question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1
value | dataset stringclasses 6
values | subject stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Most common Complication of TIPSS procedure | [
"Heart failure",
"Hepatic Encephalopathy",
"Thrombosis",
"Recurrent Variceal bleed"
] | B | Since systemic blood is shunted toxins ( NH3) travel to brain
causing encephalopathy. Hence TIPSS is contra indicated in
encephalopathy patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
'hn RNA' is associated with which of the following heamatological condition? | [
"a - Thalassemia",
"Sickle cell anaemia",
"B - Thalassemia",
"None"
] | C | hn RNA is seen in case of splicing defect. It is also seen in spiral muscular atropy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stereotactic radiosurgery is done for: | [
"Glioblastoma multiforme",
"Medulloblastoma spinal cord",
"Ependymoma",
"AV malformation of brain"
] | D | Ans. (d) AV malformation of brainRef: Sabiston 19/e p 1900-1902* Stereotactic Surgery involves delivery of concentrated dose of RT to a defined volume of brain using Gamma knife or modified linear accelerator* Used in# Metastatic tumors# AV malformations# Benign Cranial nerve lesions# Trigeminal neuralgia | train | med_mcqa | null |
In pupillary reflex nerve tested is: | [
"2nd",
"3rd",
"Both 2nd and 3rd",
"4th"
] | C | Ans. Both 2nd and 3rd | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which vaccine strain is changed every yearly? | [
"Influenza",
"Rabies",
"Hepatitis",
"Ebola"
] | A | Influenza a and b are the segmented viruses which contain 8 segments of nucleic acid. There is gradual sequential change in antigenic structure occurring regularly at frequent intervals which is known as antigenic drift. This antigenic drift is due to mediation and selection so their vaccine strain is changed every year. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cystic fibrosis is due to mutation long arm of chromosome? | [
"7",
"9",
"11",
"21"
] | A | Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease South Asia edition the primary defect in cystic fibrosiscresults from abnormal function of an epithelial chloride channel protein encoded by the cystic fibrosis trans membrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR) on chromosome 7q 31.2.. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During an abdominal surgical procedure, the surgeon wishes to locate the ureter in order to ensure that it is not injured. The ureter may be found immediately anterior to the origin of the ? | [
"Common iliac aery",
"External iliac aery",
"Internal iliac aery",
"Gonadal aery"
] | B | The ureter leaves the renal pelvis and lies on the posterior abdominal wall as it descends to the pelvis. It crosses the pelvic brim at the level of the bifurcation of the common iliac aery. At this point it crosses anterior to the origin of the external iliac aery to enter the pelvis.The origin of the common iliac aery is at the bifurcation of the abdominal aoa, which occurs at the level of the fouh lumbar veebra in the midline of the abdomen. Both ureters are lateral to the aoic bifurcation.The origin of the internal iliac aery is at the bifurcation of the common iliac aery, which occurs at about the level of the first sacral veebra. The ureter and the internal iliac aery both enter the pelvis with the ureter on the lateral side of the aery.The origin of the gonadal aery (either the testicular aery or the ovarian aery) is from the abdominal aoa at a variable level, usually between the renal aery and the inferior mesenteric aery. The ureters are lateral to the origin of this aery. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 34. Overview of the Lower Limb. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Artery palpable at the anterior border of masseter
is _________ artery | [
"Maxillary",
"Facial",
"Lingual",
"Superficial temporal"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of these need both V and X factors-a) Hemophilus influenzaeb) H. ducreic) H. paraphrophilusd) H. aegyptiuse) H. haemolyticus | [
"ade",
"bde",
"abd",
"ad"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is average birth weight at 2 years? | [
"Double of birth weight",
"Thrice birth weight",
"Four times of birth weight",
"Six times birth weight"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Four times of birth weight AgeWeightBirth3 Kg5 months6 Kg (2 x birth weight)I year9 Kg (3 x birth weight)2 years12 kg (4 x birth weight)3 years15 kg (5 x birth weight)5 years18 kg (6 x birth weight)7 years21 kg (7 x birth weight)10 years30 kg (10 x birth weight) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old nursing home resident presents with a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath and cough. The lung examination reveals right basilar crackles. The chest x-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. Sputum culture grows methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) Select the most appropriate isolation precaution. | [
"Standard precautions",
"Contact precautions",
"Droplet precautions",
"Airborne precautions"
] | B | There are four types of isolation precautions that can be implemented in health care settings. Any given patient might require more than one type of precaution. Standard precautions apply when interacting with any patient, regardless of the diagnosis. They include hand washing before and after contact with every patient and the use of gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection when contact with open sores, blood, or body secretions is anticipated. Contact precautions reduce the risk of spreading microorganisms that are transmitted by direct or indirect contact. They include private room placement of the patient and the use of gloves and gowns when in contact with the patient or the immediate environment. Contact precautions are indicated in patients colonized or infected with MRSA, vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE), and C difficile.Droplet precautions limit the transmission of infections that are carried in respiratory droplets (>5 mm in size) such as influenza and meningococcal meningitis. Droplet precautions include placing the patient in a private room and asking health care professionals to use surgical masks within 3 ft from the patient. Airborne precautions reduce the risk of airborne particulate (particles less than 5 mm in size) transmission of infectious agents such as tuberculosis. The patient is placed in a private negative-pressure room with high-efficiency masks, such as the N95 mask, worn by all health care professionals upon entering those rooms. The patient has health care-associated MRSA pneumonia and requires contact precautions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following drugs are the first choice in treating patients with candidiasis except- | [
"Fluconazole",
"Nystatin",
"Amphotericin B",
"Caspofungin"
] | D | Ans. is "d' i.e., Caspofungin Choice of drugs for systemic mycosesDiseaseDrugs1st Choice2nd Choice1) Candidiasisoral/vaginal / cutameous deep / invasive AMB/VORIAMB/VORIHRFLU/CAS/POSA2. CryptococcosisAMB/+-5-FCFLU3. HistoplasmosisITR/AMBFLU4. CoccidioidomycosisAMB/FLUITR.'KTZ5. BlastomycosisITR/AMBKTZ/FLU6. Sporotrichosis (disseminated)AMBHR7. ParacoccidioidomycosisHRAMB8. AspergillosisVORI/AMBITRCAS/POSA9. MucomycosisAMBPOSA10. ChromomycosisHRTERPOSA AMB - Amphotericin B;ITR - Itraconazole;CAS - Caspogungin;5-FC-Flucvtosine;NYS-Nystatin;POSA- Posaconazole;KTZ - Ketoconazote;CLO - Clotrimazole;TER - TerbinafineFLU - Fluconazole;Vori - Voriconazole; | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cardiac conduction defect seen with Tricyclic antidepressants are due to ? | [
"NE & serotonin uptake inhibitor",
"Antimuscarinic action on hea",
"Only NE uptake inhibition",
"Both NE uptake inhibition and antimuscarinic action on hea"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Both NE uptake inhibition and antimuscarinic action on hea The commonest cardiovascular effect of tricyclic antidepressant overdose is sinus tachycardia. Due to inhibition of norepincphrine reuptake and the anticholinergic action. However, the most impoant toxic effect of tricyclics is the slowing of depolarisation of the cardiac action potential by inhibition of the sodium current and this delays propagation of depolarisation through both myocardium and conducting tissue. This results in prolongation of the QRS complex and the PR/QT intervals with a predisposition to cardiac arrhythmias. This inhibition of sodium flux into myocardial cells can occur to such an extent that depressed contractility can result and this, coupled with the reduction in peripheral resistance, contributes to hypotension. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A soft contact lens wearer developed pain and itching of the eye and showed a reticular pattern on the corneal epithelium. The cause could be – | [
"Corneal dystrophy",
"Acanthamoeba",
"Pseudomonas",
"Virus"
] | B | Reticular patter of keratitis in a contact lens wearer is seen in Acanthamoeba.
