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Nitrogen atoms in purines are derived from all except | [
"Aspaate",
"Glutamine",
"THF",
"Glycine"
] | C | The N atoms at positions 3 and 9 are derived from the amide nitrogen glutamine Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e | train | med_mcqa | null |
First retinal abnormality in diabetic retinopathy: (PGI Dec 2007) | [
"Microaneurysm",
"Hard exudates",
"Soft exudates",
"Cotton Wool spots"
] | A | Ans. A (Microaneurysm) [Ref Khurana 4th/260-62; Parson 20th/294-98}"The earliest detectable lesion is microaneurysms in the macular area" -Khurana 4th/260Diabetic Retinopathy: Classification- 4 types Khurana 4th/260-62Non-proliferative Diabetic RetinopathyMicro aneurysmQ in macular area (the earliest detectable lesionQ... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kuppuswamy index considers the following EXCEPT: | [
"Education",
"Income",
"Housing",
"Occupation"
] | C | Ans. c (Housing). (Ref. Park, PSM, 19th/pg.36)KUPUSWAMY INDEXPHYSICAL QUALITY OF LIFE INDEX (PQLI)HUMAN DEVELOPMENT INDEXDALY (Disability Adjusted Life Years)HALE (Health Adjusted Life Years)Kupuswamy Index of social classification include# Education# Occupation# IncomeConsist of# Infant mortality,# Life expectancy at ... | train | med_mcqa | null |
First step in CPR (cardio pulmonary resuciatation) should be : | [
"IV adrenaline",
"Intracardic atropine",
"Airway maintainance",
"Hystrectomy"
] | C | C i.e. Airway maintenance | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old man presents with coughing up blood and sputum. There is no associated dyspnea, fever, or pleuritic chest pain. His past medical history is significant for recurrent pneumonias and a chronic cough productive of foul-smelling purulent sputum. The sputum production is usually worse when lying down and in th... | [
"bronchiectasis",
"chronic bronchitis",
"disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis",
"pulmonary neoplasm"
] | A | Bronchiectasis is defined as a permanent abnormal dilatation of large bronchi due to destruction of the wall. It is a consequence of inflammation, usually an infection. Other causes include toxins or immune response. Persistent cough and purulent sputum production are the hallmark symptoms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Saline infusion sonography is also called? | [
"Sonohysterography",
"Sonosalpingography",
"Hysterosalpingography",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,SonohysterographySaline Infusion SonographyIt is also called Sonohysteorgraphy.In this procedure sterile saline is instilled into the uterine cavity before ultrasound evaluation for more precise visualization of the endometrial structures.It is often used as second step in the evaluation of abnormal ut... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diseases covered under Vision 2020 include all except:- | [
"Cataract",
"Trachoma",
"Refractive errors",
"Retinal detachment"
] | D | Vision 2020 : - AIM of vision 2020 is to eliminate avoidable blindness by 2020 2 Types Global Indian Cataract Refractive error + low vision Childhood blindness Trachoma Onchocerciasis/ River blindness Cataract Refractive error + low vision Childhood blindness Trachoma Glaucoma Diabetes retinopathy Corneal blindness. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Microaerophilic bacteria is: | [
"Campylobacter",
"Vibrio cholera",
"Pseudomonas",
"Salmonella"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CampylobacterRef:(Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1038; Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 400)Microaerophilic bacteria - H. pylori, Campylobacter, B. burgdorferi and T. pallidum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malignant hyperthermia is common with: (Repeat) | [
"Local anesthetics",
"Succinyl choline",
"Propofol",
"Barbiturates"
] | B | Ans: B. Succinyl cholineRef: Miller Textbook of Anaesthesia. 6th edExplanation:Malignant HyperthermiaIt is a clinical syndrome observed during GA associated with rapidly increasing temperature of > 1 degree/ 5 minEtiologyIt is due to the abnormality of Ryanodine receptor which is a calcium releasing channel of sarcopla... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug is not used to prevent contrast nephropathy - | [
"Fenoldopam",
"N-acetylcysteine",
"Infusion of Hair normal saline",
"Hemodialysis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fenoldopam Summary And Recommendations for prevention of contrast induced nephropathy (uptodate recommendation )o Optimal therapy to prevent contrast-induced acute renal failure remains uncertain. Patients with near-normal renal function are at little risk and few precautions are necessary other than ... | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4-year old child has less number of teeth and lateral incisors with bifurcated roots with two root canals is called: | [
