question
stringlengths
1
6.54k
choices
listlengths
4
4
answer
stringclasses
4 values
rationale
stringlengths
0
22.5k
split
stringclasses
1 value
dataset
stringclasses
6 values
subject
stringclasses
1 value
LASER that can be used in treatment of ureteric calculi
[ "CO2 laser", "Nd-Yag", "Holmium", "All of the above" ]
C
null
train
med_mcqa
null
An Rh-negative woman married to a heterozygous Rh-positive man has three children. The probability that all three of their children are Rh-positive is: Himachal 10
[ "1:02", "1:04", "1:08", "Zero" ]
C
Ans. 1: 8
train
med_mcqa
null
Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of
[ "Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase", "Ribonucleotide reductase", "Dihydroorotase", "Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase" ]
A
The orotic aciduria is a consequence of the inability of severely damaged mitochondria to utilize carbamoyl phosphate, which then becomes available for cytosolic overproduction of orotic acid.Type-I orotic aciduria reflects a deficiency of both orotate phosphoribosyltransferase and orotidylate decarboxylaseThe rarer Ty...
train
med_mcqa
null
A 50 year old man presents with central chest pain. He collapsed while his ECG was being recorded. What is the cause of this ECG?
[ "R on T phenomenon", "Macro-reentrant Circuit", "Early after depolarization", "AV nodal Re-entry" ]
A
ECG shows ST segment changes in lead II, III indicating inferior wall MI (BLUE ARROW) Ventricular extra-systole after the first beat (RED MARK) In the fouh beat, ventricular Extra-systole (YELLOW) is occurring at time of T wave triggering a polymorphic Ventricular tachycardia. The "R-on-T phenomenon" is the superimposi...
train
med_mcqa
null
Overall survival is increased by screening in
[ "Prostate Cancer", "Lung cancer", "Colon cancer", "Ovarian cancer" ]
C
Schwaz says "Because the majority of Colorectal cancers are thought to arise from Adenomatous polyps, preventive measures focus upon identification and removal of these premalignant lesions. In addition, many cancers are asymptomatic and screening may detect these tumors at an early and curable stage American cancer so...
train
med_mcqa
null
All of the following are true regarding DNA repair defect syndrome EXCEPT
[ "HNPCC", "Fanconi", "AT-Tcl", "Fragile X" ]
D
(D) Fragile X # HNPCC is caused by mutations in one of several different mismatch repair (MMR) genes including MutS homologue 2 (MSH2) and MutL homologue 1 (MLH1). These enzymes are involved in the detection of nucleotide mismatches and in the recognition of slipped-strand trinucleotide repeats. Germline mutations in t...
train
med_mcqa
null
Characteristic postmoem finding of carbolic acid poisoning is?
[ "Greenish stomach", "Yellow charred stomach", "Brown Leathery stomach", "Black charred stomach" ]
C
Note: On contact, carbolic acid hardens the tissues. Stomach mucosa hardens and becomes leathery like. That's why, gastric lavage can be donein carbolic acid poisoning.
train
med_mcqa
null
Invasion of perineural space is a feature of
[ "Pleomorphic adenoma", "Wahin's tumor", "Mucoepidermoid carcinoma", "Adenoid cystic carcinoma" ]
D
Adenoid cystic carcinoma Most common location -Parotid & submandibular glands are M/E - Small cells having dark, compact nuclei & scant cytoplasm. Pattern : Tubular, solid, or cribriform patterns reminiscent of cylindromas arising in adnexa of skin Slow growing, adenoid cystic carcinomas are unpredictable tumors with t...
train
med_mcqa
null
Destination therapy is given in which condition?
[ "MI", "CHF", "Arrhythmia", "IE" ]
B
Ans. B. CHFa. Destination therapy is a therapy that is final rather than being a transitional stage until another therapy--thus, in transportation metaphor, a destination in itself rather than merely a bridge or road to the destination.b. The term usually refers to ventricular assist devices or mechanical circulatory s...
train
med_mcqa
null
Best Rx for CML is:
[ "Autologous BMT", "Allogenic BMT", "Alpha Interferon", "Hydroxyurea" ]
B
Answer is B (Allogenic BMT) The only curative treatment for CML is Allogenic stem cell Transpintation Note: The treatment of choice in CML is Allogenic BMT The drug treatment of choice in CML is Imatinib
train
med_mcqa
null
In which of the following infectious disease is testis involved but epidydimis is spared ?
