question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1
value | dataset stringclasses 6
values | subject stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Which of these is not a basic principle of radiation protection ? | [
"Justification",
"Collimation",
"Limitation",
"Optimization"
] | B | In addition to the three basic principles of radiation protection (justification, limitation, and optimization), one can apply the following additional techniques to reduce the radiation burden to the patient:
Collimation of the x-ray beam.
Correct focus-to-skin distance.
Lead apron with thyroid collar.
More radiation-sensitive image receptors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which anti-glaucoma drug causes black deposits in conjunctiva? | [
"Alpha blocker",
"PG analogue",
"Adrenaline",
"CA inhibitor"
] | C | Adrenochrome deposits occur due to alpha agonists on conjunctiva. PG analogues cause hyperpigmentation. Adrenaline/Epinephrine causes black deposits in conjunctiva. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 12 year old girl was brought with fever, malaise, and migrating polyahritis. She had a history of recurrent throat infections in the past. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate is noted. Which among the following is NOT a major Jones criteria for diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever? | [
"Pancarditis",
"Chorea",
"Ahritis",
"Raised ESR"
] | D | Revised Jones Criteria for Diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever: Major criteria: Pericarditis, myocarditis, or endocarditis Chorea Subcutaneous nodules Erythema marginatum Polyahritis Minor criteria: Fever Ahralgias Laboratory findings: elevated sedimentation rate, evidence of preceding streptococcal infection (increased titer of antistreptolysn O), increased C-reactive protein History of rheumatic fever or rheumatic hea disease; increased PR interval on ECG The presence of two major or one major and two minor criteria with suppoing evidence of recent infection with group A streptococcus indicates a high probability of rheumatic fever. Ref: Woods R.P., Seamon J. (2011). Chapter 21. Ahritis & Back Pain. In R.L. Humphries, C. Stone (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment Emergency Medicine, 7e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common causative agent of UTI in females - | [
"Staph saprophyticus",
"E.coli",
"Klebsiella",
"Proteus"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., E. coli o E. coli causes 80-90% of acute uncomplicated bacterial lower tract infections (cystitis) in young women. | train | med_mcqa | null |
L1 L2 L3 serovar of chlamydia trachomatis cause ? | [
"Trachoma",
"Inclusion conjuctivitis",
"NGU",
"LGV"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., LGV | train | med_mcqa | null |
Classification of shigella is on the basis of fermentation of | [
"Lactose",
"Sucrose",
"Mannitol",
"Glucose"
] | C | Classification of shigella is done on the basis of fermentation of mannitol Exceptiom-Non mannitol fermenter i.e Shigella dysenteriae which is also catalase negative. The most common cause of bacillary dysentery in India is Shigella flexneri and in world is Shigella sonnei which is late lactose fermenter. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with cancer received extreme degree of radiation toxicity. Further history revealed that the dose adjustment of a particular drug was missed during the course of radiotherapy. Which of the following drugs required a dose adjustment in that patient during radiotherapy in order to prevent radiation toxicity – | [
"Vincristine",
"Dactinomycin",
"Cyclophosphamide",
"6 – Mercaptopurine"
] | B | Actinomycin - D (Dactinomycin) is well is well known radiosensitizer. So its dose should be reduced during radiotherapy to prevent radiation toxicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following features are seen in dengue hemorrhagic fever except: September 2010 | [
"Positive tourniquet test",
"Platelet counts less than 1 lac",
"Falling hematocrit value",
"Acute onset of high fever"
] | C | Ans. C: Falling hematocrit value The diagnosis of dengue is usually made clinically. The classic picture is high fever with no localising source of infection, a rash with thrombocytopenia and relative leukopenia- low paltelet and WBC count. Dengue infection can affect many organs and thus may present unusually as liver dysfunction, renal impairment, meningoencephalitis or gastroenteritis. Fever, headaches, eye pain, severe dizziness and loss of appetite. Hemorrhagic tendency (positive tourniquet test, spontaneous bruising, bleeding from mucosa, gingiva, injection sites, etc.; vomiting blood, or bloody diarrhoea) Thrombocytopenia (3or estimated as less than 3 platelets per high power field) Evidence of plasma leakage (Hematocrit more than 20% higher than expected, or drop in hematocrit of 20% or more from baseline following IV fluid, pleural effusion, ascites, hypoproteinemia) Encephalitic occurrences | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about alcohol in disinfection is? | [
"Ethanol is used",
"Isopropyl alcohol is used",
"Has sporicidal activity",
"Has bactericidal activity"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Has sporicidal activity | train | med_mcqa | null |
The egg of which helminth can be concentrated in a saturated salt solution - | [
"Taenia saginata",
"Taenia solium",
"Unfertilized egg of Ascaris",
"Ancylostoma duodenale"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Henoch Schnolein Purpura may rarely cause - | [
"Intussuception",
"Volvulus",
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Hernia"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In miliary TB the granulomas are of size : | [
"3-4mm",
"1-2 mm",
"0-1 mm",
"4-5mm"
] | B | Miliary TB is due to hematogenous spread of tubercle bacilli. The lesions are usually yellowish granulomas 1-2 mm in diameter that resemble millet seeds. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1349 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Postmortem wound is differentiated from antemortem wound by | [
"Wound serotonin content",
"Blood clot",
"Wound edges",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above ANTEMORTEM Vs POSTMORTEM WOUNDFeatureAntemortal woundPost Mortem WoundMaemorrhage* Arterial* Blood clotted and the clot is# Laminated# Firmly adherent to the lining of endothelium# Firm, Rubbery and Variegated* Venous* Blood usually not clotted and if clot it is# Non laminated# Weakly adherent to the lining of endothelium# Soft friable chicken fat (yellow) or current jelly (red) appearance# Homogenous * Copious* Deep staining of edges which can't be washed away* Slight* Staining is superficial and can be washed awayWound edgesGapping, Everted, SwollenApposed, not swollenVital reactionSigns of inflammation, infection (pus, slough) and healing (granulation tissue) presentNot presentEnzyme histo-chemistryNegative and positive vital reactionsVital reaction absentWound serotonin & histamine contentIncreasedNo increaseMicroscopy* Clot has platelets* Leucocyte 8c RBC infiltration in between muscle fibres* Clot lacks platelets* No infiltration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dermatophytes can affect: March 2012 | [
"Hair",
"Nail",
"Scalp",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans: D i.e. All of the above Three genera of dermatophytes infect skin and appendages: Trichophyton (skin, hairs and nails), Microsporum (skin and hairs) and Epidermophyton (skin and nails) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The minimum thickness of an alginate impression material should be | [
"8 mm",
"3 mm",
"6 mm",
"5 mm"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice in acute Bipolar disorder | [
"Valproate",
"Lamotrigine",
"Lithium",
"All of the above"
] | C | Lithium | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about nesiritide are true except | [
"It is a BNP analogues",
"It can be used in decompensated congestive hea failure",
"It can be administered orally",
"It causes loss of sodium ions in the urine"
] | C | Nesiritide is a recombinant BNP It produces vasodilatation and natriuresis It can be administered by intravenous route( because being a peptide it can be metabolized by peptidases in git) Refer kDT 6/e 507 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a Cause of acute anal pain: | [
"Thrombosed hemorrhoids",
"Acute anal fissure",
"Fistula in ano",
"Perianal abccess"
] | C | Ans. (c) Fistula in anoRef: Bailey & Love 26/h ed. /1259Clinical Features* Thrombosed hemorrhoids# External hemorrhoids are located distal to the dentate line and are covered with anoderm. Because the anoderm is richly innervated, thrombosis of an external hemorrhoid may cause significant pain.# Internal hemorrhoids may prolapse or bleed, but rarely become painful unless they develop thrombosis and necrosis (usually related to severe prolapse, incarceration, and/or strangulation).* Acute anal fissure# Characteristic symptoms include tearing pain with defecation and hematochezia (usually described as blood on the toilet paper)* Fistula in ano# Patients usually complain of intermittent purulent discharge (which may be bloody) and pain (which increases until temporary relief occurs when the pus discharges).# Schwartzs 9th ed and oxford textbook of surgery do not mention pain as a feature of fistula in ano* Perianal abccess# Severe anal pain is the most common presenting complaint. Walking, coughing, or straining can aggravate the pain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are TRUE about hyperparathyroidism, except - | [
"Commonly occurs after thyroidectomy",
"May cause hypercalcemia",
"Solitary adenoma is the most common cause",
"None of the above"
] | A | Thyroid crisis or storm -
It is a rare disorder nowadays
It is an extreme form of thyrotoxicosis which is precipitated by stressful illness, thyroid surgery or Radioiodine administration.
