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Which of the following is a feature of primary hyperparathyroidism ? | [
"Reversible growth of parathyroid gland",
"Irreversible growth of parathyroid gland",
"Hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia",
"Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia"
] | B | Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by autonomous secretion of PTH, usually by a single parathyroid adenoma, which can vary in diameter from a few millimetres to several centimetres. It should be distinguished from secondary hyperparathyroidism, in which there is a physiological increase in PTH secretion to compensate for prolonged hypocalcaemia (such as in vitamin D deficiency, p. 1126), and from teiary hyperparathyroidism, in which continuous stimulation of the parathyroids over a prolonged period of time results in adenoma formation and autonomous PTH secretion (Box 20.39). This is most commonly seen in individuals with advanced chronic kidney disease. DAVIDSON'S PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF MEDICINE 22ND EDITION PAGE NO-769 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frontal eye field Area is | [
"4",
"6",
"8",
"41"
] | C | Frontal eye field ( Area 8): Located in middle frontal gyrus in front of premotor area Conjugate detion of eyes to opposite side. Destructive lesions result in eyes looking towards the side of lesion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Azygos vein drains into: | [
"Left brachiocephalic vein",
"Inferior vena cava",
"Superior vena cava",
"Right brachiocephalic vein"
] | C | The azygos vein ends by joining the posterior aspect of the superior vena cavaThe Azygos VeinThe azygos vein connects the superior and inferior venae cavae, either directly by joining the IVC or indirectly by the hemiazygos and accessory hemiazygos veins.The azygos vein drains blood from the posterior walls of the thorax and abdomen.It ascends in the posterior mediastinum, passing close to the right QA des of the bodies of the inferior eight thoracic veebrae (T4-T12).It is covered anteriorly by the oesophagus as it passes posterior to the root of the right lung.It then arches over the superior aspect of this root to join the SVC.In addition to the posterior intercostal veins, the azygos vein communicates with the veebral venous plexuses.This vein also receives the mediastinal, oesophageal, and bronchial veins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common design which can be employed while fabricating a sanitary pontic: | [
"Bar sanitary pontic.",
"Fish-belly pontic.",
"Perel pontic.",
"All of the above."
] | D | Fishbelly pontic is also known as conventional pontic.
Perel pontic is also known as modified sanitary pontic or arc-fixed partial denture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following addiction give rise to Magnan's symptom? | [
"Alcohol",
"Cocaine",
"LSD",
"Opiates"
] | B | Magnan's symptom or cocaine bugs is characteristic of cocainism, in which there is a feeling as if grains of sand are lying under the skin or some small insects are creeping on the skin giving rise to itching sensation (formication, tactile hallucination) with resultant excoriation, leading to irregular scratches and ulcers. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 536. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is anaerobic: | [
"E.coli",
"Bacteroides",
"Pseudomonas",
"Klebsiella"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Valproic acid causes all EXCEPT- | [
"It is an enzyme inducer",
"It causes obesity",
"It causes Hirsutism",
"It causes neural tube defects"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., It is an enzyme inducer o Most of the anticonvulsants are enzyme inducers except valproate which is an inhibitor. Note: Some guides have given option C as the answer. But option 'c' is correct as valproate can cause hirsutism: "Ceain drugs, including danazol, sodium valprote and anabolic steroids can cause hirsutism". ...Main et al "Valproate can cause increased hair growth hirsutism"...................................................... www.netdoctor.co.uk "Valproate has been linked with development of PCOD which is characterized by obesity, acne, hirsutism and infeility"............................. Handbook of Epilepsy treatment. o Valproate can cause hirsutism, but this is an uncommon side effect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rigler's triad doesn't include | [
"Pheumobilia",
"Ectopic stone",
"Cholangitis",
"Intestinal obstruction"
] | C | Rigler's triad is a combination of findings on an abdominal radiograph of people with gallstone ileus, a condition where a large gallstone causes bowel obstruction.it consists of
(a) Small bowel obstruction,
(b) a gallstone outside the gallbladder
(c) air in the bile ducts(pneumobilia). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an old patient, the best indicator of probability of developing cardiovascular disease can be calculated by- | [
"LDL/HDL ratio",
"Triglycerides",
"Total cholesterol",
"Serum LDL"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A baby is born with fused eyes, single nasal chamber and undeveloped callosum. What is diagnosis? | [
"Holoprosencephaly",
"Schizencephaly",
"Plagiocephaly",
"Brachycephaly"
] | A | a. Holoprosencephaly(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 901)HoloprosencephalyAn abnormality of brain development in which the brain does not properly divide into the right and left hemispheres.3 main types (from most to least severe): Alobar, semi-lobar & lobarSeverity of facial defects corresponds to severity of brain defect.Other signs and symptoms often include intellectual disability, seizures, pituitary dysfunction, short statureAssociated with trisomy 13 (MC), trisomy 18, CHARGE syndrome, Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome, Rubinstein-Taybi syndromeIn alobar holoprosencephaly, there is loss of midline structures of the brain and face as well as fusion of lateral & 3rd ventricles of the brain. Facial findings may include a single eye (cyclopia) or very closely spaced eyes (ethmocephaly) or absent eyes (anophthalmia), or very small eye (microphthalmia) with a tubular-shaped nose (proboscis) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In root, the inner cell layer of root sheath induce the formation of: | [
"Coronal Dentin.",
"Ameloblasts.",
"Enamel.",
"Odontoblasts."
