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ETDRS vision chart study is done in patients with diabetic retinopathy. ETDRS stands for : | [
"Extended therapy for diabetic retinopathy & its study",
"Emergency treatment for diabetic retinopathy and study",
"Eye testing or rotatory drum & its study",
"Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy study"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy study By seeing these type of questions, don't make an impression that anything can be asked from anywhere in PG exams. These are always 2-3 rare questions in a paper and they are very rarely repeated. Don't let them deter you from preparing the most probable topics and questions. Prepare the most probable and most probably you get selected. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Millennium developmental goal for HIV/AIDS - | [
"6",
"3",
"8",
"1"
] | A | Governments have set a date of 2015 by which they would meet the MDGs I.e, eradicate extreme povey and hunger;achieve universal primary education;promotes gender equality;improve maternal health, combat HIV /AIDS,malaria and other diseases,ensure environmental sustainability and develop a global panership for development (refer pgno:893 park 23rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dental cuticle refers to | [
"Enamel cuticle",
"Cemental cuticle",
"Secondary enamel cuticle and cemental cuticle",
"None of the above"
] | C | Reduced enamel epithelium is formed from the outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum after the completion of enamel formation.
Coronal cementum is the acellular afibrillar cementum (AAC), which is a mineralized ground substance containing no cells and is devoid of extrinsic and intrinsic collagen fibers. It is formed due to the premature toss of the reduced enamel epithelium protecting the newly formed enamel at the cervical region.
The ameloblasts are replaced by the oral epithelial cells during the tooth eruption. These cells form the secondary enamel cuticle which extends over the cementum called cemental cuticle. Secondary enamel cuticle and cemental cuticle are together referred as dental cuticle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following variant of CAH presents with mineralocoicoid deficiency? | [
"11b hydroxylase deficiency",
"17a hydroxylase deficiency",
"P450 oxidoreductase dehydrogenase",
"3b hydroxyl-steroid dehydrogenase"
] | D | Deficiency in CAH Glucocoicoid Mineralocoicoid Androgens 21 hydroxylase Reduced Reduced Increased 3 b hydroxyl-steroide dehydrogenase Reduced Reduced Increased 11 b hydroxylase Reduced Increased Increased 17 a hydroxylase Reduced Increased Decreased P450 oxidoreductase Reduced Increased Decreased | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is/are AT1 receptor blocker - | [
"Spironolactone",
"Losartan",
"Captopril",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Losartan | train | med_mcqa | null |
TIPSS is used in all except | [
"Refractory ascites",
"BCS",
"Hepatopulmonary syndrome",
"Refractory hepatic hydrothorax"
] | C | TIPSS is contraindicated in Hepatopulmonary syndrome Contraindications of TIPSS Absolute Right sided hea failure Polycystic liver disease Pulmonary hypeension Hepatopulmonary syndrome Relative Poal vein thrombosis Hypervascular liver tumors Encephalopathy Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1439 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most retentive type of amalgam pin is: | [
"Self threading pins",
"Cemented pins",
"Friction locked pins",
"All have same retentive capability"
] | A | The most frequently used pin type is the small self-threading pin. Friction-locked and cemented pins, although still available, are rarely used.
The diameter of the prepared pinhole is 0.0015 inch to 0.004 inch smaller than the diameter of the pin. The threads engage the dentin as it is inserted, retaining the pin. The elasticity (resiliency) of the dentin permits insertion of a threaded pin into a hole of smaller diameter.
Although the threads of self threading pins do not engage the dentin for their entire width, the self-threading pin is the most retentive of the three types of pins ,being three to six times more retentive than the cemented pin.
Reference: Sturdevant operative dentistry. 7th EDITION page no.269 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding Laryngomalacia except - | [
"Poor prognosis",
"Most common congenital abnormality",
"Stridor with cyanosis",
"Gets relieved in prone position"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Typhoid is treated by all except ? | [
"Erythromycin",
"Ceftriaxone",
"Amikacin",
"Ciprofloxacin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erythromycin o The older agents used for the treatment of typhoid were :ChloramphenicolAmpicilinTrimethoprim Sulfamethoxazoleo These drugs are not used nowdays because of widespread resistance.o Nowdays the drug of choice for Typhoid all over the world is a "Fluroquinolone " (Ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin).An important point to remembero High level of fluoroquinolone resistance (ciprofloxacin) have been reported from India and other parts of South East Asia in S. paratyphi and S.typhi infection.Nalidixic acid resistant S.typhi (NARST) have decreased ciprofloxacin sensitivity and are less effectively treated with fluoroquinolones.The fluroquinolones should not be used as first line treatment for typhoid fevers in patients from India and other parts of South Asia with high rates of fluroquinolone resistance unless antibiotic susceptibility data demonstrates fluoroquinolone or nalidixic acid sensitivity.Alternative drugs for patients with fluoroquinolone resistance are : -o Beta lactam# Parenteral# Oral--CeftriaxoneCeftximeo AzithromycinoChloramphenicolAntibiotic Therapy for E nteric Fever in AdultsIndicationAgentEmpirical treatmento Ceftriaxoneo AzithromycinFully susceptibleo Ciprofloxacin- (first line)o Amoxicillin (Second line)o Chloramphenicolo Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleMutlidrug-Resistanto Ciprofloxacino Ceftriaxoneo AzithromycinNalidixic Acid-Resistanto Ceftriaxoneo Azithromycino High-dose ciprofloxacin | train | med_mcqa | null |
A problem with a porcelain jacket is it: | [
"Is not color stable",
"Is very brittle",
"Has a very high compression strength",
"Is irritating to the gingiva"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gamma glutamate carboxypeptidase is linked with absorption of | [
"Riboflavin",
"Niacin",
"Folic acid",
"Pyridoxine"
] | C | Function in the brain GCPII directly cleaves NAAG into NAA and glutamate. NAAG has been shown, in high concentration, to indirectly inhibit the release of neutrotransmitters, such as GABA and glutamate. It does this through interaction with and activation of presynaptic group II mGluRs Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chondritis of aural cartilage is most commonly due to - | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Pseudomonas",
"Candida",
"Both staph & Pseudomonas"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Fitzgerald and Hallpike differential caloric test, cold water irrigation at 30deg centigrade in the left ear in a normal person will produce: | [
"Nystagmus to the right side",
"Nystagmus to the left side",
"Direction changing nystagmus",
"Positional nystagmus"
] | A | (a) Nystagmus to the right side(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; page 796)If the same is done with warm water the nystagmus will be towards the same side, i.e. left side.Direction changing nystagmus is seen in central lesions.Positional nystagmus is seen in BPPV. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indication for sentinel node biopsy is | [
"Non palpable axillary lymph node",
"Palpable axillary lymph node",
"Mass > 5 cm",
"Metastasis"
] | A | The first axillary node draining the breast (by direct drainage) is designated as the sentinel node (SLN). SLN Biopsy is done in all cases of early breast cancers, T1 and T2 without clinically palpable node. It is not done in clinically palpable axillary node as there is already distoion of lymphatic flow due to tumour.I t is also not done in multifocal and multicentric tumours, as there is involvement of many lymphatic trunks from different places of breast, and chances of false-negative is high.. Ref; (page no; 543) 5th edition of SRB&;S manual of Surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a killed vaccine ? | [
"Hepatitis B",
"Measles",
"Yellow fever",
"Japenese encephalitis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Japanese encephalitis Live attenuated Inactivated or killed Immunoglobulins Bacterial Bacterial Human normal Subunit Vaccines BCG Typhoid Hepatitis A,B Hepatitis B Typhoid oral Cholera Measles Typhoid Vi antigen Viral Peussis Rabies Toxoids Oral Polio(Sabin) Meningitis Tetanus Diphtheria Yellow fever Plague Mumps Tetanus Measles Viral Human Specific Rubella Rabies Varicella Both active & Mumps Injectable polio (Salk) Diptheria passive Chicken pox Influenza Non-Human (antisera) immunization Influenza Hepatitis A Diphtheria can be given together Rickettsial JE Tetanus Diphtheria Epidemic Typhus KFD Gas Gangrene Hepatitis B Botulism Tetanus Rabies Rabies | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Bing test, on alternately compressing and releasing the external acoustic meatus, the sound increases and decreases. This indicates | [
