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58,721 | I have a student in my course that does well on the exams, and his answers to the exam questions show a deep understanding of the material. However, this student has not been handing in the assigned homeworks and has a missed a few lab assignments, as well. I've been told by other faculty that he has a job which keeps him up late, and have noticed that he struggles to stay awake at times during the class.
Depending on how he fares on a project worth a large portion of his grade, and the final exam, the missed homeworks/labs could cause his grade to be below a C, which is the required grade that a student must receive if they are to advance to the second, more advanced course [and, a C grade is also needed to get credit for the course; otherwise, the student will need to retake it again on the next offering, which isn't until two semesters from now]. Further, this student is a senior, so a D grade would be a major setback for him.
For those of you who have been in this situation before as an instructor, my question:
>
> Have you ever passed/failed a student like the one described above? If so, do you regret your decision? Why or why not?
>
>
> | 2015/11/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/58721",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/11192/"
] | What do you wish a grade in your class to mean? If you ignore the missing homework, a good grade in your class will indicate that a student has a strong grasp of the material and a high level of skill in solving the sorts of problems which you put on your tests within time limits. If you penalize the missing homework enough to make excellent test performance alone inadequate to obtain the good grade, a good grade in your class will not reflect the students ability to utilize their knowledge of the material to solve problems under time constraints. They may still have a good grasp of the material, or they might not. If they get a poor grade, they may still have a good grasp of the material, or they might not. The homework-penalizing grading will, however, reflect a degree of subservience and submission to discipline even in situations where the homework has little to no benefit to the students knowledge. | As others have said: default to the syllabus grading scheme to the letter. Diverging from this sends you down a sinkhole of making more modifications on the fly, trying to be fair to all students, running different case what-ifs, and generally doing a lot more work.
Given enough heads-up (again, as others said), I have specified a bare-minimum number of assignments that a student has to turn in to get a passing grade.
Also consider the appropriateness of an "Incomplete" grade. Although I almost never do it, if there is truly a unique situation that you want to account for, consider withholding the grade until the student passes in some bare-minimum work after the fact. A downside of this is that it does create more work for you (scheduling and following up), but in theory that grade status is designed to account for that. |
58,721 | I have a student in my course that does well on the exams, and his answers to the exam questions show a deep understanding of the material. However, this student has not been handing in the assigned homeworks and has a missed a few lab assignments, as well. I've been told by other faculty that he has a job which keeps him up late, and have noticed that he struggles to stay awake at times during the class.
Depending on how he fares on a project worth a large portion of his grade, and the final exam, the missed homeworks/labs could cause his grade to be below a C, which is the required grade that a student must receive if they are to advance to the second, more advanced course [and, a C grade is also needed to get credit for the course; otherwise, the student will need to retake it again on the next offering, which isn't until two semesters from now]. Further, this student is a senior, so a D grade would be a major setback for him.
For those of you who have been in this situation before as an instructor, my question:
>
> Have you ever passed/failed a student like the one described above? If so, do you regret your decision? Why or why not?
>
>
> | 2015/11/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/58721",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/11192/"
] | My approach in this kind of situation has been to follow my syllabus and grading process to the letter. Students who earn Fs, even those who need a passing grade to advance, get Fs. If they need a heads up to see this coming, then it's definitely worth pulling them aside and telling them. It really can change their approach. | One follow-up question I wold ask is whether the exam in question is as rigorous as the OP suggests; the student may indeed have known the material well (or known it already from past exposure), but if it required very little practice to master the skills needed to excel at a summative assessment, how powerful a measure could it possibly be? My students often ask me for a final exam whose grade could trump the rest of the semester (probably because they got that "Senior Day" treatment in high school), but I ask them two question which quickly snuff out the requests:
1. Would you be satisfied if your exam results *dipped* and thus brought your A down to a C, "just because" you got a 79.8% on the exam?
2. Are you prepared for an exam *genuinely* testing every major "essential" ("irreplaceable") concept we have discussed, and not this "gentler" one I have prepared in acknowledgement that you have already showed me a partial mastery based on your earlier exams? ("'Cause I could *always* make this final exam a *lot* more challenging....) |
58,721 | I have a student in my course that does well on the exams, and his answers to the exam questions show a deep understanding of the material. However, this student has not been handing in the assigned homeworks and has a missed a few lab assignments, as well. I've been told by other faculty that he has a job which keeps him up late, and have noticed that he struggles to stay awake at times during the class.
Depending on how he fares on a project worth a large portion of his grade, and the final exam, the missed homeworks/labs could cause his grade to be below a C, which is the required grade that a student must receive if they are to advance to the second, more advanced course [and, a C grade is also needed to get credit for the course; otherwise, the student will need to retake it again on the next offering, which isn't until two semesters from now]. Further, this student is a senior, so a D grade would be a major setback for him.
For those of you who have been in this situation before as an instructor, my question:
>
> Have you ever passed/failed a student like the one described above? If so, do you regret your decision? Why or why not?
>
>
> | 2015/11/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/58721",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/11192/"
] | Kudos to you for wanting to find a way for a talented and hard-working but over-extended student to succeed.
What is the right measure of whether the student is mastering the material in a way that supports the follow-on classes? Ideally, you will design your syllabus so that the student's grade will appropriately reflect their level of mastery. In some courses, there is no real mastery without lab mastery. In others, textbook-based conceptual mastery would suffice. They are many reasons why the grade contract on your syllabus might be incorrectly formulated. E.g., you might be weighting homework heavily because that is the only reasonable way to get pass rates appropriate to your institution. That is, sadly enough, sometimes it is unavoidable to reward effort instead of mastery. You say the student shows "deep understanding", and if by that you mean that he will be well prepared for the follow-on courses, you might propose a fair replacement for the grade contract on your syllabus. Make sure you would be comfortable offering every other student the same option. Then consider whether the grade contract on the syllabus should be altered to include this option. If yes, then you have probably found a good solution.
One strategy I use in courses where the final exam provides a comprehensive test of appropriate mastery is to give an A grade to anyone who gets an A on the final. (Of course, this is inappropriate in many courses.) Perhaps this offers a helpful starting point for dealing with this student. | I know what you want to do. You want to give them a break. BUT, you established grading standards for the entire class. It would be unfair to treat this student differently from the rest. And you can be penalized for doing so. If you don't want to enforce your own standard, then you should create a new one for the next class. But you must enforce the one you established for this class. |
28,321 | GDPR module has the functionality to send an email to the contact in order to get the Comunication Preferences.
But in my case, I have made a paper document filled and signed by the contact with his comunication preferences. How I could modify the comunication preferences in Civicrm as administrator?
In the Comunication Preferences I don't see any way to update the GDPR status comunication preferences | 2019/02/03 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/28321",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/4247/"
] | There is a Recurring contributions report and summary report which allows you do filters and also some related fields. You can find them under Contribution reports section(/civicrm/report/template/list?reset=1&compid=2).
Also there is an extension called '[RECURRING CONTRIBUTION SEARCH](https://civicrm.org/extensions/recurring-contribution-search)' that allows you to search recurring contribution.
Cheers
Pradeep | I don't think there is any per-contact flag maintained in Civi to indicate if someone is a recurring contributor. Therefore, the best you can do is search for contacts who have recently made a recurring contribution. e.g.
* Search | Advanced Search
* Display Settings For Results
+ Display results as: Contacts
* Contributions
+ Contribution is Recurring? Yes
+ Date received: Last 60 days including today |
124,957 | The example that brought this to mind is [Lindsey Stirling's "Darkside"](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cyvENT2H0V4). At the beginning of the song, plucked notes are played on what we later find out is on the third triplets, but we have no "context" to let us know that and it sounds like it's actually just on the beat. Only a little later in the song does the *actual* beat one of the song get revealed, and we realize that the intro was actually not on one.
I'm aware of the term "syncopation" for notes that are not on the beat, I know that applies here. My question is more specifically to the phenomenon of a "fake beat" or basically "pulling out the rug" from someone on where beat one is. Or is that the best general term there is?
I also stumbled on the term "metric modulation" from [this answer](https://music.stackexchange.com/a/22585/88539) but it doesn't feel quite right, since the time signature itself isn't changing, just how we hear it. | 2022/09/14 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/124957",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/88539/"
] | There is an idea called "turning the beat around", which involves establishing a sense of meter but then "revealing (or changing) the real meter" later on. This is not uncommon in jazz, where a soloist will intentionally play against the predominant meter, giving the sense that the downbeat has shifted.
One example, from the world of classical music, is Franz Liszt's "Consolation No. 1", which seems to begin with chords on beats 1 and 3 for a few measures, but these are soon revealed to be beats 2 and 4.
Here is a recording without the score:
And here is one with the score:
Wikipedia has an entry for "[Turning the beat around](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turning_the_beat_around)" relating specifically to electronic music.
>
> [Songs] begin with a melodic line that leads the listener to perceive the downbeat as being on the first beat of said melodic line, however, when ensuing lines commence, the pulse reveals itself to be elsewhere. The seminal melodies are only then clearly syncopated, relative to the true pulse.
>
>
>
There is a somewhat related concept called "metrical dissonance", which, simply put, means meters that conflict with one another. One of the core papers on the subject is:
Krebs, Harald. “Some Extensions of the Concepts of Metrical Consonance and Dissonance.” *Journal of Music Theory* 31, no. 1 (1987): 99–120. <https://doi.org/10.2307/843547>. | The *Gestalt concept* comes to mind - although that generally deals with visual ideas, such as the well-known 'Rubin's vase'. That's as close as we can get with the brain being fooled into thinking something is one thing, but it's really another.
However, there's not a term that's been coined with regard to that concept as far as music, and its 'shifting of beats' is concerned. |
170,009 | While Scrum is easy in theory and hard in practice, I wanted to hear your definition of Done; i.e. what are the gates (unit test, code coverage > 80%, code reviews, load tests, perf.test, functional tests, etc.) your product has to go through before you can label the product "Done" | 2008/10/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/170009",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19889/"
] | I'd say it is up to your team to decide. Talk with the product owner. Ideally done would be when a story is in Production and being used. However, there is a time gap between when a story is development complete and in Live. Makes it hard to track how long a story took to develop.
In my team, our definition of done is, when the developer completes a story,and does a "show and tell" to the rest of the team(testers, product owner), and if everyone is happy it goes into the subversion trunk.
Further testing is done off a automated build from trunk. | There are three nice articles by [Mitch Lacey](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/107-how-do-we-know-when-we-are-done), [Dhaval Panchal](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/105) and [Mayank Gupta](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/106-definition-of-done-a-reference) on this on the ScrumAlliance website.
---
**EDIT:** Basically the whole point is that *done is defined on a project-by-project basis by the team*. The basic need is to agree on the definition, not what the definition is. |
170,009 | While Scrum is easy in theory and hard in practice, I wanted to hear your definition of Done; i.e. what are the gates (unit test, code coverage > 80%, code reviews, load tests, perf.test, functional tests, etc.) your product has to go through before you can label the product "Done" | 2008/10/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/170009",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19889/"
] | We at TargetProcess use the following definition of Done for user story:
1. Short Spec created
2. Implemented/Unit Tests created
3. Acceptance Tests created
4. 100% Acceptance tests passed
5. Product Owner demo passed
6. Known bugs fixed | There are three nice articles by [Mitch Lacey](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/107-how-do-we-know-when-we-are-done), [Dhaval Panchal](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/105) and [Mayank Gupta](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/106-definition-of-done-a-reference) on this on the ScrumAlliance website.
---
**EDIT:** Basically the whole point is that *done is defined on a project-by-project basis by the team*. The basic need is to agree on the definition, not what the definition is. |
170,009 | While Scrum is easy in theory and hard in practice, I wanted to hear your definition of Done; i.e. what are the gates (unit test, code coverage > 80%, code reviews, load tests, perf.test, functional tests, etc.) your product has to go through before you can label the product "Done" | 2008/10/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/170009",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19889/"
] | There are three nice articles by [Mitch Lacey](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/107-how-do-we-know-when-we-are-done), [Dhaval Panchal](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/105) and [Mayank Gupta](http://www.scrumalliance.org/articles/106-definition-of-done-a-reference) on this on the ScrumAlliance website.
---
**EDIT:** Basically the whole point is that *done is defined on a project-by-project basis by the team*. The basic need is to agree on the definition, not what the definition is. | Everything that will make your "stabilization period" (ie work required between the code freeze and the release to the client) shorter. |
170,009 | While Scrum is easy in theory and hard in practice, I wanted to hear your definition of Done; i.e. what are the gates (unit test, code coverage > 80%, code reviews, load tests, perf.test, functional tests, etc.) your product has to go through before you can label the product "Done" | 2008/10/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/170009",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19889/"
] | I'd say it is up to your team to decide. Talk with the product owner. Ideally done would be when a story is in Production and being used. However, there is a time gap between when a story is development complete and in Live. Makes it hard to track how long a story took to develop.
In my team, our definition of done is, when the developer completes a story,and does a "show and tell" to the rest of the team(testers, product owner), and if everyone is happy it goes into the subversion trunk.
Further testing is done off a automated build from trunk. | In a perfect world, the product shall be in a shippable state at the end of every iteration.
Now this actually depends on your product, your market, your customers and might not be possible.
If you cannot achieve this, then the next planning horizon apply: the release.
The Team as a whole should decide what is required to ship the product and plan accordingly.
What helps here is to define "done" at the task level. Defining done here is much more simple: one task is done when you can start another one: everything is tested, integrated. The Team can alo define this state: documented, reviewed, included in automatic build, no known problem, accpeted by On-Site Customer ...
Having all your tasks really "done", Having all tour backlog items (or User stories, whateveryou call them) realy "done" allow to be "done" at every iteration, which helps preserving the product in a shippable or deployable state. |
170,009 | While Scrum is easy in theory and hard in practice, I wanted to hear your definition of Done; i.e. what are the gates (unit test, code coverage > 80%, code reviews, load tests, perf.test, functional tests, etc.) your product has to go through before you can label the product "Done" | 2008/10/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/170009",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19889/"
] | I'd say it is up to your team to decide. Talk with the product owner. Ideally done would be when a story is in Production and being used. However, there is a time gap between when a story is development complete and in Live. Makes it hard to track how long a story took to develop.
In my team, our definition of done is, when the developer completes a story,and does a "show and tell" to the rest of the team(testers, product owner), and if everyone is happy it goes into the subversion trunk.
Further testing is done off a automated build from trunk. | Everything that will make your "stabilization period" (ie work required between the code freeze and the release to the client) shorter. |
170,009 | While Scrum is easy in theory and hard in practice, I wanted to hear your definition of Done; i.e. what are the gates (unit test, code coverage > 80%, code reviews, load tests, perf.test, functional tests, etc.) your product has to go through before you can label the product "Done" | 2008/10/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/170009",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19889/"
] | We at TargetProcess use the following definition of Done for user story:
1. Short Spec created
2. Implemented/Unit Tests created
3. Acceptance Tests created
4. 100% Acceptance tests passed
5. Product Owner demo passed
6. Known bugs fixed | In a perfect world, the product shall be in a shippable state at the end of every iteration.
Now this actually depends on your product, your market, your customers and might not be possible.
If you cannot achieve this, then the next planning horizon apply: the release.
The Team as a whole should decide what is required to ship the product and plan accordingly.
What helps here is to define "done" at the task level. Defining done here is much more simple: one task is done when you can start another one: everything is tested, integrated. The Team can alo define this state: documented, reviewed, included in automatic build, no known problem, accpeted by On-Site Customer ...
Having all your tasks really "done", Having all tour backlog items (or User stories, whateveryou call them) realy "done" allow to be "done" at every iteration, which helps preserving the product in a shippable or deployable state. |
170,009 | While Scrum is easy in theory and hard in practice, I wanted to hear your definition of Done; i.e. what are the gates (unit test, code coverage > 80%, code reviews, load tests, perf.test, functional tests, etc.) your product has to go through before you can label the product "Done" | 2008/10/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/170009",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19889/"
] | In a perfect world, the product shall be in a shippable state at the end of every iteration.
Now this actually depends on your product, your market, your customers and might not be possible.
If you cannot achieve this, then the next planning horizon apply: the release.
The Team as a whole should decide what is required to ship the product and plan accordingly.
What helps here is to define "done" at the task level. Defining done here is much more simple: one task is done when you can start another one: everything is tested, integrated. The Team can alo define this state: documented, reviewed, included in automatic build, no known problem, accpeted by On-Site Customer ...
Having all your tasks really "done", Having all tour backlog items (or User stories, whateveryou call them) realy "done" allow to be "done" at every iteration, which helps preserving the product in a shippable or deployable state. | Everything that will make your "stabilization period" (ie work required between the code freeze and the release to the client) shorter. |
170,009 | While Scrum is easy in theory and hard in practice, I wanted to hear your definition of Done; i.e. what are the gates (unit test, code coverage > 80%, code reviews, load tests, perf.test, functional tests, etc.) your product has to go through before you can label the product "Done" | 2008/10/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/170009",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19889/"
] | We at TargetProcess use the following definition of Done for user story:
1. Short Spec created
2. Implemented/Unit Tests created
3. Acceptance Tests created
4. 100% Acceptance tests passed
5. Product Owner demo passed
6. Known bugs fixed | Everything that will make your "stabilization period" (ie work required between the code freeze and the release to the client) shorter. |
135,788 | It's a conundrum. It's not a good question for SO? So yes down vote it. But on the other hand it might actually be a very well written question just on the wrong SE site. | 2012/06/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/135788",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/132686/"
] | Although it's better to vote for migration or vote to close than downvote. But downvote is also a good way to show that we don't want anymore such question here. Downvoted questions are ignored by community, so as to discourage other users to ask similar questions.
Although I rarely downvotes any such question, but it's my personal preference. What is wrong and what is right is decided by the community. So if they want to downvote, it's not wrong. | Remember that you can vote to close a question and move it to another site. I think a vote up and a vote to close can sometimes be appropriate. |
399,174 | I have a Linksys WRT54GL router with [Tomato](http://www.polarcloud.com/tomato) installed on it.
My network configuration requires me to disable the DHCP server on the router. After disabling it, I do not know the IP of the router because it isn't my default gateway anymore. Now it is impossible to change settings (e.g. wireless password).
Any idea how to access the router? | 2012/03/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/399174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2568/"
] | in Ipv4 properities set ip manually.
1. Ip address has to start the same as router ip except for last number (has to be different, usually higher).
2. Mask is set automatically.
3. Gate ip is your router ip.
4. the first DNS is again your router ip.
5. alternative DNS can set randomly (for examle google DNS 8.8.8.8)
Then just go to your browser and write your router ip to get to its setting
p.s. You can find router ip in command line by writing ipconfig - gate ip is ip of your router. | I am updating this old thread because my solution might fit your question the best. Using an app such as Fing (Android, iOS) will show you all of the devices that you can see on your network. I have a wireless router with dhcp disabled and had no problem finding the ip using the Fing app. |
399,174 | I have a Linksys WRT54GL router with [Tomato](http://www.polarcloud.com/tomato) installed on it.
