processes
Wieger's ligament attaches to the lens «4 mm behind the equator
nan
d
Wieger's ligament attaches to the lens «4 mm behind the equator
General Ophthalmology
Which statement regarding the choroid is false?
Is thickest anteriorly
Does not extend beyond the ora serrata
Conveys a neurovascular supply to the front of the globe
Nourishes the outermost part of the retina
nan
a
Is thickest anteriorly
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements regarding the retina is true?
It contains approximately 20 times as many cones as rods
It extends further anteriorly on its lateral than its medial side
Its pigment epithelial cells have smooth basal surfaces
The rod and cone cells are of similar length
nan
a
It contains approximately 20 times as many cones as rods
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements is true?
The retina is thickest at the ora serrata
The vitreous base is only attached to the pars plana
The volume of the posterior chamber is 0.06 ml
The trabecular meshwork is 0.2 mm wide
nan
c
The volume of the posterior chamber is 0.06 ml
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements regarding the central retinal artery is true?
Is larger than the central retinal vein
Is approximately 1 mm in diameter
Pierces the optic nerve 12 mm behind the globe
Is surrounded by just pia and arachnoid as it courses to the centre of the optic nerve
nan
c
Pierces the optic nerve 12 mm behind the globe
General Ophthalmology
In the 14-17 mm human embryo (approximately 6 weeks-old), one of the following is false.
Retinal differentiation begins
Fetal fissure starts closing
Primary lens fibres form
Pigmentation of the retinal pigment epithelium begins
nan
d
Pigmentation of the retinal pigment epithelium begins
General Ophthalmology
In the 50 mm human embryo ( approximately 10 weeks-old), one of the following structures has already developed.
Secondary lens fibres
Ciliary muscle
Lens zonule
Tarsal glands
nan
d
Tarsal glands
General Ophthalmology
The following are derived from surface ectoderm, except?
Tarsal glands
Corneal epithelium
Ciliary muscle
Lacrimal glands
nan
c
Ciliary muscle
General Ophthalmology
The following are partially or completely derived from mesoderm, except?
Descemet's membrane
Choroid
Iris smooth muscle
Fascia bulbi
nan
c
Iris smooth muscle
General Ophthalmology
The following are derived from neutral ectoderm, except?
Ganglion cells
Optic chiasm
Retinal pigment epithelium
Iris stroma
nan
d
Iris stroma
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements about ocular development is true?
Failure of optic cup closure leads to colobomata
The macula forms at the 5-month stage and is fully developed at term
The hyaloid arterial system carries no blood by the 7-month stage
Myelination of the optic nerve begins at the lamina cribrosa before term
nan
c
The hyaloid arterial system carries no blood by the 7-month stage
General Ophthalmology
A full-term infant's eye differs from an adult's eye. One of the following is false?
Less iris pigmentation
A narrower angle
A large pupil
Medial rectus inserting closer to the limbus
nan
c
A large pupil
General Ophthalmology
After permanent punctal occlusion with cautery:
5-10% rate of recanalization is expected.
10-20% rate of recanalization is expected.
20-30% rate of recanalization is expected.
30-40% rate of recanalization is expected.
nan
c
20-30% rate of recanalization is expected.
General Ophthalmology
The most common cause of mucin deficiency is:
Vitamin D deficiency
Vitamin C deficiency
Vitamin K deficiency
Vitamin A deficiency
nan
d
Vitamin A deficiency
General Ophthalmology
All the following are true of primary Sjogren Syndrome except:
Most commonly found in elderly males
No associated connective tissue disease
90% HLA-B 8 haplotype +
Associated with anti-La (SS-B) autoantibodies
nan
a
Most commonly found in elderly males
General Ophthalmology
All the following are options for the treatment of dry eyes except:
3 snip Punctoplasty
Punctual occlusion
Demulcent solutions
Hot compresses
nan
a
3 snip Punctoplasty
General Ophthalmology
The Schirmer postanesthesia test:
Measures reflex tear secretion
Measures basal tear secretion
Should be used with at least 4 drops of topical anesthetic
Should be performed before drying the cul-de-sac
nan
b
Measures basal tear secretion
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is true?
The aqueous layer of the tear film is the thickest layer.
The lipid layer of the tear film is produced by the conjunctival goblet cells.
The mucin layer is secreted by the glands of Wolfring.
There are 4 layers of the tear film.
nan
a
The aqueous layer of the tear film is the thickest layer.