"Otosclerosis",
"Sensorineural deafness",
"Adhesive otitis media",
"Chronic suppurative otitis media"
] | B | Tests for bone conduction TestPrincipleMethodImpressionBing test Examines the effect of occlusion of ear canal on hearing Tuning fork placed on mastoid while examiner alternatively closes & opens the ear canal by pressing on the tragus inwards Patient hears louder when the ear canal is occluded & softer when the ear canal is open - Normal persons or sensorineural deafness ( Bing + ve )No change in ear canal opening or occlusion - conductive deafness ( Bing - ve )Gelle's test Examines the effect of increased air pressure in ear canal on hearing Placing a vibrating fork on mastoid while changes in air pressure in the ear canal are brought about by Siegel&;s speculum Positive - normal persons or sensorineural deafnessNegative - ossicular chain fixed or disconnected(Refer: PL Dhingra, Textbook of Ear, Nose, Throat, 6thedition, pg no: 21,22,23) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Median nerve supplies all of the following muscles except- | [
"Flexor Carpi Ulnaris",
"Flexor digitorum Superfacialis",
"Pronator teres",
"Flexor Pollicis Longus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Flexor Carpi Ulnaris SUMMARY OF NERVE SUPPLY OF MUSCLES OF UPPER LIMBDorsal scapular nerve (C5)Rhomboid minor, rhomboid major, levator scapulae musclesLong thoracic nerve (C5,6,7)Serratus anterior muscleSuprascapular nerve (C5,6)Supraspinatus and infraspinatus musclesNerve to subclavius (C5,6)SubclaviusLateral pectoral nerve (C5,6,7)Pectoralis major muscleMusculocutaneous nerve (C5,6,7)Coracobrachialis biceps brachii, brachialis muscles, supplies skin along lateral border of forearm when it becomes the lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm.Upper subscapular nerve (C5,6)Subscapularis muscleThoracodorsal nerve (C6,7,8)Latissimus dorsi muscleLower subscapular nerve (C5,6)Subscapularis and teres major musclesAxillary nerve (C5,6)Deltoid and teres minor muscles; upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm supplies skin over lower half of deltoid muscle.Radial nerve (C5,6,7,8; T1)Triceps, anconeus, part of brachialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, via deep radial nerve branch supplies extensor muscles of forearm; supinator, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, extensor indicis, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis; skin, lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm, posterior cutaneous nerve of arm, and posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm, skin on lateral side of dorsum of hand and dorsal sufrace of lateral three and a half fingers, articular branches to elbow, wrist and hand.Medial pectoral nerve (C8; Tl)Pectoralis major and minor musclesMedial cutaneous nerve of arm joined by intercostal brachial nerve from second intercostal nerve (C8; T1, 2)Skin of medial side of armMedial cutaneous nerve of forearm (C8;T1)Skin of medial side of forearmUlnar nerve (C8; Tl)Flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of flexor digitorum profundus, flexor dig-iti minimi, opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, adductor pollicis, third and fourth lumbricals, interossei, palmaris brevis, skin of medial half of dorsum of hand and palm, skin of palmar and dorsal surfaces of medial one and a half fingers.Median nerve (C5,6,7,8; Tl)Pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorium superficialis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, first two lumbricals (by way of anterior interosseous branch), flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus (lateral half), pronator quadratus, palmar cutaneous branch to lateral half of palm and digital branches to palmar surface of lateral three and a half fingers, articular branches to elbow, wrist, and carpal joints. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The technique of laparoscopic cholecystectomy was first described by. | [
"Sleisinger",
"Eric Muhe",
"Kurt semm",
"Starzl"
] | B | Ans. (b) Erich MuheRef Blumgart 5/e p 512* 1st Lap Cholecystectomy was done by ERIC MUHE in 1982.* 1st Lap Appendectomy was done by KURT SEMM in 1980 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mutation in which of the following genes is responsible for development of INH resistance in mycobacteria? | [
"KatG",
"embB",
"pncA",
"rpoB"
] | A | KatG (catalase peroxidase) conves INH (prodrug) to its active form which fuher inhibits inhA and KasA gene which leads to inibition of synthesis of mycolic acid (present in bacterial cell wall) leading to cell death. The most common mechanism which confers high level INH resistance is by mutation of the catalase-peroxidase (KatG) gene so that the bacilli do not generate the reactive metabolite of INH. This type of resistance cannot be overcome therefore INH should be stopped. DRUG RESISTANCE MUTATION IN GENE Rifampicin rpoB Isoniazid katG and inhA Ethambutol embB Pyrazinamide pncA | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is most significant finding in cardiotocography for detection of fetal hypoxia? | [
"Late deceleration",
"Variable deceleration",
"Sinusoidal deceleration",
"Early deceleration"
] | A | Late deceleration: Begins at or after the contraction peak and touches the baseline only after the end of contraction.It has a smooth and gradual onset and recovery and magnitude is rarely >40bpm.It is classically caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and indicates hypoxia. Most common causes are maternal hypotension following epidural and hyperstimulation due to oxytocics. TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS, SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN ,Pg no:521,2nd edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child is suffering from recurrent chronic infections with encapsulated bacteria; Which subclass of IgG does the child has deficiency? | [
"IgG1",
"IgG2",
"IgG3",
"IgG4"
] | B | IgG2 and IgA deficiency leads to increased risk of infections with encapsulated bacteria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radio graphical findings in Freiberg disease is: | [
"Depending on the stage of the disease, radiographs may show only sclerosis and widening of the joint space (early), with complete collapse of the metatarsal head and fragmentation later",
"Oblique views may be especially useful to fully appreciate subtle changes early in the disease",
"Osteochondral loose may ... | D | Ans. D. All are truea. It is osteochondroses of head of 2nd of 2nd (3rd/4th) metatarsal.b. The diagnosis of Freiberg disease is relatively straightforward when patients present with the typical complaints of activity-related forefoot pain with passive motion of the MTP joint and pain with palpation over the metatarsal head.c. The differential diagnosis may include metatarsalgia, Morton neuroma, stress fracture of the metatarsal, or synovitis. Physical examination typically reveals a limited range of motion (ROM), swelling, and tenderness with direct palpation of the MTP joint. A small effusion may be present.d. A callus may be seen underneath the affected metatarsal head. Occasionally, patients are completely asymptomatic with changes noted only on radiographs taken for other purposes.e. X rays in Early stage shows flattening increased density cystic lesions of metatarsal head, widening of metatarsophalangeal joint.f. X rays in late stage shows osteochondral fragment, sclerosis, flattening of metatarsal head with increased cortical thickening. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ultrasonic devices operate at | [
"25-30 KHz",
"35-40 KHz",
"2-3 KHz",
"5-10 KHz"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common adverse effect of oral anticoagulants- | [
"Bleeding",
"Bleeding",
"Diarrhea",
"Vomiting"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., bleeding o Bleeding (most common) and cutaneous necrosis can occur with any oral anticoagulants. | train | med_mcqa | null |
tRNA molecules vary in length from | [
"10-24 nucleotides",
"24-46 nucleotides",
"74-95 nucleotides",
"96-120 nucleotides"
] | C | tRNA molecules vary in length from 74 to 95 nucleotides, like many other RNAs, are also generated by nuclear processing of a precursor molecule.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 34; Nucleic Acid Structure & Function | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypokalemia is seen with -a) Frusemideb) Cortisolc) Amilorided) Addison's disease | [
"ac",
"a",
"ad",
"ab"
] | D | Cortisol at high doses may exert certain mineralocorticoid activity leading to increased retention of sodium and water and increased, excretion of potassium. This leads to hypernatremia and hypokalemia.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes increased excretion of potassium leading to hypokalemia.