My network configuration requires me to disable the DHCP server on the router. After disabling it, I do not know the IP of the router because it isn't my default gateway anymore. Now it is impossible to change settings (e.g. wireless password).
Any idea how to access the router? | 2012/03/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/399174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2568/"
] | DHCP server does not necessarily mean default gateway.
If you are not using the DHCP server on your router, you need to either
* set up another DHCP server on another computer or something else somewhere
* assign IPs manually to all devices
Clients reach the DHCP server through broadcasts, i.e. traffic that is set to reach all nodes on your network. So nothing needs to know the IP of your DHCP server as long as the DHCP server is listening on something that is in the same subnet as the rest of your network.
Your DHCP server should be configured to hand out the router's IP as the default gateway.
Per your situation, if all you did was disable the DHCP server, the IP of the router probably didn't change and you can still use the same IP to get to it. If you do NOT have a DHCP server elsewhere on your network, try setting your IP to 192.168.X.44 subnet mask 255.255.255.0 - X is probably going to be 0 or 1 - then you can probably reach your router at 192.168.X.1 or 192.168.X.254. | You're still able to connect to the router that this is connected to, and serves as your DHCP, right? That might be able to have a list of connected devices. If not, you would at least know the base range of ip ranges (192.168.0.\* or 192.168.1.\*). If you know roughly how many other devices are connected, you could guess the address from there. Or reset that dhcp router, connect with some pc and find its ip address. Then connect the new dhcp-less router, and its ip will be +1 of the last known address. |
399,174 | I have a Linksys WRT54GL router with [Tomato](http://www.polarcloud.com/tomato) installed on it.
My network configuration requires me to disable the DHCP server on the router. After disabling it, I do not know the IP of the router because it isn't my default gateway anymore. Now it is impossible to change settings (e.g. wireless password).
Any idea how to access the router? | 2012/03/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/399174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2568/"
] | in Ipv4 properities set ip manually.
1. Ip address has to start the same as router ip except for last number (has to be different, usually higher).
2. Mask is set automatically.
3. Gate ip is your router ip.
4. the first DNS is again your router ip.
5. alternative DNS can set randomly (for examle google DNS 8.8.8.8)
Then just go to your browser and write your router ip to get to its setting
p.s. You can find router ip in command line by writing ipconfig - gate ip is ip of your router. | I faced this problem with DHCP recently. I searched the internet and could not find a step by step solution. So I had to contact an IT person. I made a tutorial which I am posting here for everyone. Here it is:
<https://cupntea.wordpress.com/2015/05/13/how-to-access-your-router-when-dhcp-is-disabled-2/>
I hope it helps as a general guide. |
399,174 | I have a Linksys WRT54GL router with [Tomato](http://www.polarcloud.com/tomato) installed on it.
My network configuration requires me to disable the DHCP server on the router. After disabling it, I do not know the IP of the router because it isn't my default gateway anymore. Now it is impossible to change settings (e.g. wireless password).
Any idea how to access the router? | 2012/03/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/399174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2568/"
] | Try doing a [30 30 30 reset](http://compnetworking.about.com/b/2009/03/11/the-30-30-30-hard-reset-rule-for-routers.htm).
>
> Follow these steps to perform a router hard reset:
>
>
> 1. When the unit is powered on, hold down its reset button for 30 seconds.
> 2. While still holding down the reset button, unplug the router from power and hold for an additional 30 seconds.
> 3. Still holding down the reset button, turn on power to the router again and hold for 30 more seconds.
>
>
> | The IP of the Linksys has not changed simply because it stopped servering DHCP requests for other PCs. If can still access it it the same IP it had before.
If you have forgotten which IP that was then first try the firat and last IPs of you network, since this is traditional the IP where a default gateway would be placed. And if I read your question correctly it was both DHCP server and default gateway before you made changes.
Example network:
192.168.1.0/24: → Expected IP: 192.168.1.1 or 192.168.1.254
If these are not correct then use a tool like [nmap](https://nmap.org/zenmap/) to scan all NICs on the network. If you are unluckly you will just get an list of all active devices on your subnet (3-4 IPs, try them all). If you are lucky if will even identify which one. Nmap is rather good at that but I never tried it on a tomato device. |
399,174 | I have a Linksys WRT54GL router with [Tomato](http://www.polarcloud.com/tomato) installed on it.
My network configuration requires me to disable the DHCP server on the router. After disabling it, I do not know the IP of the router because it isn't my default gateway anymore. Now it is impossible to change settings (e.g. wireless password).
Any idea how to access the router? | 2012/03/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/399174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2568/"
] | DHCP server does not necessarily mean default gateway.
If you are not using the DHCP server on your router, you need to either
* set up another DHCP server on another computer or something else somewhere
* assign IPs manually to all devices
Clients reach the DHCP server through broadcasts, i.e. traffic that is set to reach all nodes on your network. So nothing needs to know the IP of your DHCP server as long as the DHCP server is listening on something that is in the same subnet as the rest of your network.
Your DHCP server should be configured to hand out the router's IP as the default gateway.
Per your situation, if all you did was disable the DHCP server, the IP of the router probably didn't change and you can still use the same IP to get to it. If you do NOT have a DHCP server elsewhere on your network, try setting your IP to 192.168.X.44 subnet mask 255.255.255.0 - X is probably going to be 0 or 1 - then you can probably reach your router at 192.168.X.1 or 192.168.X.254. | Try doing a [30 30 30 reset](http://compnetworking.about.com/b/2009/03/11/the-30-30-30-hard-reset-rule-for-routers.htm).
>
> Follow these steps to perform a router hard reset:
>
>
> 1. When the unit is powered on, hold down its reset button for 30 seconds.
> 2. While still holding down the reset button, unplug the router from power and hold for an additional 30 seconds.
> 3. Still holding down the reset button, turn on power to the router again and hold for 30 more seconds.
>
>
> |
399,174 | I have a Linksys WRT54GL router with [Tomato](http://www.polarcloud.com/tomato) installed on it.
My network configuration requires me to disable the DHCP server on the router. After disabling it, I do not know the IP of the router because it isn't my default gateway anymore. Now it is impossible to change settings (e.g. wireless password).
Any idea how to access the router? | 2012/03/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/399174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2568/"
] | Try doing a [30 30 30 reset](http://compnetworking.about.com/b/2009/03/11/the-30-30-30-hard-reset-rule-for-routers.htm).
>
> Follow these steps to perform a router hard reset:
>
>
> 1. When the unit is powered on, hold down its reset button for 30 seconds.
> 2. While still holding down the reset button, unplug the router from power and hold for an additional 30 seconds.
> 3. Still holding down the reset button, turn on power to the router again and hold for 30 more seconds.
>
>
> | becareful of setting DNS, it should set to your router ip address. for example, router dhcp is disable and router ip adress is 192.168.1.100, then in your computer ipv4 properties, dhcp is enable and dns must be set to 192.168.1.100. so that you can access router for changing setting.
I've tried that way and its working. |
399,174 | I have a Linksys WRT54GL router with [Tomato](http://www.polarcloud.com/tomato) installed on it.
My network configuration requires me to disable the DHCP server on the router. After disabling it, I do not know the IP of the router because it isn't my default gateway anymore. Now it is impossible to change settings (e.g. wireless password).
Any idea how to access the router? | 2012/03/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/399174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2568/"
] | in Ipv4 properities set ip manually.
1. Ip address has to start the same as router ip except for last number (has to be different, usually higher).
2. Mask is set automatically.
3. Gate ip is your router ip.
4. the first DNS is again your router ip.
5. alternative DNS can set randomly (for examle google DNS 8.8.8.8)
Then just go to your browser and write your router ip to get to its setting
p.s. You can find router ip in command line by writing ipconfig - gate ip is ip of your router. | becareful of setting DNS, it should set to your router ip address. for example, router dhcp is disable and router ip adress is 192.168.1.100, then in your computer ipv4 properties, dhcp is enable and dns must be set to 192.168.1.100. so that you can access router for changing setting.
I've tried that way and its working. |
399,174 | I have a Linksys WRT54GL router with [Tomato](http://www.polarcloud.com/tomato) installed on it.
My network configuration requires me to disable the DHCP server on the router. After disabling it, I do not know the IP of the router because it isn't my default gateway anymore. Now it is impossible to change settings (e.g. wireless password).
Any idea how to access the router? | 2012/03/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/399174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2568/"
] | in Ipv4 properities set ip manually.
1. Ip address has to start the same as router ip except for last number (has to be different, usually higher).
2. Mask is set automatically.
3. Gate ip is your router ip.
4. the first DNS is again your router ip.
5. alternative DNS can set randomly (for examle google DNS 8.8.8.8)
Then just go to your browser and write your router ip to get to its setting
p.s. You can find router ip in command line by writing ipconfig - gate ip is ip of your router. | You're still able to connect to the router that this is connected to, and serves as your DHCP, right? That might be able to have a list of connected devices. If not, you would at least know the base range of ip ranges (192.168.0.\* or 192.168.1.\*). If you know roughly how many other devices are connected, you could guess the address from there. Or reset that dhcp router, connect with some pc and find its ip address. Then connect the new dhcp-less router, and its ip will be +1 of the last known address. |
12,971 | I'm looking at a job post and it states that the salary is from £20,000 - £50,000 per annum and the positions available are for sales, assistant managers, and managers. At the end of the post it says "£20K - £50K plus OTE". Does this mean that the basic salaries range from £20K - £50K and then commission? Or does the £20K - £50K already include commission? | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/12971",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | **OTE** means **[On-target Earnings](http://www.wisegeek.com/what-are-on-target-earnings.htm)**. (*See also [what Wikipedia has to say](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/On-target_earnings).*)
It is usually used when an employee has a "variable" component (commission, bonus, etc.) to their compensation.
Their compensation is made up of both **base salary** plus the variable **bonus, commission, etc.** "On-target earnings" is used to describe the **sum of both of these amounts.**
**OTE** = **Base** + **Commission** + **Bonus** + **whatever else can be annualized, like stock**.
OTE represents a big "IF" — IF you earn all of your "expected" commission, bonuses, etc.
---
I think in your case it **already includes commission**. It says "£20K - £50K plus OTE", but I think that is just poorly written. I would read that as "The OTE for this position is £20K - £50K *plus*". "Plus OTE" wouldn't make sense, because OTE means total. They also want to show you total numbers that look better, not watered-down base salaries.
---
Lastly, that OTE is likely extremely optimistic and you need to work down from those numbers. Keep these things in mind:
* They want to put their best foot forward and not be sticklers for exact mathematical probabilities.
* They likely set quotas high because they are [overly optimistic](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Optimism_bias).
* They are also likely to set quotas high to push their salespeople.
* After all that they probably fudge the numbers a little higher still.
* They say "plus" like real earnings can be higher, too, but my guess is that's statistically unlikely within their organization. | I work for a distribution company and my salary is £34k plus OTE.
The reality is that my base wages are £31k a year and £3k a year called "bonuses", which are divided into 2 payments of £1500 (less taxes and other stoppages).
The stoppages can be anything from absenteeism through ill health or accidents to damage to company property. So this part of the salary is not guaranteed.
Overtime is also not guaranteed and as such cannot be included in any calculation. |
839,517 | There are many examples of using REST with simple data models. For example a customer with 5 properties and a collection of orders with 6 properties. However I have a hard time visualizing using REST against a model that is more complex -- that you may find in government procurement, finance, medical records management etc. Are there examples of REST being used as the primary API into a large LOB environments.
Perhaps I'm asking too much from the REST approach? | 2009/05/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/839517",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/81514/"
] | REST is an architectural style, not a representation of the data. Generally today the data is represented in either XML or JSON, which have been battle tested and can easily support the large complex models you are referring to.
In its most basic form, REST is simply the HTTP verbs to control a "resource". The representation of that resource can be as simple or as complex as you need it to be. The CRUD and list operations being the most straight forward. Additional, more complex APIs can also be generated easily within this context. | REST is suitable as long as there is a reasonable descriptive path to describe the data you are wishing to reach.
REST doesn't feel as RESTful when what you're trying to accomplish is publish an API, BUT, I would note that APIs which have been developed using REST philosophy have been really successful.
From your description, you are working with data, which should adhere very nicely to REST, not matter how complicated the structure is. REST does not prohibit publishing schemas, so you may want to consider that as well. |
839,517 | There are many examples of using REST with simple data models. For example a customer with 5 properties and a collection of orders with 6 properties. However I have a hard time visualizing using REST against a model that is more complex -- that you may find in government procurement, finance, medical records management etc. Are there examples of REST being used as the primary API into a large LOB environments.
Perhaps I'm asking too much from the REST approach? | 2009/05/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/839517",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/81514/"
] | I am building a REST interface that currently has more than 250 resources. By the time I am finished I expect to have more than a 1000. This is an ERP application that covers accounting, inventory, sales, labour costing, engineering, etc.
The size or complexity of a single resource is not directly related to REST but more a concern of the media types. I chose to take the route of defining my own media type as I am building the client also and the interface is not for public consumption. Choosing the best media type for your situation is probably one of the hardest parts of designing a REST interface.
Unfortunately, most people seem to punt on the media/type decision and choose generic application/json or application/xml and then use downloaded javascript in the browser to interpret the format.[1] That works as long as the only client you have is a browser and you don't want anyone else to re-use your interface. For me it seems to defeat one of the main goals of REST, i.e serendipitous re-use due to loose coupling and standardized formats.
To further explain what I mean by this, consider the case where you deliver application/json or application/xml to a client application. As soon as the client application reaches into that generic format and grabs out a specific piece of data you are creating hidden coupling between the client and the server. If instead you use the media format "application/vnd.mycompany.myformat+xml" you are explicitly defining a contract with the client. This has a huge advantage when you make changes to the format and you have the option to create "application/vnd.mycompany.myformatV2+xml"
People perceive REST to be a loosely specified interface but in actual fact it is not. A REST interface should be very explicit in the precise media types it returns and expects to receive. The media types are the contract. If you receive application/xml and use client code to pull out /Customer/Name you are breaking the contract.
Web applications that use downloaded javascript can consume "application/xml" because the details of the contract are not compiled into the client. However, the client's behaviour is extremely limited to doing whatever the javascript has been preprogrammed to do. Unfortunately, the majority of public RESTful interfaces ignore this constraint and people build clients that are tightly coupled to an unspecified contract. That's why when Twitter changes its format, many of the clients break. | REST is suitable as long as there is a reasonable descriptive path to describe the data you are wishing to reach.
REST doesn't feel as RESTful when what you're trying to accomplish is publish an API, BUT, I would note that APIs which have been developed using REST philosophy have been really successful.
From your description, you are working with data, which should adhere very nicely to REST, not matter how complicated the structure is. REST does not prohibit publishing schemas, so you may want to consider that as well. |
839,517 | There are many examples of using REST with simple data models. For example a customer with 5 properties and a collection of orders with 6 properties. However I have a hard time visualizing using REST against a model that is more complex -- that you may find in government procurement, finance, medical records management etc. Are there examples of REST being used as the primary API into a large LOB environments.
Perhaps I'm asking too much from the REST approach? | 2009/05/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/839517",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/81514/"
] | I am building a REST interface that currently has more than 250 resources. By the time I am finished I expect to have more than a 1000. This is an ERP application that covers accounting, inventory, sales, labour costing, engineering, etc.
The size or complexity of a single resource is not directly related to REST but more a concern of the media types. I chose to take the route of defining my own media type as I am building the client also and the interface is not for public consumption. Choosing the best media type for your situation is probably one of the hardest parts of designing a REST interface.
Unfortunately, most people seem to punt on the media/type decision and choose generic application/json or application/xml and then use downloaded javascript in the browser to interpret the format.[1] That works as long as the only client you have is a browser and you don't want anyone else to re-use your interface. For me it seems to defeat one of the main goals of REST, i.e serendipitous re-use due to loose coupling and standardized formats.
To further explain what I mean by this, consider the case where you deliver application/json or application/xml to a client application. As soon as the client application reaches into that generic format and grabs out a specific piece of data you are creating hidden coupling between the client and the server. If instead you use the media format "application/vnd.mycompany.myformat+xml" you are explicitly defining a contract with the client. This has a huge advantage when you make changes to the format and you have the option to create "application/vnd.mycompany.myformatV2+xml"
People perceive REST to be a loosely specified interface but in actual fact it is not. A REST interface should be very explicit in the precise media types it returns and expects to receive. The media types are the contract. If you receive application/xml and use client code to pull out /Customer/Name you are breaking the contract.
Web applications that use downloaded javascript can consume "application/xml" because the details of the contract are not compiled into the client. However, the client's behaviour is extremely limited to doing whatever the javascript has been preprogrammed to do. Unfortunately, the majority of public RESTful interfaces ignore this constraint and people build clients that are tightly coupled to an unspecified contract. That's why when Twitter changes its format, many of the clients break. | REST is an architectural style, not a representation of the data. Generally today the data is represented in either XML or JSON, which have been battle tested and can easily support the large complex models you are referring to.
In its most basic form, REST is simply the HTTP verbs to control a "resource". The representation of that resource can be as simple or as complex as you need it to be. The CRUD and list operations being the most straight forward. Additional, more complex APIs can also be generated easily within this context. |
264,632 | My current setup has two 24" screens (and I'd love to have a third) plus keyboard/mouse etc. all hooked up to a Linux box. Assuming I have an appropriate computer in a server rack and a good network connection (Gb Eathernet with ping times around 1ms), *what options are there to replace the box under my desk with the computer in the server rack?* What kind of price tag would I be looking at? How close will it get to having the computer be local?
(*Note:* I'm not asking for shopping recommendations but rather the information need to decide if this is worth looking into.)
I'm thinking along the lines of a thin client device that speaks X, NX, RDP or the like or a very minimal computer running some kind of remote access client as it's sole function.
Also, I'n not looking at a Citrix type solution: I would be talking to a real computer on the other end, not a VM, and I would have root access to it and exclusive control of it
My use case is that at work I'd like to be able to have my primary work machine just as accessible via some kind of remote GUI system as it is when I'm sitting at it. Once I have that, the question becomes: why put it at my desk? The server room is built for that and it can have better access to other services from there. Also, it would allow the IT department to maintain fewer types of hardware. | 2011/03/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/264632",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1760/"
] | I have a good deal of experience using VNC from a lightweight system to heavyweight linux servers in datacenters. Professionally, I've worked with RealVNC Enterprise and can say that there's no noticeable delay for most purposes with a fast, low-latency connection so long as you're not doing heavily graphical things. However, once your round-trip times get up above about 20ms, you connect over a low-bandwidth line, or you try to do something that's pumping lots of data (I cringe to think about full-screen video)... it will stop feeling like a desktop. If you're okay with this, I'd look into using TigerVNC ( <http://tigervnc.org> ) for a personal setup. | The hardware necessary depends a lot on how far away your server rack is from your desk.
Is it close enough that a VGA/DVI cable can run alongside extended keyboard/mice cables? This would be cheapest.
If you need a setup more like a corporate environment where you've got a bit of space between the blade workstation and the thin client then you'll need a dumb terminal.
Truly thin clients tend to use virtualization and application frameworks such as Citrix to produce the applications on the end desktop. This requires a least a dumb terminal and an application server.
