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Sympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitter in sweat gland
[ "Epinephrine", "Nor- epinephrine", "Serotonine", "Acetylcholine" ]
D
sympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitter in sweat glands is Ach Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology, 23rd edition Page no:134
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Selective 5-HT4 agonist useful in gastroesophageal reflux disease and lacking arrhythmogenic propey is:
[ "Buspirone", "Sumatriptan", "Cisapride", "Tegaserod" ]
D
Both cisapride and tegaserod are selective 5HT4 agonists useful in the treatment of GERD. Cisapride possesses cardiac K+ channel blocking activity and can lead to torsades de pointes. Tegaserod is devoid of this adverse effect. However, tegaserod has recently been withdrawn due to increased risk of MI and stroke.
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Polygenic inheritance seen in – a) Hypertensionb) HOCMc) Manic depressive psychosisd) Familial hyper lipidemia
[ "ac", "bc", "ad", "b" ]
A
null
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Amsler's grid is used to evaluate
[ "Central 10 degress of vision", "Central 20 degrees of vision", "Peripheral vision", "Lens opacity" ]
A
The Amsler grid is a tool that eye doctors use to detect vision problems resulting from damage to the macula (the central pa of the retina) or the optic nerve. The damage may be caused by macular degeneration or other eye diseases, so the Amsler grid is useful in detecting these problems. Reference: AK khurana 7th edit...
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Treatment of dacryocystitis in three months old child ?
[ "Daily probing", "Weekly probing", "Massaging", "Syringing" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Massaging Spontaneous recanalization of obstructed nosolacrimal duct occurs during first 6-8 weeks and sometimes after 6-12 months in 90% of infants. Therefore upto 9-12 months only massage and antibiotic drops are indicated. After the age of 12 months high pressure syringing is indicated.
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Number of swallowings per day
[ "300", "400", "1500", "600" ]
D
null
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A child from West Bengal presents with fever & unconsciousness for 1 day and pallor with no focal neurodeficit. What is the most probable diagnosis?
[ "Cerebral malaria", "Viral encephalitis", "Pyomeningitis", "Tubercular meningitis" ]
A
Cerebral malaria due to Plasmodium falciparum: Acute onset of fever, anemia with altered sensorium in an endemic area suggests cerebral malaria Viral encephalitis- fever, vomiting, diarrhea, seizures, behavioral changes, drowsiness, and coma Pyomeningitis- Fever, headache, stiff neck Tubercular meningitis-Fever, headac...
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Crescent fracture is
[ "Fracture of iliac crest", "Fracture of coccyx", "Fracture of calcaneum", "Fracture of Atlas" ]
A
null
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The process underflying differences in expression of a gene, according to which parent has transmitted, is called
[ "Anticipation", "Mosiacism", "Non-penetrance", "Genomic imprinting" ]
D
Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon that causes genes to be expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
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ATT most commonly implicated in causing peripheral neuropathy is
[ "Rifampicin", "Pyrazinamide", "INH", "Ethambutol" ]
C
INH Peripheral neuritis and a variety of neurological manifestations Paraesthesia Numbness Mental disturbances Rarely convulsions Refer KDT 6/e p741
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The lung abscess in children can be caused by all except –
[ "Pneumococcus", "E. Histolytica", "Staphylococcus", "Klebsiella" ]
B
Lung abscess in children  Lung abscess is most likely to occur in - i)  Immunocompromized patients ii) Those with recurrent aspiration iii) Malnutrition  iv) Blunt chest trauma v) Complication of pneumonia Organisms commonly causing lung abscess are - Staph. aureus   H.influenzae  S. pneumoniae   Pseudomonas E.coli ...
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Donor Breast milk is known to transmit all EXCEPT: September 2012
[ "Tuberculosis", "CMV", "HIV", "Rubella" ]
D
Ans. D i.e. Rubella
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Radium emits which of the following radiations – a) Alpha raysb) Beta raysc) Gamma raysd) X–rayse) Neutrons
[ "abce", "abcd", "acde", "abde" ]
A
Radium emits α, β  and γ rays. Radium also produces neutrons when mixed with beryllium(PGI-10)
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Schuffner's dots are seen in infection due to
[ "Plasmodium falciparum", "Plasmodium vivax", "Plasmodium malariae", "Plasmodium ovale" ]
B
Plasmodium vivax induces morphologic alterations in infected host erythrocytes that are visible by light microscopy in Romanowsky-stained blood smears as multiple brick-red dots.  These morphologic changes, referred to as Schüffner's dots, are important in the identification of this species of malarial parasite and hav...
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A 28 year old male admitted in the hospital with a history of vague pains. His examination revealed many scars of previous surgeries. He was very curious about knowing his diagnosis and was persistently asking for various diagnostic procedures and biopsy. He gave the past history of gall stone & appendicitis pain diagn...