] | D | The inner cell layer of the root sheath forms from the inner enamel epithelium or ameloblasts in the crown, and enamel is produced. In the root, these cells induce odontoblasts of the dental papilla to differentiate and form dentin. The root sheath originates at the point that. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 80-year-old man presents with slowly progressive enlargement of his head circumference, deformities of long bones and spine, and chronic pain of the affected skeletal segments. Laboratory studies show elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and high urine hydroxyproline. X-ray findings are consistent with Paget disease. Which of the following is the most likely pathogenetic mechanism of this condition? | [
"Generalized reduction in bone mass",
"Genetic deficiency of carbonic anhydrase II",
"Monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells",
"Paramyxovirus infection of osteoclasts"
] | D | Paget disease, also known as osteitis deformans, is a frequent bone condition affecting middle-aged to elderly persons. Usually polyostotic, it affects the axial skeleton, including the spine, pelvis, proximal femur, and head. Often, it presents with gradual enlargement of the head and chronic bone pain. Affected bone is thickened and coarse, with disorderly osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity. Paget himself proposed a viral hypothesis for the pathogenesis of this condition, but only recent immunologic and molecular techniques have allowed identification of paramyxoviruses (measles and respiratory syncytial virus) in osteoclasts of affected bones. In most cases, the diagnosis can be made by radiologic investigations. Generalized reduction in bone mass is the defining feature of osteoporosis. In its most common form, the condition affects elderly persons, especially women after menopause. It characteristically causes compression fractures of veebral bones or pathologic fractures of the femoral neck. Genetic deficiency of carbonic anhydrase II is one cause of the rare hereditary disorders collectively known as osteopetrosis, which are due to osteoclast dysfunction. This condition manifests in infancy or childhood with bone fragility and recurrent fractures. The bone has a stony hard consistency, but is brittle. Monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells is the underlying cause of multiple myeloma, the most frequent primary bone neoplasm. Multiple myeloma results in multifocal accumulation of neoplastic plasma cells in bones, manifesting with punched-out osteolytic lesions on x-ray films. Veebrae, skull, ribs and pelvic bones are most frequently affected. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person restricts himself to house and fears about trains, elevators, and shopping malls. It is a feature of | [
"Generalised Anxiety disorder",
"Agoraphobia",
"Claustrophobia",
"Acrophobia"
] | B | (B) Agoraphobia # Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder characterized by symptoms of anxiety in situations where the person perceives the environment to be unsafe with no easy way to get away.> These situations can include open spaces, public transit, shopping malls, or simply being outside the home. Being in these situations may result in a panic attack.> Symptoms occur nearly every time the situation is encountered and lasts for more than six months.> Those affected will go to great lengths to avoid these situations. In severe cases people may become unable to leave their homes.# Cause of agoraphobia is a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Condition often runs in families and stressful events such as the death of a parent or being attacked may be a trigger. In the DSM-5 agoraphobia is classified as a phobia along with specific phobias and social phobia. Other conditions that can produce similar symptoms include separation anxiety, posttraumatic stress disorder, and major depressive disorder. Those affected are at higher risk of depression and substance use disorder.> Treatment: Without treatment it is uncommon for agoraphobia to resolve. Treatment is typically with a type of counselling called cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). CBT results in resolution for about half of people# Claustrophobia is the fear of having no escape and being in closed or small spaces or rooms.> It is typically classified as an anxiety disorder and often results in panic attack, and can be the result of many situations or stimuli, including elevators crowded to capacity, windowless rooms, and even tight-necked clothing.> Onset of claustrophobia has been attributed to many factors, including a reduction in the size of the amygdala, classical conditioning, or a genetic predisposition to fear small spaces.> Claustrophobia is typically thought to have two key symptoms: Fear of restriction Fear of suffocation> A typical claustrophobic will fear restriction in at least one, if not several, of the following areas: small rooms, locked rooms, cars, aeroplanes, trains, tunnels, cellars, elevators, caves.# Acrophobia is an extreme or irrational fear or phobia of heights, especially when one is not particularly high up.> It belongs to a category of specific phobias, called space and motion discomfort, that share both similar etiology and options for treatment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute kidney injury in rifle criteria is ? | [
"Urine output <0*5 ml/kg/h for > 8 hours",
"Urine output <0*5 ml/kg/h for > 12 hours",
"Urine output <0*3 ml/kg/h for > 24 hours",
"Anuria for > 12 hours"
] | B | Ref:Davidson 22 nd edition pg no. 481 KDIGO(kidney disease :improving global outcomes) RIFLE(Risk,injury,failure, Loss, end-stage) Stage 1:urine<0.5ml/kg/hr for6-12hrs =Risk Stage 2:urine <0.5ml/kg/hr for >12 hrs =Injury Stage 3:urine <0.3ml/kg/hr for>24 hrs or absolute anuria for >12hrs =failure Persistent AKI or complete loss of kidney function for>4wks Loss Need for renal replacement therapy for>3mts End stage renal disease ref Harrison20th edition pg 277 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brain tumors are best seen in which modality? | [
"USG",
"X-ray diffraction",
"CT",
"CE-MRI"
] | D | MRI is the Imaging Modality of choice for Neurological Imaging and Soft tissue evaluation Preferred investigation for Brain Tumors is a Contrast Enhanced MRI | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with long-standing multinodular goitre develops hoarseness of voice; also, the swelling undergoes a sudden increase in size. Likely diagnosis is | [
"Follicular ca",
"Papillary ca",
"Medullary ca",
"Anaplastic ca"
] | A | History of sudden growth in a long-standing goitre and hoarseness are suggestive of malignant change.
Most common carcinoma to develop in developing in long-standing multinodular goitre is Follicular carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incidence of primary open-angle glaucoma in population over 40 years of age is about: | [
"1 in 100",
"1 in 200",
"1 in 500",
"1 in 1000"
] | A | Ans. 1 in 100 | train | med_mcqa | null |
ED 50 is a measure of- | [
"Toxicity",
"Safety",
"Potency",
"Efficacy"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Potency Median effective dose o The dose that will produce half the maximum (50%) response. o More the ED, is the potency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inveed papilloma of nose arise from ? | [
"Nasal septum",
"Roof of the nose",
"Tip of the nose",
"Lateral wall of the nose"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lateral wall of the nose Inveed Papilloma (Transitional cell papilloma/Schneiderion papilloma) Inveed papilloma is a benign neoplasm occurs mostly between 40-70 years with male preponderance (5 : 1). It arises from the lateral wall of nose and is always unilateral. Rarely, it may arise from nasal septum. Features of inveed papilloma are : - It shows finger like epithelial invasions into the underlying stroma of the epithelium rather than on surface so called inveed papilloma. It is usually unilateral and is a locally aggressive tumour. Patients complain of nasal obstruction, rhinorrhea & unilateral epistaxis. In 10-15% cases there may be associated squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment is adequate local excision. If it arises in maxillary sinus, then a radical antrostomy is carried out. If it arises in the ethmoidal sinus, an external ethmoidectomy is done. If it arises from nose, treatment is wide surgical excision by lateral rhinotomy. Has a tendency to recur even after removal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eltrombopag is a | [
"Erythropoietin analogue",
"Erythropoietin receptor agonist",
"Thrombopoietin analogue",
"GMCSF analogue"
] | C | Eltrombopag is a thrombopoietin analogue used in ITP, but carries the risk of hepatotoxicity.
Lustrombopag & Avatrombopag are other thrombopoietin analogues used to prevent bleeding in patients of liver disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person with radiologically confirmed reflux nephropathy develops nephrotic range proteinuria. Which of the following would be the most likely histological finding in this patient? | [
"Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis",
"Nodular glomerulosclerosis",
"Membranous glomerulopathy",
"Proliferative glomerulonephritis with crescents"
] | A | Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis It is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. Sclerosis is seen in only segment of glomerulus. It is associated with HIV infection, reflux nephropathy & definitive association with sickle cell disease. The patient presents with nephrotic range proteinuria too. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female with recurrent aboion and isolated prolonged APTT is most likely associated with | [
">Lupus anticoagulant",
">DIC",
">Von wilebrand disease",
">Hemophilia"
] | A | Lupus anticoagulant They have asked about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. Antiphospholipid antibodies account for 3% to 5% of patients with repetitive pregnancy losses. The frequency of fetal death and recurrent aboion in untreated patients with antiphospholipid antibodies is greater than 90%. There are several antiphospholipid antibodies. The most relevant to obstetricians are: - The lupus anticoagulant (LAC), - The anticardiolipin antibody and - The antibody that cause false positive syphilis test (BFP-ST). The name lupus anticoagulant was derived from the fact that this antibody was found first in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus and acted as an anticoagulant by prolonging the paial thromboplastin time (PTT). This name was a poor choice because soon it was found that lupus anticoagulant was present in many patients who did not have lupus and that in majority of patients the antibody was responsible for episodes of thrombosis, rather than anticoagulation. In the laboratory, LAC is not measured directly. - It is assessed by its effect on PTT and the kaolin clotting time. - Typically patients with lupus anticoagulant have a prolonged PTT and a normal PT. - Unfounately, a normal PTT does not exclude the possibility of LAC, and if the clinical suspicion is strong and the PIT is normal a kaolin clotting time or a dilute Russel viper venom time should be performed. - It has also been found that some patients with LAC and recurrent aboions have elevated values of serum 1gM. Other antiphospholipid antibodies The anticardiolipin antibody is the antiphospholipid antibody, most commonly found in patients with repetitive early pregnancy losses. Anlicardiolipin antibody is found in 90% of patients with L.A.C. but the majority of patients with positive anticardiolipin antibody do not have L.A.C. - Anticardiolipin antibody is measured in the laboratory by the ELISA test. BFP-ST - It is the less common antiphospholipid antibody. - Both BFP-ST and Anticardiolipin antibody, measure the antibody against cardiolipin but they are not the same. Clinical features of antiphospholipid antibodies. The presence of any or several of the three antiphospholipid antibodies is associated with - Recurrent early pregnancy losses. - Episodes of venous and aerial thrombosis - Severe preeclampsia - Chorea gravidarum - Pilo ischemic strokes, transient ischemic episodes, migraine headaches. - Postpaum complications such as pulmonary infiltrates, fever, and cardiac symptoms. Aboions in antiphospholipid antibody syndrome - Typically these patients give a history of a live fetus documented by ultrasound or by Doppler before demise or aboion occurs. The majority of the pregnancy losses occur between 14 and 18 weeks. Fetal death is these patients is caused by extensive thrombosis of the placental vessels and the placenta is usually smaller than expected for the gestational age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following manifestations suggest the development of lymphoma is sjogren syndrome except: | [
"High C4 Complement Levels",
"Leucopenia",
"Purpura",
"Cryoglobulinemia"
] | A | Low C4 Complement levels suggest the development of lymphoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is defined as recovery index of the neuromuscular blocker (NMB):- | [
"It is time interval between 25% and 75% twitch height of the NMB",
"It is time interval between 25% and 50% twitch height of the NMB",
"It is time interval between 50% and 75% twitch height of the NMB",
"It is time interval to reach 100% of twitch height of the NMB"
] | A | Duration of action is the time from injection of the neuromuscular blocking agent to return of 25% twitch height. Recovery index is the time interval between 25% and 75% twitch height. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a controlled trail to compare two treatments, the main purpose of randomization is to ensure that : | [
"The two groups will be similar in prognostic factors.",
"The clinician does not know which treatment the subj ects will receive.",
"The sample may be referred to a known population.",
"The clinician can predict in advance which treatment the subjects will receive."
