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Which of the following is the most reliable feature of malignant transformation of pheochromocytoma
[ "Presence of mitotic figures", "Presence of metastasis to other organs", "Vascular /capsular invasion", "All the above" ]
B
Ref Robbins 8/e p1159; 9/e p1135 There is no histological feature that reliably predicts clinical behaviour .Infact, cellular and nuclear pleomorphism, including the presence of giant cells, and mitotic figures are often seen in benign pheochromocytoma.while cellular monotony is paradoxical associated with an aggressiv...
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EMLA is a mixture of lidocaine and:
[ "Aicaine", "Prilocaine", "Bupivacaine", "None of the above" ]
B
A variety of topical local anesthetic formulations have been developed to penetrate intact skin. EMLA, which is a eutectic mixture of 2.5% lidocaine base and 2.5% prilocaine base, is widely used for venipuncture, intravenous cannulation, skin grafting, and a range of other uses, including circumcision Ref: Miller's ane...
train
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Voissius ring is seen in the-
[ "Cornea", "Anterior capsule of the lens", "Posterior capsule of the lens", "Iris" ]
B
*Vossius ring is a circular ring of brown pigment seen on the anterior capsule of the lens. It occurs due to striking of the contracted pupillary margin against the crystalline lens. It is always smaller than the size of pupil. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.447
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A 31 year old female, P1L1 underwent a routine paps smear which was repoed as CIN III (High Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion/ HSIL) . What will be the next step in management?
[ "Trachelectomy", "Hysterectomy", "Conization", "Colposcopy biopsy" ]
D
After a patient is repoed to have CIN III on a paps smear the next step is to confirm the diagnosis by a colposcopic biopsy Conization is not done in a young patient with incomplete family as it causes Sho cervix- Incompetence - aboions Stenosed- Infeility Trachelectomy and hysterectomy are not done in premalignant les...
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A 14-year-old boy present with headache, fever, and cough for 2 days. Sputum is scant and non-purulent and gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. The treatment should be initiated with :
[ "Cefazolin", "Erythromycin", "Amikacin", "Trovafloxacin" ]
B
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A patient with visual acuity of <6/60 in better eye but more than 3/60 is having:
[ "Economical blindness", "Social blindness", "Legal blindness", "Absolute blindness" ]
A
Definitions of blindness: WHO definition of blindness: "Visual acuity of less than 3/60 (Snellen) or its equivalent". Economical blindness: Vision in better eye <6/60 to 3/60 Social blindness: Vision in better eye <3/60 to 1/60 Legal blindness: Vision in better eye <1/60 to perception of light Absolute/total blindness:...
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What is the ideal site to make a burr hole in a patient of head injury with rapidly deteriorating sensorium & progressive dilatation of pupil with no localizing sign?
[ "Right temporal region", "Left temporal region", "Midline", "Left parietal region" ]
B
Burr hole surgery should be done by taking into consideration side of pupillary dilatation 1. One sided pupillary dilatation: Burr hole on that side 2. Both sided pupillary dilatation: Burr hole on the side of first dilated pupil/ side with obvious external trauma. 3. No localizing sign: Burr hole on the side of domina...
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In RNTCP what is the schedule for sputum examination after beginning the chemotheraphy, in category I patients -
[ "2, 4 and 6 months", "1, 2 and 3 months", "3, 5 and 6 months", "1, 3 and 5 months" ]
A
- the patient taking category I treatment of DOTS should examine sputum at 2 months. - if the sputum is negative fur bacilli , then continuation phase is staed and sputum is examined at 4 and 6 months. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:188 <\p>
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Adductors of vocal cord
[ "Posterior cricoarytenoids", "lateral cricoarytenoids", "Transverse arytenoids", "V occalis" ]
B
movements and muscle 1. elevation of larynx: thyrohyoid, mylohyoid 2. depression of larynx: sternothyroid, sternohyoid 3.opening inlet of larynx: thyroepiglottic 4. closing inlet of larynx: aryepiglottic 5.abductor of vocal cords: posterior cricoarytenoid only 6. adductor of vocal cords: lateral cricoarytenoid transver...
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Hormone replacement therapy in post-menopausal women increases risk of all except
[ "Breast cancer", "Stroke", "Colorectal cancer", "Thromboembolism" ]
C
Hormone replacement therapy in post-menopausal woman has an increased risk of  Breast cancer Stroke Thromboembolism Cholecystitis.
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A baby girl with ambiguous genitalia is found to have 21-hydroxylase deficiency of the salt-wasting type.Which of the following karyotypes would you expect to find?
[ "46, XX", "46, XY", "47, XXY", "47, XYY" ]
A
. 46, XX
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An 8 year old child diagnosed with Langerhans cell histiocytosis. Bone involvement is seen. All of the following are true about Langerhans cell histiocytosis, EXCEPT:
[ "Peak incidence less than 3 years of age", "Radiosensitive", "Diffuse form is known as litter-sewe-disease", "Enophthalmos present" ]
D
Exophthalmos is present in only 10% to 30% of cases of Langerhans cell histiocytosis. It may be unilateral or bilateral and is due to retroocular bone infiltration by Langerhans cells. Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a disease of childhood. Letterer-Siwe disease is the prototype of the acute, disseminated, multisystem...
