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A man presents with fever and chills 2 weeks after a louse bite. There was a maculo-papular rash on the trunk which spread peripherally. The cause of this infection can be
[ "Scrub typhus", "Endemic typhus", "Epidemic typhus", "Rickettsial pox" ]
C
null
train
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Which of the following is true of cellular cementum?
[ "Forms during root formation", "Forms after the eruption of the tooth", "Seen at the coronal portion of the tooth", "Formation is a slow process" ]
B
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train
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A Patient who is on antihypertensive drug develops a dry cough. Which of the following drug might be responsible for the condition:
[ "Diuretics", "ACE inhibitors", "Calcium channel blockers", "Beta blockers" ]
B
The angiotensin-converting enzyme normally helps in conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which acts as a vasoconstrictor in case of hypovolemia. In addition to that, ACE also helps in the breakdown of bradykinin. When ACE inhibitors (captopril) are given, it inhibits ACE and in addition inhibits the breakdown...
train
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A 67-year-old man complains of a lesion in his left eye. Physical examination reveals a triangular fold of vascularized conjunctiva growing horizontally into the cornea in the shape of an insect wing. Which of the following terms best describes this patient's lesion?
[ "Loiasis", "Onchocerciasis", "Pinguecula", "Pterygium" ]
D
Pterygium is a fold of vascularized conjunctiva that grows horizontally onto the cornea in the shape of an insect wing (hence the name). It is often associated with a pinguecula (conjunctival lump, choice C) and frequently recurs after excision.Diagnosis: Pterygium
train
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Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at a microscope level is called
[ "Hyperplasia", "Metaplasia", "Dysplasia", "Carcinoma insitu" ]
C
dysplasia is the loss of uniformity of individual cells as well as their architectural orientation carcinoma in situ dysplasia changes are marked but , lesion remains confirmed to normal tissue; pre invasiveneoplasm basement membrane is intact anaplasia is complete lack of differentiation of cells both morphologically ...
train
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Which of the following movements will not be affected by involvement of the L5 Nerve root -
[ "Thigh adduction", "Knee Flexion", "Knee Extension", "Toe Extension" ]
A
Ans-A
train
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Which complex in mitochondria is not involved in proton transpor during ETC ?
[ "Complex I", "Complex II", "Complex III", "Complex IV" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Complex IIInner mitrochondrial membrane is impermeable to protons; therefore, proton pumps are required to pump protons (hydrogen ions) from mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space.The complex I (Site I), complex III (Site II) and complex IV (Site III) act as proton pumps ejecting protons (hyd...
train
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An 8 year old child is brought to emergency after accidently swallowing multiple tablets of a drug. The child developed severe diarrhea, urination, sweating and respiratory difficulty. On examination, pupil was constricted and there were crepitations heard on lung auscultation in lower lobes of both lungs. There were n...
[ "Acetylcholine", "Neostigmine", "Physostigmine", "Bethanechol" ]
B
The drug poisoning has cholinergic effects suggested by diarrhea, urination, sweating, miosis and bronchoconstriction and respiratory secretions. However no vascular effect is seen These findings suggest that the drug is an indirect-acting cholinergic agent. So, acetylcholine and bethanechol can be easily ruled out as ...
train
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During a routine check up, a 67-year-old man is found to have a level of serum alkaline phosphatase three times the upper limit of normal. Serum calcium and phosphorus concentrations and liver function test results are normal. He is asymptomatic. The most likely diagnosis is :
[ "Metastatic bone disease", "Primary hyperparathyroidism", "Paget's disease of bone", "Osteomalacia" ]
C
Answer is C (Paget's disease of bone) : Elevated alkaline phosphatase with normal serum Ca2+ and PO4 is characteristic of Paget's disease. `Serum calcium and phosphorus levels are normal in paget's disease. Discovery of hypercalcemia even in presence of immobilization should prompt a search for another cause of hyperca...
train
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Investigation of choice for posterior urethral valve is?
[ "Micturition cystouretrogram", "Retrograde urethrography", "Ultrasound", "IVP" ]
A
ANSWER: (A) Micturition cystouretrogramREF: Sutton 7th ed page 898, 899"Micturition cystouretrography is the best method to visualize Posterior Urethral valve, VUR and posterior urethraAnterograde techniqueDone with voiding cystouretrogram or excretory urographyBest for evaluating posterior urethraRetrograde techniques...
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A 52 year-old postmenopausal patient has evidence of low bone mineral density. She and her physician are considering therapy with raloxifene or a combination of conjugated estrogens and medroxyprogesterone acetate. Which of the following patient characteristics is MOST likely to lead them to select raloxifene?
