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Longest acting muscle relaxant?
[ "Doxacurium", "Atracurium", "Scoline", "Vecuronium" ]
A
Ans. a. Doxacurium (Ref: Tripathi 6th edition, 345; Lee 12th edition, p. 180-190).Doxacurium is a bisquaternary muscle relaxant having the least rapid onset and the longest action: suitable for longer duration surgeries. It is primarily eliminated by kidney, although hepatic metabolism also occurs. Cardio- vascular chn...
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Which of the following is TRUE about "terminal cardiotocogram"?
[ "Baseline oscillation of less than 5 bpm", "Absent accelerations", "Late decelerations with spontaneous uterine contractions", "All of the above" ]
D
Terminal cardiotocogram" is an abnormal nonstress test pattern that reliably forecast severe fetal jeopardy. It includes: Baseline oscillation of less than 5 bpm Absent accelerations Late decelerations with spontaneous uterine contractions Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y...
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Not true about hair cycle:
[ "Telogen phase last for 3 months", "40% of hair is in anagen at one point of time", "Catagen is an involutionary period", "Telogen is the period between catagen and the next anagen" ]
B
Ans. b. 40% of hair is in anagen at one point of time.80-90% of hair follicles at a given time are in the anagen phase.Hair follicles undergo a repetitive sequence of growth and the rest, it is known as the hair cycle. Three phases of Hair Cycle are: Anagen, Catagen, and Telogen.Anagen:#Period of active hair growth (de...
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Cholesterol levels in abnormal person should be preferably less than
[ "200 mg/dl", "180 mg/dl", "150 mg/dl", "120 mg/dl" ]
A
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70 year old man with Ca.prostate with osteoblastic secondaries in pelvis and lumbar veebra showed well differentiated Adeno Carcinoma prostate on needle biopsy. He is idealy treated by -
[ "Radical prostectomy", "TURP", "Radiation", "Hormonal manipulation" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hormonal manipulation
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Fetal requirement of iron is :
[ "200 mg", "300 mg", "400 mg", "500 mg" ]
B
Ans. is b i.e. 300 mg Iron Requirements in Pregnancy : To compensate for external iron losses through sweat, urine and faeces - 170 mg For expansion of maternal Red cell mass 450 mg Fetal requirement 270 mg Iron in placenta and cord 90 mg Also Know Significance of knowing the above requirement All above requirements ad...
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An infeile couple enquires about modalities of A. Which of the following is not an assisted reproductive technology (A)?
[ "IVF", "GIFT", "ZIFT", "Aificial insemination" ]
D
Techniques involved in assisted reproductive technologies includes in vitro feilization, intracytoplasmic sperm injection, egg donation, gestational carrier surrogacy, gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) and zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT). By convention, assisted reproductive techniques are those at some point...
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One of the following is an absolute contraindication for treatment of Thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy of 6 months duration:-
[ "Antithyroid drug", "I131 therapy", "Telepaque", "Surgery" ]
B
Radioactive iodine is an absolute contraindication in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy. In fact, it should not be given to patients even wanting pregnancy within 6 months.
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You are shown an MLO view of the left breast. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
[ "Papillomatosis", "Fat necrosis", "Oil cysts", "Fibroadenomas" ]
D
Although papillomas often calcify, they are usually more fragmented or lava like. Fat necrosis tends to appear as rim or lattice like calcifications, and are not as uniform and solid. Oil cysts typically demonstrate rim calcifications. The multiple macro or "popcorn" like calcifications are compatible with calcified fi...
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Which of the following features is shared in common between lymphocyte - rich and lymphocyte predominant types of Hodgkin's lymphoma ?
[ "Paucity of diagnostic RS cells", "EBV is associated", "RS cells are CD 20 positive", "Good prognosis" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Good prognosis
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Most impoant receptor involved in chemotherapy induced vomiting is:
[ "Histamine H1 receptor", "Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor", "Dopamine D2 receptor", "Opioid m receptor" ]
B
-5HT3 receptors are present in CTZ and are involved in chemotherapy induced vomiting. -Antagonist of this receptor like ondansetron is drug of choice for chemotherapy induced vomiting.
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Treatment of choice in intracran al ALL is:
[ "A. Intrathecal methotrexate", "Vincristine and prednisolone", "Intrathecal vincristine", "Prednisolone" ]
A
Answer is A (Intrathecal methotrexate) Intrathecal ,methotrexate is the chemotherapy of choice for intracranial manifestation of Acute Leukemia Treatment of choice for intracranial ALL Combination of intrathecal methotrexate and cranial irradiation. Agents used for Intrathecal chemotherapy Methotrexate Cytarabine Thiot...
