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Which of the following dengue sequential serotypes infection are associated with maximum risk of dengue hemmorhagic fever? | [
"DENV-1/DENV-2",
"DENV3/DENV-2",
"DENV-4/DEN-V2",
"Similar risk with all"
] | A | Studies in Thailand have revealed that the DENV-1/ DENV-2 sequence of infection was associated with a 500 fold risk of DHF compared with primary infection. For the DENV-3/DENV-2 sequence the risk was 150-fold, and a DENV-4/DENV-2 sequence had a 50-fold risk of DHF. There is no time-limit to sensitization after a primary infection. The 1997 Santiago de Cuba epidemic clearly demonstrated that with the introduction of DENV-2, DHF had occurred 16-20 years after the primary infection with DENV-1. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A malignant tumor of childhood, that metastasizes to bones most often, is – | [
"Wilm's tumor",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Adrenal gland tumors",
"Granulosa cell tumor of ovary"
] | B | Metastasis present in 60-70% of children at time of diagnosis are usually to the skeleton, characteristically to the facial bones and the skull and to the bone marrow and nodes' | train | med_mcqa | null |
Post-transplant cytomegalovirus infection may cause | [
"Pyelonephritis",
"GI ulceration and hemorrhage",
"Cholecystitis",
"Intraabdominal abscess"
] | B | Overall, 30% of all infections contracted in the posttransplant period are viral. The most common viral infections are DNA viruses of the herpesvirus family and include cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex virus, and varicella zoster virus. CMV infections may occur as either primary or reactive infections and have a peak incidence at about 6-week post-transplant. The classic signs include fever, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, and leukopenia. CMV infection can affect several organ systems and result in pneumonitis; ulceration and hemorrhage in the stomach, duodenum, or colon; hepatitis; esophagitis; retinitis; encephalitis; or pancreatitis. The risk of developing posttransplant CMV depends on donor-recipient serology, with the greatest risk in seronegative patients who receive organs from seropositive donors. Pyelonephritis, cholecystitis, intraabdominal abscesses, and parotitis are caused by bacterial infections or GI perforation and not primarily by CMV infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The third heart sound is due to: | [
"Closure of AV valve",
"Closure of aortic valve",
"Mid diastolic flow in the ventricle",
"Atrial contraction"
] | C | “A soft, low-pitched third sound is heard about one third of the way through diastole in many normal young individuals.” | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about intracellular receptor | [
"Mainly on nuclear surface",
"Estrogen does not act on it",
"GH acts on it",
"Vitamin E act on these"
] | A | Interacellular receptors are mainly present on nuclear surface They are eeceptors for peptide hormones Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:540,541,542 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the WHO definition of health, which of the following components is not included, but should be included | [
"Physical",
"Social",
"Spiritual",
"Mental"
] | C | Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of Pompe's disease except | [
"Hyperglycemia",
"Cardiomyopathy",
"Skeletal myopathy",
"Hepatomegaly"
] | A | Type II(Pompe) disease results from lysosomal storage of glycogen in skeletal muscles,cardiac muscles, and central nervous system.
There is progressive cardiomyopathy.ECG shows left axis deviation,short PR interval & large QRS.Heart failure with dyspnoea and cyanosis may occur.Skeletal muscles show hypotonia and marked weakness.The tongue is large & protruding.It is also characterised by hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is this device used by health workers to assess nutritional status of under-5 children? | [
"Harpenden callipers",
"Shakir's tape",
"Orchidometer",
"Infantometer"
] | B | This device used by health workers to assess nutritional status of under-5 children - Shakir's tape Used to measure mid upper arm circumference (MUAC) Red zone- severe malnutrition Yellow zone- mild to moderate malnutrition Green zone- normal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Moribund patient, triage color ? | [
"Red",
"Black",
"Yellow",
"Green"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Black Triage When the quantity and severity of injuries overwhelm the operative capacity of health facilities, a different approach to medical treatment must be adopted. The usual principle of first come, first treated", is not followed in mass emergencies. Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured and the likelyhood of their survival with prompt medical intervention. Higher priority is granted to victims whose immediate or long-term prognosis can be dramatically affected by simple intensive care. Moribund patients who require a great deal of attention, with questionable benefit have the lowest priority. The most common triage classification system used international is four colour code system. Red -, High priority treatment or transfer Yellow Medium priority Green Ambulatory patients Black Dead or moribund patients | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs that reduce the size of fibroid are : | [
"Danazol",
"Progesterone",
"RU-486",
"Estrogen"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Danazol; and GnRH analogues | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood group antigens chemically are? | [
"Carbohydrate",
"Glycoprotein",
"Phospholipids",
"Polysaccharide"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e., Glycoprotein o The ABO antigens are determined to be glycoproteins and glycolipids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Height of children in 2 - 10 years of age is increased by: | [
"2cm/year",
"4cm/year",
"6cm/year",
"10cm/year"
] | C | Height Velocity in Children: Age Normal range 2 - 5 years 6 cm/ year* 5 - 10 years 5-6 cm/year | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vein of Galen drains into ? | [
"Internal Juglar vein",
"External Juglar vein",
"Straight sinus",
"Superior sagittal sinus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Straight sinusGreat cerebral vein of Galen is formed by union of two internal cerebral veins.It drains into straight sinus.Is 2 cm long.Its tributeries are internal cerebral vein, basal vein, occipital vein and posterior callosal vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about features of cholecystitis on USG – a) Thick fibrosed gallbladder wallb) Stone impacted at neck of gall bladderc) Perigallbladder halod) Increased vascularity | [
"abc",
"bc",
"acd",
"bcd"
] | A | USG findings of acute cholecystitis
Gallbladder wall thickening
Pericholecyst fluid producing circumferential halo of low echogenicity around gallbladder
Echogenic bile sludge may completely fill the gallbladder lumen and gives appearance of adjacent liver (hepatization of bile)
Gall stone :- May be impacted in the neck or cystic duct
Sonographic murphy's sign (Tenderness on pressing the transducer onto the gallbladder) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient who had a history of hepatitis one month ago should preferably given which local anaesthetic agent | [
"Lignocaine",
"Bupivacaine",
"Procaine",
"Procainamide"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for pheochromocytoma - | [
"Propranolol",
"Phenoxybenzamine",
"Prazosin",
"Nitroprosside"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Phenoxybenzamine Pharmacological treatment of pheochromocvtomao Preoperatively or when tumour cannot be removed, blood pressure control is achieved by cc-adrenoreceptor blockade which reverses peripheral vasoconstriction -Phenoxybenzomine is the DOCo For hypertensive crises or intraoperative control of BP, phentolamine is the DOC. Prazosin is an alternative. Nitroprusside can also be used------Harrison 17th/e p. 1561.o In adrenaline secreting tumors, if tachycardia persists, p-blocker can be added after starting a-blockers.o ACE inhibitor or calcium channel blockers can be used when blood pressure is difficult to control with phenoxybenzamine alone.o Metyrosine has been used with some success to block catecholamine synthesis in malignant pheochromocytoma.o Metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) is actively taken up by adrenergic tissue -123I-MIBG can be used for selective therapeutic irradiation of functioning metastasis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4-year-old male child presents with muscles weakness. His mother tells that her child has difficulty in climbing stairs and getting up from the floor. On muscle biopsy, small muscle fibrils and absent of dystrophic was found. What is the diagnosis out of given option? | [