It presents with symptoms of thyrotoxicosis which are -
Severe tachycardia, Arrhythmias
Marked delirium
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
Dehydration
High fever
The mortality rate is very high. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 56 year-old male was brought to the emergency depament with severe pain in the left flank region. CT-examination revealed occlusion of the left renal vein. The condition would impede the blood flow through all the following veins except: | [
"Left Adrenal vein",
"Left testicular vein",
"Diaphragmatic vein",
"Left subcostal vein"
] | D | Left subcostal vein doesnot drain into the left renal vein. Veins that commmonly drain into the renal vein (which in turn drains into the IVC) Left inferior phrenic (diapgragmatic) vein, Left suprarenal (adrenal) vein, Left gonadal vein On the right side, all the above veins drain into the inferior vena cava directly. Apa from the veins described above, the first and second left lumbar veins and hemiazygous vein may drain into the left renal vein. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 1091, 1246 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Objective assessment of the refractive state of the eye is termed - | [
"Retinoscopy",
"Gonioscopy",
"Ophthalmoscopy",
"Keratoscopy"
] | A | Retinoscopy also called skiascopy or shadow test is an objective method of finding out the error of refraction by the method of neutralization. Principle Retinoscopy is based on the fact that when light is reflected from a mirror into the eye, the direction in which the light will travel across the pupil will depend upon the refractive state of the eye. Reference : A K KHURANA OPHTALMOLOGY, Edition4 ,Page-548 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During pregnancy: | [
"Orthodontic treatment can be carried out without problem",
"Preferably should not be carried out",
"Active movement of teeth should not be done in 2nd trimester",
"All of the above"
] | B | Finally, although orthodontic treatment can be carried out during pregnancy, there are risks involved. Gingival hyperplasia is likely to be a problem, and the hormonal variations in pregnancy sometimes can lead to surprising results from otherwise predictable treatment procedures. Because of bone turnover issues during pregnancy and lactation, an orthodontist theoretically should be vigilant about loss of alveolar bone and root resorption at these time-but radiographs to check on the status of bone and tooth roots are not permissible during pregnancy. Treatment for a potential patient who is already pregnant should be deferred until the pregnancy is completed. If a patient becomes pregnant during treatment, the possible problems should be discussed, and it is wise to place her in a holding pattern during the last trimester, limiting the amount of active tooth movement.
Ref: Proffit-4th ed pg no 319 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient was on DVT prophylaxis. All of the follownig has perforators which connect superficial veins to the deep veins, except | [
"Ankle",
"Below the inguinal ligament",
"Mid Calf",
"Lower Thigh"
] | B | GREAT SAPHENOUS VEIN:- Lie on the dorsum of the foot. Receives 4 dorsal metatarsal veins. Formed by union of medial end of dorsal venous arch with the medial marginal vein and drains the medial side of great toe. Passes upwards in front of medial malleolus (2.5cm in front), crosses the lower one-third of the medial surface of the tibia obliquely, and runs along medial border to reach the back of the knee.Thigh- it inclines forward to reach the saphenous opening where it pierces the cribriform fascia and opens into femoral vein. Contains 10-15 valves to prevent backflow of venous blood. Incompetence of these valves makes vein dilated and touous leading to varicose veins. The vein is connected to deep veins of limb perforator veins. 3 medial perforators-just above ankle.1 perforator just below knee 1 in the region of adductor canal. The perforating veins are also provided with valves which permit flow of blood only from superficial to deep. TRIBUTARIES:-1. At the commencement-medial marginal vein.2. In the leg- small saphenous vein.3. Just below knee-anterior vein of leg, posterior arch vein, vein from calf 4. In the thigh-accessory saphenous vein, anterior cutaneous vein of thigh.5. Just before piercing cribriform fascia-superficial epigastric, superficial circumflex iliac, superficial external pudendal.6. Just before termination-Deep external pudendal. {Reference: BDC. 9E} | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monospot test is used to diagnose: | [
"Pernicious anemia",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Infectious mononucleosis",
"Leukemia"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enzyme replacement therapy is available for the treatment of the following disorder - | [
"Gaucher's disease",
"Nieman-Pick disease",
"Hunter syndrome",
"Phenylketonuria"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following fuel gases used for soldering, has the highest heat content | [
"Hydrogen",
"Natural gas",
"Acetylene",
"Propane"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following presents with macronodular cirrhosis | [
"Primary biliary cirrhosis",
"Indian childhood cirrhosis",
"Hemochromatosis",
"Wilson's disease"
] | D | Wilson's disease presents with macronodular cirrhosis.