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Digoxin may be used in the treatment of-
[ "Constrictive pericarditis", "Cardiac tamponade", "Atrial fibrillation", "Diastolic failure" ]
C
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A 50 year old female presents with lesions on cheek, chin and forehead. On examination the skin is erythematous, with dilated blood vessels, nodules and pustules without any comedones. What is the MOST likely diagnosis in this patient?
[ "Folliculitis", "Rosacea", "Mild acne vulgaris", "Acne conglobata" ]
B
This patient is showing features of rosacea which is a chronic skin disorder characterized by erythema and telangiectasia, punctuated by acute episodic eruption of papules, pustules and swelling. It is especially seen on the convexities of face (cheeks, chin, forehead and nose) and spares periorbital and perioral areas...
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Most common site of genitourinary tuberculosis ?
[ "Kidney", "Ureter", "Bladder", "Urethra" ]
A
Most common site for genitourinary TB is kidney. Tuberculosis of the urinary tract arises from haematogenous infection from a distant focus that is often impossible to identify.Hence it is almost always secondary TB . Lesions usually confined to one kidney. A group of tuberculous granulomas in a renal pyramid coalesces...
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Which is not seen in multiple myeloma -
[ "Lytic lesions in bone", "Increase in alkaline phosphatase", "Hypercalcemia", "Hypercalciuria" ]
B
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Rinne's test was negative in the right ear. Possible diagnosis is
[ "40 db SNHL in left ear, right ear normal", "40 db CHL right ear, left normal", "40 db CHL both ear", "Profound hearing loss right ear, left ear normal" ]
B
There is conductive hearing loss in right ear. Left ear normal. A prediction of an air-bone gap can be made if tuning forks of 256, 512 and 1024 Hz are used. A Rinne test equal or negative for 256 Hz but positive for 512 Hz indicates an air-bone gap of 20-30 dB. A Rinne test negative for 256 and 512 Hz but positive for...
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Occupational Lung Disease commonly seen in Textile industry Workers is -
[ "Byssinosis", "Bagassosis", "Farmes's Lung", "Asbestosis" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Byssinosis o Farmers lung is produced due to the fungus thermophilic actinomyces.Hypersensitivity PneumonitidesTextile workersEnvironmental sourceMajor causative antigeno Byssinosis ("brown June") unclear if a true cause of HP' asthma is common)o Cotton mill dust (carding and spinning areas of cotton,...
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All are test to detect seminal stains except
[ "Florence test", "Barberio's test", "Acid phosphatase test", "Benzidine test" ]
D
Tests for semen Florence test Barberio's test Acid phosphatase test Creatinine phosphokinase Thin layer chromatography Prostate specific antigen. Ref; FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 321
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Pernicious anaemia is associated with the deficiency of:
[ "Folic acid", "Vitamin B1", "Vitamin B6", "Vitamin B12" ]
D
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All of the following statements regarding streptokinase are true Except
[ "It is a protein produced by streptococci", "Its complex with plasminogen is inhibited by alpha 2 antiplasmin", "It may rarely produce anaphylaxis", "It is initially given as a loading dose" ]
B
Streptokinase is a 47-kDa protein produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci. It forms a stable complex with plasminogen, which is not inhibited by antiplasmin. A large loading dose is given intravenously to overcome antibodies that may be formed from prior streptococcal infections. Being a foreign protein it may rarely c...
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A 50-year-old male presented with fever and chills along with chest pain during cough. His sputum specimen was cultured on blood agar, showed the presence of a-hemolytic colonies the next day. The fuher processing of this organism is most likely to yield
[ "Gram- negative coccobacilli, catalase positive and oxidase positive", "Gram- positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive and coagulase positive", "Gram- positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative and bile soluble", "Gram- positive cocci in sho chains, catalase negative and bile resistant" ]
C
Growth of alpha-hemolytic colonies, which are isolated from the sputum of a patient, is suggestive of pneumococcal pneumonia. Pneumococci are gram-positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative, and bile soluble Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
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GM-CSF among the following?
[ "Filgrastim", "Sargramostim", "Aldesleukin", "Interleukin-11" ]
B
Cytokine Clinical Uses Aldesleukin (IL-2) | lymphocyte differentiation and | NKs--used in renal cell cancer and metastatic melanoma Interleukin-11 | platelet formation--used in thrombocytopenia Filgrastim (G-CSF) | granulocytes--used for marrow recovery Sargramostim(GM-CSF) | granulocytes and macrophages--used for marr...
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Which of the following has the maximum ionization potential
[ "Electron", "Helium ion", "Proton", "Gamma photon" ]
B
(Ref: Farr&;s physics for medical imaging 2e,23 )
train
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In Gaucher's diseases, there is deficiency of ?
