question
stringlengths
1
6.54k
choices
listlengths
4
4
answer
stringclasses
4 values
rationale
stringlengths
0
22.5k
split
stringclasses
1 value
dataset
stringclasses
6 values
subject
stringclasses
1 value
Sleep spindles and K-compiexes are seen in which stage of sleep?
[ "REM", "Stage 1 NREM", "Stage 2 NREM", "Stage 3 NREM" ]
C
Ans. c. Stage 2 NREM (Ref: Ganong 24/e p273; Guyton ll/e p741-743)Sleep spindles and K-complexes are seen in stage 2 NREM of sleep.'There are two different kinds of sleep: rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and non-REM (SREM), or slow-wave sleep. NREM sleep is divided into four stages. A person falling asleep first enters ...
train
med_mcqa
null
Sublimation is the conversion of a:
[ "Solid directly to gas", "Gas to liquid and then to solid", "Gas directly to liquid", "Solid to liquid and then to gas" ]
A
It is possible for some solids to change directly to a vapor by a process called sublimation as seen in dry ice; this, however, has no practical importance as far as dental materials are concerned. Sublimation is the conversion of a solid directly to gas. Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page n...
train
med_mcqa
null
Mucocele is commonly seen in sinus:
[ "Frontal", "Maxillary", "Ethmoid", "Sphenoid" ]
A
A mucocele is an epithelial lined, mucus containing sac completely filling the sinus and capable of expansion: Mucocele are most commonly formed in Frontal sinus followed by ethmoid, sphenoid and maxillary sinuses. Mucocele of frontal sinus presents as a swelling in the floor of frontal sinus above the inner (medial) c...
train
med_mcqa
null
Dextromethorphan differs from codeine in:
[ "Its antitussive action can be blocked by naloxone", "Depresses mucocilliary function of the airway mucosa", "Addiction common", "Causes no constipation" ]
D
Dextromethorphan is a synthetic opiod derivative with antitussuive actions like codeine but with lesser side effects. It does not cause constipation and has no addiction liability but can cause nausea and drowsiness. Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed.
train
med_mcqa
null
Aspermia is the term used to describe:
[ "Absence of semen.", "Absence of sperm in ejaculate.", "Absence of sperm motility.", "Occurrence of abnormal sperm." ]
A
Aspermia No semen ejaculated Hematospermia Blood present in semen Leucocytospermia White blood cells present in semen Azoospermia No spermatozoa found in semen Normozoospermia Normal semen parameters Oligozoospermia Low sperm concentration Asthenozoospermia Poor motility and/or forward progression Teratozoospermia- Red...
train
med_mcqa
null
A 34 years old man came with c/o blurring of vision in bilateral eyes and headache for past 6 months with decrease in libido. On examination, bitemporal hemianopia is seen. MRI was performed and shown below. Diagnosis is-
[ "Pituitary macroadenoma", "Pituitary microadenoma", "Meningioma", "Hemangioma" ]
A
Pituitary macroadenoma- size more than 10mm. 'Figure of 8' appearance is seen on MRI. Pituitary microadenoma - size less than 10mm. It shows delayed enhancement on dynamic contrast enhanced MRI as compared to normal pituitary gland .
train
med_mcqa
null
All of the following statements regarding the heart are true EXCEPT
[ "The nerve fibers that conduct the pain associated with ischemia accompany the sympathetic nerve supply to the heart", "The sinoatrial node does not receive a nerve supply and thus initiates the heart beat autonomously", "The atrioventricular node is located in the interatrial septum", "The diaphragmatic surf...
B
The sinoatrial node receives a nerve supply; however, this node initiates the heartbeat autonomously. The autonomic innervation modulates the rate of depolar­ization of the sinoatrial node, thereby modulating the heart rate. The sinoatrial node is composed of special­ized cardiac muscle cells that depolarize spontaneou...
train
med_mcqa
null
False statement about bilirubin is
[ "Bilirubin circulating in plasma by covalently binding with albumin", "Bilirubin is taken up across the sinusoidal (basolateral) membrane of hepatocytes by a carrier-mediated mechanism", "Conjugated bilirubin in plasma undergoes stool elimination", "Conjugated bilirubin is then directed primarily toward the c...
C
Bilirubin transpo: Bilirubin circulates in plasma noncovalently, bound to albumin. It is taken up across the sinusoidal membrane of hepatocytes by a carrier-mediated mechanism. Bilirubin uptake is mediated by a liver-specific sinusoidal organic anion transpo protein, (OATP1B1, SLC21A6) Then bilirubin is directed by cyt...
train
med_mcqa
null
Renal aery stenosis may occur In all of the following except -
[ "Atherosclerosis", "Fibromuscular dysplasia", "Takayasu's aeritis", "Pnlviicritis nodosar" ]
D
Renal aery stenosis classically presents as hypeension if it affects a single kidney or as renal failure if it is bilateral. The hypeension is driven by activation of the renin-angiotensin system in response to renal ischaemia. In atherosclerotic renal aery disease, there is usually evidence of vascular disease elsewhe...
train
med_mcqa
null
In an normal adult, the anatomical dead space is approximately:
[ "2.2 cc/kg", "1 cc/kg", "3 cc/kg", "1.5 cc/kg" ]
A
Approximately 30% of each breath does not paicipate in alveolar gas exchange and is thus called dead space ventilation (VDS). Dead space ventilation is made up of anatomic dead space and alveolar dead space. Anatomic dead space is the volume of air that fills the conducting airways (trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles) a...
train
med_mcqa
null
In which carcinoma of thyroid treatment with 1-131 is most helpful?