[ "Previous hysterectomy", "Recurrent vaginitis", "Strong family history of breast cancer", "Troublesome hot flushes" ]
C
-Raloxifene is a SERM used in post-menopausal osteoporosis due to its agonist action in bone. -It has additional advantage of causing decrease in risk of breast and endometrial cancer due to its estrogen antagonists action at these places. -Major adverse effect of raloxifene is thromboembolism and aggravation of hot fl...
train
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Which of the following does not have a X-linked pattern of inheritance?
[ "Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy", "Myotonic dystrophy", "Becker muscular dystrophy" ]
C
Type of muscular dystrophy Inheritance A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy X-linked recessive B. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy X-Linked (most common), AD & AR C. Myotonic dystrophy Autosomal dominant D. Becker muscular dystrophy X-linked recessive
train
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Muscles involved in centric relation
[ "Temporalis & rnasseter", "Medial and lateral pterygoids", "Temporalis and lateral pterygoid", "None of the above" ]
A
null
train
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True about use of midazolam over diazepam in sedation is all except
[ "Less thrombophlebitis due to low solubility in blood", "More plasma binding and less toxicity", "More potent than diazepam", "Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 times more avidly" ]
A
null
train
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Lip thickness reaches maximum at what age in males?
[ "16 years", "18 years", "25 years", "13 years" ]
A
Lip thickness reaches its maximum during adolescence, then decreases to the point that in their 20s and 30s, some women consider loss of lip thickness a problem and seek treatment to increase it. Mammandras evaluated the records of 32 untreated patients who represented a cross-sectional sample of ages 8 to 18 years and...
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Single most indicator of likelihoodness of rapid progression of hepatitis to liver cirrhosis is:
[ "Associated serological findings", "Underlying etiology", "Presence of bridging necrosis", "Presence of Mallory hyaline" ]
B
Ans. b. Underlying etiology. (Ref. Robbin's pathology 7th ed. Pg. 898)# The single most indicator of the likelyhoodness of rapid progression chronic hepatitis to cirrhosis is underlying etiology.# 'Interface hepatitis and bridging necrosis' are harbingers of progressive liver diseases, seen in patients with any form of...
train
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Drug used in Acute Intermittent Porphyria is
[ "Opioids", "Phenobarbitone", "Primidone", "Blood tranfusion" ]
A
(A) Opioids# A high-carbohydrate (10% glucose) infusion is recommended, which may aid in recovery.> If drugs have caused the attack, discontinuing the offending substances is essential.> Infection is one of the top causes of attacks and requires vigorous treatment.> Pain is extremely severe and almost always requires t...
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Features of superior canal dehiscence are -a) Positive Romberg's signb) Positive Tullio's phenomenonc) Positive Hennebert's signd) Oscillopsiae) Positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver
[ "c", "d", "ab", "bd" ]
D
In 1998, Lloyd minor and colleagues described sound and/or presssure induced vertigo associated with bony dehiscence of the superior semicircular canal. Third window effect takes place in case of dehiscent superior semicircular canal whereby the dehiscent part of semicircular canal acts as a third window of inner ear....
train
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Vidian nerve passes through -
[ "Inferior orbital fissure", "Incisive foramen", "Tympanomstoid fissure", "Pterygoid canal" ]
D
Vidian nerve and vidian artery pass through pterygoid canal.
train
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Hidradenitis suppurativa is an affection of: March 2011
[ "Nail", "Apocrine gland", "Eccrine sweat gland", "Sebaceous gland" ]
B
Ans. B: Apocrine gland Hidradenitis suppurativa (apocrine acne) is a disorder of apocrine gland
train
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Alpha wave in EEG are seen in: March 2008
[ "Mental work", "Awake state", "Sleep", "REM sleep" ]
B
Ans. B: Awake state
train
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According to the Andreasen's modified classification of traumatic injuries, a fracture involving the enamel, coronal and radicular dentin and cementum with exposure of the pulp is categorized as:
[ "Complicated tooth fracture", "Uncomplicated crown root fracture", "Complicated crown root fracture", "Uncomplicated crown fracture" ]
C
Complicated crown fracture: A fracture involving enamel and dentin, and exposing the pulp. Uncomplicated crown-root fracture: A fracture involving enamel, coronal and radicular dentin, and cementum, but not exposing pulp. Complicated crown-root fracture: A fracture involving enamel, coronal and radicular dentin, and ce...