[ "Glucocerebrosidase", "Glucokinase", "Sphingomyelinase", "G-6PD" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glucocerebrosidase
train
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On measuring 3.5 to 4 mm posterior to the limbus in a phakic eye and plunging a 30 gauge needle perpendicular to sclera, you pass through
[ "Tenon's capsule", "Pars plana", "Ora serrata", "Zonules" ]
B
Intravitreal injections are given using 30G needle Piercing Pars Plana which is introduced at : In Phakic eye - .5mm from limbus Pseudo-Phakic eye- 4mm from limbus Aphakic eye - .5mm from limbus
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Inspissation is used to sterile?
[ "Needles", "Endoscopes", "Scissors", "Culture medium" ]
D
They are moist heat method of sterilization Below 100degC The medium is rendered sterile by heating at 80-85degC for half an hour on three successive days in an inspissator REF: Ananthanarayan and paniker's textbook, of microbiology 9 the edition pg no 30
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True about Galvanic Skin Response
[ "Indicator of thermal sweating", "| By sweating because of sweat has electrolytes", "Fall when sympathetic activity is high", "Fall is associated with yogic practice" ]
A
The Galvanic Skin Response (GSR), also named Electrodermal Activity and Skin Conductance , is the measure of the continuous variations in the electrical characteristics of the skin, i.e. for instance the conductance, caused by the variation of the human body sweat glands. Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiol...
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Most common presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
[ "Neck lymph node", "Blockage of nose", "Loss of smell", "Blood tinged discharge" ]
A
Painless cervical lymphadenopathyis the most common presenting feature of nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Presence ofunilateral serous otitis media in an adult should raise suspicion of nasopharyngeal growth. (Eustachian tube obstruction leads to serous otitis media which causes deafness). Commonest site of origin for nasoph...
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patient presented with shock with pump failure. Ideal management would be:
[ "Intra-aoic ballooning", "Intracardiac adrenaline", "Rapid digitalization", "Dopamine" ]
D
Ans. D: Dopamine In patients with inadequate tissue perfusion and adequate intravascular volume, initiation of inotropic and/or vasopressor drug therapy may be necessary. Dopamine increases myocardial contractility and suppos the blood pressure; however, it may increase myocardial oxygen demand. Dobutamine may be prefe...
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All the statements are True regarding Selexipag except?
[ "Selective IP receptor antagonist", "Prostacyclin receptor agonist", "Used in Pulmonary Hypeension", "Adverse effects of Selexipag are similar to those of PGI2 analogues" ]
A
Selexipag is an orally active, Selective IP receptor agonist(Prostacyclin Receptor Agonist) . Selexipag has shown to reduce Morbidity and Moality in patients with Pulmonary HT . A/E : similar to those of PGI2 analogues and include headache, jaw pain, nausea, dizziness, flushing, nasopharyngitis and vomiting. Adverse ef...
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Which of the following anticancer drugs acts by hypomethylation?
[ "Gemcitabine", "5-FU", "Decitabine", "Homoharringotonine" ]
C
Decitabine is used to treat myelodysplastic syndromes (diseases of the blood and bone marrow; MDS) and ceain types of anemia. This medicine is an antineoplastic (cancer medicine) . Mechanism of Action: Inhibits DNA methyltransferase, causing hypomethylation of DNA & cellular differentiation or apoptosis Pharmacokinetic...
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You have injected local anaesthesia for a patient for extraction of lower molar using classical inferior alveolar nerve block. Which space has the highest chance of infection with this block?
[ "Lateral pharyngeal space", "Pterygomandibular space", "Para pharyngeal space", "Pretracheal space" ]
B
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Which of these is the MC intracranial tumor in children?
[ "Glioma", "Meningioma", "Medulloblastoma", "Lymphangioma" ]
A
Ans. A. GliomaThe most common intracranial tumor in children is astrocytoma. Since astrocytomas are types of gliomas, the best answer to this question is glioma.
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Evidence based medicine, which of the following is not useful -a) Personal exposureb) RCTc) Case reportd) Meta-analysise) Systemic review
[ "a", "ac", "ad", "b" ]
B
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This lesions are seen in Behcet syndrome. What is the treatment of this condition?
[ "Prednisolone", "Thalidomide", "Infliximab", "Rituximab" ]
B
Ans. B. Thalidomidea. Image shows oral mucosal ulceration, found in Behcet's syndromeb. Thalidomide is approved for treatment of this condition.
train
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Cause of pulsating proptosis
[ "Lymphoma", "Caroticocavernous fistula", "Orbital cellulitis", "Mucocele of paranasal sinuses" ]
B
Causes of Pulsatile Proptosis Caroticocavernous fistula Aneurysms of Ophthalmic aery Transmitted cerebral pulsation from deficient orbital roof like congenital meningocele / meningo-encephalocele
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What is the suggested level of noise that people can tolerate without damage to their hearing?