"Dilaceration",
"Concrescence",
"Fusion",
"Gemination"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulseless disease is | [
"Microscopic polyarteritis",
"Giant cell arteritis",
"Takayasu's disease",
"PAN"
] | C | (C) Takayasu's disease # TAKAYASU'S ARTERITIS (Pulseless disease)> Clinical: Dizziness, syncope Absent upper extremity pulse (pulseless disease) Blood pressure discrepancy between extremities: Low in upper and higher in lower Visual disturbances> Diagnosis: Angiography# Pulses are commonly absent in the involved vessel... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radiation can causes - | [
"Non Hodgkin lymphoma",
"Hodgkins lymphoma",
"Acute leukemia",
"Papillary carcinoma thyroid"
] | C | National Research Council's determination that radiation can cause acute leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 580 | train | med_mcqa | null |
O2 delivery to tissues depends on all, except | [
"Cardiac output",
"Type of fluid administered",
"Hemoglobin concentration",
"Affinity of hemoglobin for O2"
] | B | The oxygen dissociation curve can be shifted right or left by a variety of factors. A right shift indicates decreased oxygen affinity of haemoglobin allowing more oxygen to be available to the tissues. A left shift indicates increased oxygen affinity of haemoglobin allowing less oxygen to be available to the tissues Re... | train | med_mcqa | null |
HSV 2 causes: | [
"Genital herpes",
"Genital warts",
"Herpes zoster",
"Genital ulcer"
] | A | Ans: a (Genital herpes) Ref: Shaw, 13th ed, p. 113Heipes genitalis is caused by HSV type 2. It is the most common DNA viral infection encountered in vulval disease.Symptoms: Tingling, itching, paraesthesia - vesicles - painful ulcers.Treatment: AcyclovirNote:Genital warts (condyloma accuminata) caused by HPV 6,11.Heipe... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cause of death in diabetic ketoacidosis in children? | [
"Cerebral edema",
"Hypokalemia",
"Infection",
"Acidosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cerebral edema o High blood sugar will cross the blood brain barrier and simultaneously will draw water inside leading to cerebral edema. Cerebral edema accounts for 60-90% of all DKA related deaths in children,o Infection is a precipitator for development of DKA.o Other precipitating factor can be ti... | train | med_mcqa | null |
True aboutALL- | [
"Anemia",
"Leukopenia",
"Hepatomegaly",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Clinical manifestations of ALL o Symptoms related to depression of normal marrow function. An accumulation of neoplastic blast cells in the bone marrow suppresses normal hematopoisis by physical crowding and competition for growth factors. This results in : ? Anemia Fatigue, pallor Ne... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood testes barrier is formed by - | [
"Sertoli cells",
"Ependymal cells",
"Mesenchymal cells",
"Spermatozoa"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sertoli cells Blood testes barrier* The blood-testis barrier is a physical barrier between the blood vessels and the seminiferous tubules of the testes.* The walls of seminiferous tubules are lined with primitive germ layer cells and by Sertoli cells. The barrier is formed by tight junctions, adherens... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gas pack is commonly used to grow: | [
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa",
"Clostridium tetani",
"Klebsiella",
"Treponema pallidum"
] | A | Ans. A. Pseudomonas aeruginosaGas pak system is the most commonly used method for anaerobiosis as it is simple.It uses a sachet containing sodium bicarbonate and sodium borohydride which react chemically with O2 in presence of water, to produce H2 and CO2 . | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following bones form the proximal row of carpal bones except | [
"Lunate",
"Piriformis",
"Trapezium",
"Scaphoid"
] | C | The carpus is made up of 8 carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows:1.The proximal row contains (from lateral to medial side): (i) the scaphoid, (ii) the lunate, (iii) the triquetral, and (iv) the pisiform bones.2.The distal row contains in the same order: (i) the trapezium, (ii) the trapezoid, (iii) the capitate, ... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Constant feature associated with a radicular cyst | [
"An impacted tooth",
"A missing tooth",
"A non-vital tooth",
"An anomalous tooth"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition? | [
"Lattice dystrophy",
"Granular dystrophy",
"Macular dystrophy",
"Fleck dystrophy"
] | C | Inheritance of some important corneal dystrophies
Autosomal dominant:- Meesmann dystrophy, Reis-Buckler dystrophy, Lattice dystrophy, Granular dystrophy, Avellino dystrophy, Fleck dystrophy.