[ "Syphilis", "Gonorrhea", "Chancroid", "Chlamydia" ]
A
In congenital syphilis, testicular enlargement is present at bih, whereas in aquired form testis is involved in teiary syphilis. Causes of Epidydimitis: *Chlamydia trachomatis *Neisseria gonorrhoeae *E. coli *Ureaplasma *Mycobacterium *Cytomegalovirus *Cryptococcus
train
med_mcqa
null
Commonest cause of first trimester abortion is:
[ "Monosomy", "Trisomy", "Triploidy", "Aneuploidy" ]
D
Ans. is d, i.e. AneuploidyRef. Williams 24/e, p 351The M/C cause of early miscarriages is aneuploidy (i.e. chromosomal anomaly).Amongst the aneuploid abortions--autosomal trisomy is the most frequently identified chromosomal anomaly.Trisomies have been identified in abortuses for all except chromosomal number 1 and tho...
train
med_mcqa
null
Hea rate is decreased by
[ "Propanolol", "Isoprenaline", "Dopamine", "Dobutamine" ]
A
ref; KD Tripathi Pharmacology 6th edition (page no;136) Propranolol is a beta blocker which decreases hea rate, force of contraction (at relatively higher doses) and cardiac output (c.o.). beta blocker inhibits adrenergic responses mediated through the beta receptors. Isoprenaline,Dobutamine,Dopamine are adrenergic dru...
train
med_mcqa
null
Pericardial space is present between ?
[ "Endocardium and pericardium", "Epicardium and pericardium", "Endocardium and epicardium", "Parietal and visceral pericardium" ]
D
Pericardial space (pericardial cavity) lies between parietal serous pericardium and visceral serous pericardium.
train
med_mcqa
null
True about solitary rectal ulcer syndrome is all/ except
[ "Increased muscle layer proliferation", "Crypt distoion", "Lamina propria infiltration with lymphocyte", "Subepithelial fibrosis" ]
C
Classically, it takes the form of an ulcer on the anterior wall of the rectum.ulceration may heal, leaving a polypoid appearance.A variety of explanations as to its cause has been suggested, including persistent trauma by anal digitation. However, recent proctographic studies indicate that it may be due to a combinatio...
train
med_mcqa
null
Scottish terrier sign is seen in-
[ "AP view", "PA view", "Lateral view", "Oblique view" ]
D
D i.e. Oblique view
train
med_mcqa
null
Hernias at lateral border of rectus abdominis is:
[ "Spigelian hernia", "Ventral hernia", "Epigastric", "None of the above" ]
A
Spigelian hernias can occur anywhere along the length of the Spigelian line or zone -- an aponeurotic band of variable width at the lateral border of the rectus abdominis. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 35.
train
med_mcqa
null
Second generation antihistamines used in allergic rhinitis are except
[ "Azelastine", "Fexofenadine", "Chlorpheneramine maleate", "Desloratidine" ]
C
Chlorpheniramine and promethazine are first generation antihistamines. Refer kDT 6/e p158
train
med_mcqa
null
Population covered by a PHC in hilly region is ?
[ "20,000", "30,000", "40", "25,00" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 20,000 o One PliC for every 30,000 rural population in the plains. o One PHC for every 20,000 population in hilly, tribal and backward areas.
train
med_mcqa
null
Remnant of mesonephric duct are all except
[ "Paraoophoron", "Epoophoron", "Gamer's duct", "Baholin's duct" ]
D
The Baholin's glands (also called Baholin glands or greater vestibular glands) are two pea-sized compound racemose glands located slightly posterior and to the left and right of the opening of the vagina. They secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina and are homologous to bulbourethral glands in males. However, while Baho...
train
med_mcqa
null
An antidepressant drug which is known to have both high sedative and anticholinergic activity is:
[ "Phenelzine", "Amitriptyline", "Fluoxetine", "Trazodone" ]
B
(Ref: KDT 6/e p443, 444) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) possess anticholinergic and sedative propeies. Amitriptyline and tripitramine possess highest sedative and antimuscarinic actions.
train
med_mcqa
null
Barbiturates excretion in urine may be increased by-
[ "Diuretics", "Alkalinization", "Acidification", "Dialysis" ]
B
In barbiturate poisoning, forced alkaline diuresis is used.
train
med_mcqa
null
Widening of C-loop of duodenum/broad loop of duodenum on X-ray is diagnostic of:
[ "Chronic pancreatitis", "Carcinoma head of pancreas", "Periampullary carcinoma", "Calculi in ampulla of vater" ]
B
Ans. Carcinoma head of pancreas
train
med_mcqa
null
Vertically oval dilated pupil is seen in -
[ "Acute primary angle closure glaucoma", "Wernicke's korsakoff psychosis", "Neurosyphilis", "Paralysis of occulomotor nerve" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute primary angle closure glaucoma o In acute primary angle closure glaucoma - Pupil is semidilated, vertically oval and fixed. It is non-reactive to both light and accommodation.
