question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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Reflex responsible for tachycardia during right ventricle distention is: | [
"Bezold-jaisch reflex",
"Brainbridge reflex",
"Cushing reflex",
"J -reflex"
] | B | Bezold-jaisch reflex: produces hypoapnoea and bradycardia Brainbridge refex: responsible for tachycardia due to ventricular distention Cushing reflex:it is physiological nervous response to increased intracranial pressure which produces Cushing triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, bradycardia. J -reflex: inhibition of stomatic smooth muscle due to stimulation of j receptors in the alveoli. Ref: Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition, page number: 373 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of | [
"Gram positive bacteria",
"Gram negative bacteria",
"Yeast",
"Protozoa"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is primary cell line ? | [
"Chick embryo fibroblast",
"Hela cells",
"Vero cells",
"WI-38"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chick embryo fibroblast Chick embryo fibroblast is primary cell culture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not associated with increase in the risk of seizures in future in a child with febrile seizures – | [
"Developmental delay",
"Late age of onset",
"Complex partial seizures",
"Family history positive"
] | B | Risk factor for seizures in future (Risk factor for recurrence)
Positive family history
Atypical complex febrile convulsion
Neurodevelopment retardation (MR, CP development delay).
Early onset of febrile seizure (before 1 year)
Focal features
More than one seizures in the same day. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias due to mycardial infarction (MI) is: | [
"Quinidine",
"Amiodarone",
"Xylocaine",
"Diphenylhydantoin"
] | C | Xylocaine or lidocaine administered intravenously is specifically indicated in the acute management of ventricular arrhythmias such as those occurring in relation to acute myocardial infarction, or during cardiac manipulation, such as cardiac surgery. it belongs to class 1b agents other best drugs to prevent arrhythmias post-MI-lidocaine Ref: | train | med_mcqa | null |
In primary pulmonary hypeension basic abnormality in gene lies in: | [
"Bone morphogenetic protein receptor II",
"Endothelin",
"Homebox gene",
"PAX - 11"
] | A | Answer is A (Bone morphogenic Receptor Protein II) Gene coding the type II bone morhphogenetic protein receptor II (BMPR II) is associated with familial cases of primary pulmonary hypeension and designated as the PPH I gene. Bone morphogenic protein receptor II (BMPRII) and pulmonary Hypeension BMPRII is a cell surface protein receptor belonging to the TGF-13 receptor superfamily (located on chromosome 2q31) BMP-BMPRII signaling plays an impoant role in embryogenesis, apoptosis, cell proliferation and differentiation. In vascular smooth muscles normal BMPR2 signalling causes inhibition of proliferation and our apoptosis, thereby protecting the vessels from narrowing and development of hypeension Primary pulmonary hypeension is believed to be caused by a mutation in the gene coding for the BMPR II signaling pathway (PPH-1 gene/BMPRII gene) Mutation in the BMPR II gene (PPH-Igene) predisposes the cells to undergo proliferation rather than apoptosis and results in development of pulmonary hypeension. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 90-year-old woman with mild diabetes and Alzheimer disease dies in her sleep. At autopsy, hepatocytes are noted to contain golden cytoplasmic granules that do not stain with Prussian blue. Which of the following best accounts for pigment accumulation in the liver of this patient? | [
"Advanced age",
"Alzheimer disease",
"Congestive heart failure",
"Diabetic ketoacidosis"
] | A | Advanced age. Substances that cannot be metabolized accumulate in cells. Examples include (1) endogenous substrates that are not processed because a key enzyme is missing (lysosomal storage diseases), (2) insoluble endogenous pigments (lipofuscin and melanin), and (3) exogenous particulates (silica and carbon). Lipofuscin is a "wear and tear" pigment of aging that accumulates in organs such as the brain, heart, and liver. None of the other choices are associated with lipofuscin accumulation.Diagnosis: Aging, lipofuscin | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first permanent tooth to erupt in the oral cavity
is the: | [
"Mandibular central incisor",
"Mandibular first molar",
"Maxillary central incisor",
"Maxillary first molar"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common complication of Sub-valvular Aoic Stenosis is: | [
"Aoic Regurgitation",
"Mitral Regurgitation",
"Tricuspid regurgitation",
"Pulmonary Regurgitation"
] | A | Answer is A (Aoic Regurgitation) Aoic regurgitation is the most common complication of subaoic stenosis. Aoic regurgitation is the most common complication of subaoic stenosis occurring in more than 50% of patients. Aoic Regurgitation is believed to be caused from Valvular damage due to the high-pressure Subvalvular systolic jet originating at the level of stenosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement regarding lithium toxicity is: | [
"Increased by increased serum sodium levels",
"Increased by decreased serum sodium levels",
"Increased in acute tubular necrosis",
"Appears when the serrum levels become triple the dose of therapeutic levels"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A drug that compete for active binding site is called: | [
"Competitive inhibitor",
"Non–competitive inhibitor",
"Covalent inhibitor",
"Any of these"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a granuloma epithelioid cells are giant cells and derived from | [
"T lymphocytes",
"Monocyte-macrophages",
"B lymphocytes",
"Mast cells"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug resistance differentiates the non fermenters, Psedomonas and burkholderia? | [
"Resistance to ampicillin",
"Resistance to ceftazidime",
"Resistance to ciprofloxacin",
"Resistance to polymyxin B"
] | D | Burkholderia can be differentiated from Pseudomonas by it's resistance to polymyxin, As polymyxin B is used for treating Psedomonas infection | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation? | [
"Phenylbutazone",
"Aspirin",
"Ibuprofen",
"Piroxicam"
] | D | Piroxicam: It is a long-acting potent NSAID with anti-inflammatory potency similar to indomethacin and good analgesic-antipyretic action. It is a reversible inhibitor of COX; lowers PG concentration in synol fluid and inhibits platelet aggregation-prolonging bleeding time. In addition, it decreases the production of IgM rheumatoid factor and leukocyte chemotaxis. Pharmacokinetics: 99% plasma protein bound; Excreted in urine and bile; enterohepatic cycling occurs Adverse effects: The g.i. side effects are more than ibuprofen, but it is better tolerated and less ulcerogenic than indomethacin or phenylbutazone; causes less fecal blood loss than aspirin. Rashes and pruritus are seen in < 1% of patients. Edema and reversible azotemia have been observed. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION; KD TRIPATHI; PAGE NO 201 | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to ICMR guidelines, what is the daily protein requirement of a girl age group 13-15 years of age | [