Initially the Acanthamoeba keratitis shows typical reticular pattern due to radial keratoneuritis (Radial perineuritis), i.e. inflitrates along corneal nerves.
Due to this, the pain is very severe (neurological due to perineuritis) which is out of proportion to the degree of inflammation.
Later, reticular superficial keratitis advanced to ring-shaped lesion in central or paracentral region. | train | med_mcqa | null |
On mammogram, all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except: | [
"Spiculation",
"Microcalcification",
"Macrocalcification",
"Irregular mass"
] | C | Ans. C...MACROCALCIFICATION is seen in fibroadenomaAlso know Distinguishing features between benign and malignant lesions on mammogram Benign Malignant Opacity Smooth margin Ill defined margin, Irregular stellate, spiculated margin, comet tail Low density High density Homogeneous In homogeneous Thin halo wide halo Calcification Macrocalcification (> 5mm in diameter) Microcalcification (< 5 mm in diameter) Breast Parenchyma Normal Architectural distortion Nipple/areola +- Retracted +- Retracted Skin Normal thickened Cooper ligaments Normal thickened, increase number Ducts Normal focal dilatation Subcutaneous retro mammary space Normal obliterated Calcifications are the most common finding on mammogram. Most of these are benign calcification. * The calcification patterns which are associated with high probability of malignancy are: Clustered pleomorphic heterogenous microcalcifications these are small, usually less than 0.5 mm in diameter vary in size, shape and density often termed granular calcifications. Fine linear or fine branching calcifications these calcifications are often seen in comedocarcinoma * Architectural distortion the structures of the breast are normally directed towards the nipple. Disturbances in this normal orientation of tissue towards the nipple, especially the tethering or pulling in of structures to a point away from the nipple, is termed architectural distortion. architectural distortion is highly suspicious for breast carcinoma, although benign conditions such as radial scar, surgical scar, fat necrosis can have this appearance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice of hypeension in pregnancy is ? | [
"Methyldopa",
"Thiazide",
"Nifedipine",
"Labetalol"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methylopa o Methyldopa is DOC for hypeension in pregnancy. o Nifedipine is 2nd choice. o Hydralazine is DOC for hypeensive emergencies in pregnancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The lymphatic drainage of the glans penis is | [
"Superficial inguinal lymph nodes",
"Deep inguinal lymph nodes",
"Para-aoic lymph nodes",
"internal iliac lymph nodes"
] | B | B i.e. Deep inguinal lymph nodes | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hr. Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case? | [
"Nutritional rickets",
"Renal rickets",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Skeletal dysplasia"
] | C | The patient in question has an increased serum Ca++, decreased serum phosphorus and increased values of alkaline phosphatase, suggests hyperparathyroidism. Ref: Clinical Proceedings - Children's Hospital of The District of Columbia, Volume 14 ; Nutrition and Diagnosis-Related Care By Syl Escott-Stump - 2008, Page 193 ; Avery's Diseases of The Newborn BY H. William Taeusch, Robea A. Ballard, Christine A. Gleason - 2005, Page 1359 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 34-day-old baby presented with increased respiratory effo along with grunting. The infant is always irritable, feeds very poorly and has not been able to gain weight. History of frequent recurrent pneumonia requiring hospitalization. O/E:- Wide pulse pressure Bounding peripheral pulses Hyperkinetic apex Continuous thrill in 2nd left intercostal space Continuous murmur localized to the 2nd left intercostal space and radiating down the left sternal border. ECG CHEST - XRAY Which of the following concomitant findings is most likely to be present in the above child: - | [
"Nuclear cataract",
"Limb Hypoplasias",
"Optic atrophy",
"Periventricular calcifications."
] | A | This is a case of PDA, which is most commonly seen in the setting of congenital rubella syndrome. Limb Hypoplasias and optic atrophy -Congenital varicella syndrome. Periventricular calcifications - Congenital CMV infection Chest x-ray shows marked cardiomegaly with dilatation of the main pulmonary aery and bilateral pulmonary plethora ECG tells LA dilatation, LV hyperophy and left axis detion which points towards the diagnosis of PDA. Congenital rubella syndrome Cataract SNHL Cardiac defects (PDA) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group? | [
"Procaine",
"Buovacaine",
"Lignocaine",
"Mepivacaine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Moist heat kills all of the following except- | [
"Brucella",
"Mycobacteria",
"Salmonella",
"Coxiella burnetti"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following enzymes stimulate the production of cAMP? | [
"Acetylcholine",
"Angiotensin II",
"Somatostatin",
"Calcitonin"
] | D | Cyclic AMP was the first intracellular second messenger signal identified in mammalian cells. Different peptide hormones can either stimulate (s) or inhibit (i) the production of cAMP from adenylyl cyclase, which is encoded by at least nine different genes. Hormones that Inhibit Adenylyl Cyclase (HI) and the production of cAMP: Acetylcholine Alpha 2-Adrenergics Angiotensin II Somatostatin Hormones that stimulate Adenylyl Cyclase (HI) and the production of cAMP: Acetylcholine ADH Beta -Adrenergics Calcitonin CRH FSH Glucagon hCG LH LPH MSH PTH TSH Ref: Weil P. (2011). Chapter 42. Hormone Action & Signal Transduction. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dysphoria is mediated by which opioid receptor: | [
"Mu",
"Kappa",
"Delta",
"None"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the most probable diagnosis for on the x-ray of a 20 year old female who came with knee swelling | [
"Osteosarcoma",
"Osteoclastoma",
"Osteochondroma",
"None of the above"
] | A | Sunburst appearance of Osteosarcoma Sunburst appearance is a type of periosteal reaction giving the appearance of a sunburst secondary to an aggressive The sunburst appearance occurs when the lesion grows too fast and the periosteum does not have enough time to lay down a new layer and instead the It is frequently associated with or osteoblastic metastases Ref: Maheshwari 6e pg 239. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Exotropia occurs due to | [
"Third nerve palsy",
"Optic neuritis",
"Abducens injury",
"Papilloedema"
] | A | Answer- A. Third nerve palsyCauses and associations ofexotropia (Divegent squint)Third nerve palsyCongenitalPrevious strabismus surgeryThyroidophthalmopathyIatrogenic trauma following retinal detachment surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
A solitary bone cyst is most common in the - | [
"Upper end of humerus",
"Lower end of humerus",
"Upper end of fibula",
"Lower end of femur"
] | A | Simple bone cysts commonly occurs at metaphysis of long bones.