[ "Papillary", "Follicular", "Anaplastic", "Medullary" ]
B
Ans. b (Follicular). (Ref. Bailey and Love, 25th/797; Harrison's Medicine 16th/pg.2125)There are 4 main types of thyroid carcinoma:# Papillary carcinoma (lymphadenopathy and lateral aberrant thyroid, psammoma bodies & Orphan Annie eyed nuclei)# Follicular and hurthle cell carcinoma (May develop in patients with multino...
train
med_mcqa
null
Management of hemarhrosis
[ "Compression bandage", "Needle aspiration", "P.O.P. cast", "All" ]
D
A i.e. Compression bandage; B i.e. Needle aspiration; C i.e. P.O.P. cast
train
med_mcqa
null
7 years old child with peritonsillar abscess presents with trismus, the best treatment is -
[ "Immediate abscess drain orally", "Drainage externally", "Systemic antibiotics up to 48 hours then drainage", "Tracheostomy" ]
C
Treatment of quinsy include iv antibiotics and if it fails to relieve the condition in 24-48 hours the abscess must be opened and drained. — Logan Turner 10th/e p. 86
train
med_mcqa
null
HIV affects -
[ "Only T helper cells", "T helper and macrophages", "NK cells", "B-lymphocytes" ]
B
Receptor for the virus is CD4 antigen and affect the cells with this receptor like CD4 T cell, macrophages, monocytes. REF:Textbook of microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker. Page no.: 574
train
med_mcqa
null
What is the minimum dose of ethinyl estradiol in OC pills for contraceptive effect?
[ "15mcg", "20mcg", "30mcg", "35mcg" ]
B
For the average patient, the first choice of preparation for contraceptive purposes is a very low estrogen OC (20 mg EE) unless there are other considerations, for example, previous pregnancy while taking the pill.Patients with persistent break-through spotting or bleeding could be offered a pill with the same low estr...
train
med_mcqa
null
Activation of G-protein regulate all of the following except
[ "Adenyl cyclase activity", "Ion channels", "IP3 & DAG", "Transcription factor" ]
D
Activation of g protein causes separation of alfa sub unit from beta nad gama subunits which produces DAG,IP3 Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page,:534,535
train
med_mcqa
null
Confirmatory test for Syphilis is: September 2010 March 2013
[ "VDRL", "Rapid plasma reagin test", "FT-ABS", "All of the above" ]
C
Ans. C: FT-ABS T. pallidum cannot be grown in vitro Diagnostic tests for syphilis: Tests include serologic tests for syphilis (STS), which consist of screening (reaginic) and confirmatory (treponemal) tests, and dark field microscopy. Reaginic tests use lipid antigens (cardiolipin from bovine heas) to detect reagin (hu...
train
med_mcqa
null
Hyperkalemia is observed in which one of the following conditions -
[ "Type 1 renal tubular acidosis", "Type 2 renal tubular acidosis", "Type 4 renal tubular acidosis", "Bater's syndrome" ]
C
Type 4: Hyperkalemic A Either low potassium--hypokalemia--or high potassium--hyperkalemia--can be a problem because potassium is impoant in regulating hea rate. Type 4 A occurs when blood levels of the hormone aldosterone are low or when the kidneys do not respond to it. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 289
train
med_mcqa
null
Claw hand is caused by lesion of
[ "Ulnar nerve", "Median nerve", "Axillary nerve", "Radial nerve" ]
A
A greate than B Claw hand of 3rd bad 4th finger will be seen in isolated ulnar palsy as 1st ND 2nd fingers lumbricals are spared -----ulnar claw hand Claw hand of all fingers is seen in combined ulnar and median nerve palsy as all lumbricals and Interoosei are paralyzed -----true claw hand Refer ebnezar 4th/e p 336
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of following is the most common antecedent infection associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome-
[ "Mycoplasma", "Epstein-Barr virus", "Chlamydia infection", "Campylobacter jejuni" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Campylobacter jejunio Campylobacter ieiuni enteritis has emerged as the most common antecedent infection in patients with Guillain- Barre syndrome in recent years.# "In the last few years, Campylobacter jejuni enteritis has been identified as the most common antecedent infection in patients with Guill...
train
med_mcqa
null
In a randomized controlled trial, the essential purpose of randomization is-
[ "To produce double blinding", "To decrease the follow - up period", "To eliminate the selection bias", "To decrease the sample size" ]
C
Randomization ensures that the investigator has no control over the allocation of paicipants to either study or control groups, thus eliminating what is known as selection bias. In other words by random allocation, every individual gets an equal chance of being allocated into either group or any of the trial groups ( r...