"0.8 gms",
"0.95 gms",
"1.0 gms",
"1.33 gms"
] | B | Ans. b. 0.95 gms | train | med_mcqa | null |
HPV vaccine is: | [
"Monovalent",
"Bivalent",
"Quardrivalent",
"Bivalent & quadrivalent"
] | D | Currently two Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccines are available in India as a protection against cervical cancer Gardasil vaccine: HPV types 6, 11, 16, 18 (Quadrivalent) Cervarix vaccine: HPV types 16, 18 (Bivalent) | train | med_mcqa | null |
false regarding preservatives used in university of visconsin solution during organ transplantation a- lactobionate = minimize cel swelling and reperfusion b- glutathionate = free radical scavenger c- allopurinol- antioxidant d- adenosine - precursor of energy metabolism e- raffinose & hydroxy ethy starch - prevention of the extra cellular space expansion | [
"a,b,c",
"b,c",
"c,d,e",
"a,c,e"
] | B | preservatives used in university of visconsin solution during organ transplantation a- lactobionate = minimize cel swelling and reperfusion b- glutathionate =antioxidant free c- allopurinol- radical scavenger d- adenosine - precursor of energy metabolism e- raffinose & hydroxy ethy starch - prevention of the extra cellular space expansion ref : bailey and love 27th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a branch of facial nerve-(JIPMER 10) | [
"Branch to stylohyoid muscle",
"Chorda tympani nerve",
"Lingual nerve",
"Greater petrosal nerve"
] | C | The lingual nerve is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3), which supplies sensory innervation to the tongue. It also carries fibers from the facial nerve, which return taste information from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, via the chorda tympani. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172cm - | [
"27",
"30",
"33",
"36"
] | B | BMI = weight in kg/ height in metre square = 89/1.72/1.72 =30.08. Ref-Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 24th edition. . | train | med_mcqa | null |
The prophylaxis of pin prick injury in HIV EXCEPT | [
"Zidovudine for 4 weeks",
"If there is scalpel cut wound along with Zidovudine with Stauvudine and Lamivudine",
"Regular blood testing",
"Acyclovir for 12 months"
] | D | (D) Acyclovir for 12 months # Prevention of HIV transmission in health care settings:> In health care settings, universal body fluid precautions should be used, including use of gloves when handling body fluids and the addition of gown, mask, and goggles for procedures that may result in splash or droplet spread, and use of specially designed needles with sheath devices to decrease the risk of needle sticks.> Because transmission of tuberculosis may occur in health care settings, all patients with cough should be encouraged to wear masks.> Hospitalized HIV- infected patients with cough should be placed in respiratory isolation until tuberculosis can be excluded by chest radiograph and sputum smear examination.> Epidemiologic studies show that needle sticks occur commonly among health care professionals, especially among surgeons performing invasive procedures, inexperienced hospital house staff, and medical students.> Efforts to reduce needle sticks should focus on avoiding recapping needles and use of safety needles whenever doing invasive procedures under controlled circumstances.# Risk of HIV transmission from a needle stick with blood from an HIV-infected patient is about 1:300. The risk is higher with deep punctures, large inoculum, and source patients with high viral loads.> Risk from mucous membrane contact is too low to quantitate.> Health care professionals who sustain needle sticks should be counseled and offered HIV testing as soon as possible.> HIV testing is done to establish a negative baseline for worker's compensation claims in case there is a subsequent conversion.> Follow-up testing is usually performed at 6 weeks, 3 months, and 6 months.> Preferred regimen is Tenofovlr 300 mg with Emtricitabine 200 mg daily with Raltegravir 400 mg twice a day.> Providers who have exposures to persons who are likely to have Antiretro-viral medication resistance (eg, persons receiving therapy who have detectable viral loads) should have their therapy individualized, using at least two medications to which the source is unlikely to be resistant.> Because reports have noted hepatotoxicity due to Nevirapine in this setting, this agent should be avoided.> There have been documented cases of seroconversion following potential parenteral exposure to HIV despite prompt use of Zidovudine prophylaxis.> Counseling of the provider should include "safer sex" guidelines. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of a class II dental amalgam restoration: | [
"Delayed expansion",
"Inadequate depth at the isthmus area",
"Inadequate width at the isthmus area",
"Moisture contamination of the amalgam"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
After Phase II reaction the drug shows: | [
"Less bioreactive",
"Increased bioavailability",
"Increased water solubility",
"Increased lipid solubility"
] | C | Ans: c (Increased water solubility)Ref: KD Tripathi 6th ed. Pg. 24-25Phase II reactions makes the drug more water souble and is easily excreted in urine or bile.Biotransformation reactionsPhase I: It is also called nonsynthetic or functionalization reaction. In this reaction a functional group is exposed or generated.Eg: Oxidation: Eg - Hydroxylation (most important oxidation reaction) is by cytochrome P 450ReductionHydrolysisPhase II: It is also called synthetic or conjugation reaction. These reactions involve conjugation of the M drug or phase I metabolite with an endogenous substance to form a polar highly ionized and water soluble organic acid which is easily excreted in urine.* Eg - Glucuronide conjugation* Acetylation* Methylation* Sulfate conjugation* Glycine conjugation* Glutathione conjugation* Nucleotide synthesis After phase II reaction most of the metabolite become inactive (except morphine and minoxidil), so the (a) choice is partially correct. But the most appropriate answer is that phase II reaction increases their water solubility. | train | med_mcqa | null |
4th state of matter is | [
"Solid",
"Liquid",
"Gas",
"Colloid"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Liver is divided in 2 halves by all except | [
"Right hepatic vein",
"Poal vein",
"Hepatic aery",
"Common bile duct"
] | A | Right hepatic vein is not a component of poal triad Liver is not divided into two halves by right hepatic vein Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1421 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a tributary of Azygos Vein among the following is | [
"Lumbar Ascending vein",
"Subcostal Vein",
"Intercostolumbar azygos vein",
"Right Bronchial Vein"
] | C | 1. Formative tributaries of Azygos Vein are Lumbar Ascending vein, Subcostal Vein and lumbar azygos vein.