train
med_mcqa
null
True about duodenal adenocarcinoma -
[ "Commonest small intestinal tumor", "Arises from periampullary region", "Jaundice & anaemia found", "All" ]
D
Ans. Three options are correct i.e., (b) i.e. Arises from periampullary region; (c) i.e. Jaundice & anaemia found
train
med_mcqa
null
A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular endo-myocardial biopsy revealed deposition of extracellular eosinophilic hyaline material. On transmission electron microscopy, this material is most likely to reveal the presence of-
[ "Non branching filaments of indefinitive length", "Cross banded fibres with 67 m periodicity", "Weber Palade bodies", "Concentric whorls of lamellar structures" ]
A
Restrictive cardiomyopathy along with deposition of extracellular eosinophilic hyaline material suggest the diagnosis of Amyloidosis Myocardial involvement with amyloid is a common cause of secondary restrictive cardiomyopathy. Amyloid is a pathological proteinaceous substance deposited between cells in various tissues...
train
med_mcqa
null
Rib Notching of 4–9th ribs with double bulging is seen in –
[ "Aortic aneurysm", "Aortic dessection", "Coarctation of aorta", "Diaphragmatic hernia" ]
C
Radiological findings of COA 1. Abnormal Aortic arch : Commonest finding Site of narrowing may be seen as an identation. Classic '3 sign' or double bulge sign' on left border of aortic shadow is formed by (above downwards) Prestenotic dilatation Coarctation itself (indentation) Poststenotic dilatation 2. Rib notchi...
train
med_mcqa
null
All the following drugs are hallucinogens except
[ "Mescaline", "Phencyclidine", "Ketamine", "Pentostatin" ]
D
Pentostatin is an anticancer drug Hallucinogens-LSD,Phencyclidine,ketamine,mescaline etc Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg. 326
train
med_mcqa
null
What are the cellular contents of cerebellar coex?
[ "Coical cells", "Glomus cells", "Principle cells", "Intercalated cells" ]
A
Coical cells. CELLS IN CEREBRAL COEX: Coical cells: Majority are pyramidal cells Pyramidal cells - "Sine qua non" for cerebral coex Axons of pyramidal cells leave the coex Forms descending tract (e.g. Coicospinal, Coicobulbar etc).
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is not usually involved in ankylosing spondylitis?
[ "Sacroiliac joint", "Spine", "Ankle", "Elbow" ]
D
Usually axial skeleton is severely involved. Elbow joint is not involved. Commonest joint involved is Sacroiliac joint.
train
med_mcqa
null
The anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy is
[ "Heparin", "Warfarin", "Dicumarol", "Phenindione" ]
A
(Heparin) (562-KDT) (598-KDT6th)HEPARIN - is the anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy because it does not cross BBB or placentaAdverse effects1. Bleeding due to overdoses is the most serious complications2. Thrombocytopenia is another common problem3. Transient and reversible alopecia is infrequent4. Osteoporosis5....
train
med_mcqa
null
Wind Swept Deformity is seen in _________
[ "Scurvy", "Rickets", "Achondroplasia", "Osteroporosis" ]
B
Windswept deformity (combination of valgus deformity of 1 leg with varus deformity of the other leg) Its a clinical feature of rickets. Reference: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 51 Rickets and Hypervitaminosis D
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is not a feature of Wernicke's,encephalopathy:
[ "Global confusion", "Opthalmoplegia", "Ataxia", "Aphasia" ]
D
Ans.(d) AphasiaRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 2724The classic triad of symptoms found in Wernicke's encepha- lopathy is:* Global Confusion* Ophthalmo-plegia (Most commonly affecting the lateral rectus muscle).* AtaxiaFor diagnosis: Thiamine can be measured using an erythrocyte transketolase activity assay or by activation by...
train
med_mcqa
null
Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except -
[ "Sarcoidosis", "Distal RTA", "Milk alkali syndrome", "Medullary cystic kidney" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Mrs. Y, 25years with the previous history of twin pregnancy delivered at 36weeks, now at 10weeks of gestation, her obstetric score is
[ "G1P1L2", "G1P2L2", "G2P1L2", "G2P2L2" ]
C
Gravida: a woman who currently is pregnant or has been in the past, irrespective of the pregnancy outcome.With the establishment of the first pregnancy, she becomes a primigravida, and with successive pregnancies, a multigravida.Nullipara: a woman who has never completed a pregnancy beyond 20 weeks' gestation. She may ...
train
med_mcqa
null
During extraction of lower impacted right molar, the bone is removed:
[ "To expose maximum dimension of tooth", "Upto CE junction", "Upto furcation area", "Upto half of roots" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Azathioprine is used as
[ "Immunosuppressant", "Antigout drug", "Anti-retro virus", "Anti- cancer" ]
A
CompoundUseNucleoside analogueBromodeoxyuridineaStudy cell proliferationThymidine analogueAllopurinalAnti gout drugHypoxanthine analogueAzathiopineImmunosuppressantPurine analogue
train
med_mcqa
null
Diseases which show presence of fibrinoid necrosis are all except ?