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An Rh-ve woman became pregnant with a Rh+ve fetus. Within a few days after birth, the infant developed jaundice, ascites, hepatomegaly and edema. The likely substance (s) deposited in skin and sclera in jaundice is/are given below. Which is the best possible answer-
[ "Biliverdin", "Conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin", "Unconjugated bilirubin", "Conjugated bilirubin" ]
B
It is a case of erythroblastosis fetalis. In erythroblastosis fetalis there is excessive breakdown of RBC's. Leading to increased production of bilirubin in the blood. This increased bilirubin is predominantly unconjugated but there is some increase in conjugated bilirubin too. "The canalicular mechanisms responsible f...
train
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Schizophrenia word means
[ "Split mind", "Split mood", "Split thoughts", "Split associations" ]
A
Eugen Bleuler (1911), while renaming dementia praecox as schizophrenia (meaning mental splitting), recognised that this disorder did not always have a poor prognosis as described by Kraepelin. He also recognised that schizophrenia consisted of a group of disorders rather than being a distinct entity. Ref: A Sho Textboo...
train
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Cholinesterase is seen in venom of: DNB 08
[ "Elapids", "Vipers", "Sea snakes", "All" ]
A
Ans. Elapids
train
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A case of spontaneous pnemothorax comes to you . What will be the earliest treatment of choice
[ "IPPV", "ICD", "Needle aspiration", "Wait and watch" ]
C
"Open Pneumothorax is one in which full thickness segment of the chest wall has been destroyed and the negative intrapleural pressure sucks air directly through the chest wall defect rather than through the trachea into the alveoli. It occurs most commonly after shotgun blasts explosion with flying debris. The pt. is s...
train
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Which of the following is true regarding ideal alveolar ventilation- perfusion ratio?
[ "Maximum at apex of lung", "Minimum at apex of lung", "Maximum at AV shunt", "Maximum at base of lung" ]
A
Ans. A. Maximum at apex of lunga. The ratio of pulmonary ventilation to pulmonary blood flow for the 'whole' lung at rest is about 0.8 (4.2 liter/minute ventilation divided by 5.5 liter/minute of blood flow).b. There are relatively marked differences in ventilation-perfusion ratio in various parts of the normal lung du...
train
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A 21 year old woman with a height of 153cm, weight of 51kg presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination, she has well developed breasts, no pubic or axillary hair and does not have hirsuitism. Which of the following represents the most probable diagnosis?
[ "Turner's Syndrome", "Stein-Leventhal Syndrome", "Premature Ovarian Failure", "Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome" ]
D
Primary Amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breasts and scant pubic hair is consistent with a diagnosis of Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome. Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is an X linked disorder, only 46XY offspring are affected if the mother is a carrier of mutation. In this syndrome, the individual has no...
train
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Features of epidermolysis bullosa –
[ "↓ Adhesion fibrils", "Present as miliary & scaring", "IgG deposits in epidermo-dermal junction", "None of the above" ]
A
Epidermolysis bullosa is a group of inherited bullous disorder. Epidermolysis bullosa is due to defect in anchoring complex (keratin - containing intermediate filaments and collegen type VII) that attaches basement membrane to epidermal hemidesmosomes (by keratin containing intermediate filament) and to dermis (by coll...
train
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What is the shape of external os in nulliparous female ?
[ "circular", "transvers", "veical", "oval" ]
A
In a nulliparous woman, i.e. a woman who has not borne children, the external os is small and circular. However, in multiparous women, the external os is bounded by anterior and posterior lips, both of which are in contact with the posterior wall of the vagina. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition, vol...
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1st symptom to respond to IV Thiamine in Wernicke's encephalopathy is?
[ "Opthalmoplegia", "Sensory Ataxia", "Vestibular ataxia", "Global confusion" ]
A
Wernicke's encephalopathy * Global Confusion * Ophthalmoplegia: VI N. * Ataxia - Rx- IV Thiamine -First to respond to treatment - Ophthalmoplegia
train
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You are called to the operating room. The general surgeons have operated on a woman to rule out appendicitis and the signs of an abdominal pregnancy with an 18 week fetus and placenta attached to the omentum. The best course of action in the case is :
[ "Removal of both fetus and placenta", "Laparoscopic ligation of umbilical cord", "Removal of the fetus only", "Closely follow until bility and then deliver by laparotomy" ]
C
Removal of the fetus only
train
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An 18 year old lady presents with severe sore throat, fever and malaise. She has cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly and scattered petechiae on the soft palate with enlarged tonsils covered with white exudates. Which of the following investigations is most likely to help guide your management?
[ "Fine needle aspiration of a lymph node", "Hepatitis B surface antigen", "Heterophile antibody test", "HIV test" ]
C
null
train
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Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with:
[ "Small celI carcinorna", "Respiratory bronchiolitis", "Emphysema", "Bronchiectasis" ]
B
Respiratory Bronchiolitis is usually rare complication compared to the other conditions associated with smoking. All other conditions mentioned above are associated with smoking. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1495; R Alagappan, Manual of Practical Medicine, 3rd Edition, Pages 720-2...