2. Right Bronchial Vein is the last tributary of Azygos Vein | train | med_mcqa | null |
A chronic alcoholic patient on high carbohydrate diet develops a deficiency of | [
"Selenium",
"Cadmium",
"Manganese",
"Iodine"
] | C | (Manganese) (410-H) (449-H17th) Deficiencies of manganese have been reported to result in bone demineralization, poor growth, ataxia, disturbances in carbohydrate and lipid metabolism and convulsion Deficiency and Toxicities of Metals Element Deficiency Toxicity Boron No-biologic function determined Developmental defects, male sterility, testicular atrophy Copper Anemia, growth retardation, defective keratinization and pigmentation of hair, hypothermia, degenerative changes in aortic elastin, osteopenia, mental deterioration. Hepatic failure, tremor, mental deterioration, hemolytic anemia, renal dysfunction Chromium Impaired glucose tolerance* Occupational renal failure dermatitis, pulmonary cancers. Manganese Impaired growth and skeletal development, reproduction, lipid and carbohydrate metabolism: upper body rash General:- Neurotoxicity, Parkinson like symptoms. Occupational:- Encephalitis like syndrome, Parkinson like syndrome, psychosis pneumoconiosis. Molybdenum Severe Neurologic abnormalities Reproductive and fetal abnormalities Selenium Cardiomyopathy, heart failure, striated muscle degeneration General:- Alopecia, abnormal nails, emotional lability, peripheral neuropathy, lassitude, garlic odor to breath, dermatitis. Occupational:- Lung and nasal carcinoma, liver necrosis, pulmonary inflammation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alkalinization of urine is done in which of the following drug poisoning ? | [
"Amphetamine",
"Morphine",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Digoxin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which statement is false about allosteric regulation? | [
"It is usually the mode of regulation for the last step in reaction pathways",
"Cellular response is faster with allosteric control than by controlling enzyme concentration in the cell",
"The regulation usually is impoant to the conservation of energy and materials in cells",
"Allosteric modulators bind non-c... | A | Allosteric regulation is usually the mode of regulation for the first step in reaction pathways. Allosteric modulators can be activators or inhibitors.They bind non-covalently at allosteric/regulatory site. By binding at allosteric site, they induce changes in the active site, where substrate binds and they modulate the binding of substrate. Binding of dissociable ligands (allosteric regulation) achieve regulation of enzymic activity within seconds | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brugada Syndrome is associated with: | [
"Left Bundle Branch Block",
"Left Anterior Fascicular block",
"Left Posterior Fascicular block",
"Right Bundle Branch Block"
] | D | Answer is D (Right Bundle Branch Block) Brugada Syndrome is typically associated with a Right Bundle Branch Block (RBBB) pattern on EKG. Brugada Syndrome is characterized by syncopal episodes and/or sudden death and a characteristic electrocardiogram (ECG) with a pattern of Right Bundle Branch Block with an ST segment elevation in leads V1 to V3. The diagnosis Brugada syndrome is based on the history of sudden death with the typical electrocardiographic pattern of ST segment elevation in leads V1-V3, with or without right bundle branch block. The presence of RBBB is not essential to the diagnosis of Brugada Syndrome. Patients with Brugada Syndrome may have a structurally normal hea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
FDA approved antifungal treatment of mucormycosis? | [
"Liposomal Amphotericin",
"Amphotericin B deoxycholate",
"Amphotericin B taurocholate",
"Voriconazole"
] | B | Amphotericin B Deoxycholate is the only FDA approved drug for mucormycosis.Ref: Harrison 18th/pg 1663 | train | med_mcqa | null |
68-years-old man weighing 60 kg has plasma creatinine 3mg/dL. What will be creatinine clearance? | [
"10",
"20",
"30",
"40"
] | B | By Cockcroft & Gault formula Factors influencing 1. Body wt. - Assumed to be d/o muscle mass - Muscle - creatine - creatinine 2. Age - with advancing age, number of functional nephrons decrease Cockcroft & gault formula unreliable in: - 1. Obesity 2. Pregnancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of a patient with acute bronchial asthma except | [
"Ipratropium",
"Salbutamol",
"Montelukast",
"Hydrocortisone"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pterygium of the nail is seen in | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Tinea unguium",
"Alopecia areata"
] | A | Pterygium of the nail is classically seen in lichen planus: Pterygium unguis (also known as "Dorsal pterygium") forms as a result of scarring between the proximal nailfold and matrix, with the classic example being lichen planus, though it has been repoed to occur as a result of sarcoidosis and Hansen's disease Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1234 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 59-year-old man is planning to undergo a coronary aery bypass. He has osteoahritis and consumes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment prior to surgery to minimize his risk of bleeding from his NSAID use? | [
"Begin vitamin K 1 week prior to surgery.",
"Give FFP few hours before surgery",
"Stop the NSAIDs 1 week prior to surgery.",
"Stop the NSAIDs 3 to 4 days prior to surgery."
] | D | NSAIDs such as aspirin block platelet function by causing a reversible defect in the enzyme cyclooxygenase. Unlike aspirin which permanently acetylates cyclooxygenase and leaves affected platelets dysfunctional throughout their 7-day life span, NSAIDs cause a reversible defect that lasts 3 to 4 days. Therefore, the patient's platelets will be functional for surgery if he stops taking the NSAIDs 3 to 4 days prior to the date of surgery. The patient would not benefit from FFP or vitamin K since he does not have problems with his clotting factors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infectious stage of plasmodium is: | [
"Trophozoite",
"Cryptozoite",
"Sporozoite",
"Merozoite"
] | C | Ans. (c)(Ref: Medical Parasitology by D.R. Arora and B. Arora, 2nd edition)Malaria parasites exhibit a complex life cycle involving alternating cycles of asexual division (schizogony) occurring in man (intermediate host) and sexual development (sporogony) in mosquito (definitive host). Thus, malaria exhibits alteration of generation. The sporozoite is the infective stage found in the salivary gland of the female mosquito. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pendred syndrome due to mutation of ? | [
"Baillin",
"Pendrin",
"Fibrillin",
"Reticulin"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Pendrin Pendred syndrome or Pendred disease :? Pendred syndrome or Pendred disease is a genetic disorder leading to congenital bilateral (both sides) sensorineural hearing loss and goitre with occasional hypothyroidism. It has been linked to mutations in the PDSgene, which codes for the pendrin protein (solute carrier family 26, member 4, SLC26A4). The gene is located on the long arm of chromosome 7 (7q31). It is an autosomal recessive disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed on X-ray multiple air fluid levels are seen. The diagnosis is most likely to be? | [
"Pyloric obstruction",
"Duodenal atresia",
"Ileal atresia",
"Ladd's bands"
] | C | Ans. CMultiple air-fluid levels indicate a more distal site of obstruction along the bowel-hence llieal atresia in the newborn. It is associated with cystic fibrosis. Plain radiograph shows multiple air fluid levels and dilated loops of proximal bowel. Barium enema shows microcolon. On antenatal USG it is often discovered prenatally as proximal dilated intestinal segment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cornification index or eosinophilic index indicates: | [
"Progesterone effect",
"Estrogenic effect",
"Effect of LH",
"All of the above"
] | B | Estrous: It is cyclical period of sexual activity in non human female mammals, marked by congestion of and secretion by the uterine mucosa, proliferation of vaginal epithelium, swelling of the vulva, ovulation, and acceptance of the male by the female. During estrus, the animal is said to be “in heat”.
Also Know:
Estrus cycle – The sequence from the beginning of one estrus period to the beginning of the next.
It includes : • Proestrus
• Estrus
• Metestrus followed by
• Diestrus (period of quiescence). | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease EXCEPT | [
"It is a Prion disease",
"Non-fatal neuro degenarative condition",
"Dementia, involuntary movements, blindness, weakness, and coma can occur",
"There is no specific treatment."