(Nodules size > 3 mm is diameter)
Option a,b,c presents with micronodular cirrhosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used to classify Pulmonary adenocarcinoma? | [
"Parkland classification",
"Waterston's classification",
"Chicago classification",
"Noguchi's classification"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neural tube defect is an adverse effect of : | [
"Valproate",
"Phenytoin",
"Diazoxide",
"None"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The term "Secular Trend" implies | [
"Being liberal minded in diagnosing",
"Cold professional attitude",
"Changes in occurrence over a long period of time",
"Migration from rural areas"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Translucency of Permanent dentition is | [
"More than Primary dentition",
"Less than primary dentition",
"Equal in both",
"Can be more or less"
] | A | Primary dentition: It is less translucent than permanent dentition. As mineral content is increased tooth structure becomes more homogeneous and more translucent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following brain tumors does not spread CSF ? | [
"Germ cell tumors",
"Medulloblastoma",
"CNS lymphoma",
"Craniopharyngioma"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Craniopharyngioma Brain tumors spreading CSF Ependymoma o Pineoblastoma o Choroid plexus carcinoma Medulloblastoma o Germinoma o Astrocytoma CNS lymphoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the best treatment in a case of PNH presenting with black colour urine? | [
"Eculizumab",
"Rituximab",
"Infliximab",
"Prednisolone"
] | D | Ans. D. PrednisoloneTreatment:Best Initial treatment to control Hemolysis = PrednisoloneBest treatment = BMTBest treatment to prevent chronic hemolysis or clot formation = Eculizumab:Eculizumab is a monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to the complement protein C5, thus inhibiting terminal complement mediated intravascular hemolysis in PNH patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Orange urine and tears are adverse effect of | [
"Rifampicin",
"Isoniazid",
"Ethambutol",
"Pyrazinamide"
] | A | A. i.e. (Rifampicin) (742- KDT6th) (398- Lipincott's 3rd* Urine of patients taking Nitrofurantoin becomes dark brown due to its metabolites* Systemic administration of phenol gives - green colour to urineDrugAdverse- effectsCommentsEthambutolOptic neuritis** with blurred vision, red- green color blindnessEstablish baseline visual acuity and color vision test monthlyIsoniazidHepatic enzyme elevation, hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy*** Take base line LFT measurement* Clinically significant interaction with phenytoin* and anifungal agents (azols)PyrazinamideNausea, hepatitis, hyperuricemia**, rash joint ache, gout (rare)Take base line LFT and uric acid measurementRifampinHepatitis, GI upset, flue- like syndrome,**Take baseline LFT and CBC count, Warn patients that urine and tears may turn red- orange in color**StreptomycinOtotoxicity, nephrotoxicity**Do base line audiography and renal function tests* Red Man's Syndrome is caused by vancomycin (Fever, Urticaria and Intense flushing) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Catamite is? | [
"Older woman",
"Child",
"Homosexual adult",
"Hijra"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Children o Catamite is the name given to the child who is the passive agent.Remembero In sodomy with children:-1) The act - Paederasty2) Active agent - Paedophile3) Passive agent (i.e. child) - Catamite. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Delirium tremons Except | [
"Severe depression",
"Hallucination",
"Extreme anxiety",
"Delusion"
] | A | A i.e. Severe depression | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ectodermal dysplasia is | [
"Autosomal recessive",
"Autosomal dominant",
"X-linked dominant",
"X-linked recessive"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An eight month old child will be able to do which of the following: | [
"Pincer grasp",
"Sitting stably",
"Stand without support",
"Says mama - baba"
] | B | Ans: b | train | med_mcqa | null |
The amount of water absorbed in the intestine in a day is : | [
"5 lit.",
"1 lit",
"1 lit",
"8 lit."
] | D | D i.e. 8 lit | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vein located in anterior interventricular sulcus - | [
"Great cardiac vein",
"Coronary sinus",
"Middle cardiac vein",
"Small cardiac vein"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Great cardiac vein Coronary (Atrioventricular) sulcusGreat cardiac vein, coronary sinus, Small cardiac vein, RCA, LCX.Anterior interventricular sulcusGreat cardiac vein, left anterior descending (interventricular) artery.Posterior interventricular sulcusMiddle cardiac vein, Posterior interventricular branch of RCA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A common cause of Primary hyperparathyroidism is: | [
"Multiple parathyroid adenomas",
"Solitary parathyroid adenoma",
"Adrenal hyperplasia",
"Ectopic PTH production"
] | B | Answer is B (Solitary parathyroid adenoma) : The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a parathyroid adenoma. A single/solitary abnormal gland is the cause in approximately 80% of patients - Harrison The abnormality of the gland is usually a benign neoplasm or 'adenoma' and rarely a parathyroid carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Severe acute malnutrition as per who criteria is __________ | [
"Weight for height less than median +2 SD",
"Weight for age less than median - 2 SD",
"Weight for age less than median + 3 SD",
"Weight for height less than median - 3 SD"
] | D | * Definition of severe acute malnutrition - severe wasting and/or bilateral edema. * Severe wasting is weight for length (or height) that is below -3SD of the WHO Child Growth Standards. * Diagnosis of bilateral edema - by grasping both feet, placing a thumb on top of each, and pressing gently but firmly for 10 seconds. A pit that stays under each thumb denotes bilateral edema. Management of SAM:- Ref:- Nelson 20th edition; pg num:- 301,302 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gastric carcinoma is associated with all EXCEPT ? | [
"Inactivation of p53",
"Over expression of C-erb",
"Over expression of C-met",
"Activation of RAS"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' Activation of RAS In the course of multi-step stomach carcinogenesis, various genetic and epigenetic alterations of oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes, DNA repair genes, cell cycle regulators and cell adhesion molecules are involved. Genetic alteration in gastric cancer include: Intestinal type gastric cancer: K-ras mutation, APC mutation, pS2 methylation, HMLH1 methylation, p I ema methylation, p 73 deletion and C-erb B-2 amplification. Diffuse type gastric caner: CDH I gene (E-Cadherin) mutation, K-sam amplification. For both type: Telomerase reduction (telomerase shoening), hTE expression, genetic instability, overexpression of the cyclin E & CDC25B & E2F I genes,p53 mutations, reduced expression, CD44 aberrabont transcripts, and amplification of the C-met Cyclin E genes. Coming to question: All the given four genetic alterations may be associated with stomach cancer. However among the given options K-ras is best answer as it is associated with gastric cancer in minimum percentage (amongst given options): Source: Textbook of mechanism of carcinogenesis and cancer prevention K-ras mutation -4 <10% p53 mutation 30-60% C-erb B-2 amplifcation --> 20% C-met amplifciation --> 20% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Axonal transpo is due to | [
"Mitochondria",
"Microtubules",
"Intermediate filaments",
"All"
] | B | Microtubules plays a role in axonal transpo Forward -kinesin Reverse-dynein Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:8,9,14 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following bacterium is non-motile? (D. REPEAT 2013) | [
"Klebsiella spp.",
"Citrobacter spp.",
"Escherichia spp.",
"Salmonella spp."