Many dumb terminals can handle multi-head graphics. The "server" box really only produces applications, it's the end user framework client that handles the window placement, and they usually don't care whether or not there are multiple monitors.
The real question is, though, what real benefit will you get by running a box in the server room and a thin client system at your desk if this is a home environment? |
612,178 | I am trying to find a class or something that would allow me to do [Shamir's Secret Sharing](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shamir%27s_Secret_Sharing "Shamir's Secret Sharing").
I found a program in C# that allows you to do it but it does not supply source code. I was just wondering if anyone has a class that already does what I need. | 2009/03/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/612178",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/72136/"
] | EDIT: As noted in comments, this project doesn't actually have C# source code - but I can't delete the answer now as it's been accepted. Perhaps the OP was actually content to use a wrapper after all.
[SecretSharp](http://sourceforge.net/projects/secretsharp/) (linked from the wikipedia article) is GPL - you can [browse the code here](http://secretsharp.svn.sourceforge.net/viewvc/secretsharp/). | Why not use ILDASM or Reflector to get the source from the application you have? |
612,178 | I am trying to find a class or something that would allow me to do [Shamir's Secret Sharing](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shamir%27s_Secret_Sharing "Shamir's Secret Sharing").
I found a program in C# that allows you to do it but it does not supply source code. I was just wondering if anyone has a class that already does what I need. | 2009/03/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/612178",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/72136/"
] | I implemented [my own version](https://github.com/moserware/SecretSplitter) of it that also uses PGP encryption. I describe the math behind it and give examples on how to use it in my blog post "[Life, Death, and Splitting Secrets](http://www.moserware.com/2011/11/life-death-and-splitting-secrets.html)".
**UPDATE:** It's now available as a [NuGet package](http://www.nuget.org/packages/Moserware.SecretSplitter/) (as well as a detailed [example package](http://www.nuget.org/packages/Moserware.SecretSplitter.Sample/)) | Why not use ILDASM or Reflector to get the source from the application you have? |
17,899 | I have not used "instant flour" before as it is not available in my home country, and I have never seen it on my travels
I have seen a few references to it in North American cooking though. Does this product have any real advantages over normal flour other than for quick and easy sauces and gravies?
If so, is there a simple way to make a substitute?
I currently have no problem cooking and emulsifying flour into sauces etc. | 2011/09/20 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/17899",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/3203/"
] | Instant flour has the advantage of speed and ease. You can pretty much *always* do without - but for home cooks in a hurry, it can be an easy solution. Its used for sauces, but sometimes recommended for pastry work because of the ultra low protein content.
Normally, when adding flour to a sauce you'll need to make it into a slurry or roux and mix in correctly to avoid lumps. Then you'll need to cook it for a bit to get rid of the 'flour taste'.
With instant flour, its just pour and stir - no clumps, no waiting. My understanding is that this is ultra low protein flour that as been flash hydrated, cooked (possibly with steam), dehydrated, and then finely ground. This means its pretty much 'ready' to use - it won't taste 'floury' since its already been cooked and the superfine particles are supposed to not clump. (It may also contain some malted barley flour as a dough conditioner).
You could *try* (this is just an idea) making it at home by basically repeating the above process - steam cake flour, dehydrate, grind...but I don't know why you would. If you going to do all that, just make a slurry or roux or use cake flour.
---
This [site](http://www.thekitchn.com/thekitchn/baking-products/good-product-wondra-flour-052604) lays out a few interesting uses. Using it for crepes because it will hydrate quicker. Using it for pastry work when you can get pastry flour and you don't want the bleachness of cake flour. | There is some information on the internet regarding "instant flour". In the discussion I just read it is stated that "Wondra" instant flour is the leading USA brand for this and that it is a pregelatinized, low protein wheat flour to which some malted barley flour has been added. The article goes on to say that it is sometimes used for pie crust [probably due to the low gluten content], and that a reasonable replacement would be cake flour [which is low protein wheat flour with low or no gluten].
In my years of cooking, have not heard of this product before - so can't really advise on what you should do. I do know that I have made plenty of thickened sauces using plain old wheat flour with satisfying results for myself and my guests. I certainly never knew I was missing something.
If you search for "instant flour" in your favorite internet search application will yield a lot of information.
One other thing; from what I read, it sounds like this type of flour product would not lend itself to making a roux thickener. |
17,899 | I have not used "instant flour" before as it is not available in my home country, and I have never seen it on my travels
I have seen a few references to it in North American cooking though. Does this product have any real advantages over normal flour other than for quick and easy sauces and gravies?
If so, is there a simple way to make a substitute?
I currently have no problem cooking and emulsifying flour into sauces etc. | 2011/09/20 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/17899",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/3203/"
] | Instant flour has the advantage of speed and ease. You can pretty much *always* do without - but for home cooks in a hurry, it can be an easy solution. Its used for sauces, but sometimes recommended for pastry work because of the ultra low protein content.
Normally, when adding flour to a sauce you'll need to make it into a slurry or roux and mix in correctly to avoid lumps. Then you'll need to cook it for a bit to get rid of the 'flour taste'.
With instant flour, its just pour and stir - no clumps, no waiting. My understanding is that this is ultra low protein flour that as been flash hydrated, cooked (possibly with steam), dehydrated, and then finely ground. This means its pretty much 'ready' to use - it won't taste 'floury' since its already been cooked and the superfine particles are supposed to not clump. (It may also contain some malted barley flour as a dough conditioner).
You could *try* (this is just an idea) making it at home by basically repeating the above process - steam cake flour, dehydrate, grind...but I don't know why you would. If you going to do all that, just make a slurry or roux or use cake flour.
---
This [site](http://www.thekitchn.com/thekitchn/baking-products/good-product-wondra-flour-052604) lays out a few interesting uses. Using it for crepes because it will hydrate quicker. Using it for pastry work when you can get pastry flour and you don't want the bleachness of cake flour. | Wondra is widely available in the US. My mother always used it for gravies. I'm watching Martha Stewart use it for Sole Meuniere since the fish cooks so quickly. |
44,362,383 | I have uploaded my iOS a few days ago. now I am getting this message
Does this app use the Advertising Identifier (IDFA)?
The Advertising Identifier (IDFA) is a unique ID for each iOS device and is the only way to offer targeted ads. Users can choose to limit ad targeting on their iOS device.
Yes
No
Ensure that you select the correct answer for Advertising Identifier (IDFA) usage. If your app does contain the IDFA and you select No, the binary will be permanently rejected and you will have to submit a different binary.
my App does not contain any ads but it shows HTML pages on click on buttons.
should I select yes or no? | 2017/06/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/44362383",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5093984/"
] | I have develop an app which is live on **App Store**. It is not showing ads but it shows HTML pages same as in your scenario. I always select it as NO.
So if you are not using IDFA, you should also select it as **NO**. | It is not showing ads but it shows HTML pages.
So if you are not using IDFA, you should also select it as NO. |
490,551 | I have basic knowledge about NPN transistors and I know how they work: for current gain based on the small input current in the base we are able to drive large amount of current in between collector and emitter.
In my circuit I need to amplify 3.3V of my stm32 micro controller input to 10 V output to drive a Mosfet switch.
I want to give 10V input to the gate of the MOSFET to get very low Rds. I am using STM32 micro controller for controlling. Its maximum output voltage is 3.3V but I need 10V so I planned to use an NPN transistor in common emitter configuration so that I can amplify 3.3V to 10V and then I can give that to the gate of the MOSFET.
I understood that the amount of voltage we give in input to the base we will get as large voltage between collector and emitter based on the resistors. I also understood the voltage gain based on Rc and RE for example if Rc = 1k and Re = 100 ohm the gain is 10.
But I cant understand how to choose a resistor and how much current should I use how much current to amplify to amplify the voltage, and how much voltage to give to get 10V as output. How this entire thing works based on voltage amplification based on my circuit.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1UsdS.jpg)
I have searched on google but I can't 100% understand it. | 2020/04/02 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/490551",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/237628/"
] | Is this the sort of thing you are after?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fIL3Nw.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/) | You can't. There's no source of 10 V that your transistor could switch.
So, get a different MOSFET. Also, don't forget that for MOSFET switching, the Gate-Source voltage needs to be defined – so there *has* to be some common notion of potential (e.g. a common ground); your schematic doesn't have that. |
23,351 | I'm looking to convert a standard colour gamut video to a wide gamut video. For example, I have a 1080p, 2K or 4K H.264 8-bit mp4. This is normally (eg. from YouTube) in Rec709 or "SRGB" colour space.
I want to test my iPad Pro or other wide-gamut monitors to see what the video may look like with a wider colour gamut (eg. Rec2020) as well as save it as a H.265 10-bit mp4. | 2018/02/05 | [
"https://avp.stackexchange.com/questions/23351",
"https://avp.stackexchange.com",
"https://avp.stackexchange.com/users/21348/"
] | You could simply use the [Colorspace Conversion LUT](https://cc-lut.hotglue.me) to convert between Rec.709 gamut and Rec.2020 gamut. | BT.709 and sRGB are completly different transfer functions. Sigh.
Anyway, download ffmpeg from here: <https://github.com/BtbN/FFmpeg-Builds/releases/download/latest/ffmpeg-master-latest-win64-gpl-shared.zip>
ffmpeg -i INPUT.mp4 -c:v libx265 -crf 20 -vf zscale=r=limited:m=2020\_ncl:t=2020\_10:p=2020:c=topleft,format=yuv420p10 -color\_primaries bt2020 -colorspace bt2020nc -color\_trc bt2020\_10bit -color\_range tv OUTPUT.mp4
This will preserve the same colors and will preserve SDR. |
28,499 | My road bike has Shimano [dual-pivot caliper brakes](http://sheldonbrown.com/calipers.html) like these.
Whenever I remove or refit the mudguards, or even sometimes just getting the wheel out, they seem to go slightly off-centre, by which I mean rotated around the mounting.
The effect of this is that, when the brakes are applied one pad contacts the rim before the other. Looking carefully the wheel also moves a little to the left or right as one pad pushes it to the side.
I try to rotate the brakes so that both pads contact the rim at the same time to minimise this movement, but as the act of tightening the mounting screw also rotates the brakes slightly, this is tricky.
So the question is - does it matter much if one pad makes contact slightly before the other? What are the likely effects of it doing so? | 2015/01/12 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/28499",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/5337/"
] | The danger of this is your rim may begin to rub the brake pad – especially when you put in hard out-of-the-saddle efforts.
In theory, if your caliper has become off-centre then one pad will have come closer to the rim and the other will have come further away. You should simply be able to push and rotate the caliper by hand back into a central position without loosening (or tightening) the retaining nut. Pull the brake lever a couple of times and if the caliper does not return to a central position, your brake requires balancing i.e. one pad is moving more than the other towards the rim and causing them not to touch the rim at the same time. The other effect of this is it may cause the caliper to rest off-centre.
There is a small balancing (tensioning) screw on top of the caliper. Turn this left or right until both pads move the same amount to the rim. | It doesn't matter a lot if it's slightly off. But you should be able to center the calipers by hand, even after the mounting bolt is tightened. Just grasp the two brake arms firmly and rotate the entire caliper a bit (with no pressure applied to the brake lever). In my experience this is usually sufficient to get the caliper centered enough. Riding for a while will sometimes help center them as well. |
43,275 | If you have a contact with a linked CMS user, sometimes you want to un-link them and re-link the CMS user to another contact.
The way I've figured out to do this without having to directly change anything in the database is to create a duplicate contact for the contact you want to un-link, merge this contact with the original contact as the duplicate (moving everything to the new contact except the CMS user), then doing Synchronize Users to Contacts and finally merging the newly created contact with the contact you want the CMS user to be linked to. But that's messy. Is there a better way? | 2023/01/10 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/43275",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/3533/"
] | The mapping for CMS user to Civi contact is the `UFMatch` entity.
You can use APIv4 Explorer to view and change these. If you have one that is wrong, just delete the corresponding UFMatch. When the user logins in next time a new match will be created based on the CMS email address.
If you have multiple Civi contacts with the same email address you might need to create/modify a UFMatch but often just deleting the existing one is sufficient.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Qy4nD.png) | Merging the two civi records should give you the ability to have the CMS user transferred from A to B. |
16,058 | About 20 years ago, I saw part of a film or TV series about a group of people being stranded on a creepy island after a plane crash. I can't remember whether it was a movie or a TV episode, but it felt more like a made-for-TV movie.
The beginning of the movie went like this: a plane is flying through a thunderstorm at night, and there is heavy turbulence. One of the children asks her mother if everything will be all right, and she says they will be. The child then tells her she can't know for sure what will happen, which she acknowledges.
Later, the plane does crash after being hit by lightning, and the survivors manage to reach an island. The survivors explore the island, which is shown to be really creepy. The people then find their food have inexplicably become rotten one morning. That's all I remember.
I searched through [this list](http://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/Robinsonade) on TV Tropes, but none of the movies or TV shows seem to fit the profile. I know it's not *LOST* because I saw this in the 1990s. Does anyone have an idea what this movie (or TV series) might be? | 2013/12/21 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/16058",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/7262/"
] | Could this be [Danger Island (1992)](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0104049/reference), also known as The presence?
Plot synopsis from Imdb: "Mixed assortment of people survive the crash of an airliner at sea; cast upon a shore of mysterious island they discover dangerous creatures, exploding bananas, mutations and a biological weapons research facility."
There is a chance you may remember this person from the film, he certainly stuck in my memory as a child:
 | There was a 45 minute show called "The New People" in 1969. It was about a plane crashing on a deserted island that was an abandoned nuke test site. The plane was (an old DC-3) full of young people, and there was a creepy deserted town with test dummy's all over. Could this be it? |
207,913 | The question is a big spoiler for the main revelation at the end of season 1.
>
> At the end of season 1 it is revealed that Lorca is a bad guy from the mirror universe and all his actions only target toward going back to his universe (and taking Michael with him).
>
>
>
So if that is the case it seems out of character that he risked his life on several occasions:
>
> In one episode he orders the pilot to navigate between an other ship with failing shields and 2 photon torpedos, while their own shields are just about 10%. They took one torpedo, while the other destroyed the other vessel. While this could be explained as backing up his cover story as a brave captain, this posed a real danger to his live and I don't think his cover would have been blown up if he would not have done this maneuver.
>
>
>
And on another occasion:
>
> In the mirror universe he commanded to open a channel. Michael canceled the command in the last possible moment, because she found out that Tilly was the commander of the discovery in this universe. Without her intervention he would have triggered an attack on his ship. And he surely was knowing this.
>
>
>
So, while the out of universe explanation is obviously that the audience should be fooled by this actions and prevented form becoming suspicious, what are the in universe reasons for him to act in this way. I think there are many other examples where he shows bravery that brought him danger and that he could have avoided. | 2019/03/26 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/207913",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/36962/"
] | The Mirror Lorca is complicated villain, maybe even a [Byronic hero](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Byronic_hero). I think he did a lot things to test the waters and **prove to himself that destiny was smiling upon him.** He may believed this was the only way he could or *should* get home.
>
> MIRROR LORCA: Amazing, isn't it? Different universe, and somehow the
> same people, had a way to find each other. **The strongest argument I
> have ever seen for the existence of destiny.**
>
>
> MICHEAL BURNHAM: I'm not sure if I believe in destiny.
>
>
> MIRROR LORCA: Is that so? Sitting in that cell all alone, facing a
> life sentence of solitude, future full of misery. **A little part of you
> had to know that wasn't the end of your story. You were destined for
> something more.**
>
>
> MICHEAL BURNHAM: Destiny didn't get me out of prison, Captain. You did
> that.
>
>
>
But as Kozaky mentioned in a comments, just because he hails from the Mirror Universe, does not mean he wasn't knowledgeable in starship combat, as he proved several times during the war, but perhaps more so when Discovery jumps back to the Prime Universe 9 months later (where Lorca and Discovery have been absent) and Star Fleet is loosing and Earth has become a Klingon target!
His bigger problem was that his ethics did not always line up with Star Fleet's and because Discovery's crew is full of broken characters during a time of war, he was often not contested. (Not until Cornwall shows up, anyway).
**Vaulting Ambition Transcript:**
>
> MIRROR GEORGOUI: In Lorca, you saw a father, until you grew up and it
> became more.
>
>
> PRIME BURNHAM: You're saying Lorca and I-
>
>
> MIRROR GEORGOUI: **He groomed you. He chose you. [...] He told you
> that destiny brought you together.**
>
>
>
**His story is more about his love for Mirror Micheal Burnham and the destiny he believed he had with her more than anything** else, which I think considering she died, that love extended to Prime Burnham, listening to her advice and allowing her privileges he often didn't with others, which in return began to change him a little bit, but enough to make him change his goals or feelings about Star Fleet.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Dwe8j.jpg)
He did seem to have some grand plan with Michael in mind and Empire's future, **but he would have to be a bit delusional to really believe that Prime Burnham would actually go along with it and I think that is what your question about him gets down to.**
**What's Past is Prologue Transcript:**
---------------------------------------
>
> **MICHEAL BURNHAM:** They have no idea they're flying into a battle zone. Please, Philippa.
>
>
> **EMPEROR GEORGOUI:** I'm not Philippa to you. But you are right about one thing. **He preyed on my sentiment, my weakness for your face.** It
> will not happen again.
>
>
>
And a Speech Mirror Lorca makes...
>
> **MIRROR LORCA:** Hello, Philippa. (OVER COMM): I've watched for years;
> you let alien races spill over the borders, flourish in our backyard,
> then have the gall to incite rebellion. The Terrans need a leader who
> will preserve our way of life, our race. Try as you might, it's
> clearly not you. **Even Michael knew that. It was her great shame. Well,
> it's indecorous of me to share pillow talk.** To the rest, many of you
> know me. Some of you served with me. To all, I make this offer:
> renounce Georgiou. The Empire is dying in her hands. But you don't
> have to Not today. **Michael Burnham is not to be touched.** She is
> integral to our future plans, a future where we together will make the
> Empire glorious again.
>
>
>
And Mirror Lorca admitting his feelings to Prime Michael
>
> **MIRROR LORCA:** I know that's hard for you to see right now because
> you're blinded by your emotions. **The only thing I was blinded by was
> you.** I know you understand that I had to lie to you, Michael, to get
> home. Just like you know that the Federation is a social experiment
> doomed to failure. Childish idealism. Every species, every choice,
> every opinion is not equal, no matter how much they want it to be. The
> strong and the capable will always rise. Like you and me. And every
> living being is safer and happier knowing their place. That's why we
> have a duty to lead. Like what you did that day at the Binaries. Stay
> with me. Stay here and help me bring peace to this world through
> strength and order, the right way. **There was no one else like the
> other you. And what she and I set out to achieve was gonna be
> remarkable. And then I met you. And the truth is your gifts far
> surpass hers. I see you, Michael Burnham. I see your power. And I'm
> offering you a future.** I have since the day I brought you onto the
> Discovery.