] | B | (B) Non-fatal neurodegenerative condition# Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)> It is a rare, degenerative, invariably fatal brain disorder.> It affects about one person in every one million people per year worldwide.> CJD is a universally fatal brain disorder.> Early symptoms include memory problems, behavioral changes, poor coordination, and visual disturbances. Later dementia, involuntary movements, blindness, weakness, and coma occur.> About 90% of CJD people die within a year of diagnosis.> CJD is believed to be caused by a protein known as a prion.>Infectious prions are misfolded proteins that can cause normally folded proteins to become misfolded.> Most cases occur spontaneously, while about 7.5% of cases are inherited from a person's parents in an autosomal dominant manner. Exposure to brain or spinal tissue from an infected person may also result in spread> No evidence that CJD can spread between people via normal contact or blood transfusions.# Diagnosis invoives: EEG -- has characteristic generalized periodic sharp wave pattern (-80% of patients by 6 months). CSF anaiysis for 14-3-3 protein MRI of the brain--often shows high signal intensity in the caudate nucleus and putamen bilaterally on T2-weighted images.> There is no specific treatment Opioids may be used to help with pain, while clonazepam or sodium valproate may help with involuntary movements. CJD affects about one per million people per year. Onset is typically around 60 years of age. It is classified as a type of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy. CJD is different from bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease) and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD). Most people with CJD will die within a year of the symptoms starting, usually from infection.> This is because the immobility caused by CJD can make people with the condition vulnerable to infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following antifungal used in treatment of cushing syndrome is | [
"Ketoconazole",
"Fluconazole",
"Itraconazole",
"Miconazole"
] | A | (A) (Ketoconazole) (720-KDT) (763-KDT6th)USESA.KETOCONAZOLE* Effective in dermatophytosis, mondial vaginitis, systemic mycosis.* It has also been tried in dermal leishmaniasis and Kala-azar* * High dose KTZ has been used in Cushing syndromeB.FLUCONAZOLE* Indication includes cryptococcal meningitis, systemic and mucosal candidiasis* in both normal and immunocompromised patients, coccidioidal meningitis and histoplasmosis* An eye drop is useful in fungal keratitis* It is preferred drug for fungal meningitis* Most tinea infections and cutaneous candidiasisC.ITRACONAZOLE* Itraconazole is preferred over KTZ for most systemic mycosis * It is superior to fluconazole for histoplasmosis blastomycosis, sporotrichosis and is the drug of choice for paracoccidiomycosis and chromomycosis* In dermatophytosis, more effective than Griseofulvin, but less effective than fluconazole* * OnychomycosisD.MICONAZOLE* It is highly efficacious (79% cure rate) drug for tinea, pityriasis versicolor, otomycosis, cutaneous and vulvovaginal candidiasis, onychomycosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type II hypersensitivity- | [
"Blood transfusion reaction",
"Ahus reaction",
"Hay Fever",
"Glomerulonephritis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Blood transfusion reaction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Herpes virus involves which lobe? | [
"Frontal",
"Parietal",
"Temporal",
"Occipital"
] | C | The clinical hallmark of HSV encephalitis has been the acute onset of fever and focal neurologic symptoms and signs, especially in the temporal lobe . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 979 Clinical differentiation of HSV encephalitis from other viral encephalitides, focal infections, or noninfectious processes is difficult. While brain biopsy has been the gold standard for defining HSV encephalitis, a highly sensitive and specific PCR for detection of HSV DNA in CSF has largely replaced biopsy for defining CNS infection. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 18 th edition, page 1457) | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Gilbe syndrome is: | [
"Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia",
"Starvation improves the condition",
"Phenobarbitone improves the condition",
"Life-threatening"
] | C | Gilbe syndrome: Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia Paial deficiency of UDPglucuronyl transferase enzyme Jaundice precipitated by fasting Phenobarbitone, being an enzyme inducer, improves the condition by increasing the activity of UDP glucuronyl transferase enzyme | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common location for diffuse axonal injuries: | [
"Brain stem",
"Corpus callosum",
"Anterior 1/3rd of spinal cord",
"Junction of grey and white matter"
] | D | Diffuse axonal injury is caused by shearing tension developed because of sudden acceleration or deceleration most commonly involving lobar junction of white and grey matter followed by corpus callosum and brain stem respectively. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following collagen disorder is NOT commonly associated with pulmonary fibrosis - | [
"SLE",
"Progressive systemic sclerosis",
"Dermatomyositis",
"Rheumatoid arthritis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most Radio sensitive stage- | [
"S phase",
"G1 phase",
"G2 phase",
"G2M phase"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., G2M phase o Most sensitive phase of cell cycle - G2M interphaseo Most resistant phase of cell cycle - Late 'S' phaseImportant facts about radiosensitivityo Dividing cells ar4e most sensitive to RTo Non-dividing cells are relatively resistant to RTo Hypoxic cells are resistant to RTo Phase of cell cycle most sensitive to RT - G2Mo Phase of cell cycle most resistant to RT - End of S phaseG2M > G2 > M > G1 > Early S > Late So Phase of cell cycle in which radiation exposure leads to chromosomal aberration - G1o Phase of cell cycle in which radiation exposure leads to chromatid aberration - G2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by | [
"Gonorrhea",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Chlamydia",
"All of the above"
] | D | Other causes of ophthalmia neonatorum are herpes simplex and chemical conjunctivitis Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number76 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tests for detection of heavy metal: | [
"Harrison's Gilroy test.",
"Atomic absorption spectroscopy",