General Ophthalmology
All the conditions below are associated with keratoconjunctivitis sicca except:
Vitamin A deficiency
Rheumatoid arthritis
Diabetes mellitus
Lupus erythematosus
nan
c
Diabetes mellitus
General Ophthalmology
A 45-year-old female comes to the office with a chief complaint of tearing in both eyes and foreign body sensation. Of note are small superficial punctate epitheliopathy diffusely over the central cornea. Her tear film is scanty in both eyes. One would expect her Schirmer’s test
>15 mm with anesthetic
< 10 mm="" with="" />
>20 mm without anesthetic
<5 mm without="">
nan
b
< 10 mm="" with="" />
General Ophthalmology
The glaucoma medications associated with decreased conjunctival goblet cell density are:
Prostaglandin analogs
Selective beta blockers
Non-selective beta blockers
Alpha agonists
nan
c
Non-selective beta blockers
General Ophthalmology
Causes of aqueous tear deficiency include all the following except:
Riley-Day Syndrome
Anhidrotic Ectodermal Dysplasia
Shy-Drager Syndrome
Fraser Syndrome
nan
d
Fraser Syndrome
General Ophthalmology
If a Lasik flap is amputated, the patient's refraction should become more:
Myopic
Emmetropic
Hyperopic
None of the above
nan
c
Hyperopic
General Ophthalmology
Microspherophakia is not associated with:
Alport’s syndrome
Rubella
Peter’s anomaly
Syphilis
nan
d
Syphilis
General Ophthalmology
What is the most common granulomatous inflammation seen in the eyelid?
sarcoidosis
seborrheic keratosis
chalazion
papilloma
nan
c
chalazion
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is not a treatment option for capillary hemangioma:
observation
oral steroids
surgical resection
intralesional steroid injection
silver nitrate solution
e
silver nitrate solution
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following helps to differentiate between orbital infection and inflammation?
Proptosis
pain with eye movements
presence of sinus disease
sudden onset
erythema
c
presence of sinus disease
General Ophthalmology
All the following bones are part of the medial wall of the orbit except:
ethmoid
maxillary
sphenoid
zygomatic
lacrimal
d
zygomatic
General Ophthalmology
Muller's muscle is responsible for approximately 5 mm of eyelid elevation.
True
False
nan
nan
nan
b
False
General Ophthalmology
All the following drugs are FDA approved for the treatment of minimally classic subfoveal CNV in patients with neovascular AMD with evidence of recent disease progression (loss of vision, growth of CNV on FFA, new macular hemorrhage) except for which one?
Pegaptanib sodium (Macugen)
Verteporfin (Visudyne PDT)
Ranibizumab (Lucentis)
None of the above
All the above
b
Verteporfin (Visudyne PDT)
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is false regarding the development of diabetic retinopathy?
The earliest vascular abnormality is the loss of retinal capillary intramural pericytes.
Microaneurysm formation is the earliest clinical sign of diabetic retinopathy.
Microaneurysm formation typically occurs on the arteriolar side of the retinal vasculature.
Basement membrane thickening is histopathologically evident in diabetes.
nan
c
Microaneurysm formation typically occurs on the arteriolar side of the retinal vasculature.
General Ophthalmology
Most of the vision loss in diabetic patients is due to which of the following:
Cataract
Macular edema
Vitreous hemorrhage
Tractional retinal detachment
nan
b
Macular edema
General Ophthalmology
Aspirin usage increases the risk of bleeding in patients with proliferative retinopathy?
True
False
nan
nan
nan
b
False
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following are NOT associated with an increased risk of developing proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
Intraretinal hemorrhages in 4 quadrants.
Nerve fiber layer infarcts in 2 or more quadrants.
Venous beading.
Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities.
nan
b
Nerve fiber layer infarcts in 2 or more quadrants.
General Ophthalmology
What is the treatment for stage I Diffuse lamellar keratitis?
Steroids
Lifting and irrigating under the flap
Mitomycin C
Phototherapeutic Keratectomy
nan
a
Steroids
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is NOT a treatment for corneal ectasia?
Intacs
RGP contact lens
Penetrating keratoplasty
Photorefractive Keratectomy
nan
d
Photorefractive Keratectomy
General Ophthalmology
Which group has the best success rate for corneal transplantation?
Alkali burns
Fungal Keratitis
Fuchs dystrophy
HSV Keratitis
nan
c
Fuchs dystrophy
General Ophthalmology
All the following diagnoses are associated with cystoid macular edema (CME) on clinical examination and are also not associated with macular leakage on fluorescein angiography except for?
Nicotinic acid maculopathy
Idiopathic juxtafoveal (parafoveal) retinal telangiectasis (IJRT)
Goldman Favre Syndrome
Juvenile X-linked Retinoschisis
Enhanced S-cone dystrophy
b
Idiopathic juxtafoveal (parafoveal) retinal telangiectasis (IJRT)
General Ophthalmology
According to the Gass classification, what differentiates a stage 3 macular hole from a stage 4 macular hole?