About other options.
Amiloride is a potassium sparing diuretic and produces hyperkalemia.
Manifestations of Addison's disease occurs primarily due to mineralocorticoid deficiency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for substitution therapy in morphine dependence - | [
"Methadone",
"Clonidine",
"Naloxone",
"Nalmefene"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methadone Treatment of morphine or heroin poisoningo Treatment can be divided intoTreatment of toxicity (overdose)o Overdose is a medical emergency, and is treated with opioid antagonist to reverse the complications (respiratory depression) by antagonizing the action on opioid receptors. Intravenous naloxone is the antagonist of choince for morphine (heroin) poisoning. Oral naltrexone is used for maintenance therapy, once acute poisoning has been treated by iv naloxone. Intravenous nalmefene is another specific antagonist.Treatment of dependenceo Treatment of dependence include medically supervised withdrawal and detoxification, followed by maintenance therapy :(a) Detoxificationo Detoxification process include abrupt withdrawal of opioid followed by management of the emergent withdrawal symptoms, i.e., treatment of withdrawal syndrome. Detoxification can be done by any of the following :1 .Substitution of long-acting opioid agonism :- Methadone is the treatment of choice. Because of its agonistic activity on opioid receptors it suppresses withdrawal symptoms. L-alpha-acetyl- methadol/Levomethyl (LAAM) is the other opioid agonist which was used for this purpose. However it is no longer in use because some patients developed prolonged QT intervals (torsades de points).2. Substitution of partial agonist :- Buprenorphine can be used in place of methadone because of its partial agonistic activity on opioid receptor.3.Substitution by a2 agonists :- Clonidine acts as a sympatholytic agent due to its agonistic action on central presynaptic a, receptors which reduce nor-adrenergic activity. Therefore, clonidine reduces the adrenergic withdrawal symptoms. Lofexidine another a2 agonist, is an alternative to clonidine.4. . Clonidine plus naltrexone :- A more rapid detoxification can occur when clonidine is used along with naltrexone. Naltrexone, when given in opioid dependent patient, causes withdrawal symptoms because of its antagonistic action. These can be treated with clonidine. The addition of short acting Benzodiazepine (lorazepam or oxazepam) and NSAIDs, will help relieve withdrawlsymptoms not covered by clonidine. It should be kept in mind that naltrexone should not be used alone for detoxification (to treat withdrawl syptoms) as it precipitates or worsens the withdrawl syndrome.5.Other drugs :- Dextropropoxyphene, diphenoxylate(b) Maintenance therapyo Once detoxification phase is over (i.e., withdrawal symptoms have been managed), the patient is maintained on any of the following drugs to prevent relapse by reducing craving and preventing 'kick' or 'euphoria' produced by opioids (morphine or heroin). Drugs used are1. Methadone :- Reduces craving and 'kick/euphoria ' from morphine or heroin because their opioid receptors are already occupied.2. LAAM and buprenorphine :- Similarly reduce craving.3. Opioid antagonists (naltrexone) :- Naltrexone can be used orally to assist in the rehabilitation of ex-opioid abusers who are fully withdrawn (otherwise it induces an acute withdrawl syndrome). Naltrexone prevents relapse by discouraging substance seeking behavior -If a patient, who is on naltrexone maintenance therapy, takes an opioid, there is no 'kick' or 'euphoria' as opioid receptors are already blocked. Naltrexone can be used with clonidine as in detoxification. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tevdek sutures used in endodontics microsurgeries should not be left: | [
"Longer than 48 hours",
"Longer than 72 hours",
"Longer than 24 hours",
"Longer than 96 hours"
] | D | Over recent years, suture material choice has moved from black silk to Tevdek braided polyester or monofilament polypropylene sutures such as Protene.
Post-operative Management:
Sufficient healing have occurred after 48 hours for suture removal; however, it should not be left longer than 96 hours due to 'wicking effect' that may cause post-operative infection of the surgical site. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basal cardiac output in an adult is nearly | [
"7.5 litre",
"5 litre",
"12 litre",
"10 litre"
] | B | Normal cardiac output= 5L/min | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maternal moality rate is calculated by | [
"Maternal deaths / Live bihs",
"Maternal deaths / 1000 live bihs",
"Maternal deaths / 10000 live bihs",
"Maternal deaths / 100000 live bihs"
] | D | Maternal Moality Ratio (MMR) : Maternal deaths expressed as per 100,000 live bihs, where a 'maternal death' is defines as 'death of a woman while pregnant or during delivery or within 42 days (6 weeks) of termination of Pregnancy, irrespective of duration or site or pregnancy, from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management but not from accidental or incidental causes Maternal deaths expressed as per 100,000 live bihs (earlier it was expressed per 1000 live bihs but that yielded fractions like 4.08 maternal deaths per 1000 LB; so denominator was extrapolated to 100,000 to make MMR value more sensible MMR = No. Of Maternal deaths in a given year / Total no. Of live bihs in the same year x 100,000 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 593 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are derivatives of the septum transversum except | [
"Falciform ligament",
"Coronary ligament",
"Mesentery of the lesser sac",
"Ligamentum teres"
] | D | Ligamentum teres represents the obliterated left umbilical vein and is not a derivative of septum transversum. Ref:Human Anatomy,BD Chaursia, pg335 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The dose of Dopamine used for renal vasodilatation is? | [
"2.5 ug/kg/min",
"5-10 ug/kg/min",
"10-20 ug/kg/min",
"1-2 ug/kg/min"
] | D | Dopamine is used in the treatment of shock - cardiogenic, hypovolemic, and septic shock. It is especially useful when there is renal dysfunction and low cardiac output because dopamine increases renal blood flow and thereby GFR. Dopamine stimulates the hea - increases FOC, CO, BP. It is also sho acting. Its dose is 2-5 mcg /kg/ min for stimulating the hea (beta-1) least does- renal VD. 1-2 mcg /kg/ min- Dopamine receptor stimulation more than 10mcg /kg/ min not to be used as alpha receptors may get stimulated causing vasoconstriction From medical pharmacology Padmaja 4th edition page 97 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shivering is observed in the early pa of postoperative period is due to | [
"Chloroform",
"Halothane",
"Truchloroethylene",
"Ether"
] | B | Halothane Post operative shivering and hypothermia is maximum with Halothane Pethidine is used for treatment of this condition Refer Ajay yadav 2/e p 61 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following in not a part of epithalamus- | [
"Pineal body",
"Posterior commissure",
"Trigonum habenulae",
"Geniculate bodies"
] | D | Epithalamus consists of habenular nucleus (lying in habenular trigone), pineal body, habenular commissure, posterior commissures, and stria medullaris thalami. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Theory of contagion was first enunciated by | [
"Paracelsus",
"Fracastorius",
"Vesalius",
"Pare"
] | B | Revival of medicine encompasses period from 1453 -1600. Fracastorius an Italian physician enunciated &;theory of contagion&;. He envisaged transmission of infection minute invisible paicles and explained cause of epidemics. He recognised syphilis was transmitted from person to person during sexual relationss. He is founder of epidemiology. Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition; Pg no: 5 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cranial nerve related to apex of the petrous temporal bone | [