Most common site is proximal humerus (55%), followed by proximal femur (26%). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crumpled tissue paper appearance of cytoplasm in bone marrow examination is seen due to accumulation of which of the following inside the cell? | [
"Cerebroside",
"Ganglioside accumulation",
"Sphingomyelin",
"Glucocerebroside"
] | D | Crumpled tissue paper appearance of cytoplasm in Gaucher cells. It is seen in Gaucher disease. It is due to accumulation of Glucocerebroside inside cell. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Management of typical febrile seizures include all the following except: | [
"Tepid sponging",
"Paracetamol and ibuprofen",
"Intermittent diazepam",
"Prophylactic phenobarbitone."
] | D | Ref: Current paediatrics diagnosis and treatment 18th/722,726 Prohylactic phenobarbitone is indicated for atypical febrile seizures only. | train | med_mcqa | null |
MC Occupational cancer is:- | [
"Lung cancer",
"Skin cancer",
"Bladder cancer",
"Leukemias"
] | B | M/C occupational cancer is skin cancer.(75%) Occupational cancers; Asbestos - Mesothelioma Arsenic - Ca of lung, liver & skin Benzene - leukemias N2, Aniline - Bladder Ca Ra, si ,Be, cd - Lung caner Cr, Nickle, wood dust - Nasal cancer PVC - Angiosarcoma of liver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following diseases CANNOT be eradicated | [
"Leprosy",
"Tuberculosis",
"Measles",
"Pertussis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 48 year old lady presented with hepatosplenomegaly with pancytopenia. On microscopic examination of bone marrow cells, crumpled tissue paper appearance is seen. Which is the product likely to have accumulated? | [
"Glucocerebroside",
"Sphingomyelin",
"Sulfatide",
"Ganglioside"
] | A | Crumpled tissue paper appearance of cytoplasm + organomegaly and pancytopenia suggests storage disorder Lysosomal storage of glucocerebroside (Gaucher disease) in cells of the monocyte-macrophage system leads to a characteristic cellular alteration of these cells Gaucher cells- present in the bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, hepatic sinusoids, and other organs and tissues in all forms of GD. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gamma globulin are synthesized in ? | [
"Liver",
"Spleen",
"Kidney",
"Plasma cells"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Plasma cellsLiver synthesizes most of the proteins of body except immunoglobulins (gamma globulins), which are synthesized by plasma cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Staining technique for cryptosporodium: September 2012 | [
"Indian ink",
"Modified acid fast",
"Giemsa",
"Methylene blue"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Modified acid fast Staining of cryptosporidium Traditional parasitology stains (e.g., Giemsa) are of limited value. They do not differentiate between oocysts and similarly-sized fecal yeasts (the main differential diagnosis of Cryptosporidium in microscopy) and other debris. Modified acid-fast staining technique is a simple and effective method: the oocysts stain bright red against a background of blue-green fecal debris and yeasts. The acid-fast staining technique has been modified and improved, including: hot and cold modified acid-fast stains; incorporation of dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO); and incorporation of the detergent tergitol. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old man notes a family history of colon carcinoma. He asks his physician how best to reduce his risk of developing this type of cancer. Which of the following dietary practices should he be advised to follow each day? | [
"Consume more beef",
"Drink a glass of red wine",
"Eat more vegetables",
"Have a bowl of ice cream"
] | C | More fruits and vegetables are recommended in the diet to help prevent colon cancer. Vitamins C and E have an antioxidant and antimutagenic effect. Red wine in moderation may have a beneficial antiatherogenic effect. Ice cream can include animal fat that may promote cancer, as would the animal fat of beef. Chocolate includes vegetable fat, which is not as harmful as animal fat, and persons consuming chocolate perform at a higher level. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Risk factors associated with development of Gou include all of the following, Except : | [
"Female sex",
"Alcohol",
"Hyperlipidemia",
"Hypeension"
] | A | Answer is A (Female Sex): Male sex is a risk factor for development of gout. Gout is more widespread in men than women. Women represent only 5-20 percent of patients with gout. Women are seldom affected until after menopause. Premenopausal gout is rare due to uricosuric effect of estrogen Non-modifiable and modifiable risk factors for gout Non modifiable risk factors Modifiable risk factors Age (Increasing age) Hyperuricemia Gender (Male) Obesity Race Hypeension Ethnicity Hyperlipidemia Ischemic cardiovascular disease Diabetes mellitus Chronic kidney disease Dietary factors Medications that alter urate balance | train | med_mcqa | null |
During retinoscopy of a 30 years old male, which cycloplegic is used routinely | [
"Atropine 1% ointment",
"Cyclopentolate 1% drop",
"Homatropine 2% drop",
"None of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above There is no need for cycloplegia as a routine in adults (20-40 years). Cvcloplegic in retinoscopy Cycloplegics are drugs which cause paralysis of ciliary muscles (accommodation) and dilatation of pupil. Theuse of cycloplegics is useful in refraction and there are ceain situations where they are indicated. Because of their strong accommodative reserve, very young people (< 16 years) should always be refracted after the use of cyclopleagics : - < 5 years of age : - Atropine 1% ointment is the drug of choice. 15 - 20 years : - Homatropine (2% drop), cyclopentolate (1% drop) or tropicamide (5%, 10% drop) are used. Atropine must be used if the patient has a convergent squint or has high hypermetropia. There is no need for cycloplegia as a routine in adults (20-40 years). However cycloplegics are indicated in following situations : - Accommodation is abnormally active (e.g., spasm of accommodation). Objective findings by retinoscopy do not agree with the patient's subjective requirement. Symptoms of accommodative asthenopia are present. If the pupil is small. If the patient is above 40 years, cycloplegia is rarely necessary. Only mydriatic (10% phenylephrine) may be needed when the pupil is narrow or media is slightly hazy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trapezius is attached to all structures EXCEPT: | [
"First rib",
"Clavicle",
"Scapula",
"Occiput"
] | A | Origin: Occipital bone, ligamentum nuchae, spinous processes of seventh cervical and all thoracic veebrae Inseion: Clavicle, acromion, spine of scapula | train | med_mcqa | null |
Continuous murmur is seen in all the following
except- | [
"Coarctation of Aorta",
"Aortic sinus of valsalva rupture",
"AV malforniations",
"Peripheral pulmonary stenosis"
] | B | A continuous murmur is predicated on
a pressure gradient that persists between
two cardiac chambers or blood vessels
across systole and diastole. The murmurs
typically begin in systole, envelop the
second heart sound (S 2 ), and continue
through some portion of diastole. They
can often be difficult to distinguish from
individual systolic and diastolic murmurs
in patients with mixed valvular heart disease.