"Neutron activation analysis",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. Harrison Gilroy test; B i.e. Atomic absorption Spectroscopy; C i.e. Neutron activation analysis | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following amino acids forms Acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase except: | [
"Glycine",
"Tyrosine",
"Hydroxyproline",
"Alanine"
] | B | Ans. B. Tyrosine(Ref: Harper 31/e page 151-155)Amino acid that enter via Pyruvate to TCA cycle are:Hydroxy Proline, Serine, Cysteine, Threonine, GlycineTryptophan, Alanine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schick test in diphtheria is done to know: | [
"Carriers",
"Subseceptibles",
"Diseased",
"Immunized"
] | B | Subseceptibles | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left ventricular hyperophy is not a feature of- | [
"Mitral regurgitation",
"Isolated mitral stenosis",
"Isolated ventricular septal defect",
"Aoic stenosis"
] | B | The most common cause of LVH is high blood pressure (hypeension). Other causes include athletic hyperophy (a condition related to exercise), valve disease, hyperophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM), and congenital hea disease not a feature of isolated mitral stenosis Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 445 | train | med_mcqa | null |
3rd heart sound is d/t - | [
"Closure of av valve",
"Closure of aortic valve",
"Mid diastolic flowr in the ventricle",
"Atrial contraction"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mid diastolic flow in the ventricle o Occasionally a weak, rumbling third heart sound is heard at the beginning of the middle third of diastole.o A logical but unproved explanation of this sound is oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by inrushing blood from the atria.o The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is believed to be that in the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create even the small amount of elastic tension necessary for reverberation.o The frequency of this sound is usually so low that the ear cannot hear it, yet it can often be recorded in the phonocardiogram.Feature1st heart sound2nd heart sound3rd heart sound4th heart soundCharacterLow pitched (frequency) slightly prolonged "lub"Shorter high pitched "dup"Soft low pitched weak rumblingArterial heart soundDuration0.14 second0.11 sec.0.1 sec.-Frequency25-45 Hz50 Hz-<20HzQCauseSudden closure of mitral & tricuspid valvesClosure of aortic & pulmonary valvesRapid ventricular fillingQ d/t inthrusing of blood from atriaVentricular fillingQ d/tatrial contraction causing inthrushing of blood.TimingStart of ventricular systoleJust after end of ventricular systoleBegining of middle third of diastoleImmediately before 1st heart sound (presystolic)HeardS1 & S2can be heard with stethoscopeS1 & S4 can not be heard by stethoscope (ear)Q. So oftenly and S5 sometimes can be recorded in phonocardiorgam | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a person weighing 100 Kgs, the blood volume would be: | [
"5 L",
"6 L",
"8 L",
"10 L"
] | C | Blood volume = 8% of body weight. = 8/100x 100kg = 8L | train | med_mcqa | null |
Facial nerve is the nerve of: | [
"First arch",
"Second arch",
"Third arch",
"Fouh arch"
] | B | Second arch | train | med_mcqa | null |
The muscle which is affected last with DTC is- | [
"Facial",
"Diaphragm",
"Ocular",
"Abdominal"
] | B | Ans-B | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of kasturba memorial fund is | [
"Relief work",
"Lepra work",
"Tuberculosis work",
"Women development"
] | D | Created in 1944, the fund was raised with the main objective of improving a lot of women, especially in the villages, through gram-sevikasPark 23e pg: 916 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cervical cytology smear revealed CIN2- next step - | [
"Colposcopy",
"Cryocautery",
"Hysterectomy",
"Laser ablation"
] | A | Ans- A Colposcopy guided biopsy | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which stage, corneal ulcer involving 1/2 of Corneal surface seen in WHO classification of vitamin A deficiency | [
"Stage 2",
"Stage 3A",
"Stage 3B",
"Stage 4"
] | C | WHO classification of Vitamin A deficiency:
I Primary changes
X1A ⇒ Conjunctival xerosis
X1B ⇒ Bitot's spots
X2 ⇒ Corneal xerosis
X3A ⇒ Corneal ulcer < 1/3 rd of corneal surface
X3B ⇒ Corneal ulcer > 1/3rd of corneal surface.
II Secondary changes
XN ⇒ Night blindness
XF ⇒ Xeropthalmic fundus
XS ⇒ Xerophthalmia - related corneal Scar | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dietary fibre is rich in | [
"Starch",
"Pectin",
"Collagen",
"Proteoglycan"
] | B | Repeated question | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following term is MOST appropriate for growth of bone? | [
"Enlargement",
"Apposition",
"Hyperplasia",
"Hyperophy"
] | B | Because bone tissue is made by osteoblasts, the growth of bone is achieved only by deposition of new bone on pre existing surface. This is known as appositional growth. Ref: Robbin's Pathologic basis of Diseases 7/e, Page 1278; Dorland's pocket medical dictionary 27/e, Page 62. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about the Herd immunity for infectious disease except | [
"It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals",
"It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub clinical phase",
"It is affected by the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts",
"In the case of tetanus it does not protect the ind... | B | The herd structure not only involves host population belonging to the herd species but also the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts and possible insect vectors as well as those environmental and social factors that or or inhibit the spread of infection from host to host Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 110 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Automatization is: | [
"Shift of hydrogen",
"Shift of carbon",
"Shift of both",
"None of these"
] | A | The process of shifting a hydrogen atom from one carbon to another to produce enediols is referred to as automatization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are diagnostic barium follow-through features of ileocecal tuberculosis Except – | [
"Apple – core appearance",
"Pulled up contracted cecum",
"Widening of ileocecal angle",
"Strictures involving terminal ileum"
] | A | Radiological features of ileocecal tuberculosis on barium enema
Fleischner or inverted umbrella sign:- wide gaping of the ileocecal valve with narrowing of the terminal ileum.
Gooseneck deformity.
Conical cecum or Amputed cecum Cecum is shrunken in size and pulled out of the iliac fossa due to fibrosis and contraction of mesocolon.
Stierlin sign:- Narrowing of terminal ileum with rapid emptying into a shortened, rigid or obliterated cecum.