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. The two groups will be similar in prognostic factors The below quote from Park will suitably explain the answer- "Randomization is a statistical procedure by which the participates are allocated into groups usually called 'study ' and 'control 'groups, to receive or not to receive an experimental, preventive or therapeutic procedure, man oeuvre or intervention. ,Randomization is an attempt to eliminate 'bias' and allow for comparability. Theoretically it is possible to assure comparability b matching. But when one matches, one can only match, those factors which are known to be important. There may be other factors which are important but whose effect is not recognized or cannot be determined. By a process of randomization, hopefully these factors will be distributed equally between the two groups. Randomization will give the greatest confidence that the groups are comparable. "About other optionsOptions (b) and (d)The clinician knowing or not knowing about the treatment the subjects will receive, is part of Blinding and not randomization.Option (c)Both the 'study' and 'control' samples are derived from the reference population. This is a step taken prior to randomization.First an experimental or study population is selected from a known population (the target or reference population). Later this study population in divided into study and control groups by Randomization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Streptococcus pneumoniae, true is: | [
"Vaccine is made from capsular polysaccharide",
"Vaccine is routinely given to Indian children",
"Catalase and oxidase positive",
"Bile insoluble and optochin sensitive"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vaccine is made from capsular polysaccharide (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 223, 9th/e, p. 221)* There are currently two types of pneumococcal vaccines: pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) and pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23).* There are more than 90 types of pneumococcal bacteria.* PCV13 protects against 13 types which is better than previous 7 types.* PPSV23 protects against 23 types.* Both vaccines provide protection against illnesses like meningitis (infection of the covering of the brain and spinal cord) and bacteremia (blood infection). PCV13 also provides protection against pneumonia (lung infection).* PCV13: Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine for all infants and children, and adults 19 years and older at high risk for disease.* PPSV23: Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine for all adults 65 years and older and those 2 years of age and older at high risk for disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug acts by inhibiting tyrosine kinase activated by EGF receptor as well as HER2 ? | [
"Imatinib",
"Geftinib",
"Erlotinib",
"Lapatinib"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Defence Mechanism which explains "compulsions" in a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder? | [
"Reaction formation",
"Regression",
"Undoing",
"Displacement"
] | C | Three ego defence mechanisms of obsessive-compulsive disorder are isolation, undoing, and reaction formation.The role of defence mechanism isolation is to safeguards a person from anxiety-provoking impulses. Undoing is associated with a compulsive act that is carried out in an effo to stop or undo the consequences that the patient unreasonably foresees from a threatening obsession.Reaction formation involves evident patterns of behaviour and consciously experienced feelings and thoughts that are paicularly contrary to the underlying impulses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The structure connecting the posterior surface of lens to capsule is called? | [
"hyaloideocapsular ligament of Weiger",
"Vitreous Base",
"cloquets’s canal",
"collagen fibres"
] | A | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 258)
Hyaloideocapsular ligament of Weiger or retrolental ligament is a strong adhesion between the lens and posterior capsule. It is a circular adhesion 8-9 mm in diameter. This attachment is termed as Egger’s Line. Which this circle is a potential space of Burger or Erggelet’s space | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fertilization occurs in - | [
"uterine cavity",
"Ampulla of fallopian tube",
"Infundibulum of fallopian tube",
"Isthmus of tube"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ampulla of fallopian tube * The uterine tubes, also known as oviducts or fallopian tubes, are the female structures that transport the ova from the ovary to the uterus each month. In the presence of sperm and fertilization, the uterine tubes transport the fertilized egg to the uterus for implantation.* The infundibulum gives rise to the fimbriae, fingerlike projections that are responsible for picking up the egg released by the ovary.* Fertilization takes place in the ampullary part of the fallopian tube. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonest cause of death in the sophisticated world - | [
"Ischemic heart disease",
"Accidents",
"Infectious disease",
"None of the above"
] | A | Coronary heart disease (Ischemic heart disease)
CHD is defined as "impairment of heart function due to inadequate blood flow to the heart compared to its needs, caused by obstructive changes in the coronary circulation to the heart".
It is the most common cause of death in developed countries and account for 25-30% of deaths.
CHD is modern epidemic, i.e. a disease that affects populations, not an unavoidable attribute of ageing. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is true in cytochemistry of ALL | [
"PAS positive (Block positivity)",
"Myeloperoxidare positive",
"Sudon Black B positive",
"Non specific estesare positive"
] | A | Solution:
In L1 and L2 sub types of ALL ( B cell - ALL) PAS positive Blocker are seen in Lymphoblasts on clear Cytoplasmic background.