] | A | Ref: Colour Atlas and Textbook of Medical Microbiology. Elmer W Koneman, 5th edition, Page 195Explanation:Please note that all the bacteria asked in the options are members of the Enterobacteriaceae.Here is a list of enterobacteriaceae members with their motilitv.Motile Enterobacteriaceae aceae membersNon-motile Enterobacteri- membersEscherichia col iShigella spp.Edwardsiella tardaKlebsiella spp.Salmonella spp.Yersinia pestisCitrobacter spp.(Mnemonic: SKY )Enlerobacter spp. Hafnia Panloea Proteus spp. Morganella Providencia spp. Organisms with different motility at two different temperatures:o Enterobacteriaceae member - Yersinia enterocolitica.o Non-enterobacteriaceae member - Listeria monocytogenes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chimeric human / murine monoclonal antibody'are - | [
"Adalimumab",
"Rituximab",
"Muromonab",
"Trastuzumab"
] | B | Monoclonal mouse IgG1 antibody against human CD20 Rituximab has been approved by the FDA for the treatment of various lymphoid malignancies, including B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia also used in treatment of ebola . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1078 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adverse effects of valproic acid derivatives include the following except - | [
"Alopecia",
"Liver failure",
"Weight gain",
"Osteomalacia"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Osteomalacia Adverse effect of Valproate Neurological - Ataxia, sedation,tremor Systemic- Hepatotoxicity, thromobocytopenia,GI irritation, weight gain, transient alopecia, hyperammonemia, pancreatitis,coagulation disorder | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient of tuberculosis was put on ATT for 5 months. Sputum examination is positive for AFB. The likely cause is - | [
"Drug resistant",
"Drug resistant",
"Relapse of disease",
"Treatment failure"
] | D | <p> Treatment failed - a TB patient whose sputum smear or culture is positive at month 5 or later during treatment. Relapse patient have previously been treated for TB,were declared cured or treatment completed at the end of their most recent course of treatment, and are now diagnosed with a recurrent episode of TB. Drug resistance means resistance to anti-TB drugs. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:180. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Invert sugar, is | [
"equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose",
"equimolar mixture of Sucrose and glucose",
"equimolar mixture of Glucose and lactose",
"equimolar mixture of Glucose and lactose"
] | A | Hydrolysis of sucrose (optical rotation +66.5°) will produce one molecule of glucose (+52.5°) and one molecule of fructose (–92°).
Therefore, the products will change the dextrorotation to levorotation, or the plane of rotation is inverted. Equimolecular mixture of glucose and fructose thus formed is called invert sugar. The enzyme producing hydrolysis of sucrose is called sucrase or invertase.
Honey contains invert sugar. Invert sugar is sweeter than sucrose.
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 77 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following metabolites is used by all cells for glycolysis, glycogen synthesis, and the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway? | [
"Glucose-1-phosphate",
"Glucose-6-phosphate",
"UDP-glucose",
"Fructose-6-phosphate"
] | B | Glucose-6-phosphate is common to all pathways. It can be converted to glucose-1-phosphate for glycogen synthesis or go directly into the pentose phosphate pathway or proceed through fructose-6-phosphate in glycolysis. UDP-glucose is formed from glucose-1-phosphate and can be used to form glycogen, lactose, glycoproteins, and glycolipids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Order of increasing polarity: A. Alanine B. Valine C. Glycine D. Isoleucine | [
"D- B- A-C",
"B- C- A-D",
"A- D- C-B",
"D-A- B-C"
] | A | All aliphatic amino acids i.e. Glycine, Alanine, Valine, Leucine and Isoleucine are non-polar. Isoleucine is most non polar, followed by valine. Glycine is least non-polar out of all aliphatic amino acids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Uricase used in the treatment of chronic gout is | [
"Allopurinol",
"Benzbromarone",
"Pegloticase",
"Methotrexate"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pegloticase Pegloticase is a recombinant mammalian Uricase linked to polyethylene glycol (PEG) approved for the treatment of Hyperuricemia in patients with treatment refractory gout. Pegloticase facilitates the conversion of Uric acid into allantoin, which is far more soluble. Pegloticase is approved for intravenous administration and its use is associated with rapid and marked decline in serum uric acid levels. Agents inhibiting IL-1 action are used for the treatment of refractory Gout Anakinra Canakinumab | train | med_mcqa | null |
Platelet in blood bank can be stored upto maximum of - | [
"2 days",
"5 days",
"10 days",
"30 days"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5 days Platelet and granulocyte storage* For storage in blood bank platelets and granulocytes require temperature of 20 - 24 degrees celcius.* Refrigeration temperatures affect platelet viability and reduce the shelf life of platelets to only 24 hours, it is no longer recommended that platelets be stored at 1 - 6 degrees celcius.* Stored platelets need to be continuously gently agitated using specially designed rotators to prevent aggregation and promote gas exchange.* Depending on the method of collection system used platelets have a shelf life of minimum 1 day to a maximum of 5 days. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is defined as - Number of maternal deaths per | [
"1000 live births",
"1,00,000 live births",
"10,000 live births",
"100 live births"
] | B | (B) 1,00,000 live births # Maternal mortality rate (MMR) - number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 women of reproductive age per year. In India it is about 120 as compared to 0.5 of United States. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which can be used as an Emergency contraceptive? | [
"DMPA",
"Spermicidal jelly",
"Copper-T",
"Today"
] | C | Ans: c (Copper-T) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 394Copper-T is an effective post coital contraceptive, if inserted within 3-5 days of unprotected intercourse.DMPA- is an injectable contraceptive containing a progesterone. It acts by suppressing ovulation and it has no role in emergency contraception.Today- is a type of barrier contraception. It is a vaginal sponge saturated with spermicide nonoxynol-9. It cannot be used in emergency contraception.Spermicidal jelly- is chemical method of barrier contraception. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following post is most difficult to bond in the root canal: | [
"Zirconia ceramic post.",
"Carbon fiber reinforced post.",
"Polyethylene fiber reinforced post.",
"Glass fiber reinforced post."