>
>
>
And Mirror Lorca talking to Saru and contradicting what he said he believed about order of race and species:
>
> MIRROR LORCA: **I'm glad I got a chance to say good-bye to you, and the
> rest of the crew. I want you to know that my admiration for you was
> and is sincere**. When I look at you, I see the formidable unit of
> soldiers that I sculpted. If I thought for a second that any of you
> were capable of relinquishing this cult-like devotion to the
> Federation, I'd enlist your skills today.
>
>
> SARU: We are not interested in your sentiments.
>
>
>
Once Mirror Lorca gets back to the Mirror Universe, it becomes much more clear that he believed he was doing all of this for the love his Michael; believing this was his destiny, but also despite everything he did have feelings for the Discovery Crew and the experiences he had with them. It just wasn't enough to make him stop what he wanted to accomplish. | First point, being evil doesn't mean one can't have virtues like bravery. In the case of the battle in question, he was in battle. Given what was shown of his personality, Lorca would do his outmost to win it, not to mention that he was, intentionally or not, seeking to impress Burnham, although she was oblivious to that.
Second point, as to the ship and captain; Prime-*Discovery*, when it's introduced, is brand spanking new, as one of the prisoners in episode 3 goes out of his way to comment on, which means it likely only entered service sometime after Lorca exchanged places with his Prime alternate. Assuming that Mirror-*Discovery* has a similar history, then Lorca left the Mirror Universe before it was in service, meaning he has no way to know that Tilly would be in command, so there was no ulterior motive to him communicating via an audio channel. He could alter his voice slightly in the unlikely event there was someone on the other ship who might recognize it--he knew that the people most likely to, namely his followers, were dead or imprisoned--so as far as he knew there was no problem. |
161,098 | I am playing [2048 Numberwang](http://louhuang.com/2048-numberwang/). Sometimes the game proclaims: 
Is it possible to know exactly when it is Numberwang? | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/161098",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/3610/"
] | Every turn the site contacts Colosson to determine whether or not it is Numberwang. The result is relayed safely back to the user, to avoid further incident. | From the site:
>
> When two tiles touch, that’s Numberwang!
>
>
>
However, since the proclamation does not happen on every turn, best guess is it, like everything else in that game, is random. |
161,098 | I am playing [2048 Numberwang](http://louhuang.com/2048-numberwang/). Sometimes the game proclaims: 
Is it possible to know exactly when it is Numberwang? | 2014/03/21 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/161098",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/3610/"
] | Every turn the site contacts Colosson to determine whether or not it is Numberwang. The result is relayed safely back to the user, to avoid further incident. | "That's" Numberwang" in all winning scenarios that are not Wangernum |
30,069,283 | I have googled and searched for this but I need help. I feel really stupid because I have been using ide's for awhile. Just not cloud based. So how do I add a local image to my cloud9 html page? | 2015/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30069283",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4869313/"
] | You could upload your image online then use `href` to use the online link.
Otherwise, if you'd still like your image to be local, you can upload files to your workspace like [this](http://www.cloud9realtime.com/knowledgebase/how-do-i-upload-files-to-cloud9-from-my-local-computer).
I hope this helps :) | This works on rails projects on c9, not sure about different environments but worth a try.
curl -O imagelink
mv imagelink app/assets/images/ |
30,069,283 | I have googled and searched for this but I need help. I feel really stupid because I have been using ide's for awhile. Just not cloud based. So how do I add a local image to my cloud9 html page? | 2015/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30069283",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4869313/"
] | You could upload your image online then use `href` to use the online link.
Otherwise, if you'd still like your image to be local, you can upload files to your workspace like [this](http://www.cloud9realtime.com/knowledgebase/how-do-i-upload-files-to-cloud9-from-my-local-computer).
I hope this helps :) | you can also use a simple save and drag method.
* save the image in your images folder on your desktop (or where ever)
* open cloud9 project so that you can see your file hierarchy
* click on image saved to your computer
* drag and drop into images folder
this is as of 03/2016 |
30,069,283 | I have googled and searched for this but I need help. I feel really stupid because I have been using ide's for awhile. Just not cloud based. So how do I add a local image to my cloud9 html page? | 2015/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30069283",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4869313/"
] | you can also use a simple save and drag method.
* save the image in your images folder on your desktop (or where ever)
* open cloud9 project so that you can see your file hierarchy
* click on image saved to your computer
* drag and drop into images folder
this is as of 03/2016 | This works on rails projects on c9, not sure about different environments but worth a try.
curl -O imagelink
mv imagelink app/assets/images/ |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | <http://searchengineland.com/google-maps-now-highlighting-borders-of-cities-postal-codes-more-108589>
If I search by postal code, the area for that postal code has a pink outline, when zooming back, the whole section is covered in pink. Same thing for a City, or a county , state, or even country.
So any area that is a specific region for the search input it highlights in pink.
Some of the legend info varies on map type and region. | White roads = Normal streets
Yellow roads = main streets/roads
Orange roads = highways
Very light gray = Normal areas (houses, buildings, etc)
green = Parks
Light green = forest
Light brown = Universities
Grey = Factories, harbors and other heavy duty areas.
And one thing what I specially simply love!
Light red = hospitals. |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | Here is an official Google blog post that contains a color legend:
<https://maps.googleblog.com/2016/07/discover-action-around-you-with-updated.html>
To summarize:
* Orange road - freeway
* Yellow road - highway
* Light orange background - "area of interest"
* Pink background - hospital
* Light brown background - school
* Light green background - park
* Light gray background - normal land
* Blue background - water | <http://searchengineland.com/google-maps-now-highlighting-borders-of-cities-postal-codes-more-108589>
If I search by postal code, the area for that postal code has a pink outline, when zooming back, the whole section is covered in pink. Same thing for a City, or a county , state, or even country.
So any area that is a specific region for the search input it highlights in pink.
Some of the legend info varies on map type and region. |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | <http://searchengineland.com/google-maps-now-highlighting-borders-of-cities-postal-codes-more-108589>
If I search by postal code, the area for that postal code has a pink outline, when zooming back, the whole section is covered in pink. Same thing for a City, or a county , state, or even country.
So any area that is a specific region for the search input it highlights in pink.
Some of the legend info varies on map type and region. | Sharing my recent findings.
1. Green = National Parks, Forrest and Preserves
2. Light Tan = Native American Indian Reservations/Tribal Areas
3. Slightly Darker Tan = Military land
I observed this while researching Arizona, then on tips and hunches matched it up with various maps found via search for "maps of Arizona Native American Reservations" and "maps of military installations" which brought up [maps on USGS](http://nationalmap.gov/small_scale/printable/fedlands.html) and other sites, so I am absolutely confident this is correct. |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | <http://searchengineland.com/google-maps-now-highlighting-borders-of-cities-postal-codes-more-108589>
If I search by postal code, the area for that postal code has a pink outline, when zooming back, the whole section is covered in pink. Same thing for a City, or a county , state, or even country.
So any area that is a specific region for the search input it highlights in pink.
Some of the legend info varies on map type and region. | Try this site for a Legend it is from the google help page.
<https://support.google.com/maps/answer/3092439?co=GENIE.Platform%3DDesktop&hl=en> |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | Here is an official Google blog post that contains a color legend:
<https://maps.googleblog.com/2016/07/discover-action-around-you-with-updated.html>
To summarize:
* Orange road - freeway
* Yellow road - highway
* Light orange background - "area of interest"
* Pink background - hospital
* Light brown background - school
* Light green background - park
* Light gray background - normal land
* Blue background - water | White roads = Normal streets
Yellow roads = main streets/roads
Orange roads = highways
Very light gray = Normal areas (houses, buildings, etc)
green = Parks
Light green = forest
Light brown = Universities
Grey = Factories, harbors and other heavy duty areas.
And one thing what I specially simply love!
Light red = hospitals. |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | White roads = Normal streets
Yellow roads = main streets/roads
Orange roads = highways
Very light gray = Normal areas (houses, buildings, etc)
green = Parks
Light green = forest
Light brown = Universities
Grey = Factories, harbors and other heavy duty areas.
And one thing what I specially simply love!
Light red = hospitals. | Sharing my recent findings.
1. Green = National Parks, Forrest and Preserves
2. Light Tan = Native American Indian Reservations/Tribal Areas
3. Slightly Darker Tan = Military land
I observed this while researching Arizona, then on tips and hunches matched it up with various maps found via search for "maps of Arizona Native American Reservations" and "maps of military installations" which brought up [maps on USGS](http://nationalmap.gov/small_scale/printable/fedlands.html) and other sites, so I am absolutely confident this is correct. |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | White roads = Normal streets
Yellow roads = main streets/roads
Orange roads = highways
Very light gray = Normal areas (houses, buildings, etc)
green = Parks
Light green = forest
Light brown = Universities
Grey = Factories, harbors and other heavy duty areas.
And one thing what I specially simply love!
Light red = hospitals. | Try this site for a Legend it is from the google help page.
<https://support.google.com/maps/answer/3092439?co=GENIE.Platform%3DDesktop&hl=en> |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | Here is an official Google blog post that contains a color legend:
<https://maps.googleblog.com/2016/07/discover-action-around-you-with-updated.html>
To summarize:
* Orange road - freeway
* Yellow road - highway
* Light orange background - "area of interest"
* Pink background - hospital
* Light brown background - school
* Light green background - park
* Light gray background - normal land
* Blue background - water | Sharing my recent findings.
1. Green = National Parks, Forrest and Preserves
2. Light Tan = Native American Indian Reservations/Tribal Areas
3. Slightly Darker Tan = Military land
I observed this while researching Arizona, then on tips and hunches matched it up with various maps found via search for "maps of Arizona Native American Reservations" and "maps of military installations" which brought up [maps on USGS](http://nationalmap.gov/small_scale/printable/fedlands.html) and other sites, so I am absolutely confident this is correct. |
25,452 | Some colors are obvious, but some are not (at least to me). For example, what does it mean when an area is shaded pink? | 2012/04/07 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/25452",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/223155/"
] | Here is an official Google blog post that contains a color legend:
<https://maps.googleblog.com/2016/07/discover-action-around-you-with-updated.html>
To summarize:
* Orange road - freeway
* Yellow road - highway
* Light orange background - "area of interest"
* Pink background - hospital
* Light brown background - school
* Light green background - park
* Light gray background - normal land
* Blue background - water | Try this site for a Legend it is from the google help page.
<https://support.google.com/maps/answer/3092439?co=GENIE.Platform%3DDesktop&hl=en> |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | >
> My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
>
>
>
As far as the violin goes your understanding is wrong. Putting to one side what is meant by "best", the three variables for violin playing are:
1. Bow speed
2. Contact point
3. Bow weight or pressure
Juggling these three elements on any particular string produces different effects.
Generally speaking, close to the fingerboard you need light pressure and a fast bow. While close to the bridge you need a slow bow and more bow pressure. This is complicated by the length of the vibrating string. The more you shorten the string by placing a finger on it the closer to the bridge you have to play AND the less pressure you should apply.
Then there is the question of the way you (or the composer) wants the note to sound. The same note in different circumstances can call for a light, fast bow close to the fingerboard for the "best" sound in one part, a slow, firm bow close to the bridge in another and a moderate bow halfway between in yet another.
It is complicated, far more complicated than you would think. | Hrmmm.
As a guitarist, where I pick gives me control over expression. To some extent, pickup placement replaces it for electric instruments, but even then, picking close to the bridge has an effect. I'd say that over the soundhole is the "sweet spot", but seeing that it's fretted, that moves, but even then, the unsweet spots can still be pretty sweet.
As a person who has progressed past the screech and is now a very bad fiddle player, is very much toward the bridge, but the need to have a waist so that the bow can angle confounds this. I'm sure there's other issues that I'm not experienced enough to know. Similarly, I'd expect that hammer placement on pianos, also pick placement on harpsichords, is more about where they can be mechanically placed than where they're musically optimal.
So I'd guess there's enough wiggle room for a few methods, depending on how high a note you're hitting. I wonder about the actuation, but that's not the question. |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | According to [this source](https://www.jjburred.com/research/pdf/burred_acoustics_piano.pdf) there is a physical reason for where a piano wire is struck and the best location for plucking would be different:
>
> After many tests throughout the history of the piano, it was determined that
> the best strike point is between 1/7 and 1/8 the length of the string. In general, it can be verified that if the point where a string is plucked (not struck) coincides with a node of any one of the vibration modes, that mode will not be excited. The most intuitive case is the fundamental of a string fixed at both ends. Its nodes are at the ends, which means that the greatest excitation of the fundamental will happen if the string is plucked exactly in its center, that is, at the antinode of the first mode. As the string is plucked further from the center, it vibrates less, and it is impossible to excite it by plucking right at an end. Likewise, if a string is plucked at 1/7 the length, the 7th mode is not excited, along with its multiple integers: 14th, 21st,.... In music, this phenomenon can be an advantage, since the 7th harmonic is dissonant to the tempered minor 7th. This fact has been utilized as a justification for the choice of strike point in the piano, and it is still
> affirmed in some relatively recent articles and books.
>
>
>
The report cites the following books for the paragraph I quoted above:
H.F. Olson. *Music, Physics and Engineering*. Dover, 1967.
C.A. Culver. *Musical acoustics*. McGraw-Hill, 1956.
E. Good. *Giraffes, black dragons and other pianos*. Stanford University
Press, 1982. | >
> My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
>
>
>
As far as the violin goes your understanding is wrong. Putting to one side what is meant by "best", the three variables for violin playing are:
1. Bow speed
2. Contact point
3. Bow weight or pressure
Juggling these three elements on any particular string produces different effects.
Generally speaking, close to the fingerboard you need light pressure and a fast bow. While close to the bridge you need a slow bow and more bow pressure. This is complicated by the length of the vibrating string. The more you shorten the string by placing a finger on it the closer to the bridge you have to play AND the less pressure you should apply.
Then there is the question of the way you (or the composer) wants the note to sound. The same note in different circumstances can call for a light, fast bow close to the fingerboard for the "best" sound in one part, a slow, firm bow close to the bridge in another and a moderate bow halfway between in yet another.
It is complicated, far more complicated than you would think. |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | >
> My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
>
>
>
As far as the violin goes your understanding is wrong. Putting to one side what is meant by "best", the three variables for violin playing are:
1. Bow speed
2. Contact point
3. Bow weight or pressure
Juggling these three elements on any particular string produces different effects.
Generally speaking, close to the fingerboard you need light pressure and a fast bow. While close to the bridge you need a slow bow and more bow pressure. This is complicated by the length of the vibrating string. The more you shorten the string by placing a finger on it the closer to the bridge you have to play AND the less pressure you should apply.
Then there is the question of the way you (or the composer) wants the note to sound. The same note in different circumstances can call for a light, fast bow close to the fingerboard for the "best" sound in one part, a slow, firm bow close to the bridge in another and a moderate bow halfway between in yet another.
It is complicated, far more complicated than you would think. | This might be more an add-on on @Noah 's answer.
There is a fundamental difference between plucking and bowing:
For plucking, you basically get the string out of its "resting" state and then let the string vibrate. If you pluck it in the middle, the initial state will be more like a symmetric triangle whereas, the more you pluck it near one end, the more it will be like a saw. Even if the harmonic content won't stay the same over time, it is widely known in sound synthesis that the saw will have a greater harmonic content than a triangle. Basically because it's further from the sinusoidal shape of the fundamental. The more you pluck it near the end, the brighter it will sound.
For bowing the situation is different because you are continuously inputting energy to the string and *the position where you now won't be a node or an antinode* of the vibration: you can try with a rope attached on one end to a wall, and try to excite it with an up and down motion of your hand. If you manage to get it oscillate at its fundamental frequency, the antinode won't be located on your hand: the rope is more oscillating somewhere near its middle. It is also not a node, as you hand is moving. So, where you now is not the initial place of greater amplitude as it with plucking. There is also a lot of other factor like the input wave of the bow which might be close to a square because of the stick-slip mechanism which actually makes the string vibrate and also the feedback (mechanical) between the bow and the string, but that was not the point I wanted to make.... |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | This is an interesting question. I'd refer to texts by Fletcher and Rossing on the subject as they are world leading experts in the physics of musical instruments. I can only tell you what I've learned from guitar playing, specifically classical guitar.
You should know that the brightness of the note produced by the string depends on where you pluck it (I am referring only to guitar and not hammered or bowed strings). So it is hard to say that any spot is "sweet" since that is somewhat subjective. If you wanted warm tones, al la Wes Montgomery, you would be wise to pluck at the mid point as that will accentuate the fundamental and kill a lot of the harmonics. If you wanted a very twangy tone you would want to pluck near the bridge as that will excite a lot of high frequency overtones and with considerable amplitude. So it would seem like you do NOT want to stay in one spot if you want variety and control of your tone. But who's to say which of those tones is "sweet"?
There are other factors to consider. By experimenting with the attack placement one may sacrifice other qualities like sustain and volume. So there is a trade off and I am not sure anyone has really studied this is detail but if anyone has it would be in Fletcher and Rossing's texts (if not originated by them). Various schools of thought are split on this in the classical guitar world. I recall Pepe Romero's book teaching that the strings should always be plucked at the same spot, just behind the sound hole in the direction of the bridge (I am pretty sure it was Romero, but could be Parkening) and that any other variations on tone could be achieved by varying the attack angle of the nails, pressure applied to the string, etc. In other words his method supports the idea that one gets overall superior sound in one place and that other variety can be achieved by controlling the attack parameters. However, not everyone agrees with this. I have seem video of Julian Bream where he will sometimes pluck over the finger board. It is also quite customary for Flamenco guitarists to play fast runs by plucking closer to the bridge but this is not for tone as much as the string feels stiffer there making it easier to bounce the fingers off the string, in contrast to feeling like a loose rope or wet spaghetti when plucked further in. Based on this you can see that there are other factors than sound that contribute to these decisions.
I cannot say for sure that Romero is correct (or the comment I have attributed to Romero) but in my experience it sure seems to be. When the hand drapes over the strings the fingers will lie across them diagonally, each finger touching the string at a slightly different place. This very fact makes it impossible to achieve consistency in placement, especially when playing chords. Perhaps they are in a small enough neighborhood about the sweet spot that it doesn't matter. My opinion is that this is true and it is a standard part of classical guitar training. But I have not seen objective data on this and would deffer to that.
The above does not likely hold as much for the electric guitar. While the basic string physics is all the same the amplification, sustain, and to some degree the tone, can all be controlled by electronics. With just a plain amp you can still hear the variety of tones generated by pick placement but the other issues that exist in generating a reliable note on the classical just do not exist for the electric. At the extreme I would guess that a large enough effect rack could make attack precision an unnecessary skill. | Hrmmm.
As a guitarist, where I pick gives me control over expression. To some extent, pickup placement replaces it for electric instruments, but even then, picking close to the bridge has an effect. I'd say that over the soundhole is the "sweet spot", but seeing that it's fretted, that moves, but even then, the unsweet spots can still be pretty sweet.
As a person who has progressed past the screech and is now a very bad fiddle player, is very much toward the bridge, but the need to have a waist so that the bow can angle confounds this. I'm sure there's other issues that I'm not experienced enough to know. Similarly, I'd expect that hammer placement on pianos, also pick placement on harpsichords, is more about where they can be mechanically placed than where they're musically optimal.