In T Cell - ALL and in L3 Sub type of ALL. PAS reaction is negative. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis usually presents - | [
"Within 2 days after bih",
"Around 1 week after bih",
"Around 2 weeks after bih",
"Around 2 months after bih"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Around 2 weeks after bihThe symptoms vomiting usually stas after 3 weeks of age but symptoms may develop as early as 1st week of life and as late as 5 months of life. - Nelson Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis Hyperophic pyloric stenosis is the commonest surgical disorder of the stomach during infancy.Pylorus is thickened and elongated and its lumen is narrowed due to hyperophy of circular muscle fibers of pylorus.More common in boys.o More common in infants of blood group 'B' and 'O'.o Associated congenital defects are --> Tracheoesophageal fistula and hypoplasia or agenesis of inferior labial frenulum.o May be associated with Turner syndrome, Trisomy 18.o Symptoms are not present at bih.The vomiting usually stas after 3 weeks of age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drains directly into inferior vena cava? | [
"Superior mesenteric vein",
"Inferior mesenteric vein",
"Right suprarenal vein",
"Renal vein"
] | C | Left testicular/ovarian/suprarenal vein drain into left renal vein before entering into IVC, whereas right testicular/ovarian /suprarenal & both renal veins drain into IVC Ref: Gray's 39e/p1026 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thyroid cancer associated with radiation exposure? | [
"Medullary",
"Papillary",
"Follicular",
"Anaplastic carcinoma"
] | B | Ans. (b) PapillaryRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 763-64* Ionizing radiation can cause genetic mutations leading to malignant transformation.* This association is much stronger for thyroid cancer than for other malignancies, and radiation is the only well-established environmental risk factor for thyroid malignancy.* The risk of developing thyroid cancer after exposure to radiation is greater in those exposed during childhood and increases with higher doses of radiation delivered to the thyroid. This is true for exposure to ionizing radiation given for medical purposes and for environmental exposures.* The association with radiation is much stronger for papillary than for follicular cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a new oral drug approved for Rheumatoid ahritis? | [
"UPADACITINIB",
"FEDRATINIB",
"ENTRECTINIB",
"TALAZOPARIB"
] | A | UPADACITINIB : - It is an oral JAK 1 inhibitors like tofacitinib - Used for Rheumatoid ahritis to slow down the disease progression. FEDRATINIB : - It is a oral JAK 2 inhibitor . - Used for MYELOFIBROSIS ENTRECTINIB : - It is oral Tyrosine kinase inhibitor. - Used for ROS - 1 positive NON SMALL CELL LUNG CANCER and NK positive solid tumors. TALAZOPARIB : - PARP inhibitor like olaparib - Used for breast cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vertical transmission is seen in - | [
"Herpes simplex",
"Leprosy",
"Tetanus",
"Whooping cough"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Fanconi Anaemia: | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Chromosomal breakage studies by DEB and Mitomycin C",
"Commonly occurs in old age",
"Hypercellular Marrow"
] | B | Fanconi Anemia Autosomal recessive Sho stature, microcephaly, microphthalmia, microstomia, Renal aplasia, cafe au lait spots, Generalised hyperpigmentation of skin, Mental retardation and hypoplasia of thumbs and of radii. Hypoplastic anaemia Increased susceptibility to spontaneous chromosomal breakage. Screening test is chromosomal breakage test -(Incubation of peripheral blood lymphocytes with diepoxybutane or mitomycin causes chromosomal breaks which can be seen on karyotyping). Definitive diagnosis is made by mutation analysis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 'non-parametric test' used to compare three or more independent groups of sampled data? | [
"Chi-square test",
"Fishers test",
"Kruskal-Wallis test",
"McNemar test"
] | C | Kruskal-Wallis Test is a non-parametric test (distribution-free) used to compare three or more independent groups of sampled data. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about Wilson disease, except | [
"Serum copper level is usually lower than normal",
"Low blood levels of ceruloplasmin",
"Liver damage begins at the age of 18",
"Free copper level is increased in the body"
] | C | There is impaired biliary copper excretion, resulting in positive copper balance, hepatic copper accumulation. Excess hepatic copper leads to liver damage, which begins as early as three years of age. Serum copper levels are usually lower than normal because of low blood ceruloplasmin. As the disease progresses, non ceruloplasmin serum copper ("free" copper) levels increase which leads to copper buildup in other pas of the body, such as the brain, leading to neurologic and psychiatric disease. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3188 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Symphysiotomy is indicated in : | [
"Contraction of brim",
"Contraction of cavity",
"Contraction of outlet",
"All of these"
] | C | Contraction of outlet | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lower lung involvement is common in | [
"TB",
"Asbestosis",
"Silicoisis",
"All"
] | B | Asbestosis Involves lesions affecting lower lobes or base of lung | train | med_mcqa | null |
Female pseudohermaphroditism - M.C cause- | [
"Maternal ovarian tumor",
"Materan drug intake",
"CAH",
"Chromosomal abnormalities"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., CAH Repeato Female pseudohermaphroditism.# Gentotype is XX# Gonads are ovaries# External genitalia are virilized (male differentiation).# As there is no mullarian inhibiting factor, mullarian duct develops into uterus tubes and ovary. But due to presence of androgen external genitalia are virilized.Causes are:Congenital adrenal hvperplasia(most common)21 hydroxylase deficiencyII beta hydroxylase deficiencyMaternal virilizing tumor ArrhenoblastomaMaternal medications with androgen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are used in bronchial asthma EXCEPT: March 2004 | [
"Salbutamol",
"Morphine",
"Aminophylline",
"Steroid"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Morphine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following vitamin is not an antioxidant | [
"Vitamin A",
"Vitamin B",
"Vitamin C",
"Vitamin E"
] | B | Ans. (b) Vit BRef: K. Park 23rded. 1626* Antioxidants are substances which are both nutrients and non-nutrients.* These anti-oxidants reduce the toxic effects of reactive oxygen species and nitrogen species which are generated during physiological or pathological conditions and result in oxidant damage* Vitamins which acts as antioxidants are remembered as ACE: vitamin A, C and E* Other vitamins which acts as anti-oxidants are: Selenium, Glutathione* Non-nutrient products that also act as anti-oxidants are: Plant phenols, Flavonoids, Coumarins, caffeic, benzyl isothiocyanates, gallic and ellagic acid.* Vitamin B is not an anti-oxidant. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following statements is false: | [
"The presence of ingested erythrocytes is seen only in Entamoeba histolytica",
"Young adult male of low socioeconomic status are most commonly affected by invasive amoebiasis",
"A low Iron content in the diet predisposes to invasive amoebiasis",
"The pathogenic and nonpathogenic strains of E. histolytica can ... | C | A low iron content in the diet predisposes to invasive amoebiasis is a false statement. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Orbital lesions of childhood include all of the following except: | [
"Lymphangioma",
"Secondary orbital meningioma",
"Cavernous haemangioma",
"Neurofibroma"
] | B | Ans. Secondary orbital meningioma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is: | [
"Keratin pearls",
"Foam cells",
"Nuclear palisading",
"Psammoma bodies"
] | C | Characteristic features of basal cell carcinoma are: Low grade malignancy. More common in fair & dry skinned people . NUCLEAR PALISADING on histology. Exposure to sunlight is an impoant etiological factor . Has been seen following prolonged administration of Arsenic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, hea rate was 96/min blood pressure 170/104mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypeensive for the initial therapy in his case: | [
"Nifedipine",
"Hydrochlorothiazide",
"Atenolol",
"Methyldopa"
] | C | Tense personality and high resting hea rate (96/min) makes b-blockers ideal candidate drugs to be used in this case. As blood sugar and lipid profile is normal, beta blockers can be used safely. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true for multiple myeloma except - | [
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hyperuricemia",