"Beck's muscle dystrophy",
"Duchenne muscular dystrophy",
"Myotonic dystrophy",
"Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy"
] | B | Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Progressive weakness Calf muscle involvement Pseudo hyperophy Difficulty in climbing stairs Gowersign present (+) Wheel chair bound Patient Death - CHF/ Pneumonia CPK MM: Increased IOC: - PCR for dystrophin gene (Dystrophin gene absent) Rx: - Chest Physiotherapy NOTE:Immunohistochemical studies for dystrophin show Absence of the normal sarcolemma staining pattern in Duchenne muscular dystrophin Reduced staining in Becker muscular dystrophy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The goals of therapy for type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus are all except | [
"Eliminate symptoms related to hyperglycemia",
"Reduce or eliminate the long-term microvascular and macrovascular complications of DM",
"Allow the patient to achieve as normal a lifestyle as possible",
"Restore the function of Beta cells"
] | D | The goals of therapy for type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) are toEliminate symptoms related to hyperglycemia, Reduce or eliminate the long-term microvascular and macrovascular complications of DM,Allow the patient to achieve as normal a lifestyle as possible.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 2406 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The process of coating a microbe, to target it for phagocytosis is: | [
"Diapedesis",
"Margination",
"Chemotaxis",
"Opsonisation"
] | D | Opsoniztion:- Refer to coating of microbes or self cell by antibodies, which facilitates the phagocytosis of the same cell or microbe. Chemotaxis:-It is movement or migration of cell from from one place to another, eg, Migration of Neutrophils during inflammation Diapedesis:-Passage of blood cells through the intact walls of capillaries, eg, WBC at inflammed site. PECAM-1 OR CD31 useful for diapedesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most frequent congenital anomaly of the GI tract is - | [
"Imperforate anus",
"Meckel's diveticulum",
"Malrotation",
"Duodenal atresia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
H. pylori is associated with what percentage of gastric ulcers? | [
"10",
"30",
"50",
"70"
] | D | H pylori infection is almost always present in the setting of active chronic gastritis and is present in most patients with duodenal (80% to 95%) and gastric (60% to 90%)ulcers. Most patients with gastric cancer have current or past H. pylori infection.There is also a strong association between mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)lymphoma and H. pylori infection.Sabiston 20e pg: 1223 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a characteristic of physiological jaundice of newborn? | [
"Appears within 1st 24 hours of life",
"Involves palms and soles also",
"Clinical jaundice usually disappears after 1 month age",
"It is always unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia"
] | D | Physiological jaundice- always unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is a venodilator? | [
"Hydralazine",
"Minoxidil",
"Lisinopril",
"Nitroprusside"
] | D | Ans: d (Nitroprusside) Ref: KDT, 6 ed, p. 504Sodium nitroprusside is a combined arteriolar and venodilator. whereas all other given drugs are mainly arteriolar dilatorsrvasodilators ArterialVenousMixedHydralazineGTNACE inhibitorMinoxidilisosorbide dinitriteATi antagonistDiazoxide PrazosinCalcium channel blockers Amrinone, milrinone Sodium N itroprussideDiazoxideRelaxes resistance vessels, without any effect on capacitance vessels.(K+ channel opener)HydralazineA directly acting arteriolar dilator with little action on venous capacitance vessels.MinoxidilPattern of action resembles hydralazine.(A/E: excess hair growth on face, back and arms.)ACE inhibitorsArterioles dilate and the compliance of large arteries is increased. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following clinical situations is associated with an increase in predominantly conjugated ("direct") bilirubin? | [
"Physiologic jaundice of the neonate",
"Kernicterus Following Rhesus Incompatibility",
"Gilbe's Syndrome",
"Pancreatic head tumor"
] | D | Of the conditions listed, only pancreatic head tumors are associated with an increase in conjugated ("direct") bilirubin (obstructive jaundice). Increased levels of unconjugated ("direct") bilirubin result from hemolysis over liver defects that impair uptake or conjugation mechanism in liver cells (Gilbe's syndrome, Crigler- Najjar syndrome) positive. Unconjugated bilirubin may cross the immature blood brain Barrier of the newborn and cause Kernicterus. The physiologic jaundice of the newborn observed during the first week of bih is usually mild and due to relatively immature liver conjugation. Ref: Cothren C., Biffl W.L., Moore E.E. (2010). Chapter 7. Trauma. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A postpaum woman has acute puerperal mastitis. Which of the following statements is true? | [
"The initial treatment is tetracyclines",
"The source of the infection is usually the infant's gastrointestinal tract",
"Frank abscesses may develop and require drainage",
"The most common offending organism is Escherichia coli."
] | C | Acute puerperal mastitis Most common organism- Staphylococcus aureus inoculated into maternal breasts through the baby's nasopharynx. Symptoms and signs Fever with chills, myalgia, malaise Engorged and tender breast Mostly unilateral Approximately 10 percent of women with mastitis develop an abscess which requires incision and drainage. Rx- Dicloxacillin, 500 mg orally four times daily, may be staed empirically. Erythromycin is given to women who are penicillin hypersensitive | train | med_mcqa | null |
About purine and pyrimidine nucleotides, all are true except- | [
"Uracil is not found in DNA",
"Thymine is not found in RNA",
"Adenosine is a nucleotide",
"Adenine is present in both DNA and RNA"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adenosine is a nucleotide o Two types of bases are found in nucleotides : (i) purines and (ii) pyrimidines.i) Purines : Two major purine bases found both in DNAs as well as RNAs are (i) adenine (A) and (ii) guanine (G).ii) Pyrimidines: Three major pyrimidine bases are (i) cytosine (C), (ii) Uracil (U) and (iii) Thymine (T). Cytosine and uracil are found in RNAs and cytosine and thymine are found in DNAs. Uracil is notfound in DNAs Q and thymine is not found in RNAs.Different major bases with their corresponding nucleosides and nucleotidesBaseRibonucleosideRibonucleotideAdenine (A)Guanine (G)Uracil (U)Cytosine (C)AdenosineGuanosineUridineCytidineAdenosine monophosphate (AMP)Guanosine monophosphate (GMP)Uridine monophosphate (UMP)Cytidine (Monophosphate) (CMP)BaseDeoxy ribonucleosideDeoxyribonucleotideAdenineGuanineCytosineThymineDeoxyadenosineDeoxyguanosineDeoxycytidineDeoxythymidineDeoxyadenosine monophosphate (dAMP)Deoxyguanosine monphosphate (dGMP)Deoxycytidine monophosphate (dCMP)Deoxythymidine monophosphate (dCMP)o Thus adenosine is a nucleoside (not nucleotide)Nucleoside= Nitrogenous base (purine or pyrimidine) + Pentose sugar (ribose or deoxyribose)Nucleotide= Nucleoside + phosphate group (phosphoric acid)or= Nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate group | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old male presented with symptoms of anemia along with weight loss, night sweats, and low-grade fever.On examination, splenomegaly, petechiae, ecchymosis, lymphadenopathy was noted along with some features of poal hypeension.Lab findings revealed anemia, leukocytosis and thrombocytosis. Bone marrow aspiration reveals a dry tap. Bone marrow biopsy was taken and subjected to reticulin staining.. All of the following genes can be mutated in the above condition except: - | [
"JAK2",
"CALR",
"MPL",
"ACTN3"
] | D | This is a case of primary myelofibrosis. Primary myelofibrosis. Peripheral smear shows teardrop red blood cells (RBCs) and a leukoerythroblastic picture with nucleated RBC precursors and immature myeloid cells. Bone marrow biopsy from a patient with primary myelofibrosis shows extensive fibrosis which is confirmed by reticulin staining. Mutations in the JAK2, MPL, CALR, and TET2 genes are associated with most cases of primary myelofibrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old male presents with severe pain chest, breathlessness, hypotension and ECG shows ST elevation in V3, V4 V5 and V6 leads. He will be best treated with: | [