So I'd guess there's enough wiggle room for a few methods, depending on how high a note you're hitting. I wonder about the actuation, but that's not the question. |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | According to [this source](https://www.jjburred.com/research/pdf/burred_acoustics_piano.pdf) there is a physical reason for where a piano wire is struck and the best location for plucking would be different:
>
> After many tests throughout the history of the piano, it was determined that
> the best strike point is between 1/7 and 1/8 the length of the string. In general, it can be verified that if the point where a string is plucked (not struck) coincides with a node of any one of the vibration modes, that mode will not be excited. The most intuitive case is the fundamental of a string fixed at both ends. Its nodes are at the ends, which means that the greatest excitation of the fundamental will happen if the string is plucked exactly in its center, that is, at the antinode of the first mode. As the string is plucked further from the center, it vibrates less, and it is impossible to excite it by plucking right at an end. Likewise, if a string is plucked at 1/7 the length, the 7th mode is not excited, along with its multiple integers: 14th, 21st,.... In music, this phenomenon can be an advantage, since the 7th harmonic is dissonant to the tempered minor 7th. This fact has been utilized as a justification for the choice of strike point in the piano, and it is still
> affirmed in some relatively recent articles and books.
>
>
>
The report cites the following books for the paragraph I quoted above:
H.F. Olson. *Music, Physics and Engineering*. Dover, 1967.
C.A. Culver. *Musical acoustics*. McGraw-Hill, 1956.
E. Good. *Giraffes, black dragons and other pianos*. Stanford University
Press, 1982. | Hrmmm.
As a guitarist, where I pick gives me control over expression. To some extent, pickup placement replaces it for electric instruments, but even then, picking close to the bridge has an effect. I'd say that over the soundhole is the "sweet spot", but seeing that it's fretted, that moves, but even then, the unsweet spots can still be pretty sweet.
As a person who has progressed past the screech and is now a very bad fiddle player, is very much toward the bridge, but the need to have a waist so that the bow can angle confounds this. I'm sure there's other issues that I'm not experienced enough to know. Similarly, I'd expect that hammer placement on pianos, also pick placement on harpsichords, is more about where they can be mechanically placed than where they're musically optimal.
So I'd guess there's enough wiggle room for a few methods, depending on how high a note you're hitting. I wonder about the actuation, but that's not the question. |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | Hrmmm.
As a guitarist, where I pick gives me control over expression. To some extent, pickup placement replaces it for electric instruments, but even then, picking close to the bridge has an effect. I'd say that over the soundhole is the "sweet spot", but seeing that it's fretted, that moves, but even then, the unsweet spots can still be pretty sweet.
As a person who has progressed past the screech and is now a very bad fiddle player, is very much toward the bridge, but the need to have a waist so that the bow can angle confounds this. I'm sure there's other issues that I'm not experienced enough to know. Similarly, I'd expect that hammer placement on pianos, also pick placement on harpsichords, is more about where they can be mechanically placed than where they're musically optimal.
So I'd guess there's enough wiggle room for a few methods, depending on how high a note you're hitting. I wonder about the actuation, but that's not the question. | This might be more an add-on on @Noah 's answer.
There is a fundamental difference between plucking and bowing:
For plucking, you basically get the string out of its "resting" state and then let the string vibrate. If you pluck it in the middle, the initial state will be more like a symmetric triangle whereas, the more you pluck it near one end, the more it will be like a saw. Even if the harmonic content won't stay the same over time, it is widely known in sound synthesis that the saw will have a greater harmonic content than a triangle. Basically because it's further from the sinusoidal shape of the fundamental. The more you pluck it near the end, the brighter it will sound.
For bowing the situation is different because you are continuously inputting energy to the string and *the position where you now won't be a node or an antinode* of the vibration: you can try with a rope attached on one end to a wall, and try to excite it with an up and down motion of your hand. If you manage to get it oscillate at its fundamental frequency, the antinode won't be located on your hand: the rope is more oscillating somewhere near its middle. It is also not a node, as you hand is moving. So, where you now is not the initial place of greater amplitude as it with plucking. There is also a lot of other factor like the input wave of the bow which might be close to a square because of the stick-slip mechanism which actually makes the string vibrate and also the feedback (mechanical) between the bow and the string, but that was not the point I wanted to make.... |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | According to [this source](https://www.jjburred.com/research/pdf/burred_acoustics_piano.pdf) there is a physical reason for where a piano wire is struck and the best location for plucking would be different:
>
> After many tests throughout the history of the piano, it was determined that
> the best strike point is between 1/7 and 1/8 the length of the string. In general, it can be verified that if the point where a string is plucked (not struck) coincides with a node of any one of the vibration modes, that mode will not be excited. The most intuitive case is the fundamental of a string fixed at both ends. Its nodes are at the ends, which means that the greatest excitation of the fundamental will happen if the string is plucked exactly in its center, that is, at the antinode of the first mode. As the string is plucked further from the center, it vibrates less, and it is impossible to excite it by plucking right at an end. Likewise, if a string is plucked at 1/7 the length, the 7th mode is not excited, along with its multiple integers: 14th, 21st,.... In music, this phenomenon can be an advantage, since the 7th harmonic is dissonant to the tempered minor 7th. This fact has been utilized as a justification for the choice of strike point in the piano, and it is still
> affirmed in some relatively recent articles and books.
>
>
>
The report cites the following books for the paragraph I quoted above:
H.F. Olson. *Music, Physics and Engineering*. Dover, 1967.
C.A. Culver. *Musical acoustics*. McGraw-Hill, 1956.
E. Good. *Giraffes, black dragons and other pianos*. Stanford University
Press, 1982. | This is an interesting question. I'd refer to texts by Fletcher and Rossing on the subject as they are world leading experts in the physics of musical instruments. I can only tell you what I've learned from guitar playing, specifically classical guitar.
You should know that the brightness of the note produced by the string depends on where you pluck it (I am referring only to guitar and not hammered or bowed strings). So it is hard to say that any spot is "sweet" since that is somewhat subjective. If you wanted warm tones, al la Wes Montgomery, you would be wise to pluck at the mid point as that will accentuate the fundamental and kill a lot of the harmonics. If you wanted a very twangy tone you would want to pluck near the bridge as that will excite a lot of high frequency overtones and with considerable amplitude. So it would seem like you do NOT want to stay in one spot if you want variety and control of your tone. But who's to say which of those tones is "sweet"?
There are other factors to consider. By experimenting with the attack placement one may sacrifice other qualities like sustain and volume. So there is a trade off and I am not sure anyone has really studied this is detail but if anyone has it would be in Fletcher and Rossing's texts (if not originated by them). Various schools of thought are split on this in the classical guitar world. I recall Pepe Romero's book teaching that the strings should always be plucked at the same spot, just behind the sound hole in the direction of the bridge (I am pretty sure it was Romero, but could be Parkening) and that any other variations on tone could be achieved by varying the attack angle of the nails, pressure applied to the string, etc. In other words his method supports the idea that one gets overall superior sound in one place and that other variety can be achieved by controlling the attack parameters. However, not everyone agrees with this. I have seem video of Julian Bream where he will sometimes pluck over the finger board. It is also quite customary for Flamenco guitarists to play fast runs by plucking closer to the bridge but this is not for tone as much as the string feels stiffer there making it easier to bounce the fingers off the string, in contrast to feeling like a loose rope or wet spaghetti when plucked further in. Based on this you can see that there are other factors than sound that contribute to these decisions.
I cannot say for sure that Romero is correct (or the comment I have attributed to Romero) but in my experience it sure seems to be. When the hand drapes over the strings the fingers will lie across them diagonally, each finger touching the string at a slightly different place. This very fact makes it impossible to achieve consistency in placement, especially when playing chords. Perhaps they are in a small enough neighborhood about the sweet spot that it doesn't matter. My opinion is that this is true and it is a standard part of classical guitar training. But I have not seen objective data on this and would deffer to that.
The above does not likely hold as much for the electric guitar. While the basic string physics is all the same the amplification, sustain, and to some degree the tone, can all be controlled by electronics. With just a plain amp you can still hear the variety of tones generated by pick placement but the other issues that exist in generating a reliable note on the classical just do not exist for the electric. At the extreme I would guess that a large enough effect rack could make attack precision an unnecessary skill. |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | This is an interesting question. I'd refer to texts by Fletcher and Rossing on the subject as they are world leading experts in the physics of musical instruments. I can only tell you what I've learned from guitar playing, specifically classical guitar.
You should know that the brightness of the note produced by the string depends on where you pluck it (I am referring only to guitar and not hammered or bowed strings). So it is hard to say that any spot is "sweet" since that is somewhat subjective. If you wanted warm tones, al la Wes Montgomery, you would be wise to pluck at the mid point as that will accentuate the fundamental and kill a lot of the harmonics. If you wanted a very twangy tone you would want to pluck near the bridge as that will excite a lot of high frequency overtones and with considerable amplitude. So it would seem like you do NOT want to stay in one spot if you want variety and control of your tone. But who's to say which of those tones is "sweet"?
There are other factors to consider. By experimenting with the attack placement one may sacrifice other qualities like sustain and volume. So there is a trade off and I am not sure anyone has really studied this is detail but if anyone has it would be in Fletcher and Rossing's texts (if not originated by them). Various schools of thought are split on this in the classical guitar world. I recall Pepe Romero's book teaching that the strings should always be plucked at the same spot, just behind the sound hole in the direction of the bridge (I am pretty sure it was Romero, but could be Parkening) and that any other variations on tone could be achieved by varying the attack angle of the nails, pressure applied to the string, etc. In other words his method supports the idea that one gets overall superior sound in one place and that other variety can be achieved by controlling the attack parameters. However, not everyone agrees with this. I have seem video of Julian Bream where he will sometimes pluck over the finger board. It is also quite customary for Flamenco guitarists to play fast runs by plucking closer to the bridge but this is not for tone as much as the string feels stiffer there making it easier to bounce the fingers off the string, in contrast to feeling like a loose rope or wet spaghetti when plucked further in. Based on this you can see that there are other factors than sound that contribute to these decisions.
I cannot say for sure that Romero is correct (or the comment I have attributed to Romero) but in my experience it sure seems to be. When the hand drapes over the strings the fingers will lie across them diagonally, each finger touching the string at a slightly different place. This very fact makes it impossible to achieve consistency in placement, especially when playing chords. Perhaps they are in a small enough neighborhood about the sweet spot that it doesn't matter. My opinion is that this is true and it is a standard part of classical guitar training. But I have not seen objective data on this and would deffer to that.
The above does not likely hold as much for the electric guitar. While the basic string physics is all the same the amplification, sustain, and to some degree the tone, can all be controlled by electronics. With just a plain amp you can still hear the variety of tones generated by pick placement but the other issues that exist in generating a reliable note on the classical just do not exist for the electric. At the extreme I would guess that a large enough effect rack could make attack precision an unnecessary skill. | This might be more an add-on on @Noah 's answer.
There is a fundamental difference between plucking and bowing:
For plucking, you basically get the string out of its "resting" state and then let the string vibrate. If you pluck it in the middle, the initial state will be more like a symmetric triangle whereas, the more you pluck it near one end, the more it will be like a saw. Even if the harmonic content won't stay the same over time, it is widely known in sound synthesis that the saw will have a greater harmonic content than a triangle. Basically because it's further from the sinusoidal shape of the fundamental. The more you pluck it near the end, the brighter it will sound.
For bowing the situation is different because you are continuously inputting energy to the string and *the position where you now won't be a node or an antinode* of the vibration: you can try with a rope attached on one end to a wall, and try to excite it with an up and down motion of your hand. If you manage to get it oscillate at its fundamental frequency, the antinode won't be located on your hand: the rope is more oscillating somewhere near its middle. It is also not a node, as you hand is moving. So, where you now is not the initial place of greater amplitude as it with plucking. There is also a lot of other factor like the input wave of the bow which might be close to a square because of the stick-slip mechanism which actually makes the string vibrate and also the feedback (mechanical) between the bow and the string, but that was not the point I wanted to make.... |
108,334 | My understanding is that each string on a musical instrument/chordophone has a "sweet spot", such that when a string is activated at that point, the "best" sound is produced.
Further, a string can be activated by a hammer (piano), bow (violin), tangent (clavichord), or plectrum (harpsichord, guitar).
* **For a given (possibly "ideal") string, is the "sweet spot" fixed, or is its position affected by the activation method?**
* **What is the basis for that relationship (or lack thereof)?**
---
**The motivation** for the question comes from imagining a keyboard instrument in which the action can be manipulated so that notes can be played with a hammer, plectrum, or tangent. Would each mechanism need to strike at the same point, or could the strike-point vary?
--- | 2020/12/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/108334",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/70803/"
] | According to [this source](https://www.jjburred.com/research/pdf/burred_acoustics_piano.pdf) there is a physical reason for where a piano wire is struck and the best location for plucking would be different:
>
> After many tests throughout the history of the piano, it was determined that
> the best strike point is between 1/7 and 1/8 the length of the string. In general, it can be verified that if the point where a string is plucked (not struck) coincides with a node of any one of the vibration modes, that mode will not be excited. The most intuitive case is the fundamental of a string fixed at both ends. Its nodes are at the ends, which means that the greatest excitation of the fundamental will happen if the string is plucked exactly in its center, that is, at the antinode of the first mode. As the string is plucked further from the center, it vibrates less, and it is impossible to excite it by plucking right at an end. Likewise, if a string is plucked at 1/7 the length, the 7th mode is not excited, along with its multiple integers: 14th, 21st,.... In music, this phenomenon can be an advantage, since the 7th harmonic is dissonant to the tempered minor 7th. This fact has been utilized as a justification for the choice of strike point in the piano, and it is still
> affirmed in some relatively recent articles and books.
>
>
>
The report cites the following books for the paragraph I quoted above:
H.F. Olson. *Music, Physics and Engineering*. Dover, 1967.
C.A. Culver. *Musical acoustics*. McGraw-Hill, 1956.
E. Good. *Giraffes, black dragons and other pianos*. Stanford University
Press, 1982. | This might be more an add-on on @Noah 's answer.
There is a fundamental difference between plucking and bowing:
For plucking, you basically get the string out of its "resting" state and then let the string vibrate. If you pluck it in the middle, the initial state will be more like a symmetric triangle whereas, the more you pluck it near one end, the more it will be like a saw. Even if the harmonic content won't stay the same over time, it is widely known in sound synthesis that the saw will have a greater harmonic content than a triangle. Basically because it's further from the sinusoidal shape of the fundamental. The more you pluck it near the end, the brighter it will sound.
For bowing the situation is different because you are continuously inputting energy to the string and *the position where you now won't be a node or an antinode* of the vibration: you can try with a rope attached on one end to a wall, and try to excite it with an up and down motion of your hand. If you manage to get it oscillate at its fundamental frequency, the antinode won't be located on your hand: the rope is more oscillating somewhere near its middle. It is also not a node, as you hand is moving. So, where you now is not the initial place of greater amplitude as it with plucking. There is also a lot of other factor like the input wave of the bow which might be close to a square because of the stick-slip mechanism which actually makes the string vibrate and also the feedback (mechanical) between the bow and the string, but that was not the point I wanted to make.... |
30,008,195 | I'm currently working on a web project written in java. Coming from Symfony2 background, I'm looking for a way to handle web form generation and validation similar to Symfony's [Form](http://symfony.com/doc/2.5/book/forms.html) component. What this component does is generate a form based on an `Entity` and validate it upon submission. There is also a possibility to have nested/embedded sub-forms.
Is there a similar library/framework I could use in java to achieve the same results? Is there a way to do this with [Spring](https://spring.io/), perhaps? | 2015/05/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30008195",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/393805/"
] | yes it is possible, see:
<http://www.thymeleaf.org/doc/tutorials/2.1/thymeleafspring.html#dynamic-fields>
<http://www.bincsoft.com/blog/thymeleaf-and-lists-in-forms/>
[Thymeleaf and #fields.hasErrors](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/33715938/thymeleaf-and-fields-haserrors) | At the time I posted this question there wasn't really a good answer to this question. It seems that now you can use [Spring Validation Form](https://spring.io/guides/gs/validating-form-input/) which is quite similar to Symfony's Form Validation. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | >
> Why do people care about reputation points?
>
>
>
Honestly, I don't know.
>
> Why do I care about reputation points ?
>
>
>
My first motivation to get reputation points here was to put a bounty on my [very first question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/13880302/customizing-the-scrollbar-programmatically).
Now that I have enough rep to put huge bounties on many questions, I'm still interested by those *imaginary internet points*. Why?
When I spend some time in a contribution here it is mainly for one reason : I hope (and I believe) that what I'm writing will be useful to others. (SO is the most useful site in my job every day... so contributing positively is nothing more than giving back what I receive from this site)
When I receive +10 rep for one of my contribution, it is like a confirmation that I wasn't wrong : "what I wrote is useful to someone... that was my primary goal."
Additionally, the total reputation represent also kind of "peers recognition". IMHO this recognition is something important too keep motivation in my daily job. Let's say that it gives me the feeling that "I'm not that bad at programming."
Do I **really** care about rep ? No, not *really*... it is just kind of artificial reward for an unpaid work. | It has a lot to do:
**FIRST** it's a personal evaluation to know where you are know:
* **are you** still a noob that is not consider a developer yet? and still asking a basic questions and still can't give a mid-level answer?
* **are you** asking a more professional questions that can came from a real developer?
* **are you** asking a valuable questions that make a lot of developers gain benefits from it?
* **are you** now a real professional software developer that can reach things others can't?
**SECOND** it gives the other a general idea about you(I do saw a lot of companies asking for links of SO & LinkedIn accounts beside your CV in their vacant announcement)
**THIRD** depending on how powerful you are, you can be banned from asking questions on SO anymore, you can be a regular person asking and answering, you can be a person who can review other posts and make changes to it besides closing or opening questions, or you can be a moderator who participating in moderating SO. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | IMO the main value of rep is so that I can give it away as bounties. Though I will admit it was a bit embarrassing when I got downvoted 11 times on [apparently terrible question](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/240737/question-closed-by-votes-from-people-who-do-not-appear-to-be-familiar-with-the-t) | It seems to me that I am getting better answers now that my rep is not too low.
Perhaps I am biased and that I simply have learnt to phrase my questions properly, but I can't help notice that very low rep users tend to be told to do their homeworks.. In short, my question simply gets read, and I get advice on how to improve it.
Several others have mentioned showing off their rep to a potential employer. I think it is a double edged sword. Some may conclude that you're spending more time levelling up than actually working. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | Some time ago I said to myself that I want to give something back to the community after years of "unpaid" usage of SO. So I started answering questions. But that was not enough. Especially at the beginning without all the necessary priviledges to really participate. So I wanted to reach at least 50 rep so I can comment everywhere. Then I saw 125 rep for down-voting and said to myself, I've got to have that otherwise you can't "mark" bad content.
Now I'm eager to get 10k for more moderation priviledges, but this will be a long journey and I doubt that I will stop answering questions when I reach that goal.