train
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Which bacteria acts by inhibiting protein synthesis-
[ "Pseudomonas", "Staphylococcus", "Streptococcus", "Klebsiella" ]
A
null
train
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All of the following are antioxidant except: September 2005
[ "Vitamin A", "Vitamin B", "Vitamin C", "Vitamin E" ]
B
Ans. B: Vitamin B Antioxidants are a group of compounds that help to protect the body from the formation and elimination of free radicals. Free-radicals are formed from exposure to sunlight and pollution and also as a byproduct of cell metabolism. Alcohol, cigarette smoke, stress and even diet also affect the level of ...
train
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Disciplinary control over Registered Medical Practitioners is under :
[ "State Medical Council", "Indian Medical Council", "Director of Medical and Health Services", "Health secretary of State Government" ]
A
A i.e. State medical council State Medical Councils exercise disciplinary controlQ over their members for serious profession misconduct by reprimanding or erasing their name temporarily or permanently from the Register. This is k/a Panel erasure or the professional death sentence, which deprives him of all the privileg...
train
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All the following are associated with pulmonary eosinophilic pneumonia,except
[ "ABPA", "Loeffler's pneumonia", "Churg Strauss syndrome", "Wegner's granulomatosis" ]
D
Pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophilia include distinct individual syndromes characterized by eosinophilic pulmonary infiltrates and commonly peripheral blood eosinophilia. Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1686
train
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Korsakoff psychosis ?
[ "Thiamine deficiency", "Folate deficiency", "Niacin deficiency", "Niacin deficiency" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thiamine deficiency
train
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Water brash indicates one of the following(NOT RELATED-SURGERY)
[ "Dyspepsia", "Indigestion", "Peptic ulcer", "Duodenal ulcer" ]
C
.
train
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A 15 year old child has developed dystonia and poor school grades. Slit examination is shown below. Which is the initial investigation recommended for the patient ?
[ "Serum ceruloplasmin", "Serum copper", "24 hour urinary copper", "Liver biopsy" ]
C
KF Ring can be seen in the image which is seen in Wilson disease Screening test:- 24 hours urinary copper Conformational:- Biopsy. Rx: Trientine- copper chelator Penicillamine- also chelator but less used due to nephrotic side effect. Zinc- is competitive inhibitor of copper in absorption of gut. Zinc acetateisDOCfor W...
train
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Acidic amino acids are
[ "Asparagine", "Arginine", "Glutamine", "None" ]
D
aspaic acid and glutamic acid are proton donors. At physiologic pH, the side chains of these amino acids are fully ionized, containing a negatively charged carboxylate group (-COO-). They are, therefore, called aspaate or glutamate to emphasize that these amino acids are negatively charged at physiologic pH Asparagine ...
train
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Thrombotic event is seen in all of the following, except:
[ "Paroxysmal nocturnal hemogloninuria", "Disseminated intravascular coagulation", "Immune thrombocytopenic purpura", "Heparin induced thrombocytopenia" ]
C
Primary or idiopathic ITP -Two clinical subtypes: acute and chronic. -Both are autoimmune disorders in which platelet destruction results from the formation of antiplatelet autoantibodies. -Associated with increased bleeding tendency and not thrombosis. PNH The triad of hemolysis, pancytopenia, and thrombosis is unique...
train
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Bile solubility is required for:
[ "S. pneumoniae", "S. aureus", "S. agalactaciae", "S. pyogenes" ]
A
Ans: a (S. pneumoniae) Ref:Ananathanarayan, 7th ed, p. 216Bile solubility is one of the characteristic feature of S.pneumoniaePneumococcus:* It is gram positive lanceolate* It is most common cause of lobar pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis media.* It is most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults.* It is bile solubl...
train
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Ebola virus transmission occurs through all except
[ "Skin - skin contact", "Respiratory droplets", "Infected body fluids", "Infected body tissues" ]
B
Ebola transmission occurs through direct skin - skin contact, exposure to infected bodily fluids and tissues. there is no evidence of transmission by aerosol or respiratory droplets.
train
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What is the recommended drug for treatment of carriers of diphtheria?
[ "Oral penicillin", "Injectable penicillin", "Azithromycin", "Erythromycin" ]
D
Carriers of diphtheria should be treated with a 10 days course of erythromycin. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 151.
train
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Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well as P. vivax:
[ "Quinine", "Mefloquine", "Artesunate", "Proguanil" ]
B
Mefloquine is effective as a single dose treatment of malaria. It can be used for both chloroquine sensitive as well resistant bacteria. Mefloquine  is an effective single agent for prophylaxis and  treatment of infections caused by multidrug-resistant forms of P. falciparum.  Mefloquine 250 mg started 1- 2 weeks befor...