The classic example of a continuous
murmur is that associated with a patent
ductus arteriosus, which usually is heard
in the second or third interspace at a slight
distance from the sternal border. Other
causes of a continuous murmur include
a ruptured sinus of Valsalva aneurysm
with creation of an aortic–right atrial
or right ventricular fistula, a coronary
or great vessel arteriovenous fistula, and
an arteriovenous fistula constructed to
provide dialysis access. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which beta 2 agonist is not given for acute bronchial asthma | [
"Salbutamol",
"Terbutaline",
"Salmeterol",
"Methyl xanthine"
] | C | Long acting beta 2 agonists (Formoterol, Salmeterol, Arformoterol, Carmoterol) should not be used in case of acute asthma as monotherapy (increased mortality). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most non polar Amino Acid is | [
"Leucine",
"Glycine",
"Arginine",
"Lysine"
] | A | Non-polar amino acids are very much less polar than polar amino acids.
Among the given options, only leucine is non-polar. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumour marker of endodermal sinus tumour of ovary : | [
"a feto proteins",
"CA 125",
"HCG",
"CEA"
] | A | a feto proteins | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti-tubercular drug contraindicated during Pregnancy is:- | [
"Isoniazid",
"Rifampicin",
"Streptomycin",
"Ethambutol"
] | C | - Streptomycin- It is ototoxic to the fetus and should not be used during pregnancy. - With the exception of streptomycin, the first line anti-TB drugs are safe for use in pregnancy. - Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) should be added to the drug treatmentoftuberculosisin allpregnantwomen taking isoniazid. - Pregnancy with TB: Sta ATT immediately irrespective of time of pregnancy / delivery - 2 months + 7 months - total 9 months. MDR-TB : Do MTP & then sta ATT; If MTP can't be done, sta ATT without kanamycin & ethionamide substituted with PAS till delivery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding common bile duct is all EXCEPT: | [
"Opens 10 cm distal to the pylorus",
"Lies anterior to IVC",
"Poal vein lies posterior to it",
"Usually opens into duodenum separate from the main pancreatic duct"
] | D | Common bile duct joins the pancreatic duct to form hepatopancreatic duct which opens into 2nd pa of duodenum( 10 cm distal to the pylorus) at major duodenal papilla. The hepatic duct lies in front and to the right, the hepatic aery to the left, and the poal vein behind and between the duct and aery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The deficit in weight for height in a 3-year-old child indicates – | [
"Acute malnutrition",
"Chronic malnutrition",
"Concomittant acute and chronic",
"Under weight"
] | A | SURVEILLANCE OF GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
Surveillance of growth and development is an important component of the routine anticipatory care of children.
The main purpose of growth surveillance is to identify those children who are not growing normally. Surveillance for physical growth can be done in the following ways.
1) Weight for age
Measurement of weight and rate of gain in weight are the best single parameters for assessing physical growth. The weight should be carefully repeated at intervals:
Birth -1 year → Monthly
The second-year → Every two months
2-5 years → Every 3 months
These measurements when compared with the reference standards of the weight of children of the same age, the trend of growth becomes obvious.
Weight for age can be used to classify malnutrition and determine its prevalence.
80 % of the median weight for age of the reference is cut off point below which children should be considered malnourished.
2) Weight for age
Height is a stable measurement of growth as opposed to body weight.
Whereas weight reflects only the present health status of the child, height indicates the events in the past also.
Low height for age :
This is also known as nutritional stunting or dwarfing.
It reflects past or chronic malnutrition.
The cutoff point commonly taken for the diagnosis of stunting is 90 percent of the united states NCHS height for age.
3) Weight for height
Weight in relation to height is now considered more important than weight alone.
It helps to determine whether a child is within range of normal weight for his height.
Low weight for height
This is also known as nutritional wasting or emaciation (Acute malnutrition).
It is associated with an increased risk of mortality and morbidity.
A child who is less than 70% of the expected weight for height is classed as severely wasted.
4) Head and chest circumference
Chest circumference
At birth → Less than 2 cm from head circumference
6-9 months →Two measurements become equal
> 6-9 months → Overtakes head circumference
In severely malnourished children this overtaking may be delayed by 3 to 4 years. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for ? | [
"Varicose veins",
"Aeriovenous fistulae",
"Aneurysm",
"Acute ischemia"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Aneurysm The Hunterian Ligature operation is one of the many ligature operations performed for aneurysms, but ligature operations are becoming obsolete now. Other ligature methods are : a) Anel's method c) Wardrop's method b) Brasdor's method d) Antylus' method | train | med_mcqa | null |
A complete denture patient is having difficulty in swallowing is due to | [
"Increased interocclusal space",
"Decreased interocclusal space",
"Decreased vertical dimension",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The given CXR shows the presence of: | [
"Hydro-pneumothorax",
"Pleural effusion",
"Lung abscess",
"Collapse"
] | A | Hydro-pneumothorax - On Erect chest radiography, it shows an air-fluid level. On Supine radiography, sharp pleural line is bordered by increased opacity lateral to it within the pleural space. Pleural effusion :- Blunting of CP angle and presence of Meniscus sign. Lung collapse :- lung appears to be collapsed to one side | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dean's technique refers to a form of | [
"Radicular surgery",
"Cyst removal",
"Intraseptal alveoplasty",
"Mucoperiosteal flap"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer? | [
"131I",
"99mTc",
"32p",
"311–mIBG"
] | A | The differentiated thyroid cancer and even the metastatic burden can be effectively controlled by I131 therapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Comedones are seen in- | [
"Acne vulgaris",
"Lichen Planus",
"Adenoma sebaceum",
"Pityriasis"
] | A | Acne causes polymorphous cutaneous lesions such as comedones, papules, pustules, pseudocysts and abscesses which may leave scarring.comedones are the characteristic of acne vulgaris. Reference Harrison20th edition pg 1204 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypercalcemia is caused by all except: | [
"Thyrotoxicosis",
"Vit. D intoxication",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Furosemide"
] | D | Answer is D (Furosemide): Thiazide diuretics cause hypercalcemia while loop diuretics (furosemide) cause hypocalcemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is characteristically associated with hypocalcemia and not hypercalcemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for ADHD is | [
"Methylphenidate",
"Modafinil",
"Amitriptyline",
"Adrenaline"
] | A | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Successful treatment of a Zenker diveiculum involves? | [