Gratitude in the form of rep is really nice for my peace of mind. | Personally I care *a bit* because you need reputation to start bounties. Using SO as a development tool, there are objective benefits to rep
* Starting bounties on questions that are important to you
* Privileges on SO. I rarely use these "similar question, close request, etc."
* Some employees allow you to submit your SO profile, and a high rep *could* help you in a hiring situation
With less rep, it's harder to start a bounty, and harder to get a great answer to a problem you have. That in itself is valuable to me. Hell, I'd purchase "bounty-use-only-rep" if that was a thing so I can get the answers I need.
Of course there are some subjective reasons including one's own ego, but I personally don't care about that. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | We like to feel useful in this uncertain world. Upvotes = usefulness. | I agree with everything Oded said.
I think also, concept of gamification. This is human behavior - we like "achievements" and "points". We enjoy the reputation and good word of peers.
From the beginning, Stack Overflow included gamification. You unlock privileges and earn badges. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | We like to feel useful in this uncertain world. Upvotes = usefulness. | Personally I care *a bit* because you need reputation to start bounties. Using SO as a development tool, there are objective benefits to rep
* Starting bounties on questions that are important to you
* Privileges on SO. I rarely use these "similar question, close request, etc."
* Some employees allow you to submit your SO profile, and a high rep *could* help you in a hiring situation
With less rep, it's harder to start a bounty, and harder to get a great answer to a problem you have. That in itself is valuable to me. Hell, I'd purchase "bounty-use-only-rep" if that was a thing so I can get the answers I need.
Of course there are some subjective reasons including one's own ego, but I personally don't care about that. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | IMO the main value of rep is so that I can give it away as bounties. Though I will admit it was a bit embarrassing when I got downvoted 11 times on [apparently terrible question](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/240737/question-closed-by-votes-from-people-who-do-not-appear-to-be-familiar-with-the-t) | Reputation points are one proxy for validation.
We all want some recognition that our thoughts and ideas resonate with others. An up-vote signals that our idea was correct to some degree. Just as responses to your question validate the question itself. (If you thought that posting your question would solicit nothing but silence, why put the effort in posting it?)
It's all part of being a social animal. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | I'd like to throw my hat in the ring on this question.
Developers are not often thanked for the thing they want to be thanked for the most
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
As developers we rarely get a direct thank you from anyone on figuring out a complex problem quickly. Business users rarely pat you on the back and tell you that your algorithm for determining the best way to compare apples and oranges was exactly what they were looking for. It's less about the points themselves and more about the feeling of accomplishment when you help someone with a complex problem, and large amount of upvotes makes the accolades seem even more plentiful. Yay accolades!
Developers are rarely "just done" with something
------------------------------------------------
Developers spend a lot of time hammering out lame forms and doing back end work that never seems to end and takes a week or two to complete. Stack answers (and questions) are easy, digestible ways to get a feeling of completion, and it's much easier to say that an accepted answer is done and you'll never have to look at it again.
Stack accounts are public and can be used to display competence for your career
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I'd love to hit 10k before I move to my next position, and I'll list it on my resume. That shows I have some level of communication skill with fellow developers, and that I contribute positively in an environment where I know nothing and have to quickly understand a possibly complex situation.
We want powers
--------------
Big rep means big responsibilities, and eventual sorta-modship, only this isn't because I know bob and tim and they can get me there. You get mod powers because you deserve them for your contributions to the community. You **earn** privileges.
It's a community
----------------
And we like to be liked! Some people equate internet points to personal validation, which is fine. But it may also cloud their judgement as to how important the points really are.
Edit: As an aside, I'm even excited that this post is getting upvotes, **and I don't even earn reputation for it**. So, it's not all about the points sometimes! | Get points, save the day, get the girl, profit. Isn't it obvious? I've got more rep than @Coffee, so I'm obviously cooler and smarter. William has a bit more rep than me, but I can catch up. Oded has more rep than I'll collect in a lifetime, so I'll either kiss his \*\*\* so I'm in the cool crowd or I'll rebel it out and find a way to put him down because I'm secretly jelluz.
See more:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Competition> |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | Get points, save the day, get the girl, profit. Isn't it obvious? I've got more rep than @Coffee, so I'm obviously cooler and smarter. William has a bit more rep than me, but I can catch up. Oded has more rep than I'll collect in a lifetime, so I'll either kiss his \*\*\* so I'm in the cool crowd or I'll rebel it out and find a way to put him down because I'm secretly jelluz.
See more:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Competition> | >
> Why do people care about reputation points?
>
>
>
Honestly, I don't know.
>
> Why do I care about reputation points ?
>
>
>
My first motivation to get reputation points here was to put a bounty on my [very first question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/13880302/customizing-the-scrollbar-programmatically).
Now that I have enough rep to put huge bounties on many questions, I'm still interested by those *imaginary internet points*. Why?
When I spend some time in a contribution here it is mainly for one reason : I hope (and I believe) that what I'm writing will be useful to others. (SO is the most useful site in my job every day... so contributing positively is nothing more than giving back what I receive from this site)
When I receive +10 rep for one of my contribution, it is like a confirmation that I wasn't wrong : "what I wrote is useful to someone... that was my primary goal."
Additionally, the total reputation represent also kind of "peers recognition". IMHO this recognition is something important too keep motivation in my daily job. Let's say that it gives me the feeling that "I'm not that bad at programming."
Do I **really** care about rep ? No, not *really*... it is just kind of artificial reward for an unpaid work. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | Gaining those points has a couple of advantages. It is, of course, a great way to impress family, friends and co-workers. I mean, who hasn't bragged about their reputation to a random aunt at a birthday party? ;-)
You get more privileges on the site, which is a good thing if you like to feel in control. You can see the amount of upvotes and downvotes, and you can see deleted answers, which might sometimes shine some light on an otherwise confusing thread. Then again, those privileges are about as useful as the points themselves. Will it help *you* to be able to edit a question? If you don't care about the points, you probably also don't care about many of those privileges.
One possibility you gain, is to set a bounty on a question, which will attract other people who also care about reputation. Your question will be more visible and is more likely to be answered, so the reputation you gain is also a currency with which you can 'buy' expertise from others.
There is another real life advantage. Your answers and their score result in a showcase of your capabilities, which can attract offers from companies through StackOverflow Careers.
Those, for me, are reasons to care about points. Now, my goal isn't really to search for questions that will get me the most reputation. I'm perfectly fine with a single vote, and I got quite a couple of accepted answers with no votes at all (Unsung Hero badge). So personally I care more about getting my answer accepted than getting loads of points. To me, an accepted answer indicates that I understood the problem and was able to give an answer that solved the problem and was written at the right level of understanding.
*Executive summary:*
So to sum up: Points are good for social status, site privileges, online showcase resulting in real-life job opportunities and acknowledgement/appreciation by peers. Some people won't care for any of these, and others might value any combination of these factors. | When I mention in my resume that I'm in the *TOP 200* on Stack Overflow I expect them to at least invite me. |
275,369 | I see people talk a lot on here about the amount of points they have, worries about people downvoting them, etc. Is there some advantage to having these points that I'm not aware of? I can't see why anyone would really care, so I feel I must be missing something here. | 2014/10/26 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/275369",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/847338/"
] | IMO the main value of rep is so that I can give it away as bounties. Though I will admit it was a bit embarrassing when I got downvoted 11 times on [apparently terrible question](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/240737/question-closed-by-votes-from-people-who-do-not-appear-to-be-familiar-with-the-t) | We like to feel useful in this uncertain world. Upvotes = usefulness. |
5,616,542 | Ruby on Rails has supported signed cookie-based sessions [for quite some time](http://ryandaigle.com/articles/2007/2/21/what-s-new-in-edge-rails-cookie-based-sessions), with a few [encrypted implementations](https://github.com/FooBarWidget/encrypted_cookie_store) springing up since then. [Python](http://beaker.groovie.org/) and [PHP](https://github.com/bcelenza/zend-cookie-session) also have implementations.
*Does such a beast exist for the Java servlet containers Jetty or Tomcat?*
We've received significant performance gains over RDBMS-based sessions with the PHP implementation in our clustered environment, and I'd be interested in trying something similar with one of our Java applications (which currently uses Jetty 7).
I'm aware of other ways to achieve this goal ([memcached](http://code.google.com/p/jetty-session-memcached/), [synchronized in-memory](http://www.terracotta.org/web-sessions/) caches) but I believe that for our particular needs the limitations of this storage method (sessions finalization before output, in-efficient storage after the 4K cookie size limit, reliance on an ultra-secret server-side key) are outweighed by the simpler deployment environment for this particular application.
If an implementation doesn't exist, does anybody have any ideas why it wouldn't? (e.g. Java sessions are typically larger than 4K, and so aren't as amenable to this storage method) | 2011/04/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5616542",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/701439/"
] | We have implemented the Session-In-Cookie and used it successfully in a Tomcat cluster to allow session-sharing among 20 nodes and thus enable zero-outage deployments. I have just written the first part of a two-part series on the implementation here: <http://blog.shinetech.com/2012/12/18/simple-session-sharing-in-tomcat-cluster-using-the-session-in-cookie-pattern/>. This part deals with the basic implementation, the security aspects will be covered in the second part. | I'm not aware of anything in either container that would serialize a HttpSession to a cookie for you. You could achieve this sort of thing by implementing a [Filter](http://download.oracle.com/javaee/1.3/api/javax/servlet/Filter.html) that would be able to serialize session state to a cookie on a response to a web client and deserialize it on the request. You are still bound to any client side cookie limitations and you should carefully consider the security implications of the state you are storing client side and/or how much you trust the client presenting the cookie. |
5,616,542 | Ruby on Rails has supported signed cookie-based sessions [for quite some time](http://ryandaigle.com/articles/2007/2/21/what-s-new-in-edge-rails-cookie-based-sessions), with a few [encrypted implementations](https://github.com/FooBarWidget/encrypted_cookie_store) springing up since then. [Python](http://beaker.groovie.org/) and [PHP](https://github.com/bcelenza/zend-cookie-session) also have implementations.
*Does such a beast exist for the Java servlet containers Jetty or Tomcat?*
We've received significant performance gains over RDBMS-based sessions with the PHP implementation in our clustered environment, and I'd be interested in trying something similar with one of our Java applications (which currently uses Jetty 7).
I'm aware of other ways to achieve this goal ([memcached](http://code.google.com/p/jetty-session-memcached/), [synchronized in-memory](http://www.terracotta.org/web-sessions/) caches) but I believe that for our particular needs the limitations of this storage method (sessions finalization before output, in-efficient storage after the 4K cookie size limit, reliance on an ultra-secret server-side key) are outweighed by the simpler deployment environment for this particular application.
If an implementation doesn't exist, does anybody have any ideas why it wouldn't? (e.g. Java sessions are typically larger than 4K, and so aren't as amenable to this storage method) | 2011/04/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5616542",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/701439/"
] | We have implemented the Session-In-Cookie and used it successfully in a Tomcat cluster to allow session-sharing among 20 nodes and thus enable zero-outage deployments. I have just written the first part of a two-part series on the implementation here: <http://blog.shinetech.com/2012/12/18/simple-session-sharing-in-tomcat-cluster-using-the-session-in-cookie-pattern/>. This part deals with the basic implementation, the security aspects will be covered in the second part. | It seems like there are two questions here:
1. Java/J2EE implementations of effectively stateless session-management.
2. Secure session implementations.
Regarding the first question: Yes, depending on the size of the session-graph (deep nesting of all session variables/objects) the cookie size limitation (which is effectively an HTTP Header limitation) is a significant factor. If the session-graph neatly fits inside the HTTP Header limitation (which is to some extent configurable on the web-server side) and/or can be augmented with REST based URL query parameters (to alleviate some of the state information on the server) ... then a cookie implementation is possible. This would be programmatic versus container-managed however.
Regarding the second question: Securing sessions is another matter. The notorious JSESSIONID common cookie in Java/J2EE systems is a simple token key to the in-memory or disk-cached session on the application server. It is just a map key. With that key, anyone can steal or impersonate the user-session. This is probably one of the weakest links in the entire container-managed session apparatus. There are commercial secure-session products available that prevent session-hijacking by cookie stealing, prevent replay-attacks (that can defeat SSL by capturing the replaying the encrypted login conversation to obtain a session) and other attack vectors. One product I am aware of can do this with no changes to the code (via a security filter). However, I am not aware of any general frameworks or open-source initiatives to plug this hole, probably because it requires a level of expertise that is beyond general application development. |
5,778 | In the show, Ash Ketchum hasn't caught any legendary Pokémon and he loses a lot of battles and people say that he is a pathetic trainer. Why does he not catch legendary Pokémon to expand his arsenal? | 2013/11/07 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/5778",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/2684/"
] | There are several reasons to that:
* It's a TV show, you wouldn't watch a TV show where the hero is absolutely the strongest and no one has a chance of defeating him, right? Think of what would happen should Ash have caught Dialga, Palkia or Arceus.
* It disrupts "the balance", it was portrayed in the anime that most legendary pokemon serve a role as some sort of "god" of a force of nature, (Kyogre of the Rain, Palkia of space, etc). If you capture them, you might disrupt the balance by "not letting them do their jobs".
Those are the two excuses I know. | Look what happens in the movies when a legendary leaves its post. Mass chaos and destruction would happen (though I suppose that is debatable. I've counted two legend trainers that I can remember, so it might just be the ORIGINAL legends and their young are safe to catch).
Though I do agree somewhat: it would be nice if Ash could at least capture them and call on their aid while generally leaving them alone. |
5,778 | In the show, Ash Ketchum hasn't caught any legendary Pokémon and he loses a lot of battles and people say that he is a pathetic trainer. Why does he not catch legendary Pokémon to expand his arsenal? | 2013/11/07 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/5778",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/2684/"
] | There are several reasons to that:
* It's a TV show, you wouldn't watch a TV show where the hero is absolutely the strongest and no one has a chance of defeating him, right? Think of what would happen should Ash have caught Dialga, Palkia or Arceus.
* It disrupts "the balance", it was portrayed in the anime that most legendary pokemon serve a role as some sort of "god" of a force of nature, (Kyogre of the Rain, Palkia of space, etc). If you capture them, you might disrupt the balance by "not letting them do their jobs".
Those are the two excuses I know. | Moral quandries aside,
He has yet to get a lasting grip on a master ball, and except in the Safari zone, you'll notice he's never been good at capturing pokemon (his pokemon-per-badge ratio is pretty low). He also very rarely buys or gets anything better than the most basic pokeballs if you notice. And if you've ever played the games, you'll know how important those better balls are for better captures.
So, in short... shoddy equipment.
Also, second reason... if you notice, he rarely captures, period (again, with the exception of the safari zone). He's more like the coach that focuses on training his team rather than the coach who trades for better players. (Also, remember his experience with Charizard... he knows too powerful pokemon types can be hard for him to handle, and later on he just kept in the habit as far as I can tell. I mean, think how often he had to get skin grafts. |
5,778 | In the show, Ash Ketchum hasn't caught any legendary Pokémon and he loses a lot of battles and people say that he is a pathetic trainer. Why does he not catch legendary Pokémon to expand his arsenal? | 2013/11/07 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/5778",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/2684/"
] | There are several reasons to that:
* It's a TV show, you wouldn't watch a TV show where the hero is absolutely the strongest and no one has a chance of defeating him, right? Think of what would happen should Ash have caught Dialga, Palkia or Arceus.
* It disrupts "the balance", it was portrayed in the anime that most legendary pokemon serve a role as some sort of "god" of a force of nature, (Kyogre of the Rain, Palkia of space, etc). If you capture them, you might disrupt the balance by "not letting them do their jobs".
Those are the two excuses I know. | I'm going to answer this question with a bit more respect for the show and Ash as a character than most people give it credit for. I think there are some reasons Ash doesn't catch legendary pokemon.
Ash only obtains a pokemon when it is natural - it's never forced
-----------------------------------------------------------------
Ash's pokemon are not an "arsenal". Ash's stated goal is indeed to become the best pokemon trainer of all time. There is an implication that this means catching "them all", but in the context of the show, and Ash's character, this is considered to a long-term goal. There is no panic of missed opportunity when an encounter with a legendary pokemon does not lead to a capture.
To Ash, being a "master Pokemon trainer" means, first and foremost, treating his captured pokemon with respect and maintaining a friendship with them. He always does what he thinks is best for them. As such, any time he obtains a pokemon, it it's a natural thing; not forced. If it doesn't happen, then it doesn't happen.
Lastly, the anime often contrasts Ash's personality against those who would weigh and measure a pokemon's stats. Ash is no scientist - I think we would all agree he isn't very smart. He bases almost all his decisions on instinct - he cares not for statistics and min/maxing, which would realistically be required to become a Pokemon Master. The show does this on purpose - it considers getting out there to experience life a superior way of learning than sitting at home reading stats (this is probably most exemplified by May's brother Max). For this reason, Ash will never freak out about the potential lost by failing to capture a legendary pokemon. |
5,778 | In the show, Ash Ketchum hasn't caught any legendary Pokémon and he loses a lot of battles and people say that he is a pathetic trainer. Why does he not catch legendary Pokémon to expand his arsenal? | 2013/11/07 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/5778",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/2684/"
] | Moral quandries aside,
He has yet to get a lasting grip on a master ball, and except in the Safari zone, you'll notice he's never been good at capturing pokemon (his pokemon-per-badge ratio is pretty low). He also very rarely buys or gets anything better than the most basic pokeballs if you notice. And if you've ever played the games, you'll know how important those better balls are for better captures.
So, in short... shoddy equipment.
Also, second reason... if you notice, he rarely captures, period (again, with the exception of the safari zone). He's more like the coach that focuses on training his team rather than the coach who trades for better players. (Also, remember his experience with Charizard... he knows too powerful pokemon types can be hard for him to handle, and later on he just kept in the habit as far as I can tell. I mean, think how often he had to get skin grafts. | Look what happens in the movies when a legendary leaves its post. Mass chaos and destruction would happen (though I suppose that is debatable. I've counted two legend trainers that I can remember, so it might just be the ORIGINAL legends and their young are safe to catch).
Though I do agree somewhat: it would be nice if Ash could at least capture them and call on their aid while generally leaving them alone. |
5,778 | In the show, Ash Ketchum hasn't caught any legendary Pokémon and he loses a lot of battles and people say that he is a pathetic trainer. Why does he not catch legendary Pokémon to expand his arsenal? | 2013/11/07 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/5778",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/2684/"
] | I'm going to answer this question with a bit more respect for the show and Ash as a character than most people give it credit for. I think there are some reasons Ash doesn't catch legendary pokemon.
Ash only obtains a pokemon when it is natural - it's never forced
-----------------------------------------------------------------
Ash's pokemon are not an "arsenal". Ash's stated goal is indeed to become the best pokemon trainer of all time. There is an implication that this means catching "them all", but in the context of the show, and Ash's character, this is considered to a long-term goal. There is no panic of missed opportunity when an encounter with a legendary pokemon does not lead to a capture.
To Ash, being a "master Pokemon trainer" means, first and foremost, treating his captured pokemon with respect and maintaining a friendship with them. He always does what he thinks is best for them. As such, any time he obtains a pokemon, it it's a natural thing; not forced. If it doesn't happen, then it doesn't happen.