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Which of the following act to cause local Vasodilators
[ "| O2 tension", "| PH", "| CO2 tension", "| CO2 tension" ]
C
(| CO2 tension) (500-1-K.S) (597-GN) (563-Ganong 23rd)Local vasodilatorsVasodilators of metabolic originVasodilators of endothelial origin* The vasodilators of metabolic origin are carbon dioxide, lactate, hydrogen ions and adenosine, Histamine* The metabolic changes that produce vasodilation include in most tissues de...
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All of the following statements about WPW syndrome are true, Except:
[ "More common in females", "Rt ventricular aberrant is commonly seen", "Incidence | with age", "Hea is structurally normal" ]
A
Answer is A (More common in females) WPW syndrome is more common in males and the incidence varies from 0.1 to 3/1000 in apparently healthy subjects (Le 0.01 to 0.3 percent) WPW syndrome : Accessory AV Pathways WPW syndrome or `Prexcitation syndrome' is charachterized by the presence of tachyarrvthmiasQ due to an acces...
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Second line AKT drug causing peripheral neuropathy -
[ "Ethionamide", "Rifabutin", "PAS", "Moxifloxacin" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ethionamide Drug causing peripheral neuropathy* Amiodarone* Demeclocycline* Isoniazid* Mustine* Streptomycin* Chloramphenicol* Disopyramide* Methysergide* Nalidixic acid* Procarbazine* Chloroquine* Ethambutol* Metronidazole* Nitrofurantoin* Polymyxin, colistin* Cisplatin* Ethionamide* Vincristine* Per...
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Catatonia is most commonly seen with
[ "Schizophrenia", "dissociation", "Anxiety disorder", "Obsessive compulsive disorder" ]
A
Catatonic schizophrenia (Cata: disturbed, tonic: tone) is characterised by a marked disturbance of motor behaviour the charecterstic feuture of catatonia is mutism and stupour catatonia can be rated by a rating scale called as Bush Francis Catatonia Rating Scale.It can present in three clinical forms: excited catatonia...
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Primary canine erupts:
[ "After D", "Before B", "After B", "After E" ]
A
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In which stage of anaesthesia patient becomes hyperactive:
[ "Stage 1", "Stage 2", "Stage 3", "Stage 4" ]
B
Stage I – Analgesia and conscious sedation Stage II – Stage of delerium Stage III – Stage of surgical anesthesia Plane I – Pupils dilate progressively with the depth of anesthesia. Lid reflex, swallowing, retching and vomiting get abolished. Corneal reflex present. Conjunctival reflex is absent. Pharyngeal reflex lost...
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Dimercaperol is contraindicated in poisoningwith?
[ "Iron", "Mercury", "Gold", "Silver" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Iron Dimercaprol is contraindicated in iron and Cadmium Poisoning as Dimercaperol - Fe and Cd complexes are themselves toxic. Dimercaprol (British Anti-Lewisite. BAL) Dimercaprol contains two sulfahydryl groups. Dimercaprol provides these SH groups to protect enzymes and other proteins from metal like...
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Volatile agent which causes most renal toxicity is
[ "Ether", "Isoflurane", "Methoxyflurane", "Sevoflurane" ]
C
Methoxyflurane is most metabolized and produces more than 80 micromol/litre of flouride in blood. The amount of fluoride ions produced: Methoxyflurane: 50uM Sevoflurane: 20-30 uM Enflurane: 20uM Isoflurane and desflurane: 5uM
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After removal of the parotid gland, patient is having sweating on the cheeks while eating. The nerve involved in this phenomenon
[ "Lingual nerve", "Auriculotemporal nerve", "Lesser petrosal nerve", "Buccal nerve" ]
B
Frey's syndrome (gustatory sweating) results from damage to the autonomic innervation of the salivary gland with inappropriate regeneration of the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibres of the auriculotemporal nerve that aberrantly stimulate the sweat glands of the overlying skin. The clinical features include swe...
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The commonest route of spread of puerperal sepsis is
[ "Lymphatic", "Direct invasion", "Skip lesions", "Hematogenous" ]
B
The organisms responsible are typically those that normally colonize the cervix, vagina, and perineum and are usually of low virulence. The uterine cavity is sterile before rupture of membranes but later becomes contaminated. Other factors which help to create a suitable environment for these ascending organisms are ti...
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The following statements are true regarding botulism except -
[ "Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin", "Clostridium botulinum A, B, C and F cause human disease", "The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage", "Clostridium baratti may cause botulism" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin . Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of spores. Spores are ingested in food, get established in the gut and there produce the toxin. "Seven main types of C. botulinum, designated A - G, produce antigenically distinct toxins with pharmacolog...
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Signet-ring cells are found in which type of breast cancer NOT RELATED- GYN
[ "Papillary carcinoma", "Tubular carcinoma", "Invasive ductal carcinoma", "Invasive lobular carcinoma" ]
D
Invasive lobular carcinoma accounts for 10% of breast cancers. The histopathologic features of this cancer include small cells with rounded nuclei, inconspicuous nucleoli, and scant cytoplasm. Special stains may confirm the presence of intracytoplasmic mucin, which may displace the nucleus (signet-ring cell carcinoma).