[ "Hypochondriasis", "Somatization disorder", "Conversion disorder", "Factitious disorder" ]
D
null
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IUCD is absolutely contraindicated in all the following except
[ "Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding", "Suspected pregnancy", "Congenital malformation of uterus", "PID" ]
C
Absolute contraindications for IUD use include the following: Pregnancy. Significantly distoed uterine anatomy. Unexplained vaginal bleeding concerning for pregnancy or pelvic malignancy. Gestational trophoblastic disease with persistently elevated beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels. Ongoing pelvic infection
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THEME AND FOCUS: UREA CYCLE Case Study: A patient presented to casualty with nausea, vomiting. Intravenous glucose was given and the patient recovered. After few months, patient presented with same complaints. Blood glutamine was found to be increased. Also uracil levels were raised. Lead Question: What is the diagnosi...
[ "CPS-I deficiency", "Arginino succinate synthetase deficiency", "CPS-II deficiency", "Ornithine trans carbamoylase deficiency" ]
D
Glutamine increase or Hyperammonemia is a common feature of all the urea cycle enzyme but in this case uric acid levels are also increased so it is more specifically indicating ornithine Trans Carbamoylase deficiency (See fig and treasure) and not other enzymes. Hence the diagnosis is OTC deficiency. NOTE:- CPS-II (Car...
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A 30 year old female patient presents with non progressive dysphagia, for both solids and liquids. The characteristic finding on baruim swallow that will confirm the probable diagnosis is:
[ "Dilated esophagus with narrow lower end (rat tail esophagus)", "Multiple sacculations and pseudodiveicula (corkscrew esophagus)", "Narrow and irregular esophageal lumen", "Stricture ulcer in the esophagus" ]
B
The presence of non progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids suggest the diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm. The characteristic barium swallow findings of sacculations and pseudodiveicula (corkscrew esophagus) is found in barium swallow. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 174...
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Sleep spindle and K complexes are seen in: (Repeat)
[ "REM", "NREM Stage II", "NREM Stage III", "NREM Stage IV" ]
B
Ans: B (NREM Stage II) Ref: Pal GK, Reticular Formation, EEG and Sleep, In: Textbook of Medical Physiology', 2nd ed, Ahuja Publishing House, 2011: 119: 895-96Explanation:SleepIt is defined behaviorally by four criteriaReduced motor activityDecreased response to stimulationStereotypic postures (in humans, for example, l...
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When prevalence increases, which of the following may be decreased-
[ "Incidence", "Duration", "Death rate", "None" ]
C
when prevalence of a specific disease increases in a community,death rate is considerably decreased.as prevalence is the product of incdence and duration of the illness.from this equation ,incidence reflects the causal factors whereas duration of illness mainly reflects the prognostic factors. ref:park&;s textbook,22 n...
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Regarding thyroid gland during pregnancy, false is
[ "Total T4 concentration increases during pregnancy.", "Thyroid gland undergoes glandular hyperplasia and increased vascularity during pregnancy.", "Elevated TBG levels do not affect free T3 and T4 levels.", "Total serum T4 increases sharply between 9 → 18 weeks." ]
D
Total serum T4 increases sharply between 6 → 9 weeks and reaches plateau at 18 weeks.
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A woman with IUCD develops pelvic inflammatory disease. Which of the following should be done?
[ "Keep the IUCD, give antibiotic, follow up for antibiotic response and then take decision regarding IUCD removal", "Sta antibiotics and then remove IUCD", "Remove IUCD and then sta antibiotics", "Wait till next menstrual cycle for any intervention" ]
A
PID occurs usually within 4 weeks of inseion and may be due to existing unrecognized vaginal infection, or the tail of IUCD causing ascending infection. Occurrence of PID per se is not an indication of IUCD removal as there could be other causes of occurrence of PID which is usually manageable with antibiotics. It is i...
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The microarray is used to
[ "Study multiple genes", "Study disease", "Study organism", "Study blood group" ]
A
Microarray - A type of hybridization technique which utilizes multiple oligonucleotide probes to study multiple genes within a sho period of time.(Ref: Robbins 8/e p174)
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Which aery is disected most frequently following aeriography by femoral route:
[ "Celiac trunk", "Superior mesenteric aery", "Inferior mesentric aery", "Gastroduodenal aery" ]
C
C i.e. Inferior mesentric aery Direct catheter aeriography (angiography) is percutaneous aerial catheterization based on original work of Seldinger (in Stockholm, 1953). The most useful and commonly used sites for inseion of catheter into the aerial tree are 1) femoral aery (most preferred & most common route) and 2) a...
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Growth is not modified by
[ "Growth hormone / corticotrophin", "Vasopressin", "Insulin", "Prolactin" ]
B
null
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Automated external defibrillar is used for?
[ "Atrial fibrillation", "Ventricular fibrillation", "Atrial flutter", "Supraventricular tachycardia" ]
B
An automated external defibrillator is used in cases of life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias which lead to sudden cardiac arrest, 'which is not the same as a hea attack. The rhythms that the device will treat are usually limited to:'' Pulseless Ventricular tachycardia (shoened to VT or V-Tach) Ventricular fibrillation ...
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Quellung phenomenon is seen in:
[ "Pneumococcus", "Streptococcus", "Staphylococcus", "Hemophilus" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pneumococcus (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 220, 9th/e, p. 223)* A positive reaction shows clumping because of cross-linking of the antibodies and pneumococci. The halo effect around the pneumococci is apparent capsular swelling. A negative control would show no clumping or capsular swelling.
