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IL-1 produces: | [
"T lymphocyte activation",
"Delayed wound healing",
"Increased pain perception",
"Decreased PMN release from bone marrow"
] | A | IL-1 in response to injury increases T lymphocyte activationIt is secreted by phagocytesAlso increases PMN release from bone marrowIts actions are:Promotes wound healingDiminishes pain perceptionIncreases body temperature(ref: Harrison's 18/e p2659, table 314-7) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anaphylaxis refers to | [
"The severe reaction following primary injection of protein solutions",
"The state of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance",
"The severe reaction resulting from sensitive to common allergens",
"The severe reaction following re-injection of protein solution in a sensitized animal"... | D | The general mechanism of immediate hypersensitivity involves a series of steps. An antigen induces the formation of IgE antibody, which binds firmly by its Fc poion to high-affinity IgE receptors on mast cells, basophils, and possibly eosinophils.Sometime later, an individual experiences a second exposure to the same antigen. This second exposure results in the cross-linking of the cell-bound IgE molecules and the release of pharmacologically active mediators.Jawetz 27e pg: 145 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs not causing hemolysis - | [
"Choloroquine",
"Primaquine",
"Nalidixic acid",
"Nitrofurantoin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Choloroquine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Of 25 persons are working on a project for 30 years. There is how many person-years of employement. | [
"75",
"750",
"120",
"1200"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 750 "10000 people working for 1 year would lead to 1000 person years of employment"* Thus, 25 persons working for 30 years will lead to 750 person-years of employment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 41-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a swollen and painful foot. Radiographic examination reveals that the head of the talus has become displaced inferiorly, thereby causing the medial longitudinal arch of the foot to fall. What would be the most likely cause in this case? | [
"Tearing of the plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament",
"Fracture of the cuboid bone",
"Interruption of the plantar aponeurosis",
"Sprain of the anterior talofibular ligament"
] | A | The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament (spring ligament) supports the head of the talus and maintains the longitudinal arch of the foot. A fracture of the cuboid bone would not disrupt the longitudinal arch of the foot. Interruption of the plantar aponeurosis is not the best answer because this aponeurosis provides only passive support, unlike the spring ligament. A sprain of the anterior talofibular ligament would result from an inversion injury of the ankle and would not disrupt the longitudinal arch of the foot. A sprain of the deltoid ligament results from eversion of the ankle joint and would not disrupt the longitudinal arch of the foot. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Roots involved in Erb's palsy are | [
"Posterior primary rami of C6- C7",
"Anterior primary rani of C5-C6",
"Posterior primary rami of C8-T1",
"Posterior primary rami of C7-C8"
] | B | Erb's point is formed by the roots of C5 and C6, anterior and posterior divisions of upper trunk, suprascapular nerve and nerve to subclavius muscle. So the nerve root involved in Erb's palsy is C5 and C6. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which organism can be isolated from stool & sputum - | [
"Paragnomus",
"Fasciola",
"Chlornchis",
"P. Carini"
] | A | PARAGONIMUS WESTERMANI Diagnosis Demonstration of the eggs in sputum or faeces provides definitive evidence. Complement fixation test is positive only during and sholy after active infection, while the intradermal test remains positive for much longer periods | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about cushing's syndrome is - | [
"Adrenomedullary hyperplasia in association wift MEN syndrome is common cause",
"Bronchial &Mediastinal carcinoid causes wishing syndrome",
"It is diagnosed by hypokalemia in association wifo increased adrenal secretion",
"It is often fatal due to its coronary and cerebrovascular accidents"
] | B | most of the cases are associated with oat cell type of bronchogenic carcinoma or with carcinoid tumor of thymus, pancreas, ovary, medullary carcinoma of thyroid, bronchial adenoma( Harrison 17 pg 2255) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The newborn has heart rate of 80 bpm and gasping respiration. What is your next step | [
"Positive pressure ventilation with room air.",
"Intubate the newborn.",
"Positive pressure ventilation with 50 % oxygen.",
"Continuous positive airway pressure with 100% oxygen."
] | A | Apnea, gasping respirations or heart rate < 100 bpm beyond 30 seconds after delivery should prompt administration of positive pressure ventilation with room air. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inferior angle of scapula is at what level of rib | [
"5th",
"6th",
"7th",
"8th"
] | C | The eighth rib is just below the inferior angle of the scapula. The lower ribs can be identified on the back by counting down from the eighth rib so at the level of inferior angle of scapula is related to 7th rib. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition ,volume 1 , pg. no., 62 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Beta–adrenoceptor blocking agent that should be avoided in patients with renal failure is: | [
"Atenolol",
"Metoprolol",
"Propranolol",
"Esmolol"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 29-year-old patient comes in; he cannot flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of the index finger. His physician determines that he has nerve damage from a supracondylar fracture. Which of the following conditions is also a symptom of this nerve damage? | [
"Inability to flex the DIP joint of the ringfinger",
"Atrophy of the hypothenar eminence",
"Loss of sensation over the distal pa of the second digit",
"Paralysis of all the thumb muscles"
] | C | Median nerve is injured in supracondylar fracture. It supplies The flexor digitorum profundus muscle flexes the DIP joints of the index and middle fingers sensation over the distal pa of the second digit. The median nerve innervates the thenar muscles. So atrophy of hypothenar muscle will not occur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following doesn't resemble panic attack? | [
"Hypoglycemia",
"GTCS",
"Myocardial infarction",
"Temporal lobe epilepsy"
] | B | Hypoglyemia, MI and even temporal lobe epilepsy can produce symptoms of anxiety. But GTCS presents with only tonic - clonic seizures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An example for a bizarre delusion: | [
"Delusion of infidelity (My wife has affair with another person)",
"Delusion of persecution (May brain is controlled by microchip)",
"Delusion of grandiosity (I am the greatest person in the world)",
"Delusion of reference (I am being prosecuted often)"
] | B | Bizarre delusions - False belief that is patently absurd or fantastic (e.g., invaders from space have implanted electrodes in a person's brain). Common in schizophrenia. Non bizarre -content is usually within the range of possibility | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thiazide diuretics do not produce ONE of the adverse effects : | [
"Hypoglycemia",
"Hyponatremia",
"Hypokalemia",
"Hyperuricemia"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common variant of Lymphoma seen in HIV E Patients is: | [
"Immunoblastic Lymphoma",
"Burkitt's Lymphoma",
"Primary CNS Lymphoma",
"Mantle Cell Lymphoma"
] | A | Answer is A (Immunoblastic Lymphoma) The most common lymphomas seen in HIV Patients are Immunoblastic Lymphomas. Majority of these are Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphomas (DLBLS). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common laser used in laryngeal surgery is | [
"Argon laser",
"Nd YAG laser",