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Lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg syndrome involves all EXCEPT:
[ "5th cranial nerve", "9th cranial nerve", "10th cranial nerve", "12th cranial nerve" ]
D
ANSWER: (D) 12th cranial nerveREF: Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th ed Chapter 364. Cerebrovascular Diseases, Brainstemdisorders by Peter P Urban, Louis R Caplan page 205-207.See previous 2 questions for explanation and table of Brainstem syndromes
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Which among the following is the causative factor for forming 'Gutter wound'?
[ "Oblique bullet wound", "Fall from height", "Sharp weapon", "Osteoporosis" ]
A
Bullets may graze or rub the top and sides of the cranium without entering it. In such cases, entry and exit wounds are found on the scalp about two to three cm. apa, while the skull between the two wounds shows an oval or elongated gutter-like depression, known as 'gutter wound'. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medici...
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Diabetes Mellitus diagnosed when
[ "Fasting blood glucose is 100 and post prandial 140", "Fasting blood sugar 125 and 2 hour postprandial blood sugar is 199", "Insulin level", "HbA1c > 6.5%" ]
D
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Pendular knee jerks are due to defect of?
[ "Ischemic stroke", "Neocerebellum", "Paleocerebellum", "Archicerebellum" ]
B
Manifestation Neo-cerebellum Lesions of this area cause hypotonia. Manifests as pendular knee-jerk. Also developing in these patients is dysmetria, dysdaidokinesia, scanning speech also occur. Paleo-cerebellum Gait ataxia, loss of tandem gait Archi-cerebellum Truncal ataxia, titubation
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Which is the ideal position to insert the below tube
[ "Sitting with neck extended", "Supine with neck flexed", "Supine with neck extended", "Sitting with neck flexed" ]
D
Ans. (d) Sitting with neck flexedRef Clinical Practical Procedures for Doctors, pg. 123-128; Medscape (Nasogastric tube placement)* Ideal position to insert the Ryles Tube is sitting with Neck flexed or Fowler position.
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According to Wolffs law:
[ "Human teeth drift mesially as interproximal wear occurs", "Pressure causes bone resorption", "The optimal level of force for moving teeth is 10 to 200 grams", "Bone trabeculae Line up in response to mechanical stresses" ]
D
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Valve of Hasner
[ "Opening of nasolacrimal duct", "Sphenoidal sinus opening", "Frontal sinus opening", "Ethmoidal sinus opening" ]
A
Ref BDC volume3,6th edition pg 76Nasolacrimal duct begins at the lower end of the lacrimal sac, runs downwards, backward and laterally and opens into the inferior meatus of the nose.A fold of mucous membrane called hasners valve forms an imperfect valve at the lower end of the duct.
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Coical area controlling vestibular function is located in ?
[ "Frontal lobe", "Parietal lobe", "Occipital lobe", "All of the above" ]
B
Ans. is'b'i.e., Parietal lobe [Rel Gray's Anatomy'E book p. j20)Information from the vestibular nuclei also reaches the cerebral coex by way of thalamus (probably posterior pas of the ventroposterior complex and the medial pulvinar).The primary vestibular coical area is located in the parietal lobe
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Which is true about measurement of BP with syphgnomonmeter versus intraaerial pressure measurements:
[ "Less than intravascular pressure", "More than intravascular pressure", "Equal to intravascular pressure", "Depends upon blood flow" ]
B
B i.e. More than intravascular pressure
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A 50-yrs-old male has a severe vomiting and retching spell with 'sharp substernal pain. He comes to you 4 h later and has a chest film in which the left descending aorta is outlined by air density. Optimum strategy for care would be:
[ "Immediate thoracotomy", "Serial ECGs and CPKs to rule out MI", "Left chest tube and spit fistula", "Esophagogastroscopy to establish diagnosis" ]
A
The presence of air in the mediastinum after an episode of vomiting and retching is virtually pathognomonic of spontaneous rupture of the esophagus (Boerhaave syndrome). The evidence is overwhelming that without prompt surgical exploration of the mediastinum by left thoracotomy, the patient has little chance for a shor...
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MRP2 gene defect results in which of the hereditary disorders of bilirubin metabolism and Transpo is:
[ "Gilbes", "Crigler najjar type I", "Crigler najjar type II", "Dubin johnson-" ]
D
PARAMETER Syndrome GILBE'S CRIGLER- NAJJAR TYPE I CRIGLER-NAJJAR TYPE II DUBIN-JOHNSON ROTOR'S Incidence 6%-12% Very rare Uncommon Uncommon Rare Gene affected UGT1A1 UGT1A1 UGT1A1 MRP2 Unknown Metabolic defect |Bilirubin conjugation No bilirubin conjugation ||Bilirubin conjugation Impaired canalicular expo of conjugate...