Autosomal recessive:- Macular dystrophy, Lattice type 3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young woman is evaluated by a neurosurgeon because of injuries she received in an explosion. She has numerous lacerations of the front and back torso and bruising of the craniofacial region. Neurological examination shows lack of movement in her right lower extremity with hyperreflexia, and loss of proprioception and... | [
"Hemisection of the left side of the spinal cord at the level of the first lumbar segment of the cord",
"Hemisection of the left side of the spinal cord at the level of the fourth sacral segment of the cord",
"Hemisection of the right side of the spinal cord at the level of the first lumbar segment of the cord"... | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpha waves in EEG represent - | [
"Eye closed with active mind",
"Eye open, fully awake and alert",
"Deep sleep",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Eye closed with active mindEEG rhythms and sleep wake cycleo Following EEG rhythms (Berger's rhythm) are important in relation to sleep wake cycle : -Alpha rhythm : - In adult humans who are awake but at rest with mind wandering and the eye closed, a- rhythm is prominent. It is a regular rhythm with a... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mummification refers to - | [
"Hardening of muscle after death",
"Colliquative putrifaction",
"Saponification of subcutaneous fat",
"Dessication of a dead body"
] | D | Mummification is drying and shrinking of cadaver from evaporation of water and general appearances of the body are preserved. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 87. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The uterus becomes pelvic organ after delivery in: | [
"10-12 days",
"12-14 days",
"14-16 days",
"16-18 days"
] | B | Uterus begins to shrink in size 2 days following delivery and it becomes a pelvic organ after 2 weeks. By 6 weeks uterus regains its nonpregnant size. During involution of uterus there is no loss of myometrial cells. It occurs due to diminution of size of myometrial cells as a result of enzymatic autolysis of cytoplasm... | train | med_mcqa | null |
The process by which fusion of part of a cell membrane occurs is/are | [
"Cell division",
"Endocytosis",
"Exocytosis",
"Virus replication"
] | B | Ans. (b) EndocytosisEndocytosis is the process of taking contents inside the cell. It involves fusion of two cell membranesExocytosis is release of contents from inside of the cell to outside. It involves fusion of vesicles inside the cell to its cell membrane | train | med_mcqa | null |
Band shaped keratopathy is formed due to deposition of: | [
"Calcium",
"Amyloid",
"Iron",
"Melanin"
] | A | Ans. a. Calcium (Ref: Parson's 20/e p202; Yanoff's 2/e p449; Kanski 6/e p304-305)Band shaped keratopathy is essentially a degenerative change associated with deposition of calcium salts in Bowman's membrane, most superficial part of stroma and in deeper layers of epithelium.Band Shaped Keratopathy/Calcific band Keratop... | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common type of Glomerulonephritis occurs in HIV infection is | [
"FSGS",
"RPGN",
"ADP-GN",
"MPGN"
] | A | (A) FSGS GLOMERULONEPHRITISCINICAL FEATURESETIOLOGY* ADP-GN* Nephritic syndrome* Post-streptococcal (2/3rd cases)Diffuse proliferative GN* Gross hematuria + edema + hypertension* Leprosy, ABE, SBEAcute GN* Oliguria* RBC cast: most specific* RPGN (Crescentic GN)* Sub acute RF* Nephritic syndrome* Complement level Normal... | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about toxoplasmosis are true except - | [
"Oocyst in freshly passed cat's faeces is infective",
"May spread by organ transplantation",
"Maternal infection acquired after 6 months has high risk of transmission",
"Ahalgia, sore throat and abdominal pain are the most common manifestations"
] | A | Human infection: Ingestion of undercooked food containing tissue cyst Blood transfusions Organ transplants Mother to foetus (refer pgno:67 baveja 3 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trethowan sign is used in radiological diagnosis of? | [
"TB Hip",
"Pehes Disease",
"Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis",
"Avascular Necrosis of head of femur"
] | C | TRETHOWAN'S SIGN In normal hip a line drawn tangential to superior femoral neck (Klein's line) intersects small poion of lateral capital epiphyseal. In posterior displacement of epiphyses the line doesn't intersect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for fracture shaft femur in a 4 years old child | [
"Gallow's traction",
"Hip spica",
"Russel traction",
"Intramedullary nail"
] | C | *0-2 years : skin traction - gallow&;s traction / Bryant&;s traction * 2-10 years : most femoral fracture is seen in this group .here split Russell traction is useful *10-15 years : 90-90degfemoral skeletal traction or hip spica or both * adults - traction : skin/skeletal & cast bracing Surgery - intramedullary nails c... | train | med_mcqa | null |
A baby 4 weeks old presents with non-bilious vomiting and abdominal distension, on radiological examination this is the presentation of the baby, among the given options, which is the most essential feature in reaching the diagnosis of this condition? | [
"Visible peristalsis",
"Project vomiting",
"Loss of weight and dehydration",
"Palpation of the hypertrophic pylorus"
] | D | Ans. D Palpation of the hypertrophic pylorus Diagnosis based on the figure is Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, observe the bilateral thickening of the stomach lumen which is seen in pyloric-antrum, this condition is due to hypertrophy of the circular muscles. This bilateral thickening is referred to as double track appea... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs cause an increase in gastro intestinal motility? | [