"CO2 laser",
"KTP laser"
] | C | The LASER is an acronym for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of RadiationDepending upon the lasing medium, various types of lasers with differing wavelength can be created. The lasing medium can be solid (ruby, Nd: YAG or potassium titanyl phosphate); gas (CO2 or Helium-Neon) or liquid (pumped inorganic dye in a glass tube).CO2 laser: Wavelength 10,400 nm, invisible, requires an aiming beam of a helium-neon laser, cannot pass through flexible optical fibers and requires aiculated arm with a series of reflective mirrors to direct the beam to the target area.Clinically it has been used in laryngeal surgery to excise vocal nodules, polyps, cysts, granulomas or juvenile laryngeal papillomas.It cuts precisely and a spot size of 0.3 mm can be achieved; lesion is first delineated and then dissected with microlaryngeal instruments. Microflaps can be raised to treat Reinke's edema. It is also used for leukoplakia, T1 lesion of vocal cord or localized lesions of supraepiglottis and infraepiglottis. Transverse cordotomy and endoscopic paial or complete arytenoidectomy can also be done in bilateral abductor paralysis.CO2 does not penetrate into the deep tissue, hence there is decreased risk of scarring.Ref: Dhingra; 6th edition; Chapter 71; Page no: 357 | train | med_mcqa | null |
SSRIs are useful in treatment of: | [
"Erectile dysfunction",
"Premature ejaculation",
"Retrograde ejaculation",
"Infeility"
] | B | SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) are frequently used in premature ejaculation as they can delay the ejaculation( side effect of SSRI ). Alternatively , Clomipramine and Tramadol can also be used | train | med_mcqa | null |
The karyotype of a patient with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is – | [
"46 XX",
"46 XY",
"47 XXY",
"45 XO"
] | B | An individual with 'androgen insensitivity syndrome' are XY individuals (male karyotype) with a female phenotype. Mutation in the androgen receptor causes resistance to androgen action and the androgen insensitivity syndrome results. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Resting membrane potential in nerve fibre | [
"Is equal to the potential of ventricular muscle fibre",
"Can be measured by surface electrodes",
"Increases as extra cellular K+ increases",
"Depends upon K+ equilibrium"
] | D | D i.e. Depends on potassium ion equilibrium | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are tubal patency tests EXCEPT | [
"Tubal CO2 insufflation test",
"Laproscopy",
"Fern test",
"HSG"
] | C | Ans. c (Fern test). (Ref. Shaws, Textbook of Gynaecology, 12th/pg.l62)Tests for tubal patencyTests for ovulation1CO2 insufflation/Rubin's test (obsolete)BBT2HSGEndometrial biopsy3Laproscopic chromopertubationFern test4Sonosalpingography and standard USGFolliculometry (USG) -noninvasive, accurate, safe5HysteroscopyHormonal study (progesterone, LH and prolactin)6Transcervical falloscopy 7Ampullary and fimbria! salphingoscopy | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about incontinenta pigmenti include the following except - | [
"X-linked dominant",
"Primary skin abnormality",
"Avascularity of peripheral retina",
"Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% cases and is typically unilateral"
] | D | Incontinentia pigmenti (IP) is a rare X-linked dominant genetic disorder that affects the skin, hair, teeth, nails and central nervous system. It is named from its appearance under a microscope. The cardinal feature is the appearance of characteristic progressive skin lesions, first presenting as vesiculobullous lesions and then progressing to whorl-like pigmentary lesions over four stages. IP also includes eye abnormalities, mostly occurring in the retina. The retinal findings stem from vascular occlusion and include neovascularization, hemorrhages, absence of foveal pit, and exudative and tractional detachments. Pathologic changes in the central nervous system, teeth, and hair are also common in IP. Diagnosis is based on clinical systemic and ocular exam, as well as genetic testing. There is no treatment for the disease as a whole; however, symptoms may be managed by medical or surgical intervention. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to American hea association & world hea federation 2015 criteria, low risk is defined as having An Acute Rheumatic Fever incidence <---------- per 100,000 school aged children per year? | [
"1",
"2",
"0.1",
"0.01"
] | B | - As per AHA & world hea federation 2015 criteria: Low risk is defined as having an Acute Rheumatic Fever incidence <2 per 100,000 school aged children (5-14 yrs) /year or Prevalence of RHD of <1 per 1000 population per year . | train | med_mcqa | null |
The main function of HDL is | [
"Transport cholesterol from liver to peripheral tissues",
"Esterification with PUFA",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following joints are involved in rheumatoid ahritis, EXCEPT : | [
"PIP",
"DIP",
"MCP",
"Cervical spine"
] | B | Joint involvement is the characteristic feature of rheumatoid ahritis (RA). In general, the small joints of the hands and feet are affected in a relatively symmetric distribution. The most commonly affected joints, in order of decreasing frequency, include the metacarpophalangeal (MCP), wrist, proximal interphalangeal (PIP), knee, metatarsophalangeal (MTP), shoulder, ankle, cervical spine, hip, elbow, and temporomandibular joints. Cervical spine involvement usually affects C1-C2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A man presents with weakness, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, giddiness on fasting which is prompltly relieved with food intake. What is the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Insulinoma",
"Pancreatic ca",
"Carcinoid",
"Zollinger Ellison syndrome"
] | A | Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8'k edition. & Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th EditionExplanation:INSULINOMAfi-cell tumors (insulinomas) are the MC of pancreatic endocrine neoplasms.They may be responsible for the elaboration of sufficient insulin to induce clinically significant hypoglycemia.The characteristic triad of clinical symptomsHypoglycemia (Glucose levels < 50 mg/dL)CNS manifestations such as confusion, stupor, tremor and loss of consciousnessS ymptoms precipitated by fasting or exercise and are promptly relieved by feeding or glucose administrationClinical featuresProfound hypoglycemia during fasting or after exercise.Signs and symptoms of neuroglycopeniaAnxietyTremorConfusionObtundationSympathetic response (Hunger, Sweating, and Tachycardia)Whipple's triad refers to the clinical criteria for the diagnosis of insulinoma:- Hypoglycemic symptoms during monitored fasting.- Blood glucose levels less than 50 mg/dL. and- Relief of symptoms after administration of intravenous glucose.Factitious hypoglycemia (excess exogenous insulin administration) and postprandial reactive hypoglycemia must be excluded. (Estimation of C peptide will differentiate)In insulinoma, C peptide levels are increased but in Factitious hypoglycemia, it is decreasedMorphologyInsulinomas are most often found within the pancreas and are generally benign.Most are solitary, although multiple tumors may be encountered.Bona fide carcinomas, making up only about 10% of cases, are diagnosed on the basis of local invasion and distant metastases.On rare occasions an insulinoma may arise in ectopic pancreatic tissue.In such cases, electron microscopy reveals the distinctive granules of |3.Solitary tumors are usually small (<2 cm in diameter) and are encapsulated, pale to red- brown nodules located anywhere in the pancreas.Histologically, these benign tumors look remarkably like giant islets, with preservation of the regular cords of monotonous celts and their orientation to the vasculature.Deposition of amyloid in the extracellular tissue is a characteristic feature.ImagingDynamic CT scanning at 5-mm intervals with oral and intravenous contrast is the initial localizing test for insulinoma, with success in 35-85% of cases.Endoscopic ultrasound is also effective but is operator dependentIndium-111 (111 In)-octreotide