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What is the expected mixed venous oxygen tension, in mm Hg, in a normal adult after breathing 100% oxygen for 10 minutes?
[ "150", "740", "45", "573" ]
C
Ans. (c) 45Ref: American Board of Anesthesiology American Society of Anesthesiologists, Book A 1996 q-67Breathing 100% oxygen will not change the oxygen saturation much. In arterial blood it is around 97% saturation which corresponds to a PO2 of 100 mm HgIn venous blood it is 75% saturation which corresponds to a mixed...
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Renal aery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except:
[ "Atherosclerosis", "Fibromuscular dysplasia", "Takayasu's aeritis", "Polyaeritis nodosa" ]
D
Ans. Polyaeritis nodosa
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Which is not an investigation of syphillis :
[ "VDRL", "FTA-ABS", "Weil-Felix", "TPI" ]
C
Ans is 'c' ie Weil-FelixWeil-Felix is not an inv. for Syphilis.
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Which positive test does not necessarily indicate HIV infection in a newborn ?
[ "ELISA for HIV IgG antibody", "p24 antigen", "Virus culture", "ELISA for HIV IgA antibody" ]
A
null
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Most common type of Choledochal cyst
[ "Type 1", "Type 2", "Type 3", "Type 4" ]
A
Type 1 - m/c. Type 5  - Least common.
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Microscopical appearance of cervical mucus after ovulation is:
[ "Shows pattern on drying", "Is thick", "Is thin and cellular", "Is thin and alkaline" ]
B
The fern test can determine the presence or absence of ovulation or the time of ovulation. When cervical mucus is spread on a clean, dry slide and allowed to dry in air, it may or may not assume a frondlike pattern when viewed under the microscope. The fern frond pattern indicates an estrogenic effect on the mucus with...
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The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium
[ "Streptomycin", "Penicillin", "Chloramphenicol", "Erythromycin" ]
A
DRUG INTERACTIONS Antibiotics:- Aminoglycoside antibiotics (streptomycin) reduce Ach release from prejunctional nerve endings by competing with Ca2+. They interfere with mobilization of ACh containing vesicles from a central location to near the terminal membrane, and have a weak stabilizing action on the postjunctiona...
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True about mechanical ventilation in ARDS is all except
[ "Pressure control modes are preferred over volume control", "Low tidal volumes and high respiratory rate is preferred", "Paralysis can be helpful in severe ARDS", "Inverse ratio ventilation is always considered" ]
D
VENTILATORY STRATEGIES in ARDS Low-Tidal-Volume Ventilation The cornerstone of ARDS management is a strategy of low-tidal-volume ventilation pioneered by the ARDSnet trial in 2000. This involves the following:  Tidal volume 6 ml/kg based on ideal body weight  Plateau pressure , 30 cm H2O  Permissive hypercapnoea tol...
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Kali Rani a 20-year-old girl presents with history of rapidly developing hirsutism and amenorrhea. To establish the diagnosis you would like to proceed with which of the following tests in blood:
[ "17 - OH progesterone", "DHEA", "Testosterone", "LH: FSH ratio" ]
C
“A variety of ovarian neoplasms, both benign and malignant may produce testosterone and lead to virilization. Specifically, women with an abrupt onset, typically within several months, or sudden worsening of virilizing signs should prompt concern for a hormone producing ovarian or adrenal tumor. Symptoms may include de...
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A 60-year old female presented with decreased movements for the last 2 years with rigidity and veical large square wave jerks. The most likely diagnosis is:
[ "Parkinson's disease", "Lewy body dementia", "Multisystem atroph", "Progressive supranuclear palsy" ]
D
Ans. d. Progressive supranuclear palsy The most likely diagnosis in a 60-year old female presenting with decreased movements for the last 2 years with rigidity and veical large square wave jerks is progressive supranuclear palsy. "Progressive supranuclear palsy should be considered whenever a middle aged or elderly per...
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Stain used for maturity assessment of amniotic fluid cells :
[ "Leishman's stain", "Sudan red", "Nile blue sulfate", "Congo red" ]
C
Nile blue sulfate
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Tick transmits all except -
[ "Relapsing fever", "Tick typhus", "Chagas disease", "Viral encephalitis" ]
C
Chaga's disease: It is transmitted by reduviid bugs.They are also called conenose bugs, they are of large size. Adults have wings. These bugs live exclusively on the blood of animals including man and transmit Trypanosoma cruzi, the causative agent of Chaga's disease. Ticks are ectoparasites of veebrate animals. They t...
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A patient with cushinoid features presents with hemoptysis; he shows no response to dexamethasone suppression test; most likely diagnosis here is:
[ "Adrenal hyperplasia", "Adrenal adenoma", "Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production", "Pituitary microadenoma" ]
C
Answer is C (Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production); Lack of suppression to dexamethasone challenge (ACTH producing tumor) and presence of hemoptysis (Carcinoma lung) in a patient with Cushinoid features suggests a diagnosis of Carcinoma lung with ectopic ACTH secretion. As a method of diagnostic workup of any patient w...
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Which of the following is true of molluscum contagiosum?