Lastly, the anime often contrasts Ash's personality against those who would weigh and measure a pokemon's stats. Ash is no scientist - I think we would all agree he isn't very smart. He bases almost all his decisions on instinct - he cares not for statistics and min/maxing, which would realistically be required to become a Pokemon Master. The show does this on purpose - it considers getting out there to experience life a superior way of learning than sitting at home reading stats (this is probably most exemplified by May's brother Max). For this reason, Ash will never freak out about the potential lost by failing to capture a legendary pokemon. | Look what happens in the movies when a legendary leaves its post. Mass chaos and destruction would happen (though I suppose that is debatable. I've counted two legend trainers that I can remember, so it might just be the ORIGINAL legends and their young are safe to catch).
Though I do agree somewhat: it would be nice if Ash could at least capture them and call on their aid while generally leaving them alone. |
5,778 | In the show, Ash Ketchum hasn't caught any legendary Pokémon and he loses a lot of battles and people say that he is a pathetic trainer. Why does he not catch legendary Pokémon to expand his arsenal? | 2013/11/07 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/5778",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/2684/"
] | Moral quandries aside,
He has yet to get a lasting grip on a master ball, and except in the Safari zone, you'll notice he's never been good at capturing pokemon (his pokemon-per-badge ratio is pretty low). He also very rarely buys or gets anything better than the most basic pokeballs if you notice. And if you've ever played the games, you'll know how important those better balls are for better captures.
So, in short... shoddy equipment.
Also, second reason... if you notice, he rarely captures, period (again, with the exception of the safari zone). He's more like the coach that focuses on training his team rather than the coach who trades for better players. (Also, remember his experience with Charizard... he knows too powerful pokemon types can be hard for him to handle, and later on he just kept in the habit as far as I can tell. I mean, think how often he had to get skin grafts. | I'm going to answer this question with a bit more respect for the show and Ash as a character than most people give it credit for. I think there are some reasons Ash doesn't catch legendary pokemon.
Ash only obtains a pokemon when it is natural - it's never forced
-----------------------------------------------------------------
Ash's pokemon are not an "arsenal". Ash's stated goal is indeed to become the best pokemon trainer of all time. There is an implication that this means catching "them all", but in the context of the show, and Ash's character, this is considered to a long-term goal. There is no panic of missed opportunity when an encounter with a legendary pokemon does not lead to a capture.
To Ash, being a "master Pokemon trainer" means, first and foremost, treating his captured pokemon with respect and maintaining a friendship with them. He always does what he thinks is best for them. As such, any time he obtains a pokemon, it it's a natural thing; not forced. If it doesn't happen, then it doesn't happen.
Lastly, the anime often contrasts Ash's personality against those who would weigh and measure a pokemon's stats. Ash is no scientist - I think we would all agree he isn't very smart. He bases almost all his decisions on instinct - he cares not for statistics and min/maxing, which would realistically be required to become a Pokemon Master. The show does this on purpose - it considers getting out there to experience life a superior way of learning than sitting at home reading stats (this is probably most exemplified by May's brother Max). For this reason, Ash will never freak out about the potential lost by failing to capture a legendary pokemon. |
49,732 | I am an entrepreneur who entertains patrons in bars and restaurants for profit similar to a DJ.
I am very aware of the legal implications of playing copyrighted music/songs in public and the business/venue is required to hold a license, or licenses, from a Performing Rights Organization (PRO) in order to play music. To further complicate matters, only works that appear in the PRO's Repertoire that venue holds a license for may be played. Small bars and restaurants usually cannot afford to buy licenses from the three major PRO's (ASCAP, BMI, SESAC) to cover most music so many only have a single license (sometimes what's included with their jukebox).
As an entertainer I would like to use this as a marketing tool. But, the issue I have is that some PRO's do not offer their Repertoire as a download or automated access to their Repertoire. This makes it extremely difficult for entertainers to cull their own music/playlists to ensure compliance within a venue's specific PRO license.
My understanding is that the responsible party for copyright violation in this situation would be the venue owner, not the entertainer. Is that correct?
I really hate to put my clients at risk, but processing my entire music library to tag each song for which PRO they are represented by will be nearly impossible! What about when an artist switches PRO's? I don't know how common this last issue would be, but this is a serious issue without automated access to all PRO databases!
Some owners don't care and will claim ignorance (no excuse), and beg for forgiveness if they are pinched. For these situations, what is the risk to me?
Thanks! | 2020/03/07 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/49732",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/30398/"
] | >
> I really hate to put my clients at risk, but processing my entire music library to tag each song for which PRO they are represented by will be nearly impossible!
>
>
>
So what? You run a business; it's your responsibility to comply with the law. If that costs you time and/or money then that is a cost of doing business and should be reflected in the rates you charge your clients. If the market rate does not cover your costs; stop running an unprofitable business. | Alright. I'm going to answer this question myself.\ in case someone else ever comes looking for something like this.
I had about an hour-long conversation with a BMI Business rep this morning. I had a misunderstanding about the PRO licensing. Apparently, by copyright law, all bars, restaurants, and businesses that have to have a PRO license, must purchase all three to be in compliance. So, I was told to ensure that any venue I contract with provides either a copy of their PRO licenses, or their PRO license number in the contract. If they don't hold all those licenses, don't do business with them. |
3,653 | We are attempting to deploy some code into a production SalesForce instance. But deployement fail because already installed third party packages are failing the unit test requirements. We get the following error on all existing unit tests.
line -1, column -1: Previous load of class failed: pkb\_Controller: line 1, column 24: Entity is not org-accessible
Can you please advice us on how to fix this? and whats causing this error? | 2012/10/24 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/3653",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/792/"
] | We had the same issue and the root cause was that there were (3) Article Types enabled with the KB2 install and one, Error Message Article Type, was disabled. We were then using only (2) Article Types and the test case was written to address (3). Activating that unneeded type resolved the issue.
The test case just needs to be revised to provide a correct resolution. | Please check that the knowledge is enabled in your ORG also check that you are knowledge user if you are deploying the app in production.We have used the PKB and we experienced same issues .This request is for PKB application
And by looking into issue it may be due to the name change of the class in both the instance or the method has been renamed .Please check names of all class in both the instance and also try to run the test one by one to figure out which class has been renamed . |
53,317 | **Raven's Inception**
Fluff (no clues):
>
> The horde is chasing you. You run for your life along the main
> street of a small nondescript town you wish you had never set foot in.
> You turn a hard right, put your entire body behind you and crash into
> the door of a building. You burst into a small office in a explosion
> of wooden splinters. Disoriented and with pain throbbing everywhere
> you look around. An ominous staircase leads to a row of heavy ornate
> doors numbered 1 to 4.
>
>
> At the bottom of the staircase sits Leonardo DiCaprio playing with a
> dreidel. He wears a severed raven's head as a hat. The wings of the
> poor animal are shoddily tied to his arms. They barely cover his
> forearms and looks scrawny. It does not look hygienic. As you approach
> him he KaKwaa's twice and hands you a scroll and points at the doors.
>
>
> You look at the scroll, you hear noise outside, the horde has caught
> up...
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jxh2l.jpg)
Tips:
>
> <http://www.highiqpro.com/solve-matrices-iq-problems>
> Drew inspiration from other places as well, I don't know how official the rules stated on that site are.
>
>
>
Hint:
>
> In the big grid there are 3 patterns, you need atleast 2 to to find the final answer.
>
> **1:** Color of the correct answer; this pattern is observed in the solved state of the smaller puzzles
>
>
> **2:** Something to do with a specific recurring shape in the puzzles;this pattern is observed in the **unsolved** state of the smaller puzzles
>
>
> **3:** Something to do with the same shape as in 2; this pattern is observed in the solved state of the smaller puzzles
>
>
>
> | 2017/07/11 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/53317",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/36898/"
] | Partial answer, will update as I go:
**Top left**
>
> Rule 1 - Imagined as a container, the orientation across each row is always upright -> tilted to the right -> upside down.
>
> Rule 2 - Each row contains two solid black squares, a solid black circle, an empty circle, and two empty half-circles.
>
>
>
> The blank must be upside-down, so it can't be #4. We already have two solid black squares so #1 and #2 are out, leaving us with #3 as the answer. This also completes the required quantity of each shape for rule 2.
>
>
>
**Top middle**
>
> Rule 1: There is always an ascending hill, a descending hill, and rounded hill in each row.
>
> Rule 2: Each row contains four unique flowers.
>
>
>
> The blank must contain an ascending hill, ruling out #2. There are already three flowers (purple, yellow, pink) in the middle, ruling out #3 and #4 as one has a duplicate flower colour and one would bring the total flowers to 5. This leaves us with #1 as the answer.
>
>
>
**Top right**
>
> Rule 1: Imagined as a diamond-shaped grid, each successive "cell" will be taken up by 1 fewer column of black and 1 more column of white.
>
> Rule 2: There will always be a circle at the top right with a colour opposite that of its background with a star below and to the left of it.
>
>
>
> Number 4 doesn't have a circle at the top right, so it's out. The only one that has a star below and to the left of the circle is #2, making that my guess at the right answer. (I'm sure there are other rules for the stars but this is the best I could intuit about their placement).
>
>
> | Very partial answer
After trying to solve each matrice from the big matrice
All I know for sure (at least for me) is
**The top middle (flower):**
The pattern for each row is
>
> have 4 distinct flowers
>
> have a mound in the middle and symmetrical hills at the side
>
> Leading me to answer 1 (Similar answer to Gareth's answer)
>
>
>
**The bottom middle (circle and arrows):** The pattern is
>
> the second box is the "instruction"
>
> first row's instruction was to move BOTH right half left, and the left half right
>
> thus this produces the weird inverted circles
>
>
>
> second row's instruction was to delete (indicated by the whiteout) the bottom figure
>
> thus left with only the top figure
>
>
>
> following the third's instruction, join the top separated circle
>
> Hence leading to the answer 1
>
>
>
**The middle right(circles in shapes):** The pattern is
>
> Each row has a circle, hexagon and rectangle
>
> left and right columns always enclose same type of circles
>
>
>
>
> Since third row's left box contains a quarter in a hexagon and this row has no rectangles
>
> We reach the answer 4
>
>
> |
257,282 | I have been looking at ways to derive low voltage rails from a higher voltage and current supply, which in practical terms is about 53-0-53V from a linear power supply (toroidal, bridge rectifier and electrolytic caps).
I naively thought that the circuit below should produce a nice 30V across the test load R3, instead I got a dead zener diode and a nice explosion from transistor Q2 which was somewhat unexpected and disappointing. It actually blew its middle leg off, the poor thing.
The idea is to get +15V and -15V rails to power an op amp or two. I expected that R1, D1, and R2 would drop respectively 38V, 30V and 38V and thus, like a pair of standard series regulators, Q1's emitter would stabilise at 15V (relatively to the hypothetical 0V rail which isn't there) and likewise the collector of Q2 would be at -15V.
What have I done wrong? I am wondering if I've misunderstood the current flow through the PNP, they always make my brain fry because of the reverse sort of nature of them. Anyway, what's my mistake?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f1xlK8.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
update:
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf "these specs").
The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 2.54 V over the zener and +/- 2.1 V over the output resistor.
Strange! Either the simulator does not know that the zener zeners at 30 V, or the transistors draw a lot of base current, but with such a big load resistor that is unlikely.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FzNtf.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/257282",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/107297/"
] | For one thing, a 2N2222 is only rated for 40 V. The 2907 is good for 60, but that still doesn't leave much margin for things to go wrong, particularly at startup.
I suspect the real problem is that the transistors were wired incorrectly. That could leave a direct path thru Q1, D1, and Q2. Poof!
Added about voltages on the transistors
---------------------------------------
Even when everything is working perfectly, each half of the circuit sees 53 V. The 1N4730 is a 3.9 V zener diode. That means, when everything is working perfectly, the transistor bases will be held at ±2 V. Even saying the B-E drop of each transistor is only 600 mV, the emitters will be at ±1.4 V. That means each transistor will see 52 V across it *when everything is perfect*.
Everything is never perfect. How accurate are the ±53 V supplies? What about startup transients? What are the real zener voltages with only half a milliamp thru them? What happens when the load draws some real current, even if only on startup to charge up a capacitor or something?
Did you look up the voltage spec for the transistors you are actually using, not just any datasheet you could find for the generic part number? There are minimum voltage specs somewhere for a 2N2222 and 2N2907, but specific manufacturers sometimes make their parts more capable. You can't use one of those datasheets to tell you the maximum a generic part is good for. To get the numbers I quoted above, I grabbed random datasheets. That means the real specs could be lower than what I quoted.
One transistor is already well out of spec, and the other is close to it. This is not good engineering. | This is an easier way of getting +/-15V from your rails:
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fTkcNt.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
R1 and R2 allow about 2.5mA to flow to the transistor bases and to the 16V zeners. The voltage at the emitters of the transistors will be about 0.7V less than the zener voltage or about +/-15.3V.
While this is a very simple and reliable circuit, note that it is **not** short-circuit or overload proof as a 3-terminal regulator would be.
There are a few linear regulators which can operate from your relatively high supply rails but they will not be all that cheap. Do a parametric search on a distributor or supplier web sites to find them. The negative regulator may be more of a problem, especially as your (presumably unregulated) rails might go considerably higher than 53V peak. While you can use the above circuit to drop down the voltage for a 3-terminal regulator you have to consider the worst-case conditions and how much dissipation the transistors will experience. |
257,282 | I have been looking at ways to derive low voltage rails from a higher voltage and current supply, which in practical terms is about 53-0-53V from a linear power supply (toroidal, bridge rectifier and electrolytic caps).
I naively thought that the circuit below should produce a nice 30V across the test load R3, instead I got a dead zener diode and a nice explosion from transistor Q2 which was somewhat unexpected and disappointing. It actually blew its middle leg off, the poor thing.
The idea is to get +15V and -15V rails to power an op amp or two. I expected that R1, D1, and R2 would drop respectively 38V, 30V and 38V and thus, like a pair of standard series regulators, Q1's emitter would stabilise at 15V (relatively to the hypothetical 0V rail which isn't there) and likewise the collector of Q2 would be at -15V.
What have I done wrong? I am wondering if I've misunderstood the current flow through the PNP, they always make my brain fry because of the reverse sort of nature of them. Anyway, what's my mistake?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f1xlK8.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
update:
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf "these specs").
The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 2.54 V over the zener and +/- 2.1 V over the output resistor.
Strange! Either the simulator does not know that the zener zeners at 30 V, or the transistors draw a lot of base current, but with such a big load resistor that is unlikely.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FzNtf.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/257282",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/107297/"
] | For one thing, a 2N2222 is only rated for 40 V. The 2907 is good for 60, but that still doesn't leave much margin for things to go wrong, particularly at startup.
I suspect the real problem is that the transistors were wired incorrectly. That could leave a direct path thru Q1, D1, and Q2. Poof!
Added about voltages on the transistors
---------------------------------------
Even when everything is working perfectly, each half of the circuit sees 53 V. The 1N4730 is a 3.9 V zener diode. That means, when everything is working perfectly, the transistor bases will be held at ±2 V. Even saying the B-E drop of each transistor is only 600 mV, the emitters will be at ±1.4 V. That means each transistor will see 52 V across it *when everything is perfect*.
Everything is never perfect. How accurate are the ±53 V supplies? What about startup transients? What are the real zener voltages with only half a milliamp thru them? What happens when the load draws some real current, even if only on startup to charge up a capacitor or something?
Did you look up the voltage spec for the transistors you are actually using, not just any datasheet you could find for the generic part number? There are minimum voltage specs somewhere for a 2N2222 and 2N2907, but specific manufacturers sometimes make their parts more capable. You can't use one of those datasheets to tell you the maximum a generic part is good for. To get the numbers I quoted above, I grabbed random datasheets. That means the real specs could be lower than what I quoted.
One transistor is already well out of spec, and the other is close to it. This is not good engineering. | * IF Vcemax for Q2 is 40V and beyond in secondary breakdown then Ve max is -12V
* Vb for Q2 is 1/2 of Vz (D1=3.9) or -2V approx. this Vbe = -10V while spec is -5V ABSOLUTE MAX.
* due to the catastrophic mode of failure for Vbe reverse ,
* and your careless design,
* only you are responsible for it's middle leg getting blown off, perhaps by construction errors. |
257,282 | I have been looking at ways to derive low voltage rails from a higher voltage and current supply, which in practical terms is about 53-0-53V from a linear power supply (toroidal, bridge rectifier and electrolytic caps).
I naively thought that the circuit below should produce a nice 30V across the test load R3, instead I got a dead zener diode and a nice explosion from transistor Q2 which was somewhat unexpected and disappointing. It actually blew its middle leg off, the poor thing.
The idea is to get +15V and -15V rails to power an op amp or two. I expected that R1, D1, and R2 would drop respectively 38V, 30V and 38V and thus, like a pair of standard series regulators, Q1's emitter would stabilise at 15V (relatively to the hypothetical 0V rail which isn't there) and likewise the collector of Q2 would be at -15V.
What have I done wrong? I am wondering if I've misunderstood the current flow through the PNP, they always make my brain fry because of the reverse sort of nature of them. Anyway, what's my mistake?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f1xlK8.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
update:
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf "these specs").
The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 2.54 V over the zener and +/- 2.1 V over the output resistor.
Strange! Either the simulator does not know that the zener zeners at 30 V, or the transistors draw a lot of base current, but with such a big load resistor that is unlikely.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FzNtf.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/257282",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/107297/"
] | * IF Vcemax for Q2 is 40V and beyond in secondary breakdown then Ve max is -12V
* Vb for Q2 is 1/2 of Vz (D1=3.9) or -2V approx. this Vbe = -10V while spec is -5V ABSOLUTE MAX.
* due to the catastrophic mode of failure for Vbe reverse ,
* and your careless design,
* only you are responsible for it's middle leg getting blown off, perhaps by construction errors. | Reviewers rejected my latest edits to the question, and suggested to create a new answer, so:
Here is the schematic from the OP, completed with voltage sources and more appropriate zener resistors, for the recommended zener current of about 8.5 mA:
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fEsS0r.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
And here is the result of the simulation using the Simulate This button:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Kpl3m.png)
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf). Setting the correct part nr does NOT set the related zener voltage, I did that manualy in the circuit diagram editor. The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 15.0 V over the zener and +/- 14.5 V over the output resistor.
Perfect! This circuit seems to do what is expected from it.
As for the blown parts: that must be something like a wrong connection, as suggested by one of the commenters. |
257,282 | I have been looking at ways to derive low voltage rails from a higher voltage and current supply, which in practical terms is about 53-0-53V from a linear power supply (toroidal, bridge rectifier and electrolytic caps).
I naively thought that the circuit below should produce a nice 30V across the test load R3, instead I got a dead zener diode and a nice explosion from transistor Q2 which was somewhat unexpected and disappointing. It actually blew its middle leg off, the poor thing.