] | A | It is because zirconia cannot be etched. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Co-factor for phosphofructokinase is | [
"Mg +2",
"Mn +2",
"Fe +2",
"Zn"
] | A | Many of the glycolytic enzymes are sensitive to Mg2+. The most impoant effect is due to MgATP2-being a cofactor for a number of these enzymes while other chelation forms are inactive or inhibitory. The means by which Mg2+ and Mg2+ chelates of adenine nucleotides regulate the most impoant glycolytic enzymes--hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, aldolase, phosphoglycerate kinase, and pyruvate kinaseRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The process of wound healing includes all of the following Except | [
"Coagulation",
"Matrix synthesis",
"Angiogenesis",
"Fibrolysis"
] | D | Fibrinous exudates may be dissolved by fibrinolysis and cleared by macrophages. If the fibrin is not removed, over time it may stimulate the ingrowth of fibroblasts and blood vessels and thus lead to scarring. ref robbins 9th ed page 90 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common artery responsible for hemorrhage in peptic ulcer is: | [
"Gastro epiploic artery",
"Left gastric artery",
"Gastro duodenal artery",
"Superior mesenteric artery"
] | C | Ans: (Gastro duodenal artery) Ref: Sabiston Textbook of Singers, 19th Edition -1164Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)Most common cause of upper GI hemorrhageApproximately 10% to 15% of patients with PUD develop bleedingBleeding is the most common indication for operation and the most common cause for death in PUD.Duodenal ulcers are common then gastric ulcersSource of bleeding from Duodenal ulcer - Gastroduodenal arterySource of bleeding from Gastric ulcer - Left Gastric arteryManagementResuscitationIntravenous Proton Pump Inhibitors are started in all patients.Upper Gastro Intestinal Endoscopy (UGIE) should be done within 24 hoursAnti H.Pylori treatment if the patient tests positive for H.PyloriFurther management is based on findings at UGIE using Forrest classificationEndoscopic TherapyFor cases of active bleeding as well as those with a visible vessel (Forrest I to Ila).In case of an adherent clot (Forrest lib), the clot is removed and the underlying lesion evaluated.Ulcers with a clean base or black spot don't require intervention.Endoscopic optionsEpinephrine injectionHeater probes,Monopolar oi bipolar electrocoagulation,Laser or argon plasma coagulation (APC)HemoclipsUsually a combination therapy involv ing injection and coagulation is employedIndications for SurgeryHemodynamic instability despite vigorous resuscitation (>6u transfusion)Failure of endoscopic techniques to arrest hemorrhageRecurrent hemorrhage after initial stabilization {with up to two attempts at obtaining endoscopic hemostasis)Shock associated with recurrent hemorrhageContinued slow bleeding with a transfusion requirement >3u/dayRelative IndicationsRare blood type or difficult crossmatchRefusal of transfusionShock on presentationAdvanced ageSevere comorbid diseaseBleeding chronic gastric ulcer for which malignancy is suspectedForrest ClassificationGradeDescriptionRebleeding risklaActive, pulsatile bleedingHighlbActive, nonpulsatile bleedingHighIIaNonbleeding visible vesselHighIIbAdherent clotIntermediateIIcUlcer with black spotLowIIIiClean, nonbleeding ulcer bedLow | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Winging" of the Scapula is due to injury to: | [
"Nerve supplying serratus anterior",
"Pectoral nerve",
"Subscapular nerve",
"Ulnar nerve"
] | A | Nerve supplying serratus anterior | train | med_mcqa | null |
Plumbism is due to chronic poisoning with: PGI 09 | [
"Arsenic",
"Lead",
"Mercury",
"Copper"
] | B | Ans. Lead | train | med_mcqa | null |
In karyotyping chromosomes are visualized through light microscope with resolution of | [
"5 Kb",
"500 Kb",
"5 Mb",
"50 Mb"
] | C | Using Karyotypes to Diagnose Genetic Disorders. Using Karyotypes to Diagnose Genetic Disorders. A regular human cell has 46 chromosomes: 44 autosomes, which come in pairs, and 2 sex chromosomes, which specify gender (XX for female and XY for male). The pairs of autosomes are called "homologous chromosomes Ref-Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30/e p582 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 76-year-old man who has been a smoker since his teenage years was admitted with a right lower lung lobe infiltrate. A diagnosis of pneumonia was strongly considered and the patient was admitted to the hospital. Which of the following agents is not associated with adult community acquired pneumonia? | [
"Streptococcus pneumonia",
"Mycoplasma pneumonia",
"Chlamydia trachomatis",
"Legionella pneumophila"
] | C | Chlamydia trachomatis Chlamydia pneumoniae, not C. trachomatis, is associated with adult pneumonia. C. trachomatis can cause pneumonia in infants following acquisition during the passage through an infected bih canal. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycoplasma pneumoniae are by far the most common causes of community acquired pneumonia. Haemophilus influenzae is commonly associated with chronic lung disease. Legionella pneumophila is common in ceain geographic areas and has also been associated with outbreaks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Melanin is formed from which aminoacid? | [
"Phenylalanine",
"Tyrosine",
"Tryptophan",
"Histidine"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., TyrosineAmino acidsBiological important compoundTyrosineCatecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine), thyroxine, triiodothryonine, melanin.(Note : - Phenylalanine is the precursor of tyrosine, thus it can also give rise to all these compounds through tyrosine (phenylalanine - Tyrosine - Catecholamines, thyroxine, T3' melanin).TryptophanVitamin niacin, melatonin, SerotoninGlycine, Arginine, methionineCreatineGlycine, cysteineBile saltsGlycineHemeAspartic acid and glutaminePyrimidine basesGlycine, aspartic acid, glutaminePurine basesb-alanineCoenzyme-AArginineNitric oxideHistidine, Arginine, lysineKeratinMethionine, lysineCarnitineGABAGlutamateGlutamate, cysteine, glycineGlutathione | train | med_mcqa | null |
Modifiers are added to gypsum mainly to | [
"Modify setting time",
"Modify setting expansion",
"Modify strength",
"Decrease the porosity"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 15 year old boy had 10–12 partial complex seizures per day inspite of adequate 4 drugs antiepileptic regime. He had a history of repeated high-grade fever in childhood. MRI for epilepsy protocol revealed normal brain scan. What should be the best noninvasive strategy to make a definite diagnosis so that he can be prepared to undergo epilepsy surgery – | [
"Interictal scalp EEG",
"Video EEG",
"Interictal 18F–FDg PET.",
"Video EEG with Ictal 99m Tc – HMPAO Brain SPECT"
] | D | If localization of epileptic focus is unrevealed on MRI, Ictal SPECT with HMPAO is the most practical and best method. Addition of video EEG further helps in localization of epileptic foci. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If mother is donating the kidney to her son, this is an example of:- | [
"Autograft",
"Allograft",
"Isograft",
"Xenograft"
] | B | Types of grafts - Autograft: same person - Allograft/Homograft: from one person to another / same species - Isograft: Identical twine - Xenograft/Heterograft: Between different species - Ohotopic graft: Graft placed in normal anatomical site - Heterotrophic graft: Graft in site different from its anatomical location | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following statements are true about Peyronie's disease except - | [
"Spontaneous regression occurs in 50% of the cases.",
"Condition affects adolescent males.",
"The condition can be associated with Dupuytren's contracture of the tendon of the hand.",
"Pt. presents with complaints of painful erection."