The fact that a stage 4 macular hole is greater than 400 microns
The fact that a stage 3 macular hole is greater than 400 microns
The fact that stage 3 macular holes are associated with a posterior vitreous detachment
The fact that stage 4 macular holes are associated with a posterior vitreous detachment
The fact that stage 3 macular holes are full-thickness
d
The fact that stage 4 macular holes are associated with a posterior vitreous detachment
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following treatments is FDA approved for the treatment of postoperative pseudophakic cystoid macular edema (Irvine-Gass syndrome)?
Topical prednisolone acetate 1% (Pred Forte) QID
Topical ketorolac tromethamine (Acular) QID
Topical Nepefanac (Nevanac) TID
Intravitreal triamcinolone acetonide(Kenalog) in 0.1 cc
None of the above
e
None of the above
General Ophthalmology
All the following drugs are FDA approved for the treatment of predominantly classic subfoveal CNV in patients with neovascular AMD except for?
Pegaptanib sodium (Macugen)
Verteporfin (Visudyne PDT)
Ranibizumab (Lucentis)
Bevacizumab (Avastin)
All the above
d
Bevacizumab (Avastin)
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following structures does NOT pass through the superior orbital fissure?
Lacrimal nerve
Frontal nerve
Cranial nerve IV
Ophthalmic artery
nan
d
Ophthalmic artery
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of thyroid eye disease?
proptosis
ptosis
lid retraction
lid lag
nan
b
ptosis
General Ophthalmology
If standard keratometry and biometry measurements are used to calculate the IOL power in a patient who has previously had myopic LASIK, the selected IOL power will most likely be too high.
True
False
nan
nan
nan
b
False
General Ophthalmology
Prepping the ocular surface with povidone/iodine solution has been proven to decrease the incidence of endophthalmitis.
True
False
nan
nan
nan
a
True
General Ophthalmology
Which IOL calculation formula is most accurate for short eyes?
SRK/T
Hoffer Q
Holladay
Binkhorst
nan
b
Hoffer Q
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following methods of pupil enlargement is least effective for poor dilation due to Flomax:
Intraocular epinephrine
Iris hooks
Healon 5
Manual iris stretching
nan
d
Manual iris stretching
General Ophthalmology
The gene known to be associated with juvenile open angle glaucoma is:
PITX2
CYP1B1
TIGR / MYOC
FKHL7
nan
c
TIGR / MYOC
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is true regarding aqueous formation?
It is independent of intraocular pressure
It is formed at the rate of 2 -3 ml per minute
It is the result of secretion
It is the result of filtration
Both C and D
e
Both C and D
General Ophthalmology
The pathology in phacolytic glaucoma is blockage of the trabecular meshwork by:
Lens material
Erythrocytes
Lymphocytes
Macrophages
Peripheral anterior synechiae
d
Macrophages
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is not consistent with a classic diagnosis of multiple evanescent white dot syndrome (MEWDS)?
Unilateral involvement
Foveal involvement of the white dots
Vitreous cell
Venous sheathing
Optic nerve edema
b
Foveal involvement of the white dots
General Ophthalmology
What are the manifestations of Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous?
A retrolental plaque that contracts, thereby elongating the ciliary processes
A cataractous lens which may contain a lipoidal material
Microphthalmos (if not microphthalmic, question the diagnosis)
Progressive AC shallowing producing angle-closure glaucoma
Jumping Beans
a
A retrolental plaque that contracts, thereby elongating the ciliary processes
General Ophthalmology
Retinitis Pigmentosa can be:
An inherited condition with a “bone spicule” fundus appearance causing loss of central vision
A sporadic condition with a “salt and pepper” fundus appearance causing loss of peripheral vision
An inherited condition with a “bone spicule” fundus appearance causing loss of peripheral vision
A sporadic condition with a "bone spicule" fundus" appearance causing loss of peripheral vision
An inherited condition with a “salt and pepper” fundus appearance causing loss of central vision
c
An inherited condition with a “bone spicule” fundus appearance causing loss of peripheral vision
General Ophthalmology
A neutropenic patient undergoing induction chemotherapy for acute leucaemia grows Candida albicans on routine blood culture taken after a fever. Whilst the culture has been proceeding the patient begins to complain of floaters in one eye. The most important reason for requesting a specialist ophthalmic consultation is...