scintigraphy is less effective (approximately 50%) for localization of insulinoma than other islet cell tumors because insulinomas typically have few somatostatin receptors.Selective arteriography with observation of a tumor "blush'- is the single best diagnostic study for the primary tumor and hepatic metastases. If a tumor is still not identified, regional localization to the head. body, or tail of the pancreas can be accomplished by portal venous sampling for insulin or by calcium angiography.Calcium angiography involves injection of calcium into selectively catheterized pancreatic arteries and measurement of plasma insulin through a catheter positioned in a hepatic vein.TreatmentIt is surgical in nearly all cases.Use of intraoperative ultrasonography greatly facilitates identification of small tumors, especially those located in the pancreatic head or uncinate process.Most insulinomas can be enucleated from surrounding pancreas, although those in the body or tail may require resection.In general, blind pancreatectomy should NOT be performed when the tumor cannot be identified. Approximately 5% of insulinomas are malignant, and 10% are multiple (usually in association with MEN type I).Medical treatment for insulinoma with diazoxide. verapamil, or octreotide has limited effectiveness but may be used in preparation for surgery or for patients unfit for surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 2-year-old male child presents with a lump in the right side of the abdomen. Ultrasound revealed it to be a solid mass. On examination, his right arm and leg were found to be longer. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Wilms' tumor",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Angiomyolipoma",
"Nephroblastoma"
] | A | The finding of right arm and leg to be longer suggests hemihyperophy. This is a feature of Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome associated with Wilms tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sub pubic angle is : | [
"<65deg",
"65deg- 75deg",
"85deg",
"110deg- 120deg"
] | C | 85deg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the best induction agent: September 2009 | [
"Ketamine",
"Diazepam",
"Nitrous oxide",
"Thiopentone"
] | D | Ans. D: Thiopentone Thiopental is an ultra-sho-acting barbiturate and has been used commonly in the induction phase of general anaesthesia Following intravenous injection the drug rapidly reaches the brain and causes unconsciousness within 15 seconds. At one minute, the drug attains a peak concentration of about 60% of the total dose in the brain. Thereafter, the drug distributes to the rest of the body and in about 15-20 minutes the concentration is low enough in the brain such that consciousness returns Thiopental is not used to maintain anaesthesia in surgical procedures because, in infusion, it displays zero-order elimination kinetics, leading to a long period before consciousness is regained. Instead, anaesthesia is usually maintained with an inhaled anesthetic (gas) agent. Inhaled anesthetics are eliminated relatively quickly, so that stopping the inhaled anesthetic will allow rapid return of consciousness. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chitin held together by | [
"a (1 - 4) glycosidic bond",
"a (1 - 6) glycosidic bonds",
"b (1 - 4) glycosidic bond",
"b (1 - 6) glycosidic bonds"
] | C | (P (1-4) gluycosidic bonds) (22-US 3rd)CHITIN - is composed of N-acetyl-D-glucosamine units held together by p (1 - 4) glycosidic-bondsStarch* Amylose - a (1-4) glycosidic linkage* Amylopectin - a (l- 6) glycosidic bonds at the branching points and a (l- 4) linkages* Amylase - acts specifically on a (1-4) glycosidic bondsGlycogen - Glucose is the repeating unit in glycogen joined together by a (1-4) glycosidic bonds and a (1-6) glycosidic bonds at branching points.Cellulose - composed of b-D-glucose units linked by b (1- 4) glycosidic bondsIn isomaltose, the glucose units are held together by a (1- 6) glycosidic linkage | train | med_mcqa | null |
Florence test is done for: March 2013 (b, e) | [
"Blood stains",
"Seminal stains",
"Stains of plant origin",
"Salivary stains"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Seminal stains | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug which reduces the size of myoma includes : | [
"GnRH agonist",
"Danazol",
"Estrogen",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is a, b and c i.e. GnRH against; Danazol; and Mifepristone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest manifestation in hepatic encephalopathy is? | [
"Asterixis",
"Alternate constriction and dilated pupil",
"Constructional apraxia",
"Psychiatric abnormalities"
] | D | Earliest manifestation in hepatic encephalopathy is Psychiatric abnormalities. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neoplastic cells with multilobulated nuclei ('clover leaf' or flower cells) are seen in which of the following? | [
"Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL)",
"Adult T-cell leukemia (ATLL)",
"Anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL)",
"Mycosis fungoides"
] | B | Adult T-Cell Leukemia/Lymphoma(ATLL): This neoplasm of CD4+ T cells is only observed in adults infected by human T-cell leukemia Virus type 1 (HTLV-1). Common findings include skin lesions, generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, peripheral blood lymphocytosis, and hypercalcemia. Tumor cells with multilobated nuclei ("cloverleaf" or "flower" cells) are seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are components of corpus cancer syndrome, EXCEPT: | [
"Multiparity",
"Diabetes",
"Hypeension",
"Obesity"
] | A | "Corpus cancer syndrome": Endometrial carcinoma in association with, Obesity Hypeension Diabetes Ref: Textbook of Gynaecology by D.C. Dutta, 4th edition, Page 329. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lipids do not stain with: | [
"Oil red O",
"Congo red",
"Sudan III",
"Sudan black"
] | B | . Congo red | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 15 year male presented with pain in inguinal area and lower abdomen presents with tenderness over a non-reducible swelling with negative cough impulse. Diagnosis: | [
"Strangulated hernia",
"Testicular torsion",
"Scrotal abscess",
"Femoral hernia"
] | A | Ans. (a) Strangulated herniaRef: Sabistan 19th ed. /1127* Strangulation occurs more often in patients who have worn a truss for a long time and in those with a partially reducible or an irreducible hernia* Indirect inguinal hernias strangulate more commonly, the direct variety not so often because of the wide neck of the sac.* MC constricting agent: Neck of the sac > External inguinal ring in children > Adhesions within the sac.* MC contents: Small intestine > OmentumClinical features of strangulated inguinal Hernia* Sudden onset inguinal pain* Generalized abdomen pain* Tense and extremely tender hernia* Discoloration of overlying skin with a reddish or bluish tinge* There is no expansile cough impulse. | train | med_mcqa | null |
At pH 7 the binding of 2,3-BPG to hemoglobin occurs at which site? | [
"Sulphydryl group",
"Carboxy terminal",
"Amino terminal",
"Histidine"
] | C | 2,3-BPG Stabilizes the T Structure of HemoglobinA low Po2 in peripheral tissues promotes the synthesis of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) in erythrocytes. The hemoglobin tetramer binds one molecule of BPG in the central cavity formed by its four subunits (Figure 6-6). However, the space between the H helices of the b chains lining the cavity is sufficiently wide to accommodate BPG only when hemoglobin is in the T state. BPG forms salt bridges with the terminal amino groups of both b chains Val NA1 and with Lys EF6 and His H21.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 6 Proteins: Myoglobin & Hemoglobin | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10 year old male patient presents to the dental clinic with an avulsed tooth. There is a history of facial trauma while playing football. Examination of the avulsed tooth gave the following features:
Crown:
Buccal surface shows 3 cusps of equal size
Occlusal surface appears rectangular with a slight distal convergence of the crown.