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Best screening method for Mirizzi syndrome is:
[ "USG abdomen", "CECT abdomen", "Plain X-Ray abdomen", "ERCP" ]
D
Mirizzi syndrome: Suspected cases should be examined with ultrasonography or CT for anatomical evaluation to avoid biliary injury or postoperative biliary leakage related to undetected fistula formation. ERCP has been recommended as the best screening method. Ref: Turk J Gastroenterol 2008; 19 (4): 258-263.
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All of the following serological tests would be helpful in diagnosis of chronic brucellosis except
[ "Standard agglutination test", "Mercaptoethanol test", "Complement fixation test", "ELISA detecting IgG" ]
A
As isolation is difficult, serological tests are of paramount impoance in the diagnosis of brucellosis.several tests have been developed such as standard agglutination test, complement fixation, and ELISA. SAT detects antibodies against antigens of smooth LPS. In acute infection, IgM antibodies appear early followed by...
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All of the following veins lack valves except
[ "Femoral vein", "Poal vein", "IVC", "Dural venous sinuses" ]
A
Veins which do not have valves are:IVCSVCHepatic, ovarian, uterine, renal, emissary, cerebral, pulmonary, and umbilical veinsPoal venous system is a valveless system
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Bronchoalveolar carcinoma presents as -a) Hemoptysisb) Collapsec) Effusiond) All
[ "ac", "ab", "ad", "bc" ]
B
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WHO defi nes adolescent age between -
[ "10-19 years", "10-14 years", "10-25 years", "9-14 years" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10-19 years o Adolescence is usually the period 10 to 20 yr.
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Pericyte formation occur in -
[ "Kaposi sarcoma", "Glomus tumor", "Hemangiopericytoma", "Myopericytoma" ]
C
Haemangiopericytoma is an uncommon tumor arising frompericytes. Pericytes are cells present external to the endothelialcells of capillaries and venules. This is a rare tumorthat can occur at any site and at any age and may vary insize from 1 to 8 cm.Microscopically, the tumor is composed of capillariessurrounded by spi...
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Metastatic calcification predominantly affects each of the following Except
[ "Lungs", "Kidney", "Pancreas", "Media of aeries" ]
C
The deposition of calcium salts in otherwise normal tissues is known as metastatic calcification, and it almost always results from hypercalcemia secondary to some disturbance in calcium metabolism.Metastatic calcification may occur widely throughout the body but principally affects the interstitial tissues of the gast...
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Which type of neuropathy is seen in arsenic poisoning ?
[ "Symmetric peripheral motor neuropathy", "Asymmetrical peripheral motor neuropathy", "Symmetrical peripheral sensory neuropathy", "Asymmetrical peripheral sensory neuropathy" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Asymmetrical peripheral sensory neuropathy Neurological manifestations of arsenic poisoning Headache, veigo, hypehermia, tremors, convulsions, coma, general paralysis. Peripheral neuropathy that is more sensory than motor occurs in asymmetric distal stocking glove distribution after one to two weeks o...
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Which structures are preserved in Scanlon’s modified radical mastectomy ?
[ "Lateral pectoral nerves", "Level II nodes in the axilla", "Pectoral fascia", "Nipple and the areola" ]
A
Modified Radical Mastoidectomy (MRM) : 2 types – Auchincloss MRM : Both pectoralis major and minor are preserved with removal of level I and II axillary nodes only. Patey’s MRM : Pectoralis minor is removed with complete axillary clearance of nodes up to level III. - Scanlon’s modification of Patey’s MRM : Instead of r...
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In perinatal asphyxia, neurological damage can be predicted by:
[ "Routine radiology", "CT", "MRI", "USG" ]
C
Ans. MRI
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Which of the following local anesthetic is most cardiotoxic -
[ "Lignocaine", "Procaine", "Mepivacaine", "Bupivacaine" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bupivacaine o Bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic.Important facts about LAo Chlorprocaine is the shortest acting LA.o Dibucaine is the longest acting, most potent and most toxic LA.o Bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic LA (Ropivacaine is a newer bupivacaine congener with less cardiot...
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True about intra abdominal compament syndrome -
[ "Intra abdominal pressure > 15 cm H2O", "Pneumoperitoneum can produce it.", "| Renal blood flow", "All" ]
A
Ans is 'a' i.e. Intraabdominal pressure > 15 cm H2O Abdominal Compament syndrome Is caused by acute increase in the intraabdominal pressure, caused by accumulation of large amounts of fluid i.e. blood or edema It is seen in patients -who have sustained massive abdominal trauma had an operation for massive intraabdomina...
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Which is not an endogenous catecholamine ?