"Streptokinase",
"t-PA",
"Heparin",
"PTCA"
] | D | Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PCTA or angioplasty) is a procedure that is commonly performed on people with hea disease. This procedure is done to open up the blood vessel to allow the blood to pass through more easily PTCA is a minimally invasive procedure to open up blocked coronary aeries, allowing blood to circulate unobstructed to the hea muscle. The indications for PTCA are: Persistent chest pain (angina) Blockage of only one or two coronary aeries Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 460 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In dry drowning: FMGE 09; AP 11 | [
"Death occurs in few days of submersion episode",
"Death occurs due to sudden immersion in cold water",
"Water does not enter lungs because of laryngeal spasm",
"Seen in alcoholics due to drowning in shallow pool"
] | C | Ans. Water does not enter lungs because of laryngeal spasm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pointing index finger is seen in which nerve injury | [
"Axillary",
"Radial",
"Median",
"Ulnar"
] | C | CAUSE OF INJURY CLINICAL FEATURES Injury above the elbow joint (supracondylar) |L/T Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) & flexor pollicis longus injured (FPL) Inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of index finger (due to FDP injury) weakness of wrist flexion. hand detes to ulnar side on flexion Flexion of index & middle finger is lost. Anterior abduction, opposition & flexion of thumb is compromised (due to FPL injury) sensory loss on lateral 3 1/2 fingers. Hand of Benediction (Pointing Index Finger)- Median nerve lesion OCHSNER'SCLASPING TEST - TEST FOR MEDIAN NERVE INJURY. Weak flexion of wrist Loss of pronation of forearm Loss of flexion of proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints of index and middle fingers Loss of flexion at interphalangeal joint of thumb Paial clawing of second and third digits Sensory, trophic and vasomotor changes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulse pressure is - | [
"1/3 diastolic + 1/2 systolic B.P.",
"1/2 diastolic + 1/3 systolic B.P.",
"Systolic – diastolic B.P.",
"Diastolic + 1/2 systolic B.P."
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Learning involves all except, | [
"Modeling",
"Catharsis",
"Response prevention",
"Exposure"
] | B | Catharsis Catharsis is another name of venting out ones emotions. It is used in psychotherapies for brining out the emotional content. It produces relief in the patient. Learning: Is change in behaviour as a result of practice. It involves: Modelling It is a type of observational learning. The person is exposed to model behaviour and is induced to copy it. This can also be used to avoid ceain behaviour. Exposure and response prevention Patient refrains from carrying out rituals despite their strong urges to do so (response prevention) Urges are deliberately increased by encouraging the patient to enter situations that provoke rituals (exposure) Systemic desensitisation Based on reciprocal inhibitions. If a response incompatible with anxiety is made to occur at the same time as an anxiety provoking situations, then anxiety is reduced by reciprocal inhibitions. 3 main steps of systemic desensitization are - Relaxation training - Hierarchy construction - Systemic desensitisation proper | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is derived from thoracolumbar fascia - | [
"Medial arcuate ligament",
"Lateral arcuate ligament",
"Lacunar ligament",
"Cruciate ligament"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral arcuate ligament o Thoracolumbar fascia covers the deep muscles of back of the trunk, o It is composed of three fascial layers -i) Anterior layer# It is the thinnest layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Laterally it fuses with fascia transversalis and aponeurosis of transversus abdominis# Inferiorly it is attached to iliolumbar ligament and iliac crest.# Superiorly it is attached to 12th rib and extends to transverse process of Lj forming the lateral arcuate ligament of diaphragm.ii) Middle layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Inferiorly it is attached to iliac rest.# Superiorly it is attached to 12th ribiii) Posterior layer# It is the thickest layer and attached to spines of lumbar verterae.o Quadratus lomborum is enclosed between anterior and middle layers. Erector spinae (paraspinal muscle) is enclosed between middle and posterior layer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chondritis of aural cailage is most commonly due to which of the following? | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Pseudomonas",
"Candida",
"Both staphylococcus and Pseudomonas"
] | B | Perichondritis results from infection secondary to lacerations, haematoma or surgical incisions. It can also result from the extension of infection from diffuse otitis externa or a furuncle of the meatus. Pseudomonas and mixed flora are common pathogens. (Ref: Textbook of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 53) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Registered medical practitioner protecting unqualified person in practice is known as - | [
"Uncoverage",
"Covering",
"Touting",
"Dichotomy"
] | B | Covering is an infamous conduct (professional misconduct), which refers to assisting unqualified person. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about campylobacter- | [
"Polar flagella",
"Grows at 25degC",
"Strict aerobe",
"Psychrophilic"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Polar flagella Campvlobactoro Campylobacter is gram negative, non capsulated, non sporing comma shaped or 'gull wing' shaped bacilluso It is motile by a single polar flagellum and shows darting or tumbling motility.o Campylobactor is nonfermenter (does not ferment carbohydrate); catalase and oxidase positive; and nitrate reduction positive.Gram negative curved spiral rods - Campylobactor jejuniCulture characteristicso Growth occurs under microaerophilic conditions (5% O2, 10% CO2 and 85% N2).o Thermophilic, growing at 42degC (Can grow at 37degC, but incubation at higher tempratures suppresses normal fecal flora).o Transport medium for Campylobacter is Cary-Blair medium.o Media used for cultivation of Campylobacter are:-i) Campy BAP mediumii) Skirrow's mediumiii) Butzlers mediumiv) CVA (Cefoperazone, Vancomycin and amphotericin B)v) Campylobactor agar basevi) Columbia blood agarInfections caused by Campylobactero Campylobacter causes following infections:1) Diarrheal disease# It is the most common disease and is caused most commonly by Campylobacter jejuni.# It is a zoonosis and animals are the main reservoir.# Source is food of animal origin like raw milk and poultry.# Infection occurs by ingestion.# The jejunum and the ileum are the primary sites of colonization.# C. jejuni is invasive pathogen, may involve mesenteric lymph node and cause bacteremia.# After an incubation period of 1-7 days there is fever, abdominal pain and diarrhea. Diseases is usually self limiting and subsides in 5-8 days. But complications may occur :-i) GIT: Cholecystitis, pancreatitis.ii) Extraintestinal: Meningitis, endocarditis, HUS, GB syndrome, arthritis, perotinitis.2) Abscesses# It is caused by Campylobacter sputorum.3) Extraintestinal infections# These are caused by Campylobacter fetus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient was operated 2 months back and at that time a midline incision was used. Now he requires a second operation and this the ideal incision to be used now is | [
"A fresh transverse incision",
"The scar of the previous incision is excised and the same incision is used",
"The same incision used without excision of old scar",
"A paramedian incision is to be used"
] | B | (B) The scar of the previous incision is excised and the same incision is used # Scar of the previous incision is excised and the same incision is used .> We should not create more scars on patient body unnecessarily.> If it is possible we have use the same scar. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statements regarding DMPA includes all the following except | [
"3% failure rate",
"Useful in treatment of menorrhagia",
"Can be given in women with seizures",
"Protects against ovarian cancer"
] | D | Risk of endometrial cancer is substantially reduced by past use of DMPA.