[ "60 dB", "85 dB", "110 dB", "120 dB" ]
B
Daily maximum tolerable sound level to human ear : 85-90 dB. Human ear is sensitive to sound frequency: 20-20,000 Hz. Auditory fatigue appears in: 90 dB. Sound level above which tympanic membrane rupture: 150 - 160 dB. Permanent hearing loss : >100 dB. Hospital ward, permissible level of sound : 22-35 dB. Normal conver...
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Breslau's second life test utilizes: MAHE 09; AIIMS 12
[ "Liver", "Stomach", "Ear", "Lungs" ]
B
Ans. Stomach
train
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A 40-year-old primiparous woman suspected to be suffering from endometriosis is subjected to diagnostic laparoscopy. Findings indicate - uterus normal, both the ovaries show presence of chocolate cysts; endometriotic deposits are seen on the round ligament right side, both the fallopian tubes and the pouch of Douglas; ...
[ "Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy", "Fulguration of endometriotic deposits", "Progesterone therapy", "Danazol therapy" ]
B
Surgery indications Severe symptoms unresponsive to hormone therapy Severe and deeply infiltrating endometriosis which distort pelvic anatomy Endometriomas > 4cms Laparoscopy is done to destroy endometriotic lesions by excision or ablation or electrodiatherapy,or laser vaporization. Conservative surgical treatment im...
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Village Health Guide measures the state of malnutrition in an under 5 child by using-
[ "Mid arm circumference", "Weight for age", "Skin fold thickness", "Height for age" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mid Arm Circumference Midarm circumference is an age independent, easy, measure of the state of malnutrition, for children between the age group of 1-5 years. A circumference less than 12.5 cm is suggestive of moderate to severe malnutrition. o The use of Shakir's Tape has fuher simplified assessment ...
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Culture medium for campylobactor Jej uni -
[ "BYCE medium", "Skirrow's medium", "Thayer-Martin medium", "TCBS medium" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Skirrow's medium Media for Campylobactoro Preston mediao Campylobactor agar baseo Skirrow's mediao Butzler's mediao Aka Balton mediao Karmah agaro Columbia blood agaro Campylobactor enrichment broth,o CCDA (Charcol-cefoperazone-deoxycholate agar)o CVA (Cefoperazone, Vancomycin and amphotericin B)
train
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Highest amount of Vitamin D is present in
[ "Sunlight", "Shark liver oil", "Cod liver oil", "Halibut fish liver oil" ]
D
Sources of Vitamin D Vitamin D is unique because it is derived both from sunlight and foods (a) Sunlight : Vitamin Dis synthesized by the body by the action of UV rays of sunlight on 7-dehydrocholesterol, which is stored in large abundance in the skin. Exposure to UV rays is critical; these can be filtered off by air p...
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Rapid polymerization with high intensity light will:
[ "Increase bond strength by decreasing stresses", "Decrease bond strength by increasing stresses", "No effect on bond strength", "Initial increase followed by a decrease in bond strength" ]
B
High intensity lights do not produce the same type of polymer network during curing.  Rapid polymerization may produce excessive polymerization stresses and weaken the bonding layer.  Reference- Sturdevant 6th ed Pg 495
train
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Pitryiasis versicolor is caused by:
[ "Candida", "Rhinosdporodium", "Malsezzia", "Tinea" ]
C
Malsezzia
train
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Neonatal period extends up to –
[ "21 days of life", "30 days of life", "28 days of life", "35 days of life" ]
C
Neonate (Newborn) From birth to under four weeks of age (< 28 days), the infant is called neonate. The neonatal period has been further subdivided into - Early neonatal period  → the First week of life (< 7 days) Late neonatal period → 7th to < 28th day Term neonate (term baby) Any neonate born between 37 and < 42...
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Cotton&;s grading is used for
[ "Subglottic stenosis", "Laryngeal carcinoma", "Superior nerve palsy", "Voice abuse" ]
A
Subglottic stenosis is graded according to the Cotton-Myer classification system from one to four based on the severity of the blockage. Grade 1 - <50% obstruction Grade 2 - 51-70% obstruction Grade 3 - 71-99% obstruction Grade 4 - no detectable lumen Ref: Internet sources- Wikipedia
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UMN lesion is characterised by -
[ "Weakness & spasticity", "Fasciculations", "Rigidity", "Localised muscle atrophy" ]
A
null
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Digeorge syndrome is due to defect of?
[ "pouch 1", "pouch 2", "pouch 3 and 4", "pouch 5" ]
C
Digeorge syndrome is due to defect of pouch 3 and 4. Pouch 3 compromised - No thymus - CMI decreases - Severe bacterial infections Pouch 3 & 4 compromised - absent or poorly developed parathyroid - low PTH - Hypocalcemia.
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Tyrosine kinase inhibitor with HER2/NEU receptor inhibition propey?