The idea is to get +15V and -15V rails to power an op amp or two. I expected that R1, D1, and R2 would drop respectively 38V, 30V and 38V and thus, like a pair of standard series regulators, Q1's emitter would stabilise at 15V (relatively to the hypothetical 0V rail which isn't there) and likewise the collector of Q2 would be at -15V.
What have I done wrong? I am wondering if I've misunderstood the current flow through the PNP, they always make my brain fry because of the reverse sort of nature of them. Anyway, what's my mistake?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f1xlK8.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
update:
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf "these specs").
The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 2.54 V over the zener and +/- 2.1 V over the output resistor.
Strange! Either the simulator does not know that the zener zeners at 30 V, or the transistors draw a lot of base current, but with such a big load resistor that is unlikely.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FzNtf.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/257282",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/107297/"
] | For one thing, a 2N2222 is only rated for 40 V. The 2907 is good for 60, but that still doesn't leave much margin for things to go wrong, particularly at startup.
I suspect the real problem is that the transistors were wired incorrectly. That could leave a direct path thru Q1, D1, and Q2. Poof!
Added about voltages on the transistors
---------------------------------------
Even when everything is working perfectly, each half of the circuit sees 53 V. The 1N4730 is a 3.9 V zener diode. That means, when everything is working perfectly, the transistor bases will be held at ±2 V. Even saying the B-E drop of each transistor is only 600 mV, the emitters will be at ±1.4 V. That means each transistor will see 52 V across it *when everything is perfect*.
Everything is never perfect. How accurate are the ±53 V supplies? What about startup transients? What are the real zener voltages with only half a milliamp thru them? What happens when the load draws some real current, even if only on startup to charge up a capacitor or something?
Did you look up the voltage spec for the transistors you are actually using, not just any datasheet you could find for the generic part number? There are minimum voltage specs somewhere for a 2N2222 and 2N2907, but specific manufacturers sometimes make their parts more capable. You can't use one of those datasheets to tell you the maximum a generic part is good for. To get the numbers I quoted above, I grabbed random datasheets. That means the real specs could be lower than what I quoted.
One transistor is already well out of spec, and the other is close to it. This is not good engineering. | First, Google is your friend. A 1N4730 is a 3.9 volt zener.
That said, I'm inclined to believe that you either miswired your circuit or you used the wrong values of resistors. I'm especially inclined to think that R1 or R2 might have been 100 ohms, rather than 100k. At any rate, your nominal resistor values are large enough to prevent Magic Smoke Emission, so your circuit in some way was different from your schematic. |
257,282 | I have been looking at ways to derive low voltage rails from a higher voltage and current supply, which in practical terms is about 53-0-53V from a linear power supply (toroidal, bridge rectifier and electrolytic caps).
I naively thought that the circuit below should produce a nice 30V across the test load R3, instead I got a dead zener diode and a nice explosion from transistor Q2 which was somewhat unexpected and disappointing. It actually blew its middle leg off, the poor thing.
The idea is to get +15V and -15V rails to power an op amp or two. I expected that R1, D1, and R2 would drop respectively 38V, 30V and 38V and thus, like a pair of standard series regulators, Q1's emitter would stabilise at 15V (relatively to the hypothetical 0V rail which isn't there) and likewise the collector of Q2 would be at -15V.
What have I done wrong? I am wondering if I've misunderstood the current flow through the PNP, they always make my brain fry because of the reverse sort of nature of them. Anyway, what's my mistake?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f1xlK8.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
update:
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf "these specs").
The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 2.54 V over the zener and +/- 2.1 V over the output resistor.
Strange! Either the simulator does not know that the zener zeners at 30 V, or the transistors draw a lot of base current, but with such a big load resistor that is unlikely.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FzNtf.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/257282",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/107297/"
] | First, Google is your friend. A 1N4730 is a 3.9 volt zener.
That said, I'm inclined to believe that you either miswired your circuit or you used the wrong values of resistors. I'm especially inclined to think that R1 or R2 might have been 100 ohms, rather than 100k. At any rate, your nominal resistor values are large enough to prevent Magic Smoke Emission, so your circuit in some way was different from your schematic. | Reviewers rejected my latest edits to the question, and suggested to create a new answer, so:
Here is the schematic from the OP, completed with voltage sources and more appropriate zener resistors, for the recommended zener current of about 8.5 mA:
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fEsS0r.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
And here is the result of the simulation using the Simulate This button:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Kpl3m.png)
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf). Setting the correct part nr does NOT set the related zener voltage, I did that manualy in the circuit diagram editor. The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 15.0 V over the zener and +/- 14.5 V over the output resistor.
Perfect! This circuit seems to do what is expected from it.
As for the blown parts: that must be something like a wrong connection, as suggested by one of the commenters. |
257,282 | I have been looking at ways to derive low voltage rails from a higher voltage and current supply, which in practical terms is about 53-0-53V from a linear power supply (toroidal, bridge rectifier and electrolytic caps).
I naively thought that the circuit below should produce a nice 30V across the test load R3, instead I got a dead zener diode and a nice explosion from transistor Q2 which was somewhat unexpected and disappointing. It actually blew its middle leg off, the poor thing.
The idea is to get +15V and -15V rails to power an op amp or two. I expected that R1, D1, and R2 would drop respectively 38V, 30V and 38V and thus, like a pair of standard series regulators, Q1's emitter would stabilise at 15V (relatively to the hypothetical 0V rail which isn't there) and likewise the collector of Q2 would be at -15V.
What have I done wrong? I am wondering if I've misunderstood the current flow through the PNP, they always make my brain fry because of the reverse sort of nature of them. Anyway, what's my mistake?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f1xlK8.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
update:
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf "these specs").
The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 2.54 V over the zener and +/- 2.1 V over the output resistor.
Strange! Either the simulator does not know that the zener zeners at 30 V, or the transistors draw a lot of base current, but with such a big load resistor that is unlikely.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FzNtf.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/257282",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/107297/"
] | For one thing, a 2N2222 is only rated for 40 V. The 2907 is good for 60, but that still doesn't leave much margin for things to go wrong, particularly at startup.
I suspect the real problem is that the transistors were wired incorrectly. That could leave a direct path thru Q1, D1, and Q2. Poof!
Added about voltages on the transistors
---------------------------------------
Even when everything is working perfectly, each half of the circuit sees 53 V. The 1N4730 is a 3.9 V zener diode. That means, when everything is working perfectly, the transistor bases will be held at ±2 V. Even saying the B-E drop of each transistor is only 600 mV, the emitters will be at ±1.4 V. That means each transistor will see 52 V across it *when everything is perfect*.
Everything is never perfect. How accurate are the ±53 V supplies? What about startup transients? What are the real zener voltages with only half a milliamp thru them? What happens when the load draws some real current, even if only on startup to charge up a capacitor or something?
Did you look up the voltage spec for the transistors you are actually using, not just any datasheet you could find for the generic part number? There are minimum voltage specs somewhere for a 2N2222 and 2N2907, but specific manufacturers sometimes make their parts more capable. You can't use one of those datasheets to tell you the maximum a generic part is good for. To get the numbers I quoted above, I grabbed random datasheets. That means the real specs could be lower than what I quoted.
One transistor is already well out of spec, and the other is close to it. This is not good engineering. | Reviewers rejected my latest edits to the question, and suggested to create a new answer, so:
Here is the schematic from the OP, completed with voltage sources and more appropriate zener resistors, for the recommended zener current of about 8.5 mA:
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fEsS0r.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
And here is the result of the simulation using the Simulate This button:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Kpl3m.png)
The zener is now a 1N4751A, 30 V at 8.5 mA, see [these specs](https://www.jameco.com/Jameco/Products/ProdDS/782948.pdf). Setting the correct part nr does NOT set the related zener voltage, I did that manualy in the circuit diagram editor. The zener resistors are now 4K7 for a zener current of about 8.5 mA.
After adding voltage sources the simulation runs and results in about +/- 15.0 V over the zener and +/- 14.5 V over the output resistor.
Perfect! This circuit seems to do what is expected from it.
As for the blown parts: that must be something like a wrong connection, as suggested by one of the commenters. |
86,491 | How do I calculate the [power](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Power_%28physics%29) of a lightbulb? I have values but I don't know the equation to use. | 2013/11/14 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/86491",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/33793/"
] | Use a Volt and a Ammeter to calculate , P=VI , shouldn't that be simple enough | P=VI
480A at 120V. I calculated 57.6 J |
14,691,163 | Our application consists of multiple OSGi bundles, which expose their functionality through RESTful URIs. What is the best way to secure these URIs, so that only logged in and authorized users can access them? For a normal web application, I'd have used a web filter to control the access to all these URIs. Is there a way I can secure the access using just one security filter (or its equivalent) for all these URIs in OSGi? Or, will I need to include the security filter in each of the OSGi bundles? The container we are using is Apache Karaf, if it matters. | 2013/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14691163",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/476077/"
] | The [Apache Felix Http Jetty](https://www.jpm4j.org/#/p/org.apache.felix/org.apache.felix.http.jetty/) service includes a filter facility. The easiest way to use it is to install the [Apache Felix Http Whiteboard](https://www.jpm4j.org/#/p/org.apache.felix/org.apache.felix.http.whiteboard/) bundle and then register a Filter service ...
Unfortunately, this is not in the OSGi spec yet but will likely become part of the spec for the next round. I've been using this model for exactly your type of security now for 6 months and it works like a charm. | Another whiteboard-extender supporting this is Pax-Web.
But not only whiteboard, also if used with the std. OSGi http-service it supports filters and JSPs. Since version 2.0 it also supports servlet 3.0 anotations.
The next coming version of Pax-Web will also support only annotated Servlets in a Jar without web.xml.
For more info take a look at <http://team.ops4j.org/wiki/display/paxweb/Pax+Web> |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | I would look at A's offer, consider what B would have to offer to out-bid A, and give that info to B. B will probably assume you're giving them what A actually offered. Just make sure you don't provide any info/benefit that is unique to A (one wouldn't want B to know who A is). | Why would you deny them the chance to make the best offer they can? If they can't make it interesting, that's on them. But how is it helpful to deny them the chance to know the market better? If they have asked reasonable questions, give them truthful answers. The only thing I would be careful of, is that you should give them details that would at least make you consider their offer.
To give an example, suppose A has a workout room with a pool, and you love swimming laps during lunch. Tell them what you'd want in order to consider their offer, not just what A is offering. They obviously aren't going to add a building and pool just for you, so they can't literally match the offer from A, what would you want to forego your laps? |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | **There is no problem with continuing the discussion if your chance of taking B's offer is low--as long as it is greater then zero.**
Continuing this discussion implies that you are going to legitimately consider their offer. If you are not, then stop now. But as long as you would really consider working for them, you can keep going, even if they are a long shot. You are not misleading them.
The phrase "I am fairly confident" suggests your mind is not completely made up. If that is true, I would continue (as long as it doesn't jeopardize the offer you already have).
**If B would have to overwhelm you with a great offer, then make your expectations clear upfront.**
I agree with James Olson on this point. If you would only work there for salary X, a more senior position, etc., then tactfully communicate what you are looking for now. If it's unrealistic, then the negotiations can conclude early, you won't be using any more of their time, and you won't be delaying your response to A while waiting for their offer. | Either you are open to considering B's offer or you aren't.
If you are, you should discuss anything that might sway your decision and there's nothing dishonest about it.
If you aren't, stop wasting everyone's time, accept A's offer and send your regrets to B. That, too, is "honest".
If you're jerking them around just out of curiosity to see what they will offer, despite having made your mind up, ***that*** is dishonest but the person you are hurting mst is yourself. Remember, the longer you delay in accepting A's offer, the higher the odds they will have hired someone else in the meantime. |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | I would look at A's offer, consider what B would have to offer to out-bid A, and give that info to B. B will probably assume you're giving them what A actually offered. Just make sure you don't provide any info/benefit that is unique to A (one wouldn't want B to know who A is). | Either you are open to considering B's offer or you aren't.
If you are, you should discuss anything that might sway your decision and there's nothing dishonest about it.
If you aren't, stop wasting everyone's time, accept A's offer and send your regrets to B. That, too, is "honest".
If you're jerking them around just out of curiosity to see what they will offer, despite having made your mind up, ***that*** is dishonest but the person you are hurting mst is yourself. Remember, the longer you delay in accepting A's offer, the higher the odds they will have hired someone else in the meantime. |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | **There is no problem with continuing the discussion if your chance of taking B's offer is low--as long as it is greater then zero.**
Continuing this discussion implies that you are going to legitimately consider their offer. If you are not, then stop now. But as long as you would really consider working for them, you can keep going, even if they are a long shot. You are not misleading them.
The phrase "I am fairly confident" suggests your mind is not completely made up. If that is true, I would continue (as long as it doesn't jeopardize the offer you already have).
**If B would have to overwhelm you with a great offer, then make your expectations clear upfront.**
I agree with James Olson on this point. If you would only work there for salary X, a more senior position, etc., then tactfully communicate what you are looking for now. If it's unrealistic, then the negotiations can conclude early, you won't be using any more of their time, and you won't be delaying your response to A while waiting for their offer. | Why would you deny them the chance to make the best offer they can? If they can't make it interesting, that's on them. But how is it helpful to deny them the chance to know the market better? If they have asked reasonable questions, give them truthful answers. The only thing I would be careful of, is that you should give them details that would at least make you consider their offer.
To give an example, suppose A has a workout room with a pool, and you love swimming laps during lunch. Tell them what you'd want in order to consider their offer, not just what A is offering. They obviously aren't going to add a building and pool just for you, so they can't literally match the offer from A, what would you want to forego your laps? |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | I think you are overlooking something.
You think they are asking you this because they will make a better offer, etc.
**I don't think so.**
Asking questions like this is a way to put you in the shoes of *the guy accepting the offer* (before even seeing it, it's brilliant!).
* So, when do you want to start?
* Which parking spot would you prefere?
* Do you like a green chair or a blue one?
* Do you want to sit next to Jane or Bob?
They don't really mind the answer, they want you to imagine working there.
As you answer those questions, the more you will identify working in this environement.
So, yes, answer you avaibility, there is nothing dishonnest about it, but don't be fooled about the intent. | I would look at A's offer, consider what B would have to offer to out-bid A, and give that info to B. B will probably assume you're giving them what A actually offered. Just make sure you don't provide any info/benefit that is unique to A (one wouldn't want B to know who A is). |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | If you're confident that you're going with A then get off the fence and focus on A.
If you're not confident, then carry on gathering information. But don't waste people's time, no one appreciates that.
Trying to run an auction might lead to offers being withdrawn. But if you're not worried about that then that's the only reason I can see for continuing. | Either you are open to considering B's offer or you aren't.
If you are, you should discuss anything that might sway your decision and there's nothing dishonest about it.
If you aren't, stop wasting everyone's time, accept A's offer and send your regrets to B. That, too, is "honest".
If you're jerking them around just out of curiosity to see what they will offer, despite having made your mind up, ***that*** is dishonest but the person you are hurting mst is yourself. Remember, the longer you delay in accepting A's offer, the higher the odds they will have hired someone else in the meantime. |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | I think you are overlooking something.
You think they are asking you this because they will make a better offer, etc.
**I don't think so.**
Asking questions like this is a way to put you in the shoes of *the guy accepting the offer* (before even seeing it, it's brilliant!).
* So, when do you want to start?
* Which parking spot would you prefere?
* Do you like a green chair or a blue one?
* Do you want to sit next to Jane or Bob?
They don't really mind the answer, they want you to imagine working there.
As you answer those questions, the more you will identify working in this environement.
So, yes, answer you avaibility, there is nothing dishonnest about it, but don't be fooled about the intent. | If you're confident that you're going with A then get off the fence and focus on A.
If you're not confident, then carry on gathering information. But don't waste people's time, no one appreciates that.
Trying to run an auction might lead to offers being withdrawn. But if you're not worried about that then that's the only reason I can see for continuing. |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | I think you are overlooking something.
You think they are asking you this because they will make a better offer, etc.
**I don't think so.**
Asking questions like this is a way to put you in the shoes of *the guy accepting the offer* (before even seeing it, it's brilliant!).
* So, when do you want to start?
* Which parking spot would you prefere?
* Do you like a green chair or a blue one?
* Do you want to sit next to Jane or Bob?
They don't really mind the answer, they want you to imagine working there.
As you answer those questions, the more you will identify working in this environement.
So, yes, answer you avaibility, there is nothing dishonnest about it, but don't be fooled about the intent. | **There is no problem with continuing the discussion if your chance of taking B's offer is low--as long as it is greater then zero.**
Continuing this discussion implies that you are going to legitimately consider their offer. If you are not, then stop now. But as long as you would really consider working for them, you can keep going, even if they are a long shot. You are not misleading them.
The phrase "I am fairly confident" suggests your mind is not completely made up. If that is true, I would continue (as long as it doesn't jeopardize the offer you already have).
**If B would have to overwhelm you with a great offer, then make your expectations clear upfront.**
I agree with James Olson on this point. If you would only work there for salary X, a more senior position, etc., then tactfully communicate what you are looking for now. If it's unrealistic, then the negotiations can conclude early, you won't be using any more of their time, and you won't be delaying your response to A while waiting for their offer. |
80,375 | Recently, after doing some interviews, I received a very nice offer from one company (let's call them A).
One of the other places I interviewed at (B) had made very positive remarks following the interview, so I sent them an email to ask them if they had made a decision. In the email, I also notified them that I had an offer from a different company.
I am fairly confident that I will accept company A's offer, but I want to have as much information as I can before making a decision.
Company B said they were writing up an offer for me. They promised to send me the official offer in a few days, but in the meantime, they're asking me about my preferences around a few details such as the start date.
I don't want to reject their offer before seeing it, but it feels dishonest to discuss these details when I feel confident that I will accept company A's offer. **Particularly, it feels to me as though I am in a negotiating stage with company B before they give me an official offer.**
I am also still gathering a few last pieces of information from company A which might cause me to reconsider, so I want to emphasize that I am not merely trying to get information from company B for my ego's sake.
How should I proceed? | 2016/11/25 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/80375",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/60775/"
] | I think you are overlooking something.
You think they are asking you this because they will make a better offer, etc.
**I don't think so.**
Asking questions like this is a way to put you in the shoes of *the guy accepting the offer* (before even seeing it, it's brilliant!).
* So, when do you want to start?
* Which parking spot would you prefere?
* Do you like a green chair or a blue one?
* Do you want to sit next to Jane or Bob?
They don't really mind the answer, they want you to imagine working there.
As you answer those questions, the more you will identify working in this environement.
So, yes, answer you avaibility, there is nothing dishonnest about it, but don't be fooled about the intent. | Why would you deny them the chance to make the best offer they can? If they can't make it interesting, that's on them. But how is it helpful to deny them the chance to know the market better? If they have asked reasonable questions, give them truthful answers. The only thing I would be careful of, is that you should give them details that would at least make you consider their offer.
To give an example, suppose A has a workout room with a pool, and you love swimming laps during lunch. Tell them what you'd want in order to consider their offer, not just what A is offering. They obviously aren't going to add a building and pool just for you, so they can't literally match the offer from A, what would you want to forego your laps? |
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