Noncontraceptive benefits of DMPA:
Anemia, PID, Ectopic pregnancy, and Endometrial cancer are reported.
DMPA benefits women with sickle cell disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following is lined by Stratified Squamous Epithelium, except? | [
"Lips",
"Tongue",
"Roof of the soft palate",
"Oropharynx"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following produces neuropsychiatric symptom? | [
"Cycloserine",
"Cyclosporine",
"Cephalosporine",
"Ethambutol"
] | A | Cycloserine is an antibiotic effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The side effects are mainly central nervous system (CNS) manifestations, i.e. headache, irritability, depression, psychosis and convulsions. Co-administration of pyridoxine can reduce the incidence of some of the CNS side effects (e.g. convulsions). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Positive nitrogen balance is seen in- | [
"Starvation",
"Extreme weight loss",
"During fever",
"Recovery phase of protein deficiency"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Recovery phase of protein deficiency Nitrogen Balance* Because nitrogen is excreted as proteins are recycled or used, we can use the nitrogen in body to evaluate whether the body is getting enough protein.* To estimate the balance of nitrogen, and therefore the protein in body, nitrogen intake is compared to the sum of all sources of nitrogen output.* Nitrogen Balance = Grams of Nitrogen intake - Grams of nitrogen output* If nitrogen intake equals nitrogen output the nitrogen balance is zero and the body is in nitrogen equilibrium.* If nitrogen intake exceeds nitrogen output the body is said to be in positive nitrogen balance. Positive nitrogen balance means that the body is adding protein; growing children, pregnant women, or people recovering from protein deficiency or illness should be in positive nitrogen balance.* If nitrogen output exceeds nitrogen intake the body is in negative nitrogen balance. This means that the body is losing proteins. People who are starving or who are in extreme weight loss diets, or who suffer from fever, severe illness, or infections are in a state of negative nitrogen balance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Partial mole is - | [
"46XY",
"46XX",
"69XXY",
"23X"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 69XXY Important features of complete and partial molesFeaturesComplete molePartial moleo Embryo / fetuso Absento Presento Hydrophic degeneration of villio Prominent & diffuseo Variable and focalo Trophoblastic hyperplasiao Diffuseo Focalo Uterine sizeo More than date (30-60%)o Less than dateo Theca lutein cysto Common (25-50%)o Uncommono Karyotypeo 46 XX (85%), paternal in origino Triploidy (90%), diploid (10%)o Beta HCGo High (> 50,000)o Slight deviation (< 50,000)o Classic clinical symptomso Commono Rareo Risk of persistent GTDo 20%o < 5% | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pH of amniotic fluid is : | [
"6.8 to 6.9",
"7.1 to 7.3",
"7.1 to 7.3",
"6.7 to 6.8"
] | B | Ans. is b i.e. 7.1 to 7.3 Amongst the given options - 7.1 to 7.3 seems to be the most appropriate option. Also know : Specific gravity of Amniotic fluid : 1.008 to 1.010 Osmolality : 250 mosm/L Completely replaced in 3 hours. Rate of amniotic fluid turn over is 500cc/hr. Volume of Amniotic fluid : Weeks of Gestation Amniotic Fluid - 16 weeks - 200 ml - 28 - 30 weeksdeg - 1000 ml - 36 weeks - 1000 ml - 38 weeks - 900 ml - 40 weeksdeg - 800 ml - 42 - 43 weeksdeg - 200 ml Extra edge : Amniotic fluid inhibits bacterial growth; phosphate to zinc ratio is a predictor of inhibitory activity. In case of intraamniotic fluid infections - "Inorganic phosphorous levels in amniotic fluid are raised". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperglycemia is seen in which of the following lung cancer | [
"SCC",
"Small cell carcinoma",
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Large cell carcinoma"
] | B | Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is a neuroendocrine tumor with the potential to secrete various peptides or hormones that can lead to paraneoplastic syndromes, such as Ectopic Cushing syndrome (ECS). Because of the aggressive nature of the syndrome and its atypical features, ECS in small-cell lung cancer is difficult to diagnose and has a poor prognosis. And can cause hypokalemia,hyperglycemia ,muscle weakness, peripheral odema Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 546 | train | med_mcqa | null |
EBV is associated with. | [
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Esophageal cancer",
"Gastric cancer",
"None of the above"
] | A | Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)is closely associated with nasopharyngeal cancer. EB virus has two impoant antigens:Viral capsid antigen(VCA) andEarly antigen(EA). IgA antibodies of EA are highly specific for nasopharyngeal cancer but have sensitivity of only 70-80% while IgA antibodies of VCA are more sensitive but less specific. IgA antibodies against both EA and VCA should be done for screening of patients for nasopharyngeal cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reflex which is not present in child at bih is - | [
"Moro's reflex",
"Symmetric tonic neck reflex",
"Crossed extensor reflex",
"Asymmetric tonic neck reflex"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Symmetric Tonic neck reflex Tonic neck reflex is divided into two types (a) Asymmetric Tonic neck reflex (b) Symmetric Tonic neck reflex Asymmetric Tonic neck reflex o Turn infants head to one side :- Extension of the Arms and legs occur on the side of the body corresponding to the direction of the face while flexion occurs in contralateral extremity o It is present at bih fully developed at 1 month and last 6-7 months Symmetric Tonic neck reflex o Extension of legs causes flexion of the arms and the`head. o Flexion of legs causes extension of the arms and the head (This is often referred to as cat's reflex ) o Not present at bih Crossed extensor reflex (Ghai 6thie p 146) o When the foot is stroked while the leg is kept extended at the knee, there is rapid flexion, adduction and then extension of the opposite leg. o It is present at bih. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oligohydramnios is seen in ail except: | [
"Renal agenesis",
"Rh incompatibility",
"IUGR",
"Postmaturity"
] | B | Rh incompatibility | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frequency of Carha's notch is ? | [
"1000 Hz",
"2000 Hz",
"3000 Hz",
"4000 Hz"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2000 Hz Dip in bone conduction in otosclerosis (Carha's notch) - 2000 Hz Dip in noise induced hearing loss (Acoustic dip) - 4000 Hz In otosclerosis bone conduction is usually normal (as would be in cases of conductive hearing loss). However, some cases show a dip in bone conduction on audiogram which is maximum at 2000 Hz (Caha's notch). In NIHL both bone conduction and air conduction are defective (as would be in SNHL) and there is a typical notch (acoustic dip) at 4000 Hz, both for air and bone conduction. So, Caha's notch of otosclerosis is a dip for bone conduction, while acoustic dip of NIHL is for both air as well as bone conduction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weakness, and weight gain. Her blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg, pulse 80/min, and there is central obesity with skin striae. Investigations are shown in Table given below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Table given below is the case work-up NormalPatientPlasma ACTH pg/mL< 150< 50Plasma cortisol m/dL1735Urine 17-OH mg/24 h2 to 1025Urine 17-Ks mg/24 h5 to 1510Urine 17-OH response to:ACTH IVIncreasex5No responseDexamethasone 0.5 mg< 3.0No response2.0 mg< 3.0No responseMetyrapone 750 mgIncreasex 2No responseAbbreviation: ACTH--adrenocorticotropic hormone | [
"adrenal hyperplasia secondary to hypothalamic dysfunction",
"adrenal adenoma with complete autonomy",
"exogenous steroids, iatrogenic",
"pituitary tumor"