"Serum alkaline phosphatase",
"Monoclonal M band"
] | C | In multiple myeloma ,hypercalcaemia is due to destruction of bones; hyperuricaemia from necrosis of tumour mass & from uraemia related to renal failure . On serum electrophoresis ,the paraprotein usually appears as a single narrow homogeneous M-band component .Reference :Harsh mohan Textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 383. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 42-year-old woman has had menometrorrhagia for the past 2 months. She has no history of prior irregular menstrual bleeding, and she has not yet reached menopause. On physical examination, there are no vaginal or cervical lesions, and the uterus appears normal in size, but there is a right adnexal mass. An abdominal ultrasound scan shows the presence of a 7-cm solid right adnexal mass. Endometrial biopsy shows hyperplastic endometrium, but no cellular atypia. What is the most likely lesion that underlies her menstrual abnormalities? | [
"Corpus luteum cyst",
"Endometrioma",
"Granulosa-theca cell tumor",
"Mature cystic teratoma"
] | C | The mass is probably producing estrogen, which has led to endometrial hyperplasia. Estrogen-producing tumors of the ovary are typically sex cord tumors, such as a granulosa-theca cell tumor or a thecoma-fibroma, the former more often being functional. Teratomas can contain various histologic elements, but not estrogen-producing tissues. Endometriosis can give rise to an adnexal mass called an endometrioma, which enlarges over time. Endometrial glands are hormonally sensitive, but they do not produce hormones. Corpus luteum cysts are common, but they are unlikely to produce estrogens. Metastases to the ovary do not cause increased estrogen production. Polycystic ovarian syndrome would involve both ovaries. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sturge Weber syndrome is associated with | [
"Po wine staine",
"Cavernous hemangioma",
"Lymphangioma",
"Haemangiosarcoma"
] | A | Sturge Weber syndrome is manifested at bih by po wine stain forehead and upper eyelid of one side of the face. Refer robbins 9/e p196 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hea failure cells contain- | [
"Hemosiderin",
"Lipofuschin",
"Myoglobin",
"Albumin"
] | A | Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.106 CVC Lung Chronic venous congestion of the lung occurs in left hea failure , especially in rheumatic mitral stenosis so that there is consequent rise in pulmonary venous pressure. Grossly, The lungs are heavy and firm in consistency. The sectioned surface is dark The sectioned surface is rusty brown in colour referred to as brown induration of the lungs. Histologically, The alveolar septa are widened due to the presence of interstitial oedema as well as due to dilated and congested capillaries. The septa are mildly thickened due to slight increase in fibrous connective tissue. Rupture of dilated and congested capillaries may result in minute intra-alveolar haemorrhages. The breakdown of erythrocytes liberates haemosiderin pigment which is taken up by alveolar macrophages, so called hea failure cells, seen in the alveolar lumina. The brown induration observed on the cut surface of the lungs is due to thepigmentation and fibrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After lifting something heavy from the ground, a patient complains of back pain, which is radiating to lateral leg and great toe of lower limb. The most probable diagnosis: | [
"L3-L4 disc prolapse",
"L4-L5 disc prolapse",
"L5-S1 disc prolapse",
"L5 fracture"
] | B | Ans. b. L4-L5 disc prolapse | train | med_mcqa | null |
Whoever malignantly does an act which is likely to spread infection of any disease dangerous to life is punishable under | [
"Sec. 269 IPC",
"Sec. 270 IPC",
"Sec. 299 IPC",
"Sec. 370 IPC"
] | B | - Sec.270 IPC - Whoever malignantly does an act which is likely to spread infection of any disease dangerous to life is punishable up to 2 years or with fine or both - Sec.269 IPC - Whoever negligently does an act which is likely to spread infection of any disease dangerous to life is punishable up to 6 months or with fine or both - Sec. 299 IPC -Culpable (punishable) homicide - Sec. 370 IPC - Whoever commits the offence of trafficking shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years, but which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 22-year-old woman presents with painless cervical lymphadenopathy, night sweats, and generalized pruritus. An enlarged cervical lymph node is removed for diagnosis. On cut surface, it shows broads bands of fibrosis. Histologically, the affected lymph node contains a mixture of cells, including lymphocytes, histiocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells, and scattered large cells with prominent nucleoli. Which of the following is the most likely condition? | [
"Cat-scratch disease",
"Hodgkin disease",
"Reactive non-specific lymphadenitis",
"Non-Hodgkin lymphoma"
] | B | The history is consistent with Hodgkin disease (HD). Impoant clinical clues include painless lymphadenopathy, night sweats, and generalized pruritus. All forms of lymphoma lead to effacement of the nodal architecture on cut surfaces. In this case, fibrotic bands appear to divide the node into multiple nodules. This finding is suggestive of the nodular sclerosis subtype of HD, which usually affects children and young adults. Fuhermore, the histologic finding of large cells with prominent nucleoli (Reed-Sternberg cells) within a polymorphic cellular background is consistent with HD. Remember that the nodular sclerosis type of HD is characterized by a subtype of Reed-Sternberg cells called lacunar cells. These are similar to classic Reed-Sternberg cells in their large, inclusion-like nucleoli, but appear surrounded by a clear halo (hence the attribute "lacunar"). Cat-scratch disease is due to a small gram-negative bacillus (Baonella henselae), which is transmitted to humans by a scratch or a bite by a cat. Swelling of lymph nodes develops days after the skin lesion. The history is generally sufficient for diagnosis, but occasionally a lymph node biopsy is performed for confirmation. This reveals characteristic stellate abscesses, which are also seen with tularemia and lymphogranuloma venereum. Reactive non-specific lymphadenitis results in hyperplasia of germinal centers of lymphoid follicles, where maturation of B-cells takes place--follicular hyperplasia. This is probably the most common form of lymphadenopathy in otherwise healthy individuals. However, a careful search of the inciting conditions (dental abscess, skin infection, etc.) must be undeaken before reaching a conclusion of reactive lymphadenitis without histologic analysis. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is associated with effacement of lymph node architecture, and replacement by a population of atypical or frankly anaplastic lymphocytes. The presence of a polymorphic cellular background, and especially the finding of Reed-Sternberg cells, excludes non-Hodgkin lymphomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In obstruction of second pa of axillay aery, the anostomosis between the following aery will maintain the blood supply of upper limb? | [
"Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery",
"Anterior & posterior circumflex humeral",
"Posterior circumflex humeral & circumflex scapular aery",
"Suprascapular & anterior circumflex humeral aery"
] | A | Formed by branches of- Subclan aery - first pa - Suprascapular aery - Deep branch of transverse cervical aery Axillary aery - third pa - Subscapular aery & its circumflex scapular branch There are other smaller anastomoses over the acromion process, which also helps to maintain .flow to arm. (BDC Vol I, 4/e, p 82) Anastomoses over the acromion process Formed by - a)Acromial br. of thoraco-acromial aery b)Acromial br. of suprascapular aery c)Acromial br. of posterior circumflex humeral aery The subscapular aery also forms anastomoses with intercostal aeries | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an evidenced based recommended therapy for the management of acute respiratory distress syndrome | [
"Low tidal volume mechanical ventilation",
"Inhaled nitric oxide",
"Minimize left atrial filling pressures",
"Prone positioning"
] | B | Answer- B. Inhaled nitric oxideMechanical ventilationLorv tidal volumcMininrize left atrial filling pressuresHigh-PEEP or "open lung"Prone positionGlucocoicoidsHigh frequency ventilation | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are seen in Henoch schonlein purpura except - | [
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Glomerulonephritis",
"Ahralgia",