"VIII",
"VII",
"VI",
"V"
] | C | In the intraneural course,the fibres of VI nerve runs veically and downwardsthrough the trapezoid body,medial lemniscus and basilar pa of the pons to reach the lower border of the pons. The nerve is attached to the lower border of the pons,opposite the upper end of the pyramid of the medulla. The nerve then runs upwards,forwards and laterally through the cristerna pontis and usually dorsal to the anterior inferior cerebellar aery to reach the cavernous sinus. The ebducent nerve enters the cavernous sinus by piercing its posterior wall at a point lateral to the dorsum sellae and superior to the apex of the petrous temporal bone. As the nerve crosses the superior border of the petrous temporal bone,it passes beneath the petrosphenoidal ligament,and bends sharply forwards. In the cavernous sinus,at first it lies lateral to the internal carotid aery and then inferolateral to it. The abducent nerve enters the orbit through the middle pa of the superior orbital fissure. Here it lies inferolateral to the occulomotor and nasociliary nerves. In the orbit,the nerve ends by supplying only the lateral rectus muscle. It enters the ocular surface of the muscle. Ref BDC volume 3.6th edition pg 365 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The use of a temporary restoration or a treatment
restoration is | [
"To interpret the vertical dimension of occlusion",
"To protect the gingival tissues",
"To simulate permanent restoration except durability",
"Means to determine the occlusal plane"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enzyme used in Leukemia - | [
"Asparginase",
"Lipase",
"Amylase",
"Transminase"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Asparginase o Asparaginase is a protein and it is an enzyme.# Asparaginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagine to aspartic acid and ammonia.o Asparatrine is required for protein synthesis and is essential part of cellTumour cells, especially All cell, have low levels of aspargine synthetase, the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of asparagine.Therefore tumour cells require an external source of asparagine in order to survive.o Asparasinase serves to destroy all the asparagine that does manage to get synthesized in a tumour cell or that comes in from other sources, thus the tumour cells die because they do not have the aspareine needed to build proteins.o Asparaginase does not come naturally in humans but is found in bacteria, plants, animals including guinea pigs,o Asparaginase used in chemotherapy is usually isolated from cultures ofE.coli. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gallows traction is applied for fracture of which bone | [
"Tibia",
"Radius",
"Humerus",
"Femur"
] | D | * Gallow's traction is used for the treatment of fracture of shaft of femur in children less than 2 years old and those weighing less than 12kg.* The treatment for fracture of shaft of femur is based on age group. - <5 years old - Spica - 5-10 years old - Titanium elastic nail system - >10 years - Intramedullary nailing - this is the method of choice for most femoral shaft fractures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pa of brain involved in narcolepsy | [
"Neocoex",
"Hypothalamus",
"Cerebellum",
"Putamen"
] | B | Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition *Recently several convergent lines of evidence suggest that hypothalamic neuropeptide hypocretin(orexin) is involved in the pathogenesis of narcolepsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Glomus jugulare tumours except: | [
"Common in females",
"Causes conductive deafness",
"It is a disease of infancy",
"It invades labyrinth, petrous pyramid and mastoid"
] | C | (c) It is a disease of infancy(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2 page 1303)Glomus is seen most commonly in middle age (40 - 50 yrs) usually in females. It presents with conductive deafness and pulsatile tinnitus.It is a benign but locally invasive tumour and can invade mastoid, labyrinth, petrous pyramid, jugular foramen, Eustachian tube and middle/posterior cranial fossa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epidemiological features are for Japanese encephalitis include all of the following except ? | [
"The virus infects extra-human hosts",
"Man is an incidental host",
"Infected pigs manifestation",
"Epidemics have been repoed in Karnataka"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Infected pigs manifestation o Infected pigs do not maniest any ove symptoms of illness but circulate the virus so that mosquito get infected and can transmit the virus to man. o All other options have been explained earlier. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an antimetabolite? | [
"Methotrexate",
"Cyclosporine",
"Etoposide",
"Vinblastine"
] | A | Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that acts by inhibiting DHFRase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following should be considered as the cause of generalized convulsions 20 minutes postoperatively ? | [
"Halothane",
"Enflurane",
"Isoflurane",
"Sevoflurane"
] | B | Enflurane is known to produce seizures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gap between true end of casting ring and wax
pattern should be: | [
"¼ inch",
"½ inch",
"3/8 inch",
"one inch"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intermediate grade of NHL are all except - | [
"Diffuse small cell cleaved",
"Diffuse large cell",
"Follicular ,predominantly small cleaved cell.",
"Diffuse mixed"
] | C | <p>Intermediate grde of NHL consist of - follicular predominantly large cell,diffuse small cleaved cell,diffuse mixed small & large cell,diffuse large cell. Follicular predominantly small cleaved cell is included in low grade NHL.</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 366. </p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sloughing of necrotic epithelium is characteristic of: | [
"Aspirin burn",
"Denture sore mouth",
"Traumatic ulcer",
"Contact dermatitis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal aqueous production rate - | [
"2 ml/min",
"5 ml/min",
"2ml/min",
"5 ml/min"
] | C | Aqueous humour is derived from plasma within the capillary network of ciliary processes.The normal aqueous production rate is 2.3ml/min. Ref:ophthalmology -AK khurana -6th edition chapt:10 page no:221 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Claw hand is caused by damage to? | [
"Ulnar nerve",
"Radial nerve",
"Medial nerve",
"Axillary nerve"
] | A | Ans. a (Ulnar nerve). (Ref. Maheshwari, Orthopaedics, 2nd ed., 51)# Claw hand means hyperextension at metacarpophalangeal joints & flexion at the proximal & distal interphalangeal joints. This occurs due to paralysis of the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpo-phalangeal joint & extends the interphalangeal joints.# Paradoxically clawing is more marked in lower ulnar nerve palsy than in high due to the latter, flexor of the fingers (both the finger flexors) are also paralysed.# In ulnar nerve palsy only the medial 2 fingers develop clawing while all 4 fingers develops clawing in combined median & ulnar nerve palsies. NerveMuscle groupFunctional deficit or sign1.Long thoracicSerratus anteriorWinging scapula2.SuprsascapularInfraspinatus, SupraspinatusDifficulty in initiating arm abduction3.AxillaryDeltoid and teres minorInability to fully abduct arm4. Extensors of forearms, wrist proximal phalangesLoss of arm extension, loss of forearms extension, supination, es. and thumb abduction, loss of wrist extension (wrist drop), loss of proximal phalangeal extension and thumb extension.Saturday night palsy5.MusculocutaneousFlexors of arm and forearmWeak arm and forearm flexion,weak forearm supination.6.MedianWrist and hand flexors thenar muscles,Paralysis of flexor, pronator, and inability to fully flex the index and middle fingers, (sign of benediction), "pointing index finger", labourer's nerve7.UlnarWrist and hand flexorsInability to extend the distal and middle phalanges (clawhand); loss of thumb abduction, froment sign positiveTardy ulnar palsy- cubitus valgus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding furosemide true statement is | [