[ "Imatinib", "Nilotinib", "Lapatinib", "Sunitinib" ]
C
Lapatinib has both the actions and active against breast cancer cells it is an EGFR inhibitor. Ref: KK Sharma 3rd ed. Pg: 870
train
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New WHO ORS osmolarity is
[ "245", "270K. Park 22/e p203", "290", "310" ]
A
null
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Which of the following is C-X-C chemokine?
[ "Fractalkine", "Lymphotactin", "Rantes", "IL-8" ]
D
C-X-C plays a major role in neutrophil recruitment. IL-8 is a typical member of C-X-C family.
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A 6-month-old child was at the 50th percentile at birth for length, weight, and head circumference. His growth curve from his last visit 1 week ago is shown. On his developmental assessment, you noted that he rolled from stomach to back occasionally but not very well from back to stomach. He could bear weight on his le...
[ "Phenylketonuria", "Homocystinuria", "Cystathioninuria", "Maple syrup urine disease" ]
B
The growth curve shown demonstrates poor growth over the 6 months of this child's life. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive metabolic disease caused by deficiencies of cystathionine b-synthase, methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase, or the coenzyme for N5-methyltetrahydrofolate methyltransferase. Manifestations incl...
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All the following are sporicidal agents except
[ "Autoclave", "Formaldehyde", "Ethylene oxide", "Alcohol" ]
D
Alcohol acts on bacteria fungi and some enveloped viruses but not spores.
train
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Which of the following is known as the lung fluke?
[ "S mansoni", "S haematobium", "Paragonimus spp", "Clonorchis sinensis" ]
C
Blood flukes : all are members of the genus Schistosoma (S mansoni, S haematobium, and S japonicum) Lung fluke : (Paragonimus spp.) and Liver fluke (Clonorchis sinensis) flukes, which are hermaphroditic. Although most of the 5 million human infections are concentrated in the Far East (eg, Korea, Japan, China, Taiwan, t...
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All are involved in energy metabolism except
[ "Vitamin B1", "Vitamin B3", "Vitamin B7", "Vitamin B12" ]
D
Biological active form is Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP). Acts as a coenzyme in several metabolic reactions. * Acts as coenzyme to the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH) which conves pyruvic acid to acetyl-CoA (oxidative decarboxylation) Pyruvate PDH TPP Acetyl-CoA * Similarly acts as a coenzyme to a-oxoglutarat...
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Which of the following is not a genetic cause of Hypercoagulability?
[ "Factor V mutation", "Antithrombin III deficiency", "Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome", "Protein C deficiency" ]
C
Hypercoagulable StatesPrimary (Genetic)Secondary (Acquired)CommonFactor V mutationProthrombin mutationIncreased levels of factors VIII, IX, XI, or fibrinogenHigh Risk for ThrombosisProlonged bed rest or immobilizationMyocardial infarctionAtrial fibrillationTissue injury (surgery, fracture, burn)CancerProsthetic cardiac...
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Spinal cord end in newborn:
[ "L1", "L2", "L3", "L4" ]
C
Ans. C. L3 a. Spinal cord in adult ends at the level L1 b. Spinal cord in newborn ends at the level of L3 c. Spinal dura converges at the level of S2 and continues upto coccyxd. Arachnoid membrane ends at the level of S2 e. Sub arachnoid space ends at the level S2 f. Pia mater continues up to coccyx
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Hemodialysis associated with amyloid pattern
[ "AA", "AL", "Beta - 2- microglobulin", "ATTR" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Beta-2-microglobulin
train
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Cullen's sign is seen in: March 2004
[ "Acute cholecystitis", "Acute hepatitis", "Acute pancreatitis", "Blunt injury abdomen" ]
C
Ans. C i.e. Acute pancreatitis
train
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First line treatment of RPGN is?
[ "Wait and watch", "Sirolimus", "Methylprednisolone", "Plasma exchange" ]
C
* For management of acute GN/ RPGN give 500-1000 mg methylprednisolone while awaiting biopsy results. * Consider plasmapheresis for fuher treatment based on underlying disease.
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Which of the following is both PPAR - α & PPAR - γ agonist?
[ "Pioglitazone", "Bizofibrate", "Beroglitazar", "Bromocriptine" ]
C
null
train
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Stratosphere sign is seen in
[ "Pleural effusion", "Pneumothorax", "Rib fracture", "Bronchogenic carcinoma" ]
B
null
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A patient with prolonged diarrhea undergoes esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Biopsy of the small intestine demonstrates numerous crescent-shaped protozoa adjacent to the epithelial brush border. Which of the following organisms is the most likely pathogen?
[ "Entamoeba histolytica", "Escherichia coli", "Giardia lamblia", "Naegleria fowleri" ]
C
The probable organism is Giardia lamblia, which characteristically infects the small intestine. When seen in smears from duodenal aspirates, this flagellated organism has a characteristic "face-like" appearance. However, in biopsy specimens, the organism is often caught at an angle, and the characteristic appearance an...
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Medulla oblongata arises from ?