train
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Root value of supinator jerk is
[ "C3 C4", "C4 C5", "C5 C6", "C8 T1" ]
C
Ref - Researchgate.net
train
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Stereoanesthesia is due to lesion ofa) Nucleus Gracilisb) Nucleus cuneatusc) Cerebral cortexd) Spinothalamic tract
[ "abc", "bc", "acd", "bcd" ]
A
Astereognosis/Stereoanaesthesia- Loss of ability to recognize size and shape of an object. Seen in- lesion of somatosensory cortex, lesion of tractus cuneatus, lesion of tractus gracilis. Somatosensory cortex lesion- proprioception and tactile sensations are lost while pain and temperature sensations are preserved. Tr...
train
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Most important cause of bulging fissure
[ "Klebsiella pneumonia", "Legionella pneumonia", "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "Staph aureus" ]
A
All the above are causes of bulging fissure. Most important cause is Klebsiella pneumonia.
train
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All of the following feature may be seen in throm-botic thrombocytopenic purpura,except-
[ "Fever", "Haemolysis", "Hypertension", "Low platelets count" ]
C
null
train
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Post term baby with tachypnea - commonest cause?
[ "Transient tachypnea of newborn", "Meconium aspiration syndrome", "Hyaline membrane disease", "Infection" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., meconium aspiration syndrome Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn Transient tachypnea of the newborn is the most common cause of neonatal respiratory distress, constituting more than 40 percent of cases.1 A benign condition, it occurs when residual pulmonary fluid remains in fetal lung tissue after deli...
train
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Most common tumor in hand -
[ "Exostosis", "Giant cell tumor", "Enchondroma", "Synovial sarcoma" ]
C
"Enchondromas are most common type of hand tumor". -- Orthopaedics oncology. Phalanges of hand are involved most commonly and the proximal phalanx is the most common site.
train
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which of the following is not true regarding tri cyclic antidepressent
[ "it is safe in bipolar depression as it does not cause switch to mania", "it causes sedation", "it causes weigh tgain", "it causes giddiness" ]
A
TCA * MECHANISM This is an antidepressant with three rings. It acts by blocking the transpoers of neurotransmitters resulting in increased neurotransmitters in synapse DRUGS AMITRYPTILLINE IMIPRAMINE CLOMIPRAMINE DESIPRAMINE NORIPTILLINE DOXEPINE * USE AMITRYPTILLINE========PAIN WITH DEPRESSION IMIPRAMINE==========CHIL...
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Rule of 9 burns is used to denote -
[ "Depth of burns", "% of total body surface area", "Severity of burns", "Type of burns" ]
B
RULE OF NINE: The estimation of the surface area of the body involved is usually worked out by the rule of nine. It is applied for adults. REF: The Synopsis of the Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th edition page no: 160.
train
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Results of a test were given as very satisfied, satisfied, dissatisfied, it represents -
[ "Nominal scale", "Ordinal scale", "Interval scale", "Ratio scale" ]
B
In this question, data has been placed into categories, i.e. very satisfied, satisfied and dissatisfied. So, an ordinal scale should be used.
train
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The guidelines according to Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative includes all except -
[ "Mothers and infant to be together for 24 hours a day", "Mother to initiate breast feeding within 4 hours of normal delivery", "Giving newborn infants no food or drink other than breast milk", "Encouraging breast feeding on demand" ]
B
The global BFHI has listed ten steps which the hospital must fulfill. Have a written breastfeeding policy that is routinely communicated to all health care staff Train all health care staff in skills necessary to implement this policy Inform all pregnant women about the benefits and management of breastfeeding Help mot...
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Main MOA brimonidine in glaucoma ?
[ "Decreased aqueous secretion", "Increased trabecular outflow", "Increased uveoscleral outflow", "Reduce vitreous volume" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Decreased aqueous secretion
train
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Best drug for acute gout in a patient with renal impairment is:
[ "Naproxen", "Probenecid", "Allopurinol", "Sulfinpyrazone" ]
A
Naproxen: The anti-inflammatory activity is stronger and it is particularly potent in inhibiting leucocyte migration - may be more valuable in acute gout: dose 750 mg stat followed by 250 mg 8 hourly till attack subsides. It is also recommended for rheumatoid arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis. Because of longer t ½ ...
train
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Plateau oxygen dissociation curve signifies
[ "No oxygen is available for binding to Hb", "No Hb molecule is available to bind O2", "All oxygen is released to tissues", "Carboxy-Hb formation" ]
A
In its most simple form, the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve describes the relation between the paial pressure of oxygen (x axis) and the oxygen saturation (y axis). Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen increases as successive molecules of oxygen bind. ... The P50 is a conventional measure of hemoglobin affinity for oxyge...
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In hydronephrosis from pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ) obstruction (idiopathic or congenital hydronephrosis), which of the following statements are false?