] | B | Peyronie's disease is usually seen over 40 years of age Impoant points about Pevronie's disease It is also k/a penile fibromatosis It is due to fibrous plaques in one or both corpus cavernosum.They may later calcify or ossify. Fibrous plaques lead to pain and curvature of the penis on erection Palpable induration or mass appears usually on the dorsolateral aspect of the penis. Palmar fibromatosis (Dupuytren's contracture), plantar fibromatosis and penile fibromatosis (Peyronie's ds.) are components of the same pathological process called superficial fibromatosis. The aetilogy is unceain, but it may be a result of past trauma. Treatment is difficult but some cases may show spontaneous regression. Medical treatments are often ineffective. If the penile deformity is distressing, Nesbitt's operation can be performed to straighten the penis Ref : Bailey and Love 25/e p1373 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The muscles acting upon the temporomandibular joint for various actions are given below, EXCEPT? | [
"Temporalis muscle",
"Occipitofrontalis",
"Masseter muscle",
"Medial pterygoid muscle"
] | B | The muscles acting upon the TMJ are primarily the muscles that generate the various movements associated with chewing; hence, these muscles are often called the muscles of mastication.Temporalis muscle: The temporalis muscle elevates the mandible.Masseter muscle: It elevates the mandible. It works functionally with the temporalis and pterygoid muscles to move the mandible at the TMJ, it is a muscle of mastication.Lateral pterygoid muscle: Contraction causes the mandibular condyle and the aicular disc to move anteriorly, resulting in both protraction and depression of the mandible. It works synergistically with the medial pterygoid muscle to move the mandible from side to side.Medial pterygoid muscle: It elevates the mandible and moves it from side to side. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Major contribution towards gluconeogenesis | [
"Ketones",
"Alanine",
"Lactate",
"Glycine"
] | B | Alanine dominates among transpoed amino acid. It is postulated that pyruvate in skeletal muscle undergo transamination to produce alanine. Alanine is transpoed to liver and used for gluconeogenesis.This cycle is referred to as glucose-alanine cycle Ref: satyanarayana 4th edition , pg: 262 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The earliest sign of Hyperkalemia in ECG is | [
"Flat & inverted T",
"Tall T wave",
"Large P-wave",
"Prolonged Q-T interval"
] | B | (B) Tall T wave [Harrison17 - 284; Harrison18 - 357; Harrison16 - 2621 # Most serious effect of HYPERKALEMIA is cardiac toxicity, which does not correlate well with the plasma K+ concentration.> The earliest electrocardiographic changes include increased T-wave amplitude, or peaked T waves.> More severe degrees of hyperkalemia result in a prolonged PR interval and QRS duration, Progressive widening of the atrioventricular conduction delay, and loss of P waves. QRS complex and merging with the T wave produces a sine wave pattern.> The terminal event is usually ventricular fibrillation or asystole. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Largest cross-sectional area | [
"Aery",
"Veins",
"Capillaries",
"Venules"
] | C | Capillaries have largest total c.s area which is 4500 cm2Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:537 Table no:32-9 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best test for assessment of iron status is: | [
"Transferrin",
"Ferritin",
"Serum iron",
"Hemoglobin"
] | B | b. Ferritin(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2323-2325, Ghai 8/e p 334-335)Serum ferritin level indicates the amount of iron present in both liver and reticuloendothelial system and hence is the best assessment of iron status. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hynes pharyngoplasty is used to improve a child's ? | [
"Appearance",
"Teething",
"Speech",
"Feeding"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Speech | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Baby-friendly hospital initiative" (BFHI), created and promoted by WHO and _____ | [
"UNICEF",
"USAID",
"UNDP",
"FAO"
] | A | A new "baby-friendly hospital initiative" (BFHI) is created and promoted by WHO and UNICEF. The initiative is a global effo to implement practices that protect, promote and suppo breastfeeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
61 year?old man presents to OPD with complaints of persistent, non-productive cough for 1 month. He has no other symptom. He is smoking around 20 biddis per day for last 25 years. Physical examination is normal. What is the line of management in such patients? | [
"Reassurance and advise him to quit smoking",
"Prescribe oral antibiotics for 7 days",
"Do a chest X ray and refer him to smoking cessation clinic",
"Go for a CT thorax to visualise pathology"
] | C | Lung cancer Most common symptom in chronic smokers is persistent cough and chest X Ray is a must for such patients. Smoking cessation can reduce risk of lung cancer. Cessation at or before middle age can reduce the chances of lung cancer by 90% But in this case scenario, patients is elderly and will not have a strong will to achieve the goal of smoking abstinence. Therefore after doing a chest X ray, he must be referred to smoking cessation clinics so that compliance can be monitored and effective counselling can be done . | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the neurocutaneous signs are seen in Neurofibromatosis Type 2, EXCEPT: | [
"Meningioma",
"Lisch nodule",
"Axillary freckling",
"Shagreen patch"
] | D | Shagreen patch is highly characteristic of tuberous sclerosis and is seen in 80% of patients. It occurs in early childhood and may be the first sign of disease. They are soft, flesh colored to yellow plaques with an irregular surface. It is most commonly seen in the lumbosacral region. Features of Neurofibromatosis 1 are: cafe au lait spots, neurofibromas or plexiform neuroma, freckling, optic glioma and Lisch nodules. Features of Neurofibromatosis 2 are: bilateral vestibular schwannomas, multiple meningioma, spinal ependymoma, astrocytoma, posterior subcapsular lens opacities and retinal hamaomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antibodies in ITP are - | [
"IgG",
"IgM",
"IgE",
"IgD"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., IgG IDOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURAo There are two clinical subtypes of primary I.T.P, acute and chronic both are autoimmune disorders in which platelet destruction results from formation of antiplatelet antibodies.Pathogenesiso Chronic I TP is caused by the formation of autoantibodies against platelet membrane glycoproteins most often IIb-IIIa or Ib-IX.o In overwhelming majority of cases the antiplatelet antibodies are of the IgG class.o The mechanism of platelet destruction is similar to that seen in autoimmune hemolytic anemias. Opsonized platelets are rendered susceptible to phagocytosis by the cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system.o The spleen is the major site of the destruction of platelets.Pathologyo The principal morphologic lesions of thrombocytopenic purpura are found in the spleen and bone marrow but they are not diagnostic.o The point to stress is that despite the increased destruction of platelets in spleen, the spleen size remains normalo On histological examination there is congestion of the sinusoids and hyperactivity and enlargement of the splenic follicles manifested by the formation of prominent germinal centres. Sometimes scattered megakaryocytes are found within the sinuses and sinusoidal walls. This represents a very mild.form of extramedullary hematopoiesis.These splenic findings are not sufficiently distinctive to be considered diagnostic.Bone Marrowo Bone marrow reveals a modestly increased number of megakaryocytes.o These findings are not specific for autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura, but merely reflect accelerated thrombopoiesis, being found in most forms of thrombocytopenia resulting from increased platelet destruction.o The importance of bone marrow examination is to rule out thrombocytopenias resulting from bone marrow failure.o A decrease in the number of megakaryocytes goes against the diagnosis of I.T.P. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old diabetic female presented with complaints of fatigue, abdominal distension, pruritis, anorexia, myalgia and skin rashes. On examination, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly and ascites were noted. Lab finidngs - elevated SGOT/SGPT levels, IgG levels and ANA titres, hypoalbuminemia, prolonged PT, normocytic normochromic coombs positive hemolytic anemia. A liver biopsy was conducted and HPE examination was done. All of the following antibodies are seen in the above condition except: - | [