[ "SLE", "PAN", "SABE", "Diabetic glomerulosclerosis" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diabetic glomerulosclerosis Fibrinoid necrosis Fibrinoid necrosis is special form of necrosis usually seen in immune reactions involving blood vessels. This pattern of necrosis typically occurs when complexes of antigen and antibodies are deposited in the walls of aeries. Diseases with fibrinoid necro...
train
med_mcqa
null
Patients suffering from which of the following disease as per ICD/DSM criteria are eligible for disability benefit as per National Trust Act?
[ "Schizophrenia", "Bipolar disorder", "Dementia", "Mental retardation" ]
D
The National Trust Act is applicable for autism, cerebral palsy, mental retardation and multiple disabilities.
train
med_mcqa
null
The most common radio-opaque mass at root apex of a vital tooth is due to:
[ "Hypercementosis", "Condensing osteitis", "Periapical cemental dysplasia", "True cementoma" ]
C
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Telefono is
[ "Pulling of hair", "Beating on soles", "Beating on ears", "Beating on fingers" ]
C
TELEFONO consists of repeated slapping of the sides of the head by open palms of the assailant this may cause rupture of ear drums. Ref : internet sources
train
med_mcqa
null
Commonest site for colonic diveicula is-
[ "Ascending colon", "Sigmoid colon", "Transverse colon", "Descending colon" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sigmoid colon
train
med_mcqa
null
A 45 year old female complaints of lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. On examination there is cervicitis along with a mucopurulent cervical discharge.The best approach to isolate the possible causative agent would be -
[ "Culture chocolate agar supplemented with Haemin", "Culture on McCoy cells", "Culture on a bilayer human blood agar", "Culture on vero cell lines" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
In 7 year old posterior fossa mass with cyst formation, hypodense on CT, hyper intense on T2WI and showing post gadolinium nodule enhancement is
[ "Medulloblastoma", "Ependymoma", "Astrocytoma", "Cysticercous" ]
C
C i.e. Astrocytoma Posterior Fossa tumors in children Features Astrocytoma Ependymoma Medulloblastoma Cyst Formation Very cominonQ Common Rare CT scan IlypodenseQ Rare Isodense No Hyperdense Yes (15-40%) CSF seeding Transforaminal spread No Yes No Calcification -10% 40-50% 10-15% T2WI Hyper (intense) Hyper/Iso Iso T1 W...
train
med_mcqa
null
Highest analgesic effect is a feature of -
[ "Ketamine", "Thiopentone", "Propofol", "Ethomidate" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ketamine "Ketamine is different from most other anaesthetic induction agents in that it has significant analgesic action". Remember o Amongst inhalation agents trilene (maximum), NO and ether have good analgesic action.
train
med_mcqa
null
Restorative material which decreases the tensile strength and fracture toughness of dentin, when used during RCT:
[ "Calcium hydroxide.", "EDTA.", "Sodium hypochlorite.", "All of the above." ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Use of anticoagulant is -
[ "Venous thrombosis", "Arterial thrombosis", "Vitamin K toxicity", "Heart failure" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Venous thrombosis Prophylaxis for venous thrombuso Heparin (unfractioned, LMW, or fondaparinox) and oral anticoagulants (warfarin).Prophylaxis for arterial thrombuso Aspirino Clopidogrelo Ticlopidine
train
med_mcqa
null
Cetuximab (an EGFR antagonist) can be used in ?
[ "Palliation in head and neck cancer", "Anal canal ca", "Gastric ca", "Lung ca" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Palliation in head neck cancer Uses of Cetuximab Head and neck cancer Colorectal cancer
train
med_mcqa
null
An example for disclosing solution is
[ "Chlorhexidine", "Mercurochrome preparations", "Quaternary Ammonium compound", "Sorbitol" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Kahn test is a:
[ "Tube flocculation.", "Slide flocculation.", "Tube agglutination.", "Slide agglutination" ]
A
null
train
med_mcqa
null
All of the following are features of moscheowitz triad in Pericardial effusion, except
[ "Widening of the cardiac sillhouette", "Bunting of cardiophrenic angle on the right side", "An increase in cardiac dullness in the second intercostal space", "An abrupt transition of pulmonary resonance to cardiac dullness" ]
B
Answer- B. Bunting of cardiophrenic angle on the right sideWidening of the cardiac silhouette (widening of cardiac flatnest to percussion).Widening or increae in cardiac dullness in the second intercostal space; andAn abrupt transition of pulmonary resonance to cardiac dullness
train
med_mcqa
null
Microcephaly is defined as a:
[ "Head circumference more than 2 SD above the mean for age and sex", "Head circumference more than 3SD above the mean for age and sex", "Head circumference more than 10th percentile above the mean for age and sex", "Head circumference more than 15th percentile above the mean for age and sex" ]
A
Ans. A. Head circumference more than 2 SD above the mean for age and sexMacrocephaly is defined as head circumference more than two standard deviations (SD) above the mean value for a given age and gender. It has to be differentiated from megalencephaly, which is defined as increase in the size of the brain parenchyma....