"Diveiculopexy",
"Resection of the diveiculum",
"Either diveiculopexy or resection with cricopharyngeal myotomy",
"Observation"
] | C | Treatment of Choice -Cricopharyngeal Myotomy + Diveiculoplexy (most common among elderly, diabetics for which Diveiculoplexy is a safer procedure) Other alternative procedures: - -Diveiculectomy (for larger diveicula's > 4cm) - Diveiculo-esophagostomy (aka Dohlman procedure) -performed endoscopically. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mean bone density amongst two groups of 50 people each is compared with each other. The test of significance used would be: | [
"Paired-t-test",
"Student t-test",
"Analysis of variance",
"Chi-Square test"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Student t-test Let's first revise the various statistical tests:Chi-Square test:Chi-square test is used for qualitative data; data in which there is no notion of magnitude or size of the attribute.The data are classified by counting the individuals having the same characteristic or attribute (i.e. persons with the same characteristic are counted to form two groups such as vaccinated or not vaccinated, cured or not cured, on drug or not on drug, taken iron supplements or not taken iron supplements)The data is in the form of proportions.Student t-testIs used for Quantitative data i.e. the data has a magnitude and is normally distributed in the population (i.e. continuous data) e.g. each individual has one measurement from a continuous spectrum or range such as body temperature, height, weight, blood pressure, mean bone density etc.Student t-test is of three types:Student t-test for single small sampleStudent t-test for independent samples (also k/a unpaired test)Student t-test for paired sample (paired t - test)Paired t - testIt compares the means of two paired samples (when two readings, are taken from a same group, before and after an intervention)Analysis of variance (ANOVA)It is used for same datas as the t-testWhereas t-test is appropriate for making just one comparison (between two sample means, or between a sample mean and hypothesized population mean), ANOVA is used when more than one comparison is to be made (when means of more than two groups are being compared).In the question since the attribute (mean bone density) is a quantitative data and we have only two samples the test of significance used would be student t-test | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 year old lady comes to your OPD. What is the most probable diagnosis ? | [
"Aoic Stenosis",
"Aoic Regurgitation",
"Mitral Regurgitation",
"Mitral Stenosis"
] | D | The above image shows Mitral facies which are seen in Mitral stenosis. Mitral stenosis may present with rosy cheeks, whilst the rest of the face has a bluish tinge due to cyanosis. In severe Mitral stenosis low cardiac output state produces vasoconstriction, peripheral cyanosis is often seen in lips, tip of nose and cheeks. Occasionally along with these, malar flush is seen due to vasodilation (vascular stasis) in malar area. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug not given sublingually is: | [
"Isosorbide dinitrate",
"Buprenorphine",
"Ergotamine tartrate",
"Isosorbide-5-mononitrate"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) ISOSORBIDE-5MONONITRATEREF: KDT 6th edition page 7, Pharmacology and Pharmacotherapeutics (New Revised 21 St Ed.) Page 9"Isosorbide-5-mononitrate and Isosorbide-2-mononitrate are two active metabolites of Isosorbide dinitrate which are not given sublingually unlike isosorbide dinitrate"Sublingual administration has certain advantages over oral administration. Being more direct, it is often faster, and it ensures that the substance will risk degradation only by salivary enzymes before entering the bloodstream, whereas orally administered drugs must survive passage through the hostile environment of the gastrointestinal tract, which risks degrading them, either by stomach acid or bile, or by the many enzymesDrugs given sublingually are:Psychoactive substance like Salvinorin A, LSD, MDMA, morphine, alprazolam, clonazepam, diazepam.Buprenorphine (0.4-0.8 mg) produces satisfactory analgesia in postoperative patientsNitroglycerin is a lipid-soluble substance that is rapidly absorbed across the sublingual or buccal mucosa.Isosorbide dinitrate and pentaerythritol tetranitrate also can be administered sublingually or buccally.Methyl testosteroneErgotamine tartrateNefidipineDomperidoneOndansetronDesamino-oxytocin | train | med_mcqa | null |
The hormone involved in the regulation of blood pressure is | [
"Serotonin",
"Histamine",
"Angiotensin",
"Prostaglandin"
] | C | The hormone involved in the regulation of blood pressure is Angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that increases the total peripheral resistance and decreases Na+ and H2O excretion by kidney, thereby causing an increase in aerial BP. Humoral Regulation of BP Ref: Ganong Medical Physiology 26th edition PGno: 586 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ossification centre appearing just before bih is: March 2013 | [
"Lower end of femur",
"Lower end of tibia",
"Upper end of humerus",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Lower end of femur | train | med_mcqa | null |
Food poisoning with incubation period less than 6 hours is due to - | [
"V. Cholerae",
"Bacillus cereus",
"Clostridium prefringens",
"Salmonella"
] | B | Bacillus cereus produces at least 2 distinct enterotoxins, causing two distinct form of food poisoning. Emetic form : incubation period - 1-6 hrs Diarrhoeal form: incubation period - 12-24 hrs V.chloerae - incubation period - commonly 1-2 days Clostridium perfringens -incubation period - 6-24 hrs Salmonella - incubation period - 12-24 hrs Ref: PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition , Page 239 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ovulation coincides with: | [
"High estrogen & high progesterone",
"LH surge",
"Low estrogen & high progesterone",
"Progesterone peak"
] | B | LH surge | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total thyroidectomy done for a female . Following the surgery she developed stridor and dyspnea. The possible cause is: | [
"Bilateral superior laryngeal nerve injury",
"Unilateral superior laryngeal nerve injury",
"Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury",
"Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury"
] | C | Ans. (c) Bilateral Recurrent Laryngeal nerve InjuryRef: Bailey and Love 26th edition, page 761* Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury results in hoarseness* Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury results in Stridor | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not an opportunisitic infection in AIDS? | [
"Crytococcus",
"Aspergillosis",
"Dermatophyte",
"P. Jiroveci"
] | C | Ans. (c) Dermatophyte | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cause of Coxa vera ? | [
"Congenital",
"Pehe's disease",
"SCFE",