"Acute pulmonary edema is an indication",
"Acts on PCT",
"Mild diuresis",
"Given only by parenteral route"
] | A | Furosemide possesses vasodilatory action which is responsible for quick relief in LVF and pulmonary edema.It can be used orally as well as parenterally | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pharyngoconjunctival fever type of acute follicular conjunctivitis is not caused by which of the following strain of Adenovirus? | [
"3",
"4",
"7",
"8"
] | D | Adenovirus 8 causes Epidemic Keratoconjunctivitis type of acute follicular conjunctivitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
38 year old male with hypopigmented patches near both ankles. What is not used for treatment? | [
"Topical clobetasol",
"Topical tretinoin",
"Topical tacrolimus",
"Topical methoxsalen"
] | B | Treatment of vitiligo: 1.Topical a. Steroids eg: clobetasol b. Calcineurin inhibitors like tacrolimus c. Vit D analogues 2. Systemic a. Steroids b. Azathioprine 3. Phototherapy a. PUVA b. PUVASOL c. Narrow band UVB d. Targeted Phototherapy 4. Surgical treatment. Impoant point: Topical methoxsalen is Psoralen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All developed up to the adult size at bih except | [
"Mastoid Antrum",
"Tympanic cavity",
"Orbital cavity",
"Ear ossicle"
] | C | Tympanic cavity, mastoid (tympanic) antrum, ear ossicles and the Internal ear are of adult size in the foetal skull. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Closure of glottis is by, all except - | [
"Posterior cricoarytenoids",
"Lateral cricoarytenoids",
"Cricothyroid",
"Thyroarytenoids"
] | A | Muscles which adduct the vocal cords (close the glottis) are thyroarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, Interarytenoid (Transverse arytenoid), Cricothyroid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dryness of eye is caused by injury to facial nerve at: | [
"Chorda tympani",
"Vertical segment",
"Tympanic segment",
"Geniculate ganglion"
] | D | (d) Geniculate ganglion(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2606)Whenever there is injury before or at the origin of the greater superficial petrosal nerve (i.e. before or at the Geniculate ganglion) which is responsible for lacrimation there will be dry eye on the same side.Tympanic segment, Vertical segment and Chorda tympani all are beyond the geniculate ganglion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wells' disease is caused by ? | [
"Leptospira",
"Listeria",
"Mycoplasma",
"Legionella"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Leptospira Leptospirosis and Weil's disease . Incubation period --> I- 2 weeks. Leptospirosis may present as one of the two clinical types : - Anicteric Laboratory findings . T ESR . Leukocytosis . Mild thrombocytopenia . T Serum bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase . Increased prothrombin time . BUN and creatinine may be raised. Remember . Vasculitis is responsible for the most impoant manifestations of the disease, mainly affect the kidney and liver. . When antibodies are formed, leptospires are eliminated from all sites in the host except the eye, the proximal renal tubules and the brain. . The most impoant pathogenic propeies of leptospires are adhesion to cell surfaces and cellular toxicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fatty acids can not be utilised by | [
"Muscles",
"Heart",
"Liver",
"RBC"
] | D | RBC can utilise only glucose even during fasting / starvation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What suggests segmental demyelination on NCV | [
"Decreased CAMP amplitudes",
"Uniform slowing of nerve conduction",
"Decreased area under CAMP curve",
"No evidence of distal conduction"
] | A | Answer- A. Decreased CAMP amplitudesSegmental Demyelination : Because there is variable slowing or different nerve fibers withing the nerve, conduction velocity will be slowed and distal latencies will be prolonged in segmentally demyelinatiing injuries.CMAP amplitudes may be decreased because of temporal dispersion, not because of axonal damage. Therefore, the CMAP may be longer in duration. However, the area under the CAMP will be normal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is best for ante-moem diagnosis of rabies: March 2009 | [
"Antirabies antibodies in blood",
"Immunofluorescence of corneal impressions",
"Immunofluorescence of skin biopsy",
"Isolation of virus from saliva"
] | C | Ans. C: Immunofluorescence of skin biopsy Ante moem diagnosis in human cases is necessary for medical management of the patient and to ensure appropriate post-exposure treatment of contacts. Rabies can be confirmed in patients early in the illness by antigen detection using immunofluorescence of skin biopsy, and by virus isolation from saliva and other secretions. Immunofluorescence of corneal impression smears has proved unreliable. Neutralising antibodies are usually not detected in serum or CSF before the eight day. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug causing fixed drug eruption - | [
"Sulfonamide",
"Erythromycin",
"Aminoglycoside",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sulfonamide Drugs cadging fixed drug eruptiono Paracetamol (Phenacetin)o Sulfonamideso NSAIDso Aspirino Barbiturateso Dapsoneo Tetracyclineso Phenylbutazone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rheumatoid factor is directed against | [
"IgG",
"IgD",
"IgA",
"IgM"
] | A | Rheumatoid factor is IgM directed against Fc portions of IgG | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement regarding NK cells are all except: | [
"No role in cell mediated immunity",
"Form part of innate immunity",
"CD 16 positive",
"CD 56 positive"
] | A | "NK cell: They have CD 16 & CD 56 on their surface. They release several cytolytic factors; one of these, perforins, which resembles complement C9, cause transmembrane pores through which cytotoxic factor enter the cell. NK cell activity is augmented by interferon"
- Ananthanarayan 8/131
" N K cell: Farm part of innate immunity as it does not require prior sensitisation by antigen. Their cytotoxicity is not antibody dependent or MHC restricted."
- Ananthanarayan 8/131
LARGE GRANULAR LYMPHOCYTES/NATURAL KILLER CELLS
- Harrison l7/ 2024-29
Large granular lymphocytes (LGLs) or NK cells account for ~5-10% of peripheral blood lymphocytes.NKs cells are nonadherent, nonphagocytic cells with large azurophilic cytoplasmic granules.
NKs cells express surface receptors for the Fc portion of IgG (CD16) and for NCAM-1 (CD56), and many NK cells express some T lineage markers, particularly CD8, and proliferate in response to IL-2. NK cells arise in both bone marrow and thymic microenvironments
Functionally, NK cells share features with both monocytes-macrophages and neutrophils in that they mediate both antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and NK cell activity.
NK cell activity may play an important role in immune surveillance and destruction of malignant and virally infected host cells
NK cell hyporesponsi%reness is also observed in patients with Chediak-Higashi syndrome, an autosomal recessive disease associated with fusion of cytoplasmic granules and defective degranulation of neutrophil lysosomes.
The ability' of NK cells to kill target cells is inversely related to target cell expression of MHC class l molecules.
To eliminate malignant and virally infected cells. NK cells also require activation through recognition of NK activation molecules on the surface of target cells.
Recent evidence suggests that NK cells, though not possessing rearranging immune recognition genes, may be able to mediate recall responses for certain immune reactions such as contact hypersensitivity.