[ "Treatment is extirption", "Is an STD", "Virall infection", "All" ]
D
D i.e. All of the above Molluscum contagiosum is caused by poxvirus family (genus molluscipox) virusQ. Transmission may occur direct skin or mucous membrane contact (eg. touching & sexual contact) Q or fomites. Characteristic lesion is extremely small, pink, shiny pearly white or skin (flesh) colored, umblicated papule...
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Left horn of sinus venosus forms:
[ "Coronary sinus", "Smooth part of right atrium", "Superior vena cava", "Inferior vena cava" ]
A
Ans. A Coronary sinusRef: Netter's Atlas of Human Embryology: 2012 ed. pg. 96Heart tube embryonic derivativesembryonic structureGives rise to* Proximal 1/3rd of bulbus cordisPrimitive trabeculated left ventricle* Middle 1/3rd of bulbus cordisRight and left ventricular outflow tract* Distal 1/3rd of bulbus cordis (trunc...
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Somnambulism is mostly seen in which age group?
[ "Children", "Adolescents", "Adults", "All age group" ]
A
Somnambulism - Sleep walking, seen in stage 4 and 3 of NREM sleep. - It is mostly seen in children and is mostly prevalent in ages 4 to 8 years.
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A 70 yrs pt. is refusing for angiography but he has an episode of chest pain on walking upstairs not progressed for last 4 year what shall be done in this patienta) Aspirin lowdose givenb) Nitroglycerine sublingual before walking upstairsc) Continue exercise even after chest paind) Stop exercise if chest pains
[ "ab", "a", "ad", "bc" ]
A
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Second messengers, DAG and IP3 are formed from
[ "Phosphatidyl choline", "Phosphatidyl ethanolamine", "Phosphatidyl serine", "Phosphatidyl inositol" ]
D
Phosphatidylinositol Is a Precursor of Second MessengersThe G proteins activate phospholipase C, which hydrolyzes phosphatidylinositol4,5-bisphosphate to produce diacylglycerols and the water-soluble second messenger inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3).Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 54; White Blood Ce...
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Lens subluxation occurs in all except:
[ "Homocystinuria", "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome", "Congenital syphilis", "Congenital rubella" ]
D
Ans. Congenital rubella
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The triple P procedure for placenta percreta involves all except:
[ "Pelvic devascularization", "Placental localization using USG", "Peripartum hysterectomy", "Myometrial excision for placental nonseparation" ]
C
Ans. is c, i.e. Peripartum hysterectomyRef Fernando Arias 4/e, p 396Triple P procedure has been developed for placenta percreta as a conservative surgical alternative to peripartum hysterectomy. It consists of following 3 steps:1. Perioperative placental localization and delivery of fetus via transverse uterine incisio...
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A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents with quadriparesis, sphincter disturbance, sensory level up to the upper border of sternum and respiratory rate of 35/minute. The likely level of lesion is
[ "C1 - C2", "C4 - C5", "T1 - T2", "T3 - T4" ]
B
C2 dermatome: Occiput and upper pa of neck. C3 dermatome: Lower pa of neck up to the clavicle. C4 dermatone: Area just below the clavicle (Area which coincide with upper border of sternum). Motor supply of upper-limb is C5 to T1 Motor supply of diaphragm (Phrenic nerve) is C3 to C5 Thus C4 to C5 involvement will cause ...
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Cu T 200 is so called -
[ "200 sqmm of Cu2+ over loop", "200 mm of Cu over loop", "For 200 days, Cu concentration does not changes", "200 sqcm of Cu over loop" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 200 sq. mm of Cu+ over loop o The numbers included in the names of the intrauterine devices refer to the surface area (in sq. mm) of cooper on the device.
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The preferred initial treatment for carcinoma of the anal canal is
[ "Abdominoperineal resection", "Abdominoperineal resection followed by radiotherapy", "Radiotherapy alone", "Chemoradiation" ]
D
#Treatment is by chemoradiotherapy in the first instance # Associated with HPV # More prevalent in patients with HIV infection # May affect the anal verge or anal canal # Lymphatic spread is to the inguinal lymph nodes # Uncommon tumour, which is usually a squamous cell carcinoma # Major ablative surgery is required if...
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The Most convenient form of cross cylinder is a combination of -
[ "-0.5 Diopter sphere with +1 Diopter Cylinder", "+0.5 Diopter sphere with -1 Diopter Cylinder", "+0.25 Diopter sphere with -0.5 Diopter Cylinder", "-0.25 Diopter sphere with +0.5 Diopter Cylinder" ]
A
Jackson's cross cylinder test: It is used to verify the strength and axis of the cylinder prescribed. The crosscylinder is a combination of two cylinders of equal strength but with opposite sign placed with their axes at right angles to each other and mounted in a handle . The commonly used crosscylinders are of +-0.25...
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What is the percentage of immunoglobulins present in proteins
[ "5-10%", "10-15%", "15-20%", "20-25%" ]
C
Immunoglobulins constitute 20 to 25% of total serum proteins. Based on physiochemical and antigenic differences, five classes of immunoglobulins have been recognized: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE.(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p93)
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All of the following form the deep venous system of brain, EXCEPT?