String sign
Widening of ileocecal (IC) angle
Purse string (napkin ring) stenosis
Discrete and transverse or star-shaped (stellate) ulcers with elevated margins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following produce cavitating nodules in the lung except | [
"Sqamous cell CA",
"Caplan's syndrome",
"Hamaoma",
"Silicosis"
] | C | C i.e. Hamaoma Hamaoma produces noncavitating popcorn calcificationQ. Various infections, neoplasms, granulomatous lesions (wegner's rheumatoid-caplan's, pneumoconiosis, traumatic & vascular infarcts) produce cavitatory lesions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a pneumatic bone ? | [
"Parietal bone",
"Occipital bone",
"Mastoid process",
"None"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mastoid process Pneumatic bones are one which contain large air spaces lined by epithelium. Examples: maxilla, sphenoid, ethmoid, etc. They make the skull light in weight, help in resonance of voice, and act as air conditioning chambers for the inspired air. A bone that is hollow or contains many air cells called as penumatic bone. Examples are mastoid process of temporal bone, maxilla, ethmoid, sphlenoid and frontal bone. Very simple to remember last 4 as all four paransal sinuses are pneumatic bones. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rate limiting step of glycogenolysis is: | [
"Phosphorylase",
"Glucan transferase",
"Debranching enzyme",
"Glucose-6-phosphatase"
] | A | Harper -145,146, 147
Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycogenolysis by promoting the phosphorolytic cleavage by inorganic phosphate of the 1-4 linkages of glycogen to yield glucose-1-phosphate. The terminal glucosyl residues from the outermost chains of the glycogen molecule are removed sequentially until approximately four glucose residues remain on either side of the 1,6 branch. Another enzyme( glucan transferase) transfers a trisaccharide unit from one branch to the other, exposing the 1,6 linkages requires the debranching enzyme. Further phosphorylase action can then proceed. The combined action of phosphorylase and these other enzymes leads to the complete breakdown of glycogen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Two viral vaccines are expected to reduce the incidence of cancers. Which vaccines are these? | [
"Adenovirus and mumps virus vaccines",
"HAV and poliovirus vaccines",
"HPV 16/18 and hepatitis B vaccines",
"Measles virus and rubella virus vaccines"
] | C | HPV 16/18 and HBV (c) are implicated in cervical (and other genital) cancer and hepatocellular carcinoma, respectively. Thus, the vaccines against these agents are expected to reduce the incidence of these cancers. This has been seen in regions of the world where routine HBV vaccine is used at birth or shortly thereafter. The other vi ruses-adenovirus/mumps virus (a), HAV/poliovirus (b), measles virus/rubella virus (d), and rotavirus/VZV (e)-are not associated with cancers in humans, although adenoviruses cause cancer in some animals. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following will you like to give to a pregnant patient to decrease the risk of neural tube defects in the offspring, if your patient is receiving antiepileptic drugs ? | [
"Folic acid",
"Vitamin A",
"Vitamin E",
"Pyridoxine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except | [
"Gonorrhea",
"Measles",
"Typhoid",
"Hepatitis B"
] | B | Chronic carriers: A carrier who excretes bacilli for indefinite periods of time
– Typhoid – Dysentery
– Hepatitis B – Cerebrospinal meningitis
– Malaria – Gonorrhoea
There are no carriers in Measles | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ugly duckling stage affects | [
"Maxillary anterior teeth",
"Mandibular anterior teeth",
"Both maxillary and mandibular teeth",
"Vertical height of face"
] | A | The Broadbent's Phenomenon - Ugly Duckling Stage (8-11 years)
Around the age of 8 years, a midline diastema is commonly seen in the upper arch, which is usually misinterpreted by the parents as a malocclusion. Crowns of canines in young jaws impinge on developing lateral incisor roots, thus driving the roots medially and causing the crowns to flare laterally. The roots of the central incisors are also forced together, thus causing a maxillary midline diastema. The period from the eruption of lateral incisor to canine is termed as the Ugly Duckling stage. It is an unaesthetic metamorphosis, which eventually leads to an aesthetic result. With eruption of canines, the impingement from the roots shifts incisally, thus driving the incisor crowns medially, resulting in closure of the diastema.
Textbook of Orthodontics, Gurkeerat Singh, 2nd Ed, pg-46 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The earliest public health law was promulgated in ? | [
"Germony",
"Russia",
"China",
"England"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., England First country to introduce compulsory sickness insurance - Germany.First country to socialize medicine completely - Russia.First country to sta accupuncture - ChinaFirst country to sta family planning programme - India.First country to sta concept of health care & public health - England.First country to sta Blindness control programme - India.First country to sta Pasteurization - France.First country to develop bath, sewers and aqueducts for sanitation - Rome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Accordian sign is seen in | [
"Pseudomembranous colitis",
"Intussusception",
"Ileocecal TB",
"Ischemic colitis"
] | A | The 'Accordion sign' (also known as 'conceina sign') is seen on CT examinations of the abdomen Refers to the similarity between the thickened oedematous wall of Pseudomembranous colitis and the folds of an accordion. This appearance is the result of hyperaemic enhancing mucosa stretched over markedly thickened submucosal folds. Also seen when contrast is trapped between oedematous haustral folds and pseudomembranes formed on the luminal surface of the colon. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type B Sub-centre is characterized by:- | [
"Presence of Medical officer",
"Delivery facilities available",
"Immunization services available",
"Family planning services available"
] | B | SUBCENTERS TYPE-A TYPE-B Delivery facility Absent Present Health worker 1 1 Health worker /ANM 1 2 Safai karamchari 1 1 Total 3 workers 4 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trendlenburg's test done for varicose veins is for detection of: | [
"Perforator in competency",
"Deep veins patency",
"Saphenofemoral incompetency",
"Site of perforators"
] | C | Ans: C (Saphenofemoral incompetency) Ref : 74 A Manual on Clinical Surgery S. DasExplanation:Clinical Examination of Varicose VeinsBrodie-Trendelenherg TestDone to determine the incompetency of Saphenofemoral valve.Patient is placed in recumbent position.Limbs are raised to empty the veins. Veins are milked proximally for further emptying.Saphenofemoral junction is compressed either with the thumb of the examiner/toumiquet and the patient is asked to stand up quickly.There are two variants of this test.The first method is to assess saphenofemoral incompetency. The pressure is released and if the column of blood fills up quickly from above downwards it indicates saphenofemoral incompetency.The second method is to assess the perforators. Here, the pressure is maintained for one minute. Gradual filling of the veins during this period indicates incompetent perforators allowing reflux of blood from deep veins to superficial veins.Positive Brodie--Trendelenberg test i~ an indication for surgery.Tests to Assess Saphenofemoral IncompetencyBrodie -Trendelenberg testMorrisey's cough impulse testTests to Assess Deep VeinsPerthe's testModified Perthe's testTests to Assess PerforatorsMultiple tourniquet testPratt's testFegan's testBrodie-Trendelenberg testTest to Assess V alves in Superficial VeinSchwartz testNote:Even though Brodie-Trendelenberg test is used to assess both saphenofemoral incompetency and incompetent perforators its primary purpose is to assess saphenofemoral incompetency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about type A PHC except | [
"PHC with delivery load of <20 per month",
"PHC with delivery load of >20 per month",
"1 MBBS doctor",
"Total staff of 13-18"
] | B | Type A PHC
Type B PHC
Delivery load of <20 deliveries per month.
Total staff 13-18
Delivery load of >20 deliveries per month.