train
med_mcqa
null
ELISA is performed on a population with low prevalence. What would be the result of performing double screening ELISA tests -
[ "Increased sensitivity and positive predictiv value", "Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value", "Increased specificity and positive predictive value", "Increased specificity and negative predictive value" ]
C
The specificity of ELISA can be increased by carrying out ELISA in a row (series) using different HIV markers. When screening test is used in a series mode : - ↑ Specificity ↑ PPV ↓ Sensitivity
train
med_mcqa
null
Wrong about Corynebacterium diphtheriae
[ "Toxin production is chromosome mediated", "Damage is by toxin production", "Toxic to hea and neurons", "More common in children" ]
A
C. diphtheriae virulence is mediated by its toxin which is produces by tox gene of DNA of Corynephage (bacteriophage).
train
med_mcqa
null
The best method of teaching an urban slum about ORS is –
[ "Lecture", "Role play", "Demonstration", "Flash cards" ]
C
Demonstration A demonstration is a carefully prepared presentation to show how to perform a skill or procedure. Demonstration as a means of communication has been found to have a high educational value in programmes like- Environmental sanitation → installation of a hand pump, construction of a sanitary latrine. Mo...
train
med_mcqa
null
The following are the fetures of ss thalassemia major except
[ "Bone marrow hyperplasia", "Hair-on-end appearance", "Splenomegaly", "Increased osmotic fragility" ]
D
In thalassemia major osmotic fragility is reduced. Patients with the beta thalassemia trait generally have no unusual physical findings. In patients with beta thalassemia major, the physical findings are related to severe anemia, ineffective erythropoiesis, extramedullary hematopoiesis, and iron overload resulting from...
train
med_mcqa
null
EBV is associated with which type of cancer?
[ "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "Epidermodysplasia", "Kaposi sarcoma", "None" ]
A
Epstein-barr virus may lead to the following clinical conditions:* Infectious mononucleosis* Epstein-barr virus associated malignancies: - Burkitt's lymphoma - Lymphomas in immunodeficient person such as those with AIDS and transplant recipients - Nasopharyngeal carcinoma in persons of Chinese origin.
train
med_mcqa
null
Neurotensinoma causes-
[ "Cyanosis", "Hypeension", "Hyperkalemia", "None" ]
D
Answer is option 4 Neurotensinomas Vinik A. Publication Details Neurotensin (NT) is a 13 amino acid polypeptide first extracted from bovine brain by Carraway and Leeman(1). It subsequently was isolated from the human GI tract and found to have the same amino acid sequence(2). Neurotensin has a number of interesting pha...
train
med_mcqa
null
Initiator codon in prokaryotes:
[ "UAA", "UGA", "AUG", "UAG" ]
C
Ans. (c) AUGRef: Lippincott's Biochemistry, 6th ed. P 457 - 458* Initiator codon in eukaryotes: AUG (codes for methionine)* Initiator codon In prokaryotes: AUG (codes for N-Formyl methi-onine)* Stop codons:# UAG: Amber# UGA: Opal# UAA: Ochre
train
med_mcqa
null
Wobble hypothesis -regarding the variation true is:
[ "3 - end of anticodon", "5 - end of anticodon", "m-RNA", "t-RNA" ]
B
B i.e., 5-end of anticodon
train
med_mcqa
null
All of the follow ing are fluent aphasia's except-
[ "Anomic aphasia", "Wernicke's aphasia", "Conduction aphasia", "Broca's aphasia" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Broca's aphasia Aohasia||Non-Fluent AphasiasFluent Aphasiaso Globalo Broca so Mixed Transcorticalo Transcortical Motoro Anomico Wernickeso Conductiono Transcortical Sensory?
train
med_mcqa
null
CNS affection of a local anesthetic agent leads to?
[ "Convulsion", "Perioral numbness", "Depression", "All of the above" ]
D
Ans is 'd' i.e. All of the above Manifestations of local anesthetic toxicityA. Early symptoms (Prodrome)Circumoral numbness, dizziness, tongue paresthesia, restlesness, tinnitus, agitation.B. CNS symptoms These are biphasic i.e. excitation (convulsions, restlessness, agitation 8c tinnitus), followed by depression (drow...
train
med_mcqa
null
Age group most prone to Rubella is?
[ "Infants", "Adolescent girls", "Pregnant females", "Women of child bearing age" ]
D
ANSWER: (D) Women of child bearing ageREF: Park 20th ed p. 139Infants are protected by maternal antibodies. It's the women of child bearing age group which are most susceptible to rubella
train
med_mcqa
null
who gave the concept of ego in mind
[ "seligman", "freud", "bleuler", "lorenz" ]
B
CONTRIBUTIONS OF FREUD o Father of psychoanalysis He founded a type of psychotherapy called psychoanalysis. It is nothing but analyzing the psych(MIND) o Interpretation of dreams According to Freud dreams are royal road to unconscious In dreams several conflicts that are present in the unconscious comes to the consciou...
train
med_mcqa
null
All are features of tabes dorsalis, except -
[ "Ataxia", "Argyll Robertson's pupil", "Bladder disturbances", "Hyperreflexia" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Part of brain involved in narcolepsy -
[ "Neocortex", "Hypothalamus", "Cerebellum", "Putamen" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Ketamine NOT used in:
[ "Full stomach", "Increased ICT", "Pediatric patient", "Asthma patient" ]
B
Ans. (b) Increased ICTRef: Katzung 9th ed. 1604; KDT 6th ed./376
train
med_mcqa
null
A 65 year old woman after total knee implant surgery complains of calf pain and swelling in the leg from last 2 days. Later she complains of breathlessness and dies suddenly in the ward. Probable cause?