[ "Dopamine", "Dobutamine", "Adrenaline", "Noradrenaline" ]
B
null
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Major contribution towards gluconeogenesis is by?
[ "Lactate", "Glyerol", "Ketones", "Alanine" ]
D
D i.e. Alanine
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Vitamin required for post translational modification of coagulants is :
[ "Vitamin A", "Vitamin C", "Vitamin B6", "Vitamin K" ]
D
D i.e. Vitamin K
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A patient is unable to move eye outw ard beyond midline. The lesion is in -
[ "Trochlear nerve", "Obturator nerve", "Abducent nerve", "None" ]
C
Ans. is c' i.e., Abducent nerve o Inability.' to move the eye outward beyond midline suggests lateral rectus palsy, which is responsible for abduction. There are six extraocular muscles in each eye.o All the extra ocular muscles are supplied by the occulomotor nerve except for the superior oblique which is supplied by ...
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Best result in tuboplasty are seen in :
[ "Isthmic - Isthmic type", "Isthmic - ampullary type", "Cornual implantation", "Removal of hydrosalpinx" ]
A
Isthmic - Isthmic type
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Enzyme in fatty acid synthase complex that has pantothenic acid as coenzyme:
[ "Acetyl transacylase.", "Thioesterase.", "Enoyl reductase.", "Acyl carrier protein." ]
D
In eukaryotic cells, including man, the fatty acid synthase exists as a dimmer with two identical units. Each monomer possesses the activities of seven different enzymes and an acyl carrier protein (ACP) bound to 4’ phosphopentethiene.
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The antibiotic causing pseudomembrane colitis is-Clindamycin
[ "Clindamycin", "Garamycin", "Erythromycin", "Vancomycin" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clindamycin o Pseudomembranous enterocolitis is caused most commonly by 2nd generation cephalosporins, clindamycin ampicillin, and fluoroquinolones.
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Which characteristic applies to the toxin produced by C. diphtheriae
[ "It has only local effects", "It consists of lipid", "It is a poor antigen", "It is an exotoxin" ]
D
Corynebacterium diphtheriae secretes a protein of approximately 62,000 molecular weight that exhibits toxicity against mammalian cells. Therefore, it is called an exotoxin (i.e., a toxic protein that is secreted by bacterial cells). It is a single polypeptide chain held together by two disulfide bridges. Fragment A exh...
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True statement about testicular feminising syndrome are all except
[ "Absent uterus", "Absent vagina", "Absent ovary", "Chromosome pattern 46 x Y" ]
B
Blind vagina is present in Testicular Feminizing Syndrome not absent vagina. Genotype is 46 XY. There is presence of testis and absence of ovary and uterus.
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With respect to Acute myelodyspalstic syndrome, all of the following cytogenetic abnormalities are seen except-
[ "Trisomy 8", "deletion of 20q", "deletion of 5q", "Monosmy 9" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Monosmy 9 * MDS is frequently associated with chromosomal abnormalities including monosomy 5 and 7, deletion of 5q and 7q, trisomy 8 and deletion of 20q.
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Which of the following drugs is not an antifungal agent?
[ "Ciclopirox olamine", "Ketoconazole", "Undecylenic acid", "Clofazimine" ]
D
Ketoconazole, Undecylenic acid and Ciclopirox olamine are Anti Fungal drugs. While Clofazimine is a antimycobacterial drug. Ref: KDT, 6th Edition, Pages 752, 757; Antituberculosis Chemotherapy, Volume, Page 169; Lippincott's Illustrated Reviews: Pharmacology, 4th Edition, Page 399; Basic and Clinical Pharmacology By Ka...
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True about montelukast is:
[ "It inhibit lipooxygenase pathway", "It decreases the frequency of asthma attacks as com pared to glucocoicoids", "It blocks LT receptor", "It is effective in acute bronchial asthma" ]
C
2 LT1 receptor antagonists is montelukast and zafir lukast, they competitively antagonize LT1 receptor zileuton- inhibits the synthesis of Leukotrienes ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION KD TRIPATHI PG NO .228
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Hypertrophy means -
[ "Increased protein content of the cells", "Increase in size of cells", "Increase in number of cells", "None of the above" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increase in size of cells Hypertrophy o Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells without increase in the number, resulting in an increase in the size of tissue. Hypertrophy involves cell enlargement without cell division. So, hypertrophied organ has just larger cells, but no new cells Hy...
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Rotavirus is a double-stranded RNA virus with a double-walled capsid. Which one of the following statements best describes rotavirus?
[ "There are no related animal viruses", "It is a major cause of neonatal diarrhea", "It is readily cultured from the stool of infected persons", "Maternal antibody does not appear to be protective" ]
B
Rotavirus is a viral entity that is similar to Nebraska calf diarrhea virus and is thought to be a major cause of acute diarrhea in newborn infants. Three-quarters of all adults have antibodies against rotavirus; passive transfer of these antibodies to the baby, especially through the colostrum, seems to be protective....