Total staff 14-21 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are risk factors of squamous cell carcinoma except | [
"Ultraviolet radiation",
"Tar",
"Tobacco",
"HPV 18"
] | D | Ultraviolet radiation, chronic inflammation, and chemical carcinogens (arsenicals, tar) and infection with HPV 5 and 16.There is also evidence that current and previous tobacco use doubles the relative risk of SCC.Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 606 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23-year-old homeless man is found to have consumed alcohol adulterated with methanol. He is started on treatment effective for minimizing the toxicity to methanol. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the benefit of this treatment? | [
"enhances renal excretion of methanol",
"prevents biotransformation of methanol",
"combines to form a nontoxic polymer",
"changes the toxin's volume of distribution"
] | B | Ethanol is the standard antidote for methanol. It inhibits the conversion of methanol to its toxic metabolite, formic acid, by alcohol dehydrogenase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by : | [
"Hypothermia",
"Labile blood pressure",
"Bradycardia",
"Flaccidity"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Least cardiovascular side effects found in – | [
"Isoflurane",
"Enflurane",
"Trilene",
"Ketamine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Methods of learning in psychiatry are all except | [
"Modelling",
"Catharsis",
"Exposure",
"Response prevention"
] | B | B i.e., Catharsis Modelling,exposure & response prevention not catharsis are methods of learning in psychiatryQ.Catharsis is expression of supressed thoughts, ideas and material that is accompanied by an emotional response producing a state of relief in patients. For example engaging angry person in expressive but noninjurious behaviour reduces their tension or anger and weakens their tendency to engage in potentially dangerous act of aggression.In catharsis , psychodramatic scenario is created that provides sensory stimulation which triggers emotional release and cathaic abreaction, in the patient who at the same time enjoys this.However, Freud noticed that while recovering suppressed feeling under hypnosis, patients were often unable or unwilling to recall significant distressing pa of memory. He referred this reluctance as resistance and excluding distressing material from conscious awareness as repression. And because of resistance and repression he abandoned cathaic method and staed free association i.e., asked his patients to say whatever came into their minds without censoring their thoughts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Otospongiosis causes - | [
"U/L conductive deafness",
"B/L conductive deafness",
"U/L sensorineural deafness",
"B/L sensorineural deafness"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Skin transplant was done from sister to brother. After few years, brother to sister skin transplant was done, but rejection occurred. This phenomenon is known as | [
"Eichwald silmser effect",
"Schultz Dale phenomena",
"Theobald smith phenomena",
"Schwazman reaction"
] | A | Eichwald-Silmser effect, which is a unilateral sex-linked histoincompatibility. While transplants between same sex siblings are successful, grafts from female to male are also successful, but an exception is seen when the donor is a male and the recipient is a female. Such grafts are rejected as the grafted male tissue (XY) will have antigens determined by the Y chromosome which will be absent in the female (XX) recipient. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Froment signs are positive in injury of which nerve | [
"Median",
"Ulnar",
"Radial",
"Musculocutaneous nerve"
] | A | Froment's sign is clinical testing of adductor pollicis .Give the patient a thin book and ask him to grasp it firmly between thumb and index fingers of both hands. If the muscle is healthy and acting normally, the thumb will be straight. but if paralyzed,the thumbs are flexed at IP joints. This is because adductor pollicis is not acting and flexor pollicis compensates for it. Reference: Textbook of anatomy upper limb and thorax, Visharm Singh, 2nd edition, page no.144. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Child's criteria paial encephalopathy, bilirubin 2.5 mg/dl, albumin 3 gm/d1, controlled ascites indicates - | [
"Grade A",
"Grade B",
"Grade C",
"More information needed"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Grade B | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following should be used during a thyroid storm except: | [
"Radioactive iodine",
"Glucocorticoids",
"Potassium Iodide",
"Propylthiouracil"
] | A | Ans. (a) Radioactive iodineRef: Schwartz 10th edition, Page. 1534Thyroid Storm:* Clinical features: Hyperthyroidism accompanied by Fever, CNS agitation, Depression, CVS manifestations, Cardiac failure, GI dysfunction and Hepatic failure.* Etiology: Abrupt cessation of antithyroid drugs, Thyroid or nonthyroid surgery, Trauma in thyrotoxic cases. Even amiodarone, RAI and Contrast agents can stimulate it.* Treatment given# Beta blockers# Nasal Oxygen# ICU hemodynamic support# Nonaspirin compounds for fever# Lugol's Iodine# Sodium Ipodate IV# Propylthiouracil# Steroids | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ramsteads operation is done in: | [
"Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis",
"Achlasia cardia",
"Diffuse esophageal spasm",
"Ca Esophagus"
] | A | Ans: A (Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis) Ref: Sabiston textbook of surgery, 19th Edition 1841Explanation:Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric StenosisEtio PathologyOne of the most common G1 surgical disorders in early infancyMost common between the ages of 2 and 8 weeks.Boys are affected four times as often as girls,First-born male infants being at highest risk.Hypertrophy of the circular muscle of the pylorus results in constriction and obstruction of the gastric outlet, leading to nonbilious & projectile emesisEmesis leads to Loss of hydrochloric acid with the onset of hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.Exact cause for HPS remains unknown, a lack of nitric oxide synthase in pyloric tissue has been implicated.Clinical PresentationProgressively worsening nonbilious emesis.With time, the emesis becomes more frequent, forceful, and projectile in nature.Occasionally, visible gastric peristalsis may be observed as a wave of contractions from the left upper quadrant to the epigastrium.Shortly after emesis, infants usually crave additional feedings.Palpation of the pyloric tumor (olive-shaped) in the epigastrium or right upper quadrant by an experienced examiner is pathognomonic for the diagnosis. If the olive is palpated, no additional diagnostic testing is necessary.InvestigationsAbdominal Radiograph:Upper abdominal gas bubble in the stomach.UltrasoundA persistent pyloric muscle thickness more than 3 to 4 mm or a pyloric length more than15 to 18 mm in the presence of functional gastric outlet obstruction is diagnostic. When the olive is nonpalpable. the diagnosis of HPS can be made by ultrasoundUpper GI ContrastWith equivocal clinical history, an upper Gl contrast study is useful to evaluate for other causes of vomiting.Treatment:Surgical ManagementThe treatment of HPS is pyloromyotomy (Ramstedt procedure)Incising through thickened pyloric musculature while preserving the underlying mucosaRight upper quadrant or periumbilical incision is usedLaparoscopic pyloromyotomy has better cosmesis. with similar outcomes to those of the open technique.Perioperative management:Before surgery, it is important that the infant be fully rehydrated with IV fluids to establish an adequate urine output and correct electrolyte disturbances such as metabolic alkalosis.Because the infant with underlying metabolic alkalosis will compensate with respiratory acidosis, postoperative apnea may occur. Thus, the serum HCO3 level needs to be normalized before surgery.Postoperative!}, infants are usually allowed to resume enteral feedings.Complications include incomplete myotomy, mucosal perforation, and wound infection | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 27 year old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is - | [
"Behcet's syndrome",
"Herpes genitalis",
"Fixed drug eruption",
"Pemphigus vulgaris"
] | C | Fixed drug eruption manifests as skin lesions at fixed sites following drug intake. Page no.294. Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology | train | med_mcqa | null |