[ "Pulmonary embolism", "Myocardial infarction", "Stroke", "ARDS" ]
A
Ans. (a) Pulmonary embolismRef: Harrison's 19th ed. /1631* PE is the most common preventable cause of death among hospitalizedpatients.PE and DVT occurring after total hip or knee replacement is currently taken as unacceptable, and steps are taken to prevent it by giving subcutaneous fondaparinux.* For patients who hav...
train
med_mcqa
null
What about durham pin is true -
[ "It is used to give skeletal traction", "It has threads in the center of pin", "It is used to give skeletal traction through calcaneum", "All the above" ]
D
Ans. is 'd'i.e., All the above Denham pino It is a type of pin used to give skeletal traction.o Threaded portion of the pin engages the bony cortices and reduces the chances of pin sliding,o This type of pin is used commonly to give skeletal traction through the cancellous bone i.e. calcaneum. It can also be used to gi...
train
med_mcqa
null
For endometriotic cyst all are true EXCEPT?
[ "Homogeneous Ground glass appearance", "Laparoscopy is indicated", "CA 125 is a specific test", "Associated with dysmenorrhoea" ]
C
Endometrial cyst/ Chocolate cyst Represent the most impoant manifestation of endometriosis Epithelium is columnar. Beneath the epithelium, a zone of tissue containing large cells with brown cytoplasm, polyhedral in shape and resembling lutein cells is seen. Homogeneous Ground glass on TVS Investigation: Laproscopy diag...
train
med_mcqa
null
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is said to be Multi - drug resistant if it is resistant to:
[ "Isoniazid alone", "Rifampicin Alone", "Both Isoniazid and Rifampicin", "Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ethambutol" ]
C
Ans. C. Both Isoniazid and RifampicinM tuberculosis is said to be multidrug resistant if it is resistant to Rifampicin and Isoniazid. And it is known as XDR if it is resistant to Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Fluoroquinolone and one of the three injectable drugs (Amikacin, kanamycin and capreomycin)
train
med_mcqa
null
Acute endocarditis with abscess is most commonly associated with ?
[ "Listeria", "Staphylococcus", "Streptococcus", "Enterococcus" ]
B
The cause is typically a bacterial infection and less commonly a fungal infection. Risk factors include valvular hea disease including rheumatic disease, congenital hea disease, aificial valves, hemodialysis, intravenous drug use, and electronic pacemakers. The bacteria most commonly involved are streptococci or staphy...
train
med_mcqa
null
Development of eye completes at
[ "3 - 4 weeks period of gestation", "9 - 10 weeks period of gestation", "12 - 15 weeks period of gestation", "20 - 22 weeks period of gestation" ]
B
Development of eye begins at 3 weeks period of gestration. Development of eye eompletes at 9 - 10 weeks period of gestation.
train
med_mcqa
null
In a class III cavity in an incisor tooth the retentive points are placed:
[ "At the expense of facial and Lingual walls and not in dentin", "Entirely in dentin", "In axial wall", "By placing a groove in the lingual surfaces" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
A 3-year-old girl is seen in the emergency depament with acute abdominal pain. She has a 5-day history of vomiting and abdominal distension. She has not passed stool during this time, and during the past day, has been vomiting bilious material. On physical examination, she is lethargic, with a firm and tender abdomen, ...
[ "Hea", "Liver", "Lungs", "Pancreas" ]
C
Ascaris infection is acquired by ingestion of the eggs, usually from contaminated soil. The ingested eggs hatch in the duodenum to produce larvae, which cross the small intestinal wall to enter the bloodstream. They then pass through the hea to lodge in the lungs. They leave the lung capillary bed to enter the airspace...
train
med_mcqa
null
Most common cause of abdominal aoic aneurysm is
[ "Atherosclerosis", "Trauma", "Syphilis", "Vasculities" ]
A
. Aoic wall contain smooth muscle cell matrix,elastin(in tunica media),collagen (in adventitia) as safe net in the wall to provide tensile strength prevent aneurysms formation.Elastin in tunica media is degraded and reduced significantly in infrarenal aoa in relation to collagen,abscence or less vasa vasorum in infrare...
train
med_mcqa
null
A person is not able to extend his metacarpophalangeal joint. Injury to which of the following nerve result in this?
[ "Ulnar nerve", "Radial nerve injury", "Median nerve injury", "Post. Interosseous nerve injury" ]
D
Damage to posterior interosseous nerve result in inability to extend the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints and radial detion of the wrist on wrist extension caused by weakness of extensor carpi ulnaris muscle. Posterior interosseous nerve or deep ulnar nerve is a pure motor branch of radial nerve in the forearm...
train
med_mcqa
null
A gall stone gets impacted most commonly in which part of common bile duct -
[ "Supraduodenal", "Retroduodenal", "Ampulla of vater", "Common hepatic duct" ]
C
null
train
med_mcqa
null
The most definitive method for laboratory diagnosis of poliomyelitis are A/E ?