"Anti-LKM 1 Ab",
"Anti-LKM 2 Ab",
"Anti-SMA",
"pANCA"
] | B | This is a case of Autoimmune hepatitis in background of other autoimmune disorders like DM, AIHA etc. HPE image shows a focus of lobular hepatitis with prominent plasma cells typical for this disease. Antibodies seen in AIH are: - ANA ANTI- SMA ANTI LKM 1 ANTI LC 1 pANCA SLA ANTI LKM 2 Ab is seen in drug induced hepatitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pseudo-isomorphic phenomenon is seen in: | [
"Vitiligo",
"Psoriasis",
"DLE",
"Plane Was"
] | D | Isomorphic also known as Koebner phenomenon True Koebner seen in vitiligo, psoriasis and lichen planus Pseudo Koebner seen in was, molluscum contagiosum | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fenton reaction leads to free radical generation when - | [
"Radiant energy is absorbed by water",
"H202 is formed by myeloperoxidase",
"Ferrous ion converted to ferric ion",
"Nitric oxide is converted to peroxynitrite"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ferrous ions converted to ferric ions o Free radicals are generated through Fenton's reaction.o In this reaction iron is converted from its ferrous to ferric form and a free radical is generated,o The effect of these reactive species relevant to cells injury include;Lipid peroxidation of membranesOxidative modification of proteins and lesions in DMA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Johnes" Bacillus is: | [
"Mycobacterium tuberculosis",
"Mycobacterium pseudotuberculosis",
"Corynebaccterium",
"H. aegipticus"
] | B | Mycobacterium pseudotuberculosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of cataract | [
"Hereditary",
"DM",
"Trauma",
"Age related"
] | D | D i.e. Age related Radiation cataract is caused by exposure to almost all types of radiation energy such as infrared or heat (in glass-blowers or glass-workers, and iron-workers), irradiation caused by X-rays, gamma-rays or neutrons (in workers in atomic energy plant, survivors of atomic bomb and in patients inadequately protected during treatment for malignant conditions near eye) and sunlight (especially the ultraviolet A and UV-B components). Microwave radiation has shown to cause cataract in animals. But MRI has no radiation exposure. - Cataract may be caused by chloroquine, coicosteroids, copper metabolism error (Wilson's disease), Calcium decrease (hypocalcemia or hypoparathyroidism or parathyroid tetany), galactosemia, hypo glycemia and diabetes mellitusQ. (Mn- CG=Cataract G) Cataract is the most common cause of blindness in India Q. Senile cataract or age related cataract is the commonest type of acquired cataract Q affecting equally persons of either sex usually above the age of 50 years. Overall incidence of acquired cataract is more than congenital. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest position of the appendix is: | [
"Paracoecal",
"Retrocoecal",
"Pelvic",
"Subcoecal"
] | B | Ans. B RetrocoecalRef: BDC, 6thed. vol. II pg. 269-70* Most common position of vermiform appendix is retrocaecal, (12 O'clock- 65%) followed by pelvic (4 O'clock position).Types of appendix and their relative positionAppendixPositionPrevalence /commentRetrocaecal12 O' clock65%; most commonPelvic4 O' clock30%; 2nd most commonSubcaecal6 O' clock2.5%; points towards midinguinal pointPreileal2 O' clock or splenic1 %; points towards spleen & lie infront of ileumPostileal2 O' clock or splenic0.5%; point towards spleen & lie behind ileumParacolic11 O' clock | train | med_mcqa | null |
Measles vaccine given to contact of measles case exces protective effect within- | [
"1 day",
"3 days",
"7 days",
"10 days"
] | C | - susceptible host of measles May be protected against measles with measles vaccine, provided that this is given within 3 days of exposure. - this is because , the incubation period of measles induced by vaccine is about 7 days , compared with 10 days for naturally acquired measles. Thus protective effect is obtained within 7 days. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:149 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not an osmotic laxative? | [
"Sorbitol",
"Magnesium Hydroxide",
"Polyethylene glycol",
"Bisacodyl"
] | D | Laxatives Bulk forming Dietary fibre Osmotic Sorbitol Lactulose Polyethylene glycol Mg(OH)2 MgSO4 Stimulant Senna Cascara Bisacodyl | train | med_mcqa | null |
Screening under RNTCP emphasizes on | [
"Sputum microscopy",
"Chest X-ray",
"PCR",
"Sputum culture"
] | A | Over-reliance on chesl X-ray was a draw back of National Tuberculosis Programme (NTP) which was over come by Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme(RNTCP) which staed diagnosing patient by sputum microscopy &;A nation-wide network of RNTCP qaality assured designated sputum smear microscopy laboratories has been set up, providing appropriate, available, affordable and accessible diagnostic services for TB suspects and cases. Ref: Park 24th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is: | [
"Solitary adenoma",
"Chief cell hyperplasia",
"Multiple adenoma",
"Werner's syndrome"
] | A | Answer is A (Solitary adenoma) The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a Solitary Parathyroid Adenoma Q Adenomas are most commonly located in the inferior parathyroid gland. Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about small bowel diveicula- | [
"Contains all the layers of bowel wall",
"Common in terminal ileum",
"Surgical treatment is not required",
"Seen on the mesenteric border"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Seen on the mesenteric border Small bowel is uncommon site for diveicula. In small bowel, duodenum is the most common site followed by jejunum and then ileum. They are mainly acquired type and are false diveicula i.e. their walls consists of only mucosa or submucosa. They are mainly seen at the mesenteric border. Small bowel diveicula can be associated with bacterial overgrowth, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency, megaloblastic anemia, malabsorption, and steatorrhoea. This is known as 'blind loop' syndrome and can be treated by a course of antibiotics. Mostly small bowel diveicula are symptomless unless some complication arises. Complications occur in 6 to 10% of patients and incldues diveiculitis, hemorrhage, perforation, intestinal obstruction and malabsorption. Duodenal diveicula are mainly seen on the medial border. Small bowel diveicula can be easily diagnosed by barium meal follow through study. Enteroclysis or Small bowel enema is the most sensitive test. Treatment is mainly medical Surgery is indicated only when complication arises. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which technique of facial fracture treatment involves purely closed reduction? | [
"Application of miniplates",
"Dynamic compression plating",
"Maxillo-mandibular fixation",