To exclude retinal detachment
To exclude fungal endophthalmitis
To exclude fungal keratitis
To exclude lymphoma
To exclude autoimmune uveitis
b
To exclude fungal endophthalmitis
General Ophthalmology
A 78 year old patient presents to A & E complaining of sudden loss of the superior visual field in one eye. On ophthalmoscopy, a yellow plaque is noted in the arterioles of the inferior temporal arcade and the inferior retina appears white and swollen. The investigations most likely to identify the source of this probl...
Carotid doppler ultrasound and echocardiography
CRP and ESR
Ocular coherence tomography (OCT)
MRI brain and orbits
Thyroid function testing
a
Carotid doppler ultrasound and echocardiography
General Ophthalmology
A 54 year old woman has had type 1 diabetes for 40 years and presents to the ophthalmology clinic for retinopathy screening by the resident. On dilated fundus examination the resident notes the patient has scattered microaneurysms, several dot hemorrhages and a small area of new blood vessels at an A-V crossing. The re...
Diagnose no retinopathy and follow the patient up in a year
Diagnose background diabetic retinopathy and follow the patient up in a year
Diagnose clinically significant macula oedema
Diagnose proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Diagnose vitreous hemorrhage
d
Diagnose proliferative diabetic retinopathy
General Ophthalmology
A 21 year old student attends the university health service complaining of slowly worsening vision over the last year, and she is now unable to see the front of the lecture theatre. However, her near vision remains perfect. The examination most likely to diagnose the cause of this problem is:
Pupil reaction testing
Ocular motility testing
Confrontation visual field testing
Refraction
Slit lamp examination
d
Refraction
General Ophthalmology
Dry (atrophic) age related macular degeneration:
Is characterized by new vessel formation at the macula
Is treatable with intravitreal injections
Is rapidly progressive, leading to loss of central vision
Is rapidly progressive, leading to loss of central and peripheral vision
Is characterized by hard drusen at the early stages
e
Is characterized by hard drusen at the early stages
General Ophthalmology
Wet (exudative) age related macular degeneration:
May be treatable with intravitreal injections
Is slowly progressive, leading to loss of central vision over many years
Is a type of ocular diabetic complication
Commonly follows toxoplasmosis infection
Is characterized by flame shaped hemorrhages
a
May be treatable with intravitreal injections
General Ophthalmology
A 45 year old man who has worn thick glasses since childhood presents to his GP complaining of flashing lights in his right eye and no history of trauma. The most likely serious cause of these symptoms that must be considered for this patient is:
Retinal detachment
Temporal arteritis
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Uveitis
Blow out fracture of the orbit
a
Retinal detachment
General Ophthalmology
The most common cause of flashes and floaters is:
Posterior vitreous detachment
Retinal detachment
Endophthalmitis
Temporal Arteritis
Optic neuritis
a
Posterior vitreous detachment
General Ophthalmology
Toxoplasmosis:
Is most damaging to the vision when contracted in adult life
Is caused by exposure to sheep feces
Is one of the most significant visual problems in the developing world
Is caused by infection with a helminth
Is a reason pregnant women should avoid cats
e
Is a reason pregnant women should avoid cats
General Ophthalmology
A patient presents with severe eye pain to the GP 4 days following cataract removal. On examination with a torch, the eye is red and inflamed with ciliary injection and a layer of pus in the anterior chamber. The most likely diagnosis is:
Normal postoperative inflammation
HLA-B27 associated uveitis
Adenoviral conjunctivitis
Endophthalmitis
Herpetic keratitis
d
Endophthalmitis
General Ophthalmology
Presentation of a central retinal vein occlusion is characterized by:
Sudden onset loss of vision with masses of dot hemorrhages in the fundus
Gradual loss of vision with masses of dot hemorrhages in the fundus
Sudden onset loss of vision with masses of flame hemorrhages in the fundus
Gradual loss of vision with masses of flame hemorrhages in the fundus
None of the above
c
Sudden onset loss of vision with masses of flame hemorrhages in the fundus
General Ophthalmology
Physiological anisicoria (unequal pupil sizes):
Is often associated with relative afferent pupillary defect
Typically results from traumatic mydriasis
Is associated with normal light and near reflex
Generally worsens with age
Is typically a sign of a serious neurological disorder
c
Is associated with normal light and near reflex
General Ophthalmology
Papilledema can be associated with:
Swelling of the optic nerve head
Venous dilation
Absent spontaneous venous pulsation
Enlarged blind spot
All the above
e
All the above
General Ophthalmology
Optic neuritis can be associated with:
Pain with eye movement
Vision loss
Colour vision compromise
Diminished light brightness sensitivity
All the above
e
All the above
General Ophthalmology
Bitemporal hemianopia can be localized to:
Optic chiasm
Optic nerve
Occipital cortex
Parietal lobe
Temporal lob
a
Optic chiasm
General Ophthalmology
Homonymous hemianopia can be localized to:
Optic nerve
Ipsilateral parietal lobe
Ipsilateral temporal lobe
Contralateral occipital lobe
Ipsilateral occipital lobe
d
Contralateral occipital lobe
General Ophthalmology
In testing visual acuity, if the patient is unable to identify any letters on the Snellen chart you should next test for the ability to:
Count fingers
Identify direction of hand movements
Identify position of a stationary light
Identify presence of a stationary light
nan
a
Count fingers
General Ophthalmology
A 30 year old woman notices that her left pupil is smaller than the right pupil. Her left eyelid droops intermittently. The lesion might be located in:
Left orbit
Left neck
Left third cranial nerve
Left mediastinum
nan
b
Left neck
General Ophthalmology
In normal subjects, the ratio of the horizontal diameter of the physiologic cup to the diameter of the optic disc should be no more than:
0.5
0.7
0.1
0.3
nan
a
0.5
General Ophthalmology
Fluoroquinolones:
Can cause tendonitis
Can adversely affect musculoskeletal growth in children
Routinely used in children
Stains teeth
A and B are correct
e
A and B are correct
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following can be a side effect of systemic or topical steroid?