[ "The condition may be asymptomatic", "It can be diagnosed in utero", "Ultrasound scanning is the least invasive method of imaging", "If there is more than 5 per cent of function in the obstructed kidney, a procedure to preserve the kidney is carried out" ]
D
Isotope renography is the best test to establish that dilatation is caused by obstruction. It would also determine the percentage function of the kidney. A procedure to preserve the kidney is carried out when a renogram shows that there is more than 20 per cent of renal function. The operation of choice is Anderson-Hyn...
train
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Complication of blood transfusion can be all except -
[ "Hyperkalemia", "Citrate toxicity", "Metabolic acidosis", "Hypothermia" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Metabolic acidosis The question is most probably about complications of massive blood transfusion.Massive Blood Transfusion * Massive blood transfusion is generally defined as transfusion of one to two volumes of patient's own blood volumes (For most adults that is equivalent to 10-20 units.)Complicat...
train
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Most common symptom of CA head of pancreas
[ "Vomiting", "Pain", "Malabsorption", "Jaundice" ]
D
Jaundice is the most common symptom of Ca. Head of pancreas.
train
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Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the following aeries except
[ "Occipital", "Posterior auricular", "Thyrocervical trunk", "Superior thyroid" ]
C
Superior thyroid aery is a branch of ECA, inferior thyroid aery is a branch of thyrocervical trunk of subclan aery Ref: Gray's40e/262
train
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A 16-year-old boy sustained blunt trauma to his abdomen when he struck a bridge abutment at high speed while driving a motor vehicle. Peritoneal lavage shows a hemoperitoneum, and at laparotomy, a small portion of the left lobe of the injured liver is removed. Two months later, a CT scan of the abdomen shows that the l...
[ "Apoptosis", "Dysplasia", "Hyperplasia", "Hydropic change" ]
C
The liver is one of the few organs in the human body that can partially regenerate. This is a form of compensatory hyperplasia. The stimuli to hepatocyte mitotic activity cease when the liver has attained its normal size. Hepatocytes can reenter the cell cycle and proliferate to regenerate the liver; they do not just h...
train
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Which of the following processes is not a true component of swallowing?
[ "Closure of the glottis.", "Involuntary relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter.", "Movements of the tongue against the palate.", "Esophageal peristalsis." ]
C
The movement of the tongue against the palate is the only voluntary process among the four possible answers
train
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After performing a single-shot intrathecal anaesthetic consisting of 6.5mg of preservative free bupivacaine and 25 ug of fentanyl, the surgical incision is made and systemic hypotension ensued. To avoid significant decrease in uterine blood flow, first-line therapy to consider is
[ "Provide additional inhaled nitric oxide to vasodilate the uterine vasculature", "Increase maternal cardiac output with use of epinephrine", "Increase intravascular volume with fluids", "Use reverse Trendelenburg to decrease aortocaval compression" ]
C
No need to add on nitric oxide,as uterine vasculature is maximally dilated under normal conditions during pregnancy. Trendelenburg position encourages increase in venous return and α-agonists can increase maternal arterial blood pressure. i.v fluids can thus improve volume status.
train
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Cobalt is a part of which vitamin -
[ "Retinol", "Pyrodoxine", "Cyanocobalamin", "Vitamin C" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cyanocobalamin o Cobalt is a part of Cyanocobalamine
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NOT TRUE about the Sesamoid bone is
[ "Devord of periosteum", "Devoid of Haversian canal", "Found since birth", "Develops in tendon" ]
C
Sesamoid bones develop after birth in tendon. Eg- patella, pisciforon
train
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Gene for Wilms tumor is located on-
[ "Chromosome 11", "Chromosome 1", "Chromosome10", "Chromosome12" ]
A
Mutations of the WT1 gene on chromosome 11p13 are observed in approximately 20% of Wilms tumors. At least half of the Wilms tumors with mutations in WT1 also carry mutations in CTNNB1, the gene encoding the proto-oncogene beta-catenin.
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Most common tumor caused by virus is:
[ "Was", "Carcinoma cervix", "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "Lymphoma" ]
A
Ans. (a) Was' f. Harrison I - n 1117-1118, 18/e, p 1482 Disease Associated human papilloma viruses Common was (Verruca vulgaris) Condyloma accuminatum (Anogenital was) 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45 Cervical carcinoma 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45 Laryngeal papillomas 6, 11 Low grade intraepithelial neoplasias 6, 11, 16, 18
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Through which of the following mechanism does glucose mediated insulin release occur?
[ "cAMP", "Carrier modulators", "Receptor phosphorylation", "ATP dependent K+ channels" ]
D
Glucose enters the beta cells of pancreas GLUT 2 transpoers and is phosphorylated by glucokinase and then metabolized to pyruvate in the cytoplasm. The pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is metabolized to CO2 and H2O the citric acid cycle with the formation of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation. The ATP enters the cyto...
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The best method to diagnose pulmonary embolism –
[ "Pulmonary angiography", "Scintillation perfusion scan", "CT Scan", "X-ray chest" ]
C
This question is a tricky one. The best method does not mean the most accurate method. Best diagnostic test means the test which has high accuracy and less disadvantages. Though invasive pulmonary angiography is the most accurate method for diagnosis of PE, it is an invasive procedure. On the other hand, CT chest with ...