train
med_mcqa
null
Dental wear caused by tooth-to-tooth contact is
[ "Abrasion", "Attrition", "Erosion", "Abfraction" ]
B
Wasting diseases of the teeth include erosion (corrosion; may be caused by acidic beverages), abrasion (caused by mechanical wear as with toothbrushing with abrasive dentifrice), attrition (due to functional contact with opposing teeth), and abfraction (flexure due to occlusal loading)
train
med_mcqa
null
The long acting analgesic used in post operative pain is
[ "Bupivacane", "Dubivacine", "Morphine", "Tramadol" ]
A
.Bupivacaine (Marcaine): It has got prolonged action. It is a vasodilator also. Dose: 3 mg/kg. Epidural block: 0.5% Spinal 0.5% 3 ml.* An epidural catheter is placed in the space and fixed. 2% xylocaine with adrenaline or 0.5% bupivacaine is injected into the space to achieve anaesthesia up to the desired level. ref:SR...
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is a primer acting as an acceptor of glucose residues in glycogenesis?
[ "Carbohydrate", "Lipid", "Protein", "Nucleic acid" ]
C
Primer for Glycogen biosynthesis: Glycogenin protein-contains tyrosine to which Glucose chain attached.
train
med_mcqa
null
BETA-blockers are used in all, EXCEPT
[ "Hypertension", "Thyrotoxicosis", "Variant angina", "All of the above" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Variant angina [Ref: K.D.T. 5th/e page 127\We all know that attacks of variant angina occur due to coronary vasospasm.So, the drugs which relieve coronary vasospasms will used in variant angina (C.C.B.'S, Nitrates) b blockers are contraindicated in these patients because b blockers, instead of dilatin...
train
med_mcqa
null
Most common cause of per rectal bleeding is:
[ "Diverticulosis", "Hemorrhoids", "Crohn's disease", "Cancer Colon" ]
A
Ans. (a) DiverticulosisRef: Sabiston Page 1151 Table* Most common cause of bleeding PR overall is diverticulosis* MC cause of Bleeding PR in children is Fissure in ano.
train
med_mcqa
null
Which zone is not found when repair is done with MTA:
[ "Zone if calcification.", "Zone of inflammation.", "Zone of necrosis.", "Zone of irritation." ]
C
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Nearly 20% of normal tensile strength of tissue at the site of wound is gained after: September 2008
[ "1 week of wound healing", "2 weeks of wound healing", "3 weeks of wound healing", "4 weeks of wound healing" ]
C
Ans. C: 3 weeks of wound healing When tissue is damaged, platelets adhere to exposed matrix integrins that bind to collagen and laminin. Blood coagulation produces thrombin, which promotes platelet aggregation and granule release. The platelet granules generate an inflammatory response. White blood cells are attracted ...
train
med_mcqa
null
How much is punishment for sex determination -
[ "3 years", "5 years", "7 years", "9 years" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 3 yearso According to pre-conception and pre-natal diagnostic techniques (prohibition of sex selection) act 2002, sex detection can lead to a fine of Rs. 10,000 and up to three years Inprisonment for a first offence, with greater fines and longer terms of imprisonment for repeated offenders.
train
med_mcqa
null
The effect which is seen due to decrease in serum calcium concentration is
[ "Relaxation of muscle", "Excitability of the muscle", "Increase the renal absorption", "Depression of Nervous system" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is not a step as part of the technique for a shallow (partial) pulpotomy?
[ "Rubber dam isolation", "Pulp tissue removed to about 2 mm below the exposure", "Use of a large round carbide bur in slow speed handpiece to remove tissue", "Restoration of the cavity with a hard-setting cement" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null
17-year-old girl with amenorrhea, atrophied breast, hypoplastic uterus:
[ "Turner's syndrome", "Gonadal dysgenesis", "Androgen insensitivity syndrome", "Klinefelter's syndrome" ]
A
Here the patient is 17 years old and has amenorrhea (i.e. Primary Amenorrhea) with atrophied breast and hypoplastic uterus. Hypoplastic uterus can be seen in case of: • In klienefelter syndrome – Gonada are testis and not ovaries. The patient externally resembles a male and not female. Uterus is also absent. • In pure ...
train
med_mcqa
null
A patient with 8 cm x 8 cm abscess in right lobe of liver was treated with aspiration multiple times (3 times) and with systemic amebicide. Now cavity is remaining in right lobe of liver but there is nothing in the cavity. Seven days course of luminal amebicides is given. How will you follow up?