Root:
Exaggerated flaring of the roots
Long and slender | [
"Primary mandibular canine",
"Primary mandibular 1st molar",
"Primary mandibular 2nd molar",
"Permanent mandibular 1st molar"
] | C | Primary 1st molar: Unlike the other primary teeth, the first primary molar does not resemble any of the permanent teeth. The mesial outline of the tooth, when viewed from the buccal aspect, is almost straight from the contact area to the cervical region. The distal area of the tooth is shorter than the mesial area. The two distinct buccal cusps have no evidence of a distinct developmental groove between them; the mesial cusp is the larger of the two. There is a pronounced lingual convergence of the crown on the mesial aspect, with a rhomboid outline present on the distal aspect. The mesiolingual cusp is long and sharp at the tip; a developmental groove separates this cusp from the distolingual cusp, which is rounded and well developed. The mesial marginal ridge is well developed, to the extent that it appears as another small cusp lingually. When the tooth is viewed from the mesial aspect, there is an extreme curvature buccally at the cervical third. The crown length is greater in the mesiobuccal area than in the mesiolingual area; thus the cervical line slants upward from the buccal to the lingual surface. The longer slender roots spread considerably at the apical third, extending beyond the outline of the crown. The mesial root, when viewed from the mesial aspect, does not resemble any other primary root. The buccal and lingual outlines of the root drop straight down from the crown, being essentially parallel for more than half their length. The end of the root is flat and almost square.
Primary mandibular second molar: The mandibular second molar resembles the mandibular first permanent molar, except that the primary tooth is smaller in all its dimensions. The buccal surface is divided into three cusps that are separated by mesiobuccal and distobuccal developmental grooves. The cusps are almost equal in size. Two cusps of almost equal size are evident on the lingual surface and are divided by a short lingual groove. The primary second molar, when viewed from the occlusal surface, appears rectangular with a slight distal convergence of the crown. The mesial marginal ridge is developed to a greater extent than the distal marginal ridge.
One difference between the crown of the primary molar and that of the first permanent molar is in the distobuccal cusp; the distal cusp of the permanent molar is smaller than the other two buccal cusps. The roots of the primary second molar are long and slender, with a characteristic flare mesiodistally in the middle and apical thirds. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Auspitz sign is seen in: March 2007, September 2010 | [
"Psoriasis",
"Fungal infections",
"Vitiligo",
"Melasma"
] | A | Ans. A: Psoriasis Psoriasis involves hyperproliferation of the keratinocytes in the epidermis. Psoriasis is associated with ceain human leukocyte antigen (HLA) alleles, paicularly human leukocyte antigen Cw6 (HLA-Cw6). Clinical findings: The skin almost always is affected before the eyes. Ocular findings occur in approximately 10% of the patients. The nonocular symptoms are related to rash and psoriatic ahritis: - Psoriatic ahritis can cause stiffness, pain, throbbing, swelling, or tenderness of the joints. - The distal joints, such as the fingers, toes, wrists, knees, and ankles, are affected most often. The most common ocular symptoms are redness and tearing due to conjunctivitis or blepharitis. Corneal involvement -The most common finding is punctate keratitis. Uvea: Usually, anterior uveitis can be seen in association with psoriatic ahritis. The most common skin manifestations are scaling erythematous macules, papules, and plaques. The most common type of psoriasis is chronic stationary psoriasis (psoriasis vulgaris). This involves the scalp, extensor surfaces, genitals, umbilicus, and lumbosacral and retroauricular regions. Psoriasis inversa: It involves flexural surfaces and interiginous areas, and it is not associated with scaling. Eruptive psoriasis: It involves the upper trunk and upper extremities. Most often, it is seen in younger patients. Other forms: Psoriatic erythroderma is a generalized form. When the scales are removed, small droplets of blood appear within a few seconds; this is known as the Auspitz sign. KObner phenomenon is the appearance of psoriatic lesions in previously uninvolved areas after irritation or trauma. Biopsy of the skin lesion may reveal basal cell hyperplasia, proliferation of subepidermal vasculature, absence of normal cell maturation, and keratinization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of amoebic lung abcess | [
"Inhalation",
"Direct extension from liver",
"Hematogenous spread",
"Lymphatic spread"
] | B | Amoebic lung abscess is a result of direct spread of infection from liver to lung. The infection spreads directly through the diaphragm. The most common area of the lung involved is right lower lobe. The amoebic liver abscess ruptures and then it can involve any of the following structures. Right lung (Most commonly) Right pleural cavity Left Lung Pericardium Peritoneal cavity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fastest acting receptor/transduction mechanism is | [
"Adenylyl cyclase-cyclic AMP pathway",
"Phospholipase C-IP3:DAG pathway",
"Intrinsic ion channel operation",
"Nuclear receptor"
] | C | Ref-KDT 6/e p40 Drugs acting and ionotropic receptor are fast acting where as those acting through nuclear receptors are slowest in action | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a single spinal nerve is cut, the area of tactile loss is always greater than the area of loss of painful sensation, because | [
"Tactile information is carried by myelinated fast conduction fiber",
"Tactile receptors adapt quickly",
"Degree of overlap of fibers carrying tactile sensation is much less",
"In the primary sensory cortex tactile sensation is represented on a larger area"
] | C | Ans. (c) Degree of overlap of fiber carrying tactile sensation is much less(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.160)The degree of overlap of fibers carrying pain is much greater than tactile sensationSo, the area of tactile loss is always greater for tactile sensation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Present "General feility rates" ? | [
"84",
"118",
"128",
"138"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 84 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incremental lines of retzius are seen in | [
"Enamel",
"Dentin",
"Cementum",
"Pulp"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schiller- Duval bodies are seen in | [
"Teratoma",
"Seminoma",
"Yolk sac tumour",
"Chorio - carcinoma"
] | C | (Yolk - sac tumour) (736 - HM 5th) (692- Basic pathology 8th)YOLK-SAC-TUMOUR (synonyms - Endo dermal sinus tumurs, orchioblastoma, Infantile embryonal carcinoma)* This characteristic tumour is the most common testicular tumour of infants and young children up to the age of 4 years* AFP levels are elevated in 100% cases of yolk sac tumoursMicroscopic - The tumour cells may form distinctive perivascular structures resembling the yolk sac or endodermal sinuses of the rat placenta called Schiller - Duval bodies* There may be presence of both intracellular and extra cellular PAS positive hyaline globulesCHORIOCARCINOMA - M/E - Characteristic feature is the identification of intimately related syncytiotrophoblast and cyto trophoblast without formation of definite placental type villiTERATOMA - Honey - combed areas and foci of cartilage and boneSEMINOMA - Commonest malignant tumour of the testis and corresponds to dysgerminoma in femaleM/F. shows lobules of monomorphic seminoma cells separated by delicate fibrous stroma containing lymphocytic infiltration | train | med_mcqa | null |