[ "Virus isolation from blood", "Virus isolation from CSF", "Virus isolation from faeces or throat", "Serological diagnosis" ]
D
Ans. is di.e., Serological diagnosis Lab diagnosis of polio . 67rus isolation in tissue culture is the best method for specific diagnosis. . Specimens Blood, CSF, Throat swab, Feces . Primary monkey kidney cultures are used. Serodiagnosis is less often employed.
train
med_mcqa
null
Soft contact lenses are made of
[ "Polymethyl methacrylate", "Hydroxymethyl methacrylate", "Silicone", "Glass" ]
B
Soft contact lenses: Soft contact lenses are made up of HEMA (hydroxyethylmethacrylate) which is hydrophilic. Advantages : Being soft and oxygen permeable, they are most comfoable and so well tolerated. Disadvantages : Problems of proteinaceous deposits, getting cracked, limited life, inferior optical quality, more cha...
train
med_mcqa
null
Which is poor man's meat
[ "Milk", "Pulses", "Fish", "Egg" ]
B
Pulses (legumes) Pulses comprise a variety of grams, also known as dhals. Most commonly eaten pulses are bengal gram (chana), red gram (tuvar or arhar), green gram (mung) and black gram (urd). Others include lentils (masur), peas and beans including soyabean. Khesari dhal (lathyrus sativus), is consumed in pas of Madhy...
train
med_mcqa
null
What is the treatment of choice?
[ "Thrombolysis with Streptokinase", "Percutaneous coronary intervention", "Anticoagulate with heparin", "Aspirin and clopidogrel" ]
B
AWSTEMI. Treatment of choice is PCI
train
med_mcqa
null
What is the most common injury sustained due to fall on out - stretched hand by a person aged 65 years?
[ "Colle's fracture", "Supracondylar fracture", "Shoulder dislocation", "Fracture of metacarpals" ]
A
Most common fracture due to fall on outstretched hand : In elderly → Colle's fracture. In children → Supracondylar fracture humerus.
train
med_mcqa
null
The absolute contraindication for Electro Convulsive Therapy {ECT} is
[ "Raised Intra Cranial Tension", "Vascular Dementia", "Diabetic Retinopathy", "Peripheral Neuropathy" ]
A
CONTRA INDICATIONS * NO ABSOLUTE Contra indication RELATIVE CONTRAINDICATION -----------------Brain tumour with midline shift / arrythmia Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1065
train
med_mcqa
null
In myasthenia gravis the neuromuscular junctions contain deposits of
[ "Acetyicholine", "Acetyicholine Receptor Antigens", "Acetyicholinesterase", "Immunoglobulin" ]
D
Antibodies to the acetylcholine receptor can be demonstrated in the serum of most patients with myasthenia gravis. This immunoglobulinsare deposited at the neuromuscular junction and can be demonstrated immunohistochemically in muscle biopsies. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 3232
train
med_mcqa
null
In majority of patient with esophageal leaks in thoracic cavity of less than 12 hours duration, the treatment of choice is
[ "Primary closure, drainage and antibiotics", "Early esophagogastrostomy", "Exclusion and diversion of continuity", "Total esophagectomy and gastric pull up" ]
A
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is the most potent 2nd generation antihistamine?
[ "Astemizole", "Desloratadine", "Promethozine", "Fexofenadine" ]
B
Desloratidine, metabolite of loratadine is the most potent 2nd generation antihistamine.
train
med_mcqa
null
A 67-year-old woman develops symptoms of cough and sputum production after an upper respiratory tract infection. A CXR does not show any signs of pneumonia but the report mentions a "pseudo fracture" sign (Looser zones) seen in the left scapula compatible with osteomalacia. She has no pain in the scapula. Which of the ...
[ "the mineralization defect is less severe in osteomalacia", "Osteomalacia is only produced by vitamin D deficiency, unlike rickets", "the skeleton is at a different stage when affected", "parathyroid hormone levels are only routinely elevated in rickets" ]
C
Both rickets and osteomalacia are disorders in which mineralization of the organic matrix of the skeleton is defective. Rickets is the name when this disorder occurs in a growing skeleton, whereas osteomalacia occurs after the epiphyseal plates are closed.
train
med_mcqa
null
A 60 year old man complains of difficulty arising from a chair and initiating new movements. On exam, you notice a resting hand tremor and cogwheel rigidity. Which of the following amino acids is the precursor for the neurotransmitter that is deficient in the brain of this patient?