] | B | Autonomous adrenal tumors are adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) insensitive and fail to demonstrate a brisk rise in urinary 17-hydroxycorticoids. Androgenic effects, such as hirsutism, are usually absent. In Cushing's syndrome, secondary to an autonomous adrenal tumor, onset is usually gradual, and hirsutism, other androgenic effects, and hyperpigmentation are absent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anterior posterior diameter of Eye ball is | [
"23 mm",
"23.5 mm",
"22 mm",
"24 mm"
] | D | Anterior posterior diameter of Eye ball is 24 mm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following cranial nerves does not carry parasympathetic outflow | [
"Oculomotor",
"Trochlear",
"Facial",
"Glossopharyngeal"
] | B | Ref: Clinical Neuroanatomy 2nd edition Vishram Singh (page no:238) Katzung 11/e p78 parasympathetic fibers arise from brainstem run through 3rd (oculomotor), 7th (facial), 9th(glossopharyngeal), 10th(vagus) cranial nerves and terminate in the parasympathetic ganglia in the head and neck So Trochlear nerve not included in this outflow | train | med_mcqa | null |
The lymphatics of vulva: | [
"Do not freely communicate with each other",
"Do not cross the labiocrual fold",
"Transverse the labia from medial to lateral margin",
"Drain directly into the deep femoral glands"
] | C | Lymphatic Drainage of Reproductive Tract:
Uterine Corpus –
1. Fundus-Para-aortic lymph nodes
2. Cornu-Superficial inguinal
3. Body-External Iliac L N
Cervix 1. Paramatrial
2. Internal iliac group
3. Obtruator group
4. External iliac group
5. Sacral
All these drain into common iliac and superior lumbar group
Fallopian tube and ovary-Superior lumbar group
Vagina - Upper 2/3-Like cervix
Lower 1/3-Inguinal and external iliac nodes
Vulva- Superficial inguinal
Deep inguinal
External iliac | train | med_mcqa | null |
Internal spermatic fascia is derived from - | [
"External oblique muscle",
"Internal oblique muscle",
"Fascia transversalis",
"Colie's fascia"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fascia transversalis o The layers of scrotum from outside to inside are:-i) Skinii) Dartos muscle (smooth muscle layer) continous with Code's fascia of perineum posteriorly and Scarpa's fascia and Camper's fascia anteriorly.iii) The external spermatic fascia, extension from external oblique.iv) The cremastric muscle, continuous with fascia from internal oblique.v) The internal spermatic fascia, continuous with fascia from fascia transversalis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Resolution of inflammation is caused by? | [
"TNF Alfa, IL-1 and CRP",
"TNF beta, IL-6 and CRP",
"TNF Alfa, IL 10 and IL 1 receptor antagonist",
"TNF gamma"
] | C | Antiinflammatory mediators terminate the acute inflammatory reaction when it is no longer needed the anti-inflammatory cytokines: IL-10, TGF-b, IL-4, IL-13 pro-inflammatory cytokines: IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha Interleukin 10 (IL-10) has been proposed as having an inhibitory effect on the production of several inflammatory cytokines including TNF-alpha. ... Lipopolysaccharide-induced TNF-alpha production in peripheral blood monocytes was reduced from 2.035 (0.284) to 0.698 (0.167) ng/ml. ref robbins basic pathology 9th ed page 48 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Celiac sprue is associated with ? | [
"HLA DQ 1",
"HLA DQ2",
"HLA DQ3",
"HLA DQ4"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., HLA DQ2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In synthesis of fatty acids, energy is supplied by: | [
"NAD",
"NADPH",
"FAD",
"GTP"
] | B | NADPH is involved in various reductive biosynthesis. NADPH is generated in HMP shunt pathway. In fattyacid synthesis each cycle of fattyacid synthesis requires 2 molecules of NADPH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epstien Barr virus causes all the following except: | [
"Infectious mononucleosis",
"Measles",
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Non-Hodgkins lymphoma"
] | B | Ans. (b) Measles | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary messengers include: | [
"cAMP",
"IP3",
"Diacylglycerol",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. c-AMP; B i.e. IP3; C i.e. Diacylglycerol | train | med_mcqa | null |
The contraceptive method of choice (temporary) for 37 years old well educated woman: | [
"Mala-N",
"Mala-D",
"IUD",
"Diaphragm"
] | D | Diaphragm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following operations was first described by Orringer? | [
"En-bloc esophagectomy",
"Transhiatal esophagectomy",
"Thoracoscopic esophagectomy",
"Transthoracic esophagectomy"
] | B | Double incision: Midline laparotomy followed by cervical incision Cervical anastomosis is done MC procedure done for carcinoma esophagus | train | med_mcqa | null |
A stem cell disorder affecting all the three cell lines platelets, RBCs and leucocytes is : | [
"Hemolytic anaemia",
"Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria",
"Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuna",
"Blackfan Diamond syndrome"
] | C | Answer is C (Paroxysmal Nocturnal haemoglobinuria) Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) results from an acquired somatic mutation on the pleuripotent stem cells. Hence all its clonal progeny i.e. red cells, white cells and platelets are affected - Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria: is an acquired clonal disease that is associated with abnormality of complement regulation. This defect affects the Pluripotent stem cells & the clonal progeny of these stem cells. Red cells, white cells & platelets thus all are affected. Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria, Black fan Diamond syndrome (pure red cell aplasia) and hemolytic anemias characteristically involve the red cell lineage only. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Feilization takes place after how much time of ovulation ? | [
"1-2 days",
"5-6 days",
"8-12 days",
"> 12 days"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1-2 days | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug is bactericidal? | [
"Sulfonamides",
"Erythromycin",
"Chloramphenicol",
"Cotrimoxazole"
] | D | Primarily bactericidal: Penicillins Cephalosporins Aminoglycosides Vancomycin Polypeptides Nalidixic acid Rifampin Ciprofloxacin Isoniazid Metronidazole Pyrazinamide Cotrimoxazole ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:669 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gastric secretion is : | [
"Inhibited by curare",
"Stimulated by nor adrenaline",
"Increased by stomach distention",
"Stimulated by an increase in tonic activity"
] | C | C i.e. Increased by stomach distension | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old veterinarian visits her obstetrician for a first-trimester prenatal check-up. She has no complaints.Routine physical exam is significant only for mild cervical lymphadenopathy. She is prescribed spiramycin but is noncompliant. Her baby is born with hydrocephalus and cerebral calcifications. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible? | [
"Isospora belli",
"Leishmania donovani",
"Plasmodium vivax",
"Toxoplasma gondii"
] | D | Humans become infected with Toxoplasma gondii by ingesting cysts in contaminated food or through contact with cat feces. The veterinarian in question was therefore paicularly at risk of infection. T. gondii is especially hazardous in pregnant women because the organism can be transmitted to the fetus through the placenta. (It is pa of the ToRCHeS group of congenital infections;Toxoplasma, Rubella, CMV, Herpes/HIV, Syphilis). Since infected mothers are usually asymptomatic, cases often go unnoticed. Occasionally, patients present with cervical lymphadenopathy, as did the veterinarian, and require treatment to prevent complications in the fetus. Though newborns are also often asymptomatic, they are at risk for developing the classic triad of chorioretinitis (at bih or later in life), hydrocephalus, and cerebral calcifications. Note that T. gondii is also a common cause of CNS infections (e.g., encephalitis) in HIV-positive patients. Isospora belli (choice A) is an intestinal protozoan that causes watery diarrhea, paicularly in the immunocompromised. Fecal-oral transmission of oocysts allows invasion of small intestinal mucosa, destroying the brush border. Leishmania donovani (choice B) causes kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis), which is characterized by fever, weakness, weight loss, splenomegaly, and skin hyperpigmentation. It is prevalent in regions of the Mediterranean, Middle East, Russia, and China. The vector is the sandfly. Plasmodium vivax (choice C) causes malaria and is transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito, which introduces sporozoites into the blood. These differentiate into merozoites that destroy erythrocytes. Splenomegaly ensues. Other species of this organism also cause malaria: P. malariae and P. falciparum (which causes a more severe form of the disease). Note that sickle cell trait confers resistance to this disease. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 50. Sporozoa. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds),Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Each of the following is true about the idiopathic primary pulmonary hypeension except | [