"Atropine",
"Glycopyrrolate",
"Fentanyl",
"Neostigmine"
] | D | Neostigmine is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, inhibits the break down of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft thereby increasing the levels of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine in turn acts on intestinal smooth muscles and increase intestinal peristalsis. Actions of Acetylcholine on smooth muscle: GIT Bronchial... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is seen with- | [
"Adenovirus",
"Staphylococcal",
"Pneumococcus",
"Hemophilus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adenovirus * Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by picomaviruses (Enterovirus - 70, coxsackievirus A24) and sometimes Adenovirus type 11. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Referred pain in the ear is commonly from ___ | [
"Maxillary carcinoma",
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Carcinoma tongue",
"Malignant otitis externa"
] | C | Referred causes of earache: As the ear receives nerve supply from: Vth (auriculotemporal branch) cranial nerve-dental, oral cavity, temporomandibular joint disorders and sphenopalatine neuralgia IXth (tympanic branch) cranial nerve -oropharynx, base of tongue, elongated styloid process Xth (auricular branch) cranial ne... | train | med_mcqa | null |
For medical termination of pregnancy, consent is given by- | [
"Guardian",
"Concerned lady",
"Both husband and wife",
"Husband of the lady"
] | B | MTP Act 1971 Upto 12 weeks: opinion of single doctor 12-20 weeks: opinion of two doctors mandatory Consent Only consent of pregnant woman is necessary Consent from husband- not necessary Minor or insane person - consent from guardian required | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mitsuda reaction is read after - | [
"3 days",
"3 hours",
"3 weeks",
"3 months"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
At what stage of erythropoiesis does Hemoglobin appear | [
"Reticulocyte",
"Intermedate normoblast",
"Early normoblast.",
"Erythroblast"
] | B | Hb synthesis stas at the stage of intermediate normoblast and then its contents increase progressivelyRef: Medical Physiology Indu Khurana 2015 edition page No:106 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following sign is present in Subungual melanoma? | [
"Hutchinson's sign",
"Fitzpatrick's sign",
"Pastia's sign",
"Frank's sign"
] | A | Hutchinson's sign: Periungual extension of brown-black pigmentation from longitudinal melanonychia onto the proximal and lateral nail folds, is an impoant indicator of subungual melanoma. Fitzpatrick's sign: Also called as Dimple sign present in dermatofibroma. Pastia's sign: in streptococcal scarlet fever. Frank's sig... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Strategies in National Leprosy Control programme include- | [
"Early detection of cases",
"Sho course multi drug therapy",
"Rehabilitation",
"Chemoprophylaxis with dapsone"
] | A | <p> National leprosy eradication programme: Staed in 1983 with the goal of eradicating the disease by the turn of the century. The aim was to reduce case load to 1 or less than 1 per 10,000 population. Strategies: 1. Integrated leprosy services through general health care system. 2. Early detection and treatment of new... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood agar is an example of? | [
"Enriched media",
"Enrichment media",
"Nutrient media",
"Special media"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Enriched mediaREF: Essentials of diagnostic microbiology by Lisa Anne Shimeld, Anne T. Rodgers page 93, Laboratory Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases: Essentials of Diagnostic Microbiology by Paul G. Engelkirk, Janet Duben-Engelkirk page 190See APPENDIX-82 below for "CATEGORIES OF ARTIFICIAL MEDIA"Enriched me... | train | med_mcqa | null |
At which location along the basilar membrane are the highest frequency sounds detected? | [
"Near oval window",
"Fahest from the oval window, near the helicotrema",
"Uniformly along the basilar membrane",
"At the midpoint of the membrane"
] | A | Each wave is relatively weak at the outset but becomes strong when it reaches the poion of the basilar membrane that has a natural resonant frequency equal to the respective sound frequency. At this point, the basilar membrane can vibrate back and foh with such ease that the energy in the wave is dissipated. Consequent... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mean < Median < Mode is seen in which type of curve - | [
"Negative skewed",
"Positively skewed",
"Normal distribution",
"No correlation"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Negative skewed Relationship b/w the measures of central tendency* In a symmetrical cw'veMean = Median = Mode* In a Positive (Right) skewed curveMean > Median > Mode* In a Negative (left) skewed curveMean < Median < Mode | train | med_mcqa | null |
Synol sarcoma cellular markers are ? | [
"Cytokeratin",
"S-100",
"Vimentin",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cytokeratin; 'b' i.e., S-100 & 'c' i.e, Vimentin o Immunohistochemisny: these tumors have spindle cells which are positive for vimentin and epithelial components positive for cytokeratin. More recently, molecular diagnostic studies have identitied a unique translocation, t (X;18), producing SYT/SSX1 o... | train | med_mcqa | null |
A major causal factor in some cases of hypogonadism is: | [
"Reduced secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)",
"Hypersecretion of pituitary LH and FSH as the result of increased GnRH",
"Excess secretion of testicular activin by Sertoli cells",
"Failure of the hypothalamus to respond to testosterone"