[ "Glutamate", "Glycine", "Histidine", "Tyrosine" ]
D
This question requires three steps of logic. First, figure out the diagnosis (a classic case of Parkinson's disease), then remember which neurotransmitter is involved in the disease (dopamine), and finally, recall which amino acid serves as the precursor for that neurotransmitter (tyrosine). The hydroxylation of tyrosi...
train
med_mcqa
null
Tumor induced hypoglycemia is seen in all , EXCEPT:
[ "Mesenchymal tumors", "Hepatocellular carcinoma", "Adrenal carcinoma", "Lymphoma" ]
D
Tumor induced hypoglycemia Mesenchymal tumors, hemangiopericytomas, hepatocellular tumors, adrenal carcinomas produce excessive amounts of insulin-like growth factor type II (IGF-II) precursor, leading to insulin-like actions and hypoglycemia. Ref: Harrison,E-18,P-830
train
med_mcqa
null
MMSE evaluates which of the following:
[ "Thought", "Cognition", "Insight", "Mood and effect" ]
B
Ans: B. Cognition(Ref Kaplan & Sadock 11/e p201, 225; Niraj Ahuja 7/e p13)The mini-mental state examination (MMSE) or Folstein test is a 30-point questionnaire that is used extensively in clinical and research settings to measure cognitive impairment.It is a screening tool for dementia. It assesses cognitive functions....
train
med_mcqa
null
Prodrug of cetrizine is -
[ "Foxefenadone", "Terfenadine", "Hydroxyzine", "Azelastine" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hydroxyzine o Cetrizine is a metabolite of Hydroxyzine with marked affinity for peripheral H1 receptors; penetrates brain poorly,o It inhibits release of histamine and of cytotoxic mediators from platelets as well as eosinophil chemotaxis during secondary phase of allergic response.o It is indicated i...
train
med_mcqa
null
Premalignant lesion of the vulva is -
[ "Kraurosis", "Leucoplakia", "Condyloma accuminata", "Localised scleroderma" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Leukoplakiao Leukoplakia of vulva means white plaque which may indicate : ?Benign lesionsPremalignant lesionsMalignant lesions
train
med_mcqa
null
A 2-hour-old Avulsed tooth is best stored in medium that contains:
[ "Tetracycline", "Dexamethasone", "Ampicillin", "Ibuprofen" ]
A
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Beta blocker drug CONTRAINDICATED in asthma patients: September 2012
[ "Metoprolol", "Atenolol", "Propranolol", "Acebutolol" ]
C
Ans. C i.e. Propranolol Propranolol should be used with caution in people with: DM or hypehyroidism, since signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia may be masked. PVD and Raynaud's syndrome, which may be exacerbated Phaeochromocytoma, as hypeension may be aggravated without prior alpha blocker therapy Myasthenia gravis, may ...
train
med_mcqa
null
Supra omohyoid dissection is one variety of
[ "Selective neck dissection", "Modified radical neck dissection", "Radical neck dissection", "Posterolateral dissection" ]
A
Ans. (a) Selective neck dissectionRef: Bailey- 26th edition Page 720* Supraomohyoid neck dissection involves removal of neck nodes at level 1,2,3.* It is done for No neck node palpable cases and for some cases of N1.* Extended Omohyoid Neck dissection removes - Level 1,2,3 and 4 nodes.
train
med_mcqa
null
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity, it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the:
[ "Lag phase", "Death phase", "Stationary phase", "Logarithmic phase" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Legacy effect is related to which of the diabetes complication ?
[ "Renal", "Neuropathy", "Retinopathy", "Cardiovascular" ]
D
.
train
med_mcqa
null
In assessing the nutritional status of community the following are used except
[ "Mortality in 1-4 years age group", "Percentage of pregnant lady with less than 11.5% Hb", "Weight/height index in preschool children", "Low birth weight" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Pain in the ear occurs at
[ "140 dB", "120 dB", "80 dB", "160 dB" ]
A
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Surveyor is used for
[ "Surveying diagnostic cast", "Contouring wax patterns", "Measuring undercuts", "All of the above" ]
D
The surveyor may be used for surveying the diagnostic cast, recontouring abutment teeth on the diagnostic cast, contouring wax patterns, measuring a specific depth of undercut, surveying ceramic veneer crowns, placing intracoronal retainers, placing internal rests, machining cast restorations, and  surveying and blockin...
train
med_mcqa
null
Regarding HMP shunt all of the following are true except
[ "Occurs in the cytosol", "No ATP is produced in the cycle", "It is active in Adipose tissue, Liver and Gonads", "The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the Non oxidative phase generates pyruvate" ]
D
Hexose monophosphate shunt is a metabolic pathway parallel to glycolysis. It generates NADPH and pentoses as well as ribose-5-phosphate the last one a precursor for the synthesis of nucleotides.There are two distinct phases in the pathway. The first is the oxidative phase, in which NADPH is generated, and the second is...
train
med_mcqa
null
In a pregnant female, there is decreased requirement of the spinal anaesthetic agent because of all of the following except –
[ "Exaggerated lumbar lordosis", "Decreased volume of subarachnoid space", "Engorgement of epidural veins", "Increased sensitivity of the nerves to anaesthetic agent" ]
A
A smaller dose of local anaesthetic is nedded to produce the same level of neuraxial block in pregnant women compared with nonpregnant women. The causes may be :- Compression of the inferior vena cava by the pregnant uterus causes "distension or engorgment" of the epidural venous plexus. This decreases the volume of ...
train
med_mcqa
null
Vaccination for this hepatic disease is with viral surface antigen and usually provides immunity.
[ "Hepatitis A", "Hepatitis B", "Hepatitis C", "Hepatitis D" ]
B
Hepatitis A virus (HAV) possesses a single-stranded linear RNA genome while hepatitis B virus (HBV) contains a double-stranded DNA genome. Detection of anti-HAV IgM in a single serum specimen obtained in the acute or convalescent stage is the quickest and most reliable method to diagnose hepatitis A infection. This ant...
train
med_mcqa
null
All of the following are true regarding dying deposition, except ?