"Abdominal pain"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thrombocytopenia Clinical manifestations of H.S. Purpura Constitutional symptoms --> Fever, fatigue, malaise, Anorexia, weight loss Skin The hallmark of this disease is rash begining as pinkish maculopapules that initially blanch on pressure and progress to petechiae or purpura which are characterized by clinically as palpable purpura. o Purpura usually occurs on dependent areas of the body such as buttocks. Joints o Ahralgia or ahritis of large joints that involves primarily the joint of lower exterimities, i.e. knee & ankle. Migratory pattern of joint involvement occurs. Gastrointestinal tract o Abdominal pain and GI bleeding Diarrhoea (with or without visible blood) or hematemesis. o Intussusception may occur. Kidney o Almost always appear after the development of skin manifestations. o The characteristic of kidney involvement is microscopic heamaturia due to glomerulonephritis. o Non-nephrotic range proteinura. o There is deposition of IgA in the mesangium. Others --> Rarely CNS and pulmonary involvement may occur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acetic acid staining of cervix shows the following EXCEPT : | [
"Squamous metaplasia",
"Cervical carcinoma in situ",
"Cervical polyp",
"Cervical dysplasia"
] | C | Cervical polyp Ans. is c i.e. Cervical polyp Colposcopy is done in case of suspected CIN and Cervical dysplasias. Colposcope is a binocular microscope. In colposcopy after visualising the suspected area on cervix with naked eyes, acetic acid (3 - 5%) is applied for better visualization.deg Principle : Application of acetic acid to normal glycogen producing epithelium of cervix does not produce any effect and it appears pink during colposcopy. But when acetic acid is applied to dysplastic epithelium which have large nuclei with abnormally large amounts of chromatin (i.e. wtein) acetic acid coagulates the proteins of the nucleus and cytoplasm, making the proteins opaque and whitethus dysplastic cells and cancerous cells appear white (called as Aceto white) (i.e. option "13- and "d"are correctleck The immature metaplaIfcells have larger nuclei and also show some effects of the acetic acid. Since, metaplastic epithelium is very thin, it does not appear while but instead appears grey and filmy (i.e. option 'a'ts correct). Cervical polyp can be diagnosed by direct visualization and does not need a colposcope to diagnose it. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lecithin/Sphingomyelin ratio is done to assess the maturity of: | [
"Lung",
"Fetal circulation",
"Brain",
"Gonad"
] | A | Ref: Cloherty's Manual of Newborn Care. 6th edition, Page 323Explanation:THE LECITHIN -SPHINGOMYELIN (L/S) RATIOAssessment of fetal lung maturity (FLM) prenatally by testing amniotic fluid obtained by amniocentesis.It is performed by thin-layer chromatography.The risk of RDS is very low if the L/S ratio is >2.Exceptions to L/S ratio >2 are:o Infants of diabetic mothers (IDMs)o Intrapartum asphyxiao Erythroblastosis fetalis.Other possible exceptions are intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), abruptio placentae, preeclampsia and hydrops fetalis.Blood and meconium tend to elevate an immature L/S ratio and depress a mature L/S ratio.OTHER METHODSThe TDx-FLM 11 measures the surfactant- albumin ratio.Measured using fluorescent polarization technology.A value of >45 mg/g indicates maturity.Lamellar body counts in the amniotic fluid.Lamellar bodies are '"packages" of phospholipids produced by type II alveolar cells.A count of >50,000 lamellar bodies/microliter predicted lung maturity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paial pressure of O2 at atmospheric pressure of 760 mm of Hg | [
"76 mm of Hg",
"160 mm of Hg",
"120 mm of Hg",
"140 mm of Hg"
] | B | Paial pressure of oxygen at atmospheric pressure is 160 mm HG Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:311,312,313 | train | med_mcqa | null |
C-reactive proteins are - | [
"Alpha-1 globulin",
"Beta-1 globulin",
"Alpha-2 globulin",
"All"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta-1 globulin C-reactive is a nonspecific inflammatory acute phase protein. It is a beta globulin which is produced in the liver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Level of prevention that includes specific protection | [
"Primordial",
"Primary",
"Secondary",
"Teiary"
] | B | Specific protection targets a type or group of diseases and complements the goals of health promotion. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 48 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not seen in the first decade - | [
"Retino blastoma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Ameloblastoma"
] | D | Ameloblastoma is not a childhood tumor.
Other three are childhood malignancies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Planned radiation volume is: | [
"Depends on 90% of tumour size",
"Less than targeted radiation volume",
"More than targeted radiation volume",
"Equal to targeted radiation volume"
] | C | Ans. More than targeted radiation volume | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT a physiologic characteristic of cardiac muscle? | [
"All or none phenomenon",
"Length-tension relationship",
"Tetany (tetanus)",
"Pacemaker potential"
] | C | Tetanus cannot be produced in cardiac muscle because it has a long refractory period during which it is refractory to any stimulus occurring during contraction phase. The refractory period in ventricles is 250-300 msec and about 150 msec in atria. It is of two types: absolute refractory period and relative refractory period. In absolute refractory period the cardiac muscle does not show any response at all. During relative refractory period the muscle shows response if strength of the stimulus is increased to maximum. Ref: Essentials of Medical Physiology By Khurana page 138 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decreased osmotic fragility is seen in - | [
"Hereditary spherocytosis",
"Sickle cell ds",
"Autoimmune hemolytic anemia",
"Thalassemia"
] | D | <p>In thalassemia,osmotic fragility characteristically reveals increased resistance to saline hemolysis that is decreased osmotic fragility.</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 324.</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anatomical closure of ductus aeriosus occurs at ________ | [
"Bih",
"3-4 days",
"10-21 days",
"10-15 hours"
] | C | Ductus aeriosus is functionally closed at 10-15 hours after bih and then anatomical closure occurs at 10-12 days. Ref: Ghai essential pediatrics 9th edition Pgno: 400 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Hepatitis B arc true, Except | [
"Veical Transmission is more common than horizontal transmission in non-endemic areas",
"Age of onset determines prognosis",
"Period of communicability lasts several months",
"Virus can be detected in blood one month before jaundice"
] | A | Answer is A (Veical Transmission is more common than horizontal transmission in non-endemic areas) Veical transmission is more common that horizontal transmission in endemic Areas (not in non-endemic areas) Age of onset determines prognosis 'The outcome of HBV infection is age dependent. The development of chronic hepatitis B is inversely related to age and occurs in approximately 95% of persons infected perinatally, in 80% of persons infected in early childhood and in 510% infected after 5 years of age' - Park 20th /188 Period of communicability lasts several months 'The period of communicability is usually several months. The virus is present in the blood during the incubation period (for a month before jaundice) and acute phase of disease' - Park 201h/187 Virus can be detected in blood one month before jaundice 'Circulating HBsAg precedes elevation of aminotransferases and clinical symptoms (jaundice) by 2-6 weeks and remains detectable during the entire icteric or symptomatic phase of acute 'Hepatitis B' and beyond' - Harrison 's 17th /1933 Veical transmission is more common in Endemic areas 'Perinatal transmission (veical) is uncommon in Noh America and Europe (Non-Endemic areas) hut occurs with great frequency and is the most common mode of HBV perpetuation in the Far East and developing countries (Endemic areas)' - Harrison 's 17th/1940,1947 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 71/2 months old child with cough, mild stridor is staed on oral antibiotics. The child showed initial improvement but later developed wheeze, productive cough, and mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows an obstructive curve. The most probable diagnosis is, | [
"Bronchiolitis obliterans",
"Post viral syndrome",
"Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis",
"Follicular bronchitis"