[ "Internal cerebral vein", "Great cerebral vein", "Basal veins", "Cavernous sinus" ]
D
Deep venous system of the brain is composed of the internal cerebral, basal and great cerebral vein and their tributaries. This system drains the deep white and grey matter surrounding the lateral and 3rd ventricles and the basal cisterns.The deep veins are divided into a ventricular group composed of veins converging ...
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A7 year old presents with fever, weight loss. On examination he was pale and had significant lymphadenopathy. Bone marrow histology is as given below. What is the most probable diagnosis?
[ "ALL", "AML", "Aplastic anaemia", "juvenile myelomonocyticleukemia" ]
A
Ans. (a) ALL(Ref: R 9/611)The picture is that of a lymphoblast. Lymphoblasts will be 3-4x larger than a mature RBC, High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, Round Nucleus with immature chromatin (not clumped), Prominent nucleoli, Cytoplasm is scant, light blue and lacks granules
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Thermo philus sachari causes ?
[ "Bagassosis", "Siderosis", "Byssinosis", "Anthracosis" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bagassosis Bagassosiso Bagassosis is the name given to an occupational disease of the lung caused by inhalation of bagasse or sugar- cane dust.o Bagassosis has been shown to be due to a termophilic actinomycete - Thermoactinomyces sacchari.Anthracosis-Coal dustSilicosis-SilicaSiderosis-ironByssinosis-...
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The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes:
[ "Reduced RV and TLC", "Reduced FEV1/FVC.", "Reduced FEV25-75", "Increased FRC" ]
A
Answer is A (Reduced RV and TLC): Kyphoscoliosis is a restrictive lung disease. There is decrease in residual volume and total lung capacity. FEV1 and FVC are propoionately decreased. Hence the ratio of FEV1 to FVC remains normal or is increased. The forced expiratory flow rate (FEF) is normal. Functional residual capa...
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A patient with glaucoma is being treated with systemic beta blocker. All of the following can be given to the patient except
[ "Brimonidine", "Dorzolamide", "Levobunolol", "Prostaglandin" ]
C
Ans. c. Levobunolol Brimonidine, dorzolamide and prostaglandin are topical anti-glaucoma drugs. These drugs do not have systemic side effects, while levobunolol (beta-blocker) is systemic anti-glaucoma drug given orally, having systemic side effects. That is why in patients with glaucoma treated with systemic beta bloc...
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Products of complete hydrolysis of cardiolipin are:
[ "3 glycerol, 4 fatty acids , 2 phosphates", "3 glycerol, 4 fatty acids , 1 phosphates", "3 glycerol, 3 fatty acids , 2 phosphates", "5 glycerol, 4 fatty acids , 2 phosphates" ]
A
3 glycerol, 4 fatty acids , 2 phosphates Cardiolipin is a complex phospholipid, which can be antigenic. The structure is glycerol attached to two phosphatidic acids. Each phosphatidic acid contains one glycerol, 2 FA and one phosphate. So in total 3 glycerol, 4 fatty acids, 2 phosphates are present in cardiolipin.
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Most common risk factor for breech presentation is:
[ "Prematurity", "Post-maturity", "DM", "Osteomalacia" ]
A
Risk factors for Breech presentation - Prematurity (Most common Risk factor) Increased amniotic fluid volume Multifetal gestation Hydrocephaly Anencephaly Uterine anomalies Placenta pre Fundal placental implantation Pelvic tumors High parity with uterine relaxation Prior breech delivery
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All of the following are true regarding congenital dislocation of hip except-
[ "Assymetric Thigh folds may be seen", "Galleazi sign and Ortolanis test may be positive", "It may be bilateral", "Polyhydramnios is a known risk factor" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Polyhydramnios is a known risk factor Risk factors for DDH/CDHo Femaleso First bomso FamilialDDH is found in familieso Faulty intrauterine position (Breech presentation)o Hormone induced laxityo OligohydramnionClinical features of DDHo Girls are affected six times as often as boys. In one third of cas...
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Austin flint murmur is seen in cases of
[ "Aortic stenosis", "Aortic regurgitation", "Hypertrophic obstructive cardiac myopathy", "Ventricular stenosis" ]
B
The Austin Flint murmur of chronic severe AR is a low-pitched mid to late apical diastolic murmur that sometimes can be confused with MS. The Austin Flint murmur typically decreases in intensity after exposure to vasodilators, whereas the murmur of MS may be accompanied by an opening snap and also may increase in inten...
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Corn flakes is classified as which grade of glycemic index:
[ "Very low", "Low", "High", "Medium" ]
C
classification GI range Example Low GI 55 or less Most fruits and vegetables except potatoes and water melon, pasta beans, lentils Medium GI 56-69 Sucrose, brown rice, basmati rice High GI 70 or more Corn flakes, white bread, candy bar Ref: Park 22nd edition, page 568
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Which of the finding is not found in hypothyroidism?
[ "Low T3", "High triglycerides", "Low cholesterol", "High TSH" ]
C
Hypothyroidism may be an underlying cause of elevated cholesterol levels, and thyroid replacement therapy can reverse this finding. Laboratory findings in hypothyroidism may include increased skeletal muscle-associated isoenzymes like creatine phosphokinase and lactic dehydrogenase, elevated total and LDL cholesterol, ...