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Full mouth disinfection therapy aims at
[ "Full mouth scaling within 24hours", "Full mouth scaling within 48 hours", "Quadrant wise scaling over 7-10 days", "Five days of antibiotic therapy" ]
A
null
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Which of the following determine path of placement or removal of RPD
[ "Guiding planes", "Retentive areas", "Interferences", "All of the above" ]
D
The factors that will determine the path of placement and removal are guiding planes, retentive areas, interference, and esthetics.
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Commonest cause of nosocotnial infection ?
[ "Pseudomonas", "Staphylococci", "Klebsiella", "Enterobacteriacea" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Staphylococci "Overall, S. aureus is a leading cause of nosocomial infection"
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Malignant glaucoma is seen in:
[ "Malignancy", "After surgery for cataract or glaucoma", "Trauma", "Thrombosis" ]
B
B i.e. After surgery for cataract or glaucoma Ciliary Block Glaucoma/ Malignant Glaucoma Also known as direct lens block glaucoma, aqueous misdirection syndrome, ciliovitreolenticular block Q. It classically occurs in patients with primary narrow angle glaucoma operated for peripheral iridectomy or filtration (e.g. tra...
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Which of the following is associated with hypersensitive pneumonitis :-
[ "Silicosis", "Asbestosis", "Byssnosis", "Berylliosis" ]
C
. Byssnosis
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DOC for a pregnant woman in 2nd trimester with pustular psoriasis is -
[ "Prednisolone", "Dapsone", "Acitretin", "Methotrexate" ]
A
systemic coicosteroids- contraindicated in psoriasis as they cause flareup of disease on cessation of therapy only indication of systemic coicosteroids is erythrodermic psoriasis , generalised pustular psoriasis and pustular psoriasis of pregnancy(impetigo herpetiformis). they are life saving in acute types. other drug...
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Pit latrine has depth of_____________
[ "4-Feb", "6-Apr", "10-Jun", "12-Oct" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 10-12
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In heterochromic cyclitis:
[ "60% of patients develop glaucoma", "Show a good response when treated with steroids", "Lens implantation following cataract surgery is contraindicated", "Hyphaema during cataract surgery is due to iris neovascularization" ]
D
Ans. Hyphaema during cataract surgery is due to iris neovascularization
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A patient Pushpa comes to you in the medicine emergency and you diagnose her to be suffering from severe CHF. You choose a drug 'Z' which is a short term ionotropic agent having selective adrenergic agonistic activity but lacking dopaminergic agonistic activity. What can be 'Z' ?
[ "Dopamine", "Dobutamine", "Amrinone", "Salmeterol" ]
B
null
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73 yrs old Ramlal has intra-abdominal sepsis. The causative organism was found to be vancomycin, gentamycin and ampicillin resistant. It grows well in presence of 6.5% NaCl and arginine. Bile esculin hydrolysis is positive. Which of the following is this organism
[ "Streptococcus agalactae", "Enterococcus fecalis", "Streptococcus bovis", "Streptococcus pneumonia" ]
B
Option 1, 3, 4 Bile esculin hydrolysis test: Negative: Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pneumonia Positive: Streptococcus bovis but it does not grow in presence of 6.5% NaCl, pH 9.6 Option 2 Enterococcus fecalis Grow in the presence of bile and hydrolyze esculine - bile esculin positive. Grows in presence of 6.5...
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Spinal accessory nerve supplies -
[ "Platysma", "Sternocleidomastoid", "Stylohyoid", "Diagastric" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sternocleidomastoid o Spinal part of accessory nerve supplies trapezius and sternocleidomastoid. Nerve supply of accessory nerveo Cranial root (cranial accessory) through branches of vagus via pharyngeal plexuso Muscles of soft palate except tensor veli palatini, i.e. levator palati, musculus uvulae, ...
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Positive health in today world -
[ "Dependent on social, economic and culture", "Mirage because of changing environment", "Body and mind at peace", "Changing behavior with respect to change in future" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mirage because of changing environment Positive health o The state of positive health implies the notion of "perfect functioning" of the body and mind. o In canceptualizes heath Biologically, as a state in which every cell and every organ is functioning at optimum capacity and in perfect hormony with ...
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Which of the following drugs may enhance the effect of warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding?
[ "Phenobarbitone", "Ketoconazole", "Rifampicin", "Carbamazepine" ]
B
DRUGS INCREASING THE EFFECT OF WARFARIN DRUGS DECREASING THE EFFECT OF WARFARIN Broad Spectrum Antibiotics (Kill GI bacteria and decrease formation of Vitamin K) Cephalosporins that cause hypoprothrombinemia Cefamandole, Cefoperazone Moxalactam Aspirin Microsomal Enzyme Inhibitors Erythromycin Cimetidine Ketoconazole E...