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Aerial blood supply to Little's area is from all the following except
[ "Sphenopalatine aery", "Anterior ethmoidal aery", "Superior labial aery", "Posterior ethmoidal aery" ]
D
Aeries supplying Little's area are: a. Sphenopalatine aery. b. Superior labial aery. c. Anterior ethmoidal aery. d. Septal branches of greater palatine aery.
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At what value of one-hour glucose challenge test will you recommend a standard glucose tolerance test -
[ "120 mg/dI", "140 mg/dI", "150 mg/dI", "160 mg/dI" ]
B
null
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Fluid flow in and out of the dentinal tubules is proportional to the tubule diameter by:
[ "Third power of the diameter", "Sixth power of the diameter", "Square of diameter", "Fourth power of diameter" ]
D
Fluid flow in dentin tubules follows Poiseuille’s law as all tubular structures:
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Action of i. v. thiopentone is terminated by -
[ "Rapidly renal excretion", "Oxidation", "Redistribution", "Conjugation" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Redistribution {Ref: K D Tripathi 7th/e p. 400]o Three proceeses are involved in the termination of action of barbiturates: the relative importance of each varies with the compound.i) Redistribution: it is important in the case of highly lipid soluble thiopentone. After iv injection the action of thio...
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A term newborn infant is noticed to be hypotonic, which of the following is the possible diagnosis
[ "Turner's syndrome", "Kugelberg Welander disease", "Cephalhaematoma", "Galactosaemia" ]
D
Galactosemia is a condition in which the body is unable to use ( Causes Galactosemia is an inherited disorder. This means it is passed down through families. If both parents carry a nonworking copy of the gene that can cause galactosemia, each of their children has a 25% (1 in 4) chance of being affected with it. There...
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Antigen presented along with HLA-ll stimulates
[ "CD8 cells", "CD4cells", "CD2 cells", "CD19 cells" ]
B
Ref Robbins 9/e p195 Class II MHC molecules are encoded by genes in the HLA-D region, which contains at least three subregions: DP, DQ, and DR. Class II MHC molecules are heterodi- mers of noncovalently linked polymorphic a and b sub- units (Fig. 4-3). The extracellular poion of the class II MHC heterodimer contains a ...
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Thyroxine is used in the treatment of which thyroid cancer:
[ "Medullary", "Radiation induced", "Anaplastic", "Papillary" ]
D
null
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Acetyl choline decreases heart rate by:
[ "Acting on specific K+ channels and increasing efflux", "Acting on Ca2+ channels and increasing efflux", "Acting on specific K+ channels and increasing influx", "Acting on specific Ca2+ channels and increasing influx" ]
A
Ans: a (Acting on specific K+ channels and increasing efflux)Ref: KD Tripathi 6th ed Pg. 95; Ganong 21st ed Pg. 550 -551Ach acts via muscarinic M2 receptors opening a special set ++ of K channels increasing efflux of K.Muscarnic receptorsM1Mainly a neuronal receptor located on ganglion cells and central neurons, especi...
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Most common type of Bening overian tumour during pregnancy is :
[ "Simple serous cystoid", "Mucinous cystoid", "Teratoma", "Papillary cystadenoma" ]
A
Simple serous cystoid
train
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DNA Amplification is done in:
[ "PCR", "NASBA (Nucleic acid sequential based amplification)", "Ligase chain reactions", "All" ]
D
A i.e. PCR > B i.e. NASBA; C i.e. Ligase chain reaction DNA amplification techniques include - polymerase chain reaction (PCR), real time PCR, nucleic acid sequence based amplification (NASBA), ligase chain reaction (LCR) and Gap LCRQ. These are also k/a nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT's)
train
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HIV envelope is formed by
[ "Host cell", "Virus", "Both", "None" ]
C
HIV Envelope is made up of Lipoprotein. Lipid is derived from host cell and protein is virus encoded.
train
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Active form of vitamin D is:
[ "Calcitriol", "Calcifediol", "Cholecalciferol", "Ergocalciferol" ]
A
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol or calcitriol is the active form of Vit-D .
train
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After doing a graft repair of a thoracoabdominal aneurysm, the patient developed weaknesss in both legs. Most probable cause for this is:
[ "Decreased blood supply to the lower limbs", "Thoracosplanchnic injury", "Discontinuation of aeria radicularis magna", "Lumbosacral nerve injury" ]
C
Ans is 'c' i.e. Discontinuation of aeria radicularis magna The Aeria Radicularis Magna (aery of Adamkiewicz) is the main source of blood supply to the anterior spinal aery in the thoracolumbar segment of the spinal cord. It arises from either one of the lower posterior intercostal aeries (T9-11), or of the subcostal ae...