[ "Cross examination can be done", "It should be recorded only by magistrate", "Leading questions are permitted", "Best system practiced in India compared to dying declaration" ]
D
It is more superior to dying deposition, but is not practiced in India.
train
med_mcqa
null
Expansile lytic lesion with fluid-fluid levels involing the proximal metaphysis of fibula in an early adolescent female is typical of?
[ "Giant cell tumor", "Aneurysmal bone cyst", "Hemangioma", "Fibrous dysplasia" ]
B
Ans. b (Aneurysmal bone cyst) (Ref: Bailey 26th/533; Grainger Diagnostic radiology 4th ed. 2463)Aneurysmal bone cyst is a benign cystic lesion of bone consisting of blood-filled spaces separated by fibrous septa. The lesion is much more aggressive than a simple bone cyst and often presents with pain and swelling. Plain...
train
med_mcqa
null
True statement about cholstridium perfringens are all except:
[ "Gas gangrene -alpha toxin is produced by type A strains and responsible for profound toxemia", "Clostridium perfringens is not the major cause of gas gangrene", "Present in normal feces", "C. perfringens type C strains is responsible for necrotizing enteritis" ]
B
Causative organism of gas gangrene are Clostridium perferingens, Clostridium novgi and Clostridium septicum. Clostridium perfringens also causes food poisioning ( Type-A toxin i.e. heat labile toxin) Beta toxin type-C associates with Pigbel i.e. necrotizing enteritis.
train
med_mcqa
null
CPD in absence of gross pelvic abnormality can be diagnosed by
[ "Ht of mother < 158 cms", "Trial of labor", "X ray pelvimetry", "Pelvic examination" ]
B
Best method to rule out CPD is trial of labor Best investigation MRI
train
med_mcqa
null
Phospholipid that plays an impoant role in apoptosis is?
[ "Phosphatidylcholine", "Phosphatidylserine", "Phosphatidylethanolamine", "Phosphatidylglycerol" ]
B
PHOSPHOLIPIDS ROLE Phosphatidylserine Apoptosis Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine Lung surfactant Cardiolipin Mitochondrial function Biological false positive VDRL Phosphatidyl inositol Reservoir of prostaglandin synthesis signal transmission across membranes Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition page ...
train
med_mcqa
null
Test of detecting damage to cochlea is
[ "Caloric test", "Weber test", "Rinnie's test", "ABC test" ]
D
Bone conduction is a measure of cochlear function. In ABC test: Patient's bone conduction is compared with that of the examiner (presuming that the examiner has normal hearing). In conductive deafness, the patient and the examiner hear the fork for the same duration of time. In sensorineural deafness, the patient hears...
train
med_mcqa
null
HIV virus contains:
[ "Single stranded DNA", "Single stranded RNA", "Double stranded DNA", "Double stranded RNA" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Single stranded RNA(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 571 and 8th/e, p. 570)* The genome in HIV is diploid, composed of two identical single stranded positive sense RNA copies.
train
med_mcqa
null
Swan Ganz Catheter is used to measure
[ "Mean aerial pressure", "Cardiac output", "Blood volume", "Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure" ]
D
The pulmonary aery catheter allows direct, simultaneous measurement of pressures in the right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary aery, and the filling pressure ("wedge" pressure) of the left atrium.
train
med_mcqa
null
Uses of alpha-2-agonist are all except?
[ "Sedation", "Glaucoma", "Benign Hyperplasia of prostate", "Hypeension" ]
C
Benign Hyperplasia of prostate.
train
med_mcqa
null
A 4-year-old child developed sudden bouts of cough & respiratory distress after eating peanuts. His Chest X ray shows the following; Diagnosis?
[ "Obstructive emphysema right side", "Obstructive emphysema left side", "Pneumonia", "Bronchiectasis" ]
B
This chest X-ray shows increased radiolucency of left hemithorax suggestive of hyperinflated chest on left side Foreign body aspiration could be the probable underlying cause- Obstructive emphysema left side
train
med_mcqa
null
Which is not true about hallucination -
[ "It is as vivid as normal stimulus", "It occurs in inner subjective space", "It is independent of will of observer", "It occurs in absence of perceptual stimuli" ]
B
Characteristics of Hallucinations:- The absence of corresponding external perceptual stimuli Vividness, force and the real value of normal perception. The experience occurs spontaneously It cannot be produced or terminated at will by subject (not in conscious or voluntary control). Perceived as being in external obje...
train
med_mcqa
null
Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of ?