"All of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Coxa vera Coxa vera refers to reduced angle between the neck and shaft of the femur. Coxa vera may be congenital or acquired. 1. Congenital (developmental / Infantile) coxa vera This is coxa vara resulting from some unknown growth anomaly at the upper femoral epiphysis. It is noticed as a painless limp in a child who has just staed walking. In severe cases, shoening of the leg may be obvious. On examination, abduction and internal rotation of the hip are limited and the leg is sho. X - rays will show a reduction in neck - shaft angle. The epiphyseal plate may be too veical. There may be a separate triangle of bone in the inferior poion of the metaphysis, called Fairbank's triangle. Treatment is by a subtrochanteric corrective osteotomy. 2. Aquired coxa - vera Aquired coxa-vera is seen in :- SCFE (slipped capital femoral epiphysis) Sequelae of avascular necrosis of femoral epiphysis Legg-Calve Pehe's disease Femoral neck fracture Traumatic hip dislocation Post reduction of CDH Septic necrosis Associated with pathological bone disorders Osteogenesis imperfecta Fibrous dysplasia Osteopetrosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The use of highly active anti-retroviral therapy is associated with the development of:- | [
"Keratitis",
"Uveitis",
"Retinitis",
"Optic neuritis"
] | B | HAA is given in AIDS patients, and has proved to be very effective in decreasing the viraemia and improving the CD count. Incidence of CMV retinitis is markedly decreased in such patients. But due to the improvement in the immunity, the patient stas developing uveitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fusion of two adjacent teeth by their cementum is called as | [
"Fusion",
"Gemination",
"Concrescence",
"None of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radiofrequency ablation is done for: | [
"Ventricular tachycardia",
"PSVT",
"WPW",
"Atrial tachychardia"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' WPW syndrome For W.P.W. syndrome the treatment of choice is Radiofrequency ablation.Radiofrequency ablation is also the treatment of choice for:A. V. nodal reentrant supraventricular tachycardiaTypical atrial flutterPoorly controlled ventricular responses to atrial arrhythmias, most commonly AF | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of acute intestinal obstruction is ? | [
"Adhesions",
"Volvulus",
"Inguinal hernias",
"Internal hernias"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adhesion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Waste in yellow plastic bags are treated by | [
"Incineration",
"Autoclaving",
"Microwaving",
"Shredding"
] | A | Waste such as anatomical waste , solid waste,soiled waste , chemical waste is collected in yellow coloured bag and treated and disposed by incineration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal CD4:CD8 ratio is | [
"3:01",
"2:01",
"1:02",
"1:03"
] | B | Ans. b (2:1) (Ref. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 16th ed., 2019)CD4/CD8 Ratio# The ratio of 2:1 found in normal tissues.# In HIV infection the CD4 count is often decreased and the CD8 count increased so the ratio might 'invert', that is become less than 1.AIDS Diagnosis:* < 200 CD4 count,* HIV Positive with Aids indicator conditions (E.g., PCP),or* CD4/CD8 ratio < 1.5.# Lymphopenia predominantly due to selective loss of the CD4+ helper-inducer T-cell subset; inversion of CD4:CD8 ratio.CD4 Cell# Also known as "T4" or "helper T cell," the CD4 cell is the primary target of HIV.# It performs critical functions such as signaling other parts of the immune system to respond to an infection.# There are two main types of T-cells.- T4 cells, also called CD4+, are "helper" cells.* They lead the attack against infections.- T8 cells (CD8+) are "suppressor" cells that end the immune response.* CD8+ cells can also be "killer" cells that kill cancer cells and cells infected with a virus.# Treatment decisions are often based on viral load and CD4 count.# Normal counts range from 500 to 1500. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Game Keeper's thumb is injury to ? | [
"Ulnar collateral ligament injury of MCP Joint",
"Radial collateral ligament injury of MCP joint",
"Radial collateral ligament injury of CMC joint",
"Ulnar collateral ligament injury of CMC joint"
] | A | GAMEKEEPER&;S THUMB/SKIER&;S THUMB The ulnar collateral ligament inses paly inyo the palmar plate. In PAIAL RUPTURE,only the ligament proper is torn and the thumb is unstable in flexion.Here the palmar plate is intact. In COMPLETE RUPTURE,both the ligament proper and the palmar plate are torn and the thumb is unstable in all positions. C/F:Tenderness and swelling precisely over the ulnar side of the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint. X-ray is essential,to exclude a fracture berfore carrying out any stress tests. TREATMENT: Paial tears can be treated by a sho period (2-4weeks)of immobilisation in a splint followed by icreasing movement. Complete tears need operative repair.Post operatively,the joint is immobilized in a thumb slint for 6 weeks,but can be moved early in the flexion-extension phase. Ref: Maheshwari and Mhaskar 9th ed pg 122 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Breast conservation surgery for breast cancer is indicated in one of the following conditions: | [
"T1 breast tumor",
"Multicentric tumor",
"Extensive in situ cancer",
"T4b breast tumor"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. breast tumour & V Extensive in situ cancer It's quite sure that for Multicentric tumor and T4b breast tumor conservative surgery is not indicated.Multicentricity means occurrence of a second breast cancer outside the breast quadrant of the primary cancer (cf: Multifocality refers to the occurrence of a second cancer within vicinity or in the same breast quadrant as the primary cancer)T4b Breast tumor implies - tumor of any size with skin involvement (cf: T4a implies tumors of any size with chest involvement) Both T4a & T4b are relative contraindication for Breast Conservative SurgerySo we are left with two optionsT1 breast tumor and Extensive in situ cancerT1 breast tumour (means tumor <2 cm in size)BCT is done in T1 tumors (unless some contraindications are present)Extensive in situ cancer Here the examiner is talking about extensive intraductal component - EIC'EIC is a pattern of DC1S that is seen associated with invasive carcinoma.The above mentioned book writes - "At our institution EIC positive tumors are defined as invasive carcinomas that show the simultaneous presence of prominent DCIS within the tumor (usually comprising 25% or more of the area of the tumor) and DCIS beyond the edges of the invasive tumor. Also included among EIC positive cases are tumors that are predominantly DCIS with one or more foci of microinvasion.The significance of EIC positive tumors is that in these tumors the intraductal involvement is more extensive than can be appreciated clinically or at the time of surgery. Therefore EIC positive patients who undergo a limited resection of the clinically evident- tumor frequently have considerable residual DCIS in the vicinity of the tumor site. This earlier led to increased recurrence in EIC positive tumors managed by BCT.But, now these tumors are not a contraindication for BCT, provided that microscopically negative margins can be obtained (Ref: Washington Manual of Surgery 4th/e, p 533). More careful mammographic & pathological evaluation are necessary on EIC positive tumors to define the extent of the lesion and to determine the adequacy of excision.But if one answer is to be chosen, it would be option (a) i.e. T1 breast tumor.For complete management of Breast carcinoma Refer to Chapter- "Breast" in our 'Surgery for PGMEE' | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumor associated with polycythemia vera is - | [
"Sarcoma",
"Pitutary adenoma",
"Cerebellar haemangioblastoma",