[ "Stool examination only", "USG weekly for 1 month followed by monthly USG till 1 year", "USG weekly for 3 months followed by CT scan at 3 months.", "USG or CT scan monthly and stool examination weekly" ]
B
Ans. b. USG weekly for 1 month followed by monthly USG till 1 year (Ref: Sabiston 19/e p1445-1447; Schwartz 9/e p1115-1116; Bailey 25/e p1095; Blumgart 5/e p1016-1024; Shackelford 7/e p1471-1478)In uncomplicated cases of amebic liver abscess, follow-up is done with ultrasound.Role of ultrasound in the diagnosis and tre...
train
med_mcqa
null
All are advantages of removable space maintainers EXCEPT
[ "Easy to clean", "Permit maintenance of proper oral hygiene", "They maintain vertical dimension", "Band construction is necessary" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Progressive transformation of germinal centres is a precursor lesion of:
[ "Hodgkins lymphoma ,nodular sclerosis", "Hodgkins lymphoma,mixed cellularity", "Anaplastic large cell lymphoma", "Peripheral T cell lymphoma" ]
A
Progressive transformation of germinal centres is a beningn reaction pattern in lymphnodes.it is most often associated with reactive follicular hyperplasia. It is also associated with nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominant Hodgkins lymphoma.( ref Loachims lymphnode pathology /186)
train
med_mcqa
null
Ramla, 65 yrs old male presents with low backpain especially at L3, anaemia and fatiguability) His investigation profile reveals -Hb =7gm%, TLC-9000/cmm, DLC -N- 55%, L-30%, M-10%, E-1%, -2%,Serum proteins-8gm %, ratio-2.9/5.9, ESR-90 and serum creatinine-3.2 mg%. Likely diagnosis is -
[ "Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia", "Multiple myeloma", "TB spine", "Secondaries in spine" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
null
All are true about recovery phase of Acute Kidney Injury except:
[ "Hypernatremia", "Hypokalemia", "Hypomagnesaemia", "Hypocalcaemia" ]
A
Ans. A. HypernatremiaHyponatremia is seen in recovery phase of acute kidney injury.Stages of AKI:* Initiation phase- Decrease in urine output* Maintenance phase- Hyponatremia- Hyperkalemia- Hyperphosphatasemia- Hypomagnesemia- Hypocalcaemia-Metabolic acidosis- Elevation of BUN- diuresis* Recovery/diuretic phase- Hypona...
train
med_mcqa
null
The most important determinant of prognosis in Wilm's tumor is -
[ "Stage of disease", "Loss of heterozygosity of chromosome 1p", "Histology", "Age less than 1 yr at presentation" ]
C
"The histology of Wilm's tumor was identified as the most important determinant of prognosis." - Devita's Cancer
train
med_mcqa
null
Which is not a major criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
[ "Carditis", "Subcutaneous nodules", "Increased ASLO", "Arthritis" ]
C
The Jones criteria for rheumatic fever:
train
med_mcqa
null
All of the following ovarian tumours usually occur bilaterally, except:
[ "Metastatic mass", "Dysgerminoma", "Cyst adenoma of ovary", "Dermoid cyst" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Find the value of range for the following data 7, 9, 6, 8, 11, 10, 4 -
[ "5", "6", "7", "8" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is primordial prevention for NCD (non communicable disease) -
[ "Salt restriction in high NCD area", "Smoking cessation in high NCE area", "Preservation of traditional diet in low NCD area", "Early diagnosis & treatement" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Preservation of traditional diet in low NCD area o A novel approach to primary prevention ofnon-communicable disease, e.g. coronary hea disease, isprimordial prevention. o It involves preventing the emergence and spread of CHD risk factors and life styles that have not yet appeared or become endemic p...
train
med_mcqa
null
Which is NOT a type I respiratory failure: March 2013 (e)
[ "ARDS", "COPD", "Pulmonary edema", "Pneumonia" ]
B
Ans. B i.e. COPD Respiratory failure Type I: - Parenchymal disease, - ARDS, - Pneumoniae, Emphysema Type II: - COPD, - Flail chest etc. Type III: - Atelectasis
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion -
[ "Frusemide", "Hydrochlorothiazide", "Spironolactone", "Demeclocycline" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Trichophagia is characterized by -
[ "Compulsive pulling of hair", "Compulsive eating of hair", "Compulsive shopping", "Compulsive stealing" ]
B
Ans is 'b' i.e. Compulsive eating of hair o Trichophagia is compulsive eating of hair and is usually associated with trichotillomania i.e. compulsive pulling of hair.o Compulsive shopping is called Oniomania.o Compulsive stealing is called Kleptomania.Also knowo Pyromania i.e. pathological fire setting
train
med_mcqa
null
18 year old girl presents with amenorrhea, anorexia, weight loss and with milk discharge from the nipples. What is the likely diagnosis?
[ "HIV", "Occult carcinoma", "Anorexia nervosa", "Hypothyroidism" ]
C
Anorexia nervosa H v pothvroidism It can be easily ruled out as it causes weight gain and menorrhagia. HIV H.I.V does not ause menstrual symptoms. Galactorhoea is also not associated with H.I.V. Occult carcinoma Is a small carcinoma either asymptomatic or giving rise to metastasis without symptoms due to primary carcin...
train
med_mcqa
null
A 14-year-old girl noticed gradual neck enlargement during the past 8 months. On physical examination, her thyroid gland is diffusely enlarged. Her serum TSH level is normal. A dietary history is most likely to reveal that she has begun eating more of which of the following foods?