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Decrease number of melanocyte is seen in:
[ "Albinism", "Piebaldism", "Ichthyosis", "Chemical leucoderma" ]
B
Piebaldism is a Autosomal dominant disease characterized by patches of skin that lack melanin as a result of defect in migration of melanoblast from neural crest to skin. Skin biopsy: Hypo melanotic area-few to no melanocytes. Vitiligo: is an acquired disease and similar patch of loss ofmelanin, but the loss develops a...
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In classical caesarean section more chances of rupture of uterus is in:
[ "Upper uterine segment", "Lower uterine segment", "Uterocervical junction", "posterior uterine segment" ]
A
Upper uterine segment is at more risk of rupture in case of a previous classical cesarean section. Here incision is made on the anterior uterine wall in the upper segment above the reflection of uterovesical fold of peritoneum. It is because such a scar is difficult to appose and healing is not good because of frequent...
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A young boy presented to OPD with multiple shiny pinhead size white papules over dorsum of head, forearm and penis. What would be the diagnosis?
[ "Lichen planus", "Lichen nitidus", "Scabies", "MC" ]
B
Ans. b. Lichen nitidusLichen nitidus on histology shows claw clutching appearance
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Two identical twins will not have same -
[ "Fingerprints", "Iris color", "DNA copies", "Blood group" ]
A
There is one chance in 64000 millions of two persons having same fingerprints. It is always unique for each person. ref : Dr.K.S.Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 47.
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A patient underwent breast conservation surgery for 3 cm lesion along with sentinel lymph node biopsy., which showed one-third of sentinel lymph nodes are positive for macrometastasis. Next step is
[ "Completion axillary lymph node dissection chemotherapy and radiotherapy", "MRM with level I lymphadenectomy", "MRM with level III lymphadenectomy", "Only chemotherapy and radiotherapy" ]
A
Lymphatic metastasis in Carcinoma Breast: Lymphatic spread in CA breast occurs through subareolar lymphatic plexus of Sappey&;s lymphatic plexus, cutaneous lymphatics & inflammatory lymphatics. Lymphatic metastasis occurs primarily to the axillary (75%) & internal mammary lymph nodes. Tumors in the posterior one-third ...
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Moality of rabies is ?
[ "25%", "50%", "75%", "100%" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 100% Rabies Rabies is primarily a zoonotic disease of warm-blooded animals, paicularly carnivorous such as dogs, Cats, Jackals and wolves.
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Pathognomonic enlarged, grayish yellow or orange tonsils are seen in:
[ "Familial hypercholesterolemia", "LCAT deficiency", "Tangier disease", "Abetalipoproteinemia" ]
C
Patients with Tangier disease have extremely low circulating plasma levels of HDL-C ( Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3154
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Bad prognosis in AML is indicated by -
[ "Monosomy", "Deletion of X or Y chromosome", "T(8:21)", "Nucleophosmin mutation" ]
A
null
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Functions of limbic system
[ "Emotion", "Memory", "Higher function", "Planned motor activity" ]
A
Emotional behaviour is one of the most impoant functions of the limbic system. Emotions refer to an aroused state involving intense feeling, autonomic activation and related behaviour, which accompany many of our conscious experiences. Emotions have two major components: mental and physical. - MENTAL OR SENSORY COMPONE...
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T. pallidum was discovered by
[ "Schaudin and Hoffman", "Ellerman and Bang", "Twort", "Robert Koch" ]
A
Ans. a (Schaudin and Hoffman) (Ref. Anantanarayan, Microbiology, 8th/ p. 5; 377)Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis, was discovered by Schaudinn and Hoffmann (1905) in the chancres and ingunal nodes of syphilitic pts. Pallidum refers to pale staining.Important discoveries in MicrobiologySr. no.Scientist...
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Which of the following is not lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?
[ "Hypopharynx and laryngopharynx", "Oesophagus", "Cornea", "Tympanic membrane" ]
D
.
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Human placenta is best described as
[ "Discoidal", "Hemochorial", "Deciduate", "All the above" ]
D
Human placenta is discoid in shape hemochorial because of direct contact of chorion with blood maternal deciduate i.e, it is shed at the time of paurition. Ref : Datta Obs 9e pg 25.
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6-phospho Gluconate dehydrogenase need - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
[ "NAD", "NADP", "FAD", "FMN" ]
B
Ans-B6-phospho-D-gluconate + NADP+ = {\display style \rightleftharpoons } D -ribulose 5-phosphate + CO2 + NADPH
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The presence of lutein cysts in vesicular mole is due to excess :
[ "FSH", "LH", "Oestrogen", "HCG" ]
D
HCG
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