Action of theophylline is reduced by ? | [
"Smoking",
"Erythromycin",
"Cimetidine",
"Lithium"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Smoking | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is | [
"Supracardiac",
"Infracardiac",
"Mixed",
"Cardiac"
] | A | Most common type of TAPVC is supracardiac type,where 2 pulmonary vein join to form common pulmonary vein that may drains to left innominate vein or right superior venacava. Classification of TAPVC : Darling&;s classification (1957) is the most popular. 1. Type I-Supracardiac connections : 45% of TAPVC patients.The common venous confluence joins SVC. 2. Type II-Cardiac TAPVC It accounts for 25% of cases.CVC drains into coronary sinus or directly into RA. 3. Type III-Infracardiac TAPVC Approx.21% of cases.CVC drains into hepatic vein,ductus venosus,poal vein or IVC.The common pulmonary vein penetrates the diaphragm through the esophageal hiatus. 4. Type IV-Mixed Type It accounts for <10% of cases. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:426 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following may be may be detected on the plain abdominal film and is a premalignant condition? | [
"Porcelain Gall bladder",
"Limy bile",
"Adenomyosis of gall bladder",
"Cholesterosis"
] | A | Ans. a (Porcelain Gall bladder) (Ref. Bailey and Love Surgery 24th ed., p 1106; Harrison 18thJ p 1880)PORCELAIN GALLBLADDER# Disease with calcification of the gall bladder is called 'porcelain' gall bladder.# Calcium salt deposition within the wall of a chronically inflamed gallbladder may be detected on the abdominal film.# It is premalignant.# It is an indication for prophylactic cholecystectomy.LIMEY BILE# It is frequently related to multiple small stones.# This lesion is not premalignant.Additional Educational points:# X-ray of the gall bladder will show radiopaque gallstones in 10% of patients (While about 80% of renal stones are radiopaque)!# Brown and black stones are pigment stones of GB. Brown more often seen in CBD, while black more common in GB.# Ultrasonography and ERCP are better than CT for detecting biliary stones . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Meals supplied in mid day meals programme should provide: September 2005, March 2013 (g) | [
"1/2 calories and 1/2 proteins",
"1/2 calories and 1/3 proteins",
"1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins",
"1/3 calories and 1/3 proteins"
] | C | Ans. C: 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Mid-day meal programme/school lunch programme is in operation since 1961 with the major objective of attracting more children to schools and retain them so that literacy improvement of children could be brought about. The meal supply should provide at least one-third of the total energy requirement, and half of the protein need. Mid-day meal scheme/ National programme of nutritional suppo to primary education is launched in 1995. In September 2004 the scheme was revised to provide cooked mid day meal with 300 calories and 8-12 grams of protein to all children studying in classes I-V in Government and aided schools and EGS/AIE centers. In addition to free supply of food grains, the revised scheme provided Central Assistance for (a) Cooking cost Re 1 per child per school day, (b) Transpo subsidy was raised from the earlier maximum of Rs 50 per quintal to Rs. 100 per quintal for special category states, and Rs. 75 per quintal for other states, (c) Management, monitoring and evaluation costs 2% of the cost of food grains, transpo subsidy and cooking assistance, (d) Provision of mid day meal during summer vacation in drought affected areas | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rifampicin and ritonavir are: | [
"Physical antagonist",
"Chemical antagonist",
"Pharmacokinetic antagonist",
"Competitive antagonist"
] | C | Ans. C. Pharmacokinetic antagonista. Rifampicin is an enzyme inducer of CY3A4 and ritonavir is metabolized by CYP3A4.b. Thus rifampicin can antagonize ritonavir by inducing its metabolism; known as pharmacokinetic antagonism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents 1 month after a benign right breast biopsy with a lateral subcutaneous cord felt just under the skin and causing pain. The etiology of this condition is? | [
"Fat necrosis",
"Infection",
"Superficial thrombophlebitis",
"Suture granuloma"
] | C | This entity is known as Mondor's disease and is caused by superficial thrombophlebitis usually induced by surgery, infection, or trauma. The process is self-limiting and resolves within 2-10 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following forms Anterior boundary of Middle mediastinum? | [
"Sterno-pericardial ligaments",
"Oesophagus",
"Azygos vein",
"Descending thoracic aoa"
] | A | BOUNDARIES OF MIDDLE MEDIASTINUM: Anteriorly - sterno-pericardial ligaments Posteriorly - esophagus, descending thoracic aoa, Azygos vein On each side - Mediastinal pleura | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incidence of undescended testis in preterm infants is: | [
"<5%",
"10%",
"20%",
"30%"
] | D | The incidence of undescended testes is approximately 30% in preterm infants. Remember that undescended testis is more common in preterm when compared with term babies. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 56 year old male is being evaluated for the low back pain. No history of trauma to back is elicited. He also complains of weight loss, fatigue and recurrent sinus infection. Examination revealed focal tenderness at the T10 level. Blood workup was done which revealed Hb of 9 g/dl. RFT were deranged as well. Skull x ray was done as shown. Bone marrow biopsy and serum protein electrophoresis was planned. What is the characteristic abnormality that will be evident in the patient on peripheral blood film? | [
"Anemia",
"Pegler huet anomaly",
"Rouleaux formation",
"Neutrophilia"
] | C | Skull x ray - show punched out lesion (osteolytic lesion). Anemia, increased creatinine (deranged RFT), hypercalcemia and bone pains are classic presentation of MULTIPLE MYELOMA which is the diagnosis of above clinical scenario. The characteristic finding of multiple myeloma on PBF is rouleaux formation or stacking of RBCs like stacked coins, due to agglutination which is mediated by M protein | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which type of collagen fibers demonstrates "Chicken wire" configuration? | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to MTP Act, abortion can be done tit!: (D. REPEAT Feb 2014) | [
"12 weeks",
"20 weeks",
"28 weeks",
"Till viability"
] | B | Ans: B (20 weeks) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy, 29th edition, 2010, pg: 381Explanation:The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act of IndiaIt clearly states the conditions under which a pregnancy can be ended or aborted, the persons who are qualified to conduct the abortion and the place of implementation,Women whose physical and/or mental health were endangered by the pregnancy,Women facing the birth of a potentially handicapped or malformed child.Rape.Pregnancies in unmarried girls under the age of eighteen with the consent of a guardian. Pregnancies in "lunatics" with the consent of a guardian.Pregnancies that result are a result of failure in sterilization.The length of the pregnancy must not exceed 2D weeks in order to qualify for an abortion.MTP Act of 1971 legalizes abortion on the following grounds:Therapeutic.Eugenic.Humanitarian.Social.MTP RulesOnly registered medical practitioner can perform MTPs.Should only be done in Government hospitals or hospitals recognized by Goverment.Consent of woman is required.If minor or mentally ill, written consent from guardian is required.If period of pregnancy is less than 12 weeks, opinion of single doctor is enough.If period of pregnancy is between 12-20 weeks, opinion of 2 doctors required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The primary role of chaperones is to help in? | [
"Protein synthesis",
"Protein degradation",
"Protein de-naturation",
"Protein folding"
] | D | Ans. (d) Protein foldingRef Harper's 28/e, chapter 45, Table 45-5, Table 45-6 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true regarding Gleason grading and scoring? | [
"It is used in prostate cancer",
"Prostate specific antigen has score of 3",
"It has score from 2 to 10",
"It is a prognostic scoring system"
] | B | It is pathological scoring system based on tumor morphology. Doesn't include PSA values | train | med_mcqa | null |
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