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Cranial pa of accessory nerve supplies all palatal muscles, except:
[ "Palatoglossus", "Palatopharyngeus", "Tensor veli palati", "Tensor veli tympani" ]
C
Tensor veli palati
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A 4 years old child presented in emergency with respiratory difficulty and noisy breathing with drooling of saliva. Emergency X-ray showed thumb sign. Diagnosis is:
[ "Croup", "Epiglottitis", "Foreign body aspiration", "Retropharyngeal abscess" ]
B
Ans. b. Epiglottitis (Ref: Ghai 7/e p351; CPDT 18/e p501)A 4 years old child presented in emergency with respiratory difficulty and noisy breathing with drooling of saliva. Emergency X-ray showed thumb sign. Diagnosis is acute epiglottitis.Acute epiglottitisInflammation of epiglottis with inflammatory edema of hypophar...
train
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Plasma volume is measured by ?
[ "Inulin", "Evans blue", "Mannitol", "D2O" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Evans blue
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Under the WHO 'Vision 2020' programme, the `SAFE' strategy is adopted for which of the following diseases -
[ "Trachoma", "Glaucoma", "Diabetic retinopathy", "Onchocerciasis" ]
A
Blindness From Trachoma Can e Stopped At Four Different points : SAFE S -  Surgical correction for trichiasis. It is a simple operation that can turn out lashes which are scratching the cornea. Patients can be operated on in a local dispensary or health center, or other community space if properly prepared.The surgical...
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The most common presentation of neonatal meningitis is -
[ "Bulging fontanels", "Nuchal rigidity", "Poor feeding", "Convulsion" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Poor feeding Meningitis in neonates and young infants o Bacterial meningitis in the newborn and the first 4 to 6 months of life has many atypical features - i) Neck rigidity and Kernig's sign are seldom prominent ii) Anterior fontanel may or may not be bulging o Following arouse the suspicion of bacte...
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For sodium - Potassium pump the coupling ratio is
[ "1:01", "2:03", "3:02", "1:04" ]
C
Ans. (c) 3:2Na K pump uses the energy to move 3 sodium ions from inside to outside of the cell and moves 2 potassium ions from outside to insideThe coupling ratio is 3:2
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Complications of therapy with radioactive iodine includes
[ "Thyroid malignancy", "Hypothyroidism", "Leukemia", "all of the above" ]
B
null
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Most common uterine tumor is:-
[ "Leiomyoma", "Endometrial cancer", "Adenomyoma", "Leiomayosarcoma" ]
A
most common uterine tumor is leiomyoma Leiomyomas of the uterus (or uterine fibroids) are benign tumors that arise from the overgrowth of smooth muscle and connective tissue in the uterus. Histologically, a monoclonal proliferation of smooth muscle cells occurs. A genetic predisposition to leiomyoma growth exists
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All are seen in sickle cell anemia EXCEPT -
[ "Target cells", "Jaundice", "Reticulocytosis", "High hematocrit" ]
D
The terms "sickle cell crisis" or "sickling crisis" may be used to describe several independent acute conditions occurring in patients with SCD. SCD results in anaemia and crises that could be of many types including the vaso-occlusive crisis, aplastic crisis, sequestration crisis, haemolytic crisis, and others. Most e...
train
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DNA repair proofreading in prokaryotes are caused by
[ "DNA Polymerase I", "DNA Polymerase II", "DNA Polymerase III", "Gyrase" ]
B
The in vivo functionality of Pol II is under debate, yet consensus shows that Pol II is primarily involved as a backup enzyme in prokaryotic DNA replication.The enzyme has 5' - 3' DNA synthesis capability as well as 3' - 5' exonuclease proofreading activity.DNA Pol II interacts with multiple binding paners common with ...
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Lactose on hydrolysis yeilds ?
[ "2 molecules of fructose", "2 molecules of glucose", "One molecule of glocuse and one molecule of fructose", "One molecule of glocuse and one molecule of galactose" ]
D
Ans.is 'd' i.e., One molecule of glocuse and one molecule of galactose
train
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Compound used for fixation of protozoa found in stool is:
[ "Phenol", "Hypochlorite", "Formalin", "Alcohol" ]
D
Ans. d. Alcohol
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The toxigenicity of C.diphtheriae is due to:
[ "Beta phage", "Lambda page", "Gamma phage", "Delta phage" ]
A
The toxigenicity of C.diphtheriae is due to beta phage. Diphtheria Toxin production depends on : Phage coded: Diphtheria Toxin is coded by b corynephage carrying tox gene-toxigenic. Iron concentration: toxin production depends on optimum iron concentration (0.1 mg per liter). DT repressor gene (DtxR)- iron dependent ne...
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In first 8 weeks of syphilis the most specific test is
[ "VDRL", "Kahn", "TPI", "FTA-ABS" ]
D
The fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test is a blood test that checks for the presence of antibodies to Treponema pallidum bacteria(during first 8weeks of infection). These bacteria cause syphilis. Syphilis s a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that's spread through direct contact with syphilitic...