"It is usually associated with coronary aery disease",
"It is more common in females",
"It is usually asymptomatic to begin with",
"It is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance"
] | A | Idiopathic pulmonary aerial hypeension can be sporadic or familial with autosomal dominant inheritance.Heterozygous germ-line mutations involving the gene that code for type ll bone morphogenetic protein receptor(BMPR ll),a member of the transforming growth factor beta superfamily,appear to account for most cases of familial IPAH. There is a female predominance,with most patients presenting in the fouh and fifth decades.The disease typically is diagnosed late in its course.Before current therapies,a mean survival of 2-3 years from the time of diagnosis was repoed. Ref:Harrison' s medicine-18th edition,page no:2077,2078. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biological value of a protein is related to | [
"Nitrogen content",
"amino acid content",
"Sulphur content",
"Energy content"
] | A | Ans) a (Nitrogen content) Ref paik 20th ed p 549Biological value of a protein is Retained N2 / Absorbed N2 x 100Protein efficiency ratio = Wt gain in gms / Gram of protein consumedNet protein utilization =Digestibility Coefficent x Biological value100 Aminoacid score =No of mg of one AA/gm of proteinNo of mg of same AA/gm of egg proteinx 100Quality of protein is assessed by comparison to the reference protein which is usually egg protein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following clinical findings are seen in Horner’s syndrome, except: | [
"Miosis",
"Anhidrosis",
"Heterochromia of iris",
"Apparent exophthalmos"
] | D | Ref: Harrison’s 18/e p 225
The triad of miosis with ipsilateral ptosis and anhidrosis constitutes Horner's syndrome, although anhidrosis is an inconstant feature. Brainstem stroke, carotid dissection, and neoplasm impinging on the sympathetic chain occasionally are identified as the cause of Horner's syndrome, but most cases are idiopathic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endogenous opioid peptide includes: | [
"Encephalin",
"Endorphins",
"Dynorphins",
"All of the above"
] | D | all the above Endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins are all endogenous compounds. These are having morphine like actions. These opiod peptides modulates pain perception, mood, hedonic, and motor behaviour, emesis, pitiutary hormone release and git motility. Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following nail changes are associated with psoriasis, EXCEPT: | [
"Pitting",
"Onycholysis",
"Pterygium formation",
"Subungual hyperkeratosis"
] | C | Pterygium formation is seen in severe cases of lichen planus. Nail changes in Psoriasis includes: Pitting: It is the most frequent change. Subungual hyperkeratosis Onycholysis Thickening and yellowish discoloration of nail plate Oil spots 10% of patients with Lichen planus have nail changes. Thinning of nail plate along with discoloration and irregular longitudinal grooves and ridges is the commonest change. Pterygium formation is seen in severe cases. Ref: Illustrated Synopsis Of Dermatology & Sexually Transmitted Diseases By Khanna page 123. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adult human who are awake with mind wanderingand the eyes closed. Most likely EEG pattern is | [
"Alpha - rhythm",
"Beta rhythm",
"Theta rhythm",
"Delta waves"
] | A | (Alpha - rhythm) (194 - 95- Ganong22nd) (836. K.S (233- Ganong 23rd)* Alpha rhythm - awake, at rest mind wandering and the eye closed, 8-12 Hz frequency, 50-100 mv amplitude* Beta rhythm - 18-30Hz, lower amplitude* Gamma - oscillations - at 30- 80 Hz* Theta rhythm - larger amplitude , regular 4-7 Hz waves* Delta waves - become more prominent with low frequency and high amplitudeCharacteristicREM- sleepNon-REM sleep* Rapid eye movements, Dreams muscle twitchingPresentAbsent* Heart rate, BP. Respiration Body temperatureFluctuatingStable* NeurotransmitterNoradrenalineSerotonin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of acute compament syndrome in children is ? | [
"Fracture supracondylar humerus",
"Transphysealhumerus fracture",
"Fracture radius /ulna",
"Fracture shaft humerus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fracture supracondylar humerus Compament syndrome is most commonly caused by extremity fractures :- Supracondylar fracture of humerus is the most common cause is children. Crush injuries to forearm are the most common cause in adults. Other injuries are fracture both bones forearm, elbow dislocation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
New born male baby presented with congestive heart failure. On examination enlarged fontanelles, a loud cranial bruit and following radiological finding was noted-the mostly likely diagnosis: | [
"Vein of Galen malformation",
"Dandy walker syndrome",
"Pneumocephalus",
"Crouzon syndrome"
] | A | Ans. a. Vein of Galen malformationVein of Galen malformations (VOGMs) are one type of disorder known as cerebral vascular malformations, which affect the blood vessels in the brain.It is a very rare vascular malformation of the brain that develops before birth and is sometimes diagnosed in the womb or soon after birth.The congenital malformation develops mainly during weeks 6-11 of fetal development as a persistent embryonic prosencephalic vein of Markowski; thus, VGAM is actually a misnomer.The vein of Markowski drains into the vein of Galen.It causes high-output heart failure in the newborn resulting from the decreased resistance and high blood flow in the lesion.The clinical findings include cerebral ischemic changes such as strokes or steal phenomena that result in progressive hemiparesis.The malformation may result in mass effects, which causes progressive neurological impairment.Alternatively, the malformation may cause obstruction of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) outflow and result in hydrocephalus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Collagen molecule exhibits all of the following
features except | [
"Triple pleated sheath",
"Mostly contains glycine residues",
"Exhibit cross striations at 64 μm",
"Intracellular in nature"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renin is found in which of the following organs: | [
"Liver",
"Kidney",
"Adrenal gland",
"Thyroid gland"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arch of aoa develops from which aoa arch aery | [
"Right 1st",
"Right 3rd",
"Left 4th",
"Left 3rd"
] | C | HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:254The arch of aoa is derived from the ventral pa of the aoic sac(1), its left horn (2)and the left fouh aery(3) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following tissues can metabolize glucose, fatty acids, and ketone bodies for ATP production: | [
"Liver",
"Muscle",
"Brain",
"Red blood cells"
] | B | Muscles can use all i.e. glucose, fatty acids & ketone bodies. WITH REGARD TO OTHER OPTIONS: Liver (Option a) cannot use ketone bodies, because of deficiency of Thiophorase (first enzyme of ketone body utilization). Brain (Option c) cannot use F.A. because F.A. cannot cross BBB. RBCs (Option d) cannot use fatty acids & ketone bodies, because they lack mitochondria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monkey disease is also known as | [