TRUE about mycoplasma are all, EXCEPT: | [
"They are L forms",
"Sterol enhances growth",
"Can grow in cell free media",
"When grown in liquid medium do not produces turbidity"
] | A | The organisms have diameters of about 0.2 to 0.3 mm, but they are highly plastic and pleomorphic and may appear as coccoid bodies, filaments, and large multinucleoid forms. They do not have a cell wall and are bounded only by a single triple-layered membrane, which, unlike bacteria, contains sterols. The sterols are not synthesized by the organism, but are acquired as essential components from the medium or tissue in which the organism is growing. Lacking a cell wall, Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma stain poorly or not at all with the usual bacterial stains. Hemadsorption is a feature of M pneumoniae. Because of their small size mycoplasma usually do not produce turbidity in liquid media. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 38. Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aldosterone action is on : | [
"Proximal tubule",
"Distal tubules",
"Loop of Henle",
"Collecting duct"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common finding in children with severe viral enteritis: | [
"Isotonic dehydration with Acidosis",
"Isotonic dehydration with Alkalosis",
"Hypotonic dehydration with Acidosis",
"Hypotonic dehydration with Alkalosis"
] | A | Isotonic dehydration with acidosis is the most common finding in children with severe viral enteritis. In Diarrhoea- loss of bicarbonate in stools- causes normal anion gap metabolic acidosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regeneration of nerve fibers is seen in | [
"CNS",
"PNS",
"Both",
"None"
] | B | Both Central nerves and peripheral nerves undergo degeneration But regeneration is seen only in pheripheral nerves Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:74,75,76 | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to which section, a person can be punished for murder with imprisonment for 10 years | [
"Sec 301 IPC",
"Sec 300 IPC",
"Sec 302 IPC",
"Sec 304 IPC"
] | D | Sec. 302 IPC states that whoever commits murder shall be punished with death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. Sec. 300 IPC deals with definition of murder. Sec. 304 IPC deals with punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder as imprisonment for life or upto 10 years and also fine. Sec 301 IPC states that culpable homicide by causing death of person other than person whose death was intended. D Ref:. K.S Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 134, 135. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incubation period of mumps? | [
"7-14 days",
"14-24 days",
"20-3 days",
"30-40 days"
] | B | Ans- B 14-24 days Incubation Period. Time it takes to start having symptoms after contact with infection. Contagious Period. Time during which a sick child's disease can spread to others. Sometimes, children can return to school before this period is over. Infections that cannot be spread to others. Many common bacterial infections are not spread to others. Examples are ear, sinus, bladder, or kidney infections. Pneumonia also cannot be passed to others. Sexually transmitted diseases are usually not spread to children. But, they can be spread if there is sexual contact or shared bathing. Infection Exposure Table DISEASE INCUBATION PERIOD (DAYS) CONTAGIOUS PERIOD (DAYS) Skin Infections/Rashes: Chickenpox 10-21 2 days before rash until all sores have crusts (6 - 7days) Fifth disease (Erythema infectiosum) 4-14 7 days before rash until rash begins Hand, foot, and mouth disease 3-6 Onset of mouth ulcers until fever gone Impetigo (strep or staph) 2-5 Onset of sores until 24 hours on antibiotic Lice 7 Onset of itch until 1 treatment Measles 8-12 4 days before rash until 4 days after rash appears Roseola 9-10 Onset of fever until rash gone (2 days) Rubella (German measles) 14-21 7 days before rash until 5 days after rash appears Scabies 30-45 Onset of rash until 1 treatment Scarlet fever 3-6 Onset of fever or rash until 24 hours on antibiotic Shingles (contagious for chicken pox) 14-16 Onset of rash until all sores have crusts (7 days) (Note: No need to isolate if sores can be kept covered.) Warts 30-180 Minimally contagious Respiratory Infections: Bronchiolitis 4-6 Onset of cough until 7 days Colds 2-5 Onset of runny nose until fever gone Cold sores (herpes) 2-12 Footnote 1 Coughs (viral) or croup (viral) 2-5 Onset of cough until fever gone Diphtheria 2-5 Onset of sore throat until 4 days on antibiotic Influenza 1-2 Onset of symptoms until fever gone Sore throat, strep 2-5 Onset of sore throat until 24 hours on antibiotic Sore throat, viral 2-5 Onset of sore throat until fever gone Tuberculosis 6-24 months Until 2 weeks on drugs (Note: Most childhood TB is not contagious.) Whooping cough 7-10 Onset of runny nose until 5 days on antibiotic Intestinal Infections: Diarrhea, bacterial 1-5 Footnote 2 for Diarrhea Precautions Diarrhea, giardia 7-28 Footnote 2 for Diarrhea Precautions Diarrhea, traveler's 1-6 Footnote 2 for Diarrhea Precautions Diarrhea, viral (Rotavirus) 1-3 Footnote 2 for Diarrhea Precautions Hepatitis A 14-50 2 weeks before jaundice begins until jaundice resolved (7 days) Pinworms 21-28 Minimally contagious, staying home is unnecessary Vomiting, viral 2-5 Until vomiting stops Other Infections: Infectious mononucleosis 30-50 Onset of fever until fever gone (7 days) Meningitis, bacterial 2-10 7 days before symptoms until 24 hours on IV antibiotics in hospital Meningitis, viral 3-6 Onset of symptoms and for 1-2 weeks Mumps 12-25 5 days before swelling until swelling gone (7 days) Pinkeye without pus (viral) 1-5 Mild infection, staying home is unnecessary Pinkeye with pus (bacterial) 2-7 Onset of pus until 1 day on antibiotic eyedrops Notes Cold sores: Less than 6 years old, contagious until cold sores are dry (4-5 days). No isolation if sores are on part of body that can be covered. More than 6 years old, no isolation necessary if beyond touching, picking stage. Diarrhea Precautions: Contagious until stools are formed. Stay home until fever is gone, diarrhea is mild, blood and mucus are gone, and toilet-trained child has control over loose stools. Shigella and E-coli 0157 require extra precautions. Consult your child care provider regarding attendance restrictions. Author: Barton D. Schmitt, M.D., FAAP | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mallory hyaline is seen in - | [
"Alcoholic liver disease",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma",
"Wilson's disease",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alcoholic liver disease; 'b' i.e., Hepatocellular carcinoma; 'c' i.e., Wilson's disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a feature of triple deformity of the knee joint? | [
"Posterior subluxation of tibia",
"internal rotation of tibia",
"Medial angulation of tibia",
"Recurvatum"
] | A | Triple deformity of knee refers to:-Flexion of kneeExternal rotation of the tibiaPosterior subluxation of the tibiaThe triple deformity is seen in RA, TB of knee and Polio(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 528) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mother of a child is worried about green stains on the recently erupted upper anterior teeth of her child. The stains are most probably due to: | [
"Chromogenic bacteria",
"Neonatal line",
"Calculus",
"Material alba"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following clinical conditions, use of anticoagulants provide maximum benefit | [
"Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction",
"Prevention of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism",
"Cerebrovascular accident",
"Retinal artery thrombosis"
] | B | Anticoagulants are mainly used for prophylaxis of venous thrombosis (DVT and pulmonary embolism).