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A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention. His investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3 gm/dl, serum calcium 12.6 mg/dl, phosphate-2.5 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase-100 u/1, serum albumin-3 gm/dl, globulin-7.1 gm/dl and ur...
[ "Lung cancer", "Disseminated tuberculosis", "Multiple myeloma", "Osteoporosis" ]
C
The above mentioned features are consistent with the diagnosis of mutiple myeloma. So multiple myeloma is the single best answer of choice. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition Pages 657-60; Ferri's Clinical Advicer, 2009, Page 589.
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Pregnant,37 weeks of gestation has mild pains for 10 hours and cervix is persistently 1cm dilated and non-effaced. What will be the next appropriate management :
[ "Sedation and wait", "Augmentalion with oxytocin", "Cesarean section", "Amniotomy" ]
A
In primi, the latent phase is often long (about 8 hours) during which effacement occurs; the cervical dilatation averaging only 0.35 cm/hr. In multi, the latent phase is sho (about 4 hours) and effacement and dilatation occur simultaneously. Latent phase is the preparatory phase of the uterus and the cervix before the ...
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Which is enrichment media -
[ "Selenite F broth", "Chocolate media", "Meatextract media", "Egg media" ]
A
Alls, is 'a' i.e., Selenite F broth [Ref: Ananthanarayan 8F/e p. 40\TAYPES OF MEDIA1. Enriched mediao Substances such as blood, serum, or egg are added to provide nutritional support,o They are used to grow bacteria which are more exacting in their nutritional needs,o Examples - Blood agar, chocolate agar, and egg medi...
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Northern blot technique is used in the detection of
[ "Dna", "Rna", "plasmid", "Priorin" ]
B
Explanation: Southern Blotting: o Highly sensitive technique for identifying DNA fragments by DNA- DNA hybridization. o This technique has very wide applications in DNA analysis. Northern Blotting: o Used for the analysis of RNA. o Procedure is analogous to southern blotting, hence the name northern blotting. o Here th...
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Differential diagnosis of stroke include all EXCEPT
[ "Cerebral tumors", "Subdural hematoma", "Myocardial infarction", "Encephalitis" ]
C
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Right eye superotemporal quadrantopia, left eye centrocaecal scotoma with headache. Site of lesion is:
[ "Left optic nerve + chiasma", "Left optic tract + chiasma", "Right optic nerve + chiasma", "Right optic tract + chiasma" ]
A
Ans. (a) Left optic nerve + chiasmaRef: Kanski 7/e, p. 826-827This type of field defect is seen in meningiomas where the lesion is at the junction of optic nerve and the chiasma. This is called "junctional scotoma of Traquair". (VFD No. 3-Text)
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who introduced antipsychotic chlorpromazine
[ "delay and denniker", "john f cade", "maslow", "erik erikson" ]
A
History * CHARPENTEIR produced chlorpromazine * LABORIT ,surgeon used in his patients to reduce anxiety * DELAY AND DENNIKER used in psychiatric patients * It comes under the group of PHENOTHIAZINES * Reserpine, derived from rafulwia alkaloids== Indian involved here Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th...
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In Hybrid RNA-DNA, DNA is 5CTTAAG3. The sequence of RNA will be:
[ "5CTTAAG3", "5CUUAAG3", "5GAATTC3", "5GAAUUC3" ]
B
B i.e. 5CUUAAG3
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A 19 year old boy fell from the motorbike on his shoulder. The doctor diagnosed him as a case of Erb's paralysis. All of the following signs and symptoms will be observed in this boy, EXCEPT:
[ "Loss of abduction at shoulder joint", "Loss of lateral rotation", "Loss of pronation at radioulnar joint", "Loss of flexion at elbow joint." ]
C
Due to Erb's paralysis there is damage of biceps brachii and supinator due to which there is loss of pronation of forearm. It is associated with loss of abduction at shoulder joint, loss of lateral rotation and loss of flexion at elbow joint and is not associated with loss of pronation at radioulnar joint.Erb's paralys...
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A female patient aged 45 years has multiple non-carious lesions and c/o sensitivity. On examination deep cervical abrasions are seen in all posterior teeth. Intra oral sinus is evident w.r.t. 24 & 25. Gingival recession is present in mandibular anterior teeth with gingival inflammation and bleeding on probing. What is...
[ "RCT", "Apicectomy", "Apexification", "RCT followed by apical curettage" ]
A
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A 30 year old male, who met with a A, regained conscious after 36 hours. It was then discovered that the patient is unable to create new memories. The probable site of lesion for this symptom is
[ "Amygdala", "Neocoex", "Hippocampus", "Hypothalamus" ]
C
From the history, it is clear that the patient is suffering from anterograde amnesia. Therefore the site of lesion is hippocampus. Hippocampus is the primary structure within temporal lobe involved in conversion of sho-term memory to long-term memory. Hippocampal cognitive map is inappropriately reactivated during a de...
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Regarding Natural Killer Cell, all are true except?