[ "Cabbage", "Fava beans", "Fish", "Plantains" ]
A
She has developed a sporadic goiter. Vegetables of the Brassicaceae family, including cabbage, turnips, and Brussels sprouts, contain glucosinolate, which can decompose to release thiocyanate, a by-product that interferes with thyroid hormone synthesis. Thus such substances are known as goitrogens. Young persons with i...
train
med_mcqa
null
A couple has two children affected with tuberous selerosis.On detailed clinical and laboratory evaluation (Including molecular studies) both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family?
[ "Non penetrance", "Uniparental cliasomy", "Genomic imprinting", "Germline mosaicism" ]
D
Germline mosaicism, also called gonadal mosaicism, is a type of genetic mosaicismwhere more than one set of genetic information is found specifically within the gamete cells. Germline mosaicism can be present at the same time as somatic mosaicism or individually depending on when the conditions occur. Pure germline mos...
train
med_mcqa
null
PAS stains the following except -
[ "Glycogen", "Lipids", "Fungal cell wal", "Basement membrane of bacteria" ]
D
TABLE 2.1: Common Special (Histochemical) Stains in Surgical Pathology (in Alphabetic Order of Constituents). Stain: Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) Component/Tissue:Carbohydrates(paicularly glycogen),all mucins. Dyes: Periodic acid Schiff reagent(basic fuschin) Interpretation: glycogen and other carbohydrates: magenta nucl...
train
med_mcqa
null
All of the following statements are true about congenital rubella except:
[ "It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth", "It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 months", "Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformation and cataract", "Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects(Ref: Harrison, 18th/e, p. 1606; 19th/e, p. 1300)* The most important factor in the pathogenicity of Rubella virus for the fetus is gestational age at the time of infection.* "In general, the earlier in pregnancy infection occurs...
train
med_mcqa
null
True about the Sickle cell disease are all, Except -
[ "Single nucleotide change results in change of Glutamate to Valine", "Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a non polar residue with a polar residue", "HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes", "RFLP results from a single base change" ]
B
Sticky patch in sickle cell disease results from replacement of a polar residue (Glutamate) with a nonpolar residue (Valine) at the 6th position of the beta chain. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation, i.e. mutation of just one (single) nucleotide of DNA. The altered codon specifies a different amino acid (...
train
med_mcqa
null
Otoacoustic emission arises from?
[ "Inner hair cell", "Outer hair cell", "Riessers membrane", "Organ of otolith" ]
B
ANSWER: (B) Outer hair cellREF: Dhingra 4th edition Page 29Repeat from June 2010OTOACOUSTIC EMISSIONS (OAES):They are low intensity sounds produced by outer hair cells of a normal cochlea and can be elicited by a very sensitive microphone placed in the external ear canal and an analysis by a computer. Sound produced by...
train
med_mcqa
null
All of these are predisposing lesions for Ca vulva, EXCEPT?
[ "Pagets disease", "Lichen sclerosis", "VIN", "Familial cancer syndromes" ]
D
Predisposing lesions for ca vulva are: lichen sclerosus VIN Pagets disease of vulva Bowens disease
train
med_mcqa
null
Erythropoietin in kidney is secreted by
[ "Juxtaglomerular cells", "PCT cells", "Interstitial cells in peritubular capillaries", "Capillaries of glomerulus" ]
C
Interstitial cells in paritubular capillaries releoses erythroportin in responce to hypoxia.
train
med_mcqa
null
Long and peaked a waves are seen in all except-
[ "Tricuspid atresia", "Ebsteins anomaly", "Hyperkelamia", "Right atrial enlargement" ]
C
ECG : left axis detion in tricuspid atresia The common ECG findings in Ebstein anomaly include tall and broad P waves, prolonged PR interval, right bundle branch block pattern, fragmented QRS complex, and tachyarrhythmias due to accessory pathways usually present around the malformed TV. ECG Criteria of Right Atrial En...
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following ion plays role in exocytosis?
[ "Sodium", "Potassium", "Calcium", "Magnesium" ]
C
Exocytosis For exocytosis to occur, the vesicle containing neurotransmitter must fuse with pre-synaptic membrane - Vesicle membrane is negatively changed & also the cell is negatively charged. Therefore for this fusion to occur a bridge should be formed & a cation can form this bridges. that cation is Ca2+ - Exocytosis...