"None of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lowest incidence of cerebral tumours is seen in ? | [
"Occipital",
"Frontal",
"Temporal",
"Parietal"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Occipital | train | med_mcqa | null |
The free gingival graft is placed on: | [
"On the periosteum",
"Bone",
"Gingiva",
"Periodontal pocket"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Discharge from Baroreceptors causes inhibition of | [
"Caudal Ventrolateral Medulla",
"Rostral Ventrolateral Medulla",
"Nucleus ambiguous",
"Nucleus tractus solitarus"
] | B | B i.e. Rostral Ventrolateral Medulla | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug used in CHF for relief of congestive symptoms and restoration of cardiac performance but does not have an inotropic action is - | [
"Digoxin",
"Dobutamine",
"Amrinone",
"Nebivolol"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Nebivolol * There are two distinct goals of drug therapy in CHF:a) Relief of congestive/low output symptoms and restoration of cardiac performance. This can be achieved by:* Inotropic drugs --Digoxin, dobutamine/ dopamine, amrinone/milrinone* Diuretics--Furosemide, thiazides* RAS inhibitors--ACE inhibitors/ARBs* Vasodilators--hydralazine, nitrate, nitroprusside* b blocker--Metoprolol, bisoprolol, carvedilol, Nebivololb) Arrest/reversal of disease progression and prolongation of survival, possible with:* ACE inhibitors/ ARBs, b blockers* Aldosterone antagonist--Spironolactone, eplerenone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crypta magna is seen in: | [
"Nasopharyngeal tonsil",
"Tubal tonsil",
"Palatine tonsil",
"Lingual tonsil"
] | C | The medial surface of palatine tonsils is covered by non keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium which dips into the substance of tonsil in the form of crypts. One of these crypts is very large and deep and is called crypta magna or intratonsillar deft. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements regarding the treatment modalities of PID is true? | [
"Cefotetan 2g IV BD + Doxycycline 100 mg Oral BD",
"Remove IUD irrespective of antibiotic response",
"Treatment od paner not necessary",
"All of the above"
] | A | True statement regarding the treatment modalities of PID is Cefotetan 2g IV BD + Doxycycline 100 mg Oral BD. Treatment modalities: Medical treatment, antimicrobial Minimal invasive surgery Major surgery Management: Rest Intravenous fluids in the presence of dehydration or vomiting and correction of electrolyte imbalance Analgesics, once the diganosis is confirmed Antibiotics- Because of the damaging effect of gonococci and Chlamydia on the fallopian tubes and poly microbial nature of infection, it is mandatory to institute antibiotic therapy at the earliest and not wait for the culture results. First-line therapies: Cefoxitin (2 gm intravenously every 6 hours) or cefotetan (2gm IV every 12 hours) plus doxycycline (100mg orally every 12 hours) Because of the pain associated with intravenous infusion, doxycycline should be administered orally when possible. Oral and IV administration of doxycycline provide similar bioavailability. Placentrex (aqeous extract of thr fresh placenta) 1 ml intramuscularly daily or alternate days (total of 10 injections) has multipronged anti-inflammatory action. It also causes tissue regeneration, wound healing, and has significant immunotropic action involving both humoral and cellular immunity however it is outdated and not used currently. Paner should be investigated and treated There is no need to remove IUCD if the woman responds to antibiotics; failed response calls for its removal. Percutaneous abscess drainage (PAD) under CT/Ultrasound guidance of abdominal mass and pyoperitoneum yields 50% success and reduces the need for major surgery, with its associated moality and morbidity. Ref: Shaw&;s textbook of Gynaecology 17th edition Pgno:344 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intermittent dysphagia is caused by -a) Strictureb) Reflux esophagitisc) Achalasia cardiad) Pharyngeal diverticulme) Diffuse esophageal spasm | [
"ab",
"bc",
"cd",
"de"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following leukodystrophy is characterized by the inability to properly catabolize very-long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA) within peroxisomes and with elevated levels of VLCFA in serum: | [
"Ortho leukodystrophy",
"Metachromatic leukodystrophy",
"Adrenoleukodystropy",
"Krabbe disease"
] | C | (C) Adrenoleukodystropy # ADRENOLEUKODYSTROPHY This disorder, which has several clinically and genetically distinct forms, is a progressive disease with symptoms referable to myelin loss from the CNS and peripheral nerves as well as adrenal insufficiency. In general, forms with earlier onset have a more rapid course. The X-linked form usually presents in the early school years with neurologic symptoms and adrenal insufficiency and is rapidly progressive and fatal. In individuals with later onset the course is more protracted; when it develops in adults it is usually a slowly progressive disorder with predominantly peripheral nerve involvement developing over a period of decades. The disease is associated with mutations in the ALD gene on chromosome Xq28, which encodes a member of the ATP- binding cassette transporter family of proteins, ABCD1. However, there is little correlation between clinical course and the underlying mutations. The disease is characterized by the inability to properly catabolize very-long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) within peroxisomes, with elevated levels of VLCFAs in serum. There is loss of myelin, accompanied by gliosis and extensive lymphocytic infiltration. Atrophy of the adrenal cortex is present, and VLCFA accumulation can be seen in remaining cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
NOT a small vessel vasculitis among the following | [
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Churg Strauss Syndrome",
"Takayasu's arteritis",
"Microscopic polyangitis"
] | C | (C) Takayasu's arteritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
what is likely diagnosis of following CXR? | [
"TOF",
"TAPVC",
"VSD",
"ASD"
] | A | Tetralogy of fallot Commonest cyanotic congenital hea disease in children above the age of two years constituting almost 75 % of all blue patients. Four constituents of tetra logy as described originally by Fallot consist of :- * 1. Ventricular septa! defect (VSD) # 2. Pulmonic stenosis # 3. overriding or dextroposed aoa, and # 4. Right ventricular hyperophy REF : HARRISONS 21ST ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disease rate is - | [
"Risk of susceptibility",
"Usually expressed a percentage",
"Time period in a calendar year",
"Disease occurrence in a specified time period"
] | D | Disease rate is a measure of incidence or occurrence of disease in a population.
In other words, it is synonymous for incidence rate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Effect of aging on myocardium include all, EXCEPT: | [
"Decreased mass",
"Increased subepicardial fat",
"Brown atrophy",
"Lipofuscin deposition"
] | A | Effect of aging on myocardium includes:Increased massIncreased subepicardial fatBrown atrophyLipofuscin depositionBasophilic degenerationAmyloid depositsRef: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 12. | train | med_mcqa | null |
By product formed when gypsum binding investment material is heated above 1200 degree centigrade: | [
"SO3",
"CO",
"SO2",
"All of the above."