"Japanese Encephalitis",
"Kyasanur forest disease",
"Rickettsial Disease",
"Rabies"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Catatonia is characterized by all except NOT RELATED-PSYCHIATRY | [
"Echolalia",
"Grandiosity",
"Mutism",
"Abnormal posturing"
] | B | Catatonia is characterized by marked disturbance of motor behavior presents in 3 clinical forms.a) Excited catatoniab) Stuporous catatoniac) Catatonia alternating between excitement & stupor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24 year old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment. | [
"Acitretin",
"Isotretinoin",
"Doxycycline",
"Azithromycin"
] | B | Ans. B. IsotretinoinAcitretin* It is used to help relieve and control severe skin disorders, such as severe psoriasis.* It works by allowing normal growth and development of the skin.* Acitretin must not be used to treat women who are able to bear children unless other forms of treatment have been tried first and failed.* Acitretin must not be taken during pregnancy because it causes birth defects in humansIsotretinoin* It is used to treat the most severe form of acne (nodular acne) that cannot be cleared up by any other acne treatments, including antibiotics* Birth defects (deformed babies), loss of baby before birth (miscarriage), death of baby, and early (premature) births. Female patients who are pregnant or who plan to become pregnant must not take isotretinoin.Female patients must not get pregnant:* For 1 month before starting isotretinoin,* While taking isotretinoin* For 1 month after stopping isotretinoin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Griseofulvin is not useful in one of the following: | [
"Tinea capitis",
"Tinea cruris",
"Tinea versicolor",
"Tinea pedis"
] | C | Ans. (C) Tinea versicolor(Ref: CMDT -2010/110)Griseofulvin is used for dermatophytoses including Tinea capitis, Tinea cruris, Tinea pedis, Tinea unguum and Tinea corporis etc.Tinea versicolor is caused by a yeast Malassezia furfur. It is treated by selenium sulfide and ketoconazole shampoo. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice of penicilline resistant gonococcol infection is - | [
"Spectinomycin",
"Ceftriaxone",
"Penicillin",
"Ceflazidime"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vomer-sphenoidal rostrum junction is - | [
"Syndesmosis",
"Synostosis",
"Schindylesis",
"Gomphosis"
] | C | Vomer-sphenoid rostrum junction is schindylesis type of suture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Killer cells are associated with type ..... immunologic response - | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"None"
] | D | Ans. is D - 'None' . Killer cells are antibody dependent cytotoxic cells (ADCC) a type of Null cells. . "The role of ADCC in hypersensitivity diseases is unceain". Don't get confused between type II hypersensitivity and antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). . Type II hypersensitivity is mediated by antibodies directed toward antigens present on cell surfaces or extracellular matrix. It involves opsonization i.e., complement and Fc receptor mediated phagocytosis. . Antibody-mediated destruction of cells may occur by another process called antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). It is different from Type II hypersensitivity. It does not involve fixation of complement but instead requires the co-operation of leukocytes i.e., antibody dependent cytotoxic cells (ADCC). It is not a type II hypersensitivity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
CSF findings shows protein - 60%, sugar - 40%; and neutrophils - predominant. The diagnosis is | [
"Viral meningitis",
"Bacterial meningitis",
"Tuberculous meningitis",
"Fungal meningitis"
] | B | (B) Bacterial meningitis TYPICAL LUMBAR CSF FINDINGS IN MENINGITISTestBacterialViralFungalTuberculousOpening PressureElevatedUsually normalVariableVariableLeukocyte count>1000/pL<100/pLVariableVariableCell differentialMainly neutrophilsMainly lymphocytesMainly lymphocytesMainly lymphocytesProteinMild-marked increaseNomral-mild increaseIncreasedIncreasedGlucoseUsually < 40 mg/dLNormalDecrasedDecreased: may be < 40 mg/dLCSF-to-serum glucose ratioNormal-marked decreaseUsually normalLowLowLactic acidMild-marked increaseNormal-mild increaseMild-moderate increaseMild-moderate increase | train | med_mcqa | null |
Teratogens produce all or none effect till which day of gestation? | [
"21",
"31",
"41",
"51"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 31 Timing of Teratogen exposure and The hazardsBefore D 31: Teratogen produces an all or none effect. The conceptus either does not survive or survives without anomalies. In early conception only few cells are there. So any damage at that phase is irreparable and is lethal.D 31-D 71 is the critical period for organ formation. Effects of teratogen depend on the following factors: (i) Amount of the drug reaching the fetus, (ii) Gestational age at the time of exposure, (iii) Duration of exposure.After D 71 development of other organs continues. Diethylstilbestrol (DES) related uterine anomalies occur with exposure around 20 weeks.Brain continues to develop throughout pregnancy and neonatal period. Fetal alcohol syndrome occurs in late pregnancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malabsorption is caused by all except: | [
"Ascaris lumbricoides",
"Stronglyoides",
"Capillaria philiphinesis",
"Giardia lamblia"
] | A | Ascaris lumbricoides | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic Burrowing ulcer is caused by: | [
"Microaerophilic streptococci",
"Peptostreptococcus",
"Streptococcus viridans",
"Streptococcus pyogenes"
] | A | Microaerophilic streptococci ''This type of ulcer is due to symbiotic action of tnicroaerophilic non-haemolytic streptococci and haemolytic staphylococcus aureus" - S. Das Chronic burrowing ulcers or Meleney's ulcers are seen in the post-operative wounds either after the operation for perforated viscus or for drainage of empyema thoracis. Clinicaly it is an undermined ulcer with lot of granulation tissue in the floor. This condition is painful, toxaemic, and the general condition deteriorates without treatment. Textbook of Surgery by ljazAhsan writes -"The microaerophilic streptococcus causes infections that develop slowly. Chronic burrowing ulcer and chronic cutaneous gangrene are good examples. Radical drainage is necessary .for cure, antibiotics alone being useless." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shoest acting anticholinesterase is - | [
"Edrophonium",
"Pyridostigmine",
"Glycopyrrolate",
"Neostigmine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Edrophonium o Edrophonium is the shoest acting anti-ChE. o Why is it so, lets see : o When carbamates (other than edrophonium) and organophophates react with cholinesterase, they form covalent bond at esteratic site, which is considerably resistant to hydrolysis. o In contrast, edrophonium binds electrostatically and by hydrogen bonds at anionic site (not at esteratic site) of cholinesterase. The enzyme inhibitor complex does not involve a covalent bond and is correspondingly sho lived (2-10 minutes). o So edrophonium is also called as noncovalent inhibitor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lardaceous spleen is due to deposition of amyloid in - | [
"Sinusoids of red pulp",
"White pulp",
"Pencilary aery",