] | A | Ans. A. Reduced secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)Reduced secretion of GnRH will result in extremely low levels of circulating LH and FSH, causing testicular atrophy, as in Kallmann's syndrome. Hypersecretion of LH and FSH, increased activin, and an increased number of FSH receptors all lead to hyperfun... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which enzyme Deficiency leads to serious side effects with 5FU | [
"CYPD29",
"Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase",
"Uridine di phosphate",
"Purine"
] | B | Ans. b. Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenaseRef: Goodman Gilman 13th E/P 11825FU is metabolized by Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase in liver and other tissues including tumor cells.Deficiency of this enzyme in patients can lead to a decreased metabolism and increased toxicity of 5FU like severe diarrhea and shock leading to ... | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 year old male, scrotal swelling. Exam - bag of worms swelling present. Which structure is responsible: | [
"Pampiniform plexus of veins",
"Testicular artery + Pampiniform plexus of veins",
"Spermatic cord + Testicular artery",
"Testicular vein + Testicular artery"
] | A | Ans. (a) Pampiniform plexus of veinsRef: Bailey 26th Edition, Page 1381* Varicocele is a varicose dilatation of the veins draining the testis. Vein draining the testis and epididymis form the pampiniform plexus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clue cell is seen in? | [
"Bacterial vaginosis",
"Candida",
"Trichomonas vaginalis",
"Condylomatous was"
] | A | Essentials of Diagnosis for Bacterial Vaginosis: Homogeneous vaginal discharge Amine (fishy) odor when potassium hydroxide solution is added to vaginal secretions (commonly called the "whiff test"). Presence of clue cells (>20% of epithelial cells) on microscopy. Clue cells are identified as numerous stippled or granul... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type I Glomus cells of peripheral chemoreceptors have | [
"CO2 sensitive K+ channels",
"O2 sensitive Cl– channel",
"CO2 sensitive Cl– channel",
"O2 sensitive K+ channel"
] | D | O2 sensitive K+ channel is present in Type I Glomus cell. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 54 yr old smoker man comes with fever, hemoptysis. weight loss and oligo ahritis. Serial skiagram shows fleeting opacities. What is the diagnosis aEUR' | [
"Allergic Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis",
"Calung",
"TB",
"Wegeners granulomatosis"
] | D | Wegner's granulomatosis On first instance, presence of fleeting opacities and hempotysis makes it look like a case of allergic bmnchopulmona n, aspergillosis. But presence of oligoahritis and weight loss cannot be explained by allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. Presence of fever, hemoptysi.s and weight loss sugge... | train | med_mcqa | null |
The main controlling agent for respiratory drive is which of the following - | [
"CO2",
"Oxygen",
"NO",
"HBO3"
] | A | Central chemoreceptors are situated in the deeper pa of medulla oblongata, close to the dorsal respiratory group of neurons. This area is known as a chemosensitive area, and the neurons are called chemoreceptors. Chemoreceptors are in close contact with blood and cerebrospinal fluid. Central chemoreceptors are connecte... | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnoea and non-productive cough. The patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is - | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Cryptococcosis",
"Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia",
"Toxoplasmosis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest malignancy in HIV patient ? | [
"Kaposi sarcoma",
"Adenoma of stomach",
"Astrocytoma",
"CNS lymphoma"
] | A | Ans is 'a' ie. Kaposi Sarcoma Neoplastic ds seen in AIDS a) Kaposi Sarcoma (MC)* d) Multiple Myeloma b) Non-Hodgkins lymphoma (2nd MC)* e) Melanoma c) Hodgkins lymphoma f) Cervical, brain, testicular, oral cancers | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pinna calcification is seen in all except - | [
"Gout",
"Ochronosis",
"Frost bite",
"Addison's disease"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Early treatment failure in malaria is indicated by all, EXCEPT: | [
"Development of danger signs or severe malaria on days 1,2,3 in presence of parasitemia",
"Parasitemia on day 3 >50% of day 1 count",
"Parasitemia on day 3 with temperature >37.5 ? C",
"None of the above"
] | B | Early treatment failure in malaria is defined as: Development of danger signs or severe malaria on days 1,2,3 in presence of parasitemia Parasitemia on day 3 >25% of day 1 count Parasitemia on day 3 with temperature >37.5 ? C Ref: National Health Programmes in India, J.Kishore, 10th edition pg: 365 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Specificity of a screening test is the ability of a test to detect: | [
"True positives",
"False positives",
"False negatives",
"True negatives"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. True negatives Sensitivity is the ability of test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, i.e. 'true positives'.Specificity is the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease, i.e. 'true negatives'. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child , Names 4 colours by the age of | [
"24 months",
"36 months",
"48 months",
"60 months"
] | D | Emerging patterns for language behaviour from 1-5years of age 15months Jargon Follows simple commands May name a familiar object (e.g., ball) Responds to his/her name 18months 10 words (average) Names pictures Identifies 1 or more pas of the body 24months Puts 3 words together (subject, verb, object) 30months Refers to... | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about HIT syndrome are all Except? | [