[ "Prosencephalon", "Rhombencephalon", "Mesencephalon", "None" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., RhombencephalonMedulla oblongata is derived from Hind brain (rhaombencephalon).
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The greater petrosal nerve is formed from -
[ "Geniculate ganglion", "Plexus around ICA", "Plexus around middle meningeal artery", "None of the above" ]
A
Ans-A
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Which of the following is not true about bosentan -
[ "Used in pulmonary hypertension", "Used in malignant hepatitis", "Endothelin receptor antagonist", "All are true" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., used in malignant hepatitisEndothelin receptor antagonistso There are two endothelin receptor subtypes - ETA and and ETB.o Bosentan is a nonselective endothelin antagonist - blocks both ETA and ETB.o Bosentan is active intravenously and orally.o Bosentan is currently approved for use in pulmonary hype...
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IPC for death after aboion is ?
[ "312", "314", "313", "304" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 314 314 IPC : Death of patient caused by miscarriage (10 years of imprisonment +- fine).
train
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Shortening of limb is not seen in
[ "Posterior dislocation of hip", "Anterior dislocation of hip", "Central dislocation of hip", "TB Hip dislocation of hip" ]
B
null
train
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All are congential myopathies except
[ "Central Core myopathy", "Centronuclearmyopathy", "Z band myopathy", "Nemalin myopathy" ]
C
*Congenital myopathies are centralcoremyopathies,nemaline(rod)myopathies,centronuclear (myotubular)myopathies. Nemaline myopathy (also called rod myopathy or nemaline rod myopathy) is a congenital, hereditary neuromuscular disorder with many symptoms that can occur such as muscle weakness, hypoventilation, swallowing d...
train
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Cullen's sign in seen in -
[ "Acute cholecystitis", "Acute pancreatitis", "Acute haemorrhagic pancreatitis", "Blunt injury abdomen" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acute haemorrhagic pancreatitis
train
med_mcqa
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Refractive power of eye can be changed by:
[ "Radial keratotomy", "Keratomileusis", "IOL", "All" ]
D
A i.e. Radial keratotomy; B i.e Keratomileusis; C i.e. IOL
train
med_mcqa
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Xerophthalmia is considered as public health problem if prevalence of bitot's spot is more than?
[ "0.01%", "0.05%", "0.50%", "1%" ]
C
Assessment of vitamin A deficiency: The presence of any one of the criteria should be considered as evidence of a xerophthalmia problem in the community. - Criteria Prevalence in population at risk (6 months to 6 years) Night blindness more than 1 per cent Bitot's spots more than 0.5 per cent Corneal xerosis/ corneal u...
train
med_mcqa
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Virus responsible for non immune hydrops fetalis is
[ "Cytomegalovirus", "Herpes simplex virus", "Hepatitis B virus", "Parvovirus" ]
D
Hydrops is defined as the accumulation of extracellular fluid in tissues and serous cavities. Hydrops fetalis is more common because of non-immune reasons rather than Rh isoimmunization. Most common cause of non-immune hydrops is due to congenital hea block (cardiac causes) Most common infection causing non immune hydr...
train
med_mcqa
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All the statements regarding crude bih rate are true, except:
[ "It is an Indicator of feility", "It excludes the still bihs", "It is unaffected by age-distribution", "It is a better measure of feility than the general feility rate" ]
D
General feility rate is a better measure of feility than the crude bih rate, because the denominator is restricted to the number of woman in childbearing age rather than the whole population. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 386 and 20th Edition, Pages 418-19; The Ec...
train
med_mcqa
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Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for severe preeclampsia?
[ "Labetalol", "Metoprolol", "Alpha-methyldopa", "Nifedipine" ]
A
Labetalol is a adrenoreceptor antagonist which is used in the treatment of severe pre-eclampsia. Although Metoprolol, Alpha methyldopa and Nifedipine are used in the treatment of severe pre-eclampsia, both Hydralazine and Labetalol has emerged as the first line drugs to control the hypeension in severe pre-eclamptic pa...
train
med_mcqa
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Satiety centre is located at ?
[ "Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus", "Dorsomedial nucleus of hypothalamus", "Peritrigonal area", "Lateral nucleus" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus
train
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Acceptable fluoride concentration in drinking water is
[ "4 ppm", "2 ppm", "3 ppm", "1 ppm" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
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A student unable to deliver speech before audience is suffering from
[ "Social phobia", "OCD", "Agoraphobia", "Claustrophobia" ]
A
Social phobia is an example of irrational fear of activities or social interaction, characterised by an irrational fear or social interaction, characterised by an irrational fear of performing activities in the presence of other people or interacting with others. The patient is afraid of his own actions being viewed by...
train
med_mcqa
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Slit smear negative leprosy is-
[ "Neuritic type", "Tuberculoid type", "Indeterminate type", "All" ]
D
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neuritic type; 'b' i.e., Tuberculoid type & 'c' i.e., Indeterminate type o Indeterminate type, tuberculoid type, Pure neuritic type Bacteriologically negative. o Borderline Bacteriologically variable o Lepromatous type --> Bacteriologically positive.
train
med_mcqa
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Derealisation and depersonalisation seen in which type of disorder
[ "Dissociative disorder", "Personality disorder", "Mania", "Depression" ]
A
Depersonalisation: an altered sense of one's physical being, including feeling that one is outside of one's own body, physically cut off or distanced from people, floating, observing oneself from distance, as though in a dream. Derealisation: experiencing the environment as unreal or distoed. These are seen in Dissocia...
train
med_mcqa
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The term "Guyon&;s canal" is in relation to which of the following?