Glaucoma
Mood instability
Cataract
Eyelid skin atrophy
All the above
e
All the above
General Ophthalmology
Hydroxychloroquine:
Is an antimalarial agent
Causes vortex keratopathy (whorl-like corneal epithelial deposits)
Causes bulls eye maculopathy
Rarely causes ocular toxicity
All the above
e
All the above
General Ophthalmology
Ethambutol is a bacteriostatic antimycobacterial drug prescribed to treat tuberculosis:
Can lead to optic neuropathy
Typically presents with binasal hemianopia
Responds well to systemic steroid treatment
Is not dose dependent
None of the above
a
Can lead to optic neuropathy
General Ophthalmology
A handy way to screen for visual field defects is:
Amsler grid test
Pinhole test
Red reflex test
Tumbling E's test
nan
a
Amsler grid test
General Ophthalmology
In the swinging light pupil test, if the right pupil dilates as the light is swung in its direction, the interpretation is:
Right afferent pupil defect
Faulty technique
Left afferent pupil defect
Normal result
nan
a
Right afferent pupil defect
General Ophthalmology
A 64 year old woman complains of photophobia, foreign body sensation, and blurred vision in her right eye for several days. What is the diagnosis?
Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Blepharitis
Uveitis
Keratitis
nan
d
Keratitis
General Ophthalmology
The proper management of a suspected bacterial conjunctivitis of one day's duration in an immunocompetent adult is:
Culture conjunctiva treat with topical antibiotic, empirically until culture results come back, then switch if necessary.
Treat with topical antibiotic empirically without culturing.
Smear conjunctiva, treat with topical antibiotics appropriate to results.
Refer immediately to an ophthalmologist without intervening.
nan
b
Treat with topical antibiotic empirically without culturing.
General Ophthalmology
You diagnose orbital cellulitis in an otherwise healthy 5 year old. The correct management is:
No imaging, treat with intravenous antibiotics
Orbital imaging, treat with oral antibiotics
Orbital imaging, treat with intravenous antibiotics
No imaging, treat with oral antibiotics
nan
c
Orbital imaging, treat with intravenous antibiotics
General Ophthalmology
Nystagmus in a child:
Is always associated with a serious systemic disorder when present in an infant
Can present as an isolated, idiopathic condition
Is not typical of albinism
Always portends a poor visual outcome (worse than visual acuity of 6/60)
All the above
b
Can present as an isolated, idiopathic condition
General Ophthalmology
A patient presenting with Amaurosis Fugax:
May have a retinal embolus
Needs cardiovascular work up
Always needs to be hospitalized
A and B
All the above
d
A and B
General Ophthalmology
Dacryocystitis:
Is always managed by surgery as the first line of treatment
Is typically managed with systemic antibiotics as the first line of treatment
Can lead to orbital cellulitis
Rarely presents with a dacryocystocele
All the above
b
Is typically managed with systemic antibiotics as the first line of treatment
General Ophthalmology
Upper eye lid retraction is typically a sign of:
Entropion
Ptosis
Orbital fracture
Thyroid eye disease
None of the above
d
Thyroid eye disease
General Ophthalmology
Optic nerve glioma is typically associated with:
Sudden loss of vision
Proptosis
Retinoblastoma
Enophthalmos
All the above
b
Proptosis
General Ophthalmology