[ "It is activated by IL-2", "CD-56 positive", "Antibody induced proliferation", "Variant of large lymphocyte" ]
C
Natural Killer Cells (or NK cells) are a type of cytotoxic lymphocyte critical to the innate immune  system. NK cells play is analogous to that of cytotoxic T cells in the vertebrate adaptive immune response.   CD 56 and CD 16 positive. Special action against viruses and tumor cells.
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Most radiosensitive brain tumor is –
[ "Astrocytoina", "Ependyinoma", "Medulloblastoma", "Craniopharyngeoma" ]
C
Of all tumors arising within the brain, except lymphoma, medulloblastoma is the most sensitive.
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A child presents with left ear hearing loss of three month duration. On examination, foul smelling purulent discharge is seen with perforation in pars flaccida. What is the most appropriate management?
[ "Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks.", "Aural toileting", "Tympano-mastoid exploration", "Type I tympanoplasty" ]
C
Foul smelling discharge and perforation in the Pars flaccida suggest CSOM of the unsafe type (Atticoantral type) This type of CSOM is often associated with a bone eroding process such as cholesteatoma, granulations or osteitis. Risk of complications is high Surgery is the mainstay of treatment. The primary aim is to re...
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A premature neonate on top feeding develop abdominal destension and bleeding per rectum. He recently recovered from acute upper respiratory tract infection. What is the probable diagnosis
[ "Necrotizing enterocolitis", "Valvulus", "Meckel's diveiculum", "Intussusception" ]
A
.Necrotising enterocoilitis occurs among premature infants under stress in first week of life. pathogenesis:mucosal injury, bacterial infections of the injured gut with E.colli,,Klebsiella,Pseudomonas ,Clostridia, Salmonella,formula feeding clinical features: stage 1:unstable temperature,apnea,lethargy,mild abdominal d...
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Chronic discharging sinus with bone paicle is seen in?
[ "Chronic osteomyelitis", "Acute osteomyelitis", "Subacute osteomyelitis", "Garre's osteomyelitis" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chronic osteomyelitis Clinical features of chronic osteomyelitis The commonest presenting symptom is a chronic discharging sinus. a history of bone piece discharge from the chronic sinus is considered diagnostic of chronic osteomyelitis. Pain is minimal or absent. Generalized symptoms of acute osteomy...
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A 13 year old female patient, complains of bleeding from gums while brushing and has a history of deviated nasal septum. Extraoral examination reveals increased anterior facial height. Intraoral findings reveals erythematous gingiva and spontaneous bleeding on probing. These features are seen in patients with
[ "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrusting", "Mouth breathing", "Bruxism" ]
C
A wide variety of local irritants can produce a hyperplastic type of gingivitis in children and young adults. The irritation to the gingival tissue produced by mouth breathing is often responsible for the development of the chronic hyperplastic form of gingivitis,  particularly in the maxillary arch. All these factors ...
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IPC 94 states that -
[ "Criminal responsibility", "Act to which a person is compelled by threats is not offence", "Act to which a person is compelled by threats is an offence", "Civil responsibility" ]
B
Sec 94 IPC states that except murder, and offences against the State punishable with death, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is compelled to do it by threats, which, at the time of doing it, reasonably cause the apprehension that instant death to that person will otherwise be the consequence: Provide...
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Direction of case control study?
[ "Direction of study is reverse but time is forward", "Direction of study is forward and time is also forward", "Direction of study is forward and time is reverse", "Direction of study is reverse and time is also reverse" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Direction of study is reverse but time is forward o In case control study i) Direction of study Reverse Time Forward o In coho study i) Direction of study --> Forward ii) Time -Forward
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Oedipus and Electra complex can be seen in which stage:
[ "Anal stage.", "Phallic stage.", "Latency stage.", "Genital stage." ]
B
Phallic stage (3-5 yrs) • Child develops attraction towards opposite sex parent. It is called as Oedipus complex in boys and electra complex in girls.
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Combination use of beta blockers and calcium channel blockers cause -
[ "Hea block", "Hypeension", "Hypotension", "All" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hea block o CCBs (verapamil, diltiazem) have negative chronotropic effect (| SA node automaticity -| hea rate) and negative dromotropic effect (1AV node conduction). o b-blockers have similar effect by blocking b1 sympathetic receptors on hea (normally stimulation of b1 receptors increases hea rate an...
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With accommodation at rest, total refractory power of crystalline lens is -
[ "14D", "16D", "18D", "20D" ]
B
The diopteric power of reduced eye is +60D, of which +44D is contributed by cornea and +16D by the crystalline lens. Reference: Optics and refraction AK Khurana 7th edition page 31
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Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder is associated with-a) Schistosomiasisb) Naphthylaminec) Smokingd) TB bladder
[ "ab", "abc", "acd", "bcd" ]
B
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What is least useful as diagnostic procedure in case of acute haemetemesis
[ "Barium meal", "Endoscopy", "Gastric content aspiration", "Angiography" ]
C
C i.e. Gastric content aspiration - Patient is already having frank haematemesis (upper GI bleed coming through mouth). So there is no diagnostic role of gastric aspiration. It may be of some value, when there is doubt of upper GI bleed. Endoscopy is the investigation of choice for upper GI bleedQ. Endoscopy is helpful...