"LMWH shouldn't be used for treatment",
"It causes both aerial and venous thrombosis",
"More common with fractionated heparin",
"Occurs commonly in about a week of heparin therapy"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., More common with fractionated heparin Features of Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia o Platelet count PS 100,000/uL or decreased by 350%. o Stas 5-10 days after staing heparin. o More common with unfractionated heparin than LMW heparin. o Venous thrombosis is more common than aerial. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decarboxylation of Ammo acid produces all except | [
"Histamine",
"Proline",
"Tryptamine",
"Tyramine"
] | B | Amino decarboxylase catalyzes several different decarboxylation reactions: L-DOPA to dopamine L-phenylalanine to phenethylamine L-tyrosine to tyramine L-histidine to histamine L-tryptophan to tryptamine 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) The enzyme uses pyridoxal phosphate, the active form of vitami... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Remnant of notochord is ? | [
"Annulus fibrosus",
"Nucleus pulposus",
"Ligament flavum",
"Interansverse ligament"
] | B | After development of veeral bodies, the notochord degenerates and disappears but persists as the nucleus pulposus of interveebral disc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Toxic shock syndrome is caused by | [
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Streptococcus albicans",
"Enterococcus Durans"
] | B | Toxic shock syndrome is a potentially fatal multisystem disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Present as fever, hypotension, myalgia, vomiting, diarrhea, mucosal hyperemia and an erythematous rash which desquamates subsequently. This is associated with infection of mucosal or sequestered sites by toxic shock syndrom... | train | med_mcqa | null |
The upper 1/3rd of vagina develops from | [
"Mullerian ducts",
"Wolffian ducts",
"Sinovaginal bulbs",
"Endoderm"
] | A | Upper 1/3rd of vagina develops from uterovaginal canal(mesoderm) which is the union of lower veical pa of paramesonephric or mullerian duct. Lower 2/3rd of vagina develops from paramesonephric or mullerian tubercle arises from endoderrm of definitive urogenital sinus which gives two solid evagenations. The 2 solid evag... | train | med_mcqa | null |
The group of antibiotics that possesses additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is: | [
"Tetracyclines",
"Polypeptide antibiotics",
"Fluoroquinolones",
"Macrolides"
] | D | MACROLIDE ANTIBIOTICS These are antibiotics having a macrocyclic lactone ring with attached sugars. Erythromycin is the first member discovered in the 1950s, Roxithromycin, Clarithromycin and Azithromycin are the later additions. Interestingly, the nonantibiotic macrolides: tacrolimus, pimecrolimus and sirolimus also p... | train | med_mcqa | null |
In 'Down's syndrome' the shape of the head is – | [
"Oxycephalic",
"Scaphocephalic",
"Brachicephalic",
"Plagiocephalic"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient ingested some unknown substance and presented with myoclonic jerks, seizures, tachycardia and hypotension. ECG shows a hea rate of 120/min. The aerial blood revealed a pH of 7.25, pCO2of 30mm Hg and bicarbonate ions are 15mmol/L. The most likely poisonous agent is: | [
"Amanita phylloids",
"Ethylene glycol",
"Imipramine",
"Phencyclidine"
] | C | Ref: KDT 8TH ED. Features are typical of tricyclic antidepressant poisoning. TCAs posses anticholinergic activity that can result in tachycardia. These agents can lead to metabolic acidosis (pH<7.4, HCO3<24mmol/L). Seizures and myoclonic jerks are other features of TCA poisoning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not one of the phases of Implantation of Embryo? | [
"Epithelialization",
"Apposition",
"Adhesion",
"Invasion"
] | A | Implantation of Embryo can be divided into three phases: Apposition--initial contact of the blastocyst to the uterine wall Adhesion--increased physical contact between the blastocyst and decidua; and Invasion--penetration and invasion of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast into decidua , inner third of the myometri... | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about pure gonadal dysgenesis is all except | [
"Dysgenetic ovaries",
"Decreased height",
"Delayed puberty",
"Primary amenorrhea"
] | B | Pure gonadal dysgenesis - Height of female is normal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
By definition, in familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) at least more than___ colonic adenomas must be present. | [
"10",
"50",
"100",
"1000"
] | C | Ans. c (100). (Ref. Harrison's internal medicine 16th ed. 528)FAMILIAL POLYPOSIS COLI (FAP)# It is characterized by appearance of thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the large bowel.# By definition, in FAP at least more than 100 colonic adenomas must be present.# Colonic polyps are rarely present before puberty ... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following local anaesthetic causes least vasodilation: | [
"Bupivacaine",
"Prilocaine",
"Ropivacaine",
"Lignocaine"
] | B | Prilocaine causes less vasodilation than other local anesthetics and thus used without using epinephrine added to the local anesthetic solution. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true about amoebiasis- | [
"ALA in 10% cases in tropics",
"Portal system efficient filter",
"Abscess due to suppuration",
"Abscess wall good for culture"
] | C | Amoebic liver abscess
Pus in amoebic liver abscess is not due to suppuration but is a mixture of sloughed liver tissue and blood.