Some NK cells express CD3 and are termed NK/T cells\ NK/T cells can also express oligoclonal forms of the TCR for an antigen that can recognize lipid molecules of intracellular bacteria when presented in the context of CD 1 molecules on A PCs. This mode of recognition of intracellular bacteria such as Listeria monocytogenes and M. tuberculosis by NK/T cells leads to induction of activation of DCs and is thought to bean important defence mechanism against these organisms | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are Experimental / Interventional studies except: | [
"Randomised control trials .",
"Field trials.",
"Community trials.",
"Ecological studies."
] | D | Ecological study (Correlational study):
Type of analytical (observational) epidemiological study which provide the ‘least satisfactory type of evidence on causality’
Units of study: Population
Advantage: Data can be used from populations with different characteristics
Potential problem: Socio-economic confounding
Ecological fallacy: Is an error of interpretation of statistical data in an ecological study, whereby characteristics are ascribed to a group of individuals which they may not possess as individuals | train | med_mcqa | null |
NSABP stands for ? | [
"National surgical adjuvant for breast project",
"National surgical adjuvant for breast and bowel project",
"National surgical adjuvant for brain and breast",
"National surgical adjuvant for bowel and brain"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., National surgical adjuvant for breast and bowel project The National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project (NSABP) is a clinical trials cooperative group suppoed since its inception by national cancer institute (NCI). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In nephrotic syndrome the essential feature is : | [
"Proteinuria",
"Hypoalbuminemia",
"Hyperlipernia",
"Edema"
] | A | All the given options occur in nephrotic syndrome, but proteinuria is the most characteristic, which is the basic defect.
The underlying abnormality in nephrotic syndrome is an increase in permeability of the glomerular capillary wall, which leads to massive proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common organ involved in sarcoidosis - | [
"Lung",
"Liver",
"CNS",
"Eye"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lung o Most common organ involved in sarcoidosis is the lung. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pregnant woman at 35 weeks pregnancy complains of decreased fetal movement. Next step in management is : | [
"Observation",
"Do NST",
"Do CST",
"Do BPS"
] | B | Reduction and cessation of movements may precede fetal death by a day or two.Failure to perceive 10 movements in a 12 hour period should prompt fuher biophysical assessment.NST is currently the most common method to assess fetal well being.It has been incorporated into biophysical profile.The test is based on the hypothesis that the hea rate of a fetus which is not acidotic due to hypoxia will accelerate in response to fetal movement. TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS, SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN ,Pg no:509,2nd edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gold standard investigation for uterine cavity evaluation is | [
"Ultrasonography",
"Saline sonography",
"Hysterosalpingography",
"Hysteroscopy"
] | D | Hysteroscopy is considered the gold standard for uterine cavity evaluation because it allows for direct visualization. The procedure involves inseion of an endoscope through the cervical canal into the uterine cavity and instillation of distension media to allow for visualization.To optimize visualization of the endometrial cavity and avoid performing the procedure during early pregnancy, hysteroscopy is typically scheduled during the early- to mid follicular phase of the cycle. Disadvantages to the procedure include poor visualization when uterine bleeding is present and the inability to evaluate structures outside the uterine cavity, including those in the myometrium and adnexa. Reference: Novak's Gynecology; 14th edition; Chapter 32; Infeility and Assisted Reproductive Technology | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Koch's postulates except: | [
"Disease should be susceptible to broad spectrum antibiotics",
"Organism causing lesion can be isolated from lesion",
"Organism can be cultured in artificial media",
"Organism causes similar lesion if inoculated in other person"
] | A | Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, 8th edition, Ananthnarayan and Paniker, Page 5 and Mandell, Bennett and Doiin: Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases, 6th edition, Page II Explanation: KOCH'S POSTULATES A microorganism to be accepted as the causative agent of an infectious disease has to satisfy the following conditions: The bacterium should be constantly associated with the lesions of the disease. It should be possible to isolate the bacterium in pure culture from the lesions. Inoculation of such pure culture into suitable laboratory animals should reproduce the lesions of the disease. It should be possible to re-isoiate the bacterium in pure culture from the lesions produced in experimental animals. An additional criterion added later was that specific antibodies to the bacterium be demonstrable in the serum of patients suffering from the disease. Pathogenic organisms that do not obey the Koch's postulates: o Mycobacterium leprae o Tropheryma whippelii o Rhinosporidium seeberi. Molecular form of Koch's postulates o Phenotype of interest should be associated significantly more often with pathogenic members of a genus or pathogenic strains of a species than with non-pathogenic members or strains. o Specific inactivation of the gene or genes associated with the suspected virulence trait should lead to a measurable decrease in virulence. o Restoration of full pathogenicity should accompany replacement of the mutated version of the gene w ith the wrild-type version in the strain of origin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A normal child has dysfluency of speech between: | [
"2 and 4 years",
"4 and 6 years",
"6 and 8 years",
"8 and 10 years"
] | A | a. 2 and 4 years(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 65-77, Ghai 8/e p 52-53)Language development occurs most rapidly between 2 and 5 years of age. The period of rapid language acquisition is also when developmental dysfluency and stuttering are most likely to emerge | train | med_mcqa | null |
Retinol is a primary alcohol containing:- | [
"Alpha-ionone ring",
"Beta-ionone ring",
"One isoprenoid unit",
"Two double bonds"
] | B | Retinol (vitamin A alcohol):
lt is a primary alcohol containing beta-ionone ring.
The side chain has two isoprenoid units, four double bonds and one hydroxyl group.