] | A | Answer is A (Bronchiolitis obliterans): The patient in question is presenting with charachteristic features of bronchiolitis obliterans. Fever, cough, and wheeze are common clinical features of bronchiolitis obliterans and a period of initial improvement may well be seen in cases of bronchiolitis obliterans (Initial sign of B.0). Hyperluscency or chest X-Ray and obstructive curve on pulmonary function tests fuhur suggest the diagnosis of bronchiolitis obliterans. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following ricketsial diseases is transmitted by louse - | [
"Epidemic typhus",
"Rockery mountain spotted fever",
"Q-fever",
"Endemic typhus"
] | A | Epidemic typhus has louse as vector. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 274 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Saccharin test is done to assess | [
"Ciliary function",
"Blood sugar",
"Bronchial secretion",
"Kidney function"
] | A | (A) Ciliary function # SACCHARIN TEST for nasal mucociliary clearance> A simple test of nasal mucociliary clearance is to place a small particle of saccharin approximately 1 cm behind the anterior end of the inferior turbinate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is not a sequela of pancreatitis ? | [
"Hyperbilirubinemia",
"Haematocrit increased",
"Hyperglycemia",
"Hypercalcemia"
] | D | Hypercalcemia causes pancreatitis but Pancreatitis cause hypocalcemia. Pancreatitis causes saponification of fat, where calcium is consumed and eventually leads to hypocalcemia . ref - davidsons 23e pg 837-840 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of pulmonary-renal syndrome | [
"Leptospirosis",
"Hanta virus",
"Paraquat poisoning",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
USG examination of a 28-week pregnant primigravida shows vasa pre. All of the following are true, EXCEPT: | [
"Incidence is 1:1500",
"Fetal moality rate of 20% with undiagnosed case",
"Associated with low lying placenta",
"Caesarian section is indicated"
] | B | Vasa pre is a condition in which fetal vessels traverse the membranes in the lower uterine segment, crossing over the cervical os on front of the fetal head. Vasa pre complicates approximately 1 in 1000 to 1 in 5000 pregnancies. Perinatal moality ranges from 30% to 100%. The appropriate course of action is to deliver immediately caesarean section to prevent impending fetal demise. Ref: Wagner S.A. (2013). Chapter 18. Third-Trimester Vaginal Bleeding. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arterial thrombosis is seen in | [
"Homocysteinemia",
"Protein S deficiency",
"Protein C deficiency",
"Antithrombin III deficiency"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following types of leukemia is administered prophylactic methotrexate for CNS prophylaxis – | [
"ALL",
"AML",
"CLL",
"CML"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A thiy five year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability. The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis is. | [
"Muscle Biopsy",
"CPK levels",
"Edrophonium test",
"EMG"
] | C | Tensilon test (edrophonium test) is a pharmacological test used for the diagnosis of ceain neural diseases, especially myasthenia gravis. It is also used to distinguish a myasthenic crisis from a cholinergic crisis in individuals undergoing treatment for myasthenia gravis 10 mg edrophonium hydrochloride syringe and a 2 mg atropine syringe are prepared. Atropine is prepared for immediate use in case cholinergic crisis occurs. After a neurologic examination and recording of vital signs, first 2 mg edrophonium is injected intravenously. After waiting 30 seconds and ensuring that no adverse reactions occurred, the remaining 8 mg of edrophonium is also injected. A patient suffering from myasthenia gravis experiences improvement in muscle strength and endurance with repetitive movements, while normal persons do not feel any difference. The effects of edrophonium lasts around 10 minutes. The edrophonium allows accumulation of acetylcholine (ACh) in the neuromuscular junctions, and makes more ACh available to the muscle receptors, thereby increasing muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. In newborns, a 0.15 mg/kg edrophonium administered subcutaneously produces a response within 10 minutes. In infants, the drug is administered intravenously at a dose of 0.2 mg/kg. Improvement of diplopia is often used as an evaluation item because in this case, placebo effect can be excluded Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Low serum iron and low serum ferritin is seen in | [
"Iron deficiency anaemia",
"Chronic kidney disease",
"Sideroblastic anaemia",
"Fanconi anaemia"
] | A | Low serum iron is seen in iron deficiency anemia. Serum iron will be also low in case of anemia of chronic diseases and also in case of malabsorption, pregnancy and in pubey where the demand increases. Serum ferritin is a measure of iron stores and is the best single test to confirm iron deficiency. Reference : Davidson, 23rd Edition, page no : 941. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which female genital malignancy is most common in pregnancy? | [
"Ovarina cancer",
"Vaginal vulvar cancer",
"Endometrial cancer",
"Cervical cancer"
] | D | Combined together, genital tract cancers are the most common malignancies encountered during pregnancy.
Most common genital malignancy during pregnancy is cervical cancer. Proportion of malignancies during pregnancy is shown in Figure.
Williams Obs. 24/e | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following conditions Berlin's edema is | [
"Open angle glaucoma",
"After cataract surgery",
"After concussional trauma",
"Diabetic retinopathy"
] | C | C i.e. After concussion trauma Blunt trauma to eye may produce Berlin's edema or commotio retinae Q which is a cloudy swelling characterized by a grey appaerance, most frequently in the temporal region. It may also manifest as cherry red spot in the foveal region. | train | med_mcqa | null |
a child beats other children. after this behaviour he is made to sit in a sepeae room and not allowed to watch the TV channel he likes usually | [
"punishment",
"omission",
"negative reinforcement",
"positive reinforcemnt"
] | B | Behavioral therapy is learning given by BF Skinner , according to him all behaviors are learned phenomenon and thus can be unlearned Positive reinforcement a type of reinforcement when a behavior is rewarded there is more chance that the behavior is repeated Negative reinforcement is that when a behavior is done and an aversive response is removed, the behavior is repeated. When I go and meet my girlfriend, she checks my messages and picks up fight (aversive response) suddenly I delete all messages one day and that day there was no fight (no aversive response) then that behavior is repeated (delete all messages before meeting my girlfriend) Extinction is the type of reinforcement where a behavior is done and a rewarding response is removed the chance is that behavior will not be repeated A child likes to play with children( reward) but when the child fights with other children( undesirable behavior) the child will be removed from playing( removing a reward) , then the child stops fighting with other children( reduction of undesirable behaviour) Ref. kaplon and sadock synopsis, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Altitudnal Field Defects are seen in | [
"Non Aeritic Ischemic Optic Neuropathy",
"Lateral Geniculate Body lesions",
"Optic nerve lesion",
"Optic Chiasma Lesion"
] | A | Non aeritic AION Impoant Points on Visual Pathway Lesions 1. Optic nerve lesion I/l direct and c/ L consensual reflex gone Causes *Optic atrophy/ optic neuritis, Avulsion optic nerve 2. Middle Chiasmal syndrome/ Central Chiasmal lesion Saggital chiasma lesion Bitemporal hemianopia | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following cause malignant hyperpyrexia except – | [
"N2O",
"Halothane",
"Methyoxyflurane",
"Isoflurane"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Height to weight is a/an | [
"Association",
"Regression",
"Propoion",
"Index"
] | A | Ref: Parks 23rd edition pg 852 Height and weight are association. In order to find out whether there is significant association or not between the two variables , coefficient or Corelation is calculated . r lies between -1 and +1 r near -1 : indicates strong negative correlation . r = 0 : indicates no association r near +1: indicates strong positive correlation. Note: correlation does not necessarily prove causation . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve not damaged in breast surgery is? | [
"Median nerve",
"Median pectoral nerve",
"Nerve to latissimus dorsi",
"Nerve to serratus anterior"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Median nerveREF: Breast surgery by William G. Cance page 95Following nerves get injured during breast surgeries:Axillary motor nervesThe long thoracicThoracodorsalMedial pectoralnerves | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ellis curve is seen in | [
"Pheumothorax",
"Pheumonia",
"Asthma",
"Pleural effusion"
] | D | o On chest X-rays, pleural effusion presents as homogenous opacity.