"Splenic trabeculae"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sinusoids of red pulp Organs involved in Amyloidosis Kidney Has been explained Spleen o One of the two patterns of deposition is seen ? Sago spleen ---> Amyloid deposition is largely limited to splenic follicles, it produces topioca like granules on gross inspection. Lardoceous spleen --> Amyloid depositon spares the follicles and instead involves the walls of the splenic sinuses and connective tissue framework in red pulp. Hea o Cardiac symptoms are the second most common presentation (after kidney). o More common in primary amyloid (AL). Though the second most commonly affected organ, it is the leading cause of moality o It is also the major organ involved in senile systemic amyloidosis. o There is focal subendocardial deposition and intermyocardial deposition (between myocardial fibres). Subendocardial deposits can damage conduction system. Liver o Amyloid appears first in space of Disse and then progressively encroaches on adjucent hepatic parenchymal cells and sinusoids. o Normal liver functions are preserved despite sometimes quite severe involvement of the liver. Adrenal Deposits begin adjacent to the basement membranes of coical cells, usually first in the zona glomarulosa. Tongue o Deposition in Tongue cause macroglossia --> tumor forming amyloid of tongue. Peripheral and automatic nerves In familial amyoloidotic neuropathies. Carpal - tunnel o Most prominant in hemodialysis associated amyloidosis, and can cause carpal tunnel syndrome. In brain In senile plaques of Alzheimer disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
HACEK group includes all except: | [
"H.paraphrophilus",
"Acinetobacter baumanii",
"Eikenella corrodens",
"Kingella Kingae"
] | B | H - Hemophilus species
A - Aggregatibacter (actinobacillus)
C - Cardiobacterium
E - Eikenella corrodens
K - Kingella Kingae | train | med_mcqa | null |
Uterine bleeding at 12 weeks gestation without any cervical dilation is an indication of | [
"Incomplete aboion",
"Threatened aboion",
"Missed aboion",
"Inevitable aboion"
] | B | Bleeding occurs in about 30 to 40%of human gestations before 20 weeks of pregnancy, with about half of these pregnancies ending in spontaneous aboion. A threatened aboion takes place when this uterine bleeding occurs without any cervical dilation or effacement | train | med_mcqa | null |
Limitation of case fatality rate | [
"Not useful in acute infectious disease",
"Not related to virulence",
"Time period not specified",
"It is not related to survival rate"
] | C | Case fatality rate Total number of deaths due to a paicular disease ________________________________________ X 100 Total number of cases due to to the same disease Case fatality rate represents the killing power of a disease It is simply the ratio of deaths to cases The time interval is not specified Case fatality rate is typically used in acute infectious diseases ( eg: food poisoning, cholera, measles) Case fatality is closely related to virulence The case fatality rate for the same disease may vary in different epidemics because of changes in the agent, host and environmental factors Reference: Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social medicine; 23rd edition; Page no. 58 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lungs do not collapse during expiration because of the presence of? | [
"Hyaline membrane",
"Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline",
"Macrophages",
"Interstitial fluid"
] | B | b. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline(Ref: Ghai 8/e p 169-170)Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline is an important constituent of Surfactant, which prevent alveolar collapse during expiration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse develops rapidly progressive right-sided hea failure. These symptoms are most likely due to which of the following conditions? | [
"Aoic insufficiency",
"Mitral regurgitation",
"Ruptured chordae tendineae",
"Tricuspid insufficiency"
] | D | Tricuspid insufficiency secondary to bacterial endocarditis is one of the most common complications of intravenous drug abuse. Intravenous drug abusers inject pathogenic organisms along with their illicit drugs. In such patients, 80% have no underlying cardiac lesion and the tricuspid valve is infected in half of cases. Septic pulmonary emboli characterize tricuspid valve endocarditis in drug addicts. Despite antibiotic therapy, a third of cases of endocarditis caused by S. aureus are fatal. Other risk factors for bacterial endocarditis include aging, diabetes, pregnancy, transient bacteremia and prosthetic valves. The most common predisposing condition for bacterial endocarditis in children is congenital hea disease. The other choices primarily affect the left ventricle. Tricuspid stenosis is distinctly uncommon and does not occur rapidly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following tumour shows a radiological sign called "pneumonias dilatans"? NOT RELATED-RADIOLOGY | [
"Meningiomas",
"Ependymomas",
"Hemangioblastomas",
"Medulloblastomas"
] | A | Radiological signs of meningiomas:- Dural-based tumor - Hyperostosis of skull- Pneumosinus dilatans - Dural tail sign- Strong homogenous contrast uptake - Calcification common - Mother-in-law sign | train | med_mcqa | null |
Where does ADH not act ? | [
"PCT",
"Collecting duct,",
"Collectingtubules",
"DCT"
] | A | Ans. is. 'a' i.e., PCT HormoneSite of action in kidneyEffectsAldosteroneDistal tubule (late) and collecting duct| NaCl & water reabsorptions, K+ secretionADHDistal tubule and collecting duct| Water reabsorptionAngiotensin IIProximal tubule, thick ascending limb of loop of Henle, distal tubule, collecting duct| NaCl & water reabsoiptionANPDistal tubule, collecting duct| NaCl reabsorption | train | med_mcqa | null |
The long term objective of national programme for prevention and control of deafness is:- | [
"To reduce disease burden by 25% by end of XII five year plan",
"To reduce disease burden by 50% by end of XII five year plan",
"To reduce disease burden by 75% by end of XII five year plan",
"To reduce disease burden by 100% by end of XIIfive year plan"
] | A | Long term objective: To reduce disease burden by 25% by end of XI five year plan. National programme for prevention and control of deafness: OBJECTIVES :1. To prevent avoidable hearing loss on account of disease or injury.2. Early identification, diagnosis and treatment of ear problems responsible for hearingloss and deafness.3. To medically rehabilitate persons of all age groups, suffering with deafness.4. To strengthen the existing inter-sectoral linkages for continuity of the rehabilitationprogramme, for persons with deafness.5. To develop institutional capacity for ear care services by providing suppo forequipment, material and training personnel. Long term objective: To prevent and control major causes of hearing impairment anddeafness, so as to reduce the total disease burden by 25% of the existing burden by the endof 12th Five Year Plan | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soft water has hardness levels of | [
"50",
"100",
"150",
"200"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 50 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactyly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from: | [
"Trisomy 21",
"Trisomy 18",
"Trisomy 13",
"Turner syndrome"
] | C | The incidence of trisomy 13 is about 1:12,000 live bihs, and 60% of affected individuals are female. Most infants with trisomy 13 have congenital anomalies that are incompatible with survival. Surviving children demonstrate failure to thrive, cognitive disabilities, apneic spells, seizures, and deafness. The symptoms and signs include characteristic features, often a normal bih weight, CNS malformations, eye malformations, cleft lip and palate, polydactyly or syndactyly, and congenital hea disease. The incidence of trisomy 18 syndrome is about 1:4000 live bihs, and the ratio of affected males to females is approximately 1:3. Trisomy 18 is characterized by prenatal and postnatal growth retardation that is often severe, and hypeonicity. Complications are related to associated bih defects. Death is often caused by hea failure or pneumonia and usually occurs in infancy or early childhood, although a small percentage of patients reach adulthood. Characteristic features of Trisomy 21 include upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, midface hypoplasia, and small, dysplastic pinnae. Characteristic features of Turner syndrome (Monosomy X) include webbed neck, triangular facies, sho stature, wide-set nipples, amenorrhea, and absence of secondary sex characteristics. Ref: Tsaic A.C., Manchester D.K., Elias E.R. (2012). Chapter 37. Genetics & Dysmorphology. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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