Retinol is present in animal tissues as retinyl ester with long chain fatty acids
Key Concept:
Retinol is a vitamin A (alcohol containing beta-ionone ring) | train | med_mcqa | null |
C-ANCA is associated with: | [
"Protein-3",
"Myeloperoxidase",
"Alkaline phosphatase",
"Lactate dehydrogenase"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
2,3 DPG causes - | [
"Decrease binding of O2 and hemoglobin",
"Increased acidity in RBC",
"Decreased acidity in RBC",
"Lysis of RBC"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Decrease binding of O2 and hemoglobin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Premature ejaculation phase is seen in - | [
"Excitement phase",
"Plateau phase",
"Orgasm phase",
"Refractory phase"
] | C | Ans. C. Orgasm phaseThe male sexual response is described as a sequence of phases including 4 stages: sexual desire, arousal, orgasm (ejaculation) and resolution.The male sexual dysfunction usually occurs in one or more of the three first stages of the sexual response cycle, including:Dysfunctions of sexual desire (e.g. hypoactive sexual desire)Arousal (e.g. erectile dysfunction)Orgasm/ejaculation (e.g. premature ejaculation, retarded ejaculation or inability to ejaculate).Premature ejaculation occurs due to the rapid evolution of the two first stages of the sexual response cycle and is not necessarily related to strong sexual arousal or changes in erection.Premature Ejaculation seems to be a neurobiological problem that is related to low serotonin levels in those regions of the central nervous system that regulate ejaculation (brain and spinal cord). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death, EXCEPT: | [
"Burns",
"Heat stroke",
"Septicemia",
"Pontine hemorrhage"
] | A | Condition in which temperature of the body remains raised for the first 2hours after death is called postmoem caloricity. Burns is not associated with postmoem caloricity. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 137-9 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is contraindicated in a brain tumor patient? | [
"CT scan",
"MRI",
"PET",
"Lumbar puncture"
] | D | Ans DAny intracranial space occupying lesion will result in increase in intracranial tension. Performing lumbar puncture in raised ICT results in tonsillar herniation which will affect vital centres adversely and can result in death. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kocher langenback approach for emergency acetabular fixation is done in all Except- | [
"Open fractures",
"Progressive sciatic nerve injury",
"Recurrent dislocation inspite of closed reduction and traction",
"Morel- Lavallee lesion"
] | D | *Morel-Lavalle lesion is a localized area of subcutaneous fat necrosis over the lateral aspect of hip caused by same trauma that causes the acutabular fracture. The operation through it has been a/w a higher (12%) rate of post - operative infection , wound dehiscence and healing by secondary intention. The presence of a significant Morel-Lavallee lesion can be suspected by hypermobility of the skin and subcutaneous tissue in the affected area from the shear type separation of the subcutaneous tissue from the underlying fascia lata. Alternatively, some fractures can be treated through ilioinguinal approach, thus avoiding the affected area. *Therefore, in the presence of Morel - Lavalle lesion posterior kocher langenbeck approach is avoided. Ref: Essentials of ohopaedics surgery 3rd/e p.1219 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are affected in Graft-Versus host reaction | [
"Skin",
"GIT",
"Liver",
"Lung"
] | D | • GVHD affects skin (earliest organ), intestine and liver
• Lungs are not affected in GVHD. For details see text. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following fungi are thermally dimorphic except | [
"Sporothrix schenkii",
"Cryptococcus neoformans",
"Blastomycosis dermatitidis",
"Histoplasma capsulatum"
] | B | Cryptococcus is a yeast. All others exist as yeast in the host tissue and in culture at 37C and as mycelial form in the soil and culture at 25C Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The benefits of the technique shown below are all of the following except: | [
"Protects from neonatal jaundice",
"Protects from hypothermia",
"Decreases duration of hospital stay",
"Promotes exclusive breastfeeding"
] | A | a. Protects from neonatal jaundiceThe neonate is kept in skin to skin contact with mother, in between the breasts, inside clothing of mother. This is Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rattan, a middle-aged man is chronically preoccupied with his health. For many years he feared that his irregular bowel functions meant he had cancer. Now he is very preoccupied about having a serious hea disease, despite his physician's assurance that the occasional "extra beats" he detects when he checks his pulse are completely benign. What is his most likely diagnosis? | [
"Somatization disorder",
"Hypochondriasis",
"Delusional disorder",
"Pain disorder"
] | B | Hypochodriasis is characterized by fear of developing or having a serious disease, based on the patient's distoed interpretation of normal physical sensations or signs. The patient continues worrying even though physical exams and diagnostic tests fail to reveal any pathological process. The fears do not have the absolute ceainty of delusions. Hypochondriasis can develop in every age group, but onset is most common between 20 and 30 years of age. Both genders are equally represented, and there are no differences in prevalence based on social, educational, or marital status. The disorder tends to have a chronic, relapsing course | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tuberculous arthritis of a joint in sites other than the spine in advanced cases leads to whcih of the following - | [
"Bony ankylosis",
"Fibrous ankylosis",
"Loose joints",
"Charcot's joints"
] | B | Ans- B Fibrous ankylosis is usual outcome of healed tuberculosis of joints except in spine where bony ankylosis takes place. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal distribution curve is determined by: | [
"Standard deviation and mean",
"Standard deviation and mode",
"Mode and median",
"Standard deviation and median"
] | A | Ans. a (Standard deviation and mean). (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/pg. 792)1. Normal distribution curve/ Standard normal curve/ Normal Gaussian curve# A smooth symmetrical curve.# Total area of the curve is 1; its mean is zero; and its standard deviation is 1.# The mean, median and mode all coincide.# Limits on either side of mean are called "confidence limits".- Area between one standard deviation on either side of the mean (x + 1 m) will include approximately 68% in the distribution.- The area between two SD on either side of the mean (x + 2 m) approximately 95 %.- Area between three SD on either side of mean (x + 3 m) approximately 99.7 % in the distribution.# Percentage of values in a population, which will fall within various ranges within an ideal curve of normal distribution:- Mean +/- d 68.27%- Mean +/- 1.96d 95.00%- Mean +/- 2d 95.45%- Mean+/-3d 99.73%2. Poisson distributionLimiting form of binominal distribution when probability of success is closer to zero and numbers of trials are infinite. Mean=variance.3. Skew distribution Skewed to left (negatively skewed);Skewed to Right (Positively skewed)1If more outlying values are smaller than the rest, data are said to be skewed to left;If more outlying values are larger than the rest, data are said to be skewed to left2Data have longer tail among lower values;Data have longer tail among higher values3Median>mean;Median<mean | train | med_mcqa | null |
Erysipeloid is transmitted by which of the following route | [
"Droplet",
"Mosquito bite",
"Fish",
"Feco-oral"
] | C | Erysipeloid (Fish Handler's Disease) * Infection caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae through direct contact with infected meat, seen mainly in meat-handlers, fisherman or veterinarians. * Presents with painful red to purple patches over hands (finger webs often involved, sparing terminal phalanges) with sharply-marginated spreading edge, possible central clearing and/or hemorrhagic vesicles. * Systemic form with fever, ahralgias, widespreaed cutaneous lesions, possible sepsis and fatal endocarditis. Treatment:- Penicillin (if PCN allergy - erythromycin). Ref:- Sima Jain; pg num:-209 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The highest percentages of polyunsaturated fatty acids are present in - | [
"Groundnut oil",
"Soyabean oil",
"Margarine",
"Palm oil"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sovabean oil o Amongst the given options, sunflower oil has maximum polyunsaturated fatty acids (LA and ALA). Otherwise, sfflower oil has maximum PUFA overall. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best Investigation to assess tubal patency : | [
"Rubin's test",
"HSG",
"Laparotomy",
"Laparoscopic chromtubation"