o Typically this opacity has a fairly well defined concave upper edge, is higher laterally than medially and obscures the diaphragmatic shadow | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common location of carcinoid tumor ? | [
"Bronchus",
"Ileum",
"Rectum",
"Colon"
] | A | Location of carcinoid tumors: Bronchus 27.9% , Ileum 14.9%, Rectum 13.6 %, colon 8.6 %. So Ileum comes next to bronchus and first in GI tract. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3058, Table 350-3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are seen in inflammatory polyarthritis, except - | [
"New bone formation",
"Spontaneous flare",
"Increased ESR",
"Morning stiffness more than one hour"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In national vector borne disease control program which disease is not included? | [
"Malaria",
"Yellow fever",
"Japanese encephalitis",
"Kala azar"
] | B | Ans. (b) Yellow feverRef. K. Park 21sted./380* The National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) is implemented for the prevention and control of vector borne diseases such as: Malaria, Filariasis, kala-azar, Japanese encephalitis, Dengue and Chikunguniya.* Yellow fever is NOT a part of NVBDCP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of cerebrovascular accident is: | [
"Embolism",
"Arterial thrombosis",
"Venous thrombosis",
"Hemorrhage"
] | A | Ans. (a) Embolism* MC cause of cause of CVA- Ischemia (85% cases) due Embolism (75%) > Thrombosis (25%)* CVA may also be due to hemorrhage (<15%) - Parenchymal, Subarachnoid, Epidural or Subdural hemorrhage* Stroke in young women in India are predisposed by Cortical venous thrombosis due to OCP consumption. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Example for Sesamoid bone is:- | [
"Rider's bone in adductor magnus",
"Pisiform in flexor carpi ulnaris.",
"Fabella in medial head of gastrocnemius",
"One bone in peronius teius"
] | B | Sesamoid bone develops in tendon of muscles which are subjected to friction during the movements. These bones ossify after bih and act as pulleys. These bones are devoid of periosteum and lamellae. Examples are; 1) Patella in quadriceps femoris, 2) Pisiformis in flexor carpi ulnaris 3) Fabella in lateral head of gastrocnemius 4) Rider`s bone in adductor longus 5) Some unnamed bones in flexor hallucis brevis & peroneus longus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary detion is more than primary detion is a feature of | [
"Accommodative squint",
"Paralytic squint",
"Infantile esotropia",
"Alternate exotropia"
] | B | Broadly, strabismus can be classified as below:I. Apparent squint or pseudostrabismus.II. Latent squint (Heterophoria)III. Manifest squint (Heterotropia)1. Concomitant squint2. Incomitant squint INCOMITANT SQUINTIt is a type of heterotropia (manifest squint) in which the amount of detion varies in different directions of gaze. It includes following conditions:1. Paralytic squint,2. 'A' and 'V' pattern heterotropias,3. Restrictive squint PARALYTIC STRABISMUSIt refers to ocular detion resulting from complete or incomplete paralysis of one or more extraocular muscles Primary detion. It is detion of the affected eye and is away from the action of the paralyzed muscle, e.g., if lateral rectus is paralyzed the eyeis converged.2. Secondary detion. It is a detion from the normal eye seen undercover when the patient is made to fix with the squinting eye. It is greater than the primary detion. This is due to the fact that the strong impulse of innervation required to enable the eye with the paralyzed muscle to fix is also transmitted to the yoke muscle of the sound eye resulting in a greater amount of detion. This is yoke muscles. In Paralytic squint, the secondary detion is more than the primary detion. Reference: Khurana Ophthalmology; 4th edition; Strabismus and Nystagmus | train | med_mcqa | null |
A man 25 yrs old presents with renal failure u- uncle died of renal failure 3 yrs ago. On slit 1 examination, keratoconus is present | [
"ADPCKD",
"ARPCKD",
"Alopo's syndrome",
"Denysh-Drash syndrome"
] | C | AIpo's syndrome A number of uncommon diseases may involve the glomerulus in childhood but the most impoant one affecting adults is Alpo's syndrome. Most cases arise from a mutation or deletion of the COL4A5 gene on the X chromosome, which encodes type IV collagen, resulting in inheritance as an X-linked recessive disorder (p. 48). Mutations in COL4A3 or COL4A4 genes are less common and cause autosomal recessive disease. The accumulation of abnormal collagen results in a progressive degeneration of the GBM (Fig. 15.14). Affected patients progress from haematuria to ESRD in their late teens or twenties. Female carriers of COL4A5 mutations usually have haematuria but less commonly develop significant renal disease. Some other basement membranes containing the same collagen isoforms are similarly involved, notably in the cochlea, so that Alpo's syndrome is associated with sensorineural deafness and ocular abnormalities. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 289 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wide split S2 occurs in- | [
"VSD (ventricular septal defect)",
"Mitral stenosis",
"ASD (Atrial septal defect)",
"Coarctation of aoa"
] | C | The second hea sound is widelysplit and is relatively fixed in relation to respiration. A mid-diastolicrumbling murmur, loudest at the fouh intercostal space and alongthe left sternal border, reflects increased flow across the tricuspidvalve. In ostium primum ASD, an apical holosystolic murmur indicatesassociated mitral or tricuspid regurgitation or a ventricularseptal defect (VSD).These findings are altered when increased pulmonary vascularresistance causes diminution of the left-to-right shunt. Both thepulmonary outflow and tricuspid inflow murmurs decrease inintensity, the pulmonic component of the second hea sound anda systolic ejection sound are accentuated, the two components ofthe second hea sound may fuse, and a diastolic murmur of pulmonicregurgitation appears. Cyanosis and clubbing accompanythe development of a right-to-left shunt (see "Ventricular SeptalDefect" below). In adults with an ASD and atrial fibrillation, thephysical findings may be confused with mitral stenosis with pulmonaryhypeension because the tricuspid diastolic flow murmurand widely split second hea sound may be mistakenly thought torepresent the diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis and the mitral"opening snap," respectively. Harrison's principle of internal medicine,20edition,pg no.1556 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following intrauterine contraceptive devices has the lowest pregnancy rate | [
"Lippes loop",
"Cu - 7",
"Cu T - 200",
"Levonorgestrel IUD"
] | D | Levonorgestrel IUD | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following pathway serve as the MOST impoant source of reducing equivalents for fatty acid synthesis in the liver? | [
"Glycolysis",
"TCA cycle",
"Uronic acid pathway",
"HMP pathway"
] | D | The co enzyme used for the de novo fatty acid synthesis is NADPH. The hexose monophosphate pathway provides a major poion of cell's NADPH for fatty acid synthesis. Tissues having active lipogenesis such as liver, adipose tissue and lactating mammary gland have an active HMP shunt pathway also. The net reaction of de novo fatty acid synthesis can be summarized as: 1 Acetyl CoA + 7 Malonyl CoA + 14 NADPH + 14H+ - 1 Palmitate + 7 CO2 + 14 NADP+ +8CoA+ + 6H2O. The pentose phosphate pathway is an alternative route for the metabolism of glucose. The two major functions of this pathway are: The formation of NADPH for synthesis of fatty acids and steroids, and maintaining reduced glutathione for antioxidant activity. The synthesis of ribose for nucleotide and nucleic acid formation. Ref: Textbook Of Biochemistry For Dental Students By Vasudevan page 104. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e chapter 21. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetal midgut rotates in IUL | [
"270 degree clockwise",
"270 degree anticlockwise",
"360 degree clock wise",
"360 degree anticlockwise"
] | B | During development, midgut undergoes rapid phase of growth in which loops of midgut herniate outside the abdominal cavity of fetus & protrude into umbilical cord This is PHYSIOLOGICAL UMBILICAL HERNIA (occurs at 6 weeks of IUL) At week 10, it comes back to abdominal cavity. When midgut is Herniating into umbilicus, it follows superior mesenteric aery Thus, superior mesenteric aery becomes axis of rotation. While entering umbilical cord there is: 1. High point: duodenojejunal junction (small intestine). 2. Low point: ileocecal junction (large intestine) * Which rotates 1st 90 degree anti- clock wise resulting in small intestine to right side & large intestine to left side. While coming back to abdominal cavity, there would be another 180 degree anti - clock wise rotation. : Total of 270 degree anti-clock wise rotation occurs during development of midgut in IUL Duodenum become C - shaped and have 4 pas and colon will also have 4 pas (Ascending, transverse & descending & sigmoid colon). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fat in the duodenum lumen : | [
"Stimulates gall bladder contraction",
"Inhibits gall bladder contraction",
"Inhibits CCK secretion",
"Releases Secretin"
] | A | A i.e. Stimulates gall bladder contraction | train | med_mcqa | null |
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