[ "Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase", "Orotic acid decarboxylase", "UMP synthase", "All of the above" ]
D
Ans. is `d' i.e., All of the above Orotic aciduria is a hereditary disorder which can result from a defective enzyme in pyrimidine synthesis. There is a defect in the multifunctional enzyme UMP synthase which has two activities :?Orotate phosphoribosyl transferaseOrotic acid decarboxylase (orotidylate decarboxylase)UMP...
train
med_mcqa
null
The aery to the ductus dererens is a branch of
[ "Inferior epigastric aery", "Superior epigastric aery", "Superior vesical aery", "Cremasteric aery" ]
C
The vas deferens is supplied by an accompanying aery (aery of vas deferens). This aery normally arises from the superior (sometimes inferior) vesical aery, a branch of the internal iliac aery. Ref - researchgate.net
train
med_mcqa
null
Regarding typhoid ulcer, all of the following are true except: March 2005
[ "Perforation is common", "Obstruction results due to stricture formation", "Bleeding is usual", "Ileum is the common site" ]
B
Ans. B: Obstruction results due to stricture formation Typhoid ulcers may bleed or perforate, usually during lysis. Most perforations are near the ileocecal valve, measure less than 1 cm across, and lead to peritonitis. These areas become repopulated with lymphoid cells and heal without scarring.
train
med_mcqa
null
Chloramphenicol resistance in Pseudomonas aeruginosa is due to:
[ "Inactivation of the antimicrobial drug", "Alteration of the antimicrobial target", "Active efflux pumping out of the drug", "Decreased permeability of the drug" ]
C
Bacteria have evolved in various ways to counter the toxic propeies of antimicrobial agents. These are the following: i. Inactivation of the antimicrobial drug Resistance to penicillin and cephalosporin antibiotics in many bacteria is due to production of an enzyme beta-lactamase, which inactivates the antimicrobial ag...
train
med_mcqa
null
Orchitis without epididymitis is seen in ?
[ "Gonorrhoea", "Tuberculosis", "Syphilis", "Chlamydia infection" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Syphilis
train
med_mcqa
null
The only reason for operating in case thyroiditisis -
[ "To prevent cancerous degeneration", "For relief of pain in neck and ear", "To overcome pressure on trachea or oesophagus", "To cure the toxic reaction" ]
C
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Crown Height Space (CHS) for implant dentistry is measure from
[ "prosthetic platform", "junctional epithelium", "crest of the bone", "gingival margin" ]
C
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Massive blood transfusion is defined as -
[ "350 ml in 5 min", "500 ml in 5 min", "1 Litre in 5 min", "Whole blood volume" ]
D
Massive Blood Transfusion is defined as- According to Sabiston- . transfusion greater than patient's total blood volume in 24 hrs or as acute administration of more than 10 units of blood over a few hours. According to Schwartz- Massive transfusion is a single transfusion of 2500 ml or 5000 ml transfused over a perio...
train
med_mcqa
null
The only medial branch of external carotid aery is:
[ "Lingual", "Maxillary", "Superior thyroid", "Ascending pharyngeal" ]
D
D i.e. Ascending pharyngeal
train
med_mcqa
null
Trendelenberg position produces decrease in all of the following except –
[ "Vital capacity", "Functional residual capacity", "Compliance", "Respiratory rate" ]
D
Cephalad shift of abdominal viscera in trendelenberg position produces marked decrease in lung capacities (VC, FRC, TLC, Lung compliance).
train
med_mcqa
null
Dysphagia lusoria is a condition which results from
[ "Oesophageal atresia", "Aberrent right subclan aery", "Oesophageal web", "Corrosive stricture" ]
B
Dysphagia lusoria: It is a congenital vascular anomaly of the aoic root. Aoic arch anomalies are - double arch (40%), right arch and left ligamentum aeriosum (25%), anomalous innominate or common carotid aery or aberrant right subclan aery (10%). It is due to the disappearance of proximal right 4th aoic arch instead of...
train
med_mcqa
null
Most impoant element in treatment of diphtheria is
[ "Antitoxin", "Tetracycline", "Erythromycin", "Penicillin" ]
A
When a case is suspected as diphtheria, the antidiphtheritic serum should be given immediately as the moality rate increases with delay in staing Antitoxin treatment. In moderate cases, the dosage recommended is 20000 units intramuscularly and in severely ill cases 50,000- 1,00,000 units are injected, half the dose bei...
train
med_mcqa
null
Basement membrane degeneration is mediated by:
[ "Metalloproteinases", "Oxidases", "Elastases", "Hydroxylases" ]
A
A i.e. MetalloproteinasesZinc dependent matrix metalloproteinases (MMP) degrade collagen and other extracellular matrix proteins (including that of basement membrane)Q.
train
med_mcqa
null
Pink's disease is due to
[ "Toxicity of silver", "Toxicity of Mercury", "Toxicity of Lead", "Toxicity of Tetracycline" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Dental operator having highest risk of infection from:
[ "Scabies", "Hepatitis B", "AIDS", "Hepatitis E" ]
B
HBV is very highly infectious, far more that HIV. Any object or procedure than can convey minute traces of infected blood or other material, as little as 0.00001 ml, can be infectious. These include shared  syringes, needles and other sharp items or endoscopes, personal articles such as razors, nail clippers or combs, ...
train
med_mcqa
null
Formation of the Prochordal plate and the Primitive streak is seen at what age of Development?
[ "2 days", "8 days", "14 days", "16 days" ]
C
Age (in days)Developmental Events2Embryo is at two-cell stage3Morula is formed4Blastocyst is formed8Bilaminar disc is formed14Prochordal plate and primitive streak is seen16Intra-embryonic mesoderm is formed/disc is now three-layeredReference: Inderbir Singh Embryology; 10th edition; Page no: 57
train
med_mcqa
null