] | D | Ans. is d i.e. Laparoscopic chromotubation The Gold standard / Best Investigation to assess tubal patency is Laparoscopic chromotubation. Laparoscopy enables to look at the external condition of uterus, tubes and pelvis and at the same time the patency of tubes can be seen . Methylene Blue/Indigo carmine dye is injected through a cannula attached to the cervix to visualize the free spill or absence of spill. It can also demonstrate peritubal adhesions and unsuspected endometriosis. The greatest advantage of laparoscopy is therapeutic procedure can be performed if adhesions or fimbrial block is recognized in one sitting. Also know : Other questions frequently asked on Tuba! patency tests. - Time for performing Tuba! patency tests : Day 6 - Day 11 of cycledeg - No anesthesia is required for tube testingdeg - Obsolete method of testing Tubal patency - Rubins test / Insufflation testdeg - Contraindiactions of tubal Patency tests. HSG should not be performed during and immediately before menstruation and in the post ovulatory period. HSG should not be performed after curettage. In recently active salphingttis. In suspected Tuberculosis of Genital Tract. In infection of the lower Genital tract. Sonosalpingography is a method of assessing Tube Patency. It was popularized by G.Allahabadia and is also called as Sion test : Under USG guidance, a slow and deliberate injection of 200 ml of physiological saline into uterine cavity is accomplished a foley's catheter, the inflated bulb of which lies above the internal os and prevents leakage. It is possible to visualize the flow of saline along the tube and observe it is coming out as a shower at fimbrial end. USG shows the presence of free fluid in pouch of Douglas if tubes are patent. Falloscopy -The interstitial end of the fallopian tubes is visualised by falloscopy. Salpingoscopy-Studies the mucosa of the fallopian tube and helps in deciding whether IVF or tubal microsurgery should be performed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best diagnosis of ovulation is by : | [
"Ultrasound",
"Laproscopy",
"Endometrial biopsy",
"Chromotubation"
] | A | Ultrasound | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the 'Yellow fever' reference centre? | [
"Haffkin's institute, Mumbai",
"Central institute, Kasuali",
"NIN, Hyderabad",
"AIIMS, Delhi"
] | B | Ans. b (Central institute, Kasuali) (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/pg. 257)The 'Yellow fever' reference centres in India are# National Institute of Virology, Pune.# Central Research Institute, Kasauli.Measles vaccine in India is produced by# Serum institute Pune.In India, facilities for isolation of influenza virus are available at the following institutes1. Govt, of India, influenza Centre, Pasteur Institute, Coonor, South India.2. All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi.3. Armed Forces Medical College, Poona.4. Vallabhai Patel Chest Institute, Delhi.5. School of Tropical Medicine, Kolkata.6. Haffkine Institute, Mumbai. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following features are associated with Delirium tremens EXCEPT | [
"Agitated",
"Insomnia",
"No loss of sleep",
"Reversal of sleep wake pattern"
] | C | (C) No loss of sleep # Delirium tremens Symptoms are> Clouding of consciousness> Poor attention span> Visual hallucinations which are often vivid and frightening> Tactile hallucinations and auditory hallucinations> Marked autonomic disturbances> Tachycardia Fever Sweating Hypertension Pupillary dilatation> Psychomotor agitation and ataxia> Insomnia> Dehydration> The course is short with recovery occurring within 3-7 days> Reversal of sleep pattern | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which group of streptococcus grow at > 60°C - | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Late onset hemorrhagic disease of newborn is characterized by all of the following features except? | [
"Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies",
"Onset occurs at 4-12 week of age",
"Intracranial hemorrhage can occur.",
"Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at bih has a protective role"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies "Haemorrhagic disease of new born is more common in breast fed infants because breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K"- Nelson What is haemorrhagic disease of new born o It is a haemorrhagic disease of new born characterized by bleeding from various sites due to a transient deficiency of vitamin K dependent factors (II, VII, IX & X). . o Breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K and haemorrhagic manifestation are more common in breast fed infants. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of strangulated hernia is - | [
"Observation",
"Immediate surgery",
"Manual reduction",
"Analgesics"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which muscle is inseed into the floor of the inteubercular sulcus ? | [
"Lattissimus dorsi",
"Teres major",
"Long head of biceps",
"Deltoid"
] | A | Lattissimus dorsi is inseed into the floor of the inteubercular sulcus Inteubercular sulcus lies between the greater and lesser tubercles. Ref: Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 806. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The type of enzyme inhibition in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by malonate is an example of: | [
"Noncompetitive",
"Uncompetitive",
"Competitive",
"Allosteric"
] | C | Inhibition of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase by malonate illustrates competitive inhibition by a substrate analog. Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the removal of one hydrogen atom from each of the two-methylene carbons of succinate. Both succinate and its structural analog malonate can bind to the active site of succinate dehydrogenase. However, since malonate contains only one methylene carbon, it cannot undergo dehydrogenation. Ref: Kennelly P.J., Rodwell V.W. (2011). Chapter 8. Enzymes: Kinetics. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lymphatic drainage of cervix ? | [
"Preaoic",
"Paraaoic",
"External iliac",
"Inguinal"
] | C | The lymphatics from the cervix drain into the external iliac, internal iliac and sacral nodes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Klatskin tumor: (Repeat) | [
"Primitive neuroectodermal tumor in chest",
"Cholangiocarcinoma arising from bifurcation of bile duct",
"Lung adenocarcinoma involving apical region",
"Enterochromaffin cell tumor"
] | B | Ans: B (Cholangiocarcinoma arising from bifurcation of bile duct) Ref: Benbrahim Z et al. Askin's tumor: a case report and literature review. World J Surg Oncol. 2013: 11: 10.Explanation:Cholangiocarcinoma arising from bifurcation of bile duct - Klatsin tumorLung adenocarcinoma involving apical region - Pancoast tumorAskin tumors - Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNET) arising from the chest wallOther named TumorsBuschke-Lowenstein tumor-- Giant condyloma acuminatumAckerman tumor - Subtype of Verrucous Carcinoma (Carcinoma cuniculatum)Grawitz tumor - Renal cell carcinomaKrukenberg tumor - Metastatic secondaries in GIT from an ovarian primaryKuttner's stumor - Sialadenitis (sialoadenitis) - Inflammation of a salivary glandPotts puffy tumor - Frontal osteomyelitis with subperiosteal abscess e:Wilms tumor - Nephroblastoma affecting children | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nail are involved in | [
"Pemphigus",
"Pemphgoid",
"Psoriasis",
"Dermatitis Herpetiformis"
] | C | C i.e. Psoriasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection. Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba keratitis was established.The following is the best drug for treatment- | [
"Propamide",
"Neosporine",
"Ketoconazole",
"Polyhexamethylene biguanide"
] | D | Polyhexamethylene biguanide PHMB (Drug of choice) Chlorhexidine is an alternative | train | med_mcqa | null |
SMART caries vaccine is a form of: | [
"Genetically modified strain of S.mutans BCS3-L1 incapable of producing lactic acid",
"Synthetic Ab prepared from transgenic tobacco plant",
"Egg yolk antibody specific for GTPase",
"Unit of cholera toxin chemically conjugated to relevant antigen"
] | A | SMART in Smart caries vaccine denotes "S. Mutans and Replacement Therapy".
Jeffrey Hillman from the University of Florida developed a genetically modified strain of Streptococcus mutans called BCS5- L1 that is incapable of producing lactic acid - the acid that dissolves tooth enamel - and aggressively replaces native flora. In laboratory tests, rats that were given BCS311 were conferred with a lifetime of protection against S. mutans. BCS3-L1 colonizes the mouth and produces a small amount of a lantibiotic, called MU1140, which allows it to outcompete S. mutans. Hillman suggested that treatment with BCSL1 in humans could also provide a lifetime of protection, or, at worst, require occasional reapplications. | train | med_mcqa | null |
NOT a feature of childhood asthma is ? | [
"History of atopic dermatitis",
"Raised IgG level",
"Improves with age",
"Absence of wheezing after exercise"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Raised IgG level Asthma Bronchial asthma is a disease characterized by an increased responsiveness of airways to a variety of stimulus and causes recurrent attacks of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and cough. The symptoms are due to bronchoconstriction which is reversible in a large majority of the cases, either spontaneously or in response to treatment. o Asthma is the commonest chronic illness during childhood. o It is a type I hypersensitivity, which is mediated by IgE IgE is raised (not IgG) Risk factors o Family history of asthma o Family history of atopic disease (Atopic dermatitis, allergic rhinitis). Bronchiolitis during infancy. Sensitization to allergenes (dust mite, animal danders, cockroaches and alternaria) during childhood. Passive smoking Response of Asthmatic patients to exercise ? Mild exercise i.e., running for 1-2 minutes caused bronchodilation in asthmatic patients and can reduce wheezing (wheezing is produced due to obstruction in bronchi). Severe exercise will cause bronchoconstriction in viually all asthmatic patients and will aggravate wheezing. Prognosis of Asthma ? The prognosis of young asthmatic children is generally good. Longitudinal studies indicate that in patients who have mild asthma the remission rate is about 50% i.e., 50% of them will be asthma free in their adulthood. In severe asthma characterized by chronic steroid dependent disease, the remission rate is very less. About 95% of them will develop into asthmatic adults. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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