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Recommended dietary allowance of vitamin A for adults is
[ "3500 IU for man and 2500 IU for woman", "3000 IU for man and 2000 IU for woman", "4000 IU for man and 3000 IU for woman", "4500 IU for man and 3500 IU for woman" ]
A
The RDA of vitamin A for adults is around 1000 retinol equivalents (3,500 lU) for man and 800 retinol equivalents (2,500 lU) for woman. Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-122
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Call exner bodies are identified in?
[ "Granulosa cell tumour", "Endodermal sinus cell tumour", "Ovarian fibroma", "Teratoma" ]
A
Most women with an adult granulosa cell tumor are diagnosed after age 30, with the average age being approximately 50 years. Menometrorrhagia and postmenopausal bleeding are common signs and reflect a prolonged exposure of the endometrium to estrogen. Grossly, adult granulosa cell tumors are large, multicystic, and oft...
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The commonest cause for lymphedema of upper limb is -
[ "Filariasis", "Congenital", "Neck surgery", "Post mastectomy irradiation" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Filariasis
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Buprenorphine drug is a type of
[ "Mu paial agonist", "Mu agonist", "Mu paial antagonist", "Mu antagonist" ]
A
Opioid receptor Agonist / Narcotics: used in pain management, treatment for opiate addiction Methadone - u agonist Buprenorphine- paial u agonist, weak kantagonist. Overdosage: can occur with Methadone, less likely with Buprenorphine (paial agonist) Drug Action Uses Buprenorphine* paial u agonist, weak k antagonist pai...
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Sperms become motile in:
[ "Prostate", "Seminal vesicles", "Epididymis", "Vas deferens" ]
C
C i.e. Epidydmis- Spermatogenesis & MeiosisQ occurs in seminiferous tubulesQ. Sperms are stored, matured and gain motility in epididymisQ. Capacitation of sperm occur in female genital tractQ.
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Berloque dermatitis is due to contact with which of the following?
[ "Plants", "Food", "Cosmetics", "Metal" ]
B
Berloque dermatitis (or trinketdermatitis) is a special form of phytophotodermatitis caused by exposure to perfumes. These perfumes contain a high concentration of bergapten (5-methoxypsoralens). Berloque dermatitis is rare nowadays, but may arise if an older fragrance is applied to the skin. Ref ganong's review of med...
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Retreatment Potaper system, False is
[ "Has a non cutting tip", "D1 with 0.30 mm diameter and 9% taper is used for coronal third", "D2 with 0.25 diameter and 8% taper is used upto middle third", "D3 with 0.20 diameter and 7% taper is used for apical third" ]
A
It has a cutting tip unlike routine protaper system.
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All are complication of PEEP except :-
[ "Decreased urine ouput", "Increased blood pressure", "Increased intracranial pressure", "Increased intrathoracic pressure" ]
B
Positive end expiratory pressure decreases venous return and decreases cardiac output and hence blood pressure decreases and decreased perfusion so urine output can reduce. Pulmonary barotrauma is a frequentcomplicationofPEEPtherapy. Pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, and interstitial emphysema may lead to rapid deterior...
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Orphan drugs are: March 2010, March 2013
[ "Commercially easy to obtain.", "Drugs to treat rare diseases usually", "Developed with an intention of monetary gain", "All of the above" ]
B
Ans. B: Drugs to treat rare diseases usually An orphan drug is a pharmaceutical agent/biological products that has been developed specifically to diagnose/treat/ prevent a rare medical condition (the condition itself being referred to as an orphan disease) or a more common condition which is endemic only in poor resour...
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Juvenile angiofibroma confined to nasal cavity, preferred approach for surgery -
[ "Transnasal endoscopic", "Transpalatal", "Lateral rhinotomy", "Transmaxillary" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Transnasal endoscopic Staging of juvenile nasopharyngeal aniofibroma (Modified sessions, et al)IA:Limited to nose and/or nasopharyngeal vaultIB :Extension into > 1 sinus11 A:Minimal extension into PMFII B:Full occupation of PMF with or without erosion of orbital bonesIIC:ITF with or without cheek or p...
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Complication of Wilson&;s disease include all except
[ "Fanconi syndrome", "Ataxia", "Hemolytic anemia", "Peripheral neuropathy" ]
D
Peripheral neuropathy is not a complication of Wilson&;s disease . The major complications in patients with untreated Wilson disease are those associated with acute liver failure, chronic hepatic dysfunction with either poal hypeension or hepatocellular carcinoma, and the sometimes-relentless course to cirrhosis, which...
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Smoking is most commonly associated with: March 2013
[ "Liver carcinoma", "Gall bladder", "Urinary bladder carcinoma", "Stomach carcinoma" ]
C
Ans. C i.e. Urinary bladder carcinoma Causes of bladder carcinoma Tobacco smoking is the main known contributor to urinary bladder cancer; in most populations Smoking is associated with over half of bladder cancer cases in men and one-third of cases among women. Thiy percent of bladder tumors probably result from occup...
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The adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is ?
[ "Al", "Mg", "Zn", "Formaldehyde" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Al
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