[ "Anterior interosseus nerve", "Ulnar nerve", "Median nerve", "Radial aery" ]
B
Guyon's canal or ulnar tunnel is an osseofibrous tunnel formed by the pisohamate ligament bridging the concavity formed by the pisiform bone and hook of the hamate. The ulnar a nerve passes through this tunnel in the wrist and its compression here lead to ulnar tunnel syndrome characterised by hypoesthesia of medial 1 ...
train
med_mcqa
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Main period of communicability of whooping cough?
[ "Incubation period", "Paroxysmal stage", "Catarrhal stage", "Convalescent stage" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Catarrhal stage Peussis, also called '100 day cough', is caused by Bordetella peussis (only 5% cases are caused by B. parapeussis).there is no cross immunity between B. peussis and B. parapeussis.Period of infectivity (communicability) extends from a week after exposuse to about 3 weeks after the onset...
train
med_mcqa
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All are positive signs of pregnancy except :
[ "Vomiting", "Fetal movements", "Fetal hea sounds", "Excessive salivation" ]
D
Excessive salivation
train
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Which of the following diagnostic procedure is not done in dilated pupil?(AIIMS November 2014, May 2014)
[ "Gonioscopy", "Fundus examination", "Laser inferometry", "Electroretinography" ]
A
Ans. a. Gonloscopy (Ref: Khurana5/e 578; Basics and Clinical Science Course, American Academy of Ophthalmology, 2012-13; Sec 10, p46)Gonioscopy is not done in a dilated pupil. (AllMS May 2014 repeat)Gonioscopy is done in dark room with minimum slit lamp light. Pupil contraction will falsely open up the angle. Likewise ...
train
med_mcqa
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Thinnest pa of retina
[ "surrounding optic nerve head", "Foveola", "Fovea", "Nasally to fovea" ]
B
Foveola High Yield Facts Posterior Pole: Macula + Optic nerve head. Optic disc: 1.5 mm Macula: 5.5 mm (Temporal to optic disc) Fovea - Centralis : Central depressed pa of Macula, 1.5 mm Foveola - 0.35 mm. Thinnest pa of retina after ora serrata. Contains no ganglion cells, only cones.
train
med_mcqa
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Commonest complication of topical coicosteroid is -
[ "Ptosis", "Cataract", "Proptosis", "Glaucoma" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Glaucoma o Amongst the given options cataract and glaucoma are complications of coisosteroids. o Cataract occurs after systemic administration, while glaucoma occurs after topical therapy.
train
med_mcqa
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According to Weige Meyer rule of duplication of ureter, the lower pole ureter in urinary bladder is:
[ "Lateral and cephalad to the upper pole ureter", "Lateral and caudal to the upper pole ureter", "Medial and cephalad to the upper pole ureter", "Medial and caudal to the upper pole ureter" ]
A
Types Incomplete duplication: Both ureters join together and a single ureteric opening Complete duplication: Both ureters open separately Weige-Meyer's rule: - In case of complete duplication, the upper ureter and the lower pole ureter rotate on their long axes so that the upper pole ureteric orifice is medial & caudal...
train
med_mcqa
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Pigmented lesion in mouth and not in skin -
[ "Cushing syndrome", "Addison disease", "Peutz Jegers", "None of the above" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above o All of them are associated with oral as well as skin pigmentation.
train
med_mcqa
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An HIV positive male, admitted to the ICU with septic shock secondary to lobar pneumonia, is being mechanically ventilated. After 2 days of IV ceftriaxone, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and erythromycin, his fever has resolved. Blood cultures are positive for S. pneumoniae. SpO2 is 92% on room air and BP is 80/40 mm H...