It is chocolate brown in colour and thick in consistency (anchovy sauce pus)
In the tropics, 2-10% of the individuals infected with Entamoeba histolytica suffer from hepatic complications. ... | train | med_mcqa | null |
INH can be used safely in the presence of | [
"Jaundice",
"Chronic renal failure",
"Epilepsy",
"Coronary aery disease"
] | D | ReferKDT 6/e p740 INH causes hepatitis Peripheral neuritis Neurological manifestations *****its toxic metabolites accumulates in the presence of renal failure so we are left with last option, coronary aery disease, which is our answer of exclusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most sensitive test for Treponema | [
"VDRL",
"RPR",
"FIA-ABS",
"Kahn"
] | C | FTA-ABS test Most sensitive test in Syphilis The non specific tests (VDRL / RPR) test can be easily ruled out:? Their sensitivity is comparable to that of specific tests in primary and secondary syphilis but in latent or late syphilis they have quite low sensitivity. Specific Tests TPI In its time TPI was the most spec... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maxillary nerve pass through which foramen? | [
"Foramen spinosum",
"Foramen rotundum",
"Foramen lacerum",
"Foramen ovale"
] | B | Maxillary nerve passes through foramen rotundum | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements are true regarding retinoblastoma, except: | [
"Rb genes play major role in cell cycle regulation",
"Require deletion of both the Rb genes",
"Familial variant is autosomal dominant in inheritance",
"Rb gene is on chromosome 14p13"
] | D | Rb gene Governor of the cell cycle Negative regulator of the G1/S cell cycle transition. Located on 13q14 chromosome. To explain the two patterns of occurrence of retinoblastoma, Knudson proposed "two hit" hypothesis of oncogenesis. Two mutations (hits), involving both alleles of RB at chromosome locus 13q14, are requi... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Excessive blood loss during mandibulectomy can be prevented by all of the following except? | [
"Use of pressure and packing",
"Use of electrocautery",
"Adrenaline infiltration",
"Artery application to the open vessels"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are features of Mayer Rokitansky kuster Hauser syndrome except | [
"Renal agenesis",
"Menorrhagia",
"Hemivertebrae",
"Normal breasts"
] | B | MRKH syndrome is characterized by primary amenorrhea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heart block is seen in - | [
"Hypermagensemia",
"Hypomagnesemia",
"Hypernatremia",
"Hypocalcemia"
] | A | Ans. is i.e., Hypermagnesemia o Hypermagnesemia slows the heart and leads to heart block.o Hypomagesemia leads to cardiac arrhythmias like SVT and VT.HypermagnesemiaHypomagnesemiaInhibits PTH releaseInhibits calcium reabsorptionResistance to PTHDecreased production of vitamin D3Vasodilation : HypotensionTetanyNeuromusc... | train | med_mcqa | null |
A mother comes with history of antenatal fetal death due to neural tube defect in first child. What is the amount of folic acid you will prescribe during preconceptional counseling (in micrograms/day)? | [
"4",
"40",
"400",
"4000"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. 4000Ref. Williams Obs 24/e, p 1104Folate Requirement in normal pregnancy: 4 microgramsFolate requirement in pregnancy with previous history of neural tube defects: 4 mg. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following eukaryotic transcription factor recognises the promoter? | [
"Rho",
"Pribnow box",
"Sigma",
"TFIID"
] | D | = TFIID (option d) TFII is the transcription factor for RNA Polymerase II in eukaryotes. TFIID is required for initiation at promoters lacking the TATA box. = Sigma factor (option c) Recognizes the Pribnow box in Prokaryotes. It forms a complex with RNA polymerase (a2bb 'w) to form the holoenzyme. Different types of su... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Face to pubis delivery is seen in which variety of pelvis ? | [
"Gynecoid",
"Anthropoid",
"Android",
"Platypelloid"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anthropoid Anstomical Features of parent Pelvic GynecoldAnthropoidAndroidPlatypelloid o ShapeRoundAnteroposteriorly ovalTriangularTransversely ovalo Anterior and posterior segmentAlmost equal and spaciousBoth increased with slight anterior narrowingPosterior segment short and anterior segment narrowBo... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one is not true regarding GI tuberculosis? | [
"Formation of transvere ulcer .",
"Common site ileocecal region",
"Obtuse ileocecal angle is seen .",
"Surgical management is treatment of choice"
] | D | GASTROINTESTINAL TUBERCULOSIS Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Formation of Transverse ulcer in ileum (longitudinal ulcers are seen in Typhoid) MC site is terminal ileum and ileocecal junction On Barium meal follow through In GI TB - contraction of mesocolon causes pulled-up cecum which is seen as Obtuse I/C Angle (Goose Ne... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ascending UTI caused by - | [
"Salmonella",
"T.B.",
"E.coli",
"All"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., E.coli Urinary tract infection . In the vast majority of UTIs, bacteria gain access to the bladder urethra. Ascent of bacteria from bladder may follow and is the pathway for most renal parenchymal infections. . Organisms are ? - E.coli (most common) - Serratia - N. gonorrhoea - Proteus - Pseudomonas -... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Taper present in 20 number GT file is | [
"0.06, 0.08, 0.10, 0.12",
"0.006, 0.008, 0.01, 0.012",
"0.6, 0.8, 1.0, 1.2",
"0.03, 0.04, 0.05, 0.06"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is known to cause severe pain on injection? | [
"Thiopentone",
"Pethidine",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Ketamine"
] | A | Thiopentone on extravasation or intraaerial injection cause intense pain and even necrosis. Pentothal (Thiopental Sodium for Injection) is an ultrasho-acting depressant of the central nervous system which induces hypnosis and anesthesia, but not analgesia. It produces hypnosis within 30 to 40 seconds of intravenous inj... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is NOT TRUE regarding Widal test? | [
"Baseline titres differ depending on the endemicity of the disease",
"High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative",
"O antibody lasts longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection",
"H antibody cannot differentiate between types"
] | C | Widal test is used for the measurement of H and O agglutinins for typhoid and paratyphoid bacilli in patients sera. Two types of tubes are generally used, a narrow tube with conical bottom (Dreyer's) for H agglutination and a sho round bottom (Felix) for O agglutination. Equal volumes of serial dilution of the serum an... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Milian's ear sign is positive in: | [
"Cellulitis",
"Erysipelas",
"Impetigo contagiosa",
"Borderline Tuberculoid Leprosy"
] | B | Erysipelas is infection of dermal lymphatics by Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococi,characterized by erythema,tenderness and lesions have raised margins.