Antiplatelet drugs are used to prevent arterial thrombosis (MI and stroke). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Palatine tonsil develops from which pharyngeal pouch - | [
"First",
"Second",
"Third",
"Fourth"
] | B | Ans 'b' i.e., Second o At first there are 6 pharyngeal arches. The fifth arch disappears and only 5 remain,o Each arch has:An ectodermal cleftA mesodermal elementAn endodermal pouchArchEctodermal cleftEndodermal pouchIEpithelium of external auditory meatus Ear drumPinnaVentral - tongueDorsal - tubotympanic recess -- proximal part forms the auditory tube and the distal part forms the middle ear cavity1 and tympanic antrumIIIIIIV2nd arch grows over and covers the 2nd, 3rd and 4th cleftsPalatine tonsilThymusInferior parathyroidsThyroid glandSuperior parathyridsMesodermal derivatives of the pharyngeal archesArchSkeletal elementMuscle archNerv e of archIMaxilla, zygomatic bone, pan of temporal and vomer, sphenoid, mandibleMeckel's cartilageMalleus, incusMvlohyoid.Mastication muscles,Anterior belly of digastricsTensor veli palatineTensor tympaniMandibular division of tri germinalIIReichert's cartilage,stapesStyloid processStylohyoid ligamentSmaller cornu of hyoidSuperior part of body of hyoid (All'S')StapediusStylohyoidPosterior belly of digastricFacial expression musclesFacialIII.Greater cornu of hyoidLower part of body of hyoidStylopharyngeusGlossopharyngealIVCartilage of larynx except arytenoidsPharyngeal musclesCricothyroidSuperior laryngeal branch of vagusVArytenoid cartilages of larynxIntrinsic muscles of larynxRecurrent leryngeal nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parkinosn's disease results from a lesion in the | [
"Striatum",
"Pituitary",
"Thalamus",
"Hypothalamus"
] | A | (A) Striatum Chorea is characterized by rapid, involuntary dancing movements.> Athetosis: Continuous, slow, writhing movements is due to globus pallidus lesion> Hemiballismus: A lesion in subthalamus often leads to sudden flailing movements of an entire limb, a condition called hemiballismus.> Parkinson's disease: Lesions of the substantia nigra leads to the Parkinsonism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by - (PGI 99) | [
"Ketamine",
"Etomidate",
"Propofol",
"Thiopentone"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ketamine Dissociative anaesthesia is characterized by profound analgesia, immobility, amnesia with light sleep and feeling of dissociation from once own body and the surroundings Cataleptic state. Ketamine (phencyclidine) induces dissociative anaesthesia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sister Joseph's nodule may indicated cancer of all the following except: | [
"Stomach",
"Large bowel",
"Rectum",
"Ovary"
] | C | Sister Mary Joseph nodule Gastrointestinal malignancies gynecological malignancies Gastric cancer (MC) Colonic cancer Pancreatic cancer (mostly body and tail) Ovarian cancer Uterine cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cat acts as a definitive host and reservoir in: | [
"Plague",
"Rabies",
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Listerosis"
] | C | Toxoplasmosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fracture lateral condyle of the humerus is a common injury in children. Which one of the following is the most ideal treatment for a displaced fracture lateral condyle of the humerus in a 7-year-old child? | [
"Open reduction and plaster immobilization",
"Closed reduction and plaster immobilization",
"Open reduction and internal fixation",
"All"
] | C | C i.e. Open reduction & internal fixation Treatment of Fracture Lateral Condyle Humerus Fracture lateral condyle humerus mostly occur in children and adolescents. It's management depends on the amount of fracture displacement. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is/are arboviral diseases ? | [
"Japanese encephalitis",
"Dengue",
"Yellow fever",
"All"
] | D | Ans is 'a' i.e., Japanese encephalitis; 'b' i.e., Dengue & 'c' i.e., Yellow fever | train | med_mcqa | null |
The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is - | [
"An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin",
"Replacement of glutamate by valine in b-chain of HbA",
"A nonsence mutation in the b-chain of HbA",
"Substitution of valine by glutamate in the a-chain of HbA"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Replacement of glutamate by valine in b chain of HBA Sickle cell anemiao Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary hemoglobinopathy, i.e., the type of disease characterized by production of defective hemoglobin.o Sickle cell anemia results from mutation in b-globin gene.o It is caused by a point mutation at the sixth position of the b-globin chain leading to subsitution of a valine residue for a glutamic acid residue resulting in sickle hemoglobin (HbS).o Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disorder.o If an individual is homozygous for the sickle cell mutation, almost all the hemoglobin in the red cell is HbS.o In heterozyogotes, only about 40% of the hemoglobin is HbS, the remainder being normal hemoglobins.Effect of HbS on RBCso In deoxygenated condition, the HbS molecules undergo polymerization and aggregation,o With continued deoxygenation, aggregated HbS molecules assemble into long needle-like fibers writhin red cells, producing a distorted sickle or holly-leaf shape.o Sickling of red cells is reversible initialy, i.e., with oxygenation, HbS depolymerizes and cell shape normalizes,o Howrever, with repeated episodes of deoxygenation and sickling, membrane damage occurs and cells become irreversibly sickled, and retain their abnormal shape even when full oxygenated,o With membrane damage water comes out of the cell resulting in intracellular dehydration -| MCHC.o Due to membrane damage, sickle red cells become abnormally sticky - responsible for microvascular occlusions.Remembero Irreversible sickle cells are responsible for hemolytic anemia.o Reversible sickle cells are responsible for vasoocclusive symptoms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 22-year-old male is thrown through a plate glass wall in a fight. Radiologic examination reveals that the lateral border of his right scapula is shattered. He is admitted to the emergency department, and physical examination reveals difficulty laterally rotating his arm. Which of the following muscles is most probably injured? | [
"Teres major",
"Infraspinatus",
"Latissimus dorsi",
"Trapezius"
] | B | Infraspinatus is responsible for lateral rotation (along with the teres minor, not a choice here). Teres major is responsible for adduction and medial rotation of the humerus. Latissimus dorsi is responsible for adduction, extension, and medial rotation of the humerus. Trapezius is an elevator of the scapula and rotates the scapula during abduction of the humerus above the horizontal plane. Supraspinatus is responsible for the 0deg to 15deg of abduction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which laser is used for Posterior capsular cataract | [
"Krypton",
"ND-YAG",
"Argon",
"Diode laser"
] | B | Ans. (b) ND-YAGRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /187-89* ND-YAG (Neodymium- Yttrium-Aluminium-Garnet) laser is used for posterior capsulotomy in after cataract.* Diode, Argon and Krypton laser is used for retinal photocoagulation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thiopentone is used for induction anaesthesia, because it is – | [
"Smooth induction",
"Rapidly redistributed",
"Rapid redistribution",
"easy to monitor"
] | A | All inducing agents have smooth and fast induction. Therefore they are used as inducing agents.