[ "Order a CT scan of the sinuses", "Cosyntropin stimulation test followed by hydrocoisone 100 mg IV every 6 hours", "Place a pulmonary aery catheter", "Check sensitivity of the bacteria to antibiotics" ]
B
* Extremities are warm to touch and full peripheral pulses. (WARM SHOCK) Option C- No survival advantage for the patients Option D- Already the patient is afebrile, so no point in checking the sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics. Patient has a condition k/a DISTRIBUTIVE SHOCK Hydrocoisone is given in this case. * Hy...
train
med_mcqa
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Osmotic damage is operative in all of the following complications of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT
[ "The formation of cataracts", "Insulin receptor deficiency", "Microaneurysms in retinal vessels", "Peripheral neuropathy" ]
B
Osmotic damage is inoperative in insulin- receptor deficiency. Insulin-receptor deficiency is the result of an increase in adipose, which down regulates receptor synthesis, and chronic elevation of glucose (glucose toxicity), which renders the receptors less receptive to insulin.
train
med_mcqa
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Which of the following is used to depict the actions of extraocular muscles
[ "Goldman three mirror", "Hess Cha", "Humphrey field", "Octopus fiels" ]
B
Hess chaing is done to depict the action of extra ocular muscle Goldman three mirror-Peripheral retina is best examined with indirect ophthalmoscopy and by the use of Goldman three mirror contact lens. Humphrey field-automated Perimetry. Octopus field-semi-automated kinetic perimetry
train
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Autosomal Dominant Familial Nonhemolytic Hyperbilirubinemia occurs in all except
[ "Crigler-Najjar syndrome", "Dubin - Johnson syndrome", "Gilbe syndrome", "Cryoglobulinemia" ]
B
Dubin-Johnson syndrome is a rare, autosomal recessive, benign disorder that causes an isolated increase of conjugated bilirubin in the serum. Classically, the condition causes a black liver due to the deposition of a pigment similar to melanin. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
train
med_mcqa
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Winter bottom sign in sleeping sickness caused by T. brucei Gambiense refers to:
[ "Unilateral conjunctivitis", "Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy", "Narcolepsy", "Transient erythema" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy(Ref: Harrison, 18th/e, p. 1720; 17th/e, p. 1304)* Lymphadenopathy, particularly of the posterior triangle of the neck - Winter bottom's sign.
train
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A patient walking barefoot in morning walk has developed a swelling in the foot. Probable diagnosis is:
[ "Staphylococcus aureus", "Botryomycosis", "Tetanus", "Madura Foot" ]
A
Ans. (a) Staphylococcus aureus.* Note the presence of Abscess on foot with central raised area of whitish pus surrounded by erythema which in most probability is caused by Staphylococcus aureus.* Botryomycosis (bacterial pseudomycosis) is an uncommon chronic bacterial infection of skin caused by masses of colonizing ba...
train
med_mcqa
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Which of the following fractures is associated with high mortality and morbidity?
[ "Femur shaft fractures", "Pelviacetabular fractures", "Subtrochanteric fractures", "Shaft tibia fractures" ]
B
(Refer: Mohindra’s Fundamentals of Orthopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 110, 117) Pelviacetabular factures are associated with high morbidity and mortality because: They are caused by high velocity injuries They can have associated compound fractures along There may be damage to associated pelvic and abdominal organs Ther...
train
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What is the APGAR score for a baby with RR - 40/min, HR - 80/min, slow and irregular respiration, grimace on suctioning, completely pink in colour and flexed posture with active movements of limbs
[ "8", "6", "5", "7" ]
D
Features 0 1 2 A - Appearance Completely blue Body pink Extremities blue Completely pink P - Pulse rate Absent < 100 / min > 100 / min G - Grimace (Response to catheter in nose) No response Grimace on stimulation Cough / Sneeze A - Activity  Flaccid Some flexion Active motion R - Respiratory effort Abse...
train
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Cauliflower ear is seen in
[ "Pseudomonas infection", "Aspergillus infection", "Post traumatic cases", "Tuberculosis" ]
C
Hematoma of the auricle*It is the collection of blood between the auricular cailage and its perichondrium. It usually occurs due to blunt trauma and often seen in boxers, wrestlers and rugby players, therefore it is also called Boxer's ear *If hematoma gets infected severe perichondritis may set inRef: PL Dhingra, Dise...
train
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A 12-year-old girl fractures her right radius and ulna in a motor accident. Her arm is placed in a cast extending over the elbow, which nearly eliminates movement of her forearm muscles. Which of the following will occur in her forearm muscles after several weeks in the cast?
[ "Decreased capillarity", "Decreased intracellular pO2", "Decreased myoglobin oxygen saturation", "Increased metabolic rate" ]
A
The primary function of blood vessels in skeletal muscles is to supply nutrients and remove metabolic waste products from the muscle tissues. Prolonged increases in metabolic rate lead to growth of the vasculature; decreases in metabolic rate lead to vascular rarefaction, i.e., loss of capillaries as well as other type...
train
med_mcqa
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Gene cassette is:
[ "Circular, autonomously replicating element", "Integrated elements that can excise to form a non-replicating circular transfer intermediate", "Circular, non-replicating DNA segments containing only open reading frames", "Integrated DNA segment that contains an integrase, a promoter, and an integration site" ]
C
Element Characteristic Role in spread of resistance genes Self transmissible plasmid Circular, autonomously replicating element; carries genes needed for conjugal DNA transfer Transfer of resistance genes; mobilization of other elements that carry resistance genes Conjugative transposon Integrated elements that can exc...
train
med_mcqa
null