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Orchidopexy for incompletely descended testis is done after the age of: September 2011
[ "At bih", "1 year", "2 years", "5 years" ]
B
Ans. B: 1 year Orchidopexy is usually performed after the age of 1 year to avoid the risk of operating on a tiny patient Remember: Incomplete descent of testes may increased liability to malignant change All types of malignant testicular tumours are more common in incompletely descended testes even if they have been br...
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Which of the following is a cause of sudden blindness in a quiet eye with a normal media and fundus: September 2009
[ "Acute retrobulbar neuritis", "Vitreous hemorrhage", "Iridocyclitis", "All of the above" ]
A
Ans. A: Acute retrobulbar neuritis Conditions which produce visual loss with a normal fundus: Amblyopia Coical blindness Retrobulbar neuritis Cone-rod dystrophy Chiasmal tumour
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Wilsons disease primarily affects which part of CNS
[ "Basal ganglia", "Cerebrum", "Cerebellum", "Pons" ]
A
Particularly affects the basal ganglia, particularly the putamen.
train
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In TB, immunity is provided by:
[ "CD4+ cells", "CD8+ cells", "IgG", "IgM" ]
A
Activated CD4+ helper T cell is the specific immune mechanism effective in TB. It is a ‘cell-mediated' type of immunity (since it is intracellular).
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When a person stands suddenly from lying down posture, there is
[ "Increased tone of capacitance vessels.", "Increase efferent discharge from IX cranial nerve", "Decreased heart rate", "All of the above" ]
A
(A) Increased tone of capacitance vessels. > It occurs due to noradrenergic impulses causing venoconstriction via their action on a1 and a2 - adrenergic receptors on systo veins.
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Liver biopsy is normal in -
[ "Dubin johnson syndrome", "Gilbe syndrome", "Hemochromatosis", "Wilson's disease" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gilbe syndromeLiver pathology is normal in Gilbe, Crigler Najjar, Rotor Syndrome.o In Dubin Johson syndrome liver is darkly pigmented. Liver biopsy is not normal in wilson's disease, Hemochromatosis.
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Reperfusion is useful for -
[ "Stunt myocardium", "Hibernating myocardium", "Non ischaemic viable myocardium", "Mixed ischaemic myocardium" ]
B
null
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A 37-year-old woman presents with complaints of severe heaburn with or without meals. She has a history of hypeension, which has been treated with captopril. She also has a history of Raynaud disease, multiple facial telangiectasias, and very taut skin on the dorsum of both hands. She has failed to obtain relief for he...
[ "Decreased esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure", "Decreased esophageal peristalsis and increased LES pressure", "Increased esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure", "Increased esophageal peristalsis and increased LES pressure" ]
A
This patient has the classic presentation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in association with scleroderma. These patients have the deposition of collagen in the body of the esophagus, as well as the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). This results in the typical pattern of decreased esophageal peristalsis and t...
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One meridian focussed on retina, other meridian focussed behind retina is seen in
[ "Simple myopic astigmatism", "Simple hypermetropia", "Compound myopic astigmatism", "Simple hypermetropic astigmatism" ]
D
null
train
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Risk factor for pre-eclampsia:
[ "Thin built", "Smoking", "Primigravida", "Placenta pre" ]
C
Primigravida / primipara is the risk factor for pre-eclampsia Risk factors for development of pre eclampsia Primigravida Age > 35 years Prior still bih Assisted Reproductive techniques BMI> 30 Multifetal gestation Prior abruption Prior pre eclampsia Diabetes, chronic hypeension, chronic kidney disease SLE APLA
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Ujjawala is for-
[ "Child abuse", "Child trafficking", "Child labour", "None" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Child trafficking Ref- Ujjawala o The 'Ministry of women & child Development' has formulated a new comprehensive scheme for prevention of trafficking and rescue, rehabilitation and reintegration of victims of trafficking and commercial sexual exploitation. o The new scheme has been conceived primarily...
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A person with prolonged usage of contact lenses presented with irritation of left eye. After examination a diagnosis of keratitis was made corneal scrapings revealed growth of pseudomonas aeroginosa. The bacteria were observed to be multidrug resistant. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of antimicrobia...
[ "Ability to transfer resistance genes from adjacent commensal flora", "Improper contact lens hygiene", "Frequent and injudicious use of topical antibiotics", "Ability of Pseudomonas to produce biofilms" ]
D
D i.e. Ability of Pseudomonas to produce biofilms Contact lens wear (paicularly soft lenses worn over night) is the most impoant risk factor for bacterial keratitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is responsible for > 60% of cases. Infection is more likely if there is poor lens hygiene but it can also occur even with daily dis...
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