Rapid redistribution is responsible for very short duration of action (rapid recovery), not for induction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The catabolite repression is mediated by a catabolite gene activator protein (CAP) in conjunction with: | [
"AMP",
"GMP",
"c-AMP",
"C-GMP"
] | C | Ans. C. c-AMPAttachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter site requires the presence of a CAP bound to C-AMP. The presence of glucose lowers the intracellular concentration of c-AMP by inactivating the enzyme adenylate cyclase responsible for the synthesis of c-AMP. Therefore, the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA (due to the absence of CAP-c-AMP) and the transcription are negligible in the presence of glucose. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following cause panuveitis except ? | [
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Sympathetic ophthalmitis"
] | A | Panuveitis. It is inflammation of all pas of the uveal tract - i.e. iris, ciliary body and choroid, manifestations of which can be seen in both the anterior (anterior chamber + posterior chamber) and posterior (vitreous cavity) segment of the eye. Cause of Panuveitis Sarcodiosis Tuberculosis Syphils Onchocerciasis Leptospirosis Brucelliosis Sympthetic Opthalmia Bechets's diseas Multiple Sclerosis Cysticercosis Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada Syndrome Retinal itraneuclear foreign body Masquerade syndrome:retinoblastoma , leukemia Ankylosing spondylitis causes anterior uveitis.(Seronegative ahropathy) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma of nose is - | [
"Carcinoma",
"Sarcoma",
"Carcinosarcoma",
"Hamartoma"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sarcomao Soft tissue sarcoma arise from mesenchyme, like muscles (myoma), endotha/ialcells (endothelioma) and cartilage (chondroma)o Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma (EHE) is a soft tissue sarcoma.o It arises from distinct type of endothelial cells which exhibit epitheloid morphology. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of pyramidal tract lesion, Except - | [
"Involuntary movement",
"Positive Babinski's sign",
"Spasticity",
"Increased deep tendon reflexes"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a test for integrity of 9th and 10th nerve - | [
"Position of uvula",
"Palate symmetry",
"Taste",
"Tongue Protusion"
] | D | Answer- D. Tongue ProtusionProtusion of the tongue is used for the assessment of the twelth cranial nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 74-year-old woman has a 10-year history of intermittent lower abdominal pain. The pain has been colicky in nature and is associated with a feeling of distension in the left iliac fossa. It is generally relieved by-passing flatus or faeces. She tends to be constipated and passes small pieces of faeces. On examination, vague impression of a mass was felt in the left iliac fossa with no guarding or rebound tenderness and the bowel sounds were normal. She had a barium enema performed. An intestinal biopsy was also performed. Colonoscopy ruled any colonic neoplasm. Which of the following procedures can be used in the above condition: - | [
"Hamann's procedure",
"Washout with proximal diversion",
"Percutaneous drainage followed by colonic resection",
"All of the above"
] | D | This is a case of colonic diveiculosis. Barium-filled out-pouching's are seen in both single and double contrast study, there are no signs of colonic masses or luminal narrowing and no abnormal mucosal thickening could be seen. HPE image shows inflamed diveiculum with the diveicular wall made up only of mucosa. They are very common in the elderly Western population probably due to a deficiency in dietary fibre. Symptomatic diveicular disease has many of the features of irritable bowel syndrome. Inflammation in a diveiculum is termed diveiculitis. In severe cases, perforation, paracolic abscess formation or septicaemia may develop. Other potential complications include bowel obstruction. Formation of a fistula into rectum or vagina, and haemorrhage. Procedures approved are: - A. Hamann's procedure B. Washout with proximal diversion C. Percutaneous drainage followed by colonic resection | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug is used for pain control in cancer patients ? | [
"Pethidine",
"Fentanyl",
"Methadone",
"Remifentanil"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chandler's index is associated with which of the following infestation? | [
"Hook worm",
"Round worm",
"Pin worm",
"Whip worm"
] | A | Chandler's index is used in the epidemiological studies of hook worm. It refers to the average number of hook worm eggs per gram of feaces. Chandler's index less than 200 is not significant, value between 200 - 250 indicates potential danger, value between 250 - 300 indicates a minor health problem and value greater than 300 indicates a major health problem. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Main risk in fracture Scaphoid is: | [
"Non union",
"Malunion",
"Delayed union",
"Avascular necrosis"
] | D | D i.e. Avascular necrosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gene involved in medullary carcinoma thyroid is | [
"Ret Proto Oncogene",
"Fap gene",
"Rb gene",
"BRCA 1 gene"
] | A | The RET proto-oncogene encodes a receptor tyrosine kinase for members of the glial cell line-derived neurotrophic factor (GDNF) family of extracellular signalling molecules.RET loss of function mutations are associated with the development of Hirschsprung's disease, while gain of function mutations are associated with the development of various types of human cancer, including medullary thyroid carcinoma, multiple endocrine neoplasiastype 2A and 2B, pheochromocytoma and parathyroid hyperplasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oligospermia is a side effect of which of the following drug: | [
"Methotrexate",
"D-Penicillamine",
"Lefluonamide",
"Hydroxychloroquine"
] | A | Methotrexate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antivitamin of biotin- | [
"Vitamin B6",
"Vitamin K",
"Avidin",
"None"
] | C | Ans. (c) AvidinKD Tripathi 6th Ed. / 876BIOTIN* Biotin is a sulfur containing organic acid found in egg yolk, liver, nuts and many other articles of food.* It is well absorbed from intestine and excreted mainly unchanged in urine.* Avidin, a heat labile protein in egg white, binds and prevents the absorption of biotin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Guinea worm infestation is common in workers of: | [
"Step wells",
"Ponds",
"Fields",
"Cotton mills"
] | A | Dracunculiasis or guinea worm disease is caused by the nematode Dracunculus medinensis, or Guinea worm. Infection occurs after swallowing water containing the infected intermediate host, the crustacean Cyclops (known as copepods or water fleas). The habit of washing and bathing in surface water and using step-wells is impoant for infestation. Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th edition, Page 205. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of seronegative spondyloarthropathies except - | [
"Uveitis",
"RA factor positive",
"HLA-B27 positive",
"Occur in young age"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., RA factor positive Seronegative spondyloarthropathies o The seronegative spondyloarthropathies are a group of disorders that share certain clinical features and genetic associations. The word seronegative refers to the absence of rheumatoid factor in this group of disorders. The seronegative spondyloarthropathies include - Ankylosing spondylitis Reactive arthritis - Reiter syndrome and enteritis associated arthritis Psoriatic arthritis Arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease, i.e. enteropathic arthritis Features of seronegative spondyloarthropathies o Onset usually before 40 years o The absence of RA factor o HLA - B2 7 positive o Presence of uveitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following bones are pneumatic except: | [
"Maxilla",
"Frontal",
"Mandible",
"Ethmoid"
] | C | Ans. C. MandiblePneumatic bones are those bones which contain an air filled cavity within them. In humans, they are seen in relation to the nasal cavity - they enclose the paranasal sinuses. Pneumatic bones are - maxilla, frontal bone, sphenoid and ethmoid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Excess of avidin causes deficiency of: | [
"Folate",
"Choline",
"Vitamin B12",
"Biotin"
] | D | Excess consumption of raw eggs, which contains a protein 'avidin' - a biotin binding protein leads to biotin deficiency When cooked, avidin is paially denatured and its binding to biotin is reduced. So cooked egg whites are safe to consume. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left ureter is related to -a) Quadratus lumborumb) Left gonadal vesselsc) Superior mesenteric veind) Sigmoid mesocolone) Internal iliac artery | [
"abc",
"bde",
"ace",
"bce"
] | B | Left gonadal artery and sigmoid mesocolon are related to the anterior surface of the abdominal part of the left ureter.
Internal iliac artery is related to the posterior surface of pelvic part of the ureter.