] | A | If heated above 700 degree centigrade then CO & SO2 are formed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antiemetic effect of metoclopramide is mainly due to its action as: | [
"5HT3 antagonist",
"D2 antagonist",
"M3 antagonist",
"5HT4 agonist"
] | B | Ans. (B) D2 antagonist(Ref: Katzung 13th/1070, KDT 8th/e p713)Metoclopramide has action on several receptors.Main action as anti-emetic is because of D2 receptor antagonism.Main action as prokinetic is because of 5HT4 agonism.Mechanism of actions of metoclopramideReceptorActionClinical effectD2AntagonismAnti-emetic5HT3AntagonismAnti-emeticProkinetic5HT4AgonismProkinetic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of osteoporosis includes - | [
"Conjugated equines estrogen",
"Estradiol valerate",
"Raloxifene",
"Biphosphonate"
] | A | General 1.Bedrest 2.Local heat 3.Analgesics 4.Exercise: Regular walking or other weight bearing exercise for 1 hour 3 times a week protects bone mass 5.Prevention of injury (most hip and wrist fractures are caused by falls). 6.Excessive thyroid hormone replacement therapy should be avoided. B.Antiresorptive agents 1.Oestrogen: Oestrogen 0.625 mg + Medroxyprogesterone (cyclic progestin) 5-10 mg per day 10-14 days/month. Progesterone to be added to prevent endometrial carcinoma. Transdermal oestrogen patches are used to avoid deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Oestrogen therapy is impoant in women with premature or surgical menopause. Contraindications of oestrogen therapy are carcinoma breast or endometrial cancer, recurrent thromboembolic disease, acute liver disease and unexplained vaginal bleeding. 2.Calcium: The recommended daily calcium intake for postmenopausal women is 1,500 mg, and 1,000 mg for premenopausal women. 3.Calcitonin: Salmon calcitonin for 1-2 years increases veebral bone density and decreases the risk of veebral fracture. The usual dose is 50 IU SC per day 3 times a week. (salmon calcitonin 200 units/day as nasal spray). The side effects are nausea, flushing, and rarely allergic reactions.4.Bisphosphonates: They specifically impair osteoclast function and reduce osteoclast number paly by induction of apoptosis. a.Alendronate 5-10 mg/day b.Risedronate 5 mg/day The prominent adverse effect is esophageal irritation and hence both should be taken with a full glass of water and the patient should remain upright for 30 min after taking the drug. c.Etidronate is given as an intermittent cyclical regimen, 400 mg orally for 2 weeks, has some efficacy against veebral fractures. 5.Selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMS) a.Raloxifene 60 mg/day b.Tamoxifen Both reduce bone turnover and bone loss in postmenopausal women. In addition Tamoxifen is beneficial in women at increased risk of breast cancer and Raloxifene reduces serum total and LDL cholesterol, Lp (a), and fibrinogen. C.Bone forming agents a.Fluoride--75 mg/day b.Anabolic steroids: Testosterone is used in the treatment of osteoporotic man with gonadal deficiency. D.Supplementation of Vitamin D metabolites and thiazide diuretics. R ALAGAPPAN MANUAL OF PRACTICAL MEDICINE FOUH EDITION PAGE NO-691,692 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the rarest type of von Willebrand disease? | [
"vWD type 1",
"vWD type 2A",
"vWD type 2N",
"vWD type 3"
] | D | Type III vWD is the rarest type of von Willebrand disease. It result from the inheritance of a mutant vWF gene from both parents. TYPES OF vBD: Condition Defect vWD type 1 Mild to moderate quantitative deficiency of vWF (i.e., about 20-50% of normal levels). vWD type 2A The most common qualitative abnormality of vWF selective loss of large and medium-sized multimers vWD type 2B Loss of only large multimers vWD type 2N Characterized by a defect residing within the patient's plasma vWF that interferes with its ability to bind F VIII. vWD type 2M Involves qualitative variants with decreased platelet-dependent function vWD type 3 A severe, quantitative deficiency associated with very little or no detectable plasma or platelet vWF, have a profound bleeding disorder | train | med_mcqa | null |
Under ESI, the duration of sickness benefit arising out of confinement is for - | [
"15 days",
"30 days",
"42 days",
"60 days"
] | B | - the ESI act passed in 1948 is an impoant measure of social security and health insurance in the country. - it provides for ceain cash and medical benefits to industrial employees in case of sickness, maternity and employment injury. - maternity benefit is payable cash to an insured woman for confinement/ miscarriage or sicknesses arising out of confinement. -the duration of benefit for sickness arising out of confinement is 30 days. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no: 815,817 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ghost like shadow is seen in | [
"MRI",
"OPG",
"CT",
"Cephalogram"
] | B | Structures located between the X-ray source and moving center of rotation (orange zone) cast ghost images.
On the panoramic image, ghost images appear on the image on the opposite side of its true anatomic location and at a higher level, because of the upward inclination of the X-ray beam. Because the object is located outside of the focal plane and close to the X-ray source, the ghost image is blurred and significantly magnified. Several anatomic structures cast ghost images. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following structure in foetal life becomes ligamentum teres in adult life? | [
"Umbilical aery",
"Umbilical vein",
"Ductus venosus",
"Poal radicles"
] | B | The left umbilical vein persists as a channel that carries blood from the placenta through ductus venosus to the hepatic poion of the inferior venacava (IVC) while the right umbilical vein regresses. After bih, the left umbilical vein forms the ligamentum teres and the ductus venous the ligamentum venosum respectively. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug can cause cartilage damage in children ? | [
"Cotrimoxazole",
"Penicillin",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Metronidazole"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscles which open the glottis are: | [
"Cricothyroid",
"Thyroarytenoid",
"Posterior cricoarytenoid",
"Lateral cricoarytenoid"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant - | [
"CRP",
"Fibrinogen",
"Tissue factor",
"Serum amyloid A"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tissue factor | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY) is | [
"Empowerment of females under Maternity Benefit Scheme",
"Adolescent girl’s scheme under ICDS",
"Free and compulsory education for girl child",
"Child care home scheme for female juvenile delinquents"
] | D | KISHORI SHAKTI YOJANA (KSY):
• KSY is rename of ‘Adolescent Girl’s Scheme’ under ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services)
• Aim of KSY:
– To improve the nutritional and health status of adolescent girls
– To promote self-development, awareness of health, hygiene, nutrition, and family life and child care
– KSY covers 2000 ICDS projects | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest nerve involved in leprosy is: | [
"Ulnar",
"Median",
"Radial",
"Sciatic"
] | A | A i.e. Ulnar nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following metabolic abnormality is seen with long term use of spironolactone? | [
"Metabolic acidosis",
"Metabolic alkalosis",
"Hyperkalemia",
"None of the above"
] | A | By inhibiting H+ secretion in parallel with K+ secretion, the K+-sparing diuretics can cause acidosis similar to that seen with type IV renal tubular acidosis. Ref: Katzung, 11th edition, Chapter 15. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about ischemic colitis except : | [
"IMA is commonly occluded in cases needing aoic ischemia",
"Ischaemia is more common in small bowel as compared to large bowel",
"Most common site of post ischemic structure is sigmoid",
"Transection of IMA doesnt need reimplantation if aoic surgery is attempted"
] | B | Indeed, the IMA is frequently occluded in conditions requiring aoic surgery, and in such circumstances, transection of the IMA does not require reimplantation. However, in this situation, the left colon is dependent on collateral blood supply, and transient hypotension at the time of the vascular procedure or immediately after surgery may result in ischemic injury to the vulnerable colonic mucosa In aoic surgery, the IMA is assessed for backbleeding. If there is strong backbleeding (stump pressure > 40 mmHg), the IMA is ligated close to the aoa or over sewn from within the sax. Poor backbleeding from the IMA is a sign of insufficient collateral circulation to the sigmoid colon, and reimplantation of the IMA with a patch of the aoa into the aoic limb is warranted Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1356 | train | med_mcqa | null |
CSF sample is preserved for which poisoning: FMGE 10 | [
"Heavy metal",
"Alphos",
"Organophosphates",
"Alcohol"
] | D | Ans. Alcohol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Persistence of the following beyond 6 months age indicates? | [
"Erb's palsy",
"Cerebral damage",
"Down Syndrome",
"Congenital hemiplegia"
] | B | Clip depicts Moro's reflex. Persistence indicates cerebral damage Exaggerated in stage 1 HIE Absent reflex seen in any condition with marked hypotonia like stage 3 HIE and Down syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.