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is not present in pterygomandibular space
[ "Auriculo temporal nerve", "Lingual nerve", "Mandibular nerve", "Myalohyoid nerve" ]
A
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Quiscence of the uterine musculature is :
[ "Enhanced by progesterone", "Enhanced by oestrogen", "Inhibited by Progesterone", "Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone" ]
A
Progesterone is responsible for maintaining quiscence (relaxation) of uterine musculature This function of progesterone has been put to use for prevention of aboions: oral, injectable or vaginal micronised progesterones prevention of preterm labour in patients with high risk of preterm delivery like those with past his...
train
med_mcqa
null
Frozen pelvis is seen in -
[ "Osteoarthritis", "Potts disease", "Actinomycosis", "Reiters disease" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Potts disease o A term for significant involvement of the pelvic floor by malignancy, usually carcinoma, or ttuberculosis; in which there is massive extension of pathology to the urinary bladder, female genital tract, and sigmoid colon. Adequate resection of a frozen pelvis is virtually impossible; ch...
train
med_mcqa
null
In NIDDM, fundus examination is done –
[ "At the time of diagnosis", "5 year after diagnosis", "At diagnosis & 5 years after diagnosis", "At 2 years" ]
A
null
train
med_mcqa
null
X-ray findings in chronic otitis media ?
[ "Honeycombing of mastoid", "Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid", "Clear-cut distinct bony paition between cells", "None of the above" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid
train
med_mcqa
null
A baby has recently developed mouthing but has not developed stranger anxiety. Likes and dislikes for food. What is the most appropriate age of this baby-
[ "3 months", "5 months", "7 months", "9 months" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5 months Mouthing develops by 4 months, while stranger anxiety develops by 7 months. So, the age of this child is between 4 to 7 months. Amongst the given options best answer is 5 months.
train
med_mcqa
null
A woman of 50 years who attained menopause came with one episode of bleeding Per vaginum. Which of the following is to be done
[ "Any history of H", "Hysterectomy", "PAP Smear", "Hysteroscopy" ]
A
Postmenopausal bleeding Definition: Amenorrhea for 1year Vaginal bleeding occurring anytime after 6 months of amenorrhoea in a menopausal age should be considered as postmenopausal bleeding and investigated An impoant reason for postmenopausal bleeding is indiscriminate or prolonged use of oestrogen unopposed by proges...
train
med_mcqa
null
Study design of choice for finding out Diurnal variation of fat in Expressed breast milk (EBM) for preterm babies
[ "Prospective coho", "Ambispective coho", "Case control", "Cross sectional" ]
D
Diurnal variation- fat in Expressed Breast Milk- more in the evening as compared to the morning. To perform this study, we only need to take 2-3 samples in 1-2 days in an adequate sample size. Since this study is being performed at a paicular point in time, it is a CROSS SECTIONAL study. - CROSS SECTIONAL STUDY: Done a...
train
med_mcqa
null
Mutation in alpha 5 chain of collagen 4, the diagonis is -
[ "Alpo's syndrome", "Thin membrane disease", "Nodular glomerulosclerosis", "Good pasture syndrome" ]
A
AIpo's syndrome A number of uncommon diseases may involve the glomerulus in childhood but the most impoant one affecting adults is Alpo's syndrome. Most cases arise from a mutation or deletion of the COL4A5 gene on the X chromosome, which encodes type IV collagen, resulting in inheritance as an X-linked recessive disor...
train
med_mcqa
null
Recurrent infection leads to which calculi -
[ "Struvite", "Calcium Oxalate", "Calcium Phosphate", "Cysteine" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Struvite "Struvite stone tends to grow in alkaline urine * esp. when proteus organisms are present which split urea to ammonia ".Struvite Stoneso Calcium phosphate can be combined with ammonium and magnesium to form the triple phosphate calculus* ie Calcium amnomium magnesium phosphate also k/a struvi...
train
med_mcqa
null
In which fetal presentation vaginal delivery can be expected:
[ "Face presentation when the chin lies direct to the sacrum", "Brow presentation", "Shoulder presentation", "Face presentation when the chin lies under the symphysis pubis" ]
D
Vaginal delivery is not possible in: Brow presentation Shoulder presentation (transverse lie) Mentoposterior presentation of face (i.e. when chin lies directed to sacrum) In mentoanterior, i.e when chin lies under the symphysis pubis – vaginal delivery is possible.
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following is multipennate muscle -
[ "FPL", "EPL", "Deltoid", "FHL" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Deltoid Fascicular architecture of skeletal muscleo The major types of arrangement of muscle fibers or fasciculi are1. Parallel fasciculiThe muscle fibers or fasciculi are parallel to line of muscle pull.These muscles contract over a great distance (have maximum range of movement) and have good endura...
train
med_mcqa
null
Roflumilast is a
[ "PDE-3 inhibitor", "PDE-4 inhibitor", "PDE-5 inhibitor", "Leucotriene receptor antagonist" ]
B
Roflumilast is a PDE-4 inhibitor that inhibits degradation of cAMP and lead to bronchodilation.
train
med_mcqa
null