Milians's ear sign : positive, that is involvement of ear is seen in erysipelas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A chronic wound may be defined as one that fails to heal by | [
"1 week",
"2 weeks",
"3 weeks",
"4 weeks"
] | C | A chronic wound may be defined as one that fails to heal in the expected time for a wound of that type, which is usually less than 3 weeks. Delays in healing can occur at any phase but most often occur in the inflammatory phase.Bailey and love 27e pg: 29 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Select the type of bone disease with which it is most likely to be associated with defect in the mineralization of adult bone secondary to abnormalities in vitamin D metabolism (SELECT 1 DISEASE) | [
"Osteogenesis imperfecta",
"Osteopetrosis",
"Osteitis fibrosa cystica",
"Osteomalacia"
] | D | Osteitis fibrosa cystica is commonly associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hemorrhagic cystic lesions (brown tumors) usually occur in the long bones. Treatment is parathyroidectomy Osteomalacia is defined as a defect in mineralization of adult bone that results from abnormalities in vitamin D metabolism. Treatment gener... | train | med_mcqa | null |
In case of burns which graft is better? | [
"Thiersch graft",
"Wolfe graft",
"Pedicle graft",
"Patch graft"
] | A | Thiersch graft is split thickness graft used for burns. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is true statement? | [
"Depression with suicidal tendencies require ECT",
"Chronic depression will require ECT",
"Reactive depression responds to ECT better",
"ECT is the treatment of choice for atypical depression"
] | A | Ref: Synopsis of Psychiatry. Kaplan & Sadock, 10th edition. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, IVth edition.Expanation:Electro-convulsive treatment (ECT)It is one of the physical methods used to treat major depression.Other methods to treat major depression are Vagal Nerve Stimulation (VNS), Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for pericardial effusion is | [
"MRI",
"CT",
"X ray",
"Echo"
] | D | Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is usually the initial investigation of suspected pericardial disease. It is cheap and widely available and has high accuracy for detecting pericardial effusions and signs of tamponade. TTE is also helpful for guiding diagnostic or therapeutic pericardiocentesis. Restricted acoustic... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Degeneracy of codons means | [
"More than one codon for a single amino acid",
"Termination of protein synthesis",
"Transcription",
"Translation"
] | A | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following condition indicate periodontal rather an endodontic lesion? | [
"Acute pain on vertical percussion with no swelling",
"Pain to lateral percussion with wide sulcular pocket",
"A deep narrow sulcular pocket to the apex with exudates",
"Pain to palpation of the buccal mucosa near the tooth apex"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pseudoproptosis is a feature of: | [
"Buphthalmos",
"High axial myopia",
"Upper lid retraction",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
This sign is seen in all the following disorders EXCEPT? | [
"Duchenne muscular dystrophy",
"Becker's muscular dystrophy",
"Landouzy-Dejerine disease",
"Spinal muscular atrophy"
] | D | d. Spinal muscular atrophyThe given picture shows a child using his upper limb to help him get up from sitting position; This is called 'Gower sign' | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thrombocytopenia is caused by: - | [
"Aspirin",
"Acyclovir",
"DIC",
"Henoch-schonlein purpura (HSP)"
] | C | Causes of thrombocytopenia: I. -Decreased production of platelets: 1)selective impairment of platelet production: a)drug induced : alcohol , thiazides . b) Infections : measles, HIV .Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs as a complication of a wide variety of disorders. DIC is caused by the systemic activ... | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monro's abscesses, with not elongated rete ridges: | [
"Benign migratory glossitis.",
"Reiter's syndrome.",
"Psoriasis.",
"Pemphigus."
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hutch diveiculum is seen in | [
"Bladder",
"Ureter",
"Duodenum",
"Caecum"
] | A | Hutch diveiculum is a congenital type of bladder diveiculum characterised by herniation of bladder mucosa through a weak point in the wall near the ureterovesical junction, often caused by chronically high intravesical pressure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a type of epiphysis? | [
"Traction",
"Atavistic",
"Friction",
"Pressure"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) FrictionREF: Human osteology by BDC 1st edition page 5-6EpiphysisDefinition/ FunctionExamplePressure epiphysesTakes part in transmission of weightHead of femur , condyles of tibia , lower end of radiusTraction epiphysesProvide attachment to more than 1 tendonTrochanter of femur, tubercles of humerus, mastoi... | train | med_mcqa | null |
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