"Use of wire osteosynthesis across fracture site"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are deliriant poisons, EXCEPT: | [
"Cannabis",
"Belladonna",
"Dhatura",
"Aconite"
] | D | Dhatura, Cannabis, and Belladonna are deliriant poisons. Aconite is a cardiac poison. Hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia with AV block occurs. At first there is tachycardia, but in later stages bradycardia occurs due to AV block. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 551-552. | train | med_mcqa | null |
1729. A 28 yr old female presented with malaise and generalised weakness since 6 month. Her appetite Is reduced and she has giddiness and palpitations on and off. There was no organomegaly. Laboratory Study showed normochromic to hypochromic anaemia and MCV-80. What Is the diagnosis | [
"Thalassemia minor",
"Iron deficiency anaemia",
"Chronic malaria",
"Folate deficiency"
] | B | <p> Iron deficiency anemia is much more common in women between the age of 20 & 45 yrs than in men.The onset of this anemia is generally slow .The usual symptoms are weakness ,fatigue ,palpitations ,dyspnoea on exeion & pallor of skin, sclera & mucous membrane.</p><p>Also MCV will be less than 80fl in iron deficiency anemia .</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 298.</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Palindrome is associated with: | [
"Synthesis of DNA",
"Extrachromosomal molecule of DNA",
"Sequence of DNA",
"Small nuclear RNA"
] | C | Palindromic DNA - A palindrome is a sentence that reads the same forwards and backwards, e.g. 'Madam I'm Adam'. The DNAs of several eukaryotes are shown to have palindromic sequences, in which nucleotides of one strand going in one direction are the same as the nucleotides of the other strand going in the other direction.The exact significance of palindromic DNA is not known, although several functions have been suggested.Sho palindromes may function as recognition sites of DNA for proteins which also have a two-fold rotational symmetry, e.g. lac repressor protein, CRP protein and many bacterial restriction enzymes.Palindromes may also give structural strength to the transcribed RNA by hydrogen bonding in the hairpin loops. If the palindromic sequences are not perfectly symmetrical, imperfect loops may result. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is able to recognise a person by name but not face. The lesion, in this case, is in | [
"Frontal lobe",
"Occipital lobe",
"Post parietal region",
"Temporal lobe"
] | D | This condition is prosopagnosia, which occurs in the lesions of the inferior temporal lobe. In humans, storage and recognition of faces are more strongly represented in the right inferior temporal lobe in right-handed individuals (i.e., non-dominant inferior temporal lobe) Damage to this area can cause prosopagnosia, the inability to recognise faces. Patients with this abnormality can recognise people by seeing their faces. The left hemispheres is also involved, but the role of te right hemisphere is primary. Ref : Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 25th edition Pgno: 293 | train | med_mcqa | null |
None of the following are true about N95 masks except | [
"They were designed for influenza viruses during the H1N1 outbreak",
"N- stands for National Institute of Occupational safety and Health",
"It filters 95% of all paritcles smaller than 3nm",
"A beard doesn't allow for a proper seal and makes the N95 ineffective"
] | D | N 95 masks N 95 masks were designed by NIOSH for occupational safety of industrial workers. The masks come in different series N for Not resistant to oil. Used when oil paiculates are not present. R for Resistant to oil. Used when oil paiculates are present and the filter is disposed of after one shift. P for oil Proof. Used when oil paiculates are present and the filter is re-used for more than one shift. All 3 series come in variations of 95,99,100 which basically implies their percentage of filtration efficiency againt paicles bigger than 0.3 micron being 95%, 99% and 99.97% respectively. Facial hair can prevent the mask from forming a tight seal thus CDC has listed facial hairstyles which do not hamper the effectiveness of N95 These masks have been found to be effective against influenza viruses and are now currently being used for COVID-19 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following neurotransmitter is MOST impoant for the induction of REM sleep? | [
"Acetylcholine",
"Dopamine",
"Epinephrine",
"Norepinephrine"
] | A | Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter of primary impoance for the induction of REM sleep. Some of the other neurotransmitters do function in sleep, but REM sleep can occur in their absence. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter with a role in voluntary movement, mood, cognition, and regulation of prolactin release. Epinephrine is impoant in sympathetic nervous system responses. It is also a CNS neurotransmitter. Norepinephrine is impoant in sympathetic nervous system responses. It is also a CNS neurotransmitter involved in attention, arousal, and mood. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Capsule of the crystalline lens is thinnest at: | [
"Anterior pole",
"Posterior pole",
"Equator",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. Posterior pole | train | med_mcqa | null |
An example of covalent drug-receptor interaction is: | [
"Noradrenaline binding to Beta 1 adrenergic receptor",
"Acetylcholine binding to muscarinic receptor",
"Prazosin binding to alpha 1 adrenergic receptor",
"Phenoxybenzamine binding to alpha adrenergic receptor"
] | D | ref ;KD Tripathi Pharmacology 7th edition (page no;60) A Nonequilibrium type of enzyme inhibition can also occur with drugs which react with the same catalytic site of the enzyme but either form strong covalent bonds or have such high affinity for the enzyme that the normal substrate is not able to displace the inhibitor, e.g. Organophosphates react covalently with the esteretic site of the enzyme cholinesterase. Methotrexate has 50,000 times higher affinity for dihydrofolate reductase than the normal substrate DHFA. Phenoxybenzamine is a nonequilibrium antagonist of adrenaline at the alpha adrenergic receptor- irreversible inhibitor of alpha receptors | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is true about nitrates? | [
"Acts by raising cGMP which causes dephosphorylation of MLCK",
"Metabolized by glutathione reductase",
"Used in achalasia cardia",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. (D) All of the above(Ref: KDT 8th/e p586, 587, 590)Nitrates act by releasing NO which increases cGMP that cause dephosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase. These are preferential dilator of venules because glutathione reductase (enzyme that releases NO from nitrates) is principally present at these sites. These agents are smooth muscle relaxants and can be used in colics and in achlasia cardia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the statements regarding Lymes disease are true, EXCEPT: | [
"Borellia bourgdroferi replicates locally and invades locally",
"Infection progresses inspite of good humoral jmmunity",
"Polymorphonuclear lymphocytosis in CSF suggest meningial involvement",
"IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis"
] | C | CNS involvement in lymes disease is indicated by lymphocytic pleocytosis, elevated protein and normal glucose. Lymphocytic meningitis is confirmed by intrathecal IgM, IgG or IgA antibodies to Borrelia Burdogferi. Borrelia burdogferi replicates in the skin and then disseminates bloodstream to other organs leading to extracutaneous manifestations. 3 Stages of Lymes disease infection are: Stage 1: Flu like symptoms and erythema migrans Stage 2: Facial palsy, meningitis Stage3 : Ahritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.