Inferior mesenteric artery (not a superior mesenteric artery) is related to left ureter medially. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions -
Disease Test ResultPresent Absent +ve40 225 -ve 10 225 The sensitivity of this study is - | [
"40",
"20",
"80",
"50"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Multiple sclerosis, Where does the defect occur? | [
"Oligodendrocytes",
"Myelin sheath",
"Node of Ranvier",
"Neuroglial cells"
] | B | Multiple sclerosis Autoimmune condition Attacks the myelin sheath in the brain and spinal cord. Layer that surrounds the nerves, protect them and help electrical signals travel from the brain to the rest of the body. Autoimmune attacks cause the myelin sheath to become inflamed in a small patches (plaques or lesions), which can be seen on an MRI Scan. These patches of inflammation can disrupt the messages travelling along the nerves. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Odontogenic infections are mostly caused by | [
"MIXED bacteria",
"Anaerobic bacteria",
"Aerobic bacteria",
"Streptococci"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which substance is/are not deposited in hepatocyte? | [
"Lipofuschin",
"Melanin like pigment",
"Bile pigment",
"Melanin"
] | C | Bile pigment deposition at sweat pores of patients with liver disease REFERANCE. jaad .org | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following muscles retract the scapula, EXCEPT: | [
"Trapezius",
"Rhomboid major",
"Rhomboid minor",
"Levator scapulae"
] | D | Rhomboids major, rhomboids minor along with middle fibers of trapezius retract the scapula. Levator scapula and rhomboids muscle stabilize the scapula during shoulder movements and transmits the body weight to the veebral column especially during lifting of heavy weight. Levator scapulae along with upper fibers of trapezius elevates the scapula. Levator scapula, rhomboids and trapezius help in reverse or medial rotation of scapula. Innervation: Trapezius: Spinal pa of accessory nerve gives motor supply and the C3 and C4 ventral rami are proprioceptive. Levator scapulae, rhomboids major and minor: They recieve branches from the dorsal scapular nerve. Additionally the levator scapulae recieve twigs from C3 and C4 ventral rami in the posterior triangle of neck. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soft tissue curettage is indicated in: | [
"Periodontal pockets",
"Edematous gingival pockets",
"Fibrous gingival pockets",
"Supragingival calculus deposits"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A neonate was found to have cataract, deafness and cardiac defects. Which group of viruses does the mother was infected with | [
"Flaviviridae",
"Togaviridae",
"Bunyaviridae",
"Arenaviridae"
] | B | Rubella:- * Congenital Rubella syndrome leads to cardiac defects, cataract and deafness; (Classical triad). Other manifestations are hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytop-enic purpura, myocarditis and bone lesions. * Rubella belongs to Togaviridae Ref:- Jawetz TB of medical microbiology 27th edition; pg num:- 597 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for iridocyclitis is: | [
"Atropine",
"Streoid",
"Pilocarpine",
"Timolol"
] | A | Atropine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lytic lesion in the skull is seen in following except – | [
"Multiple myeloma",
"Metastasis bronchus",
"Thalassemia",
"Ca prostate"
] | D | Carcinoma prostate produces osteoblastic metastasis (not osteolytic). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nipple retraction in Ca breast due to infiltration of | [
"Suspensory ligaments",
"Lactiferous ducts",
"Lymphatics",
"Pectoralis fascia"
] | B | Answer- B. Lactiferous ductsIt is seen in breast carcinoma due to infltration of the lactiferous ducts by carcinoma.It is due to extention of the growth along the lactiferous ducts and subsequent fibrosis.Nipple retraction is circumferential in carcinoma and slit like in periductal mastitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Usually associated with parvovirus B19 infection in those with hereditary spherocytosis | [
"Mild to moderate splenomegaly",
"Aplastic crisis",
"Gallstones",
"Hemolytic crisis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Aplastic crisis Parvovirus B19 selectively infects erythroid precursors and is the most common aetiological agent that induces aplastic crisis in patients with hereditary spherocytosis (and other Hemolytic disorders). Transient aplastic crisis Persons with decreased erythrocytes caused by conditions such as iron deficiency anemia, human immunodeficiency virus sickle cell disease, spherocytosis or thalassemia are at risk of transient aplastic crisis if infected with parvovirus B19. The virus causes a cessation of erythrocyte production. Parvovirus infection may be the first manifestation in HS. It begins with reticulocytosis and thrombocytosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following regulators would MOST likely inhibit the lower esophageal sphincter in normal individuals? | [
"Acetylcholine and substance P",
"Substance P and nitric oxide",
"Substance P only",
"Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide and nitric oxide"
] | D | Physiologically impoant inhibitors of the lower esophageal sphincter include nitric oxide and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide. Physiologically impoant substances that stimulate the lower esophageal sphincter include acetylcholine and substance P. Also Know: VIP contains 28 amino acid residues. It is found in nerves in the gastrointestinal tract and thus is not itself a hormone, despite its similarities to secretin. VIP is, however, found in blood, in which it has a half-life of about 2 min. GIP contains 42 amino acid residues and is produced by K cells in the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum. Its secretion is stimulated by glucose and fat in the duodenum, and because in large doses it inhibits gastric secretion and motility, it was named gastric inhibitory peptide. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 25. Overview of Gastrointestinal Function & Regulation. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The antagonistic muscle to superior rectus is: | [
"Inferior oblique",
"Inferior rectus",
"Superior oblique",
"Lateral rectus"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frey's syndrome (gustatory sweating) is due to lesion of | [
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Chorda tympani nerve",
"Trigeminal nerve",
"Auriculo-temporal nerve"
] | D | Auriculotemporal nerve carries parasympathetic secreto-motor fibres to parotid gland. After parotidectomy, sometimes there may be regeneration of secretomotor fibres in Auriculotemporal N This regeneration is misdirected into sweat glands. Thus, whenever the patient thinks of food/smells /chews food there would be stimulation of sweat glands & hyperaemia resulting in redness & sweating in front of ear on cheek. This clinical entity is called 'FREY SYNDROME'/AURICULOTEMPORAL SYNDROME/GUSTATORY SWEATING. Image showing Starch-iodine test: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following doesn't cause contracted kidney? | [
"Diabetic nephropathy",
"Chronic glomerulo nephritis",
"Chronic pyelonephritis",
"Benign"
] | A | Except diabetic nephtopathy the rest of the following almost always cause shrunken kidneys. Three major histologic changes occur in the glomeruli of persons with diabetic nephropathy. First, mesangial expansion is directly induced by hyperglycemia, perhaps increased matrix production or glycosylation of matrix proteins. Second, thickening of the glomerular basement membrane (GBM) occurs. Third, glomerular sclerosis is caused by intraglomerular hypeension (induced by dilatation of the afferent renal aery or from ischemic injury induced by hyaline narrowing of the vessels supplying the glomeruli). The key change in diabetic glomerulopathy is augmentation of extracellular matrix. The glomeruli and kidneys are typically normal or increased in size initially, thus distinguishing diabetic nephropathy from most other forms of chronic renal insufficiency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following sinuses is the first one to develop | [
"Frontal",
"Maxillary",
"Sphenoid",
"Ethmoid"
] | B | Maxillary sinus is first to develop. It appears as a shallow groove on the medial surface of maxilla during fourth month of intrauterine life, grows rapidly during six to seven years, and reaches full the